Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

SBI CLERK MAINS MODEL TEST - 47

GENERAL AWARENESS
1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe) has

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recently launched a Rs.500-crore Technology Adoption Fund (TAF). This initiative
aims to support space technology firms, particularly startups and MSMEs, in
creating commercially viable products. What percentage of project costs will the
TAF cover for smaller entities?
1) 30% 2) 40% 3) 50% 4) 60% 5) 70%
2. Recently, SEBI introduced a new digital platform, MITRA, to assist investors in
tracking and reclaiming inactive or unclaimed mutual fund folios. What does
MITRA stand for
ha
1) Mutual Fund Investor Tracking and Retrieval Assistant
2) Mutual Fund Investment Tracing and Retrieval Assistant

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3) Mutual Investment Tracking and Risk Assessment
4) Mutual Fund Intelligence for Tracking and Reporting Applications
5) Mutual Investor Tracking and Reconciliation Assistant
d
3. By which year does Prime Minister Narendra Modi aim to triple India's textile
exports, as mentioned during his address at the Bharat Tex 2025 event at Bharat
Mandapam in New Delhi?
ee

1) 2025 2) 2030 3) 2035 4) 2040 5) 2028

4. Which organization manages the 'One Day One Genome' initiative?
1) Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and BRIC-NIBMG
2) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
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3) Indian Institute of Microbial Sciences
4) National Biodiversity Authority
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5) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers, Government of India

5. The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has chosen which company to develop
its next-generation digital platform as part of its DIVE (Digital Innovation and
Value Enhancement) program?
1) TCS 2) Tech Mahindra 3) Infosys 4) Wipro 5) HCL Technologies
6. The Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of
Security Interest - SARFAESI Act, 2002, The Act permits Banks / Financial
Institutions to recover their NPAs without the involvement of the Court, through
C
acquiring and disposing of the secured assets in NPA accounts with an outstanding
amount of Rs. _________ and above.
1) Rs. 5 Lakh 2) Rs. 10 Lakh 3) Rs. 2 Lakh 4) Rs. 1 Lakh 5) Rs. 15 Lakh
7. Assam government introduced the 'Nijut Moina' scheme, which offers monthly
stipends to female students in order to promote women's education and reduce
dropout rates. Who is the current governor of Assam?
1) Lakshman Prasad Acharya 2) Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar
3) Acharya Dev Vrat 4) Dr. C.V. Ananda Bose 5) Ramen Deka
8. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducted a US dollar-rupee swap auction worth
$10 billion to inject long-term liquidity into the system. This move aimed to address
the persistent liquidity deficit in the banking system. What was the tenure of the
US dollar-rupee swap conducted by the RBI?
1) 3 months 2) 6 months 3) 1 year 4) 3 years 5) 5 years
9. Which bank has been assigned an ‘A1+’ rating for its short-term fixed deposits
aggregating Rs.12,000 crore and an ‘AA’ rating (Stabl5) for its fixed deposits by
CARE Ratings.
1) South Indian Bank 2) Karur Vysya Bank 3) IDBI Bank
4) YES Bank 5) Karnataka Bank

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

10. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the leading global authority
on the environment, promoting sustainable development and prudent use of the
global environment. Where is the Headquarters of UNEP?
1) London 2) Rome 3) New York 4) Geneva 5) Nairobi
11. India Partners with Which Country to Establish Yuga Yugeen Bharat National
Museum as a Global Cultural Landmark?
1) France 2) Japan 3) Austria 4) Singapore 5) Russia
12. The Ministry of Tourism in Government of India announced the winners of the
Best Tourism Villages Competition 2024 on the occasion of World Tourism Day
2024. Who is the current Minister of Tourism for India?
1) Jyotiraditya M. Scindia 2) G. Kishan Reddy

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3) Chirag Paswan 4) Jayant Chaudhary 5) Gajendra Singh Shekhawat
13. Which Indian table tennis player won both men’s singles and mixed doubles titles
at the 2024 World Table Tennis (WTT) Feeder Caracas tournament in Venezuela?
1) Sharath Kamal 2) Soumyajit Ghosh
3) Harmeet Desai 4) Sathiyan Gnanasekaran 5) Sanil Shetty
14. Which power company has entered into a strategic partnership with Druk Green
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Power Corporation Ltd (DGPC) to develop at least 5,000 MW of clean energy
generation capacity in Bhutan?
1) Tata Power 2) JSW Energy 3) NHPC 4) Torrent Power 5) Orient Green Power
15. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) enhanced transaction limits for UPI123Pay and

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UPI Lite to encourage wider adoption of these UPI products. The per-transaction
limit for UPI 123Pay has been raised from__________.
d
1) Rs.1,000 to Rs.2,000 2) Rs.2,000 to Rs.5,000
3) Rs.5,000 to Rs.7,000 4) Rs.7,000 to Rs.10,000 5) Rs.5,000 to Rs.10,000
16. According to the Income Tax Act of 1961, the age of Super Senior Citizens should
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be______.
1) 60 years 2) 70 years 3) 80 years 4) 75 years 5) 65 years
17. In December 2024, which organization signed an agreement with Silizium Circuits
Pvt Ltd for the "Design and Development of LEO Satellite Components and GNSS
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RF Front End ASIC"?
1) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
Sr

2) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)

3) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
4) Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)
5) Central Electro Chemical Research Institute
18. Which city secures the Top Spot in the Middle East and Climbs to Fifth Globally in
the 2024 Global City Index by Brand Finance, maintaining its regional lead for
the second consecutive year?
1) Sharjah 2) Doha 3) Abu Dhabi 4) Dubai 5) Ajman
C
19. Recently, Cashfree Payments has launched a pilot program enabling overseas
customers to transact with key Indian merchants using UPI and RuPay options,
typically restricted to domestic use. Who is the CEO of Cashfree?
1) Nithin Kamath 2) Sameer Nigam
3) Umang Bedi 4) Bhavish Aggarwal 5) Akash Sinha
20. Consider the following statements regarding the PM E-DRIVE Scheme.
I) PM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement (PM E-DRIVE)
scheme has an outlay of Rs 10,900 crore over a period of two years for promotion
of electric mobility in the country.
II) Under this scheme an adhaar-authenticated e-voucher will be issued to avail
demand incentives.
III) The scheme allocates Rs 3,679 crore to incentivise the purchase of electric
two-wheelers (e-2Ws), three-wheelers (e-3Ws), electric ambulances, trucks, and
other emerging EV categories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) (I) and (II) only 2) (II) only 3) (III) only
4) (I), (II) and (III) 5) (I) and (III) only

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

21. Australia’s most decorated Olympian, Emma McKeon, announced her retirement,
she represented her country in which sport?
1) Gymnastics 2) Table tennis3) Archery 4) Cricket 5) Swimming
22. President Droupadi Murmu has appointed K Sanjay Murthy as the new Comptroller
and Auditor General (CAG) of India. The CAG is India's supreme audit institution,
established by which article of the Constitution of India.
1) Article 118 2) Article 128 3) Article 138 4) Article 148 5) Article 158
23. Koneru Humpy clinched her second Women’s World Rapid and Blitz Chess title,
reaffirming her position as one of the top players in the chess world. She first
won the championship in which year?

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1) 2019 2) 2022 3) 2021 4) 2023 5) 2016
24. Which among the following is the fast and easiest method that can be adopted by
an organization to pay salary to all its employees?
1) Bartering 2) Money orders
3) Automated clearing house
4) Electronic clearing system 5) Payment through cheques
25.
ha
Who received the Global Anti-Racism Championship Award 2024 for commitment
to racial equity and human rights?
1) Urmila Chaudhary 2) Antony J. Blinken

26.
3) Sunita Chaudhary

E 4) Ramesh Thapa 5) Prabhdev Singh

What do we call the instruments of monetary policy which directly affect the
d
quantity of money supply?
1) Qualitative Instruments 2) Quantitative Instruments
3) Money Instruments
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4) Credit control instruments 5) Inflation Targeting Instruments

27. MANI, a free app from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that helps visually impaired
people identify the denomination of Indian banknotes. What is the full form of
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MANI?
1) Money And Note Identifier 2) Money Aided Note Identification
3) Mobile Android Note Identification
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4) Mobile Aided Note Identifier 5) Money Aided Note Identification

28. India's Wholesale Price Index (WPI)-based inflation surged to a four-month high of
2.36% in October, driven primarily by a sharp increase in food prices. Who releases
Wholesale Price Index (WPI)?
1) Central Statistical Office 2) Ministry of Finance
3) Office of the Economic Adviser 4) Reserve Bank of India 5) NITI Aayog
C
29. Which bank has recently (in November ‘24) partnered with United Nations
Children’s Fund (UNICEF) to enhance disaster resilience and climate risk
management through the initiative ‘Disaster Resilient Communities and Climate
Risk-Informed Efficient Administrative Systems’?
1) Canara Bank 2) Indian Overseas Bank
3) Bandhan Bank 4) Punjab National Bank 5) IndusInd Bank
30. Which bank has inaugurated its first branch in Singapore after receiving a wholesale
banking license from the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS)?
1) ICICI Bank 2) IDBI Bank 3) HDFC Bank 4) Axis Bank 5) Kotak Mahindra Bank
31. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the life insurance cover scheme
PMJJBY?
1) PMJJBY stands for ‘Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana’
2) People in the age group of 18 to 50 having bank account are eligible for scheme
3) The premium payable is Rs.436/- per annum per subscriber.
4) The scheme offers a risk Coverage of Rs.1 Lakh in case of death for any reason
5) All the given statements are true

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

32. What is the theme of the First Asian Buddhist Summit?

1) Making the world a better place through Dhamma in
2) Role of Buddha Dhamma in Strengthening Peace
3) Role of Buddha Dhamma in Strengthening Asia
4) Buddha Dhamma and Strengthening Asia’s Peace
5) Making the world a better place through peace in
33. Under the Reserve Bank of India's 4-tier classification for urban co-operative
banks (UCBs), what is the deposit limit for Tier-3 UCBs?
1) Up to Rs.100 crore 2) More than Rs.500 and up to Rs.1,000 crore
3) More than Rs.100 and up to Rs.1,000 crore
4) More than Rs.1,000 and up to Rs.10,000 crore

