25-06-2025

2302CMD303033250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Value of (1.002)3 = .....

(1) 1.008
(2) 1.004
(3) 1.006
(4) 1.005

2) Find maximum value of Y is :-

Y = 10x – 5x2 + 5

(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) Not defined

3) cos 2x = ....

(1) 1
(2) 3

(3)

(4)

4) .................... :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) If x = at3 and y = bt2, then

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Choose the correct length (L) versus square of time period (T2) graph for a simple pendulum
executing simple harmonic motion.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7)

Equation for the graph shown in the figure is :-

(1) y = 2sinθ
(2) y = 2sin2θ
(3) y = sin4θ
(4) y = 2sin4θ

8) The motion of a particle is defined by the position vector

Where t is expressed in seconds. Determine the value of t for which position vector and velocity
vector are perpendicular.

(1) 1 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) For all value of t
(4) None of these

9) A man walks 10 km due East, due North and 30 km 60° South of West. Find resultant
displacement :-

(1) 20 km, 60° South of East

(2) 5 km, 30° South of West
(3) 10 km, 60° South of West
(4) 10 km, 60° South of East

10) If and a vector whose magnitude is equal to component of A along B

and direction is along A.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11)

(1) cos(ax + b) + C
(2)

(3) a cos(ax + b) + C
(4) –a cos(ax + b) + C

12) Which of the following straight line have positive slope ?

(1) 2y – 3x = –5
(2) y + 5x = 3
(3) y = –4x + 3
(4) 3y + 5x = 4

13) The value of log10 (32) is (use log10 2 ≈ 0.301) :

(1) 1.505
(2) 1.405
(3) 2.4
(4) 0.8

14) Sum of infinite terms of a G.P. is 12. If the first term is 8, the fourth term of this G.P. is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The value of x on solving this quadratic equation is 2x2 – 7x + 5 = 0 :-

(1)
and 1

(2)
and 1

(3)
and 1

(4)
and –1

16) Which of following is/are true ?

(A) sin 37° + cos 37° = sin 53° + cos 53°
(B) sin 37° – cos 37° = cos 53° – sin 53°
(C) tan 37° + 1 = tan 53° – 1
(D) tan 37° × tan 53° = 1

(1) Only A
(2) A, B and C
(3) A, B and D
(4) All of these

17) Find the value of x1 so that

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

18) Find the slope of tangent at point P on the given graph

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) –1

19) Find the area between the graph y =x2 – 2x + 3 and x-axis between x = –1 to x = 1

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Range of sinx is

(1) [–1,1]
(2) [0,1]
(3) [–1,0]
(4) [–∞,∞]
21)

The value of (sin15° + cos15°)2 is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

22)
equation of given line is :

(1) y =
y=
(2)

y=
(3)

y=
(4)

23) If co-ordinates of a particle moving in xy–plane vary with as :-

x = t; y = then, The locus of the particle is :-

(1) Straight line

(2) Hyperbola
(3) Circle
(4) Parabola

24)

Equation for the above circle is :-

(1) (x + 3)2 + (y – 4)2 = 25
(2) (x – 3)2 + (y + 4)2 = 25
(3) (x + 3)2 + (y – 4)2 = 5
(4) None of the above

25) Which of the following can be the equation of an ellipse :-

(1) x2 + y2 = 5

(2)
=1
(3) 2x2 + 3y2 = 5
(4) (x – 2)2 + (y – 3)2 = 5

26) When three forces of 50 N, 30 N and 15 N act on a body simultaneously, then the body is :

(1) at rest
(2) moving with a uniform velocity
(3) in equilibrium
(4) moving with an acceleration

27) A hall has the dimensions 20 m × 20 m × 20 m. A fly starting at one corner ends up at a
diagonally opposite corner. The magnitude of its displacement is nearly :-

(1) 5 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 30 m

28) Angle subtended by the complete circle at its centre.

(1) 2π rad
(2) rad

(3)

(4)
29) Find the distance between the points (0,0,0) a & d (2,2,1)

(1)
(2) 2 +
(3) 3
(4) None

30) cos 74° = ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

31) is an unit vector what is the value of b

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3)
(4) 0.93

32) Which of the following physical quantities is not an axial vector?

(1) angular velocity

(2) angular momentum
(3) velocity
(4) torque

33) A vector of length is turned through the angle θ about its tail. What is the change in the
position vector of its head :-

(1) cos(θ/2)
(2) 2 sin(θ/2)
(3) 2 cos(θ/2)
(4) sin(θ/2)

34) In the triangle shown in figure, the angle between vectors and is :-
(1) 60°
(2) 120°
(3) 150°
(4) 45°

35) If vectors have an angle θ between them, then value of will be :-

2 cos
(1)

(2)
2A cos
2A sin
(3)

(4)
2 sin

36) Vectors are shown in figure then diagram of is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) If & are mutually perpendicular then :–

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) All of the above

38) Which of the following is true statement

(1) β > α
(2) α > β
(3) α = β
(4) None

39) If then angle between and will be :

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 135°
(4) 150°

40) At what angle the two vectors of magnitude (A + B) and A – B must act, so that the resultant is
?

(1)
cos–1

(2)
cos–1
cos–1
(3)

cos–1
(4)

41) If the three vectors are coplaner then find n = ?

(1) n = 2
(2) n = 12
(3) n = 3
(4) n = 1

42) If the direction of cosines of the vector are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) If the system is in equilibrium then calculate F1 and F2 :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) If and are non-collinear unit vectors and , then the value of is
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) The angle between two vectors

and

(1) Is obtuse angle

(2) Is acute angle
(3) right angle
(4) Depends on x

CHEMISTRY

1) How many moles of Ca3(PO4)2 will contain 0.04 mol of oxygen atoms ?

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.05
(3) 0.005
(4) 1

2) Which of the following will have different empirical formula :-

(1) C6H12
(2) C3H6
(3) C6H6
(4) C2H4

3) What is the mass percent of oxygen in NaOH :-

(1) 25 %
(2) 40 %
(3) 75 %
(4) 60 %

4) Mass percent of oxygen in CaCO3 is :-

(1) 33.3%
(2) 12%
(3) 48%
(4) 40%

5) Calculate number of electrons present in 9.5 g of PO43– :

(1) 6 NA
(2) 5 NA
(3) 0.1 NA
(4) 4.7 NA

6) A mixture of gases contain H2 and O2 gases in the ratio of 1:16(w/w). What is the molar ratio of the
two gases in the mixture ?

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 16 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

7) Calculate number of atoms in 12g of ozone ?

(1) NA

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The number of litres of air required to burn 4 litres of C2H2 is :

(1) 40
(2) 50
(3) 80
(4) 100

9) The oxide of a metal has 40% oxygen it’s equivalent weight would be ?

