22-06-2025

1001CMD303001250014 MD

PHYSICS

1)

(1)

(2)

(3) 1
(4) Can't be determined

2) The value of shaded area is :-

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) –2

3)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 0
(4) –1

4)

The slope of the tangent to the curve y = ℓn (sinx) at x = is

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3)

(4)
5) If, , and then find the angle between the vector
and in degrees.

(1) 90°
(2) 45°
(3) 0°
(4) 180°

6) Two vectors and have equal magnitudes. If magnitude of is equal to two times the
magnitude of , then the angle between and will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Resultant of two forces and has magnitude 50 N. The resultant is inclined to at 60° and to
at 30°. Magnitudes of and respectively are :-

(1) 25 N, N
(2) 20 N, 25 N
(3) 20 N, 30 N
(4) 30 N, 40 N

8) Find projection of on

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Find unit vector which is perpendicular to and :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10)

If then angle θ will be

(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 90°
(4) 105°

11) A point transversed 3/4th of the circle of radius R in time t. The magnitude of the average velocity
of the particle in this time internal is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) If a particle starts moving in the direction of positive y-axis with a velocity 8 m/s, after some time
if takes a turn towards his right and changes his velocity to 6 m/s. Then find the magnitude of
change in velocity :-

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 14 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) 0 m/s

13) A particle is moving such that its position coordinates (x, y) are (2m, 3m) at time t = 0, (6m 7m)
at t = 2s and (13m, 14m) at t = 5s, then average velocity from t = 0 to t = 5s is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14) A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east. After 10 seconds its velocity becomes 40 m/s
towards north. The average acceleration of the body is :-

(1) 1 m/s2
(2) 7 m/s2
(3)
(4) 5 m/s2

15) A particle is moving with velocity v = 4t3 + 3t2 –1 m/s. The displacement of particle in time t = 1
s to t = 2 s will be :-

(1) 21 m
(2) 17 m
(3) 13 m
(4) 9 m

16) Find out distance travelled by a body in time interval t = 0 to t = 4. Position – time equation is S
= 10 – 8t + 4t2.

(1) 32 m
(2) 42 m
(3) 40 m
(4) 30 m

17) A body starts from rest and has an acceleration 20 cm/sec2. What is the distance covered by the
body in first 8 sec ?

(1) 160 cm
(2) 640 cm
(3) 1280 cm
(4) 1640 cm

18) For uniformly retarded motion, the angle between instantaneous velocity and acceleration is :-

(1) 0°
(2) 180°
(3) 40°
(4) 90°

19) A particle has an velocity and an acceleration of , its speed after 10 sec is :-

(1) 10
(2)
(3) 8.5
(4) 7

20) The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration , in
the third second is :-

(1) 6m
(2) 10/3 m
(3) 20/3 m
(4) 4 m

21) For a particle travelling on x-axis the velocity position curve is given. Its acceleration position

curve will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A body travels for 15 sec starting from rest with constant acceleration. If it travels distances S1,
S2 and S3 in the first five seconds, second five seconds and next five seconds respectively the relation
between S1, S2 and S3 is :-
(1) S1 = S2 = S3
(2) 5S1 = 3S2 = S3

(3)

(4)

23) If a particle is going with 100 m/s velocity and comes to rest in 10 sec Find out retardation
of particle ?

(1) 5 m/s2
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) 15 m/s2
(4) 20 m/s2

24)

A driver takes 0.20 s to apply the brakes after he sees a need for it. This is called the reaction time
of the driver. If he is driving a car at a speed of 54 km/h and the brakes cause a deceleration of 6.0
m/s2. Find the distance travelled by the car after he sees the need to put the brakes on :-

(1) 21.75 m
(2) 18.75 m
(3) 27.12 m
(4) None

25) A body is moving with uniform acceleration describes 40 m in the first 5 sec and 65 m in next 5
sec. Its initial velocity will be :-

(1) 4 m/s
(2) 2.5 m/s
(3) 5.5 m/s
(4) 11 m/s

26) A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate of 2 m/s2 for some time. Then, it retards at a
constant rate of 4 m/s2 and comes to rest. If it remains in motion for 3 second, then the maximum
speed attained by the car is :

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 6 m/s

27) A particle moving with uniform acceleration from A to B along a straight line has velocities V1
and V2 at A and B respectively. If C is the mid-point between A and B then determine the velocity of
the particle at C.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

28) Equation of a particle moving along the x - axis is : x = u(t−2)+a(t−2)2.

(1) The initial velocity of the particle is 'u'

(2) The acceleration of the particle is a
(3) The acceleration of the particle is '2a'
(4) At t = 2 particle is not at origin

29) When a ball is thrown vertically upwards with velocity vo, it reaches a maximum height of h. If
one wishes to triple the maximum height, then the ball should be thrown with velocity :-

(1)
(2) 3v0
(3) 9v0

(4)

30) A body is thrown upward and reaches its maximum height. At that position :-

(1) Its velocity is zero and its acceleration is also zero

(2) Its velocity is zero but its acceleration is maximum
(3) Its acceleration is minimum
(4) Its velocity is zero and its acceleration is due to gravity

31) A balloonist releases a bag from a balloon rising constantly at 40 ms–1 at a time when the balloon
is 100 m above the ground. If g = 10 ms–2, then the bag reaches the ground in :-

(1) 16 s–1
(2) 18 s
(3) 10 s
(4) 20 s

32) A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. It crosses a point at the height of 25 m
twice at an interval of 4 secs. The ball was thrown with the velocity of
(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 20m/sec.
(2) 25 m/sec.
(3) 30m/sec.
(4) 35 m/sec.

33) A particle is thrown vertically upward from the ground with some velocity and it strikes the
ground again in time 2s. The maximum height achieved by the particle is : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 2.50 m
(2) 1.25 m
(3) 6.25 m
(4) 5 m

34) A rocket is fired vertically from the ground. It moves upwards with a constant acceleration 20
m/s2 for 30 sec, after which the fuel is finished. After what time from the instant of firing the rocket
will attain the maximum height ? (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 90 s
(2) 45 s
(3) 60 s
(4) 75 s

35) A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 25 m/s from the top of a tower of height 30
m. How long will it travel before it hits ground?

(1) 4 sec.
(2) 5 sec.
(3) 12 sec.
(4) 6 sec.

