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G
·

B/303 Ajay Apt Goregaon East Mumbai

Must as Mumbai, Maharashtra 400063
10
am
·

Reproductive Health QP
principle Inh .
-

Reproductive Health - Problems and Strategies, Population Explosion and Birth

Control, Contraceptives, Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP),

(1) Family care

(2) Family organization
1. Reproductive health in society can be improved by :

-
(3) Reproductive care
P i. Introduction of sex education in schoolsY
-

Y(4) Family planning /

~
>
-

ii. Increased medical assistance -

iii. Awareness about contraception and STDs -
7. Choose the correct statement
- --
iv. Equal opportunities to male and female child -
I. According to the , reproductive health is total
-

well being in the physical, social, emotional and

-
v. Ban on amniocentesis - - -
-

vi. Encouraging myths and misconception X behavioural aspects of reproduction. -

-

- ~
II. According to the , reproductive health is total
(1) i, ii, iv and vi well being in the physical, social and emotional
(2)
Y i, ii, iii, iv and v aspects of reproduction. X
(3) ii and iv III.
-
A reproductively healthy society has people with
(4) All of these physically and functionally normal reproductive
-

organs. - X
2. Which of the following step is necessary for building up
-
IV. A reproductively healthy societies have abnormal
-

a healthy reproductive society?

- -
sex-related emotional and behavioural interactions.
(1) Introduction of sex education in schools - (1) I, II and III
(2) Proper information about reproductive organs,
-
(2) II and IV
adolescent and safe sexual practices.- (3)
Y I and III
(3) To create awareness among people about reproduction (4) I only
related aspects -
(4) 8. In context of amniocentesis, which of the following
Y All of these.
statement is incorrect?-

3. Reproductive and child healthcare

-
(1) It is used for prenatal sex determination -
L programme is for reproduction related areas.-
>
- - -

It deals with creating awareness among (2) It can be used for detection of down syndrome-
X
(3) It can be used for detection of cleft palate X
-

varous financial related aspects.↓

-
Y -

(1) Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect. (4) It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16
Y
weeks pregnancy.
(2) Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is correct.
(3) Both statements are correct. 9. Sex education includes all of the following except:
- -

(4) Both Statements are incorrect. (1) Safe and hygienic sexual practices-
4. "Saheli", an oral contraceptive for females, was (2) STDs -
(3) Adolescence and related changes-
-

developed by % -

(1) AIIMS, Delhi (4) To make students believe in myths and misconceptions
Y - -

about sex-related aspects x

(2) IICB, Kolkata 11 Il

(3) SGPGI, Lucknow 10. Prenatal defects in the foetus can be detected by:
- -

(4)
Y CDRI, LucknowY (1) MRI
(2) Laparoscopy chromosoma
5. For imposing a check on increasing female foeticides
↑
:

* - i s
(3) Genetic engineering
(1) Tubectomy is being practiced
Y(4) Amniocentesis
(2)
V Amniocentesis has been banned Y

(3) MTP has been legalized 11. What is the main factor affecting the population
(4) All of these growth?
(1) Increase in health care facilities
6. What are the programmes called to get total Y
reproductive health as a social goal of national level? (2) Better quality of life.
Y
u
~

1
 Unprep
Y(3) Both 1 & 2 (3) Establish reproductive health care in society. Y
- =

(4) Industrialization X (4) Both (1) and (3)

Y

12. Amniocentesis involves analysis of 21. CDRI stands for

:

-
-

(1) Amnion Imp (1) Central Drug Refund Institute

(2) Yolk sac (2) Central Drug Related Institute
(3)
Y Amniotic fluidY Y(3) Central Drug Research Institute
(4) Placenta (4) Children Development Research Institute
13. Family planning programme was introduced in - 22. What is the full form of RCH
~

(1) 1960 (1) Reproductive and Child Health

(2) 1961 ~(2) Reproductive and Child Health Care
(3) 1950 (3) Reproduction, Contraception and Health
Y(4) 1951 (4) None of the above
F

14. Statutory ban has been laid on _______ to check G

23. Medical assistance and care to people is required in
* female foeticide. reproduction related problems like 8-
11 - ~
(1) Ultrasonography (1) Pregnancy, Delivery
- -

