THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R.

MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0322] MARCH 2022 Sub. Code :6062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020 Batch onwards)

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II

Q.P. Code: 526062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)

Answer all the Questions
I. Essay: (2 x 15 = 30)
1. a) Classify drugs used in peptic ulcer
b) Discuss the mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of proton pump
inhibitors.
c) Add a note on Anti-H.pylori drug regimens.

2. a) Classify antimalarial drugs.

b) Describe the mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of chloroquine.
c) Write briefly on Artemisinin based combination therapy(ACT).

II. Write Short notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1) Role of Bisphosphonates in Osteoporosis.

2) Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Cisplatin.
3) Mechanism of action and uses of ciprofloxacin.
4) Discuss alkylating agents used as anticancer drugs.
5) Betalactamase inhibitors.
6) Drugs for psoriasis.
7) Mechanism of action and adverse effects of Amphotericin B.
8) Mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of Cyclosporine.
9) Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMS).
10) Multidrug resistant (MDR) TB.
********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0822] AUGUST 2022 Sub. Code :6062
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND YEAR - SUPPLEMENTARY (CBME)
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II
Q.P. Code: 526062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)

Answer all the Questions
I. Essay: (2 x 15 = 30)
1. A 25-year-old man has continuous low-grade fever for past 7 days. He also
complaints of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, tiredness, and loose motions. On
examination he was febrile, and he had coated tongue. Total leucocyte count was
found to be elevated. Blood Widal test was positive and blood culture was positive
for S.Typhi.
a. What are the drugs given in this condition?
b. Which is the drug empirically used in this condition? Explain its mechanism of
action, adverse effects and other uses of this drug?
c. Mention the uses and adverse effects of fluroquinolones.
2. A patient received first cycle of Cisplatin for head and neck cancer following
which he developed severe nausea and vomiting.
a. Name the drugs used in the management of nausea and vomiting in this patient
and explain its mechanism of action.
b. Classify antiemetics.
c. Explain in detail mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of Prokinetic
agents.

II. Write Short notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Drugs used in erectile dysfunction.
2. Drugs for Acne.
3. Postcoital contraception.
4. Vancomycin.
5. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Aminoglycosides.
6. Mechanism of action and uses of Metronidazole.
7. Mention 4 chelating agents. Explain in detail chelating agent used in iron
poisoning.
8. Mechanism of action, adverse effects and uses of Cotrimoxazole.
9. Mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of Methotrexate.
10. Tocolytics
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0223] FEBRUARY 2023 Sub. Code :6062
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND YEAR – (CBME)

PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II
Q.P. Code: 526062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)

Answer all the Questions
I. Essay: (2 x 15 = 30)

1. 15 years old girl admitted with c/o high fever, head ache and stomach pain. She
revealed that she had visited marina beach last week end and ate from road side
food stall.
a) What could be the probable diagnosis?
b) What are the drugs available to treat this condition?
c) Describe the mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of ciprofloxacin.
d) What is the alternative for ciprofloxacin resistant cases?

2. 25 years old female came to the OPD with H/o three months of Amenorrhea, fever
with rigors and burning sensation while passing urine for the past 3 days.
a) What is the diagnosis and mention safe anti microbial agent in pregnancy?
b) Describe the mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of penicillin.
c) Brief about suicide inhibitors.

II. Write Short notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1) Mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of Vincristine.
2) Treatment of Lepra reactions.
3) Clinical uses and contraindications of Glucocorticoids.
4) Action and uses of Keratolytic agents.
5) Write the mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of Proton pump
inhibitors.
6) Mechanism of action uses and contraindication of Radioactive Iodine.
7) Mechanism of action uses and adverse effects of Cyclophosphamide.
8) Clinical uses and side effects of Insulin therapy.
9) Mechanism of action and uses of Acyclovir.
10) Treatment of Iron toxicity.
*********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0723] JULY 2023 Sub. Code :6062
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND YEAR - (CBME)
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II

Q.P. Code: 526062

Time: Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)
Answer all the Questions
I. Essay: (2 x 15 = 30)
1. A 25 years old male came with c/o cough with expectoration, evening rise of temperature,
sweating and loss of appetite for the past 2 weeks.
a) What is the diagnosis?
b) Classify the drugs used in this condition.
c) Describe the mechanism of action therapeutic uses and adverse effects of
Rifampicin.

2. 30 years old male had attended a party last week, now she came with c/o loose
stools with abdominal pain and mild fever.
a) What is your probable diagnosis?
b) Classify Antiamoebic drugs.
c) Describe the mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of Metronidazole.
d) What will happen if the patient consumes alcohol during the course of
Metronidazole therapy?

II. Write Short notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Hormone replacement therapy in menopause.
2. Mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of Metoclopramide.
3. Mechanism of action and uses of Methotrexate.
4. Treatment of acne vulgaris.
5. Clinical uses of Uterine relaxants.
6. Write the mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of Metformin.
7. Write the mechanism of action, uses and toxicity of Vancomycin.
8. Post exposure prophylaxis (PEP) of HIV infection.
9. Clinical uses of Ivermectin.
10. Therapeutic effects of Mycophenolate Mofetil.
*********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0224] FEBRUARY 2024 Sub. Code :6062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL YEAR – (CBME)

PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)

Answer all the Questions
I. Essay: (2 x 15 = 30)

1. A 30 year old mother came to OPD with complaints of 8 weeks of amenorrhea,

on examination she was diagnosed with Anaemia. Since she had 10 months
baby, she wanted to space out her next child and consulting you for taking
contraceptive pills.
a) Which type of hormonal contraceptive would you suggest?
b) Explain the various methods, Mechanism, Adverse effect and Contraindication
on Hormonal contraceptives.
c) Write briefly about Male contraceptives.

2. a) Classify Antithyroid agents.

b) Mention the pharmacological actions and therapeutic uses of Carbimazole.
c) Add a note on Thyroid storm.

II. Write Short notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Write a note on Ormeloxifene.
2. Platinum Co-ordination complexes.
3. Write about post exposure propylaxis in HIV.
4. What precautions are given while prescribing Metronidazole?
5. Comment on role of following in Tuberculosis:
a) Streptomycin
b) Moxifloxacin.
6. Management of
a) Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
b) Hypoglycemic coma.
7. Drugs for erectile dysfunction – Explain their merits and demerits.
8. Define: XDR-TB and describe its management.
9. Uses and adverse effects of Testosterone.
10. Ovulation inducing agents.
********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0524] MAY 2024 Sub. Code :6062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY (CBME)
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)

Answer all the Questions
I. Essay: (2 x 15 = 30)
(3+8+4)
1. A 52 year old obese (BMI>28kg/m2) individual with type 2 diabetes was
on oral hypoglycemic drugs. He was started on insulin therapy recently.
a) Classify the type of insulin analogues.
b) Discuss in detail about the pharmacological actions, uses and adverse reaction
of Insulin.
c) Write a note on pharmacotherapy of diabetic Ketoacidosis.
(1+4+10)
2. 60 year old female known diabetic with bronchial asthma treated with steroids,
now she has presented with unhealed oral mucosal lesions on hard and soft
palate, on examination whitish yellow slightly elevated spots seen.
a) What is your probable diagnosis?
b) Classify antifungal drugs.
c) Write in detail about the mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of
AZOLES in therapy.

II. Write Short notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Tacrolimus as immunosuppressants.
2. Pyridoxine in pharmacotherapy.
3. Importance of Docusates in Treatment.
4. Superinfections.
5. Mechanism of action, various preparations and uses of Pencillin G.
6. Fondaparinux.
7. Write a note on prolactin inhibitors.
8. Management of extensive drug resistant tuberculosis.
9. Cell cycle M PHASE specific drugs.
10. D-pencillamine.
*********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0325] MARCH 2025 Sub. Code :6062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS

(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY - (CBME)

PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526062
Time: Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)
Answer all the Questions
I. Essay: (2 x 15 = 30)
(1+2+8+4)
1. A 30-year-old female presents with symptoms of Burning micturition, lower
abdominal pain. On examination of urine – pus cells are plenty.
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) Enumerate the classes of antibiotics useful in treating the above patient.
c) Write in detail on the mechanism of action, adverse effects and therapeutic
uses of Aminoglycoside.
d) What will be the choice of antibiotic if the above patient is in her first
trimester of pregnancy? Explain the rationale of your choice.

(2+5+4+4)
2. a) Classify the drugs used for treatment of Peptic Ulcer.
b) Describe in detail the pharmacology of H2 receptor blockers.
c) Enumerate the drugs used in the treatment of GERD with rationale.
d) H. Pylori treatment regimens.

II. Write Short notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Drugs for Scabies.

2. Taxanes.
3. Oseltamivir.
4. Echinocandins.
5. Treatment of Lepra reactions.
6. Types, composition, rationale and dosing of ORS.
7. Tocolytics.
8. Ulcer protective agents.
9. Anabolic steroids.
10. Newer Insulin delivery devices.
*********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0322] MARCH 2022 Sub. Code :6062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020 Batch onwards)
SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II

Q.P. Code: 526062

Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks

Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. The insulin preparation of choice in diabetic ketoacidosis is

a. Lente insulin b. A 30:70 mixture of plain and isophane insulin.
c. Isophane insulin. d. Regular insulin.

