Mod 6 Day 1

1. What is the main constituent of steel?

a. Iron
2. What are the 2 methods of steel production?
a. Basic Oxygen and Electric Arc
3. What is the carbon content of mild steel, medium carbon
steel & high carbon steel?
a. Mild up to 0.25%, Medium 0.25 to 0.7%, High
0.7 to 1.5%
4. What advantage does the retention of 1% Manganese
offer the steel?
a. Reduces the Sulphur content which would cause
brittleness
5. What happens to the steel as carbon is increased beyond
.83%?
a. Becomes very hard and more brittle
6. What happens to the steel at ‘arrest’ or ‘critical’ points as
it is heated?
a. Austenite
7. Steel containing .83% carbon has how many arrest
points?
a. One
8. What is the softening heat treatment?
a. Annealing
9. Which heat treatment restores the crystalline structure
and therefore increases strength?
a. Normalising
10. What other heat treatment process is carried out prior to
tempering?
a. Hardening
11. Adding Nickel to steel increases hardness but also
increases toughness by doing what?
a. Limits the grain growth, it is a grain refiner
12. What is the steel made from 36% nickel known as and
what uses does it have?
 a. Invar steel, measuring instruments
13. Nickel is used to control grain growth when which
other alloying element is used?
a. Chromium, because Chromium increases grain
growth
14. How is temper brittleness eliminated in nickel chrome?
a. Adding 0.3% Molybdenum
15. What properties does small amounts of Molybdenum
bring to chrome alloy steel?
a. Makes it tough and wear resistant
16. Vanadium alloy has what advantages?
a. It is extremely tough, withstands considerable
stress and vibration
17. What is the carbon content of Maraging steel?
a. 0.03%
18. What are the advantages of Maraging steel?
a. Tougher, simpler welding, simpler heat
treatments, less distortion during heat treatment
and has better resistance to corrosion and
hydrogen embrittlement
19. What is surface hardening?
a. A hard, wear resistant surface on a tougher,
shock resisting core
20. Charcoal or charred leather are utilised in which
carburising process?
a. The Box Process
21. What gasses are used to deposit carbon on the
component during gas carburising?
a. Methane and Propane

22. Which process passes a steady stream of ammonia gas

through a box for a period of 10 to 90 hours?
a. Nitriding
23. Flame hardening and induction hardening can only be
carried out on steels containing what percentage of
carbon?
a. At least 0.4
24. What do the 1 and 2 digits of a steel ident number
st nd