(1) 24
(2) 12
(3) 32
(4) 6

10) Which of the following have maximum number of hydrogen atoms :

(1) 1 mol of CH4

(2) 1 mol of H2O2
(3) 2 mol of HCl
(4) 1.5 mol of H2O

11) Caffeine has a molecular weight of 194. If it contains 28.9% by mass of nitrogen, number of
atoms of nitrogen in one molecule of caffeine is :

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 3

12)

The molarity of pure water is

(1) 50
(2) 18
(3) 100
(4) 55.5

13)

In the Reaction
2A + 2B + 3C A2B2C3
Starting from 5 moles of A, 4 moles of B and 10 moles of C then how many moles of product will be
formed

(1) 2.5
(2) 2
(3) 1.5
(4) 1

14)

A gas is found to have the formula (CO)x. Its vapour density is 70. The value of x must be:

(1) 7
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

15)

120 g of urea is dissolved in 180 g of water. Molality of the solution is -

(Molecular weight of urea = 60)

(1) 22.20
(2) 11.11
(3) 20
(4) 10

16)

The total number of protons in 16 g of CH4 is

(1) 10 NA
(2) 10
(3) 0.1 NA
(4) NA

17)

40 g NaOH is dissolved in 54 g of water. The mole fraction of water in solution is

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3) 1
(4) 0.50

18)

6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of solution is:

(1) 0.001 M
(2) 0.1 M
(3) 0.02 M
(4) 0.01 M

19)

Maximum number of molecules are present in:

(1) 11.2 L of H2 gas at STP

23
(2) 3.01 × 10 molecules of N2 gas
(3) 4 g of H2 gas at STP
(4) 32 g of O2 gas at STP

20)

When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g) each at STP, the moles of HCl (g) formed
is equal to:

(1) 0.5 mol of HCl (g)

(2) 1.5 mol of HCl (g)
(3) 1.0 mol of HCl (g)
(4) 2.0 mol of HCl (g)

21) An enzyme peroxidase has 5% by weight of sulphur (S = 32) its minimum molecular weight will
be–

(1) 320
(2) 640
(3) 1280
(4) 480

22) Which of the following has the greatest volume at NTP?

(1) 1 mol H2
(2) 4 g CH4
(3) 3.01 × 1023 molecules of oxygen
(4) 6.01 × 1022 molecules of ammonia

23) If the density of 2.5 M solution of NaOH is 1.2 g mL–1. Calculate the molality of the solution.

(1) 1.13 m
(2) 4.54 m
(3) 2.27 m
(4) 3.4 m

24) Number of molecules in 100 ml each of O2, NH3 and CO2 at STP are :-

(1) in the order CO2 < O2 < NH3

(2) in the order NH3 < O2 < CO2
(3) the same
(4) in the order NH3 = CO2 < O2

25) When 22.4L of N2 is mixed with 67.2L of H2 at STP, then moles of ammonia formed at STP would
be :-

(1) 1 mole
(2) 2 mole
(3) 3 mole
(4) 4 mole

26) Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid to give hydrogen and zinc chloride. The volume of hydrogen
gas produced at STP from the reaction of 6.54 g of zinc with excess HCl is – Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
(atomic mass of Zn = 65.4 g mol–1)

(1) 224 L
(2) 22.4 L
(3) 2.24 L
(4) 0.224 L

27) What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured at 0°C and 1atm, is needed to burn completely 1L of
ethylene gas measured under the same conditions?

(1) 3L
(2) 3.5L
(3) 5L
(4) 2.5L

28) Equal masses of oxygen, hydrogen and methane are taken in identical conditions. What is the
ratio of the volumes of the gases under identical conditions?

(1) 16 : 1 : 8
(2) 1 : 16 : 2
(3) 1 : 16 : 8
(4) 2 : 16 : 1

29) Which of the following pairs of substances illustrate the law of multiple proportions?

(1) CO and CO2

(2) H2O and D2O
(3) NaCl and NaBr
(4) MgO and Mg(OH)2

30) How many grams of hydrogen chloride (HCl) are required to prepare 4 litre of 5 M HCl solution
in water ?

(1) 320 g
(2) 270 g
(3) 730 g
(4) 520 g

31) Assertion : Molality of the solution does not change with temperature.
Reason : Molarity of the solution change with temperature.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

32) The vapour density of a gas is 11.2. The volume occupied by 1.6 g of gas at NTP would be :-

(1) 2.4 litre

(2) 3.2 litre
(3) 4.8 litre
(4) 1.6 litre

33) Limiting reagent in a chemical reaction is that reactant which :-

(1) Left some amount unreacted after the completion of reaction

(2) Gets consumed and limits the amount of product formed
(3) Does not react in the reaction
(4) All of these

34) A hydrocarbon contains 90% of carbon. Then its molecular formula is :-

(1) CH4
(2) C2H6
(3) C3H4
(4) C2H2
35) The mass of CO2 produced by heating 10 g sample of 20% pure CaCO3 is :-

(1) 0.44 g
(2) 0.22 g
(3) 0.88 g
(4) 0.11 g

36) On analysis, a certain compound was found to contain iodine and oxygen in the mass ratio
of 254:80. The formula of the compound is : (At mass I = 127, O = 16)

(1) I2O3
(2) I2O4
(3) I4O5
(4) I2O5

37) If 0.5 mol of CaBr2 is mixed with 0.2 mol of K3PO4 then the maximum number of moles of
Ca3(PO4)2 obtained will be :- 3CaBr2 + 2K3PO4 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 6KBr

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.7
(4) 0.1

38) Match the following columns :

Column-I Column-II
(Given sample) (Mole of sample)

6.02 × 1023
(i) (a) 0.1
molecules of H2O

(ii) 5.6 L of O2 at STP (b) 0.2

(iii) 1.8 mL of H2O(ℓ) at STP (c) 1

(iv) 0.2 g atom of Nitrogen (d) 0.25

(1) (i)–(b), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(c)
(2) (i)–(a), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(c), (iv)–(b)
(3) (i)–(c), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(b)
(4) (i)–(d), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(b)

39) Molecular weight of dibasic acid is W. Its equivalent weight will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 2W
(4) 3W

40) The mass of CaCO3 required to react completely with 20 mL of 1.0 M HCl as per the reaction,
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O is :

(1) 1 g
(2) 2 g
(3) 10 g
(4) 20 g

41) The number of atoms present in 0.1 mole of a triatomic gas is –

(1) 1.8 × 1022

(2) 6.02 × 1022
(3) 1.8 × 1023
(4) 3.6 × 1023

42) In the reaction,

When 3 moles of SO2 and 2 moles of O2 are made to react to completion, then
|. All the SO2 is consumed
ll. 1 mole of O2 is remained
lll. 3 moles of SO3 is produced
The correct statements are

(1) I and II only

(2) I and IIl only
(3) Il and III only
(4) 1, and Il and III

43) 1 amu in kg is ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) What mass of sodium acetate (CH3COONa) is required to make 500 mL of 0.375 M aqueous
solution?

(1) 16.38 g
(2) 15.375 g
(3) 14.38 g
(4) 15.75 g

45) What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution that has a density.1.84 g/cc at 35°C and contains 98%
H2SO4 by weight?

(1) 1.84 M
(2) 81.4 M
(3) 18.4 M
(4) 184 M

BOTANY

1) The given diagram shows sectional view of plasma membrane. Find out the labelled part and their

function.

