20/06/2025 B

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122015, Ph.+91-1244168300

MM : 720 OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur Time : 180 Min.

Physics

1. If the distance between two charges Q and –Q be 4. The uniform electric fields along positive y-axis and
doubled, the force of attraction between them will positive x-axis are shown in figure. The signs of potential
become difference VP – VQ and VB – VA respectively are
(A) Halved
(B) Four times
(C) One-fourth
(D) One-sixth

2. An electric dipole placed in a uniform electric field of

magnitude 2 N/C, experiences a maximum torque of
magnitude 5 × 10–3 N m. If the charges of the dipole
have a magnitude of 2 mC, then the length of the dipole
is
(A) 2 m
(B) 6 m (A) +, +
(C) 2.5 m (B) –, +
(D) 1.25 m (C) +, –
3. The flux of electric field through the surface bounded by (D) –, –
curve x2 + z2 = r2 placed in uniform electric field, given 5. An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential
→
difference of 200 V. Its final kinetic energy is
by E
ˆ ˆ ˆ
= ( i + 3 j + 10k) N/C
(A) 100 eV
(A) 4 π r2 (B) 200 eV

(B) 2 π r2 (C) 50 eV
(D) 400 eV
(C) π r2
6. Four point charges of 1 μC, 2 μC, 3 μC, and 4 μC, are
(D) 3 π r2 placed along x axis at x = 1 m, x = 2 m, x = 3 m and x = 4
m respectively. The electric field intensity at origin due to
first three charges is
(A) 18.75 kN/C
(B) 16.5 kN/C
(C) 16.5 N/C
(D) 33 kN/C

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OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

7. Two metal balls with radii r1 and r2 are at a distance R 11. A point charge q is kept on equatorial position of an
from each other and are connected to a battery of e.m.f. E. electric dipole of dipole moment p at distance r as shown
The force of interaction between the balls (r1 and r2 << R) in the figure. Electric potential at the centre of dipole is

2 2 2
2πε0 E r r

(A)
1 2

2 2
R (r1 + r2 )

2 2 2
4πε0 E r r

(B)
1 2

2 2
R (r1 + r2 )

2π ε0 Er1 r2
(C) 2
R (r1 + r2 )

2 2 2 2 2
16π ε0 E r1 r2
(D) 2 2
R (r1 + r2 )
p

(A) 4πε0 r2
8. The energy stored in 4 μF capacitor for the circuit shown
below is (B) Zero
q

(C) 4π ε0 r

p q

(D) 4πε0 r2
+
4π ε0 r

12. →
A dipole of dipole moment P is rotated inside a uniform
→
electric field E from its stable equilibrium position to
unstable equilibrium position slowly. Then work done by
external agent is
(A) 4 μJ
(A) – 2PE
(B) 1.8 μJ
(B) – PE
(C) 1.2 μJ
(C) + 2PE
(D) 8 μJ
(D) + PE
9. Consider the following statements
Statement I : Electric charge on any object is always 13. Five capacitors are joined in a circuit as shown in the
quantised. figure. The capacitance of each capacitor is 1.4 μF. The
Statement II : There is no law such as on quantization of equivalent capacitance between points A and B is
mass.
Choose the correct statement(s).
(A) Statement I only
(B) Statement II only
(A) Zero
(C) Both statements are correct
(B) 6 μF
(D) Both statements are incorrect
(C) 9 μF
10. Three point charges are placed as shown in the figure. S
is a gaussian surface. ϕ is the net flux passing through (D) 7 μF
surface S and E be the electric field at point P on the 14. An electric dipole is kept in the field of a point charge Q
surface, then
as shown in figure. If dipole is at origin, then net force on
the dipole is

(A) Along positive x-axis

(A) Flux ϕ is due to q1 and q3 only (B) Along negative x-axis

(B) Flux ϕ is due to q1 and q2 (C) Along positive y-axis

(D) Zero
(C) Electric field at point P is due to q1 and q2 only

(D) Flux ϕ is due to q3 only

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OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

15. A : Potential difference between two points do not depend 20. A parallel plate capacitor (not connected with battery)
on the choice of zero potential. having charge Q0, separation between plates d0 and
R : Potential at a point does not depend on the choice of area A0, is being pulled by external agent to increase the
zero potential. separation by 100%, then (symbols have their usual
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is meanings)
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion (A) E = Constant, V = Constant and Q = Constant
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B) (B) E = Constant, V increases and Q = Constant
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) E decreases, V decreases and Q decreases
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) E = Constant, V decreases and Q = Constant
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
21. The effective capacitance of combination of equal
16. If 64 similar charge drops each having charge of 2 μC capacitors between points A and B as shown figure is
combine to form a bigger drop, then the ratio of
capacitance of bigger drop to that of smaller drop is
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 3 : 1
(D) 4 : 1

17. Two identical point charges are placed at A and B. The

potential difference (Vo – Vc) is (k =
1

4πε0
)

(A) C
(B) 2C

(A) Zero (C) 3C

(D) 4C
(B) kQ

22. In bringing a proton towards another proton, the

(C)
√2kQ
electrostatic potential energy of the system
R

(A) Becomes zero

(D) (2− √2) kQ

(B) Increases
R

(C) Decreases
18. When five equal charges Q are placed at five vertices of a
regular hexagon then the net magnitude of electric field at (D) Remains same
the centre of hexagon with side a is
23. A : A gold leaf electroscope is used for detecting the
(A)
2KQ
presence of electric charge.
R : Gold leaf electroscope can be used to measure
2
a