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5) More than Rs.10 and up to Rs.100 crore
34. The Toto Tribe, one of the most endangered tribes in the world, primarily resides
in which of the following states?
1) West Bengal2) Telangana 3) Kerala 4) Gujarat 5) Tamil Nadu
35. NTPC Renewable Energy Ltd (NTPC REL) started the commercial supply of
electricity from a 37.50 MW segment of its 200 MW Solar PV Project in which
state?
ha
1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Bihar 3) Gujarat 4) Haryana 5) Jharkhand
36. According to Oxford University’s Saïd Business School and the Gates Foundation,
PRAGATI has driven accountability at the most senior level, and supported

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unprecedented federal and regional collaboration, accelerating 340 projects worth
$205 billion across the country and cutting through decades of delays. PRAGATI
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platform was launched in which of the following year?
1) 2018 2) 2015 3) 2020 4) 2004 5) 2012
37. Recently, RBI has incorporated the auto replenishment of Fastags and national
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common mobility cards (NCMCs) into the e-mandate framework. For e-mandate-
based recurring transactions, the limit without Additional Factor Authentication
(AFA) is __________ per transaction
1) Rs.2000 2) Rs.20000 3) Rs.1000 4) Rs.6000 5) Rs.5000
C
38. In January 2025, Which Bank has been penalized by the Reserve Bank of India Rs
3.31 crore for contravention of certain norms related to financial inclusion?
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1) South Indian Bank 2) Jammu and Kashmir Bank

3) Karnataka Bank 4) City Union Bank 5) Axis Bank
39. The Regulatory Sandbox (RS) is a program that allows fintech companies to test
new financial products and services in a controlled environment under RBI
supervision. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) introduced the first regulatory sandbox
program in which year?
1) 2018 2) 2017 3) 2019 4) 2020 5) 2015
40. Recently, RBI has increased the interest rate cap on Foreign Currency Non-
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Resident Bank Deposits or FCNR (B) deposits. Now FCNR (B) deposits with tenure
ranging from 1 year to less than 3 years have been allowed to be raised at short
term Alternative Reference Rate (ARR) deposit rate of _________.
1) 4% 2) 8% 3) 10% 4) 6% 5) 2%
41. The average daily balance that a bank is required to maintain with the Reserve
Bank as a share of percentage of Net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) is called
________.
1) Statutory Liquidity Ratio 2) Standing Deposit Facility Rate
3) Reverse Repo Rate 4) Bank Rate 5) Cash Reserve Ratio
42. Recently, on the occasion of World Post Day, the Department of Posts, Government
of India, unveiled a special set of commemorative postage stamps celebrating the
150th anniversary of the Universal Postal Union (UPU). The UPU now has
_____________member countries.
1) 192 2) 189 3) 165 4) 174 5) 65
43. Which section of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 related with amalgamation of two
banking companies?
1) Section 110 2) Section 44A 3) Section 391 4) Section 20C 5) Section 22

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

44. What is the name of the new machine-learning weather prediction model developed
by Google DeepMind researchers?
1) GenCast 2) DeepWeather 3) ClimaNet 4) ForecastAI 5) DeepCastAI
45. What are the maturity period and the fixed interest rate of Sovereign Gold Bond
Scheme?
1) 3 years and 2.5% 2) 5 years and 4.5%
3) 8 years and 3.5% 4) 8 years and 2.5% 5) 5 years and 2.5%
46. What is the rank of IndiGo Airlines in the 2024 AirHelp Score report (global airline
rankings)?
1) 105th 2) 104th 3) 103rd 4) 106th 5) 108th

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47. What is the name of the scheme announced by the Finance Minister of India in
the Union Budget 2025 to provide credit scores to rural population?
1) Grameen Credit Score Scheme 2) Rural Credit Initiative
3) Bharat Credit Score

48.
ha
4) Pradhan Mantri Credit Scheme 5) Bharat Rural Credit Score Scheme
In which Indian state is the Zeilad Wildlife Sanctuary located?
1) Gujarat 2) Sikkim 3) Nagaland 4) Manipur 5) Mizoram
49.

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Magnus Carlsen and Ian Nepomniachtchi have created history by agreeing to
share the title of 2024 FIDE World Blitz Chess Champion. Where was the World
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Blitz Chess Championship held?
1) Chennai 2) New York 3) Paris 4) Rome 5) London
50. Which company has launched ‘Blitz,’ a proprietary UPI Switch designed to provide
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banks and financial institutions with seamless and scalable digital payment
solutions?
1) CARD91 2) Ola Money 3) CRED 4) Razorpay 5) PhonePe
C
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (51-55): Read each of the following sentences to find out if there are
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any grammatical errors in it. The errors, if any, will be in two parts of the sentence.
The number (1,2,3,4, and 5) of these parts are your answer. If there is no error in
the statement, then mark option (5) as your answer choice.
51. Modern India produced an outstanded figure of world/1/ literature in Tagore.
Within easy reach of Tagore’s final residence/2/ may be found Santals and other
illiterates primitive peoples still /3/ unaware of Tagore’s existence. Some of them
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are hardly out of the food-gathering stage./4/
1) 1-2 2) 2-3 3) 1-3 4) 1-4 5) NO ERROR
52. Transaction innovation in online platforms and multi-sided markets has raised/
1/ antitrust concerns in anticompetitive conduct, vertical restraints, consumer
privacy,/2/ and barriers to entrepreneurship. The article argues that although
antitrust policy makers/3/ recognize the importance of innovation competition,
their need to update their economic frameworks./4/
1) 1-2 2) 2-4 3) 3-4 4) 1-3 5) NO ERROR
53. The EU would direct its efforts at ensuring that Member States and OPs adopt
measures to strengthen media literacy and empower users,/1/ enabling OP users
and society at large to actively promote a safe digital environment. /2/Indeed,
the spread of online illegal/harmful content involves many subjects, and users of
digital services/3/ must have the knowledge, sensibility and actual capacity to
identify and report it./4/
1) 1-2 2) 2-3 3) 2-4 4) 3-4 5) NO ERROR

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

54. Inverse ETFs are not long-term investments for the derivative contracts /1/ is
bought and sold daily by the fund’s manager. /2/As a result, there is no way to
guarantee that the inverse ETF will match /3/the long-term performance of the
index or stocks it is tracking. /4/
1) 1-2 2) 1-3 3) 3-4 4) 1-4 5) NO ERROR
55. The biggest cryptocurrency is Bitcoin and it scores well concerning /1/ safety
and decentralising, but has massive difficulties when it comes to scalability. /2/
Depending on certain factors, Bitcoin only manages between 5–15 on-chain
transactions per a second. /3/This is a far cry from what is necessary to act as a
useful global payment solution./4/

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1) 1-2 2) 2-3 3) 3-4 4) 1-3 5) NO ERROR
Direction (56-60): In the following passage, there are blanks, each one has been
preceded by a word given in bold. Every blank has four alternative words given in
options (1), (2), (3) and (4). Find the word which best suits the place. If the given
word suits the blank, mark (5) ‘No change required’ as the answer.
56.
ha
Since a disproportionate share of the carbon (critique) _________ has been directed
at the inefficiencies in outdoor broadcasting facilities, it is crucial to address
structural challenges rather than merely focusing on individual errors.

57.
1) restriction
4) deviation

E 2) criticism
5) No change required
3) enhancement

The (averred) _____________ commitments of developed countries toward net-zero

d
targets must be assessed critically, considering the potential geo-political and
geo-economic risks associated with over-reliance on specific nations for key
technologies and materials.
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1) asserted 2) questioned 3) endorsed

4) debated 5) No change required
58. The (receptive) _____________ disposition of literary critics toward ephemeral
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literature significantly influences its recognition within academic discourse.
1) doctrinaire 2) missive 3) acquiescent
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4) intransigent 5) No change required

59. Given the uncertainties surrounding global commitments, a degree of (skepticism)
_____________ toward developed nations’ pledges to combat climate change is
both justified and necessary for India’s strategic planning.
1) incredulity 2) credence 3) gullibility
4) consecrate 5) No change required
C
60. Global climate bodies continue to (admonish) ___________ nations that fail to
fulfill their commitments toward reducing carbon emissions and promoting
sustainable energy solutions.
1) extol 2) reprimand 3) condone
4) vindicate 5) No change required
Directions (61-62): There are three sentences following idiomatic expression,
find out in which sentence or sentences the idiomatic expressed is used properly.
61. On a roll like a runaway wheel
A. After winning five consecutive matches, the team was on a roll like a runaway
wheel.
B. He was on a roll like a runaway wheel when he lost all his savings in a bad
investment.
C. The scientist was on a roll like a runaway wheel after his new discovery led to
multiple research grants.
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) A and C 5) None of these

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

62. State of the art

A. The new hospital is equipped with state-of-the-art medical facilities, making it
one of the best in the country.
B. The company invested millions in developing state-of-the-art AI software to
enhance customer service.
C. He was in a state of the art after hearing the unexpected news about his
promotion.
1) A and B 2) B and C 3) Only C 4) All A, B, C 5) None of these
Directions (63-68): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions

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The Standing Committee of Parliament on Agriculture, headed by former Punjab
Chief Minister Charanjit Singh Channi, has recommended a change in the name
of the Union Agriculture Ministry to reflect the importance of farm workers, too.
The panel, in its report tabled in Parliament on Wednesday (March 12, 2025), has
also demanded a comprehensive crop insurance plan for small-holding farmers.
ha
The panel said the name of the ‘Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare’
may be changed to ‘Department of Agriculture, Farmers and Farm Labourers
Welfare’. The renaming offers several potential benefits as it would acknowledge

E
the significant role of farm labourers in the agricultural sector, the panel said.
“Farm labourers, who often belong to marginalised communities, are a critical
part of the agricultural workforce but are frequently overlooked in policy discussions
d
and welfare schemes,” the committee said, recommending the establishment of
a ‘National Commission for Minimum Living Wages for Farm Labourers’ to address
wage disparities and improve living standards.
ee