A B C D

Tunnel
Glycoprotein-
protein- Lipid Cholestrol-
(1) Cell to cell
polar Bilayer stability
recognition
molecule

Tunnel
Glycoprotein-
protein- Lipid Cholestrol-
(2) Cell to cell
polar Bilayer stability
recognition
molecule

Tunnel
Glycoprotein-
protein- Cholestrol- Lipid
(3) Cell to cell
polar stability Bilayer
recognition
molecule

Tunnel
Glycoprotein-
protein- Lipid Cholestrol-
(4) Cell to cell
polar Bilayer stability
recognition
molecule
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Inclusion body is/are :-

(1) Phosphate granules
(2) Cynophycean granules
(3) Glycogen granules
(4) All of above

3) The genetic material of bacteria is referred to as "naked" because :-

(1) It is not associated with histone proteins

(2) It is not enveloped by a nuclear membrane
(3) It is not surrounded with cell membrane
(4) It is not associated with non histone proteins

4) According to fluid-mosalc model, the quasi-fluid nature of ............enables lateral movement of

............ within the overall bilayer. This ability to move within the membrane is measured as its ....
(i) Carbohydrates (ii) Lipids
(iii) Proteins (iv)Fluidity
(v) Selective permeability
Correct sequence is :

(1) ii, iii, iv

(2) iii, i, iv
(3) iii, ii, v
(4) i, ii, iv

5) Which of the following statement is/are correct ?

(a) Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all unicellular organisms only because
these organisms are capable of independent existance.
(b) The concentration of ions in vacuole is higher than in the cytoplasm because tonoplast facilitates
the transport of ions against concentration gradient into the vacuole.
(c) Cell organelle with cartwheel like organisation has 9 + 0 arrangement of microtubules with 9
peripheral doublets and absence of microtubules in centre.
(d) In submetacentric chromosome, the centromere is situated close to its end forming one
extremely short and one very long arm.

(1) a , b , c & d
(2) b, c & d only
(3) b & c only
(4) b only

6)

Cell wall is the outermost covering in plant cell which :-

A. Protects the cell from infection.
B. Shows the selectively permeable nature
C. Helps in cell-to-cell interaction.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) Only C
(4) A and C

7) The matrix of mitochondria possesses :

_____A____ and _____ B _____

A - helical DNA
(1)
B- Ribosomes (80S)
A - circular DNA
(2)
B- Ribosomes (80S)
A - helical DNA
(3)
B- Ribosomes (70S)
A - circular DNA
(4)
B- Ribosomes (70S)

8) Sedimentation cofficient is indirect measure of-

(1) Length of cell

(2) Quantity of ribosomes
(3) Density and size of ribosome
(4) Hydrolytic nature of lysosome

9) Match the following -

Column-I Column-II

A. Peroxysome (i) Proteases

B. Lysosome (ii) Catalase

C. Mitochondria (iii) RUBISCO

D. Chloroplast (iv) Succinate dehydrogenase

(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-iv

10) Which of the following is the correct sequence/route of the secretory product ?

(1) ER → Vesicles → Cis region of GB → Trans region of GB → Vesicles → Plasma membrane

(2) RER → GB → Lysosome → Nuclear membrane → Plasma membrane
(3) ER → Vesicles → Trans region of GB → Cis region of GB → Vesicles →Plasma membrane
(4) Lysosome → ER → GB → Vesicles → Cell membrane

11) Section of Cilia/flagella shows :

 Peripheral Central
Radial Central
Microtubules Microtubules
spoke Sheath
(Doublet) (Singlet)

(1) 9+0 2 8 1

(2) 9+2 9+0 9 1

(3) 9 2 9 1

(4) 3 6 9 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Select the option with correct sequence of cell envelope layers outside to inside in a prokaryotic
cell.

(1) Cell wall → Plasma membrane → Glycocalyx

(2) Cell wall → Glycocalyx → Plasma membrane
(3) Glycocalyx → Cell wall → Plasma membrane
(4) Plasma membrane → Cell wall → Glycocalyx

13) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement A: Nucleolus is non membranous and its material is continuous with nucleoplasm.
Statement B: Pili and fimbriae are surface structures of bacteria that help in motility.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

14) ‘Golgi apparatus remains in close association with endoplasmic reticulum’.

Which of the given options most likely explain the above said statement?

(1) Golgi apparatus principally performs the function of packaging materials

Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER fuse with the cis face of the golgi
(2)
apparatus and move towards the maturing face
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum often shows ribosomes attached to their outer surface
(4) Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids

15) Read the given statements stating them true (T) or false (F) and select the correct option.
A) Secondary wall is formed on the inner side of the primary wall.
B) The cell wall and middle lamella may be traversed by plasmodesmata which connect the
cytoplasm of neighbouring cells.
C) Cell wall helps in intercellular communication.
D) The matrix of mitochondria and stroma of chloroplast contains enzyme required for synthesis of
protein.
(1) A - T, B - T, C - T, D - T
(2) A - F, B - T, C - T, D - T
(3) A - T, B - F, C - T, D - F
(4) A - F, B - T, C - T, D - F

16) Chromatin contains :-

A) DNA
B) Basic protein
C) RNA
D) Non-histone protein
Choose the correct ones

(1) Only A & C

(2) Only A & B
(3) Only A, B & C
(4) All A, B, C & D

17) Select the incorrect match w.r.t. types of chromosomes and their characteristics.

(1) Metacentric - Has middle centromere

(2) Sub-metacentric - Has two equal arms
(3) Acrocentric - Has one extremely shorter arm and one longer arm
(4) Telocentric - Has a terminal centromere

18) Arrange the following in ascending order w.r.t. their sizes.

A. PPLO
B. Typical bacteria
C. Viruses

(1) C < A < B

(2) A < B < C
(3) B < A < C
(4) C < B < A

19) A. These are concentrically arranged near the nucleus.

B. They have distinct faces, but remains interconnected.
C. Size ranges 0.5 µm to 1 µm diameter.
The above features (A-C) are attributed to which of the given components in the cell?

(1) Luminal compartment of Endoplasmic Reticulum

(2) Extra luminal compartment of Endoplasmic Reticulum
(3) Cisternae of Golgi apparatus
(4) Cristae of mitochondria

20) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. centrioles.

(1) It forms the basal body of cilia or flagella

(2) It forms spindle fibres that give rise to spindle apparatus during cell division in animal cell
(3) It is an organelle usually containing two cylindrical structures called centrosome
(4) Centrioles has an organisation like cartwheel

21) (I) The vacuoles are bounded by single membrane called _____(A)_____.
(II) The concentration of ions is _____(B)_____ in the vacuole than in the cytoplasm.