represent?
a. The Principal alloying element and its percentage
25. What would a 5 figure ident number tell us?
a. The Carbon content is above 0.99%
26. What is the ore from which aluminium is obtained?
a. Bauxite
27. Why is aluminium not often used in aircraft
construction in its pure state?
a. Not enough strength
28. Aluminium alloys are classified as wrought or casting.
How are they further classified?
a. Heat Treatable and Non-Heat Treatable
29. How are non heat treatable aluminium alloys
strengthened?
a. By cold rolling or cold working
30. What is Alclad?
a. A sheet of aluminium alloy sandwiched between
two layers of pure aluminium the alloy is 95% of
the material thickness
31. What substance can be used to test for pure aluminium
or aluminium alloy?
a. Caustic soda, white is pure aluminium, black is
an alloy, it is the copper content that causes it to
go black
32. What process must be carried out before forming or
shaping aluminium?
a. Annealing
33. Describe ‘age hardening’ or ‘solution heat treatment’.
a. Aluminium alloy is heated so that all the
aluminium content goes into solution with the
aluminium(CuAl2). If we rapidly cool the alloy
from 500c theCuAl2 gets locked in until two
hours after the cooling process when tensile
strength and hardness increase until it reaches its
maximum strength after 5 days. This give us 2
hours to work it.
34. How can age hardening be delayed?
a. Refrigeration below -20c
35. What process can be carried out on materials that do not
age harden naturally?
a. Precipitation Heat Treatment
36. How many times can Alclad be heat treated?
 a. Three
37. What is the maximum time between heat treatment and
quenching?
a. 20 seconds
38. What is the main alloying element of an aluminium
alloy in the 7000 series?
a. Zinc
39. An alloy with a T3 ident has had what type of heat
treatment?
a. Solution Heat Treated and Strain hardened
40. What ident would indicate that the alloy had been
solution heat treated and naturally aged?
a. T4
41. Why is Titanium suitable for use in high temperature
areas?
a. It resists Creep and oxidisation up to 600c
42. Describe a malleable metal.
a. One which compresses a great deal without
failing
43. Describe a ductile metal.
a. One which takes great tensile loads without
failing
44. What is measured by an impact test?
The Toughness and resistance to mechanical
shock
45. When carrying out a tensile test, what is meant by the
limit of proportionality?
a. It is the point at which the material is no longer
elastic, it is the elastic limit
46. What is the yield point?
a. The point at which when a load is removed, the
material will not return to its original length, the
material goes from elastic to plastic
47. How is tensile strength calculated?
a. Maximum Force Used divided by The Original
Area of Cross Section
48. When would a ‘proof stress’ be required?
a. When the tested material is soft, so they Yield
Point is not clearly defined on the Stress/Strain
Graph
49. What type of hardness tester uses a steel ball indenter?
a. Brinnel
50. What type of indenter does the Vickers tester use?
a. V shape diamond
51. Why would a Vickers machine be preferred over a
Brinell?
a. It is more accurate, a steel ball would deform,
where is a diamond will not
52. What is the specified time of contact between the test
piece and both the Vickers & Brinell testers?
a. 15 seconds
53. Which hardness tester uses a spherical tipped diamond
cone known as a brale?
a. Rockwell
54. What is the name of the portable hardness tester that
uses a small diamond tipped hammer?
a. Shore Schleroscope
55. Which test for toughness would be used at low or high
temperatures?
a. Charpy
56. What is the striking energy of the Izod & Charpy
machines?
a. Izod 160J Charpy 300J
57. What causes cyclic fatigue?
a. Repeated fluctuating loads
58. Describe fretting fatigue.
a. Small rubbing movements and abrasion between
two heavily loaded parts
59. What type of test results in a graph where stress(S) is
plotted against number of reversals(N)?
a. Fatigue Test
60. What affect has surface finish be found to have on the
endurance limit of a test piece?
a. Smooth finish gives higher fatigue / endurance
limit
61. What type of plastic can be moulded again and again?
a. Thermo-plastic
62. How should flat sheets of Perspex be stored?
a. Vertically, well ventilated, out of sunlight with
protective paper on
63. When should the protective coating on Perspex be
removed?
a. At the latest possible moment / just before final
fitting
64. How could we protect Perspex windows from direct
sunlight?
a. Cover it in a white cloth to reflect the sunlight
65. How often should perspex cleaning cloths be used?
a. Once only
66. How is a composite defined?
a. A material consisting of a plastic with
reinforcing fibres that when combined they
have properties that are unobtainable from
either material itself
67. What are the bundles that fibres are drawn into known
as?
a. Rovings
68. What is the type of glass fibre with high resistivity
known as?
a. E-glass
69. What type of glass fibre has a very high tensile
strength?
a. S-glass
70. What fibre has the highest tensile strength and
resistance to impact?
a. Aramid - Kevlar
71. What colour are Kevlar fibres?
a. Yellow
72. What colour are carbon fibres?
a. Black
73. What precautions should be taken when machining or
sanding carbon fibres?
a. Remove all dust as it could cause short circuiting
of electrical systems
74. What type of fibres are most suitable for high
temperature applications?
a. Ceramic
75. Why is a material stronger in the warp than the fill?
a. More threads in that direction
76. What is the designation of weft threads?
 a. 90 degrees
77. Why is the selvedge edge removed before fabrication?
a. Because it is a different weave pattern that would
give a different strength.
78. What is a bi-directional fibre orientation?
a. The fibre orientation runs in two directions
79. What types of fibres can be woven into a cloth but not
twisted?
a. Rovings
80. How are polyester resins cured?
a. By adding a catalyst
81. What is ‘pot life’?
a. The amount of time that the resin remains usable
82. How can the cross linking process be speeded up in a
polyester?
a. By adding an accelerator
83. What are epoxy resins mixed with to allow them to
cure?
a. A hardener