2. Redman syndrome is caused by

a. Vancomycin b. Teicoplanin c. Polymyxin d. Clindamycin

3.Danazol produce the following side effects in premenopausal women except

a. Hot flushes b. Menorrhagia c. Acne d. Amenorrhea

4. Pirenzepine is used for

a. Glaucoma b. Asthma c. Peptic ulcer d. Motion sickness

5. Pulmonary Fibrosis is seen with

a. Bleomycin b. Cisplatin c. Methotrexate d. Actinomycin D

6.Oxytocin antagonist among the following

a. Ritodrine b. Methergine c. Atosiban d. Isoxuprine

7. Which of the following is a 5 α reductase inhibitor useful in benign prostate

hypertrophy and male pattern baldness
a. Flutamide b. Prazosin c. Minoxidil d. Finasteride

8. The following drug is used for Hyperprolactinemia

a. Clonidine b. Yohimbine c. Bromocriptine d. Haloperidol

9. Metronidazole is used for all except

a. Amoebiasis b. Giardiasis c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Malaria

10. Agent which is used in NSAID induced gastric ulcer

a. PGE 1 agonist b. PGE 2 agonist c. PGD2 Agonist d. PGF2 alpha agonist
11. Most epileptogenic carbapenem
a. Doripenem b. Imipenem c. Meropenem d. Ertapenem

12. Select the drug that is active against both HIV and Hepatitis B virus
a. Indinavir b. Efavirenz c. Didanosine d. Lamivudine

13.Thyroid storm management includes all except

a. Propylthiouracil b. Surgery c. Steroids d. Lugol’s iodine

14.Antipseudomonal penicillin
a. Methicillin b. Ampicillin c. Piperacillin d. Penicillin G

15.Bisphosphanates are beneficial in the following condition except

a. Pagets disease b. Rickets
c. Senile osteoporosis d. Osteolytic bony metastasis.

16.The most frequent side effect of oral Ampicillin is

a. Diarrhoea b. Nausea and vomiting c. Constipation d. Sedation

17. The following drug is a radical curative in vivax malaria

a. Chloroquine b. Primaquine c. Quinine d. Mefloquine

18. Drug which prolongs QT interval is

a. Domperidone b. Metoclopramide c. Cisapride d. Omeprazole

19. Lumefantrine is an
a. Antimalarial b. Antifungal c. Antimycobacterial d. Antiamoebic

20.Antiulcer drug which acts by inhibiting gastric acid secretion

a. Lactulose b. Aluminium hydroxide c. Sucralfate d. Ranitidine

*****
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0822] AUGUST 2022 Sub. Code :6062
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND YEAR – SUPPLEMENTARY (CBME)

PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II
Q.P. Code: 526062

Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks

Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. A patient has subclinical folate deficiency. All of the following drugs can precipitate
megaloblastic anemia in this patient except:
a. Alcohol b. Phenytoin c. Chloroquine d. Sulfasalazine

2. Indication for intramuscular iron therapy is

a. Pregnancy b. Postpartum period c. Emergency surgery d. Oral iron intolerance

3. Which of the following drugs does not act by blocking GpIIb/IIIa receptors?
a. Abciximab b. Eptifibatide c. Tirofiban d. Clopidogrel

4. Recent oral direct thrombin inhibitor which can be used for prevention of stroke is
a. Dabigatran b. Ximelagatran c. Lepirudin d. Saxagliptin

5. A 30 year old pregnant woman develops tuberculosis. Which of the following antitubercular
drugs should not be used?
a. INH b. Rifampicin c. Streptomycin d. Ethambutol

6. Which of the following can be given orally?

a. Cytosine arabinoside b. Cisplatin c. Doxorubicin d. Mesna

7. Which of the following anticancer drugs can cross blood brain barrier?
a. Cisplatin b. Nitrosourea c. Vincristine d. Vinblastine

8. Which of the following parameters is not monitored in a patient on methotrexate therapy?

a. Liver function tests b. Lung function tests c. Eye examination d. Haemogram

9. A patient receiving allopurinol requires dose reduction of:

a. 6-Mercaptopurine b. Cyclophosphamide c. 6-Thioguanine d. Cimetidine

10. About vinca alkaloids, true is:

a. Inhibits mitotic spindle b. Enhances polymerization of tubulin
c. Inhibits topoisomerase I d. Inhibits topoisomerase II

11. Which of the following is given at intervals as a pulsatile therapy?

a. GnRH b. GH c. FSH d. Estrogen
… 2 …
 … 2 …

12. Conversion of T4 to T3 is inhibited by all except:

a. Propanolol b. Propylthiouracil c. Amiodarone d. Methimazole

13. All of the following preparations of insulin are rapid and short acting except:
a. Lispro b. Aspart c. Glargine d. NPH

14. The following statements regarding finasteride are true except:

a. It is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia
b. Impotence is well documented after its use
c. It blocks the conversion of dihydrotestosterone to testosterone
d. It is a 5 α reductase inhibitor

15. Which of the following progesterone is used in emergency contraception?

a. Levonorgestrel b. Micronised Progesterone
c. Norgesterone d. Depot Medroxyprogesterone acetate

16. Which of the following agents is beneficial in NSAID induced gastric ulcer?
a. PGE1 agonist b. PGE2 agonist c. PGD2 agonist d. PGF2α agonist

17. Drug of choice for treatment of malaria due to P. vivax in a 25 year old pregnant female is:
a. Chloroquine b. Primaquine c. Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine d. Quinine

18. Drug of choice for bacterial vaginosis is:

a. Metronidazole b. Ampicillin c. Ciprofloxacin d. Fluconazole

19. Albendazole is effective against all of the following except:

a. Roundworm b. Hookworm c. Tapeworm d. Pinworm

20. Commonest side effect of Dapsone is:

a. Hemolyticanemia b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Cyanosis d. Bone marrow depression
*****
[MBBS 0822]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0223] FEBRUARY 2023 Sub. Code :6062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND YEAR – (CBME)
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II
Q.P. Code: 526062

Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks

Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. The following insulin preparation produces a smooth peakless effect

A) Glargine B) Lispro C) Aspart D) Lente

2. The drug of choice for tropical eosinophilia

A) Clomiphene citrate B) Diethyl carbamazine citrate
C) Carbamazepine D) Gabapentin

3. Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following aspect

A) No anti androgenic action B) Shorter half life
C) More side effects D) Less potent

4. The following drug is useful in acute iron poisoning

A) Penicillamine B) Dimercaprol C) EDTA D) Deferiprone

5. The preferred drug for controlling an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis

A) Sulfasalazine B) Mesalazine C) Prednisolone D) Vancomycin

6. This drug acts by inhibiting viral neuraminidase enzyme

A) Fomivirsen B) Amantidine C) Enfuvirtide D) Oseltamivir

7. Specific drug indicated for chemotherapy induced vomiting

A) Tegaserod B) Granisetron C) Domperidone D) Doxylamine

8. Drug that causes osteonecrosis of the jaw on intravenous administration

A) Zoledronate B) Dalteparin C) Calcitriol D) Zidovudine

9. The following glucocorticoid has significant mineralocorticoid activity also

A) Betamethasone B) Dexamethasone C) Hydrocortisone D) Triamcinolone

10. Tacrolimus is a
A) Calcineurin inhibitor B) M tor inhibitor.
C) Hypoxanthine inhibitor D) Ionosine inhibitor

… 2…
 … 2 …

11. True about Octreotide

A) Stimulates growth Hormone
B) Used in secretory diarrhoeas associated with carcinoid
C) Used orally
D) Contraindicated in acromegaly

12. The drug of choice for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer is
A) Misoprostol B) Sucralfate C) Ranitidine D) Omeprazole

13. Danazol produces the following side effects in premenopausal women except
A) Acne B) Menorrhagia C) Amenorrhea D) Hot flushes

14. Bisacodyl is
A) Bulk forming B) Stool softener
C) Stimulant purgative D) Osmotic purgative

15. The following drug is a Melanizing agent

A) Psoralen B) Hydroquinone C) Dapsone D) Azelaic acid

16. In the multidrug therapy of leprosy rifampicin is given

A) Daily B) On alternate days C) Weekly D) Monthly

17. Rituximab is antibody against

A) CD 20 B) VEGF C) PDGF D) IL 2

18. Select the drug that is active against both HIV and hepatitis B virus
A) Indinavir B) Lamivudine C) Didanosine D) Efavirenz

19. Most commonly used topical imidazole in tinea infections.

A) Amphotericin B B) Ketoconazole C) Clotrimazole D) Voriconazole

20. Drug contraindicated in G6PD deficiency

A) Chloroquine B) Primaquine C) Quinine D) Halofantrine.

*********
[MBBS 0223]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0723] JULY 2023 Sub. Code :6062
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND YEAR – (CBME)

PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II
Q.P. Code: 526062

Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks

Answer All Questions
Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. The characteristic toxicity of doxorubicin is

A) Kidney damage B) Liver damage C) Pulmonary fibrosis D) Cardiomyopathy

2. The following antineoplastic drug is a mitotic inhibitor and cause metaphase arrest
A) Vincristine B) Busulfan C) Cytarabine D) Procarbazine

3. A patient receiving allopurinol requires dose reduction of

A) Cyclophosphamide B) Mercaptopurine C) Thioguanine D) Methotrexate

4. Prokinetic agent producing extra pyramidal side effects is

A) Metoclopramide B) Cisapride C) Domperidone D) All of the above

5. Fluoroquinolones inhibit gram positive organism by acting on

A) DNA gyrase B) Topoisomerase ll C) Topoisomerase lll D) Topoisomerase lV

6. Drug which prevents peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

A) Propylthiouracil B) Propranolol C) Iodide D) Diltiazem

7. Anticancer drug causing disulfiram like reaction

A) Nitrosureas B) Procarbazine C) 5 fluorouracil D) Methotrexate

8. All are true about aprepitant except

A) Neurokinin receptor agonist (NK1)
B) Crosses BBB
C) Metabolised by CYP3A4 pathway
D) Ameliorate nausea and vomiting of chemotherapy

