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OYM TE01 - Answer Key

The document contains a detailed answer key for a physics, chemistry, botany, and zoology examination, including a series of questions and their corresponding answers. Each subject is organized numerically, with answers indicated by letters (A, B, C, D). Additionally, there are hints and solutions provided for some of the physics questions, explaining the reasoning behind the answers.

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sariyalanushka
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© © All Rights Reserved
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
34 views21 pages

OYM TE01 - Answer Key

The document contains a detailed answer key for a physics, chemistry, botany, and zoology examination, including a series of questions and their corresponding answers. Each subject is organized numerically, with answers indicated by letters (A, B, C, D). Additionally, there are hints and solutions provided for some of the physics questions, explaining the reasoning behind the answers.

Uploaded by

sariyalanushka
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

20/06/2025 B

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122015, Ph.+91-1244168300
MM : 720 OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur Time : 180 Min.

Physics

1. (C) 24. (A)

2. (D) 25. (D)

3. (D) 26. (C)

4. (C) 27. (B)

5. (B) 28. (B)

6. (B) 29. (B)

7. (B) 30. (C)

8. (D) 31. (C)

9. (C) 32. (A)

10. (B) 33. (B)

11. (C) 34. (C)

12. (C) 35. (A)

13. (D) 36. (D)

14. (C) 37. (A)

15. (C) 38. (B)

16. (D) 39. (D)

17. (D) 40. (A)

18. (B) 41. (B)

19. (D) 42. (B)

20. (B) 43. (C)

21. (B) 44. (C)

22. (B) 45. (A)

23. (C)

Chemistry

46. (D) 69. (C)

47. (B) 70. (D)

48. (A) 71. (C)

49. (D) 72. (B)

1
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

50. (C) 73. (C)

51. (A) 74. (.)

52. (D) 75. (B)

53. (A) 76. (B)

54. (C) 77. (B)

55. (D) 78. (B)

56. (C) 79. (B)

57. (A) 80. (C)

58. (D) 81. (C)

59. (D) 82. (A)

60. (B) 83. (D)

61. (D) 84. (C)

62. (B) 85. (D)

63. (D) 86. (B)

64. (B) 87. (C)

65. (C) 88. (C)

66. (B) 89. (C)

67. (B) 90. (A)

68. (B)

Botany

91. (C) 114. (A)

92. (A) 115. (B)

93. (D) 116. (B)

94. (B) 117. (A)

95. (B) 118. (C)

96. (B) 119. (D)

97. (B) 120. (D)

98. (D) 121. (B)

99. (C) 122. (D)

100. (A) 123. (B)

101. (A) 124. (C)

102. (D) 125. (B)

103. (C) 126. (A)

104. (C) 127. (B)

105. (B) 128. (B)

106. (A) 129. (D)

107. (B) 130. (D)

2
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

108. (C) 131. (D)

109. (D) 132. (B)

110. (C) 133. (A)

111. (D) 134. (.)

112. (A) 135. (C)

113. (B)

Zoology

136. (D) 159. (B)

137. (A) 160. (D)

138. (D) 161. (A)

139. (B) 162. (D)

140. (C) 163. (C)

141. (B) 164. (C)

142. (B) 165. (C)

143. (C) 166. (B)

144. (C) 167. (A)

145. (B) 168. (A)

146. (C) 169. (B)

147. (B) 170. (A)

148. (B) 171. (B)

149. (D) 172. (C)

150. (C) 173. (B)

151. (A) 174. (A)

152. (C) 175. (B)

153. (D) 176. (B)

154. (C) 177. (D)

155. (A) 178. (B)

156. (A) 179. (C)

157. (B) 180. (D)

158. (A)

3
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

Hints and Solutions

Physics

(1) Answer : (C)


Solution:
kq1 q2
F =
r2

kq1 q2

F = 2
(2r)


= 4
F

′ F
F =
4

(2) Answer : (D)


Solution:
→ → →
Hint: τ = P × E

→ → →
Sol.: τ = P × E
–3
τ = (qd)E = 2 × 10 ×d×2
max

–3

d =
5×10

–3
= 1.25 m
4×10

(3) Answer : (D)


Solution:

2
A = π r ĵ


ˆ ˆ ˆ
E = i + 3 j + 10k

→ →
Q = E ⋅ A

= 3 π r2

(4) Answer : (C)


Hint:

Electric potential decreases in the direction of E

Solution:

VP > VQ and VA > VB


VP – VQ = +ve
VB – VA = – ve.