84. What temperature does cold curing take place at?

a. At room temperature
85. What should the fibre orientation be in a 3 layer cold
cured laminate?
a. 0, 45 and 90 degrees
86. What is the main advantage of a prepreg?
a. The resin/hardener and resin/fibre ratio are
controlled by the manufacturer.
87. What curing system must be used with a prepreg and
why?
a. Hot curing, we don’t want them to cure at room
temperature
88. How are prepregs stored?
a. In a sealed bag refrigerated to -18C
89. What action must be taken when a prepreg is removed
from storage?
a. The length of time it is out of refrigeration must
be recorded and a running total kept
90. What precautions must be taken when working with
accelerators and catalysts?
 a. Never mix a catalyst directly to an accelerator,
there would be an explosion
91. What precautions should be taken around peroxides?
a. Peroxides are oxidising agents, they are likely to
make anything that they are spilt on burst into
flames
92. What is the result of a lightning strike on a composite
material that has no lightning protection built in?
a. The resin would evaporate leaving bare cloth
93. What are the methods of protecting composites from
differences in electrical potential?
a. Aluminium mesh under the top layer, aluminium
wires woven into the top layer, aluminium foil
sheet bonded to the outer layer, aluminium flame
sprayed onto the component or a bonded piece of
metal
94. Why does impact damage to a composite material often
appear as a star pattern?
a. Because any cracks that develop are diverted by
the next fibre
95. What is the simplest test for Barely Visible Damage
(BVD)?
a. Tap test with a coin or light hammer
96. What damage can result from drilling composites?
a. Delamination, fracture, breakout and separation
97. What fasteners must be used in carbon/graphite
structures?
a. Titanium or corrosion resistant steel
98. Why must aluminium fasteners not be used?
a. Graphite in the composite will corrode the
aluminium fasteners
99. What is the drape of a fabric?
a. The ability of a fabric to conform to an irregular
shape
100. How can moisture absorption be detected in a
composite?
a. Moisture meter or X-ray
101. How might a scratch, pit or small dent be repaired?
a. Filled with resin sanded when dry, surface
finish restored
102. What might be specified following repairs to radomes
or dielectric panels?
a. Electrical test
103. What is the limiting factor on repairs to radomes or
dielectric panels?
a. They must be within limits in repair
manual, thickness, strength, density and
contour must be the same as the original.

104. When vacuum bagging, how is the fibre/resin ratio

controlled?
a. By using the vacuum and bleeder fabric to
remove excess resin and heat cycle
105. Why do we use a vacuum when repairing a
composite?
a. Bond the repair layers and original
structure together
106. What is the first thing you would do when identifying
damage to a composite or sandwich structure?
a. Assess the damage and check with the
repair manual to ensure that it is within the
repair limits
107. When curing a resin, why is a stepped curing cycle
used?
a. Too ensure that the flow of resin is correct
108. When cutting or sanding composites what is the
potential problem caused by the dust?
a. Possibility of short circuit of components
109. What would happen if the repair was heated too
quickly?
a. The resin wouldn’t flow through the repair
properly, leaving too much resin causing voiding
110. What would happen if the repair was heated too
slowly?
a. The resin would flow through the repair too
quickly, leaving insufficient resin causing voiding
111. What is the purpose of the bleeder fabric?
a. Absorbs the resin bleeding out of the repair and
permitting air to pass through the repair
112. What is the definition of corrosion?
a. Destruction of metals by chemical or
electrochemical action. The metal tends to return
to its original state
113. Name two acids that would cause corrosion?
a. Sulphuric and Organic
114. What affects the rate at which a water would cause
corrosion?
a. The level of impurities within the water
115. How would we protect sheet aluminium alloy from
corrosion?
a. Alclad
116. How would we protect aluminium castings?
a. Anodising
117. How would we dispose of cadmium corrosion
products?
a. Through a specialized contractor in accordance
with appropriate Health and Safety guidelines
118. Magnesium alloys are prone to which type of
corrosion?
a. Pitting
119. Plain carbon or low alloy steels are prone to which
types of corrosion?
a. Surface, pitting or Intergranular
120. Electroplating with chromium provides what type of
coating?
a. A hard barrier coating
121. Verdigris corrosion deposits affect which metals?
a. Copper, Brass or Bronze based alloys
122. How are titanium alloys protected from corrosion?
a. A natural forming film of Titanium Oxide