9. Steroid with glucocorticoid activity and significant mineralocorticoid activity

A) Betamethasone B) Dexamethasone C) Hydrocortisone D) Beclomethasone

10. Fluoroquinolone with highest oral bioavailability is

A) Ciprofloxacin B) Levofloxacin C) Gemifloxacin D) Norfloxacin
… 2 …
 … 2 …

11. Bortezomib is useful in

A) Sarcoidosis B) SLE C) Multiple myeloma D) Osteoporosis

12. 12 year old boy with motion sickness wishes for journey. Most appropriate drug
needed is
A) Meclizine B) Cetrizine C) Loratidine D) Promethazine

13. Pramlintide is
A) Synthetic amylin analogue B) Inhibits DPP 4
C) GLP 1 analogue D) PPAR gamma activator

14. Aminoglycoside with more Cochlear toxicity than vestibular toxicity is

A) Streptomycin B) Kanamycin C) Tobramycin D) Sisomycin

15. Hand foot syndrome caused by

A) Cisplatin B) Methotrexate C) 5 Flourouracil D) Methysergide

16. Drug used in hepatic encephalopathy is

A) Magnesium sulphate B) Lactulose C) Bisacodyl D) Bisphosphonate

17. Select the drug which is used exclusively in organ transplantation and auto immune
diseases but not in cancers
A) Cyclophosphamide B) Metrotrexate C) Mercaptopurine D) Cyclosporine

18. If linezolid is given more than 14 days which should be monitored

A) Liver function tests B) Renal function tests C) Platelet count D) Audiometry

19. The drug used for arresting labour

A) Ritodrine B) Atropine C) Progestrone D) Prostaglandin E2

20. Laxative acting by opening chloride channel

A) Docusate B) Anthraquinone C) Lubiprostone D) Bisacodyl.

*********
[MBBS 0723]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0224] FEBRUARY 2024 Sub. Code :6062
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL YEAR – (CBME)

PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526062
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Somatostatin inhibits the release of:
A) Growth hormone B) Insulin C) Thyrotropin D) All of the above

2. Gynaecomastia can be treated with:

A) Chlorpromazine B) Cimetidine C) Bromocriptine D) Metoclopramide

3. Prolonged testosterone therapy can cause:

A) Hypertrophy of seminiferous tubules of testes
B) Hypertrophy of interstitial cells of testes
C) Atrophy of interstitial cells of testes
D) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

4. Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that:

A) It is dose to dose less potent
B) It has a shorter plasma half life
C) It does not produce an active metabolite
D) It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to Triiodothyronine

5. The following androgen does not produce cholestatic jaundice as an adverse effect:
A) Testosterone propionate B) Methyl testosterone
C) Fluoxymesterone D) Stanozolol

6. The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive

pill is:
A) Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration
B) Suppression of FSH and LH release
C) Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation
D) Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum

7. Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria:
A) Chloramphenicol B) Ciprofloxacin C) Streptomycin D) Vancomycin

8. Which antibiotic is primarily bacteriostatic but becomes bactericidal at higher concentrations:

A) Erythromycin B) Tetracycline C) Chloramphenicol D) Ampicillin
… 2 …
 … 2 …
9. Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease:
A) Tetracycline B) Cotrimoxazole C) Cephalexin D) Ethambutol

10. The following antibiotics exerts a long postantibiotic effect:

A) Fluoroquinolones B) Beta lactams
C) Aminoglycosides D) All of the above

11. Methicillin resistant staphylococci do not respond to Beta lactam antibiotics because:
A) They produce a β-lactamase which destroys methicillin and related drugs
B) They elaborate an amidase which destroys methicillin and related drugs
C) They have acquired penicillin binding protein which has low affinity for β-lactam antibiotics
D) They are less permeable to β-lactam antibiotics

12. The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is:

A) Nausea and vomiting B) Diarrhoea C) Constipation D) Urticaria

13. Immunosuppressant most commonly associated with nephrotoxicity

A) Mycophenolate Mofetil B) Sirolimus C) Tacrolimus D) Prednisone
14. Which anti-amoebic drug is associated with the potential side effects of peripheral
neuropathy and bone marrow suppression?
A) Metronidazole B) Diloxanide furoate C) Paromomycin D) Tinidazole

15. Whitfield ointment is used in

A) Scabies B) Pediculosis C) Impetigo D) Fungal infections

16. Albendazole is commonly used for the treatment of infections caused by

A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Schistosoma haematobium
C) Taenia solium D) Strongyloides Stercoralis

17. What is the main advantage of using primaquine compared to other antimalarial drugs
A) It is more effective against resistant strains of parasites
B) It has fewer side effects
C) It can eradicate the dormant liver stages of Plasmodium parasites, preventing relapses
D) It can be administered as a single dose
18. Voriconazole is often used as a first-line treatment for which type of fungal infection
A) Candidiasis B) Aspergillosis C) Cryptococcosis D) Dermatophytosis

19. Which antiviral drug interferes with the release of new virions from infected cells and is
used for the treatment of influenza.
A) Amantadine B) Oseltamivir C) Acyclovir D) Remdesvir

20. Which drug out of the following is a nutraceutical?

A) Polyphenols B) Penicillamine
C) Paromomycin D) Para-Amino Salicylic acid (PAS)

*********
[MBBS 0224]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0524] MAY 2024 Sub. Code :6062
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY (CBME)
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526062
Time: 20 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. The combination of trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole is in the ratio of

A) 5:1 B) 4: 1 C) 6: 1 D) 3: 1

2. Which one is not a drug of choice for typhoid fever

A) Ceftriaxone B) Ciprofloxacin C) Chloramphenicol D) Sulfadoxine

3. Pencillinase resistant penicillin

A) Penicillin v B) Ampicillin C) Cloxacillin D) Ticarcillin

4. Imipenem+ cilastatin combination is used to prevent hydrolysis by

A) Dehydropeptidase enzyme B) Aminopeptidases
C) Pencillinase enzyme D) Acetyl transferases

5. A Urinary analgesic is
A) Phenazopyridine B) Nitrofurantoin C) Methenamine D) Tetracycline

6. Which one is not a Mammalian target of Rapamycin inhibitor

A) Tacrolimus B) Sirolimus C) Temsirolimus D) Everolimus

7. G1 phase cell cycle specific drug is

A) Bleomycin B) Etoposide C) Hydroxy urea D) Docetaxel

8. Lepra reaction is treated by all except

A) Clofazimine B) Dapsone C) Thalidomide D) Prednisolone

9. A cannabinoid derivative used as antiemetic agent

A) Aprepitant B) Ursodiol C) Dronabinol D) Prucalopride

... 2 ...
 ... 2 ...
10. Which one of the following is not a H.pylori drug
A) Clarithromycin B) Sucralfate
C) Tetracycline D) Colloidal bismuth subcitrate

11. EPTIFIBATIDE is a
A) Platelet CAMP enhancer B) P2y12 receptor blocker
C) Thromboxane synthesis inhibitor D) GPIIb/IIIa antagonist

12. The following one is not an Adverse effect of Heparin

A) bleeding B) Heparin induced thrombocytopenia
C) Reversible Alopecia D) Cutaneous necrosis

13. Steroidal irreversible inhibitor of Aromatase is

A) Exemestane B) Anastrozole C) Raloxifene D) Letrozole

14. The Absolute contraindication of Oral contraceptive pill is

A) Migraine B) Mild hypertension
C) Active liver disease D) Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding

15. The anabolic steroid is

A) Flutamide B) Cyproterone acetate
C) Mesterolone D) Nandrolone decanoate

16. The antisecretory antidiarrhoeal drug is

A) Loperamide B) Diphenoxylate C) Racecadotril D) Codeine

17. The pyrimidine antagonists is

A) Methotrexate B) Azathioprine C) Fludarabine D) Gemcitabine

18. BCR-ABL Tyrosine kinase inhibitor is

A) Imatinib B) Geftinib C) Lapatinib D) Sorafenib

19. Oral Retinoid used for Acne vulgaris

A) Tretinoin B) Adapalene C) Isotretinoin D)Tazarotene

20. Teriparatide is used in

A) Osteoporosis B) Pagets disease C) Tetany D) Hypoparathyroidism

********

[MBBS 0524]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0325] MARCH 2025 Sub. Code :6062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS

(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY - (CBME)

PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526062
Time: 20 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Shade the correct answer with Black of Blue ink ball point pen
SET - A
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)
1. Somatostatin inhibits the release of:
A) Growth hormone B) Insulin C) Thyrotropin D) All of the above
2. Overtreatment with the following thyroid inhibitor results in enlargement of the thyroid:
A) Lugol’s iodine B) Radioactive iodine C) Carbimazole D) All of the above
3. The second-generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first-generation ones in
that they:
A) Are more potent
B) Are longer acting
C) Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects
D) Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction
4. Select the compound that is preferred for high dose intravenous corticosteroid pulse therapy:
A) Cortisone B) Hydrocortisone C) Triamcinolone D) Methyl prednisolone
5. Finasteride acts by:
A) Blocking testosterone receptors in the prostate gland
B) Reducing testosterone secretion from testes
C) Reducing LH secretion from pituitary
D) Lowering circulating as well as prostatic dihydrotestosterone concentration
6. Select the tissue that is most sensitive to oxytocin:
A) Myometrium B) Myoepithelium of mammary alveoli
C) Vascular smooth muscle D) Renal collecting ducts
7. Bisphosphonates are beneficial in the following conditions except:
A) Paget's disease B) Senile osteoporosis C) Rickets D) Osteolytic bony metastasis
8. The following antiulcer drug does not act by reducing the secretion or neutralizing gastric acid:
A) Magaldrate B) Sucralfate C) Misoprostol D) Omeprazole
9. Metoclopramide has the following actions except:
A) Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone B) Increases tone of pyloric sphincter
C) Increases gastric peristalsis D) Increases intestinal peristalsis
… 2 …
 … 2 …
10. Choose the correct statement about lactulose:
A) It stimulates myenteric neurons to enhance gut peristalsis
B) Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours
C) It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools
D) All of the above