(5) Answer : (B)


Solution:
ΔK = eV
Kf = 200 eV

(6) Answer : (B)


Hint:
q
Use E = 4πε0
1

r2
and superposition principle.
Solution:
→ → → →
E = E 1 + E 2 + E 3

→ −6
10 1 2 3
E = [ + + ] (− î )
4πε0 2 2 2
1 2 3

4
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

3 1 1 ˆ
= 9 × 10 [1 + + ] (− i )
2 3

3 11
= 9 × 10 × (− î )
6

kN
= 16.5 (− î )
C

(7) Answer : (B)


Solution:

V1 – V2 = E
Kq K(−q)
− = E
r1 r2

Er1 r2
q =
K(r1 + r2 )
…(i)
Kq1 q2
F =
2
R

2 2
Kq K Er1 r2
F = = ( )
2 2
R R K(r1 + r2

2 2 2
4πε0 E r r
1 2
F =
2 2
R (r1 + r2 )

(8) Answer : (D)


Solution:
On arranging the circuit, we get

Energy stored in 4 μF
1 2
= × 4 × (2) μJ
2

= 4 × 2 μJ
= 8 μJ

(9) Answer : (C)


Solution:
General properties of field lines prove the statement to be true.

(10) Answer : (B)


Solution:
As per Gauss’s law flux electric flux through a closed surface depends only on enclosed charges while electric field at
any point depends on all the charges.

(11) Answer : (C)


Hint:
Potential at the centre of dipole is zero, due to its own charges.
Solution:
Step 1: Potential at the centre of dipole due to its own charge,
V1 = 0

Step 2: Potential due to point charge q at the given point,


q
V2 =
4π ε0 r

So total electric potential, V = V1 + V2 =


q

4π ε0 r

(12) Answer : (C)


Solution:
W = PE (cosθi – cosθf )
where θi = 0° and θf = 180°
∴ W = 2PE

(13) Answer : (D)

5
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

Hint:
1 1 1 1
Cp = C1 + C2 + C3 + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ and = + + +⋅⋅⋅
Cs C1 C2 C3

Solution:

After rearranging the circuit we get that all capacitors are in parallel.
Hence Cp = 5C
= 5 × 1.4 μF
= 7 μF

(14) Answer : (C)


Solution:

Force on point charge Q is downward due to dipole, therefore force on dipole due to charge is upward i.e., along +y-
axis.
(15) Answer : (C)
Solution:
Potential difference is independent of choice of reference but potential at a point is depends on refrence point.
∴ Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(16) Answer : (D)


Solution:
Radius of bigger drop
R = 4r
Charge of bigger drop = 64 × (2 μC)
Now, capacitance of bigger drop,
C1 = 4 π ε0R = 4 π ε0(4r)
Capacitance of smaller drop,
C2 = 4 π ε0r

C1 4
=
C2 1

(17) Answer : (D)


Hint:
kqi
V = ∑
ri

Solution:
2kQ
Vo = R

2kQ – kQ
Vc = √2R
= √2
R

(2–√2)kQ
Vo – Vc = R

(18) Answer : (B)


Solution:
If 6 charges were present, then net electric field will be zero at centre. So due to 5 charges, it will have magnitude equal
to that due to one charge.
∣ ∣ KQ
E =
∣ net ∣ a
2

(19) Answer : (D)


q 9 −6

Solution: V =
4πε0
1

r
=
9× 10 ×2× 10

5
= 3.6 × 10
3
V

(20) Answer : (B)


Hint:
If battery is not connected, then charge remains constant.
Solution:

6
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

E= σ

ε0
is independent of space between plates.
(1) Q = constant
(2) E = constant
(3) V = Ed ↑ [∵ d increases]
ε0 A
(4) C = d

(21) Answer : (B)


Solution:
The circuit becomes

(22) Answer : (B)


Solution:
Kq1 q2
U =
r

∵ q1 q2 > 0 , hence if separation is decreased then potential energy increases.