36) A body released from a height falls freely towards earth. Another body is released from the same
height exactly one second later. The separation between the two bodies two second after the release
of the second body is (g = 10m/s2) :–

(1) 9.8 m
(2) 49 m
(3) 25 m
(4) None

37) A ball is projected upward such that its height at t = 10 and t = 20 second is same, then find
initial velocity :

(1) 15 m/s
(2) 150 m/s
(3) 100 m/s
(4) 200 m/s

38) A ball is thrown upward find the distance covered by it in first second of descent :
(1) 5 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 20 m

39) A stone falls freely from rest. The distance covered it in last second is equal to the distance
covered by it in the first 2 second. The time taken by the stone to reach the ground is :-

(1) 2.5 sec

(2) 3.5 sec
(3) 4 sec
(4) 5 sec

40) A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h m. It takes T s to reach the ground. What is
the position of the ball in T/3 s :-

(1)
m from the ground

(2)
m from the ground

(3)
m from the ground

(4)
m from the ground

41) Position-time graph is given find average speed in time t = 0 and t = 15 sec is :-

(1) 5 m/s

(2)
m/s
(3) 2 m/s

(4)
m/s

42) Which of the following cannot be speed-time graph?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) (B) and (D)

(2) (C) and (B)
(3) (D) only
(4) (A) only

43) The velocity-time graph of a linear motion is shown in the given figure. The distance from the

origin (starting point) after eight seconds is

(1) 18 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 8 m
(4) 6 m

44) The graph shows the variation of velocity of a rocket with time. Then, the maximum height

attained by the rocket is :-

(1) 1.1 km
(2) 5 km
(3) 55 km
(4) none of these

45) Acceleration time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is given. Then average

acceleration between t = 0 & t = 4 is :-

(1) 0 m/s2
(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 7.5 m/s2

CHEMISTRY

1) In a chemical reaction, equilibrium is established when :-

(1) Opposing reaction stops

(2) Concentrations of reactants and products become equal
(3) Rate of backward reaction is same as that of rate of forward reaction (rf = rb)
(4) Reaction stops

2) What is the equilibrium expression for the reaction P4(s) + 5O2(g) P4O10(s) :–

5
(1) Kc = [O2]
(2) Kc = [P4O10]/5[P4][O2]
5
(3) Kc = [P4O10]/[P4][O2]
5
(4) Kc = 1/[O2]

3) The reactant will be most stable if the value of Kc for the reaction is :-

(1) 2 × 10–7
(2) 5 × 108
(3) 1.7 × 10–3
(4) 1 × 10–15

4) In a chemical equilibrium, the rate constants of the forward and backward reactions are
respectively 3.2 × 10–4 and 1.2 × 10–5, the equilibrium constant is :-

(1) 0.37
(2) 26.7
(3) 0.25
(4) 3.7
5) 1.7 g NH3 is present in a vessel of 5L capacity then find out the active mass of NH3 gas :-

(1) 0.01 M
(2) 0.02 M
(3) 0.05 M
(4) 1 M

6) For the equilibrium equation

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g).
The unit of Kp will be :-

(1) (atm)–2
(2) atm
(3) (atm)2
(4) (atm)–1

7) Active mass of 10 g CaCO3(s) :-

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.01

8) The value of Kb of a reversible reaction is 2 × 10–4 and the value of equilibrium constant Kc is 3.
Then find out the value of Kf :-

(1) 2 × 10–4
(2) 3 × 10–4
(3) 6 × 10–4
(4) 1 × 10–4

9) Which of the following is an example of homogeneous equilibrium ?

(1) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)

(2) C(s) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H2(g)
(3) CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(4) NH4HS(s) ⇌ NH3(g) + H2S(g)

10) Number of waves made by an electron in 4th orbit-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 3

11) Consider the following reversible reactions (at 298K):

(A) N2O4 ⇌ 2NO2
(B) 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3
(C) 2HI ⇌ H2 + I2
(D) X + Y ⇌ 4Z

Highest and lowest value of will be shown by the equilibrium

(1) D, B
(2) A, C
(3) A, B
(4) B, C

12) Change in volume of the system does not alter the number of moles in which of the following
equilibrium.

(1) N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO(g)
(2) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
(4) SO2Cl2(g) ⇌ SO2(g) + Cl2(g)

13) If KC for
is 4 then KC for

will be :-

(1) 8

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) At 527°C, the reaction given below has

KC = 4 NH3(g) ⇌ N2(g) + H2(g)

What is the KP for the following reaction :-
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)

(1) 16 × (800R)2

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

15) For the reaction CO(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ COCl2(g) the value of is equal to :-

(1)
(2) RT

(3)

(4) 1

16) If the value of equilibrium constant for a particular reaction is 1.6 × 1012, then at equilibrium the
system will contain :-

(1) Mostly products

(2) All reactants
(3) Equal amount of reactants and products
(4) Mostly reactants

17) For the following reaction value of equilibrium constant are given

The equilibrium constant for the reaction

2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3 will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The equilibrium constant of the following reactions are :-

(I) CH4(g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + 3H2(g); K1
(II) CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g); K2
(III) CO2(g) + 4H2(g) CH4(g) + 2H2O(g); K3
Which of the following is true ?

(1) K3 = K1 × K2

(2)

(3)

(4)
19)

At a certain temperature, the following reactions have the equilibrium constants as shown below :-
S(s) + O2(g) SO2(g); Kc = 5 × 1052
2S(s) + 3O2(g) 2SO3(g); Kc = 1029
What is the equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction at the same temperature ?

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

(1) 2.5 × 10 76

(2) 4 × 1023
(3) 4 × 10–77
(4) None of these

20) 2 mole of N2 is mixed with 6 mole of H2 in a closed vessel of one litre capacity. If 50% of N2 is
converted into NH3 at equilibrium, the value of Kc for the reaction
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) :

(1) 4/27
(2) 27/4
(3) 1/27
(4) 24

21) 9.2 grams of N2O4(g) is taken in a closed one litre vessel and heated till the following equilibrium
is reached N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)
At equilibrium, 50% N2O4(g) is dissociated. What is the equilibrium constant (in mol litre–1) ?
(molecular weight of N2O4 = 92) :-

(1) 0.1
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.2
(4) 2

22) What will be the direction of reaction if concentration of H2, I2 and HI are 2 mol L–1, 2 mol L–1 and
8 mol L–1 respectively. Kc for reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g) is 4 :-

(1) Forward
(2) Backward
(3) Equilibrium condition
(4) Reaction will be completed

23) For the reversible reaction

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) ΔH = –90 kJ
The equilibrium shifts in forward direction.

(1) By increasing the concentration of NH3(g)

(2) By decreasing the pressure
(3) By decreasing the concentration of N2(g) and H2(g)
(4) By decreasing temperature and increasing pressure

24) For which of the following reactions is product formation favoured by high pressure and high
temperature ?