↓(2) Amniocentesis (2) STDs, Abortions

(3) CT scan (3) Contraception, Menstrual problems, Infertility
- -
(4) X-ray (4)
v
All of them
15. The amniocentesis test is based on _______ to 24. STD stands for, in reproductive health -
P
-

determine the sex of developing foetus. (1) Sex Terminal Determinant

(1) Physical problems Y(2) Sexually Transmitted Disease -

(2) Secondary sexual characters (3) Sexually Transformed Disease

Y(3) Chromosomal pattern (4) Socially Transmitted Disease
(4) Maternal antibodies
25. According to the 2011 census report, the population
16. Primary steps that can be taken towards attaining growth rate was
reproductive health are - :
-

P
-
(1) More than 2 per cent, i.e., year.
i. Counselling and creating awareness among people
about reproductive organs, adolescence and Y(2) Less than 2 per cent, i.e.,
~
year.
associated changes. - (3) Less than 20 per cent, i.e., year.
ii. Safe and hygienic sexual practices -
(4) None of them
iii. Creating awareness about STDs including AIDS etc
~ -

iv. Ban on MTP and amniocentesis *

-
26. Fill in the blanks
(1) and ii vimp
-
-
(2) and
V(3) i, ii and iii
200 0
(4) i, ii, iii and iv -
-

350M
Genetic
17. Amniocentesis is a technique used to detect :
=> 100uM 6000
-

disorder.
(1) Down syndrome~ 1300 M 7000

(2) Haemophilia ~ (1) ,

(3) Sickle cell anaemia
-

(4)
Y
All the above Y(2) ,
18. Amniocentesis is employed for determining : -

m -
(3) ,
(1) Cardiac ailments of embryo X
(2) Errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo X (4) ,
(3)
V Hereditary abnormality in embryoY
(4) All of the above 27. Mark the incorrect statement
~

19. IMR stands for :

- (1) Marriageable age for male and female is respectively

- -

(1) Individual Mortality Rate 21 and 18 years-

(2) Infant Migratory Rate (2) According to the 2011 census report, the population
growth rate was less than 2 per cent Y
Y(3) Infant Mortality Rate
I(3) The problem of infertility in India lies most often in
(4) Infant Movement Rate mull female partner
-
-

-
11

20. What are the major1 tasks under reproductive and child (4) An ideal contraceptive should be reversible
-

health programme? Y

(1) Create awareness about reproductive health among

people. u
(2) Does not Educate people about reproductive process.
X
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28. Overpopulation has become a serious
-
(2) 17 percent
problem in the developing contries.
- - (3) year
Statutory raising of marriageable age of the
female to 18 years and that of males to 21 Y(4) Less than 2 percent
-
-

years Y 35. In India, there is rapid decline in infant mortality

&
- -

(1) Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect. rate and MMR.-

(2) Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is correct. -
In India, more and more attention is being
given to programs.-
-

Y(3) Both statements are correct. -

(4) Both Statements are incorrect. (1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
29. Select the most appropriate methods employed by the (2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is
V
government of India to maintain good reproductive - not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
health in females in our country under the
- -
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
reproductive health care programme?
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect
-

(i) By advertising the slogan "Hum do hamare do"

- - -
-

(ii) Introducing sex education in schools --

36. Match column I and column II.
(iii) Early detection of STDs and early treatment and
cure -
(iv) Statutory raising marriageable age of females to 18 A Condoms P Used by females

F
years and males to 21 years -
B Vaults Q Used by males
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) C Diaphragms R Made of rubber
(2) (ii) and (iii) S Made of Latex
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(1) A - Q,R; B - P,R; C - P,R
(4)
Y All the above
(2) A - Q,S; B - Q,R; C - Q,R
30. Young couples in the urban working areas have (3)
V A - Q,S; B - P,R; C - P,R
F
adopted the _____norm. (4) A - P,S; B - Q,R; C - P,R
(1)
Y One child
37. Which of the following methods prevents conception
(2) Two child by just blocking gamete transport?
-

(3) No child - -

(1)
Y Surgical methods stalization
-

(4) Three child -

-

(2) Oral contraceptives

31. MMR stands for (3) Implants
(1) Maternal Migration rate (4) Natural methods
(2) Mortality Mandatory Rate 38. IUDs which are used by females
-
(3) Mortality Maternal rate
(1) Act as spermicidal jellies
(4)
Y
Maternal Mortality Rate
Y (2) Block the entry of sperms into vagina
32. Read the Assertion and Reason carefully to mark the (3) Are implanted under the skin and they release
correct options given below: progestogen and oestrogen
Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of (4) Release copper ions in the uterus that increase
-
Y
the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health -

phagocytosis of sperms.
- -

Care Programme X - -

Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing 39. Copper-T is an effective contraceptive device

menace of female foeticide.~ G in human females.
-

Copper-T prevents passage of sperms from

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the - -

correct explanation of Assertion. vagina upwards into the fallopian tubes.

