16-02-2025

1901CMD303031240091 MD

PHYSICS

1)

A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5 R and 3R respectively as shown in the figure. When
some potential difference is applied between X and Y, the voltmeter, readings are VA.VB and VC
respectively, then

(1) VA ≠ VB ≠ VC
(2) VA = VB = VC
(3) VA ≠ VB = VC
(4) VA = VB ≠ VC

2) If each resistance in the fig. is of 9 Ω then reading of the ammeter is :–

(1) 5A
(2) 8A
(3) 2A
(4) 9A

3) In the circuit shown below, the reading of the voltmeter V is :-

(1) 12V
(2) 8V
(3) 20V
(4) 16V

4) Four circuits are shown below. All the batteries have the same voltage V and all resistors have the
same resistance R. In which circuit does the battery delivers the most power?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) 20% of the main current passes through the galvanometer. If the resistance of the
galvanometer is G, then the resistance of the shunt will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 50G
(4) 9G

6) Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity
(angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is

(1) 40 Ω
(2) 25 Ω
(3) 250 Ω
(4) 500 Ω

7) Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC source of emf E, and zero
internal resistance.
The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs when
(i) all are glowing and
(ii) in the situation when two from section A and one from section B are glowing, will be :
(1) 4 : 9
(2) 9 : 4
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1

8) The equivalent resistance of the infinite network give below is :

(1) 2Ω

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A ring is made of a wire having a resistance R0 = 12 Ω. Find the points A and B as shown in the
figure at which a current carrying conductor should be connected so that the resistance R of the sub

circuit between these points is equal to Ω :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

10) Magnetic field at point O will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A horizontal overhead powerline is at a height of 4m from the ground and carries a current
of 100 A from east to west. The magnetic field directly below it on the ground is :-

(1) 2.5 × 10−7 T, southward

(2) 5 × 10−6 T, northward
(3) 5 × 10−6 T, southward
(4) 2.5 × 10−7 T, northward

12) A current carrying wire AC is placed in uniform transverse magnetic field then the force on

wire AC :-

(1) 3N
(2) 4.2N
(3) 6N
(4) 4N

13) An electric field E and a magnetic field B applied on a proton which moves with velocity v, it
goes undeflected through the region if :-

(1) E ⊥ B
(2) E is parallel to v and perpendicular to B
(3) E, B and v all three mutually perpendicular to each other and v = E/B
(4) E and B both are parallel but perpendicular to v

14) An electron is moving around a proton in an orbit of radius 1Å and produces 16 Wb/m2 of
magnetic field at the centre, then find the angular velocity of electron :-

(1) 20 π x 1016 rad/sec

(2) 10 π x 1016 rad/sec

(3)

(4)

15) To protect a sensitive instrument from external megnetic jerks, it should be placed in a
container made of :-

(1) Non magnetic substance

(2) Diamagnetic substance
(3) Paramagnetic substance
(4) Ferromagnetic substance

16) The liquid in the watch glass in the following figure is -

(1) Ferromagnetic
(2) Paramagnetic
(3) Diamagnetic
(4) Nonmagnetic

17) Which one of the following is ferro-magnetic :-

(1) Co
(2) Zn
(3) Hg
(4) Pt

18) Which statement is true :

(1) atomic magnetic dipole moment of diamagnet is zero

(2) atomic magnetic dipole moment of para-magnet is zero
(3) atomic magnetic dipole moment of ferro-magnet is zero
(4) ferromagnet is demagnetised rapidly after moving in magnetising field.

19) A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown in adjoining figure. Linear parts of the wire are
very long and parallel to X-axis while semicircular portion of radius R is lying in Y-Z plane. Magnetic
field at point O is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A rectangular coil of length 0.12m and width 0.1m having 50 turns of wire is
suspended vertically in a uniform magnetic field of strength 0.2 Weber/m2. The coil carries a current
of 2 A. If the plane of the coil is inclined at an angle of 30° with the direction of the field, the
torque required to keep the coil in stable equilibrium will be :

(1) 0.12 Nm
(2) 0.15 Nm
(3) 0.20 Nm
(4) 0.24 Nm

21) A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight

conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

22) Three long parallel wires carrying same current i in the x-y plane, the middle wire is along y-axis
as shown in the figure. Now the middle wire is displaced by distance z along z-axis, so the magnetic

force per unit length acting on it is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Given blow are two statements:

Statement I: Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an
infinitesimal current element(Idl) of a current carrying conductor only.
Statement II : Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's inverse square law of charge q, with the
former being related to the field produced by a scalar source, Idl while the latter being produced by
a vector source, q.
In light of above statement choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are correct