KQ potential difference.
(B) a2
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
(C)
5KQ the correct explanation of the assertion
a2

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is

(B)
(D) KQ
not the correct explanation of the assertion
2
2a

(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

19. A charge of 2 μC is uniformly distributed on a spherical
shell of radius 5 m. Electric potential at the centre of (D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
sphere is
(A) Zero

(B) 4.5 × 103 V

(C) 7.2 × 103 V

(D) 3.6 × 103 V

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24. Two dipoles of dipole moments p1 and p2 are placed 27. A cube of side a has charge q at two diagonally opposite
inside the cube. The total electric flux coming out of the vertices as shown in the figure. The net electric potential
cube will be at the centre of the cube will be

(A) Zero
(B) Data insufficient
p2 − p1
(C) ε0

p1 + p2
(D) ε0

25. A uniform electric field of magnitude 3 × 103 N/C is

directed towards negative x-axis. Co-ordinates of point A
and B are shown in figure. The potential difference 4q

between A and B (VA – VB) along the arc of circle of (A) √3π ε0 a

radius 2 m is q

(B) √3π ε0 a

4q
(C) π ε0 a

q
(D) 2π ε0 q

28. Force between two point charges kept at a fixed

separation is F. If distance between point charges is
made 1.5 times of initial value then new force of
attraction/repulsion acting between them becomes

(A) 9

4
F

(A) 1800 V (B) 4

9
F

(B) –3000 V (C) 2

F
3

(C) –2400 V
(D) 3
F

(D) –1800 V 2

26. A : Charge cannot exist without mass. 29. Two concentric conducting spheres of radii r1 and r2 (r2 >
R : Mass cannot exist with charge. r1). Outer sphere is given a charge Q and inner sphere is
earthed, then choose the correct option
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A) [e = charge on electron]
the correct explanation of the assertion.
If Q is positive then electrons will flow from earth to
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B) (A) |Q|r2
not the correct explanation of the assertion. inner sphere, number of electrons =
r1 ×|e|

(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

If Q is negative then electrons will flow from inner
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements. (B) |Q|r1
sphere to earth, number of electrons =
r2 ×|e|

If Q is negative then electrons will flow from earth to

(C) inner sphere, number of electrons = |Q|r1

r2 ×|e|

(D) Both (1) and (3)

30. Inside a neutral conductor sample of arbitrary non-
spherical shape, a non-spherical cavity is present. There
is a point charge inside the cavity. The induced surface
charge density on the inner surface of cavity and outer
surface of the conductor respectively is
(A) Uniform and non-uniform
(B) Non-uniform and uniform
(C) Non-uniform on both surfaces
(D) Uniform on both surfaces

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31. In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) 37. The Young’s modulus of brass and steel are 1 × 1011
is followed by a statement of reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Young's modulus of a wire doesn't change N/m2 and 2 × 1011 N/m2 respectively. If wires of both
on stretching. materials, having same length, are loaded with same
Reason (R) : Area of a wire never changes on stretching. weight, then they both extend by 4 mm. Ratio of the radii
of two wires RB : RS is
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion (A) –
√2 : 1

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is (B)
–
(B) 1 : √2
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) 4 : 1
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) 1 : 4
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
38. A point object O is placed at distance of 30 cm from a
32. A planet revolving around the sun sweeps area A1 in 2 convex lens of focal length 15 cm as shown in the figure.
days, A2 in 4 days and A3 in 8 days. The ratio A1 : A2 : At what distance x from the lens should a convex mirror of
A3 is focal length 40 cm, be placed such that final image
coincides with the object?
(A) 1 : 2 : 4
(B) 1 : 4 : 8
(C) 2 : 5 : 6
(D) 4 : 8 : 1

33. For steel Y = 2 × 1010 Nm–2. The force required to

double the length of a steel wire of area 1 cm2 is (within (A) 18 cm

the elastic limit).
(B) 30 cm
(A) 4 × 106 N
(C) 22 cm
(B) 2 × 106 N (D) Final image can’t coincide with object

(C) 4 × 107 N 39. The surface tension and vapour pressure of water at
room temperature is approximately 7.28 × 10–2 N/m and
(D) 2 × 107 N
2.33 × 103 Pa respectively. The radius of smallest
34. Two wires of the same material and length are stretched spherical water droplet which can exist without
by the same force. Their masses are in the ratio 4 : 5. evaporation at this temperature is
Their elongations are in the ratio
(A) 3.15 μm
(A) 3 : 2
(B) 55.25 μm
(B) 11 : 4
(C) 6.25 μm
(C) 5 : 4
(D) 62.5 μm
(D) 4 : 9
40. The equation of continuity in flow of incompressible fluids,
35. Following four wires are made of same material. Which is based on conservation of
one will have greatest elongation when subjected to the
(A) Mass
same tension?
(B) Momentum
(A) Length 50 cm, diameter 0.5 mm
(C) Energy
(B) Length 100 cm, diameter 1 mm
(D) Both momentum and energy
(C) Length 200 cm, diameter 2 mm
(D) Length 300 cm, diameter 3 mm 41. Assertion: If a barometer is accelerated upwards the
level of mercury in the tube of barometer will decrease.
36. If a barometer carries water instead of mercury, the height Reason: In a lift accelerating upward, buoyancy on a
of column for a pressure equivalent to 75 cm of mercury body immersed in a fluid increase.
will be
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
(A) 90 cm the correct explanation of the assertion
(B) 900 cm Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) 750 cm
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) 1020 cm
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

