UNIVERSITY OF BENIN – 100 LEVEL FIRST SEMESTER

COURSE: ZOO 101 (INTRODUCTION TO MAMMALIAN BODY)

QUESTION REVIEW (200 questions)

ENDORSED BY: Director of Welfare; Life Sciences, Dr. Quantum

TUTOR: Sir Chris 🌎

1. What is the primary function of hair/fur in mammals?

a) Milk production

b) Sound transmission in the ear

c) Insulation and sensory input

d) Oxygen storage for diving

2. Mammary glands in female mammals are specialized for:

a) Thermoregulation

b) Producing milk to nourish offspring

c) Detecting environmental changes

d) Facilitating flight in bats

3. Which group of mammals lays leathery eggs?

a) Marsupials

b) Placental mammals

c) Monotremes

d) Cetaceans

4. Marsupial mammals are characterized by:

a) Complex placenta
b) Pouch for undeveloped young

c) Laying hard-shelled eggs

d) Lacking mammary glands

5. The three middle ear bones (auditory ossicles) in mammals function to:

a) Regulate body temperature

b) Transmit sound waves

c) Produce milk

d) Support jaw movement

6. Mammals maintain constant body temperature through:

a) External fertilization

b) Endothermy (warm-bloodedness)

c) Egg-laying reproduction

d) Squamosal jaw hinge

7. Which adaptation helps aquatic mammals like whales dive?

a) Prehensile tails

b) Ability to store oxygen

c) Heterodont dentition

d) Sweat glands

8. The mammalian diaphragm is a muscular structure that:

a) Produces milk

b) Separates thoracic and abdominal cavities

c) Detects odors

d) Supports flight

9. Monotremes include which animals?

a) Kangaroos and koalas

b) Elephants and whales

c) Platypus and echidna

d) Bats and rodents

10. Mammalian red blood cells (erythrocytes) lack:

a) Hemoglobin

b) A nucleus

c) Antibodies

d) Hormones

11. The mammalian neocortex is a specialized region of the:

a) Heart

b) Brain

c) Lung

d) Placenta
12. Plantigrade, digitigrade, and unguligrade refer to adaptations in:

a) Vision

b) Locomotion (foot posture)

c) Hearing

d) Reproduction

13. Early true mammals first emerged during which period?

a) Carboniferous

b) Triassic

c) Jurassic

d) Cenozoic

14. What key event allowed mammals to diversify rapidly?

a) Evolution of hair

b) Extinction of non-avian dinosaurs

c) Development of mammary glands

d) Origin of synapsids

15. Desert mammals survive through adaptations like:

a) Streamlined bodies

b) Nocturnal behavior

c) Prehensile tails

d) Egg-laying
16. The squamosal bone in mammals is part of the:

a) Jaw-skull hinge

b) Auditory ossicles

c) Vertebral column

d) Diaphragm

17. Heterodont dentition in mammals means they have:

a) Differentiated teeth (incisors, canines, etc.)

b) Teeth embedded in sockets

c) Two sets of teeth in a lifetime

d) Only molars for grinding

18. Which is NOT a mammalian thermoregulatory mechanism?

a) Shivering

b) Sweating

c) Altering blood flow

d) External fertilization

19. The pinna/conch in mammals is part of the:

a) Visual system

b) External ear

c) Olfactory system

d) Diaphragm
20. Cynodonts are significant because they:

a) Were the first placental mammals

b) Exhibited transitional traits toward mammals

c) Evolved during the Cenozoic

d) Lack mammary glands

21. The largest organ in the human body is the:

a) Liver

b) Brain

c) Skin

d) Heart

22. The epidermis is primarily composed of cells called:

a) Melanocytes

b) Adipocytes

c) Keratinocytes

d) Fibroblasts

23. Which layer of the skin is NOT part of the integumentary system?

a) Epidermis

b) Dermis

c) Hypodermis
d) All are part

24. The stratum corneum functions mainly to:

a) Produce melanin

b) Store fat

c) Prevent dehydration and microbial penetration

d) Detect touch sensations

25. The translucent layer of the epidermis found ONLY in thick skin (palms/soles) is the:

a) Stratum basale

b) Stratum lucidum

c) Stratum granulosum

d) Stratum spinosum

26. Melanin-producing cells are located in the:

a) Stratum corneum

b) Stratum basale

c) Papillary region

d) Hypodermis

27. Fingerprints form due to interactions between the stratum basale and:

a) Sebaceous glands

b) Dermal papillae
c) Hypodermal fat

d) Sweat ducts

28. Collagen and elastic fibers are most abundant in the:

a) Epidermis

b) Papillary region

c) Reticular region

d) Hypodermis

29. Stretch marks occur due to damage in the:

a) Stratum corneum

b) Dermis

c) Stratum basale

d) Eccrine glands

30. The hypodermis primarily consists of:

a) Keratinocytes

b) Adipocytes

c) Melanocytes

d) Langerhans cells

31. Hair color is determined by:

a) Keratin density
b) Sebum production

c) Melanin in hair follicles

d) Blood vessel density

32. Nails grow from the:

a) Lunula

b) Nail plate

c) Nail matrix

d) Sebaceous glands

33. Eccrine sweat glands are responsible for:

a) Producing sebum

b) Thermoregulation

c) Secreting ear wax

d) Sexual attraction

34. Apocrine sweat glands open into:

a) The skin surface

b) Hair follicles

c) Sebaceous ducts

d) Blood vessels

35. Sebaceous glands secrete:

a) Sweat

b) Milk

c) Sebum (oil)

d) Cerumen (ear wax)

36. Ceruminous glands are modified sweat glands found in the:

a) Armpits

b) Ear canal

c) Scalp

d) Palms

37. Mammary glands are evolutionarily derived from:

a) Eccrine glands

b) Sebaceous glands

c) Apocrine glands

d) Ceruminous glands

38. Langerhans cells in the epidermis function as:

a) Touch receptors

b) Immune defenders

c) Pigment producers

d) Fat storers
39. Merkel cells are responsible for sensing:

a) Light

b) Temperature

c) Touch

d) Pain

40. The dermal layer containing Meissner corpuscles (touch receptors) is the:

a) Reticular region

b) Papillary region

c) Hypodermis

d) Stratum lucidum

41. Tattoo ink is stored in the:

a) Epidermis

b) Hypodermis

c) Dermis

d) Stratum corneum

42. The protein that provides skin strength and hydration is:

a) Keratin

b) Collagen

c) Elastin

d) Melanin
43. Thickest epidermis is found on the:

a) Eyelids

b) Back

c) Palms and soles

d) Scalp

44. The layer attaching the epidermis to the dermis is the:

a) Stratum spinosum

b) Stratum basale

c) Reticular region

d) Hypodermis

45. Sebaceous glands are absent in the skin of the:

a) Scalp

b) Face

c) Palms and soles

d) Chest

46. Hair growth stages (anagen/catagen/telogen) occur in the:

a) Hair shaft

b) Hair follicle

c) Sebaceous gland

d) Nail matrix
47. The "waterproofing" glycolipid is released in the:

a) Stratum basale

b) Stratum granulosum

c) Stratum spinosum

d) Stratum corneum

48. Leptin, a hormone regulating body weight, is produced by:

a) Keratino

cytes

b) Melanocytes

c) Adipocytes

d) Fibroblasts

49. Skin pigmentation variations in humans are primarily due to:

a) Keratin thickness

b) Blood flow

c) Melanin concentration

d) Collagen density

50. The layer providing mechanical protection against abrasion is the:

a) Hypodermis

b) Dermis
c) Stratum corneum

d) Stratum basale

51. The axial skeleton includes:

a) Humerus and femur

b) Clavicle and scapula

c) Skull, vertebral column, and ribcage

d) Pelvis and carpals

52. How many cervical vertebrae do most mammals have?

a) 5

b) 7

c) 12

d) 5 fused

53. The atlas vertebra lacks a:

a) Neural canal

b) Transverse process

c) Centrum

d) Vertebraterial canal

54. The axis vertebra is characterized by:

a) A projecting dens (odontoid process)