The panel requested the Ministry to put in place required processes and
mechanisms to monitor the usage of funds at regular intervals, and to address
the issues that may hamper the entire spending of the allocated amounts. It said
C
the proportion of budgetary allocations made to the Ministry in terms of the
percentage of the total Central outlay for the years 2021-22, 2022-23, 2023-24,
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2024-25, and 2025-26 stood at 3.53%, 3.14%, 2.57%, 2.54%, and 2.51%,
respectively. “This shows continuous decline in allocations to the Department as
proportion of Central Plan outlay. The Committee, in view of the fact that as more
than 50% people depend on agriculture for their livelihood, desire the Ministry to
arrest this declining trend,” the report said.
The committee recommended Minimum Support Price (MSP) for all organic
crops, in addition to the MSP declared on the traditional crop. “However, the
C
demand for MSP on organic produce should not undermine the broader MSP
demand based on the Swaminathan formula. Instead, the legal MSP framework
should be expanded to include organic produce. This would incentivise farmers to
transition to organic farming, despite the challenges of lower yields in the initial
years of conversion,” the panel said, adding that MSP for organic produce should
be set higher than that for conventional crops to compensate for the drop in yield,
and the costs associated with the shift to organic farming.
63. Which of the following best reflects the underlying concern of the Standing
Committee regarding the allocation of funds to the Agriculture Ministry?
1) The absolute amount of funds is insufficient for the Ministry’s operations.
2) The declining proportion of the central outlay indicates a diminished prioritization
of agriculture.
3) The committee is primarily concerned with the misuse of already allocated
funds.
4) The committee believes the funds should be reallocated to other sectors.
5) All the above

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

64. What inference can be drawn about the committee’s perspective on the relationship
between farm laborers and agricultural policy?
1) Farm laborers are adequately represented in current policy discussions.
2) Existing welfare schemes effectively address the needs of farm laborers.
3) The committee believes farm laborers are a crucial but neglected segment of
the agricultural workforce.
4) The committee suggests that farm laborers should transition to non-agricultural
sectors.
5) The committee believes that farm laborers are already recieving too much
government assistance.

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65. If the government were to implement the committee’s recommendations regarding
organic farming, which of the following outcomes would be most likely?
1) A decrease in the overall production of organic crops due to higher MSP.
2) A rapid and immediate increase in the yield of organic crops.
3) A decrease in the quality of organic crops, due to an influx of new farmers.
ha
4) A significant reduction in the price of conventional crops.
5) None of these
66.

E
Considering the committee’s call for a “National Commission for Minimum Living
Wages for Farm Labourers,” what primary issue is the committee attempting to
address?
d
1) The lack of standardized work hours for farm laborers.
2) The absence of legal protection for farm laborers’ property rights.
ee

3) The substantial wage disparities and inadequate living standards experienced

by farm laborers.
4) The limited access to healthcare facilities for farm laborers.
C
5) All the above
67. Based on the committee’s recommendations, what is the most probable reason
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for the proposed renaming of the Agriculture Ministry?

A. To streamline the administrative processes within the Ministry.
B. To reflect a broader and more inclusive approach to agricultural policy.
C. To reduce the overall budgetary allocations to the Ministry.
D. To give formal recognition to the vital role of farm laborers and ensure their
inclusion in policy and welfare schemes.
C
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Both A and C 4) Both B and D 5) None of these
68. Choose the best option that is a synonym of the word “undermine”:
1) sabotage 2) strengthen 3) bolster 4) debilitate 5) reinforce
Direction (69-70): In each question there is a statement followed by three starters
which are denoted by A, B and C. Each starter is a group of first few words of the
sentence which on proper completion, is supposed to convey the same meaning of
the original statement. Find out which one or more starters can form grammatically
correct sentences(s) to convey the SAME meaning of the original statement.
69. The Chagos Archipelago, located in the Indian Ocean, has been a focal point of
territorial disputes between Mauritius and the United Kingdom. The islands were
under British control for decades after Mauritius gained independence in 1968.
A. Although the Chagos Archipelago.......
B. The territorial dispute over the Chagos Archipelago.......
C. Despite Mauritius gaining independence in 1968........
1) A 2) C 3) B and C 4) A and B 5) None of these

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

70. The administration implemented marking and discontinued direct swapping of

voided currency bills within two weeks. Otherwise, illicit financial activities would
have escalated significantly.
A. Despite the administration implementing...
B. Despite illicit financial activities have escalated...
C. Had the administration not implemented...
1) A 2) Only B 3) both A and B 4) Only C 5) All of these
Direction (71-75): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and
(E) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph. Then answer the
given question.
A. Organizations have to address the social and environmental impact of their

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supply chain which has now become an influencing factor with government,
stakeholders, customers and businesses.
B. Sustainability has been introduced in the supply chain as suppliers’
unsustainable behaviour brings social and economic liability to supply chain and
the product.
C. Along with economic goals, there are calls for human welfare and planet
ha
protection when organizations offer their products and services.
D. Management of supply chains is now not restricted to producing and selling
goods with affordable supplies, competitive resources, consumer demand,

E
investment and regulations.
E. Organizations become capable of achieving social commitments and environment
standards by moving towards a sustainable supply chain management.
d
71. Which of the following is the pair of ANTEPENULTIMATE statement and the
PENULTIMATE statement respectively, after the correct rearrangement?
1) EC 2) ED 3) CB 4) BC 5) None of the above
ee

72. Which among the following will be the SECOND sentence of the paragraph after
the rearrangement?
1) E 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) B
C
73. Which of the following options is the pair of the TERMINAL statement and the
INTRODUCTORY statement, respectively , after the correct rearrangement?
Sr

1) EB 2) ED 3) CD 4) AD 5) None of the above

74. Which of the following is the pair of FOURTH statement and the FIFTH statement,
respectively, after the correct rearrangement?
1) EC 2) BE 3) AD 4) DC 5) None of the above
75. Which of the following combinations is the combination of THREE CONSECUTIVE
statements after the correct rearrangement?
1) DAB 2) CEB 3) ACB 4) ABE 5) None of the above
C
Directions (76-83): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions
The global economy is currently facing significant challenges due to rising
trade tensions, particularly between the United States and several key
international partners. The U.S. government’s decision to impose tariffs on steel
and aluminum has created a ripple effect across the global market. While the
intention behind these tariffs was to protect domestic industries, especially
manufacturing, the broader consequences have been far-reaching. Countries such
as Germany have found themselves directly impacted, with German automaker
BMW estimating a loss of over €1 billion by 2025 due to disrupted supply chains
and increased production costs. These trade policies have caused what can be
called a “domino effect,” with other countries retaliating by imposing tariffs on
U.S. goods. As a result, the global trading environment has become more unstable.
The automobile and technology sectors, which rely on complex international supply
chains, have been particularly hard-hit. This escalation of trade barriers has led
to decreased consumer confidence and slower economic growth worldwide.

9
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

Financial markets have been similarly affected. Stock markets have

experienced volatility, with investors pulling back from riskier assets and seeking
safer alternatives, such as gold or government bonds. The uncertainty surrounding
trade wars has created a climate of instability, making it difficult for companies
to plan long-term strategies. In response, central banks are under pressure to
act. The Federal Reserve, for instance, is expected to cut interest rates to stimulate
the U.S. economy. However, lowering rates comes with risks, as it could lead to
inflation or create asset bubbles, further destabilizing the economy. The global
economic situation requires careful management. Policymakers must tread
carefully to avoid exacerbating the instability caused by trade disputes. The idiom

r’s
“walking a tightrope” is an apt metaphor for the current state of the global
economy, where any misstep could lead to a more severe financial crisis. Every
decision made by national governments, whether related to tariffs or interest
rates, has profound implications for the broader international system. The way
forward will require/A/ strategic coordination and/B/ a balanced approach

76.
ha
to avoid/C/ further economic disruptions./D/
In the passage, the idiom “walking a tightrope” is used to describe the challenges
faced by policymakers. Which of the following is the closest meaning to “walking a
tightrope”?

E
1) Taking unnecessary risks
d
2) Being in a difficult or delicate situation
3) Working without supervision
ee

4) Enjoying the balance between work and life

5) Facing financial difficulties
77. What is implied about the potential long-term effects of the U.S. tariffs on the
C
global market?
(A) They may create opportunities for new markets.
Sr

(B) They will lead to a reduction in global production.

(C) They could destabilize global trading relationships.
(D) They will likely strengthen international trade alliances.
1) Only A 2)Only B 3)Both A and B 4)Both B and C 5) All the above
78. How might the “domino effect” mentioned in the passage influence global economic
C
growth?
1) It will likely cause a surge in consumer spending.
2) It could lead to quicker economic recovery worldwide.
3) It is expected to result in slower economic growth.
4) It may stabilize supply chains across various industries.
5) Both 3 and 2
79. What can be inferred about the challenges faced by the automobile and technology
sectors due to trade policies?
1) They will shift production to countries outside the U.S.
2) They will be unaffected by the new tariffs.
3) They are likely to experience financial gains despite the tariffs.
4) They will face increased production costs and supply chain issues.
1) Only 3 2) Only 1 and 4 3) Only 2 and 3 4)Only 4 5)None of these

10
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

80. Why might central banks, like the Federal Reserve, be under pressure to lower
interest rates?
1) To encourage international trade agreements.
2) To stimulate economic growth despite trade tensions.
3) To strengthen global financial institutions.
4) To reduce tariffs imposed on foreign imports.
5) All the above
81. Which of the following phrasal verb replaces the bold and italic phrase given in

r’s
the passage?
1) Let down 2) Fall apart 3) Hold out 4) Stay ahead 5) Opt out
82. Which of the following words is the antonym of “retaliating” as used in the context
of trade tensions in the passage?
ha
1) Resisting 2) Responding 3) Reversing 4) Forgiving 5) Advancing
83. A sentence given in bold and italic has been divided into four parts. Find the
error.
1)A 2)B

E 3)C 4)D 5)No error

Directions (84-85): In the following questions, a sentence is given. Determine
d
which of the following sentences given in the option is similar to the sentence
given in bold, is grammatically correct and conveys the same meaning
ee