24) Two thick wires and two thin wires, all of the same materials and same length form a square in
the three different ways P, Q and R as shown in figure with current connection shown. The magnetic

field at the centre of the square is zero in cases:-

(1) in P only
(2) in P and Q only
(3) in Q and R only
(4) P and R only

25) Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart. They carry steady equal currents flowing out
of the plane of the paper, as shown in figure. The variation of the magnetic field B along the line XX'
is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A and B are two wires carrying a current I in the same direction. x and y are two electron

beams moving in the same direction. There will be :-

(1) Attraction between A and B, repulsion between x and y

(2) Repulsion between A and B, attraction between x and y
(3) Attraction between A and B & x and y
(4) Repulsion between A and B & x and y
27) If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material and
ferromagnetic material are denoted by μd, μp and mf respectively, then :-

(1) μp = 0 and μf ≠ 0
(2) μd ≠ 0 and μp = 0
(3) μd ≠ 0 and μf ≠ 0
(4) μd = 0 and μp ≠ 0

28) A frog can be levitated in a magnetic field produced by a current in a vertical solenoid placed
below the frog. This is possible because the body of the frog behaves as :-

(1) paramagnetic.
(2) diamagnetic
(3) ferromagnetic
(4) antiferromagnetic

29) Correct relation between magnetic field B, Magnetic intensity H and magnetism M is :

(1) B = μ0(H + M)
(2) M = μ0(B + H)
(3) H = μ0(B + M)
(4) B = 2H(1 + M)

30) A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic
forces on segments PS, SR and RQ are F1, F2 and F3 respectively and are in the plane of the paper

and along the directions shown, the force on the segment QP is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

31) A bar magnet of length 'ℓ' and magnetic dipole moment 'M' is bent in the form of an arc as
shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will be :-

(1)

(2) M

(3)

(4)

32) In the circuit shown in figure what is the value of I1, 'ust after pressing the key K?

(1)

(2)

(3) 1A
(4) None of the above

33) A non-conducting circular ring of radius 4 cm is placed in a time varying magnetic field with rate
of 0.2T/s. If 2C charge placed at its circumference then electric force on this charge will be :-

(1) 4 × 10−3 N
(2) 8 × 10−3 N
(3) 6 x 10−2 N
(4) 8 x 10−2 N

34) A rectangular, a square, a circular and an elliptical loop, all in the (x - y) plane, are moving out of
a uniform magnetic field with a constant velocity, . The magnetic field is directed along the
negative z axis direction. The induced emf, during the passage of these loops, out of the field region,
will not remain constant for :-

(1) any of the four loops

(2) the rectangular, circular and elliptical loops
(3) the circular and the elliptical loops
(4) only the elliptical loop

35) A short bar magnet passes at a steady speed right through a long solenoid. A galvanometer is
connected across the solenoid. Which graph best represents the variation of the galvanometer
deflection θ with time :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) One conducting U tube can slide inside another as shown in figure, in figure, maintaining
electrical contacts between the tubes. The magnetic field B is perpendicular to the plane of the
figure. If each tube moves towards the other at a constant speed v, then the induced emf in the

circuit, where ℓ is the width of each tube:-

(1) 2Bℓv
(2) Zero
(3) −Bℓv
(4) Bℓv

37) The magnetic flux linked to a circular coil of radius R is:

ϕ = 2t3 + 4t2 + 2t + 5 Wb
The magnitude of induced emf in the coil at t = 5s is:

(1) 108 V
(2) 197 V
(3) 150 V
(4) 192 V

38) A 12 V, 60 W lamp is connected to the secondary of a step down transformer, whose primary is
connected to ac mains of 220 V. Assuming the transformer to be ideal, what is the current in the
primary winding?

(1) 2.7 A
(2) 3.7 A
(3) 0.37 A
(4) 0.27 A

39) Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical resistors with resistance R = 9.0 Ω each, two
identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf ε = 18 V. The

current 'i' through the battery just after the switch closed is,...... :-

(1) 0.2 A
(2) 2 A
(3) 0 ampere
(4) 2 mA

40) A conducting square frame of side 'a' and a long straight wire carrying current I are located in
the same plane as shown in the figure. The frame moves to the right with a constant velocity 'V. The

emf induced in the frame will be proportional to:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) The loop shown moves with a constant velocity 'v' in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 'B'
directed into the paper. The potential difference between P and Q is 'e':-

(1)
is positive with respect to P

(2)
is positive with respect to P
(3) e = 0
(4) e = BLv, Q is positive with respect to P

42) A current time curve is shown in the following diagram. This type of current is passed in the
primary coil of transformer. The nature of induced emf in the secondary coil will be :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