- -

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and R is NOT the Y(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
correct explanation of Assertion the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true. not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Y
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
33. In India, there is rapid decline in infant
- (4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect
mortality rate and MMR.
--
Creating awareness among people about so
40. An individual undergoes sterilization process in which
various reproduction related aspects and
-

-
a small incision was done on ' ' and a part of vas
=

providing facilities and support for building

- -
deferens is removed or tied up. Identify ' ' and the
up a reproductively healthy society are the intervention of this surgical process.
major tasks under these programmes.-
(1) ' ' - Fallopian tube; Prevent ovulation and
(1) Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect. implantation.
(2) Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is correct. (2) ' - Testes; Prevent conception by blocking sperm
(3)
Y Both statements are correct. entry.
(4) Both Statements are incorrect. (3) ' ' - Epididymis; Inhibit maturation of sperm and its
transport.
34. According to 2001 census report, the population (4) ' - Scrotum; Gamete transport is blocked and
Y
growth rate was still around thereby prevents conception.
(1) 2.7 percent

3
 Unprep
41. Condoms are barriers made of thick
E thin 47. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive -

rubber/latex sheath X due to the: -

↓
Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are (1) Suppression of gonadotropins
Y
-

barrier methods which prevent conceptions

>
-

by blocking entry of sperms through cervix. (2) Hyper secretion of gonadotropins

- -

(3) Suppression of gametic transport

-

They are reusable.-

-

(1) Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect. (4) Suppression of fertilisation

(2)
Y Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is correct. 48. Which one of the following is an incorrect match?
(3) Both statements are correct. (1) Lactational - Natural contraception amenorrhoea
-

(4) Both Statements are incorrect. method Non-

42. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the (2) Saheli - Steroidal pills X
-

females. Choose the correct option from the (3) Lippes loop - Non medicated IUCD
statements given below: ~

(4) Test tube baby - In vitro fertilization

i. They are introduced into the uterus X
ii. They are placed to cover the cervical region - 49. What is the figure given below showing in particular?
- -

iii. They act as physical barriers for sperm entry. Y

iv. They act as spermicidal agents X
(1) i and ii
(2)
Y i and iii
(3) ii and iii
(4) iii and iv
43. Which of the following statements are correct about -

cervical caps?
-

A. Barrier method of contraception Y

B. Protect the user from contracting STDs X
- -

C. They are reusable -

D. Prevent sperm from meeting ovumv (1) Gestation
(2) Uterine cancer
(1) B, C and D only
(3)
Y Tubectomy
Y(2) A, C and D only
(4) Vasectomy
(3) A, B and D only
(4) A, B, C and D 50. Copper-T is an effective contraceptive
device in human females.-
44. A contraceptive pill prevents ovulation by :
-
-

Copper-T prevents passage of sperms from

~ -

(1) Inhibiting the release of FSH and LH

-
vagina upwards into the fallopian tubes.
Y -
-
-

(2) Stimulating the release of FSH and LH (1) Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect.
(3) Blocking of the fallopian tubes (2) Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is correct.
(4) Causing immediate degeneration of released ovum (3)
Y Both statements are correct.
(4) Both Statements are incorrect.
45. Match the columns.
51. What is true for surgical methods?
-

i. Also called sterilisation -

Barrier ii. Terminal method of contraception-

A P Prevent ovulation
methods iii. Block gamete transport -

Y
Intra uterine iv. Called vasectomy in females and tubectomy in
B Q Diaphragm -

devices males XX
Increase phagocytosis of v. High reversibility and contraceptive efficiency
Oral
sperms, suppress sperm vi. High contraceptive efficiency
C contraceptive R Y
motility and fertilizing capacity (1) i, ii, iii, v
pills
of sperms
Contraception due to breast (2)
Y i, ii, iii, vi
D Tubectomy S (3) i, ii, iii, iv

E
Lactational X T
feeding
Prevent fertilization
(4) i, ii, iii, iv, vi
amenorrhoea
52. Emergency contraceptives could be used to avoid
(1) possible pregnancy due to
Y(2) (1) MTP
(3) (2) Rape Y
(4) (3) Casual unprotected intercourse
Y
(4)
Y Both 2 and 3
46. Choose the right one among the statements given
below: >

53. The following structure is placed inside

mu

(1) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself

(2)
Y IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
mu =

(3) IUDs suppress gametogenesis

(4) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
 Unprep
59. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which -

(1) Small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up

(2) Ovaries are removed surgically
(3)
Y Small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up
- - -

Y
(4) Fallopian tubes and uterus is removed surgically
(1) Cervix 60. - Barrier methods prevent conception.
Inc -

IUDs decrease phagocytosis of sperms

.