(1) A-Plasma membrane; B-Lower

(2) A-Tonoplast; B-Lower
(3) A-Tonoplast; B-Higher
(4) A-Tonoplast; B-Equal

22) Microtubules takes part in :-

(1) Formation of spindle fibres

(2) Formation of cilia and flagella
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Cyclosis

23) Assertion :- ER, golgibodies, lysosomes and vacuoles in plants are members of endomembrane
system.
Reason :- The functions of ER, golgi bodies, lysosomes and vacuoles are co-ordinated.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

24) Statement I : Nuclear pore are formed by the fusion of its two membranes.
Statement II : Nucleolus is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement I is incorrect
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

25) Mitochondria :-
(a) are easily visible under the microscope (without specifically stained)
(b) are typically sausage-shaped or cylindrical
(c) are double membrane bound structure
(d) have two aqueous compartments

(1) a, d correct and b, c incorrect

(2) a, b correct and c,d incorrect
(3) a incorrect and b, c, d correct
(4) a, d incorrect and b, c correct
26) Which of the following is not found in vacoules ?

(1) Excretory product

(2) Material not useful for the cell
(3) Food
(4) Hydrolytic enzymes

27) Assertion : The tonoplast facilitates the transport of a number of ions and other materials
against concentration gradient into the vacoule.
Reason : The concentration of ions and other materials is significantly lower in the vacoule than in
the cytoplasm.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

28) Statement-I : RER are extensive and continuous with the outer membrane of the nucleus.
Statement-II : RER is the major site for synthesis of steroidal hormones.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

29) Statement-I : The interphase nucleus has highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein fibres
called chromatin.
Statement-II : During cell division, cells show structured chromosomes in place of the nucleus.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II are incorrect

30) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

Formed on the inner side of the

(a) Primary wall (i)
primary cell wall

Holds the different neighboring

(b) Secondary wall (ii)
cells together

(c) Middle lamella (iii) Capable of growth

(d) Tonoplast (iv) Selective permeable

(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

31) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) Cilia causing the movement of either the cell or the surrounding fluid
(2) Nucleoplasm contains nucleolus and chromatin
(3) In cell cycle, S-phase of Interphase is longest phase
(4) Flagella are comparatively longer than cilia

32) Anthocyanin is present in :

(1) Ribosome
(2) Endoplasmic Reticulam
(3) Golgi body
(4) Vacuole

33) Which of the following occurs only in plants?

(1) Glyoxysomes
(2) Peroxisomes
(3) Periplasmic space
(4) Ribosomes

34) According to fluid mosaic model, the lipids are arranged within the membrane with:

(1) The non polar head towards the outer side and the polar tail towards the inner part.
(2) The non polar head towards the inner part and the polar tail towards the outer side.
(3) The polar head towards the outer side and the hydrophobic tail towards the inner part.
(4) The polar head towards the inner part and the hydrophobic tail towards the outer sides

35) Euchromatin is lightly stained as compared to heterochromatin by acetocarmine because -

(1) It has lesser DNA

(2) Having more histone protein
(3) Having lesser RNA
(4) Having more non histone protein
36) Study the given diagram and mark the correct option :-

(1) F : Cell in this stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate
(2) A : DNA replicates in nucleus and centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm
(3) D : Constitutes more than 95% duration of cell cycle
(4) C : Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication

37) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(I) S phase (i) Most of organelles duplication

(II) G1 phase (ii) Tubulin proteins are synthesised

(III) Anaphase (iii) DNA Replication

(IV) G2 phase (iv) Centromere split

(1) I-ii, II-iii, III-iv, IV-i
(2) I-i, II-iv, III-ii, IV-iii
(3) I-iii, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii
(4) I-iii, II-ii, III-i, IV-iv

38) In 'S' phase of the cell cycle :-

(1) Chromosomes number is increased

(2) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell
(3) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell
(4) Amount of DNA is increased to half in each cell.

39) Select the events that do not occur in interphase stage of cell cycle :-
(a) RNA and protein synthesis
(b) Cytoplasmic growth
(c) Polymerisation of spindle fiber protein
(d) Disappearance of golgi bodies and ER
(e) Condensation of chromatin
(1) c, d and e
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b and c

40) If the cell had diploid or 2n number of chromosomes at G1, after S phase the number of
chromosomes in the cell will be :-

(1) 2n
(2) 4n
(3) n
(4) 3n

41) Phase of cell cycle in which cell differentiates:-

(1) G0-phase
(2) G1-phase
(3) G2-phase
(4) M-phase

42) In higher plant cell, during the S-phase DNA replication begins in the nucleus and :-

(1) the centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm

(2) histone protein synthesised
(3) the number of DNA molecules remains same
(4) all proteins of the cell are synthesised

43) It is significant to note that in the 24 hour average duration of cell cycle of human cell, cell
division proper lasts for only about :-

(1) four hours

(2) 90 minutes
(3) an hour
(4) 10 hours

44) The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesises the other constituents
of cells and eventually divides into two daughter cells is termed as :-

(1) Cytology
(2) Cell division
(3) Cell cycle
(4) Cell biology

45) Once heart cells become mature, they do not usually undergo cell division. The cell cycle of the
mature heart cells become arrested and this phase of cell cycle is known as :-
(1) G2 phase
(2) M-phase
(3) G1 phase
(4) G0 phase

ZOOLOGY

1) Which junction allow the cardiac cells to contract as a unit?

(1) Adhering junction

(2) Communicating junction
(3) Desmosome
(4) Tight junction

2) This structure has dense irregular connective tissue

(1) Cartilage
(2) Blood
(3) Squamous epithelia
(4) Skin

3) Match the following and choose the correct option,

Column - I Column - II

(A) Adipose tissue (i) Nose

(B) Stratified epithelium (ii) Blood

(C) Hyaline cartilage (iii) Skin

(D) Fluid connective tissue (iv) Fat storage

(1) A) i; B) ii; C) iii; D) iv
(2) A) iv; B) iii; C) i; D) ii
(3) A) iii; B) i; C) iv; D) ii
(4) A) ii; B) i; C) iv; D) iii
4) Choose the correct statements regarding the diagram mentioned below
(a) Striated, Voluntary muscles
(b) Present in the wall of Blood vessels, stomach & intestine
(c) Communication junctions at some points allow the cells to contract as a unit
(d) Attached to bones through tendons
(e) Striated involuntary muscles

(1) a,c and d only

(2) c and e only
(3) b,c and e only
(4) a and c only

5) The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are example of:

(1) Ligament
(2) Areolar tissue
(3) Bone
(4) Cartilage

6) Which epithelium found in ducts of salivary glands ?

(1) Compound epithelium

(2) Columner epithelium
(3) Glandular columner epithelium
(4) Cuboidal epithelium

7) Statement-I: Tight junctions perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.

Statement-II: Some of columnar or cuboidal cells get specialised for secretion and are called
glandular epithelium.

(1) Both statement-I and II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.
8) Match the column-I with column-II.

(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

9) Assertion : Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective tissue located mainly beneath the skin.
Reason : The cells of this tissue are specialised to store fats and loosely arranged in a semi-fluid
ground substance.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion & reason both are incorrect

10) Match the column I and II and select correct option

Column-I Column-II

(a) Cuboidal cells (P) Having cilia on free surface

(b) Compound Epithelium (Q) composed of tall & slender cells

(c) Columner epithelium (R) duct of simple glands

(d) Cliliated epithelium (S) Epidermis of skin

(1) (a)–R, (b)–S, (c)–Q, (d)–P
(2) (a)–R, (b)–S, (c)–P, (d)–Q
(3) (a)–S, (b)–R, (c)–Q, (d)–P
(4) (a)–R, (b)–Q, (c)–S, (d)–P

11) In which part of the body following gland are present

(1) Alimentary canal
(2) Salivary gland
(3) Gall bladder
(4) All of these

12) How many are not include in specialised connective tissue?