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OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

42. The minimum work done to move a satellite of mass m 44. The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1
th of
revolving around the planet of mass M from altitude 3R to
4

its weight on the surface of earth (Radius R), is

infinity will be
(R is the radius of the planet) (A) 3R

(A) GM m

3R
(B) R

(B) GM m

8R (C) R

(C) GM m (D) 2R
R

45. When an elastic material with young’s modulus Y is

(D) GM m

2R subjected to a stretching stress ‘S’. Elastic energy stored

per unit volume of the material is
43. A glass capillary is put in a trough containing mercury.
The shape of the meniscus in the capillary is (A) S
2

2Y

(A) Concave
(B)
2
s Y

(B) Plane 2

(C) Convex (C) S

2Y

(D) May be concave or convex 2

(D) Y

2
S

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Chemistry

46. If elevation in boiling point for aqueous Na2SO4 having α 51. In pure water at 298 K, the electrode potential of H-
= 40% is ΔTb then its depression in freezing point would electrode will be (Given P = 10–14 atm)
H
be 2

Kb (A) 0 volt
(A) ΔTb × Kf

(B) 0.0591 volt

1.8×Kb
(B) ΔTb × Kf (C) – 0.0591 volt

ΔTb × Kf
(D) – 0.1182 volt
(C) 1.8×Kb
52. A mixture showing negative deviation from Raoult's law is
ΔTb × Kf
(D) Kb
(A) Hexane + Heptane
(B) Benzene + Toluene
47. The value of E
o

A
3+ 2+
/A
(in volt) will be
(C) Water + Ethanol
[Given, E
A
o
3+
/A
= x V and E
A
o
2+
/A
= −y V ]
(D) Nitric acid + Water
(A) –3x – 3y
53. At T K, molar conductance of 0.5 molar aqueous solution
(B) 3x + 2y of acetic acid is 16.48 Scm2 mol–1. The degree of
(C) –3x + 2y dissociation of acetic acid at the same concentration and

(D) 3x – 2y temperature is [Give λ°m (H+) and λ°m (CH3COO–) are

349.1 and 40.9 Scm2 mol–1 respectively]
48. The resistance and specific conductance of 0.1 M
solution of an electrolyte is 40 Ω and 0.014 S cm–1 (A) 0.04
respectively. For the 0.2 M solution of same electrolyte if (B) 0.5
resistance is 210 Ω, then the molar conductivity( in S cm²
(C) 0.004
mol–1) will be
(D) 0.09
(A) 13.33
(B) 5.55 54. If osmotic pressure of 60% solution of glucose is 1.2 atm
and that of 6.84% solution of cane sugar is 2.5 atm. The
(C) 6.28 osmotic pressure of the mixture containing equal volumes
of the two solution is
(D) 15.35
(A) 7.40 atm
49. On diluting aqueous solution of weak electrolyte to 100
times (B) 3.70 atm
Specific conductance increases but equivalent (C) 1.85 atm
(A)
conductance decreases (D) 2.50 atm
Molar conductance decreases but equivalent
(B) 55. Largest freezing point depression, is shown by
conductance increases
Specific conductance increases but molar (A) 0.1 m K4[Fe(CN)6]
(C)
conductance decreases
(B) 0.2 m C6H12O6
Specific conductance decreases but molar
(D) (C) 0.1 m Al2(SO4)3
conductance increases

50. Upon mixing of acetone and ethanol, which of the (D) 0.3 m KCl
following is not observed? 56. The conductivity of electrolyte increases with
(A) Δ Hmix > 0
(A) Viscosity of solvent
(B) Δ Smix > 0 (B) Dilution
(C) Δ Gmix > 0 (C) Temperature

(D) Δ Vmix > 0 (D) Solvation of ions

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OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

57. If 0
Λm ( CH3 COOH) = 390.7 S cm2 mol–1 and 0
λm ( H
+
) = 63. Select the incorrect statement during discharging of lead
storage battery//
349.7 S cm2 mol–1 then 0 ¯¯
¯
λm (CH3 CO O) (in S cm2 mol–
(A) PbO2 gets reduced
1) is
(B) Pb is oxidised
(A) 41
(C) Density of H2SO4 solution decreases
(B) 21
(D) Formation of PbSO4 takes place only at cathode
(C) 82
64. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(D) 20.5 Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
58. Which is not true for a standard hydrogen electrode? Assertion (A) : More the value of KH (Henry's Law
Constant), lesser will be solubility of gas in water.
(A) The hydrogen ion concentration is 1 M Reason (R) : CO2 is more soluble than H2 in water.
(B) Temperature is 25°C In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(C) Pressure of hydrogen is 1 atmosphere
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
It contains a metallic conductor which does not (A)
(D) the correct explanation of the assertion
adsorb hydrogen
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
59. The gas in tanks used by scuba divers for breathing (B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
contains
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(A) 78% N2
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(B) 11.7% He
65. Which of the following expression correctly represents the
(C) 32.1% O2 equivalent conductance of Al2(SO4)3 at infinite dilution?
(D) Both (2) & (3) (Given that λ and λ are the molar conductance at
o

Al
3+
o

SO
2−
4

60. Vapour pressure of a binary solution of A and B (in mm infinite dilution of the respective ions)
Hg) is equal to 140 + 120XA. Pure form vapour pressures o o