(2)
V Uterus X
-
-
-

(3) Fallopian tube within the uterus and the ions released
suppress sperm motility and the fertilising
(4) Ovary capacity of sperms.
54. Match the column-I with Column-II (1) Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect.
Y
#mp (2) Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is correct.
A Non-medicated IUD's P Multiload 375 (3) Both statements are correct.

#
B Copper releasing Q LNG - 20 (4) Both Statements are incorrect.
C Hormone releasing R Lippes loop 61. Which of the following is not a natural/ traditional
S Cu-7
-

contraceptive method?
T Progestasert
(1) Coitus interruptus
(1) A - Q; B - S,P; C - R,T (2) Periodic abstinence
(2)
V A - R; B - S,P; C - Q,T (3) Lactational amenorrhea
(3) A - R; B - P,Q; C - S,T (4) Vaults - Barries
v = -

(4) A - R; B - P,T; C - Q,R

62. Administration of which of the following within 72 -

55. Read the and carefully to hours of coitus have been found to be effective as
=
mark the correct option out of the options given below: emergency contraceptives?
Periodic abstinence is a natural method i. Progestogen Y
-
where couples abstain from coitus. ii. Progestogen-estrogen combinations Y
10-7
iii. Intrauterine devices Y
-

Coitus from days 5-10 should be avoided

-

Y -
because this is the
-
time of ovulation iv. Diaphragms or cervical caps
(1)
Y Statement-A is correct. (1) i and ii only
(2) Statement-B is correct. (2) i, iii and iv
(3) Both statements are correct. (3) ii and iii only
(4) Both statements are incorrect. (4)
Y i, ii, and iii

56. There is chance of fertilisation during 63. The hormone releasing intrauterine devices such as
-

days of menstrual cycle.- P progestasert specifically - :

~
out
Menstrual phase can be expected during (1) Suppress sperm motility
these days. X (2) Increase phagocytosis of sperms
Y(1) Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect. Y(3) Make uterus unsustainable for implantation
-
=

(2) Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is correct. (4) Suppress fertilizing capacity of sperms
(3) Both statements are correct.
64. Which of the following features are related to Nirodh?
(4) Both Statements are incorrect. (i) Prevention of STDs Y
>
-

57. Given is a diagram of a contraceptive device. Identify (ii) Phagocytosis of sperms X

it. (iii) Acts as chemical barrier X
(iv) Male contraceptive device Y
(v) Physiological changes in cervical mucus X
(1) i, ii
Y(2) i, iv
(3) i, ii, iii
(4) i, ii, iii, iv
65. IUDs are used by females
(1) Multiload 375 (1) Act as spermicidal gel
(2)
Y Contraceptive implant
- (2) Block the entry of sperms into vagina
(3) Copper-T (3) Are implanted under skin where they release
(4) Vault progesterone and estrogen
(4) Release copper ions in the uterus that increase
O
58. In the_____ method of contraception ovum and v
phagocytosis of sperms.
-

sperms are prevented from physically meeting

(1) Natural 8
66. Choose the right one among the statements given
(2) Sterilization below
(3)
V Barrier (1)
Y IUDs increase phagocytosis reactions in the uterus
(4) Pills (2) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
(3) IUDs suppress gametogenesis

5
 Unprep
(4) IUDs once inserted need not to be replaced. (4) Y - Tubectomy
67. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within: 75. Choose the correct option with respect to-
=>
-

(1) of coitus & contraceptives : -

Y
-

i. Breast cancer is a possible ill effect of using

(2) of ovulation contraceptives -
-

(3) of menstruation ii. Some give an additional benefit of protecting the

-

(4) of implantation user from contracting STDs ~

iii. Diaphragms are reusable -

68. Progestasert and LNG-20 are -
-
iv. Multiload 375 suppresses sperm motility and
-

(1) Implants fertilizing capacity of sperms -

(2) Copper releasing IUDs v. Progestasert increases cervical mucus secretion
-

(3) Non-medicated IUDs (1) i, ii

(4)
Y Hormone releasing IUDs (2) i, ii, iv
(3) i, iii, iv
69. Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults prevent
(4)
P i, ii, iii, iv, v
conception by %
-