Bone, Adipose, blood, areolar, cartilage

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

13) Areolar tissues contain

(1) T lymphocytes tissue and B lymphocytes

(2) Fibroblast, macrophages, mast cells
(3) Fibroblast cells only
(4) Fibroblasts and fat globules only

14) ___________ do not exhibit any striations, are unbranched and their activities are not under the
voluntary control of nervous system.

(1) Cardiac muscles

(2) Visceral muscles
(3) Skeletal muscles
(4) Voluntary muscles

15) Striated muscle fibres are found in

(1) Urinary bladder

(2) Lungs
(3) Gall bladder
(4) Leg muscles
16) Skeletal muscle fibres differ from cardiac muscle fibres

(1) As they are striped in appearance

(2) As they are cylindrical in shape
(3) Because they lack gap junctions
(4) As they are involuntary in nature

17) Which of the following properties are related to smooth muscles.

Tapering ends, Unstriated, involuntary, Cell junction, intercalated discs, branched.

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 2

18) The gaps between two adjacent myelin sheaths are called

(1) Neurilemma
(2) Nodes of Ranvier
(3) Sarcolemma
(4) Axoplasm

19)

Study the structures labelled A, B, C and D. Answer the question given below.

Which path of transmission is correct?

(1) A → B → C
(2) B → A → C
(3) C → B → A
(4) B → A → B → C
20) Nissl's granules are found in ............ and helps in............ :-

(1) Cyton only, lipid synthesis respectively

(2) Cyton and Axon, Proteinsynthesis respectively
(3) Dendron and Axon, Proteinsynthesis respectively
(4) Dendron and cyton, Proteinsynthesis respectively

21) Match the following with respect to the average composition of cells.

% of the total
Component
cellular mass

a. Proteins (i) 5-7

b. Carbohydrates (ii) 3

c. Lipids (iii) 10-15

d. Nucleic acids (iv) 2

(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

22) Most abundant element in human body is :-

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Oxygen
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Carbon

23) Given below is the structure of :-

(1) oleic acid

(2) Galactose
(3) Arachidonic acid
(4) Palmitic acid

24) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) Lipids are generally water insoluble.
(b) The R group could be a methyl (–CH3) or ethyl (–C2H5) or higher no. of –CH2 group (1 carbon to
19 carbon) in fatty acids
(c) Palmitic acid has 16 carbons including the carboxyl carbon.
(d) Arachidonic acid has 21 carbon atom including the carboxyl carbon.
Option

(1) Statement (a), (b) and (c)

(2) Statement (a), (b) only
(3) Statement (c), (d) only
(4) Statement (a), (c) and (d)

25) Glucose is :-

(1) Hexose
(2) Heptose
(3) Pentose
(4) Tetrose

26) How many of the statements are correct from following :-

(A) Exoskeleton of Arthropods made up of chitin.
(B) N - acetyl - D - Galactosamine is modified sugar.
(C) Starch forms helical structure.
(D) Cellulose is micromolecule.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of certain type of polysaccharide identify the parts

labelled ABCD and select the right option about them :-

Part A Part B Part C Part D

α(1–6) α(1–4)
Branching Linear
(1) glycosidic glycosidic
chain chain
linkage linkage

α(1–4) α(1–6)
Linear Branching
(2) glycosidic glycosidic
chain chain
linkage linkage

α(1–6) α(1–4)
Branching Linear
(3) glycosidic glycosidic
chain chain
linkage linkage

α(1–6) α(1–4)
Linear Branching
(4) glycosidic glycosidic
chain chain
linkage linkage

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Carbohydrates are -

(1) Polymers of fatty acids

(2) Polymers of amino acids
(3) Polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones
(4) None

29) A phosphoglyceride is always made up of :-

only unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to, which a phosphate group is also
(1)
attached
saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to, which a phosphate
(2)
group is also attached
only saturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group, which is also attached to a glycerol
(3)
molecule
saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group, which is also attached to a
(4)
glycerol molecule

30) Identify the given structure and their nature :-

Structure Nature

(1) Glucose Reducing

(2) Glucose Non reducing

(3) Maltose Reducing

(4) Fructose Reducing

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31)

Which category of organic compounds is most abundant in animal cells ?

(1) Carbohydrates
(2) Protein
(3) Water
(4) Nucleic acids

32) Following are the statements with reference to 'lipids'.

(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids.
(b) Glycerol has three 'OH' group
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
Identify the correct statements and choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (b) and (e) only

33) Which of the following is micromolecule ?

(1) Lecithin
(2) Maltose
(3) Cellulose
(4) Both (1) and (2)

34) In a polysaccharide chain, the right end is called ____A____ the end and the left end is called the
___B___ end. Fill the blanks A and B by selecting the correct option.
A B
(1) Non-reducing Reducing
(2) Non-reducing Non-reducing
(3) Reducing Reducing
(4) Reducing Non-reducing

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) All the elements present in a sample of earth's crust arc also present in a sample of living tissue
The relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen with respect to other elements is higher in any
(2)
living organism than in earth's crust
(3) The % weight of nitrogen in earth's crust is very high in comparison to human body
(4) The % weight of silicon in earth's crust is very high in comparison to human body

36) The most abundant chemical in living organism could be

(1) Protein
(2) Water
(3) Sugar
(4) Nucleic acid

37) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement-A : Elemental analysis shows that all the elements present in a sample of earth’s crust
are also present in a sample of living tissue.
Statement-B: The relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen with respect to other elements is
lower in any living organism than in earth’s crust.

(1) Both statements A and B are correct.

(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
(3) Only statement A is correct.
(4) Only statement B is correct.

38) Match column-I with column-II :

Column-II
Column-I
(% weight of human
(Element)
body)

(A) Oxygen (I) 3.3

(B) Carbon (II) 18.5

(C) Hydrogen (III) 0.5

(D) Nitrogen (IV) 65

(1) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
(2) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(3) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(4) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV

39) Match the Column-I with Column-II and find the correct codes given below:

Column-I Column-II

(A) Lactose (i) Fruit sugar

(B) Sucrose (ii) Food translocation in plants

(C) Fructose (iii) Milk sugar

(D) Glucosamine (iv) Modified sugar

(1) (A)–(iii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(ii), (D)–(i)
(2) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(i), (D)–(iii)
(3) (A)–(iii), (B)–(ii), (C)–(i), (D)–(iv)
(4) (A)–(iv), (B)–(iii), (C)–(ii), (D)–(i)

40) Given below are the diagrammatic representations of organic compounds in living tissue
 A B

C D

When one has to perform a chemical analysis, which of the following organic compounds will be
present in filtrate ?
(1) A, B and E
(2) A, B and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) C and E

41) A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose. If the formula for
glucose is then what is the formula for maltose?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

42) The below given bar diagram represents the cellular components with their % of the total
cellular mass. If B represents protein component, then which of the following will represent the
carbohydrates component?
(1) A
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E

43) I. Molecular weight ranging from

less than 1000 Dalton approximately
II. Has four type of organic compounds proteins, nucleic acids, polysaccharides and lipids
III. Contain chemicals that have molecular weight more than 1000 Dalton
IV. Has monomers
V. Has generally polymers except lipid
VI. Mostly micromolecules
VII. Generally macromolecules
How many of the above statements (I-VII) are correct regarding A & B respectively ?