(1) H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g); ΔH° = – 9.4 kJ

(2) CO2(g) + C(s) ⇌ 2CO(g); ΔH° = 172.5 kJ
(3) CO(g) + 2H2(g) ⇌ CH3OH(l); ΔH° = –21.7kJ
(4) 3O2(g) ⇌ 2O3(g); ΔH° = 285 kJ

25) In which of the following reactions, equilibrium is independent of pressure:

(1) N2 (g) + O2 (g) 2NO (g); ΔΗ = +ve

(2) 2SO2 + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g); ΔΗ = –ve
(3) 3H2 (g) + N2 (g) 2NH3 (g); ΔΗ = –ve
(4) PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g); ΔΗ = +ve

26) Which reaction gives more product as a result of increase in pressure :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) Consider the reaction

CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
in closed container at equilibrium. What would be the effect of addition of CaCO3 on the equilibrium
concentration of CO2 ?

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Data is not sufficient to predict it
(4) Remains unaffected

28) 0.2 mol of H2SO4 is dissolved in 1000 ml solution then normality is :

(1) 0.2 N
(2) 0.1 N
(3) 0.8 N
(4) 0.4 N

29) If n = 5, then which value of 'ℓ' is correct :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) All of them

30) In which of the following electron distribution in ground state, only the Hund's rule is violated ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Which two orbitals are located along the axis, and not between the axis ?

(1) dxy,
(2) dxy, pz
(3) dyz, px
(4) ,

32) What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum
numbers? n = 3, l = 1, m = 0

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) An orbital is occupied by an electron with the quantum numbers n = 4, = 1. How many orbitals
of this type are found in a multi-electron atom ?

(1) 4p, 3
(2) 4s, 1
(3) 4d, 5
(4) 4p, 6

34) Which of the following orbital is not possible ?

(1) 3f
(2) 4f
(3) 5f
(4) 6f

35) Which of the following set of quantum number is possible.

 n ℓ m s

(1) 3 3 1 +1/2

(2) 3 2 –2 +1/2

(3) 2 0 –1 +1/2

(4) 4 3 –2 0
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) How many maximum electrons will be present in the subshells having n = 3 and s = –1/2 :-

(1) 18
(2) 9
(3) 6
(4) 1

37) If uncertainty in the position of an electron is zero, the uncertainty in its momentum would be

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4) Infinite

38) The de broglie wavelength (in Angstroms) associated with a particle of mass 5 × 10–4 g moving
with a velocity of 1000 m/s is :-

(1) 1.325 × 10–20

(2) 5.3 × 10–20
(3) 2.65 × 10–10
(4) 2.7 × 10–36

39) Two particles A and B are in motion. If the wavelength associated with the particle A is 5.0 ×
10–8 m, the wavelength of particle B having momentum half of A is :-

(1) 2.5 × 10–8m

(2) 1.25 × 10–8m
(3) 1.0 × 10–7m
(4) 1.0 × 10–8m

40) Magnetic moment for N-atom would be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Zero

41) In Cu (Atomic no. – 29) :–

(1) 13 electrons have spin in one direction and 16 electrons in other direction.
(2) 14 electrons have spin in one direction and 15 electrons in other direction.
(3) One electron can have spin only in clockwise direction.
(4) None of above is correct.

42)

Give the correct order of initials T (true) or F (false) for following statements :-
(I) If an ion has 2 electrons in K shell, 8 electrons in L shell and 6 electrons in M shell, then number
of electrons present in that element in S-subshell is 6.
(II) The maximum number of electrons in a subshell is given by 2n2
(III) If electron has magnetic quantam number –1, then it cannot be present in s-orbital.

(IV) Only one nodal surface is present in 3p orbital.

(1) TTFF
(2) FFTF
(3) TFTT
(4) FFTF

43) The quantum numbers of four electrons (e1 to e4) are given below :-

n ℓ m s

e1 3 0 0 +1/2

e2 4 0 0 +1/2

e3 3 2 2 –1/2

e4 4 1 –1 +1/2
The correct order of decreasing energy of these electrons is :
(1) e4 > e3 > e2 > e1
(2) e2 > e3 > e4 > e1
(3) e3 > e2 > e4 > e1
(4) None of these

44) The quantum number of 9th electron in the electronic configuration of fluorine (Z = 9) are :-

(1) n = 2, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = 0

(2)
n = 2, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +
(3)
n = 2, ℓ = 1, m = 2, s = +

(4)
n = 2, ℓ = 1, m = 0, s = –

45) Basicity of H2SO4 will be-

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

BIOLOGY

1) Loose connective tissue is found in :-

(1) Tendon and Ligament

(2) Beneath the skin
(3) Blood
(4) Cartilage and bone

2) Which one is not a specialised connective tissue ?

(1) Cartilage
(2) Blood
(3) Bone
(4) Areolar tissue

3) In bronchioles and fallopian tube which type of epithelium is present ?

(1) Pseudo stratified epithelium

(2) Ciliated columnar epithelium
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Non-ciliated columnar epithelium

4) Following diagram represents which type of connective tissue ?

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

5) Match the following & choose the correct option

Areolar
(a) (I) Specialised connective tissue
tissue

(b) Bone (II) Dense connective

(c) Tendon (III) Loose connective

(d) Blood
(1) a–III, b–I, c–II, d–I
(2) a–III, b–II, c–I, d–I
(3) a–II, b–II, c–III, d–I
(4) a–III, b–I, c–III, d–I

6) Match the following & choose the correct option :

Protection against
Squamous
(I) (a) chemical & mechanical
epithelium
stress

Cuboidal found in air sac of

(II) (b)
epithelium lungs

Ciliated help in absorption &

(III) (c)
epithelium secretion

Compound Help move particles in

(IV) (d)
epithelium specific direction.
(1) I–b, II–c, III–a, IV–d
(2) I–b, II–c, III–d, IV–a
(3) I–a, II–d, III–c, IV–b
(4) I–c, II–b, III–d, IV–a

7) Osteocyte are present in spaces called as :

(1) Cisternae
(2) Lamellae
(3) Lacunae
(4) Both (2) & (3)

8) Choose the correct statement which defines tissues ?

(1) Group of similar cells along with intercellular substances, performing a specific function
(2) Group of similar cells without inter cellular spaces, performing a specific function.
(3) Group of dissimilar cells without inter cellular spaces performing a non-specific function
(4) group of similar cells without intercellular spaces, performing a non-specific function

9) Statement I :- They named connective tissue because of their special function of covering,
linking and supporting other tissues/organs of the body.
Statement II :- Collagen or elastin fibers provide strength elasticity and flexibility to the tissue.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

10) Choose the correct location of tissue w.r.t. the given diagram.