43) A circular loop of radius r is moved away from a current carrying wire then induced current in

circular loop will be :-

(1) Clock wise

(2) Anti clockwise
(3) Not induced
(4) None of them

44) The current flows in a circuit as shown below. If a second circuit is brought near the first circuit

then the current in the second circuit will be :-

(1) Clock wise

(2) Anti clock wise
(3) Depending on the value of RG
(4) None of the above

45) One coil of resistance 40Ω is connected to a galvanometer of 160Ω resistance. The coil has
radius 6mm and turns 100. This coil is placed between the poles of a magnet such that magnetic
field is perpendicular to coil. If coil is dragged out then the charge through the galvanometer is
32μC. The magnetic field is:-

(1) 6.55 T
(2) 5.66 T
(3) 0.655 T
(4) 0.566 T
 CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following ether is not produced by williamson ether synthesis :-

(1)

(2)

(3) CH≡C–O–CH=CH2
(4) All of these

2) Which of the following alcohol is not oxidised by PCC :

(1) n-butyl alcohol

(2) sec-butyl alcohol
(3) iso-butyl alcohol
(4) ter-butyl alcohol

3)

Dehydration of following alcohols will be in order:-

(1) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4

(2) 4 > 3 > 1 > 2
(3) 4 > 2 > 1 > 3
(4) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2

4) Salicylic acid can be easily prepared by reaction between :-

(1) Phenol and CO2/NaOH followed by acidification

(2) Benzoic acid and H2O2
(3) Benzene diazonium chloride and CO2
(4) Phenol and formic acid

5)
X & Y are :-

(1) CH3 – OH & (CH3)2CH – I

(2) CH3 – I & (CH3)2CH – OH
(3) CH3 – I & (CH3)2CH – I
(4) CH3 – OH & (CH3)2CH – OH

6) In which of the following benzene will not be product :-

⊕
(1) Ph MgCl + H3O →
(2) Ph – OH + Zn

(3) Ph – COOH + (NaOH + CaO)

(4) Ph–Cl + NaOH

7) Acetylene Major product

Select correct statement :-

(1) Product is nonaromatic in nature

(2) Product is nonplanar
(3) Product does not react with Br2 / H2O
(4) Product is saturated

8) Which is most reactive towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The product of the following reaction is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10)

CaC2 + H2O —→
here B is :

(1) C2H2
(2) C3H8
(3) C2H4
(4) C6H6

11) Diethyl ether acts as a -

(1) Lewis acid

(2) Lewis base
(3) Reducing agent
(4) Oxidising agent

12) P should be :- P (Major),

(1) R–CH2–OH
(2) R–CH2–NH2

(3)

(4) None of these

13) + CO2
The above reaction is

(1) Kolbe's electrolysis

(2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(3) Etard Reaction
(4) Kolbe Reaction

14) P, in the reaction product 'P' is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Among these acids which of the following order is correct for
ease of esterification with MeOH:-

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > I > III
(4) I > III > II

16) , Final product Q is :-CH3

(1)

(2) CH3—CH=CH—CHO
(3) CH3—CHO
(4) CH3—CH=CH—COOH

17) Some of the amines are given below out of them how many show positive test CHCl3 and NaOH

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

18) (A) (major)

Product of the reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

19)

Possible product is/are :-

(1) B
(2) A, B, C
(3) A, C
(4) B, C

20) Aniline in a set of the following reactions yielded a coloured product 'Y'

Y
The structure of 'Y' would be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Secondary amines could be prepared by :-

(1) Reduction of nitriles

(2) Reduction of amide
(3) Reduction of nitro compound
(4) Reduction of isonitriles

22) Minimum carbon atoms required for cyclo alkene to show ring chain isomerism :-
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

23) Which of the following shows geometrical isomers?

(1) a, c
(2) c, d
(3) a, d
(4) b, c

24) Which conformation of HO—CH2—CH2—OH is most stable in the following :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Which of the following compounds has chiral carbon atom?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) The configuration of the compound is

(1) E
(2) R
(3) S
(4) Z

27) The number of stereoisomers possible for 2–bromo–3–chloro butane is :–

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 3

28) Find the reactivity order towards hydrolysis :-

(P) (Q) (R) (S)

(1) R > S > Q > P
(2) R > P > Q > S
(3) P > Q > R > S
(4) S > Q > P > R

29) The given reaction is an example of which reaction?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) Elimination reaction by alcoholic KOH will be fastest in

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A B C
Which is correct for above reaction :-
(1)
A=

(2)

B=

(3)

C=

(4)

C=

32)
major product of the reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33)

Which one of the following compounds will be most reactive for SN1 reaction:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34)
Product B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

35) The correct order of basic strengths of x, y, z is :-

(1) x > y > z

(2) x > z > y
(3) y > x > z
(4) y > z > x

36) Compare acidic strength :-

(i) CHCl3 (ii) CHF3 (iii) CH3 – CH3

(1) i > ii > iii

(2) ii > i > iii
(3) iii > i > ii
(4) ii > iii > i

37)
Which of the following is correct order of acidic strength for given compounds :-

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) IV > III > I > II
(3) II > I > IV > III
(4) III > IV > I > II

38) Which is not an ambidentate ligand ?