(23) Answer : (C)


Solution:
Potential difference cannot be measured using gold leaf electroscope.
(24) Answer : (A)
Solution:
Net charge enclosed is zero hence total electric flux will be zero.
(25) Answer : (D)
Hint:
→ −→
ΔV = – E . Δr and VA < VB .
Solution:
3 V
ΔV =– 3 × 10 × (0.6) m.
m

= –3 × 0.6 × 103 V
VA – VB =– 1800 V

(26) Answer : (C)


Solution:
Neutral bodies don't have any charge. So, mass can exist without charge.

7
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

(27) Answer : (B)


Solution:
q
V = ( )×2
4π ε0 r

√3a
r = ( )
2

q
So, V =
√3π ε0 a

(28) Answer : (B)


Solution:
kq1 q2 1
F = ⇒ F ∝
r2 r2

4
F' = F
9

(29) Answer : (B)


Solution:

Potential at the surface of inner sphere.


1 Q
V =
4πε0 r2

Now, when earth say q charge flows between earth and sphere.
1 q 1 Q
O = +
4πε0 r1 4πε0 r2


Qr1
q = −
r2

⇒ Number of electrons
q |Q|r1
n = =
e r2 |e|

(30) Answer : (C)


Hint:
Electrostatics of a conductor
Solution:
The charge distribution on inner surface of cavity depends on shape and distances from enclosed charge while on
outer surface, the radius of curvature is the deciding factor.

(31) Answer : (C)


Solution:
On stretching a wire, its length and area changes while its Young's modulus of elasticity remains constant.
(32) Answer : (A)
Hint:
Areal velocity of planet remains constant
Solution:
A1 A2 A3
= = = k ( constant)
2 4 8

∴ A1 : A2 : A3 = 2 : 4 : 8 = 1 : 2 : 4

(33) Answer : (B)


Solution:
Stress required to double the length is equal to Young’s modulus.
F 10 −4
Y = ⇒ F = Y ⋅ A = 2 × 10 × 10
A

6
= 2 × 10 N

(34) Answer : (C)


Solution:
Fl 1
Y = or Δl ∝
AΔl A

Again, m = Alρ

8
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

or m ∝ A
∴ Δl ∝ 1

Δl1 m2 5
= =
Δl2 m1 4

(35) Answer : (A)


Solution:
FL
Y = 2
π r ΔL

Keeping Y and F constant


L L
ΔL ∝ 2
or 2
r d

(36) Answer : (D)


Hint:
P = ρgh
Solution:
P = ρmghm = ρwg hw
75 3 3
P = × 13.6 × 10 × 9.8 = h × 10 × 9.8
100

75
h = × 13.6 = 10.20 m = 1020 cm
100

(37) Answer : (A)


Hint:
FL FL
ΔL = ⇒ A =
AY Y ΔL

Solution:
2
AB YS RB 2 RB –
= ⇒ ( ) = ⇒ = √2
AS YB RS 1 RS

(38) Answer : (B)


Solution: B
(39) Answer : (D)
Hint:
Use excess pressure due to surface tension.
Solution:
Given vapour pressure P = 2.33 × 103 Pa
Surface tension S = 7.28 × 10–2 N/m
The drop will evaporate if water pressure is greater than the vapour pressure.
Let R is radius of water droplet formed, then
2S
P =
R

−2
2S 2×7.28×10
R = =
P 3
2.33×10

= 6.25 × 10–5 m
= 62.5 μm

(40) Answer : (A)


Solution:
Equation of continuity in flow of fluids is based on conservation of mass.

(41) Answer : (B)


(42) Answer : (B)
Solution:
NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part-I, Page No. 202
(43) Answer : (C)
Solution:
The meniscus of liquid in a capillary tube will be convex upwards if the angle of contact is obtuse. It is so when one end
of glass capillary tube is immersed in a trough of mercury. The reason for meniscus to be convex is due to greater force
of cohesion as compared to adhesion force.

(44) Answer : (C)


Hint:
GM ′ GM
g = 2
g = 2
R (R+h)

Solution:
′ g
g =
4

GM 1 GM

2
= 2
(R+h) 4 R

⇒ R + h = 2R

9
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

⇒h=R

(45) Answer : (A)


Solution:
1
u =
2

2
1 3 S
= S× =
2 Y 2Y

Chemistry

(46) Answer : (D)


Solution:
ΔTb = i × Kb × m … (i)
and ΔTf = i × Kf × m … (ii)
ΔTb Kb ΔTb × Kf
∴ = ∴ ΔTf =
ΔTf Kf Kb

(