(1) Proximal convoluted tubule

(2) Blood vessels
(3) Air sacs of lungs
(4) Cover the dry surface of the skin

11) Cartilage is not present at :

(1) Beneath the skin, as support framework for epithelium.

(2) Between adjacent bones of vertebral column
(3) Tip of nose
(4) Nasal septum

12) Fill in the blanks with suitable option :–

(a) The ......(i)...... consists of two or more cell layers and has protective function as it does in our
skin.
(b) The ......(ii)...... is composed of single layer of cells and functions as a lining for body cavities,
ducts and tubes.

(i) Squamous epithelium

(1)
(ii) Cuboidal epithelium
(i) Columnar epithelium
(2)
(ii) Squamous ephithelium
(i) Simple ephithelium
(3)
(ii) Compound ephithelium
(i) Compound ephithelium
(4)
(ii) Simple epithelium

13) Father of histology is :-

(1) Mayer
(2) Bichat
(3) Malpighi
(4) Grew

14) Germinal epithelium is modified form of ?

(1) Simple columnar

(2) Stratified cuboidal
(3) Simple cuboidal
(4) Simple squamous

15) Out of the following, which tissue is originated by ectoderm?

(1) Connective tissue

(2) Areolar tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Nervous tissue

16) Identify the following epithelium, this epithelium is found in :

(1) Walls of blood vessels

(2) Ducts of glands
(3) Lining of stomach
(4) Air sacs of lungs

17) __________ forms a diffusion boundary in our body

(1) Compound epithelium

(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium

18) The inner lining of blood vessels is called as :-

(1) Mesothelium
(2) Endomysium
(3) Endothelium
(4) Serosa

19) The epithelium of _____ of nephron in the kidney has microvilli :-

(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) HL (Henle's Loop)
(4) Collecting duct

20) Given below is a diagramatic representation of female reproductive system of frog labelled A, B,

C and D : Find out incorrect one :-

(1) There is functional connection between C and kidney.

(2) B is small, median chamber that is used to pass faecal matter, urine and ova to the exterior.
(3) D is one pair arising from the ovaries opens into the cloaca separately.
(4) A is thin walled urinary bladder is present ventral to rectum which also opens in cloaea.

21) During the peak summer and winter the frogs take shelter in deep burrows to protect them from
extreme heat and cold. This is called as

(1) Summer sleep.(aestivation) and winter sleep.(hibernation)

(2) Summer sleep.(hibernation) and winter sleep.(aestivation)
(3) Summer sleep.(diapause) and winter sleep.(suspend)
(4) Summer sleep.(dormancy) and winter sleep.(diapause)

22) Adult frog is :-

(1) Uricotelic
(2) Ureotelic
(3) Ammonotelic
(4) Guanotelic

23) Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs :-

(1) Testes → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Vasa effer → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(3) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(4) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca.

24) Which of the following found in frog :-

(1) five fingers and four toes

(2) four fingers and five toes
(3) five fingers and five toes
(4) four fingers and four toes

25)

At the end of meiosis II how many number of haploid cells formed :-

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Eight
(4) Six

26)

Phragmoplast is :-

(1) Proplastid in cytoplasm of dividing cells

(2) Cell plate formed by vesicles of Golgi body during cytokinesis
(3) Cell plate formed by ER, secretory vesicles and spindle fibre during metaphase
(4) Pices of ribosomes

27)

At which stage of mitosis, chromatids separated and passes to different poles ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

28)

During which stage of meiosis, do the sister chromatids separate and begin to move towards the
poles ?

(1) Prophase-II
(2) Telophase-I
(3) Anaphase-II
(4) Anaphase-I

29) If at the end of meiosis, the 4 daughter cells have 4 chromosomes, in each cell, how many
chromosomes were present in the mother cell.

(1) 10
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 4

30)

Some cells do not exhibit cell division and are said to be arrested in ....... and can re-enter the cell
cycle in ....... .

(1) G1 and M phase

(2) G1 and G2 phase
(3) G0 and G1 phase
(4) G1 and G0 phase

31) The beginning of diplotene stage is recognised by.

(1) Synaptonemal complex dissolution

(2) Terminalisation of chiasmata completely
(3) Formation of recombination Nodules
(4) Synapsis of chromosome

32) If a cell has 20mg DNA in G1 stage, what will be the amount of DNA in each daughter cell after
meiosis-I ?

(1) 20 mg
(2) 10 mg
(3) 40 mg
(4) 60 mg

33) The number of mitotic divisions required to produce 128 cells from a single cell is:

(1) 7
(2) 14
(3) 8
(4) 36

34) Crossing over occurs in :-

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

35) During which stage of meiosis, division of centromere is take place ?

(1) Prophase-I
(2) Telophase-I
(3) Anaphase-II
(4) Anaphase-I

36)

If a cell has 48 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will exist in each of its gametes ?

(1) 8
(2) 24
(3) 48
(4) 50

37) In plant cells, during the S-phase -

(1) DNA replication occurs in nucleus and centrioles duplicates in the cytoplasm
(2) DNA replication occurs in nucleus
(3) Centrioles duplicates in the cytoplasm
(4) Centrioles duplicates in the nucleus and DNA replication occurs in the cytoplasm.

38)

Few of the events of prophase-I are given following. Read them and arrange in the sequence of
occurrence.
A – Crossing over
B – Disappearance of nucleolus and nuclear membrane.
C – Formation of synaptonemal complex

D – Formation of chiasmata
(1) C → A → B → D
(2) C → A → D → B
(3) A → C → B → D
(4) A → C → D → B

39) In meiosis the chromosome number :-

(1) reduces by half

(2) increases by twice
(3) increases by four times
(4) reduces by one fourth

40) Proper sequence of stages in prophase I are :-

Zygotene, Leptotene, Pachytene,

(1)
Diakinesis and Diplotene
Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene,
(2)
Diplotene and Diakinesis
Leptotene, Pachytene, Zygotene,
(3)
Diakinesis and Diplotene
 Diplotene, Diakinesis, Pachytene,
(4)
Zygotene and Leptotene

41) The figures below shows 3 phases of mitosis. Select the option giving correct identification

together with the correct event:

(1) C : Telophase-Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters

(2) B : Anaphase-Segregation of homologous chromosomes
(3) A : Prophase - Chromosomes undergo decondensation
(4) C : Metaphase - Condensation of chromatin to chromosome

42) Identify the metaphase-I from the following figures

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Subunits 50S and 30S are found in

(1) 60S type

(2) 70S type
(3) 80S type
(4) 90S type

44) The matrix of mitochondria possess:-

Single circular DNA molecules; A few RNA molecules; 70S ribosomes; Components required for the
synthesis of proteins

(1) Only two of them

(2) Only three of them
(3) All of them
(4) None of them

45) Each mitochondria is ___X_____ membrane bound structure; dividing its lumen into ____Y___
distinct compartment.