123. What is usually the first indication of corrosion?

a. Blistering or flaking paint
124. What would corrosion on Aluminium and its alloys
look like?
a. White to grey powdery deposits
125. What would corrosion on Magnesium alloys look like?
a. White, powdery, snow-like mounds
126. Who has the most important role in the prevention of
 corrosion?
a. The aircraft engineer
127. Accumulation of dirt dust or grease on unprotected
surfaces can lead to which type of corrosion?
a. Pitting
128. Why is pitting corrosion so dangerous?
a. It goes perpendicularly down into the metal
penetrating it and reducing the strength
129. How is pitting corrosion identified?
a. Lumps of white powder on aluminium
130. Electrolytic, galvanic or electro-chemical corrosion
may also be known as what type of corrosion?
a. Dissimilar metal corrosion
131. When 2 metals are joined, how can electrochemical
action be minimised?
a. Ensure difference in electrical potential is no
greater than 0.25V or providing an insulating
barrier
132. How is galvanic corrosion identified?
a. Looks like white or grey powder
133. What type of corrosion is caused by incorrect heat
treatment?
a. Intergranular Corrosion
134. What type of corrosion is caused by very small
continuous relative movement between two heavily
loaded surfaces?
a. Fretting Corrosion
135. What type of corrosion may be due to incorrect
application of paint finish?
a. Filiform Corrosion
136. What does the corrosion in Question 10 appears as?
a. Initially blistering paint then thread like bulges
137. Why does crevice corrosion start at the bottom of the
crevice?
a. There is less oxygen at the bottom than at the
surface, making it more anodic
138. How is Mercury amalgamation corrosion recognised?
a. Greyish powder, fuzzy deposits or a whiskery
growth
139. What must be carried out once all visible mercury is
 retrieved following a mercury spill?
a. An X-ray
140. Where might microbial corrosion occur?
a. In KEROSENE fuel tanks
141. If Zinc and Chromium were joined together which one
would corrode first?
a. The Zinc, it is more Anodic
142. Why is intergranular corrosion so dangerous?
a. It is not easily to detect, in most cases it is only
identified by X-Ray
143. How would you recognise fretting corrosion?
a. Cocoa powder like on steels, and dark grey to
black powder on Aluminium
144. How can we avoid stress corrosion cracking?
a. Avoid force fitting of misaligned components
145. Where might we find Corrosion fatigue?
a. Where corrosion and mechanical damage are
likely to occur together, an example is fastener
holes
146. If a part is found to have Intercrystalline Corrosion,
what should be done with it?
a. Scrap it
147. Surface corrosion could be caused by two specific
groups of attack, name them.
a. Indirect and Direct Chemical attack
148. In what areas of the aircraft are we likely to find
examples of corrosion caused by organic acids?
a. Toilets, galleys possibly cargo holds
149. In the hangar what could cause corrosion due to
alkaline?
a. Cement dust from the floor mixing with water
150. What type of leaves do softwoods have?
a. Needle like
151. What type of leaves do hardwoods have?
a. Broad ones
152. What 3 hardwoods are commonly used in aircraft
construction?
a. Mahogany, Birch and Ash
153. What is the most important softwood in use?
a. Sitka Spruce
154. Which direction do the main cells positioned in?
a. Axially up and down the tree
155. What is the correct moisture content for wood used in
aircraft construction?
a. 15% +-2%
156. What is the main advantage of rift sawn timber?
a. It does not warp
157. Timber shrinks mainly along which lines?
a. Mainly along the growth lines
158. In a 3 panel plywood what angle will the centre ply be
at in relation to the outer two?
a. At 90 degrees
159. Why are there always an odd number of plies?
a. To ensure that the grain on the outer veneers is in
the same direction
160. How is dry rot indicated?
a. Small patches of crumbling wood, or in early
stages, oval or streams of brown patches
161. What is the general rule when replacing wood screws?
a. Increase the diameter, not the length
162. How is dote disease recognised?
a. Brownish yellow patches similar to mineral spots
163. How is wood affected by dote disease treated?
a. Burned along with any other wood that has bee
in contact with it
164. What are the advantages of glassfibre (razorback)
fabric?
a. Not affected by sunlight, acid rain or most
chemicals, it doesn’t burn or rot, isn’t affected by
mildew,