(A) 3λ
Al
3+
+ 2λ
SO
2−

of A and B respectively are 4

1 o 1 o
(A) 140 mm Hg, 260 mm Hg (B) 6
λ
Al
3+
+
6
λ
SO
2−
4

(B) 260 mm Hg, 140 mm Hg 1 o 1 o

(C) 3
λ
Al
3+
+
2
λ
SO
2−

(C) 240 mm Hg, 120 mm Hg 4

o o
(D) 120 mm Hg, 240 mm Hg (D) λ
Al
3+
+λ
SO
2−
4

61. A : Osmotic pressure is proportional to the molality of the 66. If 50% of acetic acid dimerises in a solvent and rest
solution. ionises, then its van’t Hoff factor is
R : Osmotic pressure is independent of temperature.
(A) 1
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A) (B) 1.25
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is (C) 0.75
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(D) 2
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
67. A : Limiting molar conductivity of weak electrolyte cannot
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements be obtained by extrapolation of Λ to zero concentration. m

R : At infinite dilution, strong electrolyte dissociates

62. Which condition is not satisfied for negative deviation of a completely.
binary solution?
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A) (ΔG)sol < 0 (A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(B) (ΔH)sol > 0 Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) (ΔS)sol > 0
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) (ΔV)sol < 0
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

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68. For strong electrolytes the values of molar conductivity at 75. van’t Hoff factor for Na2SO4 solution having 60%
infinite dilution are given below electrolyte dissociation is
Electrolyte 0
Λ m ( Sm
2 −1
mol )
(A) 3
BaCl2 X (B) 2.2
NaCl Y
(C) 1.8
NaOH Z
The molar conductance at infinite dilution for Ba(OH)2 is (D) 2.5
76. P and Q are two elements which form two compounds
(A) 2x + z – y
P2Q3 and PQ2. If 0.15 mole of P2Q3 weighs 15.9 g and
(B) x + 2(z – y) 0.15 mole of PQ2 weighs 9.3 g, then what are atomic
(C) x + y + z mass of P and Q?

(D) x – y + z P = 18 u
(A)
Q = 26 u
69. 0.01 molal aqueous solution of K4[Fe(CN)6] (assume
P = 26 u
complete dissociation) shows depression in freezing (B)
Q = 18 u
point equal to (Given : Kf for water = 1.86 K kg–1 mol)
P = 62 u
(C)
(A) 0.056 K Q = 36 u

(B) 0.074 K P = 31 u
(D)
Q = 40 u
(C) 0.093 K
77. Percentage purity of 150 g of CaCO3 sample which gives
(D) 0.0186 K
5.6 litre CO2 at STP on complete decomposition is
70. The colligative property which can provide molar mass of
proteins or polymers or other macromolecules with (A) 11.33%
greater precision is (B) 16.67%
(A) Relative lowering of vapour pressure (C) 23.77%
(B) Elevation of boiling point (D) 33.33%
(C) Depression in freezing point 78. The number of atoms in 67.2 L of NH3(g) at STP is
(D) Osmotic pressure
(A) 9 NA
71. What mass of urea be dissolved in 162 g of water so as to
decrease the vapour pressure of water by 10%? (B) 12 NA

(A) 30 g (C) 3 NA
(B) 90 g (D) 4 NA
(C) 60 g
79. Volume of CO2(g) obtained at STP by complete
(D) 45 g decomposition of 0.1 mol NaHCO3 is
72. Which of the following is used as antifreeze in (A) 2 L
automobile?
(B) 1.12 L
(A) Phenol
(C) 2.24 L
(B) Ethylene glycol
(D) 1.5 L
(C) Acetone
80. If mass ratio of N2 and O2 is 2 : 5, then the ratio of their
(D) Benzene
number of molecules will be
73. Limiting molar conductivity of which of the following ions (A) 7 : 8
is highest when aqueous solution of their salts are put
under an electric field? (B) 2 : 5

(A) Na+ (C) 16 : 35

(D) 2 : 3
(B) K+
81. An example of homogeneous mixture is
(C) Ca2+
(A) Copper
(D) Mg2+ (B) Oil and water
74. 45 g of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) is mixed with 600 g of (C) Alloy
water. Calculate (a) the freezing point depression and (b)
(D) Carbon dioxide
the freezing point of the solution

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82. Which among the following is not a pure substance? 87. When 0.1 mole of HCl is added to 1 litre of a buffer
solution containing 0.1 mole each of CH3 – COOH and
(A) Air
CH3 – COONa, the pH of resulting solution will be (pKa of
(B) Copper CH3COOH = 4.76)
(C) Gold
(A) 4.72
(D) Glucose
(B) 1.72
83. Among the following, maximum number of atoms are (C) 2.72
present in
(D) 7
(A) 14 g N2
88. Potassium salt of a monobasic organic acid has 13%
(B) 64 g SO2 potassium by mass. The minimum molecular weight of
the salt is (Atomic weight of K = 39)
(C) 88 g CO2
(A) 130
(D) 8 g H2
(B) 360
84. If mole fraction of H2SO4 in aqueous solution is 0.1 then
(C) 300
molality of H+ and SO ions respectively are (Assume
2−
4
(D) 320
100% ionisation of H2SO4)
89. 100 ml of HCl solution whose pH is 2, is diluted to 1 litre,
(A) 6.17 m, 6.17 m the pH of the resulting solution is
(B) 6.17 m, 12.34 m (A) 1
(C) 12.34 m, 6.17 m (B) 2
(D) 12.34 m, 12.34 m (C) 3
85. Select the incorrect statement regarding Dalton’s atomic (D) 2.5
theory
90. The volume occupied by one molecule of ethanol is
(A) Matter consists of indivisible atoms
(density of ethanol = 0.8 g/cm3)
(B) All atoms of a given element have identical properties
(A) 9.55 × 10–23 cm3
Compounds are formed when atoms of different
(C)
elements combine in fixed ratio (B) 6.30 × 10–23 cm3
(D) Atoms are created or destroyed in chemical reactions
(C) 13.60 × 10–23 cm3
86. Equimolar aqueous solution of which salt will give
highest pH? (D) 2.94 × 10–23 cm3