(1) X→ single Y→one

(2) X →double Y→one
(3) X→single Y→two
(4) X → double Y→two

46) RER is frequently observed in cells, actively involved in:-

(1) Protein Synthesis

(2) Lipid synthesis
(3) DNA synthesis
(4) Glucose synthesis

47) Steroidal hormones are synthesised by:-

(1) R.E.R
(2) Lysosome
(3) S.E.R
(4) Ribosome

48) Secondary cell wall is formed

(1) Outside the primary cell wall.

(2) Inside the cell membrane
(3) Inside the plasmodesmata
(4) Inside the primary cell wall.

49) A polysome is:-

(1) Several mRNA bound to a single Ribosome.

(2) Several subunits of ribosomes attached to each other.
(3) Several ribosomes attached to a single strand of mRNA
(4) Several mRNA attached to each other

50) Match the column I and column II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Contractile vacuole (i) Engulfing the food particle

(b) Food vacuole (ii) Vacuole membrane in plant

(c) Tonoplast (iii) Osmoregulation and excretion

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)

51) Consider the Assertion and Reason and choose the correct option :
Assertion : Golgi complex, lysosomes, endoplasmic reticulum and vacuoles are considered together
as endomembrane system.
Reason : Functions of golgi complex, lysosomes, endoplasmic reticulum and vacuoles are
coordinated.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

52) How many statements are correct w.r.t. cell theory

(i) All cells arise from preexisting cells.
(ii) All living organisms are composed of cells and products of cells.
(iii) Rudolf Virchow first explained that the cells divided and new cells are formed from preexisting
cells.
(iv) Schwann studies on plant tissue concluded that the presence of cell wall is a unique character of
the plant cells.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

53)

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the
endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.
Reason (R): Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face
of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi
apparatus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

54) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Centromere (I) Mitochondrion

(B) Cilium (II) Cell division

(C) Cristae (III) Cell movement

(D) Cell membrane (IV) Phospholipid Bilayer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

55) Which of the following statements is incorrect for flagella?

(1) Flagella beats in a co-ordinated manner.

(2) They are involved only in locomotion.
(3) Flagella are long
(4) All of the above

56) If the pH in lysosomes is increased to alkaline, what will be the outcome?

(1) Hydrolytic enzymes will function more efficiently

(2) Hydrolytic enzymes will become inactive
(3) Lysosomal enzymes will be released into the cytoplasm
(4) Lysosomal enzymes will be more active

57) Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function?
(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis
(2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoproteins
(3) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis
(4) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids

58) DNA is not found in

(1) Nucleus
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Ribosome
(4) Chloroplast

59) A small disc shaped structure at the surface of the centromere is called

(1) Centrosome
(2) Centriole
(3) Cell plate
(4) Kinetochore

60) Given diagram showing flagellum's internal structure. In which of the following all the four parts

labelled as A, B, C and D are correctly identified ?

A B C D

Peripheral Central Central

(1) Bridge
microtubules tubule microtubules
 Central Radial Peripheral
(2) Bridge
microtubules spoke microtubules

Peripheral Central Central

(3) Radial spoke
microtubules sheath microtubules

Central Central Peripheral

(4) Radial spoke
sheath microtubules microtubules
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

61) Which of the following cell organelles is non-membrane bound and found in both prokaryotes
and eukaryotes?

(1) Lysosomes
(2) Ribosomes
(3) Centrioles
(4) Mitochondria

62) Which is correct option amongst the following statements ?

(a) Nuclear membrane, chloroplast, mitochondria, microtubules are absent in prokaryotic cells.
(b) Nuclear membrane, chloroplast, mitochondria, microtubules and centriole are present in
animal cells.
(c) Ribosomes are 80S in prokaryotic cells, chloroplast and mitochondria. They are 70S in animal
cells.

(1) a and b are wrong, c is correct

(2) a is correct, b and c are wrong
(3) a and b are correct, c is wrong
(4) a and c are correct, b is wrong

63) F0 – F1 particles of mitochondria are:

(1) Oxysomes
(2) Ribosomes
(3) Desmotubules
(4) Lysosomes

64) Statement I : Non-polar molecules require carrier proteins to facilitate their transport across
the membrane.
Statement II : Water, may also move across the membrane from lower to higher concentration is
known as osmosis.

(1) Both statement I & II are correct

(2) Both statements I & II are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

65)

(1) A is 40S in prokaryotic

(2) B is 60S in eukaryotic
(3) B is 30S in eukaryotic
(4) A is 50S in prokaryotic

66) How many statements are true about given diagrame.

(i) Inner chamber contain DNA, RNA and ribosomes.

(ii) 5 - 10 μm in length.
(iii) Enzymes of kreb's cycle present in outer chamber.
(iv) It is divide by fission in Nucleoplasm.
Options -

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(2) (i) and (iv) only
(3) (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (i) only

67) The centromere is present very close to one end of the chromosome in

(1) Telocentric chromosome

(2) Sub-metacentric chromosome
(3) Acrocentric chromosome
(4) Metacentric chromosome

68) Read the following statements

Statement A: The nuclear matrix or the nucleoplasm contains nucleolus and chromatin.
Statement B: Larger and more numerous nucleoli are present in the cells actively carrying out
protein synthesis.
Select the correct option.

(1) Both statements A and B are incorrect

(2) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

69) The interphase nucleus has highly extended nucleoprotein fibres called :

(1) Chromosomes
(2) Chromatin
(3) Chromatid
(4) Satellite

70) Which cell organelle show cis and trans face ?

(1) ER
(2) Golgi body
(3) Lysosome
(4) Centerosome

71) Which cell organelle divides by fission to increase its number.

(1) ER
(2) Golgibody
(3) Lysosome
(4) Mitochondria

72) The function of glyoxysome is-

(1) Protein metabolism

(2) Carbohydrate metabolism
(3) Fat metabolism
(4) Protein synthesis.

73) A student did cell fractionation of a tissue and forgot to label his tubes. The content of one tube
when studied showed organelles bounded by membrane with activity of catalase enzyme. These
organelles could be :-

(1) SER
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Lysosome
(4) Peroxisome

74) Which of the following is incorrect about microbodies ?