84. If we start to understand the value of nature to our society and economy, we
will recognise the importance of living in harmony with nature, rather than
destroying it for short term gain.
C
A. Understanding the significance of nature for our society and economy will help
us realize the need to coexist with it rather than destroy it for short-term benefits.
Sr

B. If we recognize how vital nature is to our economy and society, we will

acknowledge the necessity of preserving it instead of depleting it for immediate
profit.
C. Unless we start valuing nature’s role in our economy and society, we will fail
to appreciate the importance of sustaining it rather than damaging it for quick
gains.
C
1) C 2) A and B 3) B and C 4) B 5) All the above
85. In the past, industries were concentrating only on the economic aspects of a
business. Many organizations are now addressing the social and environment
impact of their supply chain for which they are adopting sustainability in their
supply chain.
A. Earlier, industries focused only on profits, and they continue to ignore the
environmental and social impacts of their supply chains.
B. Previously, industries concentrated only on economic aspects, but now many
organizations are adopting sustainability in their supply chains to address social
and environmental concerns.
C. In the past, businesses prioritized sustainability, but now they are shifting
their focus to economic aspects.
1) A,B 2) C 3) B,C 4) B 5) None of the above

11
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

Directions (86-87): In the question given below few sentences are given which
are grammatically correct and meaningful. Connect them by the word given above
the statements in the best possible way without changing the intended meaning.
Choose your answer accordingly from the options to form a correct, coherent
sentence.
86. Therefore
I. Deforestation rates have increased significantly in the Amazon rainforest.
II. Sustainable farming practices are crucial for long-term food security.
III. The biodiversity of the region is under severe threat.
IV. Reducing carbon emissions requires a shift to renewable energy sources.

r’s
1) II - IV 2) III - IV 3) I – III
4) Both I – III and II – IV 5) No connection possible
87. Gradually
I. The small startup initially struggled to gain customers.
II. The music, almost imperceptible at first,
ha
III. swelled into a powerful symphony
IV. Over time, it built a loyal customer base and expanded its operations.
1) I - III 2) III - IV 3) Both I - IV and II - III
4) No connection possible

E 5) II - IV
Direction (88-90): In this question a sentence has been given and a word has
d
been given in bold, in the options a pair of words/group of words has been given of
which the former will be SYNONYM and the latter will be ANTONYM to that
particular word as used in the sentence. Determine the pair from the given
ee

options and mark your answer accordingly.

88. The sudden stampede at the funeral caused panic among the mourners.
1) rush : dawdle 2) chaos : flux 3) charge : peace
C
4) frenzy : shuffle 5) turmoil : cruise
89. The lawyer meticulously compiled a detailed dossier on the defendant’s past
Sr

activities.
1) record : speculation 2) report : merit 3) file : disarray
4) compendium : simplicity 5) archive : amnesia
90. The actor received adulation from fans after his remarkable performance in the
movie.
1) flattery : smarm 2) praise : criticism 3) approval : favour
C
4) applause : agree 5) compliment : benevolent
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction (91-94): Read the given data and answer the following questions.
A and B are the roots of the equation x2 - (5P + 12)x + 8P2 = 0 such that the
HCF of A and B is ‘P’. It is known that both A and B (Where A < B) are integers and
co-prime numbers. The value of ‘P’ lies between 1 and 7 (1 < P < 7).
91. Find the value of HCF of A and B.
1) 12 2) 4 3) 2 4) 5 5) 3
2
92. If the larger root of equation y + (P - 2) y - Z = 0 is equal to the larger root of the
given equation, 138 is what percentage of ‘Z’ ?
1) 20 2) 27 3) 23 4) 29 5) 17
93. The roots of which of the following equations are 8 less than the roots of the given
equation?
1) y2 - 9y + 18 = 0 2) y2 - 16y + 28 = 0 3) y2 - 11y - 80= 0
2
4) y - 169 = 0 5) None of these

12
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

94. If ‘P + 2’ is the HCF of 25 and ‘X’, (X < 50), what is the greatest possible value of X?
1) 40 2) 45 3) 35 4) 30 5) 25
Direction (95-96): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions.
Two series are given as follows.
Series I: 15 24 50 115 239 456
Series II: J K 74 (L) M N O
95. Both the series follow similar patterns, then what will be the value of LN – JM?
1) 15041 2) 14041 3) 12040 4) 14250 5) 14560

r’s
96. Find the sum of the values of J+K+L+M+N+O.
1) 1002 2) 1230 3) 1040 4) 1080 5) 1043
97. Srinu brought a TV and a Sofa. The ratio between the total cost price of both
items and the total marked price of both items is 5: 12 respectively. The marked
price of the TV is marked 200% above its cost price and the marked price of the
Sofa is marked 100% above its cost price and the Cost price of the TV is Rs 800
ha
less than the cost price of Sofa. What is the cost price of the TV?
1) 1400 2) 1250 3) 1050 4) 1220 5) 1600

E
Directions (98-102): Read the data carefully and answer the following questions.
The passage given below provides data regarding the number of Students
(boys and girls) who bought books from three different bookstores: A, B, and C.
d
Boys:
The number of boys who bought books from store A is 25% of the total number
ee

of boys who bought books from all three stores. The number of boys who bought
books from store B is 62.5% of those who bought books from the same store. The
number of boys who bought books from store A is 51.25% of the number of people
C
who bought books from the same store.
Girls:
Sr

1 th
The number of girls who bought books from store A is of the total number
8
of students who bought books from all three stores. The ratio of the number of
girls who bought books from store A to that from store B is 13:12 respectively.
Note: The total number of people who bought books from all three book stores is
936.
C
98. What is the respective ratio between the number of boys who bought the books
from store C and the number of girls who bought the books from store B?
1) 3:5 2) 5:9 3) 9:5 4) 4:3 5) 7:4
99. What is the average number of books bought by boys from all the given bookstores
?
1) 192 2) 151 3) 164 4) 151 5) 143
100. What is the difference between the total number of books bought by boys and the
total number of books bought by girls?
1) 22 2) 30 3) 48 4) 42 5) 51
101. The number of girls who bought books from store A is what percent less than the
number of boys who bought books from store B?
1) 35 2) 30 3) 25 4) 45 5) 40
102. If the average number of girls who bought books from stores C and D (another
store) is 203, find the number of girls who bought books from store D.
1) 192 2) 188 3) 160 4) 187 5) 153

13
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

Directions (103-104): Read the data carefully and answer the following questions.
P, Q and R are two-digit natural numbers, where unit digit of each number
is even and tens digits is odd. (R is largest possible number and P is smallest
possible number.)
103. What is the difference between the numbers P and R?
1) 72 2) 98 3) 55 4) 86 5) 52
104. If the numbers are divided by 2, then find the sum of remainders.
1) 1 2) 0 3) Can’t be determined
4) 3 5) 4

r’s
105. Boat P and Boat Q are traveling towards each other in a river, with their speeds
in still water in the ratio of 7:13 respectively. The speed of the stream is 18 km/
h. If both boats cover the same distance in 17 hours, with Boat P moving downstream
and Boat Q moving upstream, find the time taken by Boat P to cover 672 km in
upstream.

106.
1) 24 hrs
ha
2) 32 hrs 3)14 hrs 4) 39 hrs 5) 28 hrs
The ratio of number of white balls to the number of black balls in a bag is
______respectively, after taking out 11 black balls from the bag. After that, when

E
14 white balls are added in the bag and 7 black balls are taken out from the bag,
the ratio becomes ______. Initially, the number of white balls in the bag was ____.
Which of the following option is satisfied?
d
(A) 7:5, 4:3, 54 (B) 7:6, 9:5, 66 (C) 7:6, 9:5, 49
1) Only A and B 2) Only A and C 3) Only A and B
ee

4) Only C 5) Only B
107. I. x² + (P-Q) x + 828 = 0
II. y² + (P + Q) y + 874 = 0
C
One of the roots in equation I is - 23, and one of the roots in equation II is - 23, If
another root in equation I is a and another root in equation II is b. Which of the
Sr

following is true?
1) (P + Q + a) = 45 2) (P + b) > ( Q - a ) 3)(P + a) < ( Q + b)
4) (P + b) = 70 5) (P + Q + a) = 25
Directions [108-109]: Read the data carefully and answer the following questions.
Data given below is about the total number of 6’s and total number of 4’s hit
by three players P, Q and R in a series.
C
The ratio of 6’s hit by P to that hit by Q and R together is 5 : 8 and the number of
6’s hit by Q is 6 more than that hit by R. Ratio of 4’s hit by Q to that hit by R is 3 :
4 and total 4’s hit by P and R together is 30.
108. If the total number of 4’s hit by P and Q together is 26, then find the ratio of 4’s hit
by P, Q, and R, respectively.
1) 3 : 5 : 4 2) 4 : 7 : 5 3) 4 : 7 : 6 4) 7 : 6 : 8 5) 5 : 8 : 6
109. If the difference between 6’s hit by Q and that hit by R is 40% of 6’s hit by P, then
find the total number of 6’s hit by P, Q, and R together.
1) 29 2) 40 3) 39 4) 25 5) 36
1
110. The speed of a bike is a 2 km/hr and distance to be travelled is b2 km. If the speed
of bike is reduced by 20% the time taken to cover the distance is 4 hours. Which
of the following pair of (a, b) satisfies the above condition?
1) (3025,24) 2) (1900,18) 3) (1800,23) 4) (1600,24) 5) (2025,12)

14
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

Direction (111-115): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
The table shows the number of items [Washing machine + Refrigerator + Air
conditioner] sold, the percentage of Refrigerators sold in that SONOVISION
showroom and the percentage of Washing machines sold more or less than the
number of Refrigerators sold, in five cities [P, Q, R, S and S] in the year 2024.