(1) Inhibiting ovulation and implantation 76. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives
(2) Suppressing sperm mobilty and motility because of the following reasons: ~

(3) Increasing phagocytosis of sperms within uterus (1) These are effective barriers for insemination
Y
(4) Blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix (2) They do not interfere with coital actV
Y - -

(3) These help in reducing the risk of STDsY

70. A weekly contraceptive pill is 8 -

-
(4)
Y All of the above
(1)
(2)
Y
Mala A
Saheli
& 77. Read the following statements and find out the
Il
11
incorrect statement
(3) Mala D -

I. Barrier methods are available for both males and

(4) Saheli-2 females -
II. In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are prevented
71. Coitus interruptus/withdrawal method concerns with
-
:
- - - -

from physically meeting with the help of barriers.

-

11
11
(1)
---
Withdrawal of penis from vagina before ejaculation
-
III. Condoms are made of thin rubber/ latex sheath that
- -

- are used to cover the penis in male or vagina and

(2) Withdrawal of penis from vagina after ejaculation X - -

(3) Prevention of coitus cervix in the female, just before coitus so that the
- -

ejaculated semen would not enter into the female

(4) Coitus after fertile period reproductive tract.
72. IlWhich statements show the correct statements about IV. Diaphragm, cervical caps and vaults are barriers
=
OCP?
1 - -

made of rubber that are inserted into the female -

=
I. They inhibit ovulation and implantation ~ reproductive tract to cover cervix during coitus. >
-

- -

II. They alter the quality of fallopian mucus to prevent These barriers are disposable.X
-

or retard the entry of sperms. X (1) I and II

III. They prevent the ejaculated semen from entering
- (2) II and III
the female vagina X Y(3) IV
IV. They inhibit menstrual cycle. Y
- -
(4) III and IV
Y(1) I
(2) II and III 78. The contraceptive 'SAHELI' : -

(3) I and II (1) Is an IUD X

(4) I, II, III and IV (2) Blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing
Y - -

eggs from getting implanted

73. The most important component of the oral contra-
(3) Increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents
ceptive pills is
ovulation in females
(1)
Y Progesterone (4) Is a post-coital contraceptive
(2) Growth hormone
(3) Thyroxine 79. An ideal contraceptive should be
(4) Luteinizing hormone (1) User-friendly
V (2) User-friendly, easily available, effective and reversible
74. The process that involves semen without sperms
- - with no or least side- effects.
(3) Easily available
(4) Reversible with no or least side-effects
=>
80. Saheli, developed by Indian scientists is a :
-

(1) Steroidal preparation

(2) Hormonal preparation
(3)
V Non-steroidal preparation
Y(1) X - vasectomy (4) Effective preparation to demobilise the sperms
(2) X - Tubectomy
(3) Y - Vasectomy
 Unprep
81. Fill in the blanks (2) II and III
Oral contraceptive pills have to be taken daily for a (3) I and IV
Y
21 day
period of____A____ starting preferably within the first
____B____of
S menstrual cycle. After a gap of____C____ idues (4) III and IV
days (during which menstruation occurs) it has to be 89. Government of India legalized MTP in the
repeated in the same pattern till the female desires to year________.
prevent contraception.
(1) 1961
Y(1) A - 21 days; B - 5 days; C - 7 days
V(2) 1971
(2) A - 28 days; B - 7 days; C - 5 days
(3) 1972
(3) A - 28 days; B - 5 days; C - 7 days
(4) 1951
(4) A - 22 days; B - 7 days; C - 5 days
90. MTP is considered safe upto how many weeks in
O
82. Action of contraceptive is - %

pregnancy?
(1) Prevent the ovulation only (1) 6 weeks
(2) Prevention of ovulation and fertilization only (2) 8 weeks
Y(3) Prevention of ovulation, fertilization and implantation (3) 12 weeks
- - -
Y
(4) Prevent the rapid passing of eggs in oviduct.
-

(4) 18 weeks
83. Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in 91. Choose the correct statements given below regarding
the following statements. contraception. %
-