(A) NH4Cl

(B) CH3COONa

(C) CH3COONH4
(D) NaCl

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OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

Botany

91. Amorphophallus and Yucca are mainly pollinated by 97. Characteristics of a flower are as
a. Nectaries absent
(A) Wind b. Flowers packed into inflorescence.
(B) Water c. Well exposed stamens.
d. Light weighted, non-sticky pollens.
(C) Insects On the basis of above features, flower must be
(D) Birds (A) Hydrophilous
92. Read the following statements of Assertion (A) and (B) Anemophilous
Reason (R) and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) : Seeds of black pepper and beet are said (C) Entomophilous
to be perispermic. (D) Cleistogamous
Reason (R) : Remains of nucellus is seen in the mature
seeds of black pepper and beet. 98. How many meiotic divisions are required in a typical
flowering plant for the formation of 400 seeds?
Both Assertion & Reason are true and reason is the
(A)
correct explanation of the assertion (A) 800
Both Assertion & Reason are true but reason is not (B) 200
(B)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) 400
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) 500
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
99. Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of the
93. The features of seeds that help in their storage for food presence of which of the given organic material?
and to raise crops in the next season are
(A) Pollenkitt
(A) Small size and sticky seed coat
(B) Pectin
(B) Light weight and presence of endosperm
(C) Sporopollenin
(C) Water resistance and large sized cotyledon
(D) Hemicellulose
(D) Dehydration and dormancy
[Link] section contains 1 Match the column type question,
94. If a typical angiospermic anther has 25 microspore which has 2 Columns (Column I and Column II). Column I
mother cells in its each sporangium, calculate the total has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), column II has four
number of microspore tetrads, pollen grains and male entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Match the entries in Column I
gametes respectively produced by this anther. with the entries in Column II. Each entry in Column I may
match with one or more entries in Column II.
(A) 25, 100, 200 Four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given for this
(B) 100, 400, 800 question, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Match the column I with column II and select the correct
(C) 100, 100, 400 option.
(D) 50, 200, 400 Column
Column II
I
95. All the events from pollen deposition on the stigma until
pollen tube enters the ovule are together known as (A) Maize (P) Endospermous seeds

(A) Pollination Emasculation required during artificial

(B) Bean (Q)
hybridisation
(B) Pollen-pistil interaction (C) Castor (R) Monoecious plant
(C) Fertilization (D) Pea (S) Bisexual flowers
(D) Syngamy
(A) A(P, R); B(Q, S); C(P, R); D(Q, S)
96. Which of the following types of pollination is quite rare (B) A(P, R); B(P, S); C(Q, S); D(Q, R)
and limited to 30 genera of mainly monocots?
(C) A(P, R); B(Q, S); C(Q, S); D(P, R)
(A) Pollination by wind
(D) A(P, S); B(P, S); C(P, R); D(Q, S)
(B) Pollination by water
(C) Pollination by insects [Link] the grass family single large cotyledon is called
(A) Scutellum
(D) Pollination by honey bee
(B) Epiblast
(C) Testa
(D) Coleoptile

11
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

[Link] of the given plant features promotes autogamy but [Link] seed of which plant germinated and flowered after
never geitonogamy or xenogamy? 10,000 years of dormancy?
(A) Bisexual flowers (A) Orobanche
(B) Monoecious condition (B) Strobilanthus kunthiana
(C) Homogamy (C) Lupinus arcticus
(D) Cleistogamy (D) Phoenix dactylifera
[Link] of the plants growing in aquatic habitat bear [Link] of syngamy and triple fusion in the flowering plant is
colourful flowers with nectaries. Flowers of such plants
(A) Chalaza
are generally pollinated by
(A) Water (B) Anther