A B

(1) I, II, III IV, V, VI, VIII

(2) II, IV, VI I, III, V, VII

(3) I, IV, VI II, III, V, VII

(4) I, III, V II, IV, VI, VII

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Arrange the components of a cell in ascending order according to percentage of the total cellular
mass?

(1) Lipids < Ions < Water < Carbohydrate

(2) Ions < Nucleic Acid < Water < Carbohydrate
(3) Lipids < Carbohydrate < Nucleic Acid < Protein
(4) Nucleic Acid < Lipids< Carbohydrate< Protein

45) Identify the given structure :

(1) It is structure of deoxyribose

(2) It is component of deoxyribonucleotide
(3) It is 6 carbons monosaccharide
(4) It is present in RNA
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 3 3 4 2 1 1 1 1 3 2 1 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 2 1 3 4 3 1 3 2 3 3 2 3 4 2 4 1 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 3 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 2 3 2 3 4 2 2 1 1 4 2 3 2 1 2 4 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 3 3 2 3 1 2 1 3 2 4 2 3 3 4 4 3 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 3 2 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 2 1 4 4 4 3 2 1 3 3 1 2 1 4 2 1 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 1 3 3 4 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 3 1 1 3 3 1 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 2 3 3 4

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 2 4 2 2 4 1 3 4 1 1 2 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 1 4
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 2 4 1 1 3 2 3 2 1 2 3 4 4 3 2 3 1 3 2
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 3 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) (1.002)3 = (1 + 0.002)3
By binomial theorem
= [1 + 3(0.002)]
= 1.006

2)

10 - 10x = 0
x=1

x = 1 will resp. max. value of y

so,
= 10

3) Explanation :
The definite integral of cos(2x) from 0 to π/4 Concept: Integreation
Formula :

Integration of cos(ax) :

Definite Integral :
where F(x) is the antiderivative of f(x)
Calculation :
Evaluating from 0 to π/4
\(\eqalign{ & \left[ {\frac{1}{2}\sin (2x)} \right]_0^{\pi /4} \cr & = \frac{1}{2}\sin (2
\times \frac{\pi }{4}) - \frac{1}{2}\sin (2 \times 0) \cr & = \frac{1}{2}\sin (\frac{\pi }{2}) -
\frac{1}{2}\sin (0) \cr & = \frac{1}{2} \times 1 - \frac{1}{2} \times 0 \cr & = \frac{1}{2}
\cr} \)
Final Answer:
The definite integral is 1/2
Correct Option: Option 3 (1/2)

4)

=
5)

6)

7)

y = 2sin4θ

8)

at all values of t

9) ,

10)

Unit vector along A =

Component of along

11)
Let, ax + b = t
12)

Comparing,
y = mx + c

13)
= 5 × 0.301
= 1.505

14)

if r < 1

8 = 12 - 12r
– 4 = –12r

r=

15)

16)

Using,

A, B, D are correct

17)
Area covered with x-axis = 5
18)

Slope =

=
= 2x
At x = 2
Slope = 2 × 2
=4

19)

20)

21)

Question Explanation :
This question asks to evaluate the value of (sin 15º + cos 15º)2. We need to expand and
simplify the expression to find the correct value.
Concept Based :
This question is based on Trigonometric Identities and Algebraic Expansion.
Formula :
(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2.
Calculation :
Let α = sin 15º and b = cos 15º.
(sin 15º + F cos 15º)2 = sin2 15º + 2 sin 15º cos 15º + cos2 15º
Using the identity sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1 and 2 sin θ cos θ = sin 2θ, we get:
= 1 + sin 30º

Since sin 30º = , the expression becomes:

Answer :

The correct answer is Option (3) :

Level : Medium
22)

Slope = m = tan (–30°) =

Intercept = c = 4
As y = mx + c

So

23)

x = t ............(1)

y = ............(2)
Put t from (1) into (2)

Hyperbola

24)
Where (a, b) = (-3, 4)
r=5
so equation of circle

25)

Which is equation of ellipse.

26) Resultant of 50N, 30 N & 15 N is always non-zero. So body will always accelerated.

27)

28)

angle =

29)
=
 = 3 unit

30)

31) =1
0.09 + b2 + 0.16 = 1
b=

32) 1. Asking About: Axial vector.

2. Concept: Types of vector
3. Soln/ Explanation: Vector's having there direction along the axis is called axial vector.

33)
Δx = change in position vector of head

= 2ℓsin

34)

Angle between and

180° – 30° = 150°

35) 1. Asking About:

The problem asks us to find the magnitude of the difference between the unit vectors and ,
which are in the direction of and respectively.
2. Concept:

A. The magnitude of the difference of two unit vectors and depends on the angle θ between
them.
B. Unit vectors have a magnitude of 1, and their direction represents the direction of the original
vectors.

3. Formula:
To calculate
Expanding this:

Since , we simplify:

Using the trigonometric identity we get:

4. Solution/Explanation:
The magnitude of depends on the angle θ between the vectors. By substituting into the

formula, we find that

5. Final Answer:

Option 4 :

36)

37)

All of the above

38) ⇒α<β

39)

Given
⇒
⇒
⇒1+2+

⇒ ⇒ θ = 135°

40)

A2 + B2 = A2 + B2 + 2AB + A2 + B2 – 2AB + 2 (A2 – B2) cos θ

A2 + B2 = 2 (B2 – A2) cos θ
 41)

42) cos α = , cos β = ; cos γ =

43) F1 cos60° = F2 cos30°

F1 sin60° + F2 sin30° = 3

44) ,
⇒

⇒ cosθ =
⇒ θ = 60°(Angle between and )
Now,

=
= 1 – 13
= 1 – 13 (1.1.cos60°)

45) Angle between two vectors is given by

=0

CHEMISTRY

46)
Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks how many moles of calcium phosphate
(Ca₃(PO₄)₂) contain a specific amount (0.04 moles) of oxygen atoms. Essentially, it wants
to find the amount of the compound that corresponds to a given number of oxygen moles.

Underlying Concept: The problem is based on mole concept and chemical composition. One
mole of a compound contains a fixed number of atoms of each element as determined by its
chemical formula. Here, we focus on oxygen atoms within calcium phosphate and convert
between moles of atoms and moles of the compound.