(i) Destruction of embryo or foetus in the uterus is I. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first
fochi
called ________ . trimester is generally safe.-
(ii) Government of India legalised MTP in the year II. Generally, chances of conception are nil until mother
1971
________ . breast-feeds the infant up to = two years. X
(iii) ___ is a copper releasing and ___ is a hormone III. Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective
releasing intra uterine devices. contraceptives. -
(1) i - foeticide, ii - 1961, iii - Multiload 375, LNG-20 IV. Contraception pills may be taken up to one week
Y(2) i - foeticide, ii - 1971, iii - Cu-7, LNG-20 after coitus to prevent conception. X
(3) i - foeticide, ii - 1965, iii - Multiload 375, CuT (1) I and II
(4) i - Suicide, ii - 1982, iii - Multiload 375, LNG-20 (2) II and III
(3) III and IV
84. MTPs are considered relatively safe during %

Y(4) I and III

(1) 24 weeks of pregnancy
(2) 180 days of pregnancy 92. Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy
before full term is called________
Y(3) First trimester
(4) Second trimester (1) Medical transfer of pregnancy
(2) Medical terminal pregnancy
85. Misuse of amniocentesis has led to the misuse (3) Medical Termination of Pregnancy
Y
of_______
(4) None of these
(1) STD
Y(2) MTP 93. For a pregnancy of 20 weeks, what is true according to
- -

Medical Termination of Pregnancy Amendment Act

(3) RTI
2017?
(4) RCH
us -
So (1) Opinion of only one registered medical practitioner is
86. Nearly ___ A__ million MTPs performed in a year all required to allow the MTP
YS of the total
over the world which accounts to___ B___ (2) Opinion of a three registered medical practitioner is
number of conceived pregnancies in a year. required if pregnancy is a result of rape
(1) A - 40 to 50 ,B - (3) Opinion of two registered medical practitioners is
Y - -

required to allow the MTP

(2) A - 45 to 50 ,B - -

(4) Opinion of only one registered medical practitioner is

u(3) A - 45 to 50 , required if mother is mentally unsound.
(4) A - 40 to 50 ,
94. Which of the following is a non- invasive technique for
-

87. The process of amniocentesis involves analysis of monitoring foetal growth and detecting congenital
-
-

diseases?
-

(1) Amnion 7
(2) Body fluids of amniotes V(1) Ultrasonography
(3) Amino acids of protein (2) Amniocentesis
(4) Amniotic fluidY (3) Chorionic villus sampling
(4) All of these
88. These statements are given regarding MTP. Choose =
which one is the correct option.
I. Are generally advised during first trimester-
II. Are used as contraceptive method X
III. Are always surgical X
IV. Require an assistance of qualified medical
personnel V
(1) I and III X

7
 Unprep
95. Following statements are given regarding MTP. Choose (3) B - Female condom
the correct options given below: -

(4) B - Vault
I. MTPs are also essential in certain cases where
-

continuation of the pregnancy could be harmful or

-
98. Progesterone pill help in preventing pregnancy by not
even fatal either to the mother or to the foetus or allowing %
-

both -
-

II. MTPs are always safe X (1) Fertilization

III. MTPs are always surgical ↓ (2) Sperm formation
IV. Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 (3) Implantation
Y -
V

(1) II and III (4) None of these

(2) II and IV 99. Surgical intervention________________
Y(3) I and IV
(1) Prevents ovulation
(4) I and II
(2) Prevents gametogenesis
96. The process in which a small part of the vas deferens (3) Blocks gamete transport and thereby prevent
V -

is removed or tied up through a small incision, is conception -

called (4) Helps gametogenesis
(1) MTP
100. Identify the correct statements.
(2)
~ Vasectomy X
I. There are many side effects of tubectomy and
(3) Tubectomy
=
vasectomy. X
(4) GIFT II. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent egg and sperm
Y
fusion. Y
97. Identify the structure used by males to cover the penis III. The most important component of the oral
m --
u contraceptive pills is progesterone. =

IV. Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by

preventing ovulation.
(1) I, II and III
Y
↓ (2) I and II
(1) A - Diaphragm femule Y(3) III, IV and II
(2) A - Condom condum.
v
- (4) II and IV
 Unprep

Unprep
B/303 Ajay Apt Goregaon East Mumbai
Mumbai, Maharashtra 400063

Repriductive Helath - 2 QP

Sexually Transmitted Infections (STI), Infertility,

5. Identify the true statements from the below statements-

- -

I. There are many side effects of tubectomy and

vasectomy. *
1. To avoid transmission of STDs we should II. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent egg formation.Y
(i) Avoid sex with multiple partners -
- -

III. The most important component of the oral

(ii) Use condoms during coitus- contraceptive pills is progesterone. Y
-

-
(iii) Avoid sex with unknown partners - IV. Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by
(iv) Avoid sharing of needles preventing ovulation.-
-

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) V. Genital warts is a sexually transmitted disease

(2) (i), (iii), caused by herpes virus. HPY X
- - .