11. A 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions. The
diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with abdominal
distention and vomiting. He had paralytic ileus, mild dehydration, low blood pressure and
sluggish reflexes. Which antidiarrhoeal drug could have caused this condition:
A) Iodochlorhydroxyquinline B) Furazolidone C) Loperamide D) Metronidazole
12. Trimethoprim is combined with sulfamethoxazole in a ratio of 1:5 to yield a steady state
plasma concentration ratio of:
A) Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 5 B) Trimethoprim 5: Sulfamethoxazole 1
C) Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 20 D) Trimethoprim 20: Sulfamethoxazole 1
13. If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of
penicillin G, then:
A) He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected
B) He can be given ampicillin safely
C) He can be given oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely
D) All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him
14. Combination therapy with two (or more) antimicrobials is superior to monotherapy with any
single effective drug in case of the following diseases except:
A) Typhoid fever B) Leprosy C) HIV D) Tuberculosis
15. Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic:
A) Isoniazid B) Rifampicin C) Pyrazinamide D) Ethambutol
16. The polyene antibiotics act by:
A) Inhibiting fungal cytochrome P450 enzyme
B) Binding to ergosterol and creating micropores
C) Inhibiting fungal DNA synthesis
D) Disorienting microtubules in fungal cells
17. Select the drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without the need for
intracellular activation by phosphorylation:
A) Nelfinavir B) Nevirapine C) Stavudine D) Didanosine
18. Patients treated with the following anticancer drug are likely to develop a disulfiram like
reaction on taking alcohol:
A) Dacarbazine B) Procarbazine C) Melphalan D) Hydroxyurea
19. Drugs used for Pediculosis are all except
A) Permethrin B) Sulfur C) Crotamiton D) Gentian Violet
20. BAL is used as a Chelating agent for the following heavy metals except
A) Arsenic Poisoning B) Mercury Poisoning
C) Cadmium Poisoning D) Nickel Poisoning
******** [MBBS 0325]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0325] MARCH 2025 Sub. Code :6062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS

(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY - (CBME)

PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526062
Time: 20 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Shade the correct answer with Black of Blue ink ball point pen
SET - B
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)
1. The second-generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first-generation ones in
that they:
A) Are more potent
B) Are longer acting
C) Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects
D) Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction
2. Select the compound that is preferred for high dose intravenous corticosteroid pulse therapy:
A) Cortisone B) Hydrocortisone C) Triamcinolone D) Methyl prednisolone
3. Finasteride acts by:
A) Blocking testosterone receptors in the prostate gland
B) Reducing testosterone secretion from testes
C) Reducing LH secretion from pituitary
D) Lowering circulating as well as prostatic dihydrotestosterone concentration
4. Select the tissue that is most sensitive to oxytocin:
A) Myometrium B) Myoepithelium of mammary alveoli
C) Vascular smooth muscle D) Renal collecting ducts
5. Bisphosphonates are beneficial in the following conditions except:
A) Paget's disease B) Senile osteoporosis C) Rickets D) Osteolytic bony metastasis
6. The following antiulcer drug does not act by reducing the secretion or neutralizing gastric acid:
A) Magaldrate B) Sucralfate C) Misoprostol D) Omeprazole
7. Metoclopramide has the following actions except:
A) Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone B) Increases tone of pyloric sphincter
C) Increases gastric peristalsis D) Increases intestinal peristalsis
8. Choose the correct statement about lactulose:
A) It stimulates myenteric neurons to enhance gut peristalsis
B) Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours
C) It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools
D) All of the above
… 2 …
 … 2 …
9. A 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions. The
diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with abdominal
distention and vomiting. He had paralytic ileus, mild dehydration, low blood pressure and
sluggish reflexes. Which antidiarrhoeal drug could have caused this condition:
A) Iodochlorhydroxyquinline B) Furazolidone C) Loperamide D) Metronidazole

10. Trimethoprim is combined with sulfamethoxazole in a ratio of 1:5 to yield a steady state
plasma concentration ratio of:
A) Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 5 B) Trimethoprim 5: Sulfamethoxazole 1
C) Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 20 D) Trimethoprim 20: Sulfamethoxazole 1
11. If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of
penicillin G, then:
A) He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected
B) He can be given ampicillin safely
C) He can be given oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely
D) All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him
12. Combination therapy with two (or more) antimicrobials is superior to monotherapy with any
single effective drug in case of the following diseases except:
A) Typhoid fever B) Leprosy C) HIV D) Tuberculosis
13. Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic:
A) Isoniazid B) Rifampicin C) Pyrazinamide D) Ethambutol
14. The polyene antibiotics act by:
A) Inhibiting fungal cytochrome P450 enzyme
B) Binding to ergosterol and creating micropores
C) Inhibiting fungal DNA synthesis
D) Disorienting microtubules in fungal cells
15. Select the drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without the need for
intracellular activation by phosphorylation:
A) Nelfinavir B) Nevirapine C) Stavudine D) Didanosine
16. Patients treated with the following anticancer drug are likely to develop a disulfiram like
reaction on taking alcohol:
A) Dacarbazine B) Procarbazine C) Melphalan D) Hydroxyurea
17. Drugs used for Pediculosis are all except
A) Permethrin B) Sulfur C) Crotamiton D) Gentian Violet
18. BAL is used as a Chelating agent for the following heavy metals except
A) Arsenic Poisoning B) Mercury Poisoning
C) Cadmium Poisoning D) Nickel Poisoning
19. Somatostatin inhibits the release of:
A) Growth hormone B) Insulin C) Thyrotropin D) All of the above
20. Overtreatment with the following thyroid inhibitor results in enlargement of the thyroid:
A) Lugol’s iodine B) Radioactive iodine C) Carbimazole D) All of the above

******** [MBBS 0325]

 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0325] MARCH 2025 Sub. Code :6062
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY - (CBME)
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526062
Time: 20 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Shade the correct answer with Black of Blue ink ball point pen
SET - C
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)
1. Select the tissue that is most sensitive to oxytocin:
A) Myometrium B) Myoepithelium of mammary alveoli
C) Vascular smooth muscle D) Renal collecting ducts
2. Bisphosphonates are beneficial in the following conditions except:
A) Paget's disease B) Senile osteoporosis C) Rickets D) Osteolytic bony metastasis
3. The following antiulcer drug does not act by reducing the secretion or neutralizing gastric acid:
A) Magaldrate B) Sucralfate C) Misoprostol D) Omeprazole
4. Metoclopramide has the following actions except:
A) Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone B) Increases tone of pyloric sphincter
C) Increases gastric peristalsis D) Increases intestinal peristalsis
5. Choose the correct statement about lactulose:
A) It stimulates myenteric neurons to enhance gut peristalsis
B) Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours
C) It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools
D) All of the above

6. A 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions. The
diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with abdominal
distention and vomiting. He had paralytic ileus, mild dehydration, low blood pressure and
sluggish reflexes. Which antidiarrhoeal drug could have caused this condition:
A) Iodochlorhydroxyquinline B) Furazolidone C) Loperamide D) Metronidazole
7. Trimethoprim is combined with sulfamethoxazole in a ratio of 1:5 to yield a steady state
plasma concentration ratio of:
A) Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 5 B) Trimethoprim 5: Sulfamethoxazole 1
C) Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 20 D) Trimethoprim 20: Sulfamethoxazole 1
8. If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of
penicillin G, then:
A) He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected
B) He can be given ampicillin safely
C) He can be given oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely
D) All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him
… 2 …
 … 2 …
9. Combination therapy with two (or more) antimicrobials is superior to monotherapy with any
single effective drug in case of the following diseases except:
A) Typhoid fever B) Leprosy C) HIV D) Tuberculosis
10. Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic:
A) Isoniazid B) Rifampicin C) Pyrazinamide D) Ethambutol
11. The polyene antibiotics act by:
A) Inhibiting fungal cytochrome P450 enzyme
B) Binding to ergosterol and creating micropores
C) Inhibiting fungal DNA synthesis
D) Disorienting microtubules in fungal cells
12. Select the drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without the need for
intracellular activation by phosphorylation:
A) Nelfinavir B) Nevirapine C) Stavudine D) Didanosine
13. Patients treated with the following anticancer drug are likely to develop a disulfiram like
reaction on taking alcohol:
A) Dacarbazine B) Procarbazine C) Melphalan D) Hydroxyurea
14. Drugs used for Pediculosis are all except
A) Permethrin B) Sulfur C) Crotamiton D) Gentian Violet
15. BAL is used as a Chelating agent for the following heavy metals except
A) Arsenic Poisoning B) Mercury Poisoning
C) Cadmium Poisoning D) Nickel Poisoning

16. Somatostatin inhibits the release of:

A) Growth hormone B) Insulin C) Thyrotropin D) All of the above
17. Overtreatment with the following thyroid inhibitor results in enlargement of the thyroid:
A) Lugol’s iodine B) Radioactive iodine C) Carbimazole D) All of the above
18. The second-generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first-generation ones in
that they:
A) Are more potent
B) Are longer acting
C) Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects
D) Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction
19. Select the compound that is preferred for high dose intravenous corticosteroid pulse therapy:
A) Cortisone B) Hydrocortisone C) Triamcinolone D) Methyl prednisolone
20. Finasteride acts by:
A) Blocking testosterone receptors in the prostate gland
B) Reducing testosterone secretion from testes
C) Reducing LH secretion from pituitary
D) Lowering circulating as well as prostatic dihydrotestosterone concentration

******** [MBBS 0325]

 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0325] MARCH 2025 Sub. Code :6062
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY - (CBME)
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526062
Time: 20 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Shade the correct answer with Black of Blue ink ball point pen
SET - D
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Metoclopramide has the following actions except:

A) Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone B) Increases tone of pyloric sphincter
C) Increases gastric peristalsis D) Increases intestinal peristalsis

2. Choose the correct statement about lactulose:

A) It stimulates myenteric neurons to enhance gut peristalsis
B) Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours
C) It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools
D) All of the above

3. A 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions. The
diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with abdominal
distention and vomiting. He had paralytic ileus, mild dehydration, low blood pressure and
sluggish reflexes. Which antidiarrhoeal drug could have caused this condition:
A) Iodochlorhydroxyquinline B) Furazolidone C) Loperamide D) Metronidazole
4. Trimethoprim is combined with sulfamethoxazole in a ratio of 1:5 to yield a steady state
plasma concentration ratio of:
A) Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 5 B) Trimethoprim 5: Sulfamethoxazole 1
C) Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 20 D) Trimethoprim 20: Sulfamethoxazole 1
5. If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of
penicillin G, then:
A) He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected
B) He can be given ampicillin safely
C) He can be given oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely
D) All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him
6. Combination therapy with two (or more) antimicrobials is superior to monotherapy with any
single effective drug in case of the following diseases except:
A) Typhoid fever B) Leprosy C) HIV D) Tuberculosis
7. Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic:
A) Isoniazid B) Rifampicin C) Pyrazinamide D) Ethambutol
… 2 …
 … 2 …
8. The polyene antibiotics act by:
A) Inhibiting fungal cytochrome P450 enzyme
B) Binding to ergosterol and creating micropores
C) Inhibiting fungal DNA synthesis
D) Disorienting microtubules in fungal cells
9. Select the drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without the need for
intracellular activation by phosphorylation:
A) Nelfinavir B) Nevirapine C) Stavudine D) Didanosine
10. Patients treated with the following anticancer drug are likely to develop a disulfiram like
reaction on taking alcohol:
A) Dacarbazine B) Procarbazine C) Melphalan D) Hydroxyurea
11. Drugs used for Pediculosis are all except
A) Permethrin B) Sulfur C) Crotamiton D) Gentian Violet
12. BAL is used as a Chelating agent for the following heavy metals except
A) Arsenic Poisoning B) Mercury Poisoning
C) Cadmium Poisoning D) Nickel Poisoning
13. Somatostatin inhibits the release of:
A) Growth hormone B) Insulin C) Thyrotropin D) All of the above
14. Overtreatment with the following thyroid inhibitor results in enlargement of the thyroid:
A) Lugol’s iodine B) Radioactive iodine C) Carbimazole D) All of the above
15. The second-generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first-generation ones in
that they:
A) Are more potent
B) Are longer acting
C) Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects
D) Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction
16. Select the compound that is preferred for high dose intravenous corticosteroid pulse therapy:
A) Cortisone B) Hydrocortisone C) Triamcinolone D) Methyl prednisolone
17. Finasteride acts by:
A) Blocking testosterone receptors in the prostate gland
B) Reducing testosterone secretion from testes
C) Reducing LH secretion from pituitary
D) Lowering circulating as well as prostatic dihydrotestosterone concentration
18. Select the tissue that is most sensitive to oxytocin:
A) Myometrium B) Myoepithelium of mammary alveoli
C) Vascular smooth muscle D) Renal collecting ducts
19. Bisphosphonates are beneficial in the following conditions except:
A) Paget's disease B) Senile osteoporosis C) Rickets D) Osteolytic bony metastasis
20. The following antiulcer drug does not act by reducing the secretion or neutralizing gastric acid:
A) Magaldrate B) Sucralfate C) Misoprostol D) Omeprazole
******** [MBBS 0325]
[LK 544] FEBRUARY 2017 Sub.Code :5062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II

Q.P. Code: 525062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Classify drugs used in peptic ulcer. Discuss the mechanism of action, uses and
adverse effects of proton pump inhibitors.

II. Write notes on: (4 x 5 = 20)

1. Mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of methotrexate.

2. Enumerate insulin analogs. Write their indications and advantages.
3. Mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of metronidazole.
4. Bisphosphonates.

III. Short answers on: (5 x 2 = 10)

1. Mention four drugs used for acne.

2. Write two adverse effects and two contraindications of corticosteroids.
3. Mention one use of fluconazole and write the advantage of fluconazole
over ketoconazole.
4. Write four general toxicities of cytotoxic drugs.
5. Write four adverse effects of oral contraceptive pills.

********
 [LL 544] AUGUST 2017 Sub.Code :5062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II

Q.P. Code: 525062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Classify drugs used in the treatment of malaria. Outline mechanism of action and
advantages of chloroquine. Write a note on prophylaxis of malaria.

II. Write notes on: (4 x 5 = 20)

1. Treatment of scabies.
2. Triple regimen for H.Pylori infection.
3. Advantages and contraindications of OCP.
4. Mechanism of action and therapeutic uses and adverse effects of lovastatin.

III. Short answers on: (5 x 2 = 10)

1. Two uses and two adverse effects of Vitamin D.

2. Mupirocin.
3. Write four immunosuppressant’s and their uses.
4. Mention four newer oral anti-diabetic drugs.
5. Name two drugs used for filariasis. Mention the mechanism of action of these
drugs.

********
 [LM 544] FEBRUARY 2018 Sub Code: 5062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II

Q.P. Code: 525062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Classify oral hypoglycemic drugs. Discuss the mechanism of action and adverse
effects of metformin. Why is it used as a first choice drug in type 2 diabetes
mellitus patients?

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Propylthiouracil.
2. Discuss the mechanism of action, pharmacokinetics, uses and adverse effects of
ranitidine.
3. Antimotility drugs.
4. Discuss the mechanism of action, and adverse effects of aminoglycosides.
5. Discuss the mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of terbinafine.
6. Discuss in detail about pharmacokinetic drug interactions with suitable examples.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Mention four therapeutic uses of octreotide.

2. Mention two anti-fibrinolytic drugs and two of their uses.
3. Mechanism of action and adverse effects of atorvastatin.
4. Anti-bacterial spectrum of azithromycin.
5. Mention four therapeutic uses of rifampicin.
6. Name two drugs which are selective estrogen receptor modulators. List one
therapeutic use for each.

********
 [LN 544] AUGUST 2018 Sub.Code :5062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II

Q.P. Code: 525062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Classify anti emetic drugs. How will you manage?

i) Motion sickness.
ii) Morning sickness.
iii) Drug induced postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV).
iv) Anti cancer chemotherapy induced vomiting.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Newer insulins.
2. Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM).
3. Discuss the mechanism of action, indications of desferrioxamine.
4. Drugs used in gastro esophageal reflux disease.
5. Discuss the mechanism of action, pharmacokinetics, uses and adverse effects of
dapsone.
6. Discuss the principle and guidelines in the treatment of HIV.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Two advantages and two disadvantages of radioactive iodine.

2. Mechanism of action and uses of antioxidants.
3. Mention the mechanism of action and adverse effects of Flouroquinolones.
4. Antibacterial spectrum of cefotaxime.
5. Mechanism of action and adverse effects of cyclophosphamide.
6. Topical therapy used in psoriasis.

********
 [LO 544] FEBRUARY 2019 Sub Code: 5062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II

Q.P. Code: 525062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (4 + 6 = 10)

1. Classify beta lactam antibiotics. Enumerate the mechanism of action, adverse

effects and therapeutic uses of penicillins.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Mechanism of action and adverse effects of metformin.

2. Mechanism of action and therapeutic uses of metoclopramide.
3. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors in treatment of HIV.
4. Discuss alkylating agents used as anti-cancer drugs.
5. Radioactive iodine.
6. Short course chemotherapy in the treatment of tuberculosis.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Name two calcineurin inhibitors and list two uses of the calcineurin inhibitors.
2. Name two new insulin delivery devices.
3. Two uses of penicillamine.
4. Name two drugs which are third generation cephalosporins.
5. Name two drugs used in the suppressive prophylaxis of malaria.
6. Name two adverse effects of aminoglycosides.

********
[LP 544] AUGUST 2019 Sub.Code :5062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II

Q.P. Code: 525062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (4 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 10)

1. Classify anti-tubercular drugs according to clinical utility. How will you treat?
a) Newly diagnosed pulmonary tuberculosis.
b) Previously treated pulmonary tuberculosis.
c) Multidrug resistant (MDR) TB.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Discuss the status of oral hypoglycemic drugs in type 2 diabetes mellitus.

2. Discuss the pharmacological actions, pharmacokinetics, uses and adverse effects
of oxytocin.
3. Cyclosporine.
4. Mention the mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of ondansetron. Why is
it advantageous over metoclopramide?
5. Highly active anti-retroviral therapy.
6. Mention the mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of acyclovir.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Mechanism of action and uses of finasteride.

2. Hepatitis B vaccine.
3. Justify the role of misoprostol in prevention and treatment of NSAID induced
gastrointestinal injury.
4. Mention two advantages of combining antimicrobial agents with suitable
examples.
5. Role of clofazimine in leprosy.
6. Mention two uses of dimercaprol. Why is urine alkalinized during dimercaprol
therapy?

*******
[LQ 544] FEBRUARY 2020 Sub.Code :5062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II

Q.P. Code: 525062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (2 + 3 + 1+ 2+ 2 = 10)

1. Classify antifungal drugs. Write in detail about mechanism of action,

pharmacokinetics, clinical uses and adverse effects of fluconazole.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Anti-pseudomonal penicillins.
2. Deflazacort.
3. Directly observed shortcourse treatment for TB.
4. Mechanism of action, adverse events and therapeutic uses of erythromycin.
5. Prostaglandin analogues used in treatment of peptic ulcer.
6. Treatment of psoriasis.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Clinical uses of desferrioxamine.