(1) –CN
(2) SCN–
(3)
(4)

39) Which of the following ion is not present in aqueous solution of potash alum?

(1) K+
(2) Al3+
(3)
(4)

40) Oxidation state of Ni in [Ni(CO)4] is ...........

(1) +4
(2) +2
(3) –2
(4) Zero

41) Which is Hexa dentate ligand from the following ?

(1)
(2) Oxalate ion
(3) EDTA
(4) Dyne

42) In Na2[Fe(CN)5NO], sodium nitroprusside :-

(1) Oxidation state of Fe is +2

(2) It has NO+ as ligand
(3) Both are correct
(4) None is correct

43) Which of the following absorb light of high wavelength :-

–4
(1) [Ni(CN)6]
+2
(2) [Ni(H2O)6]
+2
(3) [Ni(NH3)6]
(4) Same for all

44) Which of the following order is correct in spectrochemical series of ligands ?

– – 2– – –
(1) Cl < F < C2O4 < NO2 < CN
– 2– – – –
(2) NO2 < C2O4 < Cl < F < CN
2– – – – –
(3) C2O4 < F < Cl < NO2 < CN
– – – – 2–
(4) F < Cl < NO2 < CN < C2O4

45) Low spin complex is formed by

(1) sp3d2 hybridisation

(2) sp3d hybridisation
(3) d2sp3 hybridisation
(4) sp3 hybridisation

BIOLOGY

1) To avoid summer - related problems such as heat and desiccation fish undergoes

(1) Hibernation
(2) Diapause
(3) Aestivation
(4) None of these

2) What will be happen if the number of organism increased at a place ?

(1) Interspecies competition

(2) Intraspecies competition
(3) Both
(4) None

3)

Primary productivity of an area depends on :

1. Variety of environment factors
2. Nutrients availability
3.Plant species of that area
4. Photosynthetic capacity
Choose correct options :

(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 only
(3) 3 and 4 only
(4) All of the above

4) Choose correct match from following :

Column A Column B

(1) Cuscuta Endoparasite

(2) Hypersaline lagoon 30-35 ppt salinity

(3) Snails Aestivation

(4) Mango Temperate region

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) What is composed, when a biological community, integrated with its physical environment ?

(1) Biome
(2) Population
(3) Ecosystem
(4) Biosphere

6) Which of the following ecosystem is most productive ?

(1) Tundra
(2) Coniferous forest
(3) Deciduous forest
(4) Tropical rain forest

7) The variation in which environmental factor shows major effect on the rate of metabolism in
organisms?

(1) Rainfall
(2) Temperature
(3) Light
(4) Water

8) Which of the following is not a favourable factor for increasing the rate of decomposition ?
(1) Oxygen richness of soil.
(2) Detritus rich in lignin
(3) Warm environment
(4) High soil moisture

9) Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) Net primary productivity is available biomass for consumption to heterotrophs
(b) Secondary productivity is defined as rate of formation of new organic matter by heterotrophs
(c) The annual net primary productivity of ocean is greater than land
(d) Warm and moist environment favours decomposition

(1) a, b, c & d
(2) a, b & c only
(3) a, b & d only
(4) a & c only

10) In an ecosystem, the energy flow is always

(1) Unidirectional
(2) Bidirectional
(3) In any direction
(4) More than one options are correct

11) Which one of the following is correct regarding decomposition ?

I II

(1) Formation of dark coloured amorphous substance (i) Fragmentation

(2) Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon (ii) Humification

(3) release of inorganic nutrients by microbial activities (iii) Minerlisation

(4) Break down detritus into smaller particles (iv) Leaching

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Ecosystem are not exempt from the :–

(1) First law of thermodynamics

(2) Second law of thermodynamics
(3) Third law of thermodynamics
(4) Both (1) & (2)

13)

Humus is ____________
(1) Non-decomposed organic matter
(2) Lighter in colour
(3) Slightly alkaline
(4) Amorphous, more or less decomposed organic matter

14)

If 10000 J of energy fall on piece of land, how much energy is available at T2 level ? (T2 = 2nd trophile
level).

(1) 1000 J
(2) 10 J
(3) 100 J
(4) 1 J

15) Which one of the following interactions between species explain the major conduit for energy
transfer across trophic levels?