(1) They are present in bacteria
(2) Minute membranous vesicles
(3) Present in plants and animals
(4) They have various enzymes

75)

Select the incorrect statement about living processes.

(1) All living phenomena is due to underlying interaction.

(2) Properties of tissues are not present in the constituent cells.
(3) Properties of cellular organelles are present in the molecular constituents of the organelles.
(4) The interactions result in emergent properties at a higher level of organisation.

76) The number of species that are known and described are

(1) 0.7 to 0.8 millions

(2) 1.7 to 2.8 millions
(3) 2.7 to 2.8 millions
(4) 1.7 to 1.8 millions

77) Which of following is included in defining properties of living organism?

(1) Self–consciousness
(2) Reproduction
(3) Extrinsic growth
(4) Intrinsic growth

78) Select incorrect statement :-

(1) Growth occurs by synthesis of protoplasmic substances.

(2) Reproduction is synonymous with growth in unicellular organisms.
(3) Isolated metabolic reactions in-vitro are surely living things.
(4) Consciousness is the most obvious and technically complicated feature of all living organisms.

79) Which among the following is incorrect for Ernst Mayr :

(1) The Darwin of the 20th century

(2) The Aristotle of the 21st Century.
(3) Gave definition of biological species
(4) Triple crown of biology

80) Which of the character is not considered as defining feature of living beings ?

(1) Extrinsic growth

(2) Metabolism
(3) Intrinsic growth
(4) Cellular organization

81) Read the following statements :

A. Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal breeders, both plants and animals
B. Increase in body mass is considered as reproduction
C. Metabolism is a defining feature of all living organism without exception
D. Self consciousness is a defining property of every living organism
Choose the correct statements :

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) B and D

82) Match column-I & column-II select the correct option from options given below :-

Column-I Column-II

Growth from
(A) Intrinsic growth (I)
outside

Growth occurs
(B) Extrinsic growth (II) only upto
certain age

Indeterminate Growth from

(C) (III)
growth inside

Growth occurs
Determinate
(D) (IV) throughout life
growth
span
(1) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
(2) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(3) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV
(4) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III

83) Read the following statements :

Statement A : No non-living object exhibits metabolism.
Statement B : Isolated metabolic reaction(s) outside the body of an organism, performed in a test
tube is neither living nor non-living.

(1) Only statement (A) is correct

(2) Only statement (B) is correct
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Both statements are correct

84) In all living beings growth takes place when :-

(1) Rate of catabolism increases

(2) Rate of anabolism increases
(3) Anabolism is equal to catabolism
(4) Materials deposited from out side

85) For which of the following organisms, reproduction is synonymous to growth?

(1) Agaricus
(2) Paramoecium
(3) Rhizopus
(4) Hydra

86) The term sytematics was proposed by.

(1) Whittaker
(2) Linnaeus
(3) Aristotle
(4) Theophrestus

87) Growth cannot be taken as a defining property of living organisms because :

(1) All living organisms do not show growth.

(2) Non-living things also grow from the inside.
(3) Non-living things also grow.
(4) Some living organisms do not show reproduction process.

88) Which point is known as the twin characteristics of growth?

(1) Increase in mass and number

(2) Metabolism
(3) Increase in the number of individuals
(4) Sense of environment

89) Assertion: Reproduction is the defining feature of living.

Reason: All living organism reproduce.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

90)

Find out which statement is incorrect :-

(1) Living organism are self replicating, evolving and self regulating.
(2) Adaptation and homeostasis are very important characters of livings.
(3) Brain dead coma patient has self consciousness.
(4) All living organisms are made up of living cell/cells.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 1 2 1 3 1 2 3 4 3 3 4 4 1 3 2 2 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 2 1 3 3 1 3 1 4 3 3 4 1 4 3 2 1 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 4 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 4 2 2 1 2 3 1 2 1 1 2 3 3 1 4 2 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 4 4 1 3 4 4 4 1 4 1 1 1 2 2 4 1 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 1 4 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 2 3 1 2 3 1 3 4 1 4 2 3 4 3 3 3 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 2 3 1 1 1 3 3 2 2 2 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 2 3 4 1 3 4 3 3 1 4 1 4 1 2 1 3 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 1 2 4 4 3 2 2 2 4 3 4 1 3 4 4 3 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 4 2 2 2 3 1 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) =

= –1–1
= –2

4) y = ℓn (sinx)

5) Let

angle between and is equal to angle between and i.e.

So,
cos θ = cos 90°
θ = 90°

6)

(a2 + b2 + 2ab cosθ) = 4 (a2 + b2 –2ab cosθ)

put a = b we get
2a2 + 2a2 cosθ = 8a2 – 8a2 cosθ
 7)
R cos 60° = F1

F1 = 50 × = 25 N
R cos 30° = F2

F2 = 50 × N

12)

13)

Displacement = (xf – xi) + (yf – yi)

= (13 – 2) + (14 – 3)

Av. velocity

v=

14)

aav = = 5 m/s2

15)

= {(2)4 + (2)3 –(2)} – {(1)4 + (1)3 – 1}

= 22 – 1
= 21 m
21)

Equation of line + = 1 Now we want a-x relation ∴ diff. with respect to X

+ =0

V = 2

a = –1 +

24)

S = S1 + S2
S1 = 15 × 0.2 = 3m
v = u – at
0 = 15 – 6 × t

t=

S2 = 15 ×
S2 = 18.75 m
S = 18.75 + 3 = 21.75 m

25)

.....(i)
and velocity after first t sec
υ = u + at

Now,

..... (ii)
 Equation (ii) - (i) ⇒ S2 – S1 = at2

From equation (i), we get,

⇒ 5u = 27.5 ∴ υ = 5.5 m/s

26)

V=0+2×t …(1)
0 = V – 4(3 – t) …(2)
V = +12 – 4t = 2 t
t = 2 sec.
V = 4 m/s

28) Compare with

29)

Hmax =
Hmax ∝ u2
⇒V= V0

31)

100 = – 40 t + × 10 × t2
⇒ t2 – 8t – 20 = 0
⇒ t = –2, 10
Since 't' cannot be negative, t = 10 s is answer.