(B) Wind (C) Endosperm

(D) Embryo sac
(C) Biotic agents
(D) Abiotic agents only [Link] of the following condition is helpful for wind
pollination of flowers?
[Link] one is odd w.r.t. wind pollination?
(A) Sticky pollens
(A) Bamboo
(B) Flowers with nectar
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Well exposed stamens
(C) Sea grass
(D) Attractive colored petals
(D) Maize
111. Which of the following is not the floral reward for insects?
[Link] the following statements and select the correct
option.
Statement A: Pollen grains lose viability within 30 (A) Nectar
minutes of their release in all the members of Rosaceae, (B) Pollen
Leguminosae and Solanaceae.
Statement B: Pollen grains can be stored in liquid (C) Safe place to lay eggs
nitrogen at -196° C for years. (D) Fragrance of the flower
(A) Only statement A is correct [Link] pollen grains, sporopollenin is a constituent of
(B) Only statement B is correct
(A) Exine
(C) Both statements A and B are correct
(B) Intine
(D) Both statements A and B are incorrect (C) Vegetative cell
106.A: In angiosperms, the primary endosperm nucleus is (D) Generative cell
triploid.
R: In angiosperms, primary endosperm nucleus is formed [Link] plants in which their flowers are pollinated by water
by triple fusion. and insects are respectively
Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is (A) Water hyacinth and Zostera
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) Vallisneria and water lily
Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is
(B) (C) Salvia and Yucca
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(D) Water hyacinth and Salvia
(C) a. Assertion is true but reason is false. [Link] chemical dialogue between pollen grain and pistil is
known as
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. (A) Pollen-pistil interaction
107.A: A thick layer of fat is found below the skin of seals. (B) Microsporogenesis
R: Seals are aquatic mammals.
(C) Pollination
Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is
(A) (D) Fertilization
the correct explanation of the assertion.
Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) Both assertion and reason are false.

12
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

115.A typical angiospermic anther is [Link] of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a
(a) Bilobed different plant of the same species is called
(b) Tetragonal
(c) Tetrasporangiate (A) Autogamy
The correct ones is/are (B) Geitonogamy
(A) Only (a) (C) Cleistogamy
(B) All (a), (b), (c) (D) Xenogamy
(C) Only (a) and (c) [Link] of pollen tube into the embryo sac takes place from
(D) Only (a) and (b) a. Chalazal end
b. Micropylar end
[Link] the given figure and select the option that has all c. Integuments
the four parts (A, B, C & D) correctly labelled.
(A) Only a
(B) Only b
(C) Only b and c
(D) All a, b and c
[Link] which of the given plants flowers are asymmetric?
(a) Canna
(b) Cassia
(c) Bean
(d) Mustard
(e) Datura
Choose the correct one(s).
(A) Only (b)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (B) Both (c) and (e)
Aleurone
(1) Endosperm Coleoptile Coleorhiza (C) Both (d) and (e)
Layer
(2) Endosperm Coleoptile Scutellum Coleorhiza (D) Only (a)

(3) Endosperm Seed coat Scutellum Coleoptile [Link] female reproductive part occupies the highest
position and other parts are situated below it, the flower is
(4) Seed coat Endosperm Coleorhiza Coleoptile called
(A) (1) (A) Hypogynous with inferior ovary
(B) (2) (B) Hypogynous with superior ovary
(C) (3) (C) Epigynous with inferior ovary
(D) (4) (D) Epigynous with superior ovary
[Link] a majority of flowering plants, one out of four [Link] underground modified stem which stores food is
megaspores is functional and develops into
(A) Carrot
(A) Female gametophyte
(B) Radish
(B) Megasporangium
(C) Turmeric
(C) Megaspore mother cell
(D) Sweet potato
(D) Ovule
[Link] the odd one for axile placentation.
[Link] of anther from bisexual flower buds before the
anther dehisces is called (A) Lemon

(A) Bagging (B) Mustard

(B) Anthesis (C) Tomato

(C) Emasculation (D) China rose

(D) Artificial hybridisation [Link] calyx and corolla are not distinct then it is termed
as perianth as in
[Link] apparatus is a characteristic feature of
(A) Tulip
(A) Zygote
(B) Mustard
(B) Suspensor
(C) Bean
(C) Egg
(D) Petunia
(D) Synergid

13
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

[Link] many of the given features are related to plant family [Link] which live in some of the most harsh
to which Indigofera belongs? habitats such as extreme salty areas
(a) Diadelphous stamens
(A) Produce biogas from dung
(b) Bicarpellary ovary
(c) Vexillary aestivation (B) Are simple in organisation and behaviour
(d) Polypetalous corolla
(e) Non endospermic seeds (C) Synthesise food using bacterio-rhodopsin

(A) 5 (D) Are heterotrophs

(B) 4 [Link] mycelium is found in which of the following

fungi?
(C) 2 a. Albugo
(D) 3 b. Rhizopus
c. Aspergillus
128.A : The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic d. Mucor
material came from the experiments of Hershey and The correct one(s) is/are
Chase.
(A) b & c
R : Viruses that infect bacteria are called bacteriophages.
If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (B) c only
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1) (C) a & d
If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is (D) c & d
(B) not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark
(2) [Link] gynoecium is found in
a. Rose and China rose
If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then b. Mustard and Tomato
(C)
mark (3) c. Potato and Tulip
If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, d. Lotus and Brinjal
(D) Choose the correct one(s).
then mark (4)
(A) b and c
[Link] the following statements
a. Unicellular organisms . (B) a, c and d
b. DNA is packaged with histone.
c. Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan. (C) a and b
d. Membrane bound cell organelles are absent. (D) b only
e. Ribosomes-70S type.
f. Respiratory enzymes-associated with plasma [Link] Phycomycetes and Ascomycetes regarding
membrane. the points–Type of Mycelium and Fruiting body.
How many features are correct for all monerans?
[Link] the following statements w.r.t. fungi and select the
(A) All incorrect option.
(a) Aseptate and multinucleate fungal hyphae are
(B) All except `b'
referred as coenocytic.
(C) All except a' &c' (b) In oomycetes members, cellulosic cell wall is present.
(c) Fungal cellulose is made up of acetylgluco-samine
(D) d, e & f
(d) Septum in members of class basidiomycetes have no
[Link] the figures given below. Identify the pore.
characteristic structure present in them. (e) Fungal cells have unicisternal golgi bodies.
(A) (b), (c) & (e)
(B) (a), (c), (d) & (e)
(C) (d) only
(D) (b), (d) & (e)
(a) (b)
(1) Flagella Cilia
(2) Pseudopodia Flagella
(3) Cilia Siliceous wall
(4) Gullet Pellicle