2. Name any four antiplatelet drugs.
3. Name any two selective estrogen receptor modulators and mention any two of
their uses.
4. Name any two bisphosphonates and mention any two of their uses.
5. Cyclosporine.
6. Name any four antiemetics.

*******
 [LR 544] NOVEMBER 2020 Sub.Code :5062
(AUGUST 2020 SESSION)

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II

Q.P. Code: 525062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (2 + 8 = 10)

1. A 35 year old male patient, known hyperthyroid is brought to emergency with c/o
palpitation, tremors and profuse sweating . O/E his pulse rate is 134/ min and BP
is 160/100 mm/Hg.ECG shows sinus tachycardia and a diagnosis of thyroid storm
is made.
a. How will you manage the above condition.
b. Discuss in detail the pharmacology of thioamides.
c. Write briefly on radioactive Iodine.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Injectable contraceptives.
2. Proteasome inhibitors.
3. Third generation Cephalosporins.
4. Drugs acting on glucagon like peptide receptors.
5. Mycophenolatemofetil.
6. Chemoprophylaxis of Tuberculosis.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Mention 2 uses and 2 advance effects of Methyl Prednisolone.

2. Write any 2 regimens for prophylaxis of surgical site infection.
3. What is Teicoplanin? Write its mechanism of action and uses.
4. Write any 2 drug interactions of Pyridoxine.
5. Write two mechanism of action and 2 uses of Paclitaxel.
6. Treatment of acute Amoebic dysentery.

*******
[MBBS 0921] SEPTEMBER 2021 Sub.Code :5062
(FEBRUARY 2021 SESSION)

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II

Q.P. Code: 525062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. 48 years old obese male with sedentary life style, presents with symptoms and
blood sugar level suggestive of diabetes mellitus, fasting blood sugar 120 mgs%,
Post prandial blood sugar 260 mgs%.
a. What type of diabetes do you suspect with above clinical picture?
b. Enlist the oral hypoglycemic agents used in treatment of diabetes mellitus.
c. Detail on the mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of insulin
sensitizers.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Write in detail on mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of

aminoglycoside antibiotics.
2. Write in detail on retroviral protease inhibitors and combination therapy.
3. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of metronidazole.
4. Mechanism of action, therapeutic uses, adverse effects of vinca alkaloids.
5. Uses and precautions of corticosteroids in ocular conditions.
6. Tigecyclines.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Rationale of cotrimoxazole as fixed drug combination.

2. Linezolid.
3. Drugs used in treatment of scabies.
4. Name four anticancer antibiotics.
5. Name two 5 alpha reductase inhibitors, and their two uses.
6. Febuxostat.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0222] FEBRUARY 2022 Sub.Code :5062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2018-2019)
SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II

Q.P. Code: 525062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. A 29 years old female presents with symptoms suggestive of Multi Drug Resistant
(MDR) pulmonary tuberculosis, sputum positive for acid fast bacilli and resistant
to isoniazid.
a. Enumerate the various classes of antitubercular drugs (ATT) used in MDR TB
and briefly discuss their mechanism of action and adverse effects.
b. Categories of treatment regimes used in treatment of Multi Drug Resistant
(MDR) pulmonary tuberculosis.
c. What is the interaction of ATT drugs and oral contraceptives? Brief on the
management of such interaction.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Therapeutic uses of thyroid hormone.

2. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Amphotericin B.
3. Beta lactamase inhibitors and rationale of their combination with penicillin.
4. Primaquine.
5. Platinum compounds.
6. Anti Oxidant Vitamins.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Name two hyperglycemic agents and their two uses.

2. Oral rehydration therapy and rationale of composition of oral rehydration solution.
3. Uses of interferons.
4. Maraviroc – mechanism of action and two adverse effects.
5. Drugs used in therapy of giardiasis.
6. Name three angiogenesis inhibitors.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0822] AUGUST 2022 Sub. Code :5062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted upto the Academic Year 2018-2019)

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II

Q.P. Code: 525062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Classify anti cancer drugs. Elaborate in detail about the mechanism of action,
pharmacokinetics, adverse drug reactions and therapeutic uses of anti metabolites
in cancer chemotherapy.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Discuss in detail about adverse effects of corticosteroids.

2. Explain the pharmacological basis of artemisinin derivatives in the treatment of
malaria.
3. Write short notes on Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy.
4. Write short notes on treatment of scabies.
5. Discuss in detail about the insulin analogues.
6. Write in detail about the management of diarrhea.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. What is the treatment of Lepra reaction?

2. Name two probiotics and their therapeutic uses.
3. Mention the clinical uses of zinc.
4. Name four drugs used for the treatment of Inflammatory Bowel Disease.
5. Name four anti influenza drugs.
6. Write about the emergency contraceptives.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0223] FEBRUARY 2023 Sub. Code :5062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2018-2019)

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II

Q.P. Code: 525062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Classify oral hypoglycemic drugs. Elaborate in detail about the mechanism of

action, pharmacokinetics, therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Metformin.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Write short note on uterine relaxants.

2. Write in detail about the uses, adverse effects and drug interactions of oral
contraceptives.
3. Discuss in detail about the uses and adverse effects of Chloroquine.
4. Write in detail about the treatment of urinary tract infection.
5. Write short note on H2 receptor antagonists.
6. Explain the pharmacological basis of Immunosuppressants in organ
transplantation.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Write the clinical uses of British Anti-Lewisite.

2. Name four topical steroids.

3. Name two laxatives and write their mechanism of action.

4. What is post antibiotic effect?

5. Write about the adverse drug reactions of Tetracycline.

6. Name four drugs used for the treatment of thyroid storm.

*********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0723] JULY 2023 Sub. Code: 5062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted upto the Academic Year 2018-2019)

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II
Q.P. Code: 525062
Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Classify Aminoglycosides. Elaborate in detail about mechanism of action,

pharmacokinetics, adverse drug reactions and therapeutic uses of Aminoglycosides.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Discuss in detail about anabolic steroids.

2. Write short notes on Tamoxifen.
3. Explain in detail about the uses and adverse drug reactions of Amphotericin B.
4. Write in detail about the uses and adverse drug reaction of Methotrexate.
5. Discuss in detail about the Anti Helicobacter pylori drugs and the various
regimens used.
6. Write short notes on the treatment of acne vulgaris.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Name four drugs used for the treatment of constipation.

2. Mention four Gonadotropin releasing hormone agonists.
3. Write about the rationale of oral rehydration salt composition.
4. Write about the mechanism of action and two uses of vancomycin.
5. Brief the mechanism of action and uses of Ivermectin.
6. Mention two uses and two side effects of vitamin D.
*********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0224] FEBRUARY 2024 Sub. Code :5062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted upto the Academic Year 2018-2019)

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II
Q.P. Code: 525062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks

Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. 40 years old male comes to hospital with complaints of increased thirst,

frequent urination extreme hunger and unexplained weight loss. Blood analysis
was done and fasting and post prandial blood sugar values were high. He
was diagnosed to have Type II Diabetes mellitus.
a) Classify oral antidiabetic drugs.
b) Discuss the mechanism of action of Sulfonylureas.
c) Enumerate the Insulin preparations.
d) Discuss the management of diabetic Ketoacidosis.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Describe the clinical applications of selective estrogen receptor modulators.

2. Enumerate uses of Ivermectin.
3. Drug therapy in multi bacillary leprosy.
4. Discuss the mechanism of action and adverse effects of Metoclopramide.
5. Describe the drugs used in prophylaxis of Malaria.
6. Discuss the uses and adverse effects of Cyclophosphamide.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Mention the local adverse effects of Topical steroids.

2. Mention drugs used in therapy of Hepatitis B Infection.
3. Mention two uses and two adverse effects of Tacrolimus.
4. Uses of Metronidazole.
5. Mention drugs used in Gastro oesophageal reflux disease.
6. Mention two non opioid Antitussives.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0824] AUGUST 2024 Sub. Code :5062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted upto the Academic Year 2018-2019)

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II
Q.P. Code: 525062

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks

Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. A 54-year-old male undergoes a Routine Master Health Check Up. His Blood
Glucose values are fasting 140 mg/dl and Postprandial 192 mg/dl. His BMI is
28kg/m2. He was advised Dietary and Life Style Modifications.
a) Classify the Drugs used in above Condition.
b) Discuss in detail the Pharmacology of Sulfonylureas.
c) Write briefly on the Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. mTOR Inhibitors.
2. Hormonal agents in Cancer Chemotherapy.
3. Mechanism of Action, adverse effects and uses of Carbapenems.
4. Protease inhibitors.
5. Adverse effects and Therapeutic uses of Glucocorticoids.
6. Tocolytics.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Give Rationale for the use of Probiotics in Diarrhea.

2. Write the Mechanism of action and uses of Rifampicin
3. Enlist the Advantages of combination of Antacids.
4. Define Antiseptics. Enumerate any four of them.
5. Mention any four Anthelmintic Drugs and four uses of these Drugs.
6. Mention any two Regimens for Chloroquine Resistant Falciparum Malaria.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0325] MARCH 2025 Sub. Code :5062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS
(For the arrear candidates admitted upto the Academic Year 2018-2019)

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II
Q.P. Code: 525062
Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)
[3+2+1+1+3]
1. A 27 years old male present with symptoms suggestive of peptic ulcer disease
and H. Pylori positive in gastric and duodenal mucosa.
a) Discuss in detail on gastric acid suppressants with respect to mechanism of
action with relevant diagram, uses, adverse effects and drug interactions.
b) Treatment regimens for H. Pylori infection.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Discuss in detail on anti influenza drugs.