VI. In India, there is rapid decline in infant mortality rate

(3) (i), (ii) and MMR. Y
Y(4) All of them
(1) I, II and V
2. Early symptoms of most of the STDs are (2) I, II and III
i. Itching - =
(3)
Y III, IV and VI
ii. Fluid discharge -
(4) III, IV, V and VI
iii. Slight pain-
iv. Swelling - 6. STDs may lead to complications like %
-

v. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) X

(1) Abortions
(1) i, ii and iv (2) Still birth -
(2) i, ii and iii (3) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Y(3) i,ii,iii, iv (4) All of these
-

Y
(4) All of the above
7. Veneral diseases can spread through:
3. The complication of the STDs includes.
-

=
(i) Using sterile needles X
a. PID. - (ii) Transfusion of blood from infected person
Y
b. Abortionsc. -
-
Y -

(iii) Infected mother to foetus

Y
c. Still birthd. - (iv) Kissing X
Y

d. Ectopic pregnanciese.
- (v) Inheritance X
e. Infertility -
f. Cancer of reproductive tract Choose the correct answer from the options given
-

(1) a, c and d below.

(2) a, b, d and e (1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(3) b, c, d, e and f (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(4)
Y All of the above (3)
Y (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (i) and (iii) only
G
4. Select the correct statement from the following. -

(1) Sexually transmitted infections may often be 8. Given is a diagram of FRS with a medical condition.
V
Identify.
-

asymptomatic in females -

(2) Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete Y

formation
(3) All sexually transmitted diseases are completely curable o
(4) The reason for infertility can be physiological but not
psychological

(1)
Y Ectopic pregnancy
(2) Tubal blockage

1
 Unprep
(3) Normal pregnancy 17. In-vitro fertilization is a technique that involves
(4) Fallopian tube anomaly transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian =
tube
-

9. Which of the following STDs are not completely (1) Embryo of 32 cell stage
= =>
curable?
- (2) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(1) Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis (3) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
Y -

(2) Chancroid, syphilis, genital warts

-

(4) Zygote only

(3) AIDS, syphilis, hepatitis B
(4) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B 18. Match the ARTs with their description-
Y
⑦ [Link].
Collected gametes are made to form the zygote in the
= =>
- -
- -

10. Diseases or infections which are transmitted through -

sexual contact are called 8- B < ii. Zygote or early embryo with upto 8 blastomeres is
-
-

transferred into the oviduct.

-

(1) Reproductive tract infections (RTI)V -

E - iii. Zygote with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred

(2) Venereal diseases (VID) -
-

into the uterus.

(3) Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) iv. Fusion of gametes within the female.
- 4 -

(4) All of the above v. Transfer of ovum from a donor to the oviduct of the
Y
recipient.
S
11. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as vi. Sperm is injected into the ovum in-vitro
Y(1) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus -

(2) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus - -

(3) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance -

(1) i-F, ii- B, iii-A, iv- H, v-A, vi - G

(4) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality
(2) i-G, ii - B, iii - F, iv- H, v-A, vi - D
12. Select the option including all sexually transmitted (3) i-G, ii - B, iii- F, iv- H, v - C, vi - E
diseases. (4) i - F, ii - B, iii- E, iv- H, v-A, vi - D
X Y
(1) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
X 19. A childless couple can be administered to have a child
(2) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria through a technique called GIFT, the full form of this
Y
(3) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis technique is
=

(4)
Y Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes (1) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
13. Inability to conceive or produce children Y(2) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
even after 2 years of unprotected sexual
- -
(3) Gamete internal fertilization transfer
cohabitation is infertility. -
-
(4) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer
Invitro fertilization followed by transfer of
embryo into the female genital tract is 20. The technique called gamete intra fallopian transfer
Petridish baby' programme.X
Test (GIFT) is recommended for those females % -