(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)

14
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

Zoology

[Link] primary structure of a protein, methionine is located at [Link] the incorrect statement w.r.t. structure of a protein.
left end of polypeptide chain while glutamic acid is
located at right end. Which of the following statements is Primary structure gives the positional information of
(A)
amino acids in a protein
true with respect to above mentioned protein?
(B) In a protein, only left-handed helices are observed.
(A) Methionine is a C-terminal amino acid
(B) Glutamic acid is the first amino acid of the chain Tertiary structure gives a 3-dimensional view of a
(C)
protein
(C) Glutamic acid is N-terminal amino acid
Haemoglobin shows optimal activity at quaternary
(D)
(D) Methionine is the first amino acid of the chain level of organisation
[Link] : Certain secondary metabolites are useful to [Link] generally have _____ melting point than saturated
"human welfare". fats, hence remain _____ at room temperature.
Reason : Coloured pigments, rubber, scents and
(A) Higher, solid
antibiotics useful to humans are extracted from plants,
fungal and microbial cells. (B) Lower, liquid
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
option. (C) Higher, liquid

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (D) Lower, solid
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
[Link] is a representation of an enzymatic reaction
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is E

(B) S−G+S
′
→ S+S
′
−G
not the correct explanation of the assertion
Select the correct option which represents E for above
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false reaction
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements (A) Lyase

[Link]-4 is a X and is associated with Y . (B) Ligase

¯
¯¯¯
¯ ¯
¯¯¯
¯
Choose the option that correctly fill X and Y. (C) Transferase
X Y (D) Isomerase
¯
¯¯¯
¯ ¯
¯¯¯
¯
(1) Carbohydrate Glucose transport [Link] the following given statements and choose the
(2) Protein Ionic transport correct option.
Statement A : All the carbon compounds that we get from
(3) Lipid Protein transport living tissues can be called biomolecules.
(4) Protein Glucose transport Statement B : Living organisms do not possess
inorganic elements.
(A) (1)
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) (2)
(B) Both statements are incorrect
(C) (3)
(C) Only statement A is correct
(D) (4)
(D) Only statement B is correct
[Link] the analogy by selecting the correct option.
Collagen : Intercellular ground substance : : Receptor : [Link] of which of the following hormones is useful for
______ the treatment of allergy?

(A) Hormone (A) Aldosterone

(B) Sensory reception (B) Cortisol

(C) Fights infectious agents (C) Insulin

(D) Enables glucose transport in blood (D) ADH

[Link] is essential component of cell membrane of

animals. Cholesterol is an example of a
(A) Simple lipid
(B) Compound lipid
(C) Derived lipid
(D) Conjugated lipid

15
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

[Link] who lack the ability to produce aldosterone will [Link] of Graafian follicle is induced by
die if untreated because of
(a) Excessive loss of salt and water (A) Estrogen
(b) Drastically increased blood pressure (B) Prolactin
(c) Increase in level of K+ in blood (C) Luteinizing hormone
(d) Increase in level of Na+ in blood
Choose the correct option. (D) Follicle stimulating hormone

(A) (a) & (b) [Link] normal conditions, second polar body is released
after A in B region of female reproductive system.
(B) (b) & (d) Choose the option which fills the blanks correctly.
(C) (a) & (c) (A) A – First meiotic division, B – Ovary
(D) (a), (b), (c) & (d) (B) A – Second meiotic division, B – Cervix
147.A hormone which stimulates transport of glucose from (C) A – Second meiotic division, B – Ovary
blood to muscle and adipose cells and indirectly causing
(D) A – Second meiotic division, B – Oviduct
the liver to take up glucose thereby decreasing blood
glucose levels is [Link] products of gametogenesis in both sexes of humans
(A) Glucagon differ in all of the given aspects, except

(B) Insulin (A) Degree of motility

(C) Somatostatin (B) Size

(D) Inhibin (C) Chromosome number

[Link] of which hormone is affected by artificial light, (D) Arrangement of mitochondria

extended work time and reduced sleep time? [Link] male reproductive system of humans is located
(A) Prolactin (A) In the pelvis region
(B) Melatonin (B) Outside the pelvis region
(C) Oxytocin (C) Within a pouch called scrotum
(D) Insulin (D) Outside the abdomen
[Link] the incorrect statement regarding mechanism of [Link] scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of
hormone action. the testes necessary for
Estrogen is a lipid-soluble hormone capable of (A) Spermatogenesis
(A)
diffusing inside the cell.
(B) Spermiation
Glucagon is a peptide hormone which does not enter
(B) (C) Fusion of gametes
the target cell.
Epinephrine attaches to the receptor present on the (D) Insemination
(C)
target cell surface.
[Link] organ which is made up of special tissue that helps
Iodothyronines interact with membrane bound in its erection to facilitate insemination is called
(D)
receptors to regulate gene expression.
(A) Rete testis
[Link] pituitary dwarfs and cretins are somewhat of same
(B) Penis
height, the main difference is that
(C) Vagina
(A) Head of cretin is larger
(D) Cervix
(B) Cretin dwarfs have long extremities
Pituitary dwarfs have normal intelligence while cretins
(C)
do not
(D) Pituitary dwarfs are with dark complexion
[Link] is a peptide hormone secreted from the
(A) Atrial wall
(B) Ventricular wall
(C) JG cells
(D) Cells in blood vessels