(1) Mutualism
(2) Competition
(3) Predation
(4) Commensalism

16) A relationship in which the parasitic bird (Cuckoo) lays its egg in the nest of its host (Crow) and
lets the host incubate them, is known as :-

(1) Commensalism
(2) Mutualism
(3) Brood parasitism
(4) None of them

17) Some insects and frogs show camouflage to :

(1) Show mutualism

(2) Attract females
(3) Look colourful
(4) Be protected/avoided by predators

18) The main reason for extinction of species is :-

(1) hunting
(2) destruction of habitat
(3) pollution
(4) Co-extinction

19)
Trees → Birds → Dice → Bacteria above food chain is __________

(1) Predatory
(2) Detritus
(3) Parasitic
(4) Crazing

20) Tropical areas are having greatest biodiversity because :-

(1) More solar energy is available in tropics

(2) They have less seasonal changes
(3) They had a long undisturbed evolutionary time
(4) All of these

21) Which of the following is broadly utilitarian role of ecosystem?

(1) Dyes
(2) Medicines
(3) Oxygen
(4) Fire wood

22) Long term stability of a biotic community is governed by its :–

(1) More diversity

(2) Population
(3) Pioneer community
(4) Environment

23) Total mega diversity country present in the world is :-

(1) 24
(2) 12
(3) 36
(4) 34

24) The two basic processes, contribute to an increase in population density in a given habitat
during a given period time are

(1) Natality and Emigration

(2) Natality and Immigration
(3) Immigration and Emigration
(4) Mortality and Immigration

25) The organization which publishes the 'Red Data Book' is:-

(1) National Environment Engineering Research Institute

(2) International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
(3) ICBN
(4) National Wild life Action Plan

26) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of shoot apex. Identify the part labelled A, B, C, D &

select right option about them

A B C D

Leaf Vascular Terminal Axillary

(1)
primordium tissue bud bud

Axillary Vascular Apical Terminal

(2)
bud tissue meristem bud

Leaf Vascular Axillary Apical

(3)
primordium tissue bud meristem

Vascular Leaf Apical

(4) Axillary bud
tissue primordium meristem
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Axillary bud derived from the activity of :-

(1) Lateral meristem

(2) Intercalary meristem
(3) Apical meristem
(4) Parenchyma

28) Which of the following is not a part/element of phloem in angiosperms ?

(1) Phloem parenchyma

(2) Sieve cells
(3) Companion cells
(4) Phloem fibres

29) Cortex is the region found between :-

(1) Epidermis and stele

(2) Endodermis and pith
(3) Epidermis and Endodermis
(4) Endodermis and vascular bundle

30) Which of the following cell do not respire

(1) Epidermal cell

(2) Cork cell
(3) RBC
(4) Sieve cell

31) Deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin at corners of cells is feature of :-

(1) Sclerenchyma
(2) Aerenchyma
(3) Collenchyma
(4) Chlorenchyma

32) The gritty texture of pears is caused by :-

(1) Sclereids
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Prosenchyma
(4) Parenchyma

33) Which of following is a living mechanical tissue:

(1) Collenchyma
(2) Sclerenchyma
(3) Both Collenchyma and Sclerenchyma
(4) Xylem

34) Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Vessel is an example of dead cell

(2) Sieve tube is an example of living cell
(3) Sieve tube element & companion cells are living
(4) Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of dicotyledons

35) Monocot root differs from dicot root in having :-

(1) Open vascular bundle

(2) Xylem and Phloem on same radius
(3) Scattered vascular bundle.
(4) Well developed pith.

36) Casparian strips are found in :-

(1) Epidermis
(2) Hypodermis
(3) Pericycle
(4) Endodermis

37) Ecological pyramids express the food or energy relationship between organisms at different
trophic level. However, there are certain limitations of ecological pyramids such as :-

(1) It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
(2) It does not accomodate a food web
Saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids even though they play a vital role in
(3)
the ecosystem
(4) All of the above

38) The pyramid of biomass is upright in which of the following ecosystem ?

(1) Pond
(2) Lake
(3) Ocean
(4) Grassland

39) Represented below the Ecological pyramid, which one of the following condition could be an
example of this pattern ?

(1) Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem

(2) Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem
(3) Pyramid of biomass in aquatic ecosystem
(4) Pyramid of energy in forest ecosystem

40) Identify A & B in given pie chart, (representing global biodiversity of vertibrates.)

(1) A = Ambhibian, B = Birds

(2) A = Reptiles, B = Mammals
(3) A = Reptiles, B = Birds
(4) A = Birds, B = Reptiles

41) Read the following statements and select correct one

(1) More than 70 percent of all the species recorded are plants
(2) Conventional taxonomic methods are suitable for identifying microbial species
(3) Among animals insects are the most species rich taxonomic group
The number of fungi species in the world is less than the combined total of the species of fishes,
(4)
amphibian reptiles and mammals

42) A more conservative and scientifically sound estimate made by Robert May places the global
species diversity at about ______

(1) 1.5 million

(2) 7 million
(3) 70 million
(4) 1 million

43) Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What groups

the four portions (A-D) represent respectively :-

A B C D

(1) Insects Crustaceans Other animal groups Molluscs

Other
(2) Crustaceans Insects Molluscs animal
groups

Other animal
(3) Molluscs Crustaceans Insects
groups

Other
(4) Insects Molluscs Crustaceans animal
groups
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) What is percentage of global biodiversity found in india :

(1) 2%
(2) 4.3 %
(3) 8.1 %
(4) 10.66 %
45) For the given graph identify X, Y and Z :

(1) X = Area, Y = Slope of curve, Z = Species richness

(2) X = Area, Y = Species richness, Z = Intercept on y axis
(3) X = Species richness, Y= Slope of curve, Z = Area
(4) X = Species richness, Y = Area, Z = Slope of curve

46) Match the following with respect to the average composition of cells.