32)
BC = × 10 × 22
BC = 20 m
and AB = 25 m Given,
AC = 25 + 20 = 45 m
use v2 = u2 + 2 as
O = u2 – 2 × 10 × 45 ⇒ u = 30 m/s

34)
total time to attain maximum height = 90 sec

35)
t2 – 5t – 6 = 0
t2 – (6 – 1) t – 6 = 0
t2 – 6t + t – 6 = 0
t(t – 6) + 1 (t – 6) = 0
(t + 1) (t – 6) = 0
t = 6 sec t # –1

37) h = vt + h is same for both t = 10 sec and t = 20 sec

⇒ 10 v – = 20 v – g (20)2

38)

s= (T = 1)

39)

n = 2.5 sec

40) ..... (i)

 ..... (ii)

44) Maximum height = × 110 × 1000 = 55 km

45)

average acceleration =

CHEMISTRY

46)

As per theory

47)

Explanation:
The equilibrium expression (Kc) for a reversible reaction is the ratio of the concentrations of
the products to the concentrations of the reactants, each raised to the power of its
stoichiometric coefficient 1 at equilibrium. Pure solids and pure liquids are not included in the
equilibrium expression because their "effective concentrations" remain constant.

Concept:

A. In the given reaction:

B. P4(s) + 5O2(g) ⇌ P4O10(s)
C. Therefore, the equilibrium expression (Kc) will only involve the concentration of the gaseous
reactant, O2.
D. Kc = 1 / [O2]5

Answer : Option (4), {Kc = 1/[O2]5}.

50)

A. Question Explanation: The question asks to calculate the active mass of NH₃, which is
essentially its molar concentration (Molarity), given the mass of NH₃ and the volume of the
vessel.
B. Given Data:
• Mass of NH₃ = 1.7 g
• Volume of vessel = 5 L
C. Concept: Active mass
D. Solution:
Active mass is represented by the molar concentration (Molarity).
• Molarity (M) = (Number of moles of solute) / (Volume of solution in liters)
• Number of moles = (Mass of solute) / (Molar mass of solute)
• Molar mass of NH₃ = 17 g/mol (approximately)
E. Mathematical Calculation:
1. Calculate the number of moles of NH₃: Moles of NH₃ = (1.7 g) / (17 g/mol) = 0.1 mol
2. Calculate the molarity (active mass): Molarity = (0.1 mol) / (5 L) = 0.02 M
F. Final Answer:
The active mass of NH₃ gas is 0.02 M. So the correct option is 2.

52)

Active mass of solid = 1

62) K1
K2
2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3 K3

67)

NCERT Pg. # 199 (Edition-2017)

73) N = M × n
= 0.2 × 2
N = 0.4

76) Two orbitals that are located along the axis and not between the axis are –
 ,

77) n = 3, l = 1, m = 0

For given Quantum no., maximum number of orbitals = 1

80) NCERT Pg. 66, Q. no. 2.30

81) NCERT Pg. # 69, Q. no. 2.67

82)

Δx.Δp ≥

If Δx = 0 then Δp = ∞

BIOLOGY

91) Explain Question :

Loose connective tissue found beneath the skin.

92)

NCERT Pg 104

93)

Explanation:
In both bronchioles and fallopian tubes, ciliated columnar epithelium is present. The cilia help
in moving mucus in the bronchioles and transporting the ovum in the fallopian tube.

Correct answer: Option (2) Ciliated columnar epithelium.

94)
Tendocalcaneous is the strongest tendon of body which connects gastrocmemius muscle of
shank with calcaneum bone of ankle.

95) NCERT XI Page No. 103

96) NCERT XI Page No. 101

97) NCERT XI Page No. 104

98) NCERT XI Page No. 100

99) XI NCERT Pg. No :- 102, 103

100)

NCERT Page No. 102

101) NCERT XI Page No. 103, 104

105)

The correct answer is 4. Nervous tissue.

Here's why:

A. Ectoderm is the outermost of the three primary germ layers in the early embryo. It gives
rise to various tissues and organs, including:

A. Nervous tissue, Epidermis, Sensory organs

106)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101, Fig-7.1 (c)

107)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

109) NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 101

110) Pg. No. 119 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

111) NCERT - XI, Pg. # 116

112) NCERT Pg # 118

113) NCERT Pg. # 118

114)

Frogs have four toes on their front limbs (or forelimbs) and five toes on their hind limbs. This
arrangement helps them in various activities like jumping, swimming, and climbing. ans-2

116) Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to identify the correct description of the
phragmoplast from a list of options related to cell division.
Underlying Concept: Phragmoplast is a structure involved in plant cell cytokinesis. It forms
during the late stages of cell division and guides the formation of the cell plate, which
eventually develops into the new cell wall separating the two daughter cells. The phragmoplast
is composed mainly of microtubules, vesicles derived from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and
dictyosomes (Golgi apparatus), and plays a key role in transporting materials necessary for the
construction of the cell plate.
Tips and Tricks: Remember that the phragmoplast is specifically related to plant cell
cytokinesis and involves vesicles from the ER and Golgi that carry cell wall materials to the
middle of the dividing cell.
Common Mistakes: Confusing metaphase spindle fibers with the phragmoplast, or thinking
ribosomes or proplastids are involved in cell plate formation.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options related to proplastids or ribosomes are
incorrect because these organelles are not involved in cell plate formation. The statement
involving spindle fibers during metaphase is wrong because the phragmoplast forms during
cytokinesis, not metaphase, and spindle fibers are distinct from the vesicles that form the cell
plate.

117)

SOLUTION —
During Anaphase of mitosis, the sister chromatids are separated at the centromere and move
toward opposite poles of the cell. This is a critical step in ensuring that each daughter cell will
receive an identical set of chromosomes after cell division.

The correct answer is: OPTION(3) Anaphase

118) Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks at which specific phase in meiosis the sister
chromatids separate and start moving to opposite ends (poles) of the cell.
Underlying Concept: Meiosis is a type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number
by half, producing four haploid cells. It has two main stages: meiosis I and meiosis II. During
meiosis II, sister chromatids separate. The phase where the actual separation and movement
of sister chromatids toward opposite poles happens is crucial to ensure each daughter cell gets
the correct number of chromosomes.
Tips and Tricks: Remember: 'Anaphase I' separates homologous chromosomes, and
'Anaphase II' separates sister chromatids; so 'Anaphase II' is the phase where sister
chromatids move apart.
Common Mistakes: Confusing Anaphase I with Anaphase II. In Anaphase I, only homologous
chromosomes separate, but sister chromatids remain together.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: 'Prophase-II' is the preparatory phase of the second
division and does not involve chromatid separation. 'Telophase-I' marks the end of the first
division with chromosome clusters forming. 'Anaphase-I' separates homologous chromosomes
but not sister chromatids, so it is incorrect.

119) Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks how many chromosomes were present in the original
mother cell if, after meiosis, each of the four resulting daughter cells has 4 chromosomes.
Underlying Concept: Meiosis is a type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number
by half to form haploid daughter cells. If each daughter cell has half the chromosomes, the
mother cell must have had twice that number originally.
Step-by-Step Calculation: Since each daughter cell has 4 chromosomes and there are 4
daughter cells, the number of chromosomes in the mother cell before meiosis is double that of
each daughter cell. Therefore, mother cell chromosomes = 4 (in daughter) × 2 = 8
chromosomes.
Tips and Tricks: Recall that meiosis produces four haploid cells from one diploid cell, so the
original cell has twice the chromosomes found in each daughter cell.
Common Mistakes: A common mistake is to assume the total chromosomes in all daughter
cells add up to the mother cell chromosomes. However, chromosome number is per cell, not
total.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: '10', '16', and '4' are incorrect because meiosis halves
the chromosome number. Having 4 chromosomes in a daughter cell means the mother cell
must have had double that, i.e., 8 chromosomes.

120) Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking about a specific phase in the cell cycle where
some cells stop dividing and are said to be 'arrested', and also about the phase they re-enter
when they start dividing again.
Underlying Concept: The cell cycle consists of several phases: G1 (first gap), S (synthesis),
G2 (second gap), and M (mitosis). Some cells exit the regular cycle temporarily or permanently
and enter a resting state called the G0 phase. Cells in G0 are not actively dividing but can re-
enter the cell cycle at the G1 phase when stimulated.
Tips and Tricks: Remember that G0 is a resting phase outside the normal cell cycle, and cells
re-enter from G1, the first phase of cell cycle.
Common Mistakes: Confusing the resting phase G0 with active phases like G1 or M, or
mixing the order of phases where cells restart division.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options involving M phase or G2 phase are incorrect
because cells do not typically arrest in these phases for resting-they arrest in G0 and re-enter
at G1.

121)

Generated by Allie
 Problem Statement: The question asks which event indicates the beginning of the diplotene
stage in meiosis, focusing on specific cellular processes related to chromosome behavior.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves understanding the stages of prophase I
during meiosis, specifically how chromosomes pair and separate. The diplotene stage is
marked by the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex, which had been holding homologous
chromosomes tightly paired during earlier stages like zygotene and pachytene.

Tips and Tricks: Remember the order of sub-stages in prophase I: leptotene, zygotene,
pachytene, diplotene, and diakinesis. The dissolution of the synaptonemal complex happens as
cells transition from pachytene to diplotene.

Common Mistakes: Confusing synapsis with diplotene; synapsis occurs earlier, during
zygotene, not diplotene. Also, terminalisation of chiasmata occurs later in diplotene, not at the
stage's beginning.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: "Terminalisation of chiasmata completely" is incorrect

because terminalisation happens progressively during diplotene, not at its start. "Formation of
recombination nodules" occurs during pachytene, not diplotene. "Synapsis of chromosome" is
an early event in zygotene, prior to diplotene.

122)

SOLUTION—

After meiosis I:

Homologous chromosomes separate, but sister chromatids remain together

Each daughter cell gets half the chromosomes, but each still has duplicated DNA (sister
chromatids)

So, DNA in each daughter cell = 20 mg

The correct answer is: OPTION(1)20 mg

126)

SOLUTION—

If a cell has 48 chromosomes, each of its gametes will have 24 chromosomes. This is because
gametes are produced through meiosis, a type of cell division that reduces the chromosome
number by half

The correct answer is: OPTION(2)24

127)

SOLUTION—
The S-phase, or synthesis phase, is a part of interphase in the cell cycle where DNA replication
occurs, leading to the duplication of genetic material. In animal cells, centrioles also duplicate
in the cytoplasm during this phase. Plant cells, however, lack centrioles except in gametes of
specific plant groups.

The correct answer is: OPTION(2)DNA replication occurs in nucleus

128)

NCERT Page No. 168, 169

129)

SOLUTION —
In meiosis, the chromosome number reduces by half. This process results in the formation of
four haploid cells from one diploid cell.

The correct answer is: OPTION(1) reduces by half

130)

NCERT 11th pg no.168

131)

NCERT 11th pg no.165

132) 1 → Transition to metaphase.

2 → Mitotic metaphase.
3 → Metaphase-I.
4 → Anaphase-II.

133) Pg-136, easy

134) Pg-135, easy

135) Pg-135, easy

136) Pg-133, easy

137) Pg-133, easy

138) Pg-132, easy

139) Pg-129, easy

156)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87 (Figure - 8.7)

159)

NCERT – 100

160) NCERT Pg 95

161) NCERT Pg 97

163) NCERT page no. 102

164) NCERT, Pg. # 102

165)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

The properties of cellular organelles arise from the interactions of their molecular
constituents, not just from the molecules themselves. The organization and interaction of
molecules within an organelle give rise to its specific functions, which cannot be fully
explained by the molecular components alone.

Conclusion:

Hence, option (3) is correct.

166)

NCERT Page No. 6

167) NCERT XI, Pg. # 4, 5

168) Explanation: Isolated metabolic reactions (like in a test tube) are not considered living
things. Life is defined by the organization of these processes within a cell or organism.
Incorrect Statement: 3
 Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are surely living things.

170)

The correct answer is:

1. Extrinsic growth
Explanation:

A. Extrinsic growth refers to growth due to external factors, such as accumulation of material on
the surface, which is not considered a defining feature of living organisms. In living beings,
growth is generally intrinsic, meaning it occurs from within through processes like cell division
and metabolism.

171) NCERT Pg. no. 4, 5

172) NCERT Pg. no. 4

173) (A) Non-living objects do not exhibit metabolism. (B) Isolated metabolic reactions outside
the organism (in a test tube) are neither living nor non-living.

174) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 04

175) In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous to growth.

176) The term "Systematics" was first used by Carolus Linnaeus for the systematic
arrangement and classification of organisms.

177) Growth is not a defining feature because non-living things (like crystals or mountains)
can also increase in size externally.

178) The twin characteristics of growth are increase in mass (size) and increase in number (of
cells or individuals).

179)

The correct answer is 4. Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Explanation:

A. Assertion: "Reproduction is the defining feature of living" — This is false. Reproduction

is an important characteristic, but not the defining feature of life because there are
many organisms which do not reproduce (mules, sterile worker bees, infertile human
couples, etc). Hence, reproduction also cannot be an all-inclusive defining characteristic
of living organisms.
 B. Reason: "All living organisms reproduce" — This is false. Not all living organisms can
reproduce. For example, sterile organisms like mules and worker bees cannot
reproduce.

Thus, both the assertion and reason are incorrect.

180)

NCERT Pg. # 5