The percentage
of Washing

r’s
machines sold
Percentage of
Total number more or less
Cities Refrigerators
of items sold than the
sold
number of
ha Refrigerators
sold

E 6a 5k% +25%
d
Q 3a 5m% +30%

R 6b 10n% +40%
ee

S 4a (k×m)% -25%
C
T 10b 40% +30%
Sr

Conditions:
(i). a = 16m, b = 25n,
(ii). (m-5)2 +(k-4)2 +(n-2)2 = 0
111. The number of Samsung smart TVs sold in city S is 25% less than the number of
C
Air conditioners sold in the same city. The average selling price of a Samsung
smart TV is 4.6 lakh. Find the total revenue earned in City S by selling Samsung
smart TVs.
1) 356.5lakhs 2) 517.6 lakhs 3) 417.6 lakhs
4) 717.6 lakhs 5) 405.6 lakhs
112. The difference between the number of Refrigerators sold in cities P and Q is
______, The difference between the number of Air conditioners sold in cities S
and T is _____ and the number of Refrigerators sold in R is _____percentage of the
number of Refrigerators sold in city T. Which of the following is correct?
1) 36,168,30 2) 56, 168,40 3) 36, 136, 60
4) 18, 142,65 5) None of the above
113. In the year 2023, the number of items sold in city Q is 20% more than the
number of items sold in 2024. The percentage of Air conditioners sold in city Q in
2023 is 5m. Find the difference between the number of Washing machines and
Refrigerators together sold in city Q in 2023 and 2024.
1) a-3 2) 32n 3) 22a 4) b+24 5) 19.5k

15
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

114. The total number of Washing machines sold in all the cities together is
approximately what percentage more or less than the total number of Refrigerators
sold in all the cities?
1) 30 2) 23 3) 35 4) 45 5) 50
115. What is the total number of items sold in all the cities together?
1) 1440 2) 1330 3) 1450 4) 1640 5) 1840
116. A bag contains some balls of which 17 blue balls, X red balls, and X-1 black balls.
If three balls are picked up from the bag without replacement, then the probability
1
of the first being black, the second being red, and the third being blue is . Find

r’s
28
the number of black balls in the bag.
(Note: ‘X’ is a multiple of 5)
1) 9 2) 7 3) 6 4) 8 5) 5
117. Savitha can complete work alone in 25 days. Savi is 25% more efficient than
Savitha. They started the work together, but Savi left after some days and Savitha
ha
alone finished the remaining work in 7 days. How many days did Savitha work to
complete the job?
1) 5 2) 9 3) 6 4) 15 5) 12
118.

E
There are three vessels P, Q and R. Vessels P and Q are filled with Milk to water
in the ratio of 5 : 2 and 3 : 2 respectively. If 20% of a mixture from vessel P is
d
taken out and poured in vessel R, which contains 60 liters of pure milk. If in the
resulting mixture, milk is 650% more than water in vessel R and in the initial
quantity of mixture in vessel Q is 60 liters less than that of the mixture in vessel
ee

P, then find the initial quantity of milk in vessel Q.

1) 80 2) 90 3) 60 4) 45 5) 120
Direction (119-121): In the given question two quantities are given, one as Quantity
C
I, Quantity II and Quantity III. You have to determine relationship between two
Quantities and choose the appropriate option.
Sr

119. P is 5 years younger than T, who is 2 years older than R, who is 4 years older than
S. Age of Q is 22 years. Ratio of age of P to T is 5:6.
Quantity I: Sum of age of P and Q after 8 years?
Quantity II: Sum of age of Q and S after 7 years?
Quantity III: Sum of age of P and S after 10 years?
1) Quantity I < Quantity II < Quantity III
2) Quantity II > Quantity I > Quantity III
C
3) Quantity III > Quantity II > Quantity I
4) Quantity I < Quantity II = Quantity III
5) Quantity I = Quantity II > Quantity III
120. In vessel P, the ratio of milk to water is 7:5. Ratio of milk to water in vessel Q is
4:3. The Sum of milk in vessel P and Q is 75 L and Water in vessel Q is 5L more
than in vessel P. Quantity of water in vessel Q and R is the same. Quantity of
milk in vessel R is 5 L less than the quantity of water in the same vessel.
Quantity I: 15% of the quantity of milk in all vessels?
Quantity II: 25% of the quantity of water in Vessel Q and R?
Quantity III: 22% of the mixture of vessel Q?
1) Quantity I < Quantity II < Quantity III
2) Quantity II > Quantity I > Quantity III
3) Quantity III > Quantity I > Quantity II
4) Quantity I < Quantity II = Quantity III
5) Quantity I = Quantity II < Quantity III

16
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

121. X scored 90 marks in English. Y scored in Maths is 100% more marks than that of
X. Marks scored by Y in English are the same as X scored in Maths. The ratio of
marks scored in English by X to Y is 9:4 and the ratio of marks scored in science
by X to Y is 6:7 respectively. The total marks scored by X in three subjects is 190,
the maximum marks in each subject is 100.
Quantity I: Percentage of marks of X?
Quantity II: Average marks of X and Y in English?
Quantity III: Average marks of X and Y in science?
1) Quantity I < Quantity II < Quantity III
2) Quantity II > Quantity I > Quantity III
3) Quantity III > Quantity I > Quantity II

r’s
4) Quantity I < Quantity II = Quantity III
5) Quantity I = Quantity II < Quantity III
Direction (122-124): Each question below is followed by two statements I, II and
III. You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient
for answering the question.
ha
122. Find the time taken by S to complete the work.
Statement I: Ratio of efficiency of P to S is 3:4. Q completes the work in 10 days.
Statement II: Ratio of efficiency of R to Q is 3:1 and ratio of number of days
taken by R to P to complete the work is 3:2.

E
Statement III: R alone completes the work in 30 days and P completes the work
in 20 days.
d
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III 4) Only I and III 5) Only I and III or Only I and II
123. What is the selling price, when item A is sold at 30% profit?
Statement I: Ratio of cost price of item A to B is 7:8. Selling price of item C is
ee

Rs.450 when it is sold at 25% profit.

Statement II: Average cost price of item B and C is Rs.340.
Statement III: When item A is marked up by 50% then give discount of 20% then
C
there is a profit of Rs.18.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III or Only I and II
4) Only I and III 5) Only I and III or Only I and II
Sr

124. What is the age of Janu?

2
Statement I: Jamu is 5 years older than janu. Jamu is 66 % older than Jassi.
3
Statement II: Jassi is 6 years younger than Lassi, who is one year younger than
Janu.
Statement III: Ratio of age of Jassi to Lassi is 3:4. Ratio of Jamu to Lassi is 5:4.
C
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only II and III or Only I and II
4) Only I and III 5) Only I and III or Only I and II
125. Volume of the cylinder is 4224 m3. Radius of the cylinder is equal to the side of a
square whose area is 64 sq m. Height of the cuboid is equal to the height of the
cylinder. The width of the cuboid is half of the height of the cylinder. Total surface
area of the cuboid is 1071 sq m. What is the volume of the cuboid? (in m3)
1) 72500 2) 2150 3) 2205 4) 72800 5) 75600
126. Radius of the sphere is P cm and the height of the cone is Q cm. Radius of the
sphere and radius of the cone is equal. Volume of the sphere and cone is R cm3
and S cm3 respectively. Some values of P, Q, R and S are given below.
Which one is satisfied?
I. P = 2.1, Q = 7, R = 48.808, S = 42.34
II. P = 14, Q = 7, R = 11598.66, S = 1337.33
III. P = 10.5, Q = 15, R = 4851, S =1732.5
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III 4) None 5) Either Only I or III

17
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

Direction (127-131): Read the given data and answer the following questions.
The following line graph shows that percentage of discount and radar graph
shows the percentage of profit of five different branded travel tourist bags
(Samsonite, American tourister, Safari, Tumi, Delsey) in different countries (India,
China , Netherland)

Percentage discount
60
55

r’s
50
45
40
35
30
25
20
ha
15
10
5

E
d
0

Samsonite American Safari Tumi Delsey

ee

tourister
India China Netherland
C
Percentage profit
Sr

Samsonite
80
70
60
50
Delsey American tourister
C
40
30

Tumi Safari

India China Netherland

127. If the cost price of American Tourister in China is 50% more than its cost price in
India, its cost price in the Netherlands is 225% more than its cost price in India,
then what is the percentage discount on American Tourister in all countries
together?
1) 55.55 2) 45.25 3) 55.25 4) 65.55 5) 38.75

18
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

128. If the cost prices of Tumi bags in India and China are 25% and 75% of their cost
prices in the Netherlands, then the marked price of Tumi bags in all three countries
together is what percent of its cost price in all three countries together?
1) 337.5 2) 207.5 3) 247.5 4) 227.5 5) 237.5
129. If the profit of Samsonite in India is Rs.60000, its marked price in China is
Rs.150000 more than its marked price in India, and the profit in the Netherlands
is Rs.65000 more than the profit on it in China, then what is the average discount
on Samsonite in all three countries together?
1) Rs.160000 2) Rs.150000 3) Rs.120000 4) Rs.100000 5) Rs.240000.
130. The cost price of a Safari bag in India is Rs.80000 and the ratio of the discount on

r’s
a Safari bag in India to the discount on it in China is 32:25. Profit on a Safari bag
in the Netherlands is 60% of the profit on it at China. If the marked price of a
Tumi bag at each of the 3 countries is the average of the marked price of a Safari
bag in all 3 countries together, then what is the average cost price of a Tumi bag
at all 3 countries together? (approximately)
1) Rs.94160
ha
2) Rs.54170 3) Rs.64160 4) Rs.44160 5) Rs.34160.
131. The ratio of marked prices of Samsonite in India, China, and the Netherlands is
2:3:4 and the average discount on it on all 3 countries together is Rs. 280000. If

E
the cost prices of each Samsonite, Safari and Delsey are equal in respective
countries, then what is the difference between total profit earned on Safari bags
in all 3 countries together and total profit earned Delsey bags in all 3 countries
d
together?
1) Rs.55000 2) Rs.25000 3) Rs.70000 4) Rs.35000 5) Rs.28000
Direction (132-136): Study the bar graph to answer the following questions.
ee

The given below bar graphs show the total investment of P and Q (in Rs.
Thousand) and the percentage of Q’s investment out of the total P and Q investment
in 5 different schemes (A, B, C, D, and E).
C
Sr