Relevant Formulas: Number of moles of element atoms in compound = (number of moles of

compound) × (number of atoms of that element in the formula). Variables: n = number of
moles of compound, given moles of oxygen atoms, number of oxygen atoms per formula unit.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1 mole of Ca₃(PO₄)₂ contains 2 phosphate groups

(PO₄)²⁻, each having 4 oxygen atoms, so total oxygen atoms per mole = 2 × 4 = 8
moles of O atoms. To find moles of Ca₃(PO₄)₂ for 0.04 moles of oxygen atoms:
n = \frac{0.04\, \text{mol O}}{8} = 0.005\, \text{mol Ca}_3(\text{PO}_4)_2

Tips and Tricks: Remember to multiply the number of oxygen atoms in one POâ‚„ group by
the number of such groups per formula unit to get total oxygen atoms per mole of compound.

Common Mistakes: Students often forget to multiply oxygen atoms by the number of
phosphate groups, leading to incorrect total oxygen atoms. Another mistake is confusing atoms
with moles or directly equating number of moles of oxygen atoms to moles of compound.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices like 0.5 or 0.05 arise from ignoring the total
oxygen atoms per formula unit or miscalculating divisions. The correct answer must account
for the 8 oxygen atoms per mole of compound, so 0.005 mol is correct.

47) E.F. of C6H6 = CH

48) mass % of O in NaOH = = 40%

49) % by mass of oxygen

= = 48%

50) Number of electrons =

51) H2 : O2
weight 1 : 16
mole

1:1

52) Mole =
No. of atoms = n × NA × Atomicity

53) C2H2 +

Volume of O2 =
Volume of air = 10 × 5 = 50 litre.

54) Eq. Wt. of metal =

55) 1 mol of CH4 have 4NA atoms of hydrogen

1 mol of H2O2 have 2NA atoms of hydrogen
2 mol of HCl have 2NA atoms of hydrogen
1.5 mol of H2O have 3NA atoms of hydrogen

56) Let there are x-atoms of N

% of N = 28.9 = ⇒ x=4

57)

Molarity of pure water = 55.5 m (it is fixed)

58)
2 moles of B produced = 1 mol A2B2C3

1 mole of B produced = mol A2B2C3

4 mole of B produced = ×4
= 2 mol A2B2C3

59)

Molecular weight = 2 × VD
= 2 × 70 = 140
(CO)x = 140
28 × x =140
X=5

60)

= 11.11

61)

No. of proton in 1 molecule of CH4 = 10 proton

n= =1
No. of proton = n × NA × No. of protons in 1 molecule
= 10 NA

62)

nNaOH = =1

=3

= = 0.75

63)

Concentration (Molarity) = Number of moles of solute/V(L)

= 0.01 M

64)

(1) 11.2 L of H2 gas = 0.5 mol

 No. of molecules = 0.5 NA
(2) 3.01 × 1023 molecules of N2 gas = 0.5 mol
No. of molecules = 0.5 NA
(3) 4 g of H2 gas = 2 mol
No. of molecules = 2 NA
(4) 32 g of O2 gas = 1 mol
No. of molecules = NA

65)

H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl

22.4 11.2 1.0 mol of HCl(g)
(LR)

66) Min. M.W. =

67)

Question Explanation
To determine greatest volume at NTP in following.
Solution/Explanation/Calculation :-
Volume = n.22.4
(1) n = 1 mol of H2
V = 1.22.4 = 22.4 (greatest)
(2) w = 4g of CH4

(3) no. of molecules = 3.01 × 1023 molecules of O2

(4) no. of molecules = 6.01 × 1022 molecules of NH3

Hence, option (1) is correct.

68) (NCERT-2017, Pg-20)

M = 2.5 (given)
Mass of NaOH in 1 L solution = 2.5 × 40 = 100g
Mass of 1 L solution = V × d = 1000mL × 1.2gmL–1
= 1200g
Mass of water in solution = 1200 – 100
= 1100g or 1.1 Kg

∵ Molality (m)
m = 2.27
69)

NCERT, Pg. # 18

70)

NCERT, Pg. # 15

71) n = = 10–1
Volume at STP is = 10–1 × 22.4 = 2.24 L

72)
1 mole of C2H4(g) requires 3 moles of O2(g)
∴ 1L of C2H4(g) requires 3L of O2(g)

73)

74) [Old NCERT Page-15]

75) moles of HCl = Molarity × Volume

= 5 × 4 = 20 mole
mass of HCl = 36.5 × 20 = 730 g

76)

1 volume dependent concentration terms depend on temperature

(Ex - molarity)

77)

Mw = 2 × V.D. = 2 × 11.2 = 22.4

78) NCERT Pg. # 18

79)

Carbon % = 90% ⇒ Hydrogen% = 10%

 ⇒ Simplest mole ratio of C : H =
Molecular formula of compound is C3H4

80) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

mole = 0.02
mole of CO2 = 0.02
mass of CO2 = 0.02 × 44 = 0.88 g

81) 1- Explaining the question:

The question provides the mass ratio of iodine and oxygen in a compound and asks for the
compound's formula, given their atomic masses.

2- Concept:
To find the empirical formula:

A. Convert mass to moles moles → mass ÷ atomic mass

B. Find the simplest whole-number mole ratio

3- Solution:
Mass of l = 254g
Mass of O = 80 g
Atomic mass of l = 127g / mol
Atomic mass of d = 16g / mol
Moles of I = 254 ÷ 127 = 2mol
Moles of O = 80 ÷ 16 = 5mol
Mole ratio 1:0 2:5 → empirical formula = 12O5

4- Final answer: Option (4): 12O5

82) 3CaBr2 + 2K3PO4 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 6KBr

t = 0 0.5 mol 0.2 mol 0 0
(L.R.)
After reaction
0.5 – 0.3 0 0.1 mol 0.6 mol
= 0.2 mol

83) 1. Explaining the question

This question asks us to match quantities of substances in Column-1 with their corresponding
mole amounts in Column-Il using Avogadro's number, molar volume at STP, and the
relationship between grams and moles.

2. Concept
Avogadro's Number: 1 mole contains 6.022 × 1023 particles.
Molar Volume at STP: 1 mole of any gas occupies 22.4 L at STP.
Density: Density of water is approximately 1 g/mL.
Gram atom: 1 gram atom of an element equals 1 mole.

3. Solution
(i) 6.02 x 1023 molecules of H2O: Moles = (6.02 × 1025)/(6.022 × 1023) ≈ 1 mol. Matches with
(c).
(ii) 5.6 L of O2 at STP: Moles = 5.6 L/22.4 L/mol = 0.25 mol. Matches with (d).
(iii) 1.8 mL of H2O: Moles = 1.8 g/18 g/mol = 0.1 mol. Matches with (a).
(iv) 0.2 g atom of Nitrogen: Moles = 0.2 mol. Matches with (b).

4. Final answer
The correct matching is: (i) (c), (ii) (d), (iii) (a), (iv) (b).
Therefore, the correct option is 3.

84)

85)

CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O

According to equation,1 mole of CaCO3 reacts completely with 2 moles of HCl.
Number of moles of

HCl = × 1 mole = 0.02 mole

∴ Number of moles of CaCO3 = 0.01 mole
Hence, mass of CaCO3 required to react completely with HCl = (0.01 × 100) = 1g

86) NCERT Pg. # 18

Number of atom = mole × NA × atomicity

= 1.8 × 1023 atoms

87) SO2 is limiting reagent.