2. Artemisinin derivatives and Artemisinin based Combination Therapy (ACT).
3. Mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of methotrexate.
4. Quinolones – mechanism of action, uses, adverse effects.
5. Write short notes on stool softeners.
6. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of oxytocin.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Imatinib.
2. Mifepristone – mechanism of action and therapeutic uses.
3. Enumerate various classes of insulin analogues.
4. Daptomycin mechanism of actions and two uses.
5. Types of sunscreens with examples.
6. Define antiseptics and disinfectants with examples for each.
*******
[KT 545] AUGUST 2008 Sub. Code : 4066

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper VI – PHARMACOLOGY – II
Q. P. Code : 524066
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
1. a. Classify anti malarial drugs.
b. Mechanism of action and Pharmacological actions of chloroquine.
c. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of chloroquine.
2. a. Classify macrolide antibiotics.
b. Write the mechanism of action and Anti bacterial spectrum of Erythromycin.
c. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Erythromycin.

II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Prokinetic drugs.
2. Drugs used in Bronchial Asthma and Write different techniques of Administration.
3. Fibrinolytic agents.
4. Tocolytic agents.
5. Alkylating agents and Therapeutic uses.
6. Retoconazole
7. Uricosuric Drugs.
8. Anti-Retroviral Drugs.
9. Doxycycline and their advantages over tetracylines.
10. Flouroquinolones and their Therapeutic uses.

III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Adverse effects of Aminoglycosides.
2. Name two immunosuppresants and their uses.
3. Ivermectin Therapeutic uses.
4. Name two Anticancer antibiotic and write their therapeutic uses.
5. Name drugs of Third generation cephalosporin.
6. Dimercaprol.
7. Radio-active iodine.
8. Adverse effects of oral contraceptive pills.
9. Triple drug regime of peptic ulcer.
10. New routes of drug delivery system of insulin.

*******
[KU 545] FEBRUARY 2009 Sub. Code : 4066

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper VI – PHARMACOLOGY – II
Q. P. Code : 524066
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
1. a. Classify penicillin group of antibiotics.
b. Write the mechanism of action and anti bacterial actions of aminopenicillins.
c. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of ampicillin.
2. a. Classify anti amoebic drugs.
b. Write the mechanism of action and anti protozoal actions of Metronidazole.
c. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Metronidazole.

II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Clarithromycin.
2. Mechanism and pharmacological actions of sulfonyl ureas.
3. Anti motility drugs.
4. Desferrioxamine.
5. Primaquine.
6. Ketoconazole.
7. Indications and adverse effects of oral contraceptive pills.
8. Rifampicin.
9. Uses and adverse effects of anabolic steroids.
10. Ovulation inducing agents.

III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Uses and toxicity of quinine.
2. Name two drugs used in motion sickness with the rationale.
3. Mention four 2nd generation cephalosporins.
4. Rationale of combining aluminium and magnesium salts in antacids.
5. Mention two anticancer antibiotics with their indication.
6. Mechanism of action of radio active iodine.
7. Name two drugs used in scabies with their route of administration.
8. Mention four inhalational corticosteroids.
9. Specific adverse effects of fluoroquinolones.
10. Mention two alpha glucosidase inhibitors and indication.

*******
[KV 545] AUGUST 2009 Sub. Code : 4066

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper VI – PHARMACOLOGY – II
Q. P. Code : 524066
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
1. a. Classify drugs used in diabetes mellitus.
b. Write the mechanism of action, uses of oral hypoglycemic drugs.
c. Enumerate DNA recombinant derived insulins.
2. a. Define aminoglycoside antibiotics and enumerate them.
b. Mechanism of action, common adverse effects of aminoglycosides.
c. Write the therapeutic uses of gentamicin.

II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Third generation cephalosporins.
2. Drug regimen in H.Pylori.
3. Indications and contra indications of glucocortocoids.
4. Extra malarial uses of chloroquine and its rationale.
5. Anti thyroid drugs.
6. Oral contraceptives.
7. Define chemoprophylaxis give examples with rationale.
8. Pro kinetic drugs.
9. Sucralfate.
10. Repository preparations of penicillins.

III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Tetracyclines not used in young children – Why?
2. Two uses of D-Penicilamine.
3. Mention two topically used sulfonamides and its uses.
4. Ondensetran as an antiemetic in cancer chemo therapy.
5. Monoclonal antibodies as carriers.
6. Two uses and two adverse effects of vitamin-D.
7. Rationale of L-Asparginase in malignancy.
8. Mention two tocolytic agents and its uses.
9. Therapeutic use and its rationale of finasteride.
10. Two indications of mebendazole.

*******
[KW 545] FEBRUARY 2010 Sub. Code : 4066

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper VI – PHARMACOLOGY – II
Q. P. Code : 524066
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
1. a) Classify anti tubercular drugs.
b) Mechanism of action and bacterial spectrum of action of rifampicin.
c) Explain short course treatment of tuberculosis.
2. a) Classify dopamine receptors and mention its agonists and antagonists.
b) Write mechanism of action and pharmacological actions of metaclopramide.
c) Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of metaclopramide.

II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Proton pump inhibitors.
2. Amikacin.
3. Doxycycline.
4. Bacterial resistance.
5. Chloroquine.
6. Carbimazole.
7. Combined pill.
8. Hormone replacement therapy.
9. Fluconazole.
10. Cyclosporin.

III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)

1. DHF reductase inhibitors.
2. Antianerboic antibiotics.
3. Framycetin.
4. Radio-active iodine.
5. Oxytocin.
6. GNRH analogues.
7. Diloxanate furate.
8. Bromocryptine.
9. Vinca alkaloids.
10. Folinic acid.

*******
[KX 545] AUGUST 2010 Sub. Code : 4066

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper VI – PHARMACOLOGY – II
Q. P. Code : 524066
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
1. i) Enumerate the antimetabolites used in neoplastic diseases.
ii) Write the mechanism of action and therapeutic uses of Methotrexate.
iii) Add a note on treatment of Methotrexate toxicity.
2. i) Classify antithyroid agents.
ii) Mention the pharmacological actions and therapeutic uses of carbimazole.
iii) Add a note on radioactive iodine.

II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)

1. INH.
2. Management of cerebral malaria.
3. Ketoconazole.
4. Treatment of scabies.
5. Management of diabetic ketoacidosis.
6. Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMS).
7. Newer insulin preparations.
8. Low molecular weight heparins.
9. Vitamin – D.
10. British Anti-Lewisite (BAL).

III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Rationale for giving chloroquine and primaquine in acute vivax malaria.
2. Rationale for using clofazimine in lepra reaction.
3. Two Uses and Two adverse effects of metronidazole.
4. Why ciprofloxacin is contraindicated in children less than 8 yrs of age?
5. Two indications of albendazole.
6. Sulfonylureas are not effective in Type I diabetes mellitus.
7. What is grey baby syndrome?
8. Rationale for using Bromocriptine in acromegaly.
9. Ranitidine is preferred to cimetidine in peptic ulcer.
10. Cisplatin.

*******
[KY 545] FEBRUARY 2011 Sub. Code : 4066

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper VI – PHARMACOLOGY – II
Q. P. Code : 524066
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
1. i) Enumerate Anti Tubercular Drugs.
ii) Write the Mechanism of Action and Adverse effects of any one standard drug.
iii) Write briefly on short course chemotherapy.
2. i) Classify Glucocorticoids.
ii) Mention Pharmacological actions of Glucocorticoids.
iii) Enumerate adverse effects and uses of Glucocorticoids.

II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Adverse effects and uses of Metronidazole.
2. Anticancer antibiotics.
3. Clarithromycin.
4. Insulin Resistance.
5. Therapeutic uses of oxygen.
6. Bisacodyl.
7. Adverse effects of oral contraceptive pills.
8. Ketoconazole.
9. Iver mectin.
10. Bacterial drug resistance.

III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Mention two Injectable contraceptives.
2. Mention two Betalactamase inhibitors and their uses.
3. Name two drugs used in Anerobic Infections.
4. Mention four Non malarial uses of chloroquine.
5. Name two Topical & two systemic drugs used in Psoriasis.
6. Write the mechanism of action and uses of Dimercaprol.
7. Mention two differences between oxytocin and Ergometrine.
8. Rationale in the use of Cotrimoxazole.
9. Mention two Monoclonal antibodies and their uses.
10. Justify the preference of Ranitidine over Cimetidine.

*******
[KZ 545] AUGUST 2011 Sub. Code : 4066

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper VI – PHARMACOLOGY – II
Q. P. Code : 524066
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
1. i) What are the various methods of hormonal contraception?
ii) Discuss the mechanism of action of hormonal contraceptives.
iii) Mention the complications of contraceptive use.
2. i) Classify Antiamoebic drugs.
ii) Discuss the adverse effects and indications of Nitroimidazoles used in Amoebiasis.
iii) Write briefly on Nitazoxanide.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Pyrazinamide.
2. Drugs used in TYPHOID fever.
3. Insulin resistance.
4. Diethylcarbamazine citrate.
5. Methotrexate.
6. Prednisolone.
7. Propylthiouracil.
8. Ranitidine.
9. Raloxifene.
10. Pyrimethamine.

III. Short Answer questions : (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Mention two calcineurin inhibitors. Mention two uses.
2. What is Cisplatin? Mention two uses.
3. Name two conditions where multi drug therapy is indicated with antimicrobials.
4. Mention two examples each for bacteriostatic and bactericidal drugs.
5. What is the mechanism of action of Vinca alkaloids?
6. Which antithyroid drug inhibits hormone release from thyroid? Mention two uses.
7. Mention two insulin analogues.
8. Mention two Antioestrogens. Mention two indications.
9. Mention two conditions requiring Hormone replacement therapy.
What hormones are given?
10. Name the Mast cell stabilizers. What is their role in Bronchial asthma?