% of the total
Component
cellular mass

a. Proteins (i) 5-7

b. Carbohydrates (ii) 3

c. Lipids (iii) 10-15

d. Nucleic acids (iv) 2

(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

47) Most abundant element in human body is :-

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Oxygen
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Carbon

48) Primary structure of a protein relates to

(1) α-helical folding of a polypeptide

(2) Association of two polypeptides
(3) The sequence of amino acids
(4) β-pleated sheet folding of a polypeptide

49) Most of the biological activities of proteins are due to :-

(1) Primary configuration

(2) Secondary configuration
(3) Tertiary configuration
(4) Quaternary configuration

50) In a protein chain the first amino acid is also called :-

(1) N – terminal amino acid

(2) C – terminal amino acid
(3) Both of them
(4) Valine

51) What is correct about given chemical structure?

(1) It is the structure of Tyrosine AA

(2) It is the structure of Serine AA
(3) It is the structure of Glutamic Acid
(4) It is the structure of Cysteine AA

52) is :-

(1) Amphipathic
(2) Zwitter ion
(3) Hydrophobic
(4) Both (1) & (3)

53) Which one is an amino acid ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

54) In a polysaccharide chain, the right end is ____ and left end is called ____ :-
(1) Reducing, non reducing respectively
(2) Non reducing, reducing respectively
(3) N-terminal, C-terminal respectively
(4) C-terminal, N-terminal respectively

55) Represented below is the effect of change in pH on enzyme activity. Which one of the following

conclusions can be made by this diagram ?

Enzyme show its highest activity at a particular pH, both below and above this pH, activity
(1)
declines
(2) With increasing pH, activity increases upto a limit then it become constant
(3) At a particular pH, activity is minimum, both below and above this pH activity increases
(4) Enzyme activity is affected by temperature not by pH so it is completely a hypothetical graph

56) Value of Km–constant (Michaelis–Menten constant) for an enzyme will be :–

(1)
Vmax.

(2)
Vmax.

(3)
Vmax.

(4)
Vmax.

57) Which of the following is a correct match according to secondary metabolites :-

(A) (B) (C)

Alkaloid Toxins Drug

(1) Vinblastin Abrin Morphine

(2) Codeine Ricin Curcumin

(3) Ricin Morphine Abrin

(4) Rubber Cellulose Morphine

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

58) A living state is an/a -

(1) Equilibrium steady state
(2) Non-equilibrium steady state
(3) Non-equilibrium non-steady state
(4) Equilibrium non-steady state

59) Arrange the steps of catalytic cycle of an enzyme in order and choose the right option:
(i) Enzyme releases products of reaction and the enzyme is free to bind to another substrate.
(ii) Active site of enzyme is in close proximity of substrate and breaks the chemical bonds of
substrate.
(iii) Binding of substrate induces enzymes to alter its shape fitting more tightly around substrate.
(iv) Substrate bind to active site of enzyme fitting into active site.

(1) iv, iii, ii, i

(2) iii, ii, i, iv
(3) iv, ii, i, iii
(4) iii, iv, i, ii

60) Which of the following can't be homopolymer?

(1) Protein
(2) Glycogen
(3) Cellulose
(4) Starch

61) What is the source of Ti plasmid, which is modified and used as a cloning vector to deliver the
desirable genes into plant cells?

(1) Agrobacterium tumifaciens

(2) Thermophilus aquaticus
(3) Pyrococcus furiosus
(4) Aedes aegypti

62) Which of the following technique is used for amplification of DNA :-

(1) Repetitive DNA

(2) ELISA
(3) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
(4) VNTR

63)

The enzyme used during PCR is–

I. Taq polymerase
II. Helicase
III. RNA polymerase
IV. Gyrase
Option :
(1) I only
(2) I and III
(3) I and IV
(4) I, II and III

64)

Bioreactors are useful in :-

(1) Separation and purification of a product

(2) Microinjection
(3) Processing of large volume of culture
(4) Isolation of genetic material

65) What is the correct order of 3 steps of PCR ?

(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

(2) Extension, denaturation, Annealing
(3) Annealing, Extension, denaturation
(4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

66) Which of the following option(s) is not correct regarding EcoRI enzyme -

(1) Cut at specific position within DNA

(2) Isolated from Escherichia coli RY13
(3) Removes nucleotides from ends of-DNA
(4) Restricting the growth of bacteriophage in bacteria.