3 mol of SO3 will be formed

88)

Question is Asking About :-

Determine 1 amu in kg is –

Concept :-
we know
 1 amu gm.

kgm.

Hence, option (3) is correct.

89)

wB = 15.375 g

90) d = 1.84 g 1ml

Let volume of solution = 1 L
1840 g mass of solution is present

mass of H2SO4 =

BOTANY

91) English Module 3 Pg.

92)

NCERT Pg # 128

93)

NCERT Pg # 128

94)

NCERT Pg # 132

95)

NCERT XI Pg # 134

96)
NCERT Pg. # 132

97)

NCERT Pg # 135

98)

The correct answer is option 3. Density and size of ribosome

A. The sedimentation coefficient (measured in Svedberg units, S) is an indirect measure of

a particle's density, mass, and shape — particularly used for ribosomes and their
subunits.

Higher the S value, generally larger and denser the particle.

99)

Module pg - 186

100)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95-96

101)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 99

102) NCERT Reference:

Biology-XI, Page No.128

103) NCERT Reference:

Biology-XI, Page No.129

104) Golgi apparatus remains in close association with Endoplasmic Reticulum because
Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER fuse with the cis face of the golgi
apparatus and move towards the maturing face.

105)

All the statements are true.

106) NCERT Reference:

Biology-XI, Page No.139

107) NCERT Reference:

Biology-XI, Page No.139

108) NCERT Reference:

Biology-XI, Page No.128

109) NCERT Reference:

Biology-XI, Page No.133

110)

NCERT Reference:
Biology-XI, Page No.137- 138

111) (A) Tonoplast ➔ The vacuole is surrounded by a single membrane called the
tonoplast.
(B) Higher ion concentration ➔ The vacuole maintains a higher concentration of ions than
the cytoplasm, helping in osmoregulation and storage.

112)

NCERT Pg # 137

113) NCERT Pg # 132

114)

The correct answer is option 3. Both statements I and II are correct

A. Statement I: Nuclear pores are indeed formed by the fusion of the inner and outer
nuclear membranes, allowing selective exchange of materials between the nucleus and
cytoplasm.

B. Statement II: The nucleolus is the site of active ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis and
assembly of ribosomal subunits.

So, both statements are correct.

115)

NCERT Pg # 135
116) NCERT Pg # 134

117) NCERT Pg # 134

118) NCERT-XI, Pg # 95

119) NCERT (XI) Pg # 138, 139

120) NCERT-XI, Pg # 132

121) NCERT Pg # 137, 138, 139

122)

Correct Answer: 4 — VacuoleExplanation:

Anthocyanin is a water-soluble pigment responsible for red, purple, and blue colors in
plants. It is stored in the vacuole of plant cells.

123)

NCERT XI Pg. # 140

124)

NCERT Pg # 131

125) NCERT Pg. #132 Para no. 8.5.2

126) NCERT XI pg.# 163

127) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 163,164

128) NCERT Pg # 163

129) NCERT Pg. # 163,164

130) NCERT Pg # 163

131) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 164

 132) Module-1 Pg. # 206

133) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 163

134) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 162

135) NCERT XI pg.# 122

ZOOLOGY

136)

NCERT XI # PAGE NO. 102

137)

NCERT XI # PAGE NO. 103

138)

NCERT XI # PAGE NO. 103

139)

NCERT XI # PAGE NO. 105

140)

NCERT XI # PAGE NO. 103

141)

NCERT XI # PAGE NO. 102

142)

Ref. Old NCERT-XI, Page # 102

In statement-I the function of tight junction is help to stop substances from leaking across of
tissue.
Perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together is the function of adhering junction.
Glands are specialised epithelium and made up of columnar or cuboidal epithelium.
143)

Epithelial tissue provide covering and protection to body.

Connective tissue provide to connect structures and provide support and transport of
substance in the body.
Muscular tissue helps in contraction and locomotion.
Neural tissue to generate and conduct of nerve impulses in body.

144)

NCERT XI # PAGE NO. 103

145)

NCERT XI # PAGE NO. 101

146)

NCERT XI # PAGE NO. 102

147) Old NCERT-XI, Page # 103

Bone, cartilage and blood are specialised connective tissue where bone and cartilage are
include in skeleton connective tissue and blood include in fluid connective tissue.
Areolar and adipose are loose connective tissue.

148)

NCERT XI # PAGE NO. 103

149)

NCERT-XI, Page # 218

Module E Page no – 241, 242
1. Cardiac muscles are incorrect, because they these muscle cells assemble in a branching
pattern. Based upon appearance, these are striated. They are involuntary in nature.
2. Visceral muscles do not exhibit any striations and their activities are not under the
voluntary control of nervous system.
3. Skeletal muscles have a striped appearance under the microscope, hence are called
striated muscles. Their activities are under the voluntary control of nervous system.
4. Skeletal muscles are also known as voluntary muscles.

150)

NCERT XI # PAGE NO. 105

151)
NCERT XI # PAGE NO. 105

152)

NCERT XI # PAGE NO. 105

153)

NCERT XI # PAGE NO. 105

154)

NCERT XI # PAGE NO. 105

155)

NCERT XI # PAGE NO. 105

156)

NCERT EDITION 2022 - 2023 [Link]. 143

157) Explanation:
Oxygen makes up about 65% of our body mass, primarily as part of water (H₂O).Therefore,
the answer is Oxygen.

The correct answer is 2.

158) NCERT XI Pg.# 145

159) NCERT Pg # 144

160) Explanation:
Glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) is a six-carbon sugar, making it a hexose.

161) NCERT XI Page # 148 & 149

162)

Pg. No. 148_XI NCERT

163)
The correct answer is option 3.
EXplanation:
Carbohydrates are sugars and starches. Chemically, they have many hydroxyl (-OH) groups and
either an aldehyde (-CHO) or ketone (C=O) group. They are NOT made of fatty acids or amino
acids.

164)

NCERT XI # Page : 106

165) NCERT XI Pg # 145

166)

NCERT Pg. # 147

167)

NCERT XI # Page : 106

168)

NCERT XI # Page : 105

169)

NCERT XI # Page : 110

170)

Concept:

A. Carbon and hydrogen are more abundant in living organisms than in the Earth's crust.

B. Nitrogen and silicon are more abundant in the Earth's crust than in living organisms.

Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect because nitrogen is more abundant in living organisms than in
the Earth's crust, which is not reflected in the Earth's crust composition.

Final Answer:
Option 3: The % weight of nitrogen in the earth's crust is very high in comparison to
human body.

171) NCERT Page: 147 and 159.

172) NCERT XI Pg.143

173) NCERT Page no 143

174) NCERT Page: 148, Allen module

175)

NCERT XI # Page : 107

176) NCERT Pg. No.110

177) NCERT Pg. No.109

178)

NCERT XI # Page : 105

179) NCERT XI, Page # 147, Table 9.4

180)

The structure given is of Ribose Sugar, also found in RNA.