165. How are cotton and linen pre-shrunk?

a. Using a damp sponge and allowing it to dry
166. How are polyester fabrics pre-shrunk?
a. Using an iron
167. What action must be carried out if a) individual
components or b) the entire aircraft is recovered
with razorback fabric?
a. Razorback decals must be put on the Fin or
Rudder
168. What are the advantages of preforming cables?
a. More flexible, easier to splice, resists kinking, will
not unravel and if it fails it lies flat.
169. A cable designated 7 X 14 is made up of what?
a. 7 strands of 14 wires
170. How are British cables classified?
a. By minimum breaking strain
171. What type of shrouded cable has a coefficient of
expansion similar to that of the surrounding
structure?
a. Lockclad
172. What is the minimum protrusion through the sleeve of
Nicropress thimble eye end fitting?
a. 1/6 of an inch
th

173. What method is used to lock a British tension rod

turnbuckle?
a. Locknuts and locking wire
174. When is a turnbuckle ‘in safety’?
a. British, the safety hole must be blind. American,
there must be no more than three threads visible
175. How is the left hand threaded end indicated on
American turnbuckles?
a. A grove on the turnbuckle barrel
176. On a British fork joint, what does a grooved collar
indicate?
a. High Tensile Steel
177. What is the maximum deflection of a cable through a
fairlead?
a. 3 degrees
178. How are cables prevented from coming off pulleys?
a. Cable guards
179. Why is cable compensation necessary?
a. To allow for flexing of the aircraft under load
and difference in co-efficience of expansion
between the cables and the aircraft structure
180. In a non-regulated cable system, how is tension
checked?
a. By tensiometers
181. How is tension checked in a regulated system?
a. The pointer reading on the Tension Regulator is
 compared against a graph in the AMM
182. Bowden cables offer control in which direction?
a. Pull only
183. How is return action provided in a Bowden control?
a. By springs
184. What is the purpose of a Bowden junction box?
a. It will allow one input to be sent to two outputs

185. Where on a bowdenflex cable are the reaction loads

taken?
a. On the central Guide Rail
186. How is correct orientation of the centre load rail in
relation to bends identified in a bowdenflex run?
a. There are identification flats that indicate the
orientation of the central guide rail
187. If the flats are horizontal, which direction will the
bowdenflex cable move?
a. Vertically
188. At what intervals should a Teleflex conduit be clipped
to the structure?
a. 36 inches or 915mm
189. What is the minimum wrap angle of a single entry
Teleflex unit?
a. 40 degrees
190. How might controls in a Teleflex system be removed
without disturbing the entire run?
a. Quick Break Unit