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[LB 545] AUGUST 2012 Sub. Code : 4066

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Paper II – PHARMACOLOGY – II
Q. P. Code : 524066
Time : 180 Minutes Maximum: 40 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: Pages Time Marks
(Max.) (Max.) (Max.)
1. a. Classify the drugs used for the treatment of fungal infections.
b. Explain the mechanism of action, interactions, adverse
effects and uses of Ketoconazole. 16 30 10

2. Discuss the pharmacotherapy of Helicobacter pylori infection. 8 20 5

II. Write notes on:

1. Meropenem. 3 8 1.5
2. Adverse effects and uses of lodides. 3 8 1.5
3. Erythrocytic schizontocidal agents. 3 8 1.5
4. Enumerate the serious complications of oral contraceptives. 3 8 1.5
5. Indications for oral hypoglycemic agents. 3 8 1.5
6. Management of functional constipation. 3 8 1.5
7. Gentamicin – PMMA (Polymethyl methacrylate) chain. 3 8 1.5
8. Management of multi drug resistant Tuberculosis (MDR-TB). 3 8 1.5
9. Clofazimine in Leprosy. 3 8 1.5
10. Fusion inhibitors in HIV infection. 3 8 1.5

III. Short Answers on:

1. Mechanism of action of Cephalosporins. 2 5 1
2. Post antibiotic effect. 2 5 1
3. Cinacalcet. 2 5 1
4. Name two highly selective corticosteroids and give their 2 uses. 2 5 1
5. Precautions for use of tetracyclines. 2 5 1
6. Special pharmacokinetic properties of Azithromycin. 2 5 1
7. Mechanism of action of Paclitaxel. 2 5 1
8. What is Mycophenolate Mofetil and explain its mechanism
of action. 2 5 1
9. Name four antiseborrheics. 2 5 1
10. Ondansetron as an antiemetic. 2 5 1

*******
[LC 545] FEBRUARY 2013 Sub. Code : 4066

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Paper II – PHARMACOLOGY – II
Q. P. Code : 524066
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 15 = 30)
1. a. Classify Anti Thyroid drugs.
b. Adverse effects and uses of propylthiouracil.
c. Treatment of thyroid storm.
2. a. Classify fluroquinolones.
b. Explain the mechanism of action and uses of second generation fluroquinolones.

II. Write notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Centrally acting muscle relaxants.
2. Complication of spinal anaesthesia.
3. Biological Response modifiers.
4. Therapeutic uses of Vitamin A.
5. Newer Macrolides.
6. Post Exposure prophylaxis of Rabies.
7. Dimercaprol.
8. Streptokinase.
9. Drugs for psoriasis.
10. Treatment of Bellodona poisoning.

III. Short Answers on: (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Semi synthetic Penicillin.
2. Imipenem.
3. Name four Topical Anti fungals.
4. Injectable contraceptives.
5. Adverse effects of Aminoglycoside Antibiotics.
6. Oxytocin Antagonist.
7. Uses of Methotrexate.
8. Treatment of lepra reaction.
9. Enfuvirtide.
10. Intra vaginal preparations for Trchomonas Vaginalis.

*******
[LD 545] AUGUST 2013 Sub. Code : 4066

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Paper II – PHARMACOLOGY – II
Q. P. Code : 524066
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 40 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 7.5 = 15)
1. a. Enumerate and discuss the pharmacology of newer insulin analogues.
b. Add a note on insulin resistance.
2. Discuss the mechanism of action, Spectrum of activity and uses of Metronidazole.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 1.5 = 15)

1. PUVA (Psoralen Ultra Violet A).
2. Explain the mechanism of action & uses of Calcineurin inhibitors.
3. Bleomycin.
4. Tegaserod.
5. Pharmacotherapy of Gastro Esophageal Reflex Disease.
6. Zoledronate.
7. Emergency Contraception.
8. Gatifloxacin.
9. Name 2 Superactive GnRH agonist & what are their uses.
10. Role of corticosteroids in Tuberculosis management.

III. Short Answers on: (10 x 1 = 10)

1. Advantages of Artemisinin based Combination Therapy (ACT).
2. Albendazole in Neurocysticercosis.
3. Oseltamivir.
4. Management of Lepra reaction.
5. Sulfasalazine as an antidiarrhoeal agent.
6. Atosiban.
7. Drugs used for Thyrotoxic crisis.
8. Chemoprophylaxis.
9. Ototoxicity produced by Aminoglycosides.
10. Vancomycin.

*******
[LE 545] FEBRUARY 2014 Sub. Code: 4066

SECOND YEAR MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION

Paper II – PHARMACOLOGY – II
Q. P. Code: 524066
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 40 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 7.5 = 15)
1. a. Classify the drugs used for Diabetes Mellitus.
b. Discuss the actions and the available preparations of insulin.
2. a. Classify the drugs used for the treatment of peptic ulcer.
b. Discuss the mechanism of action and uses of proton pump inhibitors.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 1.5 = 15)

1. Plasma expanders
2. Drugs for Gastroesophageal reflux disease
3. Rifampin
4. Classification of anti cancer drugs.
5. Metformin
6. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Gonadotropins.
7. Artemisinin based combination therapy.
8. Albendazole.
9. Sitagliptin
10. Fourth generation cephalosporins

III. Short Answers on: (10 x 1 = 10)

1. Mention four anticoagulants used in vitro.
2. Mention four therapeutic uses of vitamin D.
3. Give four examples of Fluroquinolones.
4. Mention four antiretroviral drugs
5. Mention four antimalarial drugs
6. Mention four contraindication for heparin.
7. Mention four HMG-COA reductase inhibitors.
8. Mention four antiamoebic drugs.
9. Mention four first line Anti tubercular agents.
10. Mention four topical antifungal drugs

*******
[LF 544] AUGUST 2014 Sub. Code: 4066

SECOND YEAR M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION

Paper II – PHARMACOLOGY - II
Q. P. Code: 524066
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 40 Marks
Answer ALL questions in the same order.
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 7.5 = 15)
1. Classify immunosuppressants.
Describe the mechanism of action, adverse effects and therapeutic uses of
calcineurin inhibitors.
2. Classify antimalarial drugs.
Describe in detail about Chloroquine resistance Malaria treatment.
II. Write Notes on: (10 x 1.5 = 15)
1. Prophylaxis of HIV infection
2. Menopausal hormone replacement therapy
3. Human insulins
4. Sulfasalazine
5. 5HT3 antagonists
6. Antipseudomonal penicillins
7. 5 alpha reductase inhibitors
8. Radioactive iodine
9. Treatment of acne vulgaris
10. Short course chemotherapy in tuberculosis.

III. Short Answers on: (10 x 1 = 10)

1. Mechanism of action of ciprofloxacin
2. Sulfone syndrome
3. Enumerate the differences between propyl thiouracil and carbimazole
4. Emergency contraception
5. Citrovorum factor rescue
6. Enumerate the contraindications of steroids
7. Super ORS
8. Mechanism of action of omeprazole
9. Write the mechanism of action and uses of Ivermectin
10. Newer formulations of Amphotericin B.

.*******
[LG 544] FEBRUARY 2015 Sub.Code :4066

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY II

Q.P. Code: 524066

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Classify the drugs used for the treatment of fungal infections. Explain the
mechanism of action, drug interactions, adverse effects and therapeutic uses of
Griseofulvin.

II. Write notes on: (4 x 5 = 20)

1. Low molecular weight heparin

2. British Anti lewisite
3. Drug regimen in H. Pylori
4. Lepra reaction

III. Short answers on: (5 x 2 = 10)

1. Why imipenem is administered with cilastatin?

2. Mebendazole
3. Adverse effects of Aminoglycosides
4. Therapeutic uses of Metronidazole
5. Mechanism of action of Sulfonylureas

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[LH 545] AUGUST 2015 Sub. Code: 4066

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY - II
Q.P. Code: 524066
Time : Three Hours Maximum : 40 marks
Answer ALL questions
I. Elaborate: (1 x 10 = 10)
1. Classify Cephalosporins.
Discuss the mechanism of action, uses and adverse effects of Cephalosporins.
Write briefly about postantibiotic effect.

II. Write notes on : (4 x 5 = 20)

1. Methotrexate.

2. Cotrimoxazole.

3. Clinical uses of Somatostatin and Octreotide.

4. Classify antiemetic agents.

III. Short answers on : (5 x 2 = 10)

1. Name four microtubule damaging agents used for chemotherapy for cancer.

2. Danazol.

3. Artemisinin derivatives in Malaria.

4. Ezetimibe.

5. Thrombolytic drugs.

*******
[LI 545] FEBRUARY 2016 Sub. Code: 4066

SECOND YEAR M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY - II
Q.P. Code : 524066
Time : Three Hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer ALL questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)
1. a) Classify Beta lactam antibiotics.

b) Mention the mechanism of action, adverse effects and uses of Penicillins.

c) Write briefly about Beta-lactamase inhibitors.

II. Write notes on: (4 x 5 = 20)

1. Paclitaxel.

2. Domperidone.

3. Erythropoetin.

4. Statins.

III. Short answers on: (5 x 2 = 10)

1. Mention four drugs for Scabies.

2. Mention the toxicities of quinolones.

3. Mention four oral hypoglycemic drugs. Mention their mechanisms of action.

4. Mention four uses of thyroid hormone.

5. Antimotility drugs.

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[LJ 544] AUGUST 2016 Sub.Code :4066

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER II – PHARMACOLOGY - II

Q.P. Code: 524066

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Classify the drugs used for tuberculosis. Discuss the mechanism of action,
pharmacokinetics and adverse effects of isoniazid.

II. Write notes on: (4 x 5 = 20)

1. Vinca alkaloids
2. Oxytocin
3. Bulk purgatives
4. Prokinetic drugs

III. Short answers on: (5 x 2 = 10)

1. Hepatitis B vaccine.
2. Vitamin K.
3. Mechanism of action of Cotrimoxazole.
4. Mention four uses of corticosteroids.
5. Mention four factors affecting the absorption of iron.

********