160
140
120
100
C
80
60
40
20
0
A B C D E

Total investment of P and Q

19
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

70

60

50

40 Percentage of
distrubution of Q

r’s
30 investment

20

10 ha
0
A B C D E

E
d
132. P is invested in scheme A offers simple interest at a rate of r % per annum. Q is
invested in Scheme A and offers compound interest at a rate of (r+5) % per
annum. If the difference between the interest earned by P and Q after 3 years is
ee

Rs.3969 and the interest received in Q is more than P. Then find the interest
received by Q. (Note: Where ‘r’ is multiple of 5)
C
1) Rs.29169 2) Rs.28169 3) Rs. Rs.39169 4) Rs.34559 5) Rs.45669
133. If scheme B offers compound interest (compounded annually) at 18% per annum,
Sr

then what is the difference between the interest received by P and Q after two
years?
1) Rs. 8063.1 2) Rs. 8444.2 3) Rs. 6045.2 4) Rs. 9445.2 5) Rs. 7063.2
134. P invested amount in scheme F is equal to Q invested his amount in scheme C
and Q invested amount in scheme F is equal to P invested his amount in scheme
B. Scheme F offers simple interest at a rate of 20% for 3 years. Find the total
C
interest received by P and Q in scheme F.
1) Rs.85500 2) Rs.65700 3) Rs.75600 4) Rs.95600 5) Rs.64500
135. What is the respective ratio between the total investment invested by P in scheme
B and scheme D together and the total amount invested by Q in scheme C and
Scheme E together?
1) 47: 70 2) 57: 70 3) 37: 30 4) 27: 50 5) 59: 60
136. Q invested in scheme C for 3 years. If scheme C offers simple interest at 8%per
annum for the first year and 12%annum for the second year and 20%per annum
at compound interest (compounded half-yearly) for the third year. Then what will
be the interest earned by Q after 3 years?
1) Rs.32,544 2) Rs.18289.152 3) Rs.82552
4) Rs.14625 5) Rs.19862

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

Direction (137-140): What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)
137. 15130% of 499.0125 + 5630 % of 224.21=(?)2
1) 28 2) 24 3) 26 4) 38 5) 18
(119.85% of 445.25-75.25)
138. +(98.852-92.052)=?
8.99
1) 1500 2) 1200 3) 1700 4) 1900 5) 1380
139. 13.33% of 1125 + 30.76% of 1105 - 26.66% of 525 = ?
1) 300 2) 250 3) 190 4) 350 5) 425

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140. ( 2303 ×362)÷191.9=? of {(74.9% of 54.05) - 10.5}
1) 8 2) 11 3) 15 4) 6 5) 17
REASONING
Directions (141-142): Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered
ha
as I and II. You have to decide which argument is a strong argument and which
one is a weak argument:
141. Statement: Should small States be formed out of bigger States in India?

E
Argument I: Yes, there will be greater administrative convenience.
Argument II: No, it will Jeopardize the national integration.
d
1) Only argument I is strong 2) Only argument II is strong
3) Arguments either I or II is strong 4) Arguments neither I nor II is strong
5) Arguments both I and II are strong
ee

142. Statement: Should words like ‘smoking is injurious to health’ essentially appear
on cigarette packs?
Argument I: Yes, it is a sort of brainwash to make the smokers realize the theory
C
that they are inhaling poisonous stuff.
Argument II: No, it will hamper the enjoyment of smoking.
Sr

1) Only argument I is strong.

2) Only argument II is strong.
3) Arguments either I or II is strong.
4) Arguments neither I nor II is strong.
5) Arguments both I and II are strong.
143. The principal of school A has blamed the school’s poor performance in standard
XII board exams on the fact that most of the children prepared for the Joint
C
Entrance Exam (JEE) held for engineering colleges XYZ rather than the board
exams.
(A) There had been many incidents of strikes and termination of teachers due to
conflicts with the management in school A last year.
(B) Cut-off percentage in XII standard should be stipulated to be eligible for the
JEE in order to discourage this practice.
(C) For entry into colleges XYZ, XII standard examination scores are not reckoned.
(D) JEE for engineering colleges is more sought after by the students than the
JEE for medical colleges.
(E) Such students who cleared the JEE had also scored well in board exams
owing to the fact that syllabi for both are the same.
(F) Those students who did not prepare for the JEE scored better in Board exams
than those who did.
Which of the given statements is implicit from the principal’s statement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) E 5) D

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

Direction(144-146): Study the given code language carefully to answer the given
question:
In a certain code language,
“voice need power limit” is coded as “nr mt uk wb”
“power nature make success” is coded as “su pj wb hx”
“voice passion success carrier” is coded as “hx rg @ vn”
“good passion nature limit” is coded as “vn su es nr”
(Note: All the given codes are two letter codes only)

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144. What does the code ‘su hx’ stand for as per the given code language?
1) carrier power 2) nature power 3) success good
4) success nature 5) make nature
145. Which of the following codes will replace ‘@’ given in bold in the given passage?
ha
1) either pj or es 2) either mt or uk 3) rg
4) es 5) hx
146. What does the code ‘rg’ stand for as per the given code language?
1) success 2) power

E 3) passion 4) carrier 5) good

Direction(147-150): Study the following information and answer the given question:
d
Eight people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H travelled in either of the two years,
viz. 2019 and 2020. In each year the given people travelled in either of the four
ee

months viz. January, April, July and October of the year. Thus only one person
travelled in each month and only four people travelled in each year. It is assumed
that no other person travelled in the given years. Also, each person travelled to
C
different cities viz. Rome, London, Jaipur, Sydney, Berlin, Madrid, Havana and
Zurich.
Sr

H travelled in a month having only 30 days. As many people travelled before

H as after the one who travelled to Jaipur. Only three people travelled between
the one who travelled to Jaipur and A. In the given years, there are only five
months between the months in which A travelled and the one who travelled to
Madrid. B travelled immediately before the one who travelled to Madrid. The one
who travelled to London travelled in one of the months after October but before
July. Only two people travelled between the one who travelled to London and the
C
one who travelled to Havana. Only two people travelled between the one who
travelled to Rome and G. The one who travelled to Rome travelled in an odd
numbered year. C travelled immediately before G. The one who travelled to Berlin
travelled in an even numbered year. Only two people travelled between E and the
one who travelled to Sydney. F did not travel in October.
147. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement
and thus form a group. Identify the one which does not belong to the group.
1) The one who travelled to Berlin - B 2) A- The one who travelled to Jaipur
3) The one who travelled in July 2019 - G 4) The one who travelled to Sydney - F
5) E - The one who travelled in January 2019
148. Who amongst the following travelled in January, 2020?
1) The one who travelled to Havana 2) The one who travelled to London
3) H 4) F 5) E

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

149. As many people travelled before the one who travelled to London as after ________
(amongst the given people).
1) The one who travelled to Zurich 2) F 3) B
4) The one who travelled in July, 2019 5) G
150. Which of the following pairs contains one person who travelled in 2019 and one
person who travelled in 2020?
1) The one who traveled to Rome, F 2) The one who travelled to London, D
3) A, The one who travelled to Sydney 4) B, The one who travelled to Madrid
5) E, The one who travelled to Jaipur
Direction (151-154): Study the following information to answer the given question:

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A number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of
input and rearrangement.
(Note: All the numbers given as input are two digit numbers only.)
INPUT: 87 25 42 64 47
Step I:
Step II:
881
485
ha 223
124
442
244
662
365
443
245
Step III: 4449 1115 2226 3338 2227
Step IV: 214449
Step V: 24

E81115
16
122226
15
173338
25
132227
17
d
And Step V is the last step of the rearrangement as the intended output is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find the appropriate steps for the
given input.
ee

INPUT: 43 24 63 65 28
151. In which of the following step/s of the rearrangement a number is repeated?
C
1) There is no such step 2) Step II 3) Step V
4) Step III 5) Step I
152. What is the difference between the fourth smallest and the fifth smallest number
Sr

in step III?
1) 3 2) 4 3) 1 4) 2 5)6
153. In Step IV, what is the sum of the second digit of the second number from the left
end and the third digit of the fourth number from the left end?
1) 1 2) 4 3) 2 4) 5 5) 3
154. How many numbers in Step 1 are completely divisible by 3?
C
1) Four 2) None 3) Two 4) One 5) Three
Direction (155-158):Study the following information and answer the given
questions.
There are seven members in a family – P, Q, R, S, T, U and V. Each member
of the family is of a different age. (Note: It is assumed that the husband is older
than the wife).
R is older than V but younger than S. Q is the older brother of P. Q is
younger than V. P is the daughter of U. V is the younger brother of U. U is the
wife of R. T is the mother-in-law of U. T has only a daughter and a son. The third
youngest member of the family is 24 years old. The second oldest member of the
family is 49 years old.
155. In which of the following pairs are both the people younger than U?
1) S, R 2) Q, T 3) R, V 4) T, P 5) V, P
156. What is the probable age of S’s mother?
1) 71 years 2) 44 years 3) 48 years 4) 29 years 5) 39 years

23
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

157. With respect to the ages of the given people V + U = 52, then what is the probable
age of T’s son?
1) 19 years 2) 53 years 3) 34 years 4) 26 years 5) 52 years
158. How is S related to U?
1) Sister-in-law 2) Cousin 3) Father
4) Brother-in-law 5) Aunt
Direction (159-161): Study the given examples carefully to answer the given
questions:
A @ B (12) means A is 4m to the north of B
A % B (15) means A is 25m to the east of B

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A # B (26) means A is 14m to the south of B
A $ B (10) means A is 16m to the west of B
A @$ B means A is to the north-west of B
A #% B means A is to the south-east of B
A @ B means A is to the north of B
ha
Q # P(22), R % Q(10), R @ N(24), N $ T(5), T # U(31), U % V (30), V # W (19)
159. Four of the following five points are alike in a certain way based on their direction
and thus form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
1) T - W 2) U - P

E 3) Q - V 4) N - U
160. In which direction is point W with respect to point P?
1) @$ 2) $ 3) % 4) #$
5) R - W

5) @
d
161. If Y @ N as well as Y %V, how far is point Y from point R?
1) 5m 2)7m 3) 4m 4) 6m 5) 3m
Direction (162-163):Read the given information to answer the given question:
ee