67) Match the following columns -

Column-I Column-II

Isolation of Restriction
(A) (i)
purified DNA endonuclease

Isolation of DNA
(B) (ii) PCR
fragments

Cutting of DNA at Gel

(C) (iii)
specific position electrophoresis

Amplification of
(D) (iv) Chilled ethanol
gene
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

68)
Recombinant DNA is directly injected into nucleus of animal cell by -

(1) Microinjection
(2) Gene gun
(3) Electroporosis
(4) With help of PEG

69) Hind II always cut DNA molecules at a particular point by recognising a specific sequence of

(1) Five base pairs

(2) Six base pairs
(3) Four base pairs
(4) Eight base pairs

70) Molecular scissors are -

(1) Ligase enzyme

(2) Cellulase enzyme
(3) Restriction enzyme
(4) Polymerase enzymes

71)

During RNA interference, which vector was used to transfer nematode specific gene into the host
plant?

(1) PBR322
(2) Agrobacterium
(3) Retrovirus
(4) PUC

72) For isolation of pure DNA from a bacterial cell, the cell should not be treated with :

(1) Lysozyme
(2) Proteases
(3) Ribonuclease
(4) Deoxyribonuclease

73) A typical agarose gel electrophoresis showing migration of set of DNA fragments :-

which of the following statement is correct regarding this ?

(1) Only lane 1 shows undigested DNA fragment
(2) Only lane 4 shows digested DNA fragment
(3) Lane 1 to lane 3 show digested DNA
(4) Only lane 4 shows undigested DNA fragments

74) Identify A, B, C & D in the given figure of E.coli. Cloning vector pBR322 and select the correct

option :-

A B C D

(1) ampR BamH-I tetR Ori

(2) tetR BamH-I ampR Ori

(3) Ori BamH-I ampR tetR

(4) BamH-I Ori ampR tetR

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
75) Identify the given diagram shown below :-

(1) PCR
(2) Southern blotting
(3) Translation
(4) Recombinant DNA technology

76) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching for A & B :

A - Simple stirred tank bioreactor

(1)
B - Mixed tank bioreactor
A - Simple stirred tank bioreactor
(2)
B - Sparged stirred tank bioreactor
A - Sparged stirred tank bioreactor
(3)
B - Simple stirred tank bioreactor
A - Mixed tank bioreactor
(4)
B - Sparged stirred tank bioreactor

77)
In 1997, first transgenic cow produced human protein enriched milk

having protein @ gm/litre. Find the correct option:

(1) A-Rosie, B-α-lactalbumin, C-24

(2) A-Tracey, B-α-lactalbumin, C-2.4
(3) A-ANDi, B-β-lactalbumin, C-24
(4) A-Rosie, B-α-lactalbumin, C-2.4

78)

ELISA is based on-

(1) Amplification of nucleic acid

(2) Antigen antibody interaction
(3) Somatic hypridesation
(4) Meristem culture

79) CryIAc endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis are effective against :-

(1) Nematodes
(2) Cotton bollworms
(3) Bacteria
(4) Weeds

80) What is true for Bt-toxin:-

(1) Bt-toxin protein exist as active toxin in bacterium

(2) Bt-toxin is converted into an active toxin due to acidic pH in gut of insect
(3) Bt-toxin is converted into an active toxin due to alkaline pH in gut of insects
(4) Bt-toxin is obtained from virus

81) Which enzyme was targeted during the first clinical gene therapy given in 1990 to a 4 year old
girl?

(1) Monamine oxidase

(2) Tyrosine oxidase
(3) Adenosine deaminase
(4) Pyruvate dehydrogenase.

82)

FInd the correct match.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Army worms (1) Dipteran

 (b) Flies (2) Lepidopteran

(c) Beetles (3) Coelpteran

(d) Mosquitoes

(e) Tobacco budworm

(1) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-1, e-3
(2) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-1, e-1
(3) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-3, e-2
(4) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-1, e-2

83) The illegal and unlawful development of biomaterials without payment to the inhabitants of their
origin is called :

(1) Biopatent
(2) Biotechnology
(3) Bio-war
(4) Biopiracy

84) When DNA is transcribed into mRNA, usually the mRNA remained single-stranded, but in some
cases an RNA can be dsRNA which initiates.

(1) RNA i
(2) PCR
(3) DNA finger printing
(4) Gene cloning

85) The below diagram show a diagrammatic sketch of maturation of insulin. Select the correct set

of the names labelled P, Q, R and S.