b) Absence of transverse processes

c) Fusion with the sacrum

d) Long neural spine

55. Thoracic vertebrae feature:

a) Short neural spines

b) Articular surfaces for ribs

c) Extra anapophysis processes

d) Absence of centrum

56. The sacral vertebrae are fused to:

a) Support the hind limbs

b) Form the tail

c) Protect the heart

d) Attach the pectoral girdle

57. The appendicular skeleton consists of:

a) Skull and ribs

b) Vertebral column and sternum

c) Limbs and their girdles

d) Auditory ossicles

58. The pectoral girdle includes:

a) Ilium, ischium, pubis

b) Clavicle, coracoid, scapula

c) Femur, tibia, fibula

d) Carpals and tarsals

59. Red bone marrow is essential for:

a) Mineral storage

b) Blood cell production

c) Ligament attachment

d) Synovial fluid secretion

60. Tendons connect:

a) Bone to bone

b) Muscle to bone

c) Cartilage to muscle

d) Skin to muscle

61. Immovable joints (synarthroses) are found in the:

a) Elbow

b) Skull sutures

c) Intervertebral discs

d) Hip joint

62. Semi-movable joints (amphiarthroses) allow flexibility in the:

a) Pubic symphysis
b) Knee

c) Shoulder

d) Wrist

63. A ball-and-socket joint enables:

a) Rotation (e.g., hip)

b) Unidirectional movement (e.g., elbow)

c) Gliding (e.g., wrist)

d) No movement

64. Marine mammals have denser bones to:

a) Increase buoyancy

b) Counteract buoyancy for diving

c) Strengthen flippers for flight

d) Support larger muscle mass

65. The fundamental contractile unit of muscle is the:

a) Myocyte

b) Sarcomere

c) Fascicle

d) Epimysium

66. During muscle contraction, actin and myosin filaments:

a) Lengthen

b) Disintegrate

c) Slide past each other

d) Fuse together

67. Troponin and tropomyosin regulate contraction by binding:

a) ATP

b) Calcium ions

c) Oxygen

d) Collagen

68. Smooth muscle tissue is found in the:

a) Biceps

b) Heart

c) Stomach wall

d) Tongue

69. Skeletal muscle fibers are multinucleated due to being:

a) Syncytia

b) Uninucleated

c) Branching

d) Involuntary
70. The epimysium surrounds:

a) Individual muscle fibers

b) Fascicles

c) Entire muscles

d) Myofibrils

71. Cardiac muscle tissue is unique because it:

a) Lacks striations

b) Is voluntary

c) Has intercalated discs

d) Surrounds hollow organs

72. The sliding filament theory explains:

a) Bone remodeling

b) Joint lubrication

c) Muscle shortening

d) Tendon elasticity

73. Myosin heads form cross-bridges with:

a) Troponin

b) Actin

c) Sarcolemma

d) Mitochondria
74. Ligaments connect:

a) Muscle to bone

b) Bone to bone

c) Skin to bone

d) Fascicles to tendons

75. The Z-line defines the boundary of a:

a) Myofibril

b) Sarcomere

c) Fascicle

d) Motor unit

76. Bursae function to:

a) Store calcium

b) Reduce joint friction

c) Produce blood cells

d) Transmit nerve impulses

77. The sarcolemma is the:

a) Contractile unit

b) Plasma membrane of a muscle cell

c) Connective tissue layer

d) Site of ATP synthesis

78. Cardiac muscle is involuntary because it:

a) Lacks nuclei

b) Is controlled by the autonomic nervous system

c) Has no striations

d) Attaches to bones

79. Intervertebral discs allow spinal flexibility and are:

a) Synovial joints

b) Fibrous joints

c) Cartilaginous joints

d) Bony fusions

80. Hematopoiesis occurs in the:

a) Epidermis

b) Yellow bone marrow

c) Red bone marrow

d) Hypodermis

81. The monogastric digestive system is characterized by:

a) Four stomach compartments

b) A single-chambered stomach

c) Specialized cellulose fermentation chambers

d) Absence of enzymatic digestion

82. Salivary amylase initiates digestion of:

a) Proteins

b) Lipids

c) Carbohydrates

d) Nucleic acids

83. Bile, produced by the liver, primarily aids in:

a) Protein digestion

b) Carbohydrate absorption

c) Fat emulsification

d) Vitamin C synthesis

84. The main site for nutrient absorption in humans is the:

a) Stomach

b) Large intestine

c) Small intestine

d) Esophagus

85. Villi and microvilli in the small intestine function to:

a) Produce digestive enzymes

b) Secrete hydrochloric acid

c) Increase surface area for absorption

d) Store bile

86. Pepsinogen is activated to pepsin by:

a) Bile salts

b) Pancreatic amylase

c) Hydrochloric acid (HCl)

d) Intestinal peptidase

87. Pancreatic juice contains all EXCEPT:

a) Trypsin

b) Amylase

c) Bile

d) Lipase

88. Water-soluble vitamins (e.g., B-complex, C) are absorbed via:

a) Chylomicrons

b) Passive diffusion

c) Lymphatic system

d) Sodium cotransport

89. Vitamin K is essential for:

a) Calcium absorption
b) Blood clotting

c) Collagen synthesis

d) Antioxidant activity

90. Cholecystokinin (CCK) stimulates the release of:

a) Gastric acid

b) Bile and pancreatic enzymes

c) Salivary amylase

d) Insulin

91. The large intestine primarily absorbs:

a) Proteins and amino acids

b) Water and minerals

c) Triglycerides

d) Monosaccharides

92. Fatty acids are absorbed into intestinal cells and transported as:

a) Amino acids

b) Glucose polymers

c) Chylomicrons

d) Glycogen

93. Which vitamin is synthesized in the skin upon UV exposure?

a) Vitamin A

b) Vitamin D

c) Vitamin E

d) Vitamin K

94. The hormone secretin neutralizes stomach acid by stimulating:

a) Bile production

b) Pepsin secretion

c) Bicarbonate release

d) Gastric motility

95. Symbiotic bacteria in the large intestine produce:

a) Hydrochloric acid

b) Vitamin K and amino acids

c) Pancreatic enzymes

d) Bile salts

96. Glucose absorption in the small intestine occurs via:

a) Passive diffusion

b) Sodium/glucose cotransporter (SGLT1)

c) Lymphatic vessels

d) Chylomicron formation
97. Celiac disease directly impairs absorption in the:

a) Stomach

b) Esophagus

c) Small intestine

d) Large intestine

98. Assimilation refers to the:

a) Elimination of feces

b) Conversion of absorbed nutrients into body tissues

c) Mechanical breakdown of food

d) Secretion of digestive enzymes

99. The enteric nervous system (ENS) regulates digestion through:

a) Local reflexes

b) Insulin secretion

c) Vitamin synthesis

d) Bile concentration

100. Diarrhea results from insufficient absorption of:

a) Proteins

b) Fats

c) Water

d) Carbohydrates
101. Large animals require specialized respiratory organs because:

a) They produce less carbon dioxide

b) Diffusion becomes inadequate due to low surface-area-to-volume ratio

c) Their blood lacks hemoglobin

d) They exclusively inhabit aquatic environments

102. Gas exchange in human lungs occurs primarily in the:

a) Trachea

b) Bronchi

c) Alveoli

d) Diaphragm

103. The "dead space" in the respiratory system refers to:

a) Areas damaged by disease

b) Air in passageways not involved in gas exchange

c) Non-functional alveoli

d) Excess carbon dioxide in blood

104. Most oxygen (98.5%) in blood is transported by:

a) Dissolution in plasma

b) Binding to hemoglobin

c) Conversion to bicarbonate

d) Carbaminohemoglobin formation
105. The oxygen dissociation curve is sigmoidal (S-shaped) due to:

a) Linear oxygen binding

b) Hemoglobin's cooperative binding

c) Constant hemoglobin affinity

d) Low carbon dioxide levels

106. A rightward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve is caused by:

a) Decreased CO₂ levels

b) Increased temperature or decreased pH

c) Higher hemoglobin concentration

d) Reduced metabolic activity

107. The majority of carbon dioxide (85%) is transported as:

a) Dissolved gas in plasma

b) Carbaminohemoglobin

c) Bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻)

d) Carbon monoxide complexes

108. Carbonic anhydrase in red blood cells catalyzes:

a) Oxygen binding to heme

b) Conversion of CO₂ to carbonic acid

c) Hemoglobin synthesis

d) Chloride ion transport

109. Carbon monoxide (CO) is dangerous because it:

a) Stimulates excessive oxygen binding

b) Binds hemoglobin more tightly than oxygen

c) Converts hemoglobin to carbaminohemoglobin

d) Increases bicarbonate production

110. Immediate treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning involves:

a) Administering epinephrine

b) Providing 100% pure oxygen

c) Blood transfusion

d) Inducing hypothermia

111. Plasma proteins in blood include all EXCEPT:

a) Albumin

b) Globulin

c) Fibrinogen

d) Hemoglobin

112. Red blood cells (erythrocytes) are primarily responsible for:

a) Fighting infections

b) Transporting oxygen

c) Blood clotting
d) Producing antibodies

113. Mature mammalian red blood cells lack:

a) Hemoglobin

b) Nuclei

c) Iron

d) Cell membranes

114. The lifespan of a typical human red blood cell is approximately:

a) 30 days

b) 60 days

c) 120 days

d) 1 year

115. White blood cells (leukocytes) differ from red blood cells in that they:

a) Lack nuclei

b) Contain hemoglobin

c) Are involved in immune defense

d) Are produced in the spleen

116. The most abundant type of white blood cell in humans is the:

a) Lymphocyte

b) Monocyte
c) Neutrophil

d) Eosinophil

117. Platelets function primarily in:

a) Oxygen transport

b) Antibody production

c) Blood clotting

d) Nutrient absorption

118. During blood clotting, thrombin converts fibrinogen into:

a) Prothrombin

b) Thromboplastin

c) Fibrin

d) Albumin

119. A person with blood type O has:

a) Antigen A and antibody anti-B

b) Antigen B and antibody anti-A

c) Antigens A and B, no antibodies

d) No A/B antigens, antibodies anti-A and anti-B

120. The Rh factor is significant in blood transfusions because:

a) It determines ABO compatibility

b) Rh-negative individuals may develop antibodies against Rh-positive blood

c) It affects hemoglobin concentration

d) It is essential for platelet function

121. Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when:

a) An Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus

b) An Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus

c) ABO-incompatible blood is transfused

d) Platelet count is low

122. Mammals have a:

a) Open circulatory system

b) Closed circulatory system

c) Hemocoel-based circulation

d) Diffusion-driven circulation

123. The myocardium refers to the heart's:

a) Protective sac

b) Electrical conduction system

c) Muscular layer

d) Valves

124. Valves in the heart prevent:

a) Blood oxygenation

b) Backflow of blood

c) Platelet formation

d) Artery dilation

125. Arteries are characterized by:

a) Thin walls and low-pressure blood flow

b) Valves to prevent backflow

c) Thick muscular walls for high-pressure blood transport

d) Single-cell thickness for gas exchange

126. Capillaries are the site of:

a) Blood production

b) Nutrient/waste exchange with tissues

c) Oxygen binding to hemoglobin

d) Lymph filtration

127. Deoxygenated blood enters the heart via the:

a) Left atrium

b) Pulmonary veins

c) Right atrium

d) Aorta
128. Pulmonary circulation involves blood flow between the heart and:

a) The body

b) The lungs

c) The liver

d) The brain

129. The lymphatic system functions to:

a) Pump blood to the lungs

b) Produce red blood cells

c) Return leaked fluid to circulation and absorb fats

d) Synthesize hemoglobin

130. Atherosclerosis involves:

a) Clotting factor deficiency

b) Fatty plaque buildup in arteries

c) Low blood pressure

d) Excessive lymph production

131. Homeostasis refers to:

a) Constant internal conditions

b) Dynamic equilibrium within narrow limits

c) Permanent adaptation to external changes

d) Exclusive regulation by the nervous system

132. The functional unit of the kidney is the:

a) Glomerulus

b) Renal pyramid

c) Nephron

d) Collecting duct

133. Filtration in the nephron occurs in the:

a) Loop of Henle

b) Proximal convoluted tubule

c) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus

d) Distal convoluted tubule

134. Most reabsorption of nutrients (glucose, amino acids) occurs in the:

a) Collecting duct

b) Distal convoluted tubule

c) Proximal convoluted tubule

d) Loop of Henle

135. Tubular secretion primarily involves the movement of substances:

a) From blood to tubular fluid

b) From tubular fluid to blood

c) From urine to bloodstream

d) Between nephrons
136. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) directly affects water reabsorption in the:

a) Glomerulus

b) Proximal convoluted tubule

c) Loop of Henle

d) Collecting duct

137. Aldosterone primarily regulates the balance of:

a) Glucose and urea

b) Sodium and potassium ions

c) Hydrogen and bicarbonate ions

d) Calcium and phosphate

138. The Loop of Henle creates an osmotic gradient by:

a) Active water pumping in the descending limb

b) Countercurrent multiplication of ions

c) Secretion of urea in the ascending limb

d) Passive diffusion in the collecting duct

139. Desert mammals (e.g., kangaroo rat) conserve water by producing:

a) Dilute urine and moist feces

b) Concentrated urine and dry feces

c) Large volumes of urine

d) Uric acid instead of urea

140. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is activated by:

a) High blood pressure

b) Low blood pressure

c) Elevated blood oxygen

d) Decreased blood volume

141. Erythropoietin (EPO) is produced by the kidneys to:

a) Regulate blood pH

b) Stimulate red blood cell production

c) Increase sodium reabsorption

d) Break down urea

142. In acid-base balance, the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions and reabsorb:

a) Sodium ions

b) Potassium ions

c) Bicarbonate ions

d) Chloride ions

143. Large desert mammals (e.g., eland) minimize water loss by:

a) Panting continuously

b) Storing heat and limiting evaporative cooling

c) Producing dilute urine

d) Reducing fur insulation

144. Countercurrent heat exchange in arctic mammals prevents heat loss by:

a) Shivering thermogenesis

b) Transferring heat from arteries to veins in extremities

c) Increasing metabolic rate in limbs

d) Thickening fur in exposed areas

145. Daily torpor in small mammals (e.g., bats) is an adaptation to:

a) Conserve energy during inactivity

b) Enhance hunting efficiency

c) Increase reproductive success

d) Avoid predation

146. The two primary mechanisms for body coordination are:

a) Muscular and skeletal systems

b) Nervous and chemical (endocrine) systems

c) Respiratory and circulatory systems

d) Digestive and excretory systems

147. The central nervous system (CNS) consists of the:

a) Sensory and motor neurons

b) Brain and spinal cord

c) Autonomic and somatic divisions

d) Ganglia and nerves

148. The cerebellum primarily functions in:

a) Regulating heart rate and breathing

b) Coordinating balance and fine motor control

c) Processing sensory information

d) Controlling voluntary actions

149. Sensory neurons

(afferent neurons) transmit impulses:

a) From CNS to muscles

b) From sensory organs to CNS

c) Between neurons within CNS

d) To endocrine glands

150. The myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system is formed by:

a) Astrocytes

b) Oligodendrocytes

c) Schwann cells

d) Microglia

151. A reflex arc bypasses the brain to enable:

a) Long-term memory formation

b) Conscious decision-making

c) Rapid automatic responses

d) Hormone secretion

152. Hormones differ from neurotransmitters in that they:

a) Act only on adjacent cells

b) Are released into the bloodstream

c) Cause immediate muscle contraction

d) Transmit electrical signals

153. The "master gland" controlling other endocrine glands is the:

a) Thyroid gland

b) Adrenal gland

c) Pituitary gland

d) Pancreas

154. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) regulates:

a) Blood glucose levels

b) Sodium-potassium balance

c) Water reabsorption in kidneys

d) Uterine contractions
155. Insulin is secreted by the pancreas to:

a) Increase blood glucose

b) Decrease blood glucose

c) Stimulate glycogen breakdown

d) Raise calcium levels

156. The hormone that increases blood calcium levels by promoting bone resorption is:

a) Calcitonin

b) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

c) Aldosterone

d) Cortisol

157. Adrenaline (epinephrine) prepares the body for:

a) Rest-and-digest activities

b) Fight-or-flight responses

c) Long-term growth

d) Sleep cycles

158. Steroid hormones (e.g., cortisol) exert effects by binding to:

a) Cell surface receptors

b) Intracellular receptors

c) Neurotransmitter receptors

d) Ion channels
159. Negative feedback in hormonal regulation:

a) Amplifies hormone release

b) Reverses deviations from set points

c) Causes uncontrolled secretion

d) Is seen in oxytocin during childbirth

160. Hyposecretion of thyroid hormones causes:

a) Graves' disease

b) Hyperthyroidism

c) Hypothyroidism

d) Cushing's syndrome

161. Neurodegenerative diseases like Alzheimer's involve:

a) Excess hormone production

b) Progressive neuron degeneration

c) Autoimmune destruction of pancreas

d) Adrenal gland hypertrophy

162. Type 1 diabetes results from:

a) Insulin resistance

b) Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells

c) Excess glucagon secretion

d) Hypothyroidism
163. The hypothalamus integrates nervous and endocrine systems by regulating the:

a) Adrenal medulla

b) Thyroid gland

c) Pituitary gland

d) Pancreas

164. Positive feedback is exemplified by:

a) ADH in water balance

b) Insulin in glucose regulation

c) Oxytocin in childbirth

d) Calcitonin in calcium control

165. Microglia in the CNS function as:

a) Myelin producers

b) Immune cells

c) Neurotransmitter synthesizers

d) Hormone secretors

166. Maturation in humans involves:

a) Only physical growth

b) Physical, emotional, and cognitive development

c) Exclusively reproductive changes

d) Genetic changes without environmental influence

167. The growth spurt and development of secondary sexual characteristics occur during:

a) Infancy

b) Puberty

c) Late adulthood

d) Middle adulthood

168. Secondary sexual characteristics in females include:

a) Facial hair growth

b) Deepening of voice

c) Breast development and hip widening

d) Increased muscle mass

169. In males, sexual maturation is marked by:

a) Onset of menstruation

b) Enlargement of testes and growth of body hair

c) Reduction in metabolic rate

d) Decreased bone density

170. Emotional maturation primarily involves:

a) Synaptic pruning in the brain

b) Development of emotional regulation and interpersonal skills

c) Accumulation of abdominal fat

d) Decline in joint flexibility

171. Cognitive maturation during adolescence includes:

a) Transition from abstract to concrete thinking

b) Synaptic pruning and improved reasoning abilities

c) Loss of decision-making capacity

d) Reduced self-identity formation

172. Human sexuality encompasses:

a) Only biological reproductive functions

b) Physical, emotional, social, and spiritual dimensions

c) Exclusively heterosexual behaviors

d) Genetic factors without cultural influence

173. Cultural norms primarily influence sexuality by:

a) Dictating identical behaviors globally

b) Shaping attitudes and expressions based on societal beliefs

c) Eliminating personal experiences

d) Ignoring religious teachings

174. Religious beliefs impact sexuality by:

a) Standardizing expressions across all cultures

b) Providing teachings that shape sexual identity

c) Negating biological factors

d) Preventing emotional development

175. Heterosexuality refers to attraction to:

a) The same gender

b) The opposite gender

c) Both genders

d) No gender

176. Homosexuality involves attraction to:

a) The opposite gender

b) The same gender

c) Neither gender

d) All genders equally

177. Factors believed to influence homosexuality include:

a) Exclusively genetic factors

b) Only environmental factors

c) Combination of genetic, hormonal, and social factors

d) Religious teachings alone

178. Physical maturation in middle adulthood typically includes:

a) Growth spurts and muscle development

b) Decline in muscle mass and bone density

c) Onset of puberty

d) Rapid synaptic pruning

179. Late adulthood is characterized by:

a) Increased muscle strength and flexibility

b) Reduced susceptibility to chronic conditions

c) Noticeable decline in bone density and joint flexibility

d) Development of secondary sexual characteristics

180. Cognitive maturation enables:

a) Regression to concrete thinking

b) Improved problem-solving and abstract reasoning

c) Loss of emotional complexity

d) Decreased independence

181. Sperm production occurs in the:

a) Prostate gland

b) Epididymis

c) Seminiferous tubules

d) Vas deferens
182. The function of the epididymis is:

a) Production of testosterone

b) Storage and maturation of sperm

c) Secretion of seminal fluid

d) Transport of urine

183. Which gland contributes fructose-rich fluid to semen?

a) Prostate gland

b) Seminal vesicles

c) Bulbourethral gland

d) Cowper's gland

184. Fertilization typically occurs in the:

a) Uterus

b) Cervix

c) Ovary

d) Fallopian tube

185. The endometrium is the:

a) Outer layer of the uterus

b) Muscular wall of the uterus

c) Lining that thickens during the menstrual cycle

d) Site of egg production

186. Ovulation involves the release of an oocyte from the:

a) Corpus luteum

b) Ovarian follicle

c) Endometrium

d) Cervix

187. In males, luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates:

a) Sperm production

b) Testosterone secretion

c) Estrogen synthesis

d) Seminal fluid production

188. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) in females primarily:

a) Triggers ovulation

b) Stimulates follicle development

c) Thickens the endometrium

d) Maintains pregnancy

189. Progesterone is secreted by the:

a) Pituitary gland

b) Ovarian follicle

c) Corpus luteum

d) Hypothalamus
190. The surge in this hormone triggers ovulation:

a) Progesterone

b) Estrogen

c) Luteinizing hormone (LH)

d) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

191. Implantation of the blastocyst occurs in the:

a) Fallopian tube

b) Ovary

c) Uterine endometrium

d) Cervix

192. The placenta functions to:

a) Produce sperm

b) Exchange nutrients/waste between mother and fetus

c) Release estrogen only

d) Trigger ovulation

193. Organogenesis (organ formation) occurs during:

a) The germinal stage (Week 1–2)

b) The embryonic stage (Week 3–8)

c) The fetal stage (Week 9–birth)

d) After birth

194. The amniotic fluid primarily:

a) Produces hormones

b) Cushions and protects the fetus

c) Forms the placenta

d) Triggers labor contractions

195. During the fetal stage, development focuses on:

a) Fertilization

b) Rapid growth and functional maturation

c) Formation of germ layers

d) Implantation

196. Testosterone is produced by:

a) Sertoli cells

b) Leydig cells

c) Seminal vesicles

d) Epididymis

197. The menstrual cycle is regulated by:

a) Insulin and glucagon

b) FSH, LH, estrogen, and progesterone

c) Cortisol and adrenaline

d) Thyroxine and calcitonin

198. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is detected in pregnancy tests because it:

a) Triggers ovulation

b) Is produced by the fertilized egg after implantation

c) Stimulates sperm production

d) Maintains the endometrium pre-ovulation

199. The umbilical cord connects the fetus to the:

a) Cervix

b) Ovaries

c) Placenta

d) Fallopian tubes

200. Parturition (childbirth) is initiated by:

a) Rising progesterone levels

b) Surge in oxytocin and prostaglandins

c) Decrease in estrogen

d) Low hCG levels

For revision purposes only!

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