16
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

[Link] is diagrammatic section view of ovary. [Link] both the ovaries are removed surgically, the level of
which hormone is decreased in blood?
(A) Gonadotropin
(B) Oxytocin
(C) Prolactin
(D) Estrogen
[Link] canal for parturition in human females is formed by
(A) Only vagina
(B) Uterus and oviduct
(C) Cervical canal and vagina
Select the option which gives the correct identification of
A, B, C and D with function/characteristics. (D) Only cervical canal
A – Corpus luteum, secretes large amounts of [Link] whose elevated levels are detected through kits
(A)
progesterone for the maintenance of endometrium. to indicate ovulation is
B – Ovum, released from the ovary after the (A) hCG
(B)
completion of second meiotic division.
(B) Progesterone
C – Corpus luteum, secretes estrogen to maintain
(C) (C) LH
endometrium.
D – Graafian follicle, containing primary oocyte in (D) Estrogen
(D)
meiosis-I.
[Link] spaces in human testis does not contain
159.A 30 year old female has menstrual cycle of 32 days.
(A) Leydig cells
How many days before the start of menstruation would
ovulation occur? (B) Small blood vessels
(A) 18 days (C) Sertoli cells
(B) 14 days (D) Immunologically competent cells
(C) 16 days [Link] set of structures share similar ploidy levels?
(D) 12 days (A) Spermatogonia, ovum
[Link] the following columns and select the correct (B) Spermatid, secondary oocyte
option.
(C) Ootid, primary oocyte
Column I Column II
(D) Spermatozoa, primary spermatocyte
a. Primary oocyte (i) Arrested at
prophase - I [Link] implantation, finger like projections called chorionic
b. Zona pellucida (ii) Granulosa cells villi are formed by
c. Corona radiata (iii) Glycoproteinaceous (A) Trophoblast
acellular layer
(B) Maternal blood
d. Secondary oocyte (iv) Arrested at
metaphase-II (C) Inner cell mass
(A) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (D) Uterine tissue
(B) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) [Link] of corona radiata and perivitelline space is
associated with
(C) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(A) Ovum
(D) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(B) Leydig cells
[Link] (A): Inner cell mass carries the potential to
differentiate into all the three germ layers. (C) Nurse cells
Reason (R): Inner cell mass contains the stem cells.
(D) Stem cells
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below. [Link] membrane formed by the secondary oocyte is
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (A) Theca layer
(A)
explanation of (A)
(B) Zona pellucida
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(B) (C) Corona radiata
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false (D) Vitelline membrane

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true

17
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

170.A : FSH induces follicular growth while LH is responsible 174.A : In humans, testes are situated outside the abdominal
for final maturation and rupture of follicle. cavity in scrotum to facilitate spermatogenesis.
R : Nearing ovulation, granulosa cells become sensitive R : This pouch like structure helps in maintaining the low
to LH while in the initial stage they respond to FSH. temperature of the testes necessary for spermatogenesis
along with the help of certain muscles.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
[Link] the first trimester of pregnancy, which of the following
structures is a primary producer of estrogen and [Link] uterine contractions during labor are less than normal,
progesterone? then the hormone injected to induce delivery is
(A) Corpus albicans (A) LH, estrogen
(B) Corpus luteum (B) Pitocin/ Oxytocin
(C) Placenta (C) Progesterone
(D) Chorion (D) FSH

[Link] the following statements regarding human [Link] of the following structure produces hCG and hPL?
embryonic development and choose the incorrect
(A) Umbilical cord
statement.
(B) Placenta
(A) Umbilical cord carries only foetal blood
(B) All three germ layers are derived from inner cell mass (C) Yolk sac
(D) Inner cell mass
Duration of pregnancy and timing of delivery does not
(C)
involve any role of CRH, ACTH and cortisol [Link] placenta formation in humans the maternal tissue
The first movements of foetus are usually observed which is in contact with chorion of foetus is
(D)
during the fifth month of pregnancy (A) Uterine epithelium
[Link] sectional view of mammary gland is given (B) Maternal connective tissue
in following figure. Identify A, B, C, and D correctly
(C) Endothelium of maternal capillaries
(D) Maternal blood
[Link] would be the likely result if blood testes barrier is
breached?
(A) Production of testosterone declines
(B) Autoimmunity develops against one’s own sperms
(C) Sertoli cells get damaged
(D) Production of testosterone increases

(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)

18
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

[Link] menstrual cycle, in a non-pregnant female, event

unlikely to occur is
Shedding of endometrium due to reduced level of
(A)
progesterone
(B) Ovulation in mid of the cycle
(C) Positive feedback by progesterone causing LH surge
(D) Repair of endometrium under estrogen influence
[Link] the correct option w.r.t. folliclular stages of
ovarian cycle
Column I Column II

Primary Have primary oocyte arrested in

(a)
follicles metaphase-I of meiosis-I

Releases secondary oocyte

Secondary
(b) arrested in metaphase-II of
follicles
meiosis-II
Tertiary
(c) Have avascular theca interna
follicles
Graafian Releases secondary oocyte in the
(d)
follicles abdominal cavity

(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)

19