P-A-peptide, Q-B-peptide,
(1)
R-Proinsulin, S-Free C-Peptide
P-Proinsulin, Q-A-peptide,
(2)
R-B-peptide, S-free C-Peptide
P-Free C-Peptide, Q-A-peptide,
(3)
R-B-peptide, S-Proinsulin
P-A-peptide, Q-B peptide,
(4)
R-Free C-peptide, S-Proinsulin

86) Match the items of column-I with column-II and choose correct answer.
 Column-I Column - II

A. Lady bird I. Methanobacterium

B. Mycorrhiza II. Trichoderma

Biological
C. III. Aphids
control

D. Biogas IV. Glomus

(1) A - II; B - IV; C - III; D - I
(2) A - III; B - IV; C - II; D - I
(3) A - IV; B - I; C - II; D - III
(4) A - III; B - II; C - I; D - IV

87)

Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a

(1) Chemical process

(2) Physical process
(3) Biological process
(4) Physicochemical process

88) Streptokinase is used

(1) In detergent formulations to remove oily stains

(2) In clarifying fruit juices
(3) As clot buster for removing clots from blood vessels
(4) To degrade starch

89) Beverages like __A__ and __B__ are produced without distillation.
Choose the correct option to fill the blanks A and B.

(1) Beer and brandy

(2) Rum and whisky
(3) Whisky and brandy
(4) Wine and beer

90) The first antibiotic was discovered by Alexander Fleming. The source for this antibiotic was

(1) Staphylococci
(2) Aspergillus niger
(3) Penicillium notatum
(4) Streptococcus
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 2 2 3 3 2 3 2 3 3 1 3 2 4 2 1 1 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 4 2 2 4 2 1 4 3 1 3 2 1 1 4 4 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 1 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 4 2 2 4 2 1 2 2 1 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 3 4 3 2 3 1 2 3 4 2 1 2 2 1 2 4 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 2 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 4 3 3 4 2 2 3 1 3 4 4 2 3 3 4 2 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 2 2 2 3 3 2 1 2 3 1 1 4 4 4 4 4 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 4 3 4 2 2 3 3 1 2 2 1 1 1 3 2 2 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 1 2 3 2 4 1 2 4 2 4 2 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 4 1 2 2 3 3 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

49)

51)

52)

Aceteline
It does not react with Br2/H2O

53)

Rate of ESR ∝ No. of α – H (Hyperconjugation)

54)

56)
Reaction is known as KOCH reaction
57)

58)

Fact based

60)

Earsterification ∝

65)

66)

67) & CH3–CH=CH2 are ring chain isomerism

68)

(a)

(b)
(c)

(4)
⇒ (a) & (d) can show geometrical isomerism.

69) is more stable due to intramolecular H—bonding.

70)
All 4 groups attached to carbon is different so it is chiral compound.

71)
⇒ R-Configuration

72)

∴ Total no. of stereoisomerism ⇒ 2n ⇒ 22 ⇒ 4

76)
 77)

78) SN1 reaction rate ∝ stability of carbocation ∝ leaving ability of group

80) (x) is 2° Amine

(z) is 2° amine with sp2 hybridisation.
(y) is 2° amine with (–) I group.

81) —→ Cl3 most stable, due to pπ = dπ bond

CHF3 —→ F3 EWG stabilized anion

CH3 – CH3 —→ CH3

ERG, destablise Anion

89)

As pure order of spectrochemical series.

BIOLOGY

94) NCERT Page No. 236, 222, 225

98) NCERT XII Pg.# 244

99)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 207, 208

100)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 207
101)

NCERT-XII, Page # 208, 209

105)

Predation

106)

NCERT Pg. No. 236

113) NCERT Pg. No. 261

114)

NCERT pg. no. 228

115) NCERT Pg. No. 263

116)

NCERT XIth Page No. 85

117) NCERT Pg. # 85

118) NCERT Pg # 87, Para-5

123) NCERT XI Pg.#86

124)

NCERT XI Pg. # 88

125)

Ncert page 74.

126) NCERT XI,Pg. # 91, Para - 6.3.1

130)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 218
131) NCERT Page No. 218, Para I

132) NCERT Page No. 259

133) Allen Module # 108

135) NCERT XII Pg#262 Fig# 15.2

136)

NCERT EDITION 2022 - 2023 Pg.No. 143

141) NCERT XI Pg. # 145

143) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 145

145) NCERT-XI Page no. 107

147)

NCERT XI Pg. # 146, Table 9.3

150) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 147

152)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 212

154)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 204, Para-1

155)

NCERT - 202

156)

NCERT Page No. # 195

157) NCERT Page No. # 198, 202, 201

158)

NCERT Pg. # 201 (E) ; 220 (H)

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160) NCERT-XII Pg. # 195 (E) ; 214 (H)

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NCERT Pg#168(E), 184(H)

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168)

NCERT Pg. No. 209, Allen Module CLASS XII

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173)

XII Old NCERT Pg # 185

174)

NCERT XII Pg. # 209

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