Six people viz. J, K, L, M, N and O live on six different floors of a six storeyed
building where the lower most floor is numbered one, the one above that is
numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered six. K lives on a floor
C
number which is a perfect square (1 is also a perfect square). N lives immediately
above K. As many people live above N as below L. J lives immediately above O.
Sr

Conditions:
1. These people are made to stand on a staircase having 40 stairs where the
lowermost stair is numbered 1, the one above that is numbered 2 and so on till
the topmost stair is numbered 40. Only one person stands on each stair.
2. Initially the given people stand only on a stair which is a multiple of 6. The
person living on floor numbered one stands on stair number 6, the person living
C
on floor numbered two stands on stair number 12 and so on.
3. The people standing on each stair move up and down on the basis of two dice
rolled simultaneously. The people who live on even numbered floor move downwards
on stairs and people who live on odd numbered floor move upwards on stairs.
4. The two dice are rolled by people as per the English alphabetical order. The
sum of number that appears on both the dice indicates the steps that the person
has to move up or down. Each person rolls the dice only once.
5. For e.g. if (3, 4) appears on dice, then the person either moves 7 stairs up or
down. If the person is standing on stair number 3 then the person moves 7 stairs
up i.e. to stair number 10.
6. More than one person may stand on a stair after the dice is rolled by each
person once.
7. The numbers that appear on dice after each person rolls the dice are (3, 4), (1,
1), (5, 2), (6, 6), (2, 2) and (5, 4) respectively.
162. Who amongst the following stands on stair numbered 8 after the dice is rolled?
1) No one 2) Only K 3) Only J 4) Only N and K 5) Only J and L

24
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

163. Which of the following statements is/are true as per the given information?
(Note: You have to consider the stair numbers after the dice is rolled)
(A) K stands on stair numbered 37
(B) There are only two stairs between the stairs on which M and O stand
(C) J stands on an even numbered stair
(D) There are as many stairs between the stairs on which J and M stand as
between J and N

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(E) No one stands below the stair on which K stands
1) Only B and E 2) Only B, C and D 3) Only A and E
4) Only B and C ha 5) Only A and B
Direction (164-167): Study the following information and answer the given
questions:
Ten people with names starting with J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S of a

E
family are sitting around a circular table facing the centre with equal distance
between them. The family has only four females. No two people with names starting
d
with consecutive alphabets is an immediate neighbour of each other. For eg. A is
not an immediate neighbour of B. B is neither an immediate neighbour of A nor C
and so on.
ee

M is the son-in-law of S, who is married. O is the father of N. O is spouse of

P, who sits third to the left of M. N sits opposite to P and he is a nephew of L. M
C
has no siblings. R is cousin of N. L sits immediate to P. S has only two daughters
and no son. Only three people sit between L and O (either from left or right). O
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sits immediate right to Q. S is the brother-in-law of Q, who has only one sister. K
is married to R. J sits second to the left of L’s father. P’s nephew sits immediate
to P.
164. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on
the given arrangement ?
C
SN QK RJ MO ?
1) RL 2) KS 3) PN 4) PS 5) KM
165. The number of people sitting between M and O (when counted from the left of M)
is one less than the number of people sitting between N and _____(when counted
from the right of N).
1) O 2) K 3) Q 4) J 5) P
166. Which of the following pairs does not represent the couples?
1) M, L 2) S, J 3) Q, N 4) P, O 5) K, R
167. What is the position of S with respect to L’s brother-in-law?
1) Immediate left 2) Third to the right 3) Fourth to the right
4) Second to the left 5) Third to the left

25
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

Directions(168-169): Given below is a statement followed by two courses of action

numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true
and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the
suggested course of actions logically follows for pursuing.
168. Statement: State A is a developing State. Authorities of State A observed that
most of the students who completed their graduation from the institutes in State
A shifted to other developed States for better prospects.
Course of Action I: Authorities of State A should try to improve the quality of
education of graduate courses in the institutes located in the state.

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Course of Action II: The Government of State A should ask the students to sign a
bond at the time of admission in graduation that they have to serve State A at
least for 6 months after completion of their graduation.
1) Either Course of action I or Course of action II follows.
2) Both Course of action I and Course of action II follow.
ha
3) Only Course of action I follows.
4) Only Course of action II follows.

E
5) Neither Course of action I nor Course of action II follows.
169. Statement: State ‘X’ has been declared as the ‘least green’ state of its country.
d
Recently, the state government announced a three-day long drive for its residents
to plant around 10,000 seedlings across the state. Starting from the day
immediately following the announcement. Despite every effort to make the drive
ee

successful, only 23% of the expected population turned up to plant the seeds.
Course of action I: All the people of the state who did not turn up for the drive
should either be fined or be charged an extra amount of tax.
C
Course of action II: The state government should re-organize the drive and
advertise/announce it atleast two or three weeks in advance.
Sr

1) Either Course of action I or Course of action II follows.

2) Both Course of action I and Course of action II follow.
3) Only Course of action I follows.
4) Only Course of action II follows.
5) Neither Course of action I nor Course of action II follows.
C
Direction (170-172): In the question three statements followed by three
conclusions I, II and III. You have to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
170. Statements: Some arguments are debates. Only a few fights are contentions.
All fights are battles. Only a few battles are debates.
Conclusion I: All arguments can be fights
Conclusion II: Some battles are definitely not contentions
Conclusion III: Some debates are contentions
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Only conclusions I and II follow 4) Only conclusions II and III follow
5) Only conclusions I and III follow

26
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

171. Statements: All circuses are zoos. Only a few zoos are fairs.
No planetarium is aquarium. Only a few aquariums are fairs.
Conclusion I: Some fairs can never be planetarium
Conclusion II: Some circuses are planetarium
Conclusion III: All zoos can be planetariums
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Only conclusions I and II follow 4) Only conclusions II and III follow
5) Only conclusions I and III follow
172. Statements: Only a few dinners are food. All lunches are meals
Only a few meals are breakfasts. No food is a meal
Conclusion I: Some dinners are lunches

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Conclusion II: All foods can be breakfasts
Conclusion III: No breakfast is dinner
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Only conclusions I and II follow 4) Only conclusions II and III follow
5) Only conclusions I and III follow
173.
ha
This consists of a situation and two statements numbered I and II given below it.
You have to decide which of the given statements can be a reason for the given
situation and select the appropriate answer.

E
Situation: In recent decades, people have become more aware of environmental
issues such as air and water pollution, waste management, ozone depletion and
global warming.
d
I: People have increasingly shifted from fossil fuel-powered vehicles to electric
vehicles in the last decade.
II: Several campaigns have been run by the governments of all countries and
ee

social activists across the globe to create awareness about the negative outcomes
of environmental issues.
1) Neither I nor II can be reasons. 2) Either I or II can be a reason.
C
3) Only II can be a reason. 4) Only I can be a reason.
5) Both I and II can be a reason.
Sr

Direction (174-176): In the following questions, the symbols +, $, %, # and @

used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
A + B means A is not greater than B
A $ B means A is not smaller than B
A % B means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B
A # B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B
A @ B means A is neither greater than nor smaller than B
C
Based on the given symbols, relationship between different elements is shown in
the statement. Statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions
based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
174. Statement: N % K + J @ U; T $ G @ V+ C; J @ H % P $ C
Conclusion I: V # U
Conclusion II: H + K
Conclusion III: G + P
1) All I, II and III are true 2) Only II is true 3) Only I is true
4) Only I and III are true 5) Only III is true
175. Statement: S $ B @ E # T; M @ U + E $ F; R + A @ F $ Q
Conclusion I: Q + U
Conclusion II: T % R
Conclusion III: M # S
1) Only I and II are true 2) Only II is true
3) Only II and III are true 4) Only I and III are true 5) Only III is true

27
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

176. Statement: Y + E @ A $ R; H # E @ M % L; G $ T # M @ U
Conclusion I: T # H
Conclusion II: L $ Y
Conclusion III: R + U
1) Only III is true 2) Only I is true
3) Only I and II are true 4) Only I and III are true
5) All I, II and III are true
Direction (177-180): Study the following information carefully to answer the
questions:
Five containers named 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are ready for dispatch to different

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locations and are stacked one over the other in such a manner that the lowermost
container is numbered 1, the container above it is numbered 2 and so on till the
uppermost container is numbered 5.
These containers are to be dispatched to different locations viz. Mysure,
Agra, Shimla, Chikmagalur and Jaisalmer. Each container consists of a certain
ha
number of books and a certain number of boxes stacked one above the other.
There is atleast one box and one book in each container. The height of each book
in each container is 2 inches and that of each box in each container is 15 inches.
NOTE:

E
1. The height of each container is different. The total height of a container is
equal to the total height of the books plus total height of the boxes in it.
d
2. The height of each box and book is in whole number.
The container being dispatched to Shimla is an odd number. The total height
of the container kept immediately below the container being dispatched to Shimla
ee

is 21 inches. Only two containers are kept between the container being dispatched
to Mysure and the container being dispatched to Jaisalmer. The container being
dispatched to Mysure is kept at one of the positions above the container being
C
dispatched to Jaisalmer. The container being dispatched to Jaisalmer contains
one more book than the container 2. The total height of container 3 is 39 inches.
Sr

The number of books in container 3 is more than 10. The container being dispatched
to Agra has two more boxes than the container being dispatched to Chikmagalur.
The container being dispatched to Agra contains 1 book. The total height of the
container being dispatched to Jaisalmer is 83 inches. One of the containers
contains 6 books. The total height of all the containers together is 232 inches.
177. Which container is immediately above the container being dispatched to Jaisalmer?
C
1) The container being dispatched to Chikmagalur
2) The container with a height of 39 inches
3) The container containing 12 books
4) The container with a height of 42 inches
5) The container being dispatched to Agra
178. Which of the following statements is TRUE as per the given arrangement?
1) Container 5 contains more books than Container 2
2) The height of the topmost container is lowest.
3) The container being dispatched to Shimla contains highest number of books.
4) None of the given statements is true.
5) The height of container 4 is an odd number.
179. What is the total height of the container being dispatched to Mysure in inches?
1) 68 inches 2) 60 inches 3) 47 inches 4) 39 inches 5) 42 inches
180. What is the total number of boxes in container being dispatched to Agra and
container 1?
1) 4 2) 9 3) 8 4) 5 5) 7

28
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

181. The Government has installed helmet vending machines where with the swipe of
a credit card, a helmet will be made available on demand. Riders return the
helmets to collection bins, where they are picked up each day taken to a
warehouse, cleaned and inspected before they can be used again.
Which of the following can be the reason behind this initiative taken by the
Government?
1) People whose skin is sensitive, get a heat rash from wearing a helmet in warm
to hot conditions and which discourages them from wearing one.
2) Between 2001 and 2013. atleast 70 percent of the riders killed in the country
each year weren’t wearing helmets and in many of those years, the proportion
was more than 90 percent, a survey revealed.