Y(1) Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect. ↑(1) Who cannot produce an ovum.
(2) Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is correct. (2) Who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus.
(3) Both statements are correct. (3) Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage
(4) Both Statements are incorrect. for the sperms.
(4) Who cannot provide suitable environment for
14. The technique advised by a doctor to overcome the
- fertilization.
problem of infertility : At-
=>
(1) RCH 21. In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves -

transfer of which one of the following into the fallopion

(2) MTP tube
-

(3) RTI
>
-

X (1) Embryo only, upto 8 celled stage

(4)
Y ART
(2) Embryo which is 32 celled stage
15. Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT (3) Zygote only
=
procedure: (4) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 celled stage
V -
=>
-

(1) Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to

the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation. 22. Test tube baby can be described scientifically as
#mp (1) IVF followed by GIFT
(2) Zygote is collected from a female donor and
Y -
-

transferred to the fallopian tube

-
(2) ET followed by ZIFT
(3) Zygote is collected from a female donor and Y(3) IVF followed by ET
=> =>
transferred to the uterus (4) ET followed by IVF
(4) Ova collected from a female donor and transferred to
the uterus 23. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low -

sperm count, which technique will be suitable for

16. In which technique of ART, fertilization takes place in fertilization?
fallopian tube?
(1) Gamete intra cytoplasmic fallopian transfer
(1) GIFT and ZIFT Y(2) Artificial Insemination
-

(2) ZIFT and AI (3) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection

(3) ZIFT and IUT (4) Intrauterine transfer
(4)
Y
GlFT and AI
un m
 Unprep
24. The transfer of zygote or early embryo (up to 8 blasto-
meres) into fallopian tube is called ____.
(1) ICSI
(2) ZIFT
-
(3) GIFT
(4) IUT
25. In which ART technique the semen is artificially
introduced into the female : IU1 -

-
(1) A and B
(1) GIFT (2) A and C
(2)
Y IUI (3) B and C
(3) IUT (4) B and D
(4) ET
31. What is ZIFT?
26. Choose the correct statement regarding GIFT (Gamete
Intrafallopian Tube Transfer) procedure. (1) Embryo transfer into the uterus
Y(2) Zygote transfer into fallopian tube
Y(1) Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to
-

the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation in the (3) Mixture of sperms and ova into fallopian tube
(4) Mixture of sperms and ova into uterus
- -

recipient.
(2) Zygote is collected from female donor and transferred 32. The main difference between GIFT and ZIFT is that
to the fallopian tube of recipient. Tu
-

(1) In ZIFT, fertilization takes place in vivo

(3) Zygote is collected from female donor and transferred
to the uterus of recipient. (2) GIFT involves in vitro fertilization followed by embryo
transfer
(4) Ova are collected from a female donor and are
transferred to the uterus of recipient. (3) ZIFT involves intrauterine insemination
(4) In GIFT, fertilization takes place in vivo
Y
27. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to
-
~

in vitro fertilization is transferred into 33. Match the column-I with column-II.
(1) Cervix
Y(2) Uterus IUT
>
Transfer of ovum Gametes fallopian
-

A P
-

>
>
-

(3) Fallopian tube collected from a donar transfer

-

(4) Fimbriae Semen introduced into

B Q Intrauterine transfer
vagina directly
28. The zygote or early embryos (with upto 8
- -

blastomeres) could then be transferred into C

Embryo with 8 X: R Artificial inseminatior
- blastomeres
the fallopian tube (ZIFTzygote intra
- - Sperm is directly injected Intra cytoplasmic
fallopian transfer) D S
into ovum sperm iniection
Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor
into the fallopian tube (GIFT - gamete intra (1)
fallopian transfer) of another female who (2)
cannot produce one, but can provide=
suitable environment for fertilisation and (3)
Y
- -

further development is another method (4)

-

attemptedY
34. 11 In which of the following techniques, the embryos are
1 ~
(1) Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect. transferred to assist those females who cannot
w -

(2) Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is correct. conceive?

-

(3)
Y Both statements are correct. (1) GIFT and ZIFT
(4) Both Statements are incorrect. (2) ICSI and ZIFT
29. Impotency and low sperm count can be corrected by (3) GIFT and ICSI
-(4) ZIFT and IUT> morethung
-

Y(1) Artificial insemination TuptusF

(2) GIFT 35. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in
=

(3) ICSI Assisted Reproductive Technology is called:

(4) ZIFT (1) GIFT · Comm.
-

(2) ZIFT ·
Feedbull
30. The following figure shows the uterine tubes of four
women (A, B, C and D). Out of them fertilization is v(3) ICSI
=

(4) ET
- -

possible in which two women at present?

A - Partial blockage

.
Y
B - Complete blockage
YC - Partial blockage
D - Cut and tied 8