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3) Wearing helmets is not preferred by a lot of riders who suffer from Migraine as
it increases the frequency of getting an attack which can last longer than 72
hours.
4) Providing helmets is unhygienic -imagine paying to wear a sweaty helmet that
some stranger has just taken off.
ha
5) It encourages people to be more independent and health conscious.
182. In this question three words are given in bold and below them three steps are
given. Follow the given steps with conditions and answer the given question.
OBLIGATIONS

E CAPACITY ADOPTED
Step I: All the consonants and vowels (from each word) are grouped together (in
two different groups) and all the repeated letters are then deleted in their
d
respective groups.
Condition: If a letter is repeated odd number of times then it is retained but
written only once and if a letter is repeated even number of times then it is
ee

deleted.
Step II: All the letters in both the groups are changed to the previous letter as per
the English alphabetical order.
C
Condition: All the letters are to be arranged together as per the English alphabetical
order from left to right before applying the operation.
Step III: All the vowels are deleted. All such consonants which appear immediately
Sr

before or immediately after a vowel in the English alphabetical order are deleted.
(For e.g. If V appears in the resultant combination of letters, then it is deleted as
it appears immediately after U in the English alphabetical order)
After following all the steps how many letters remain in the resultant combination
of letters?
1) Two 2) Four 3) Three 4) Six 5) Five
C
183. This question consists of a statement and two inferences numbered I and II given
below it. An inference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred
from the given facts. You have to decide which of the given inference/s logically
follow/s from the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
Statement: It has been observed in schools that many students engage in bullying
those who are either younger than them or vulnerable, despite being punished
repeatedly. However, research suggests that, bullying behavior reduces in students
who are sent for counseling as compared to those who are only punished for the
same.
I. No student who is sent for counseling engages in bullying behavior.
II. Counseling is more effective in modifying behavior of students as compared to
punishment.
1) Both I and II can be inferred from the given information
2) Only I can be inferred from the given information
3) Either I or II can be inferred from the given information
4) Only II can be inferred from the given information
5) Neither I nor II can be inferred from the given information

29
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

Direction (184-186): The given question consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read the both statements
and mark the appropriate option.
184. Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each with
equal distance between adjacent people. In row I - W, X, Y and Z are seated and
all of them are facing north. In row II - A, B, C and D are seated and all of them
are facing south. Thus in the given arrangement each member seated in a row
faces another person of the other row. Who amongst the following faces D?
Statement I: B sits second to the left of C. W sits third to the right of Y. The one

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who faces Z is an immediate neighbour of A. X sits at one of the positions to the
left of Z.
Statement II: B sits second to the left of A. C sits extreme end of the row. The
one who faces W is an immediate neighbour of B. The one who faces A is an
immediate neighbour of Y. The one who faces X is an immediate neighbor of C. Z
ha
sits at one of the positions to the right of X.
1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the

E
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
d
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
3) The data in both statement I and statement II are together necessary to answer
the question
ee

4) The data either in statement I alone or data in statement II alone are sufficient
to answer the question
C
5) The data in both statements I and statement II together are not sufficient to
answer the question
Sr

185. Six people viz. A, B, C, D, E and F organized a party on six different days of the
same week starting from Monday to Saturday. Thus only one person organized a
party on each day. Who amongst the given people definitely organized a party on
Tuesday?
Statement I: Only two people are organized a party between A and B. B organized
a party on one of the days before A. As many people organized a party before F as
after A. C organized a party immediately before E.
C
Statement II: As many people organized a party before B as after E. C organized a
party on one of the days after D. Only two people organized a party between C and
D. A organized a party immediately before C.
1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
3) The data in both statement I and statement II are together necessary to answer
the question
4) The data either in statement I alone or data in statement II alone are sufficient
to answer the question
5) The data in both statements I and statement II together are not sufficient to
answer the question

30
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

186. Six people viz. P, Q, R, S, T and U bought six different things consecutively one
after the other on different occasions. Who amongst the given people was the first
person to buy a thing?
Statement I: Only two people bought a thing between T and P. R bought a thing
immediately before Q. More than two people bought a thing between U and S. P
bought a thing on one of the occasions before Q.
Statement II: Only one person bought a thing between P and Q. Only two people
bought a thing between T and P. Q bought a thing on one of the occasions after R.
1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

r’s
2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
3) The data in both statement I and statement II are together necessary to answer
the question
4) The data either in statement I alone or data in statement II alone are sufficient
to answer the question
ha
5) The data in both statements I and statement II together are not sufficient to
answer the question

E
Direction (187-188): This consists of a statement and two conclusions numbered
I and II given below it. A conclusion is something which can be directly deduced
from the given information in light of all the given facts. You have to decide which
d
of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement and select
the appropriate answer.
187. Statement: The translation of the most famous English book by the author Anand
ee

Rathore into other languages did not earn as many accolades as the original
book.
I. The topics on which Anand Rathore writes have become outdated now-
C
II. Any book which is translated into other languages never has good sales
1) Neither I nor II can be inferred 2) Only I can be inferred
Sr

3) Either I or II can be inferred 4) Both I and II can be inferred

5) Only II can be inferred
188. Statement: Rahul thoroughly read the book as told by his professor as according
to him anyone who read that book would definitely understand the concept of
Cognitive dissonance completely.
I. According to the professor. Rahul has now clearly understood the concept of
C
Cognitive dissonance.
II. Rahul’s professor also has himself read the book
1) Only I can be inferred
2) Both I and II can be inferred
3) Either I or II can be inferred
4) Neither I nor II can be inferred
5) Only II can be inferred
189. Tom has to create a weekly shopping schedule. He has to keep in mind the
following conditions before creating the final shopping schedule:
• Maximum three shopping trips per week. Trips cannot be on two consecutive
days.
• Five categories of products must be purchased: Fruits, Vegetables, Grains, Dairy
and Snacks.
• Maximum two stores can be visited in a single trip, and only one product can be
purchased from each store.

31
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 47

• Dairy products must be purchased twice a week, and all other categories must
be purchased once per week.
• At least one shopping trip must be on the weekend (Saturday or Sunday).
The stores and their available products are:

Store Available Products Operational days

A Fruits, Vegetables Monday, Wednesday and Saturday
B Grains, Snacks Tuesday, Friday and Saturday
C Snacks, Dairy Wednesday, Thursday and Friday
D Vegetables Monday, Wednesday and Friday

r’s
E Fruits, Grains Thursday and Sunday

Which of the following days can Tom opt for shopping, while fulfilling all conditions?
1) Monday, Friday, and Sunday 2) Tuesday, Thursday, and Saturday
3) Monday, Thursday, and Saturday 4) Wednesday, Friday, and Sunday
ha
5) Tuesday, Friday, and Saturday
190. This consists of information followed by two statements numbered I and II.
The travel authorities of the country T have eased the process of acquiring visas
for tourists.

E
Statement I: The economy of country T is more dependent on the tourism industry
d
than any other industry.
Statement II: Students will be encouraged to go for higher studies in T.
Which of the given two statements can be inferred about the given information ?
ee

(An inference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from
the given facts)
1) Either I or II can be inferred from the given information
C
2) Only II can be inferred from the given information
3) Only I can be inferred from the given information
Sr

4) Both I and II can be inferred from the given information

5) Neither I nor II can be inferred from the given information

KEY
1.4 2.2 3.2 4.1 5.3 6.4 7.1 8.4 9.2 10.5
11.1 12.5 13.3 14.1 15.5 16.3 17.4 18.4 19.5 20.4
C
21.5 22.4 23.1 24.3 25.1 26.2 27.4 28.3 29.5 30.3
31.4 32.3 33.4 34.1 35.3 36.2 37.1 38.2 39.3 40.1
SCAN QR FOR
41.5 42.1 43.2 44.1 45.4 46.3 47.1 48.4 49.2 50.1
OUR RESULTS
51.3 52.2 53.5 54.1 55.2 56.2 57.1 58.3 59.1 60.2
61.4 62.1 63.2 64.3 65.5 66.3 67.4 68.1 69.3 70.4
71.3 72.2 73.2 74.2 75.3 76.2 77.4 78.3 79.4 80.2
81.5 82.4 83.5 84.2 85.4 86.3 87.3 88.1 89.3 90.2
91.5 92.3 93.3 94.2 95.2 96.5 97.5 98.5 99.3 100.3
101.1 102.4 103.4 104.2 105.5 106.4 107.5 108.4 109.3 110.5
111.4 112.1 113.5 114.2 115.5 116.1 117.4 118.2 119.3 120.5
121.4 122.5 123.3 124.3 125.3 126.3 127.3 128.1 129.1 130.2
131.4 132.1 133.5 134.3 135.2 136.1 137.1 138.5 139.4 140.2
141.1 142.1 143.2 144.4 145.2 146.4 147.4 148.5 149.4 150.4
151.3 152.4 153.2 154.5 155.5 156.1 157.3 158.1 159.4 160.2
161.5 162.4 163.1 164.5 165.4 166.3 167.5 168.3 169.4 170.3
171.5 172.2 173.3 174.4 175.2 176.1 177.1 178.3 179.5 180.3
181.1 182.5 183.4 184.2 185.1 186.5 187.1 188.1 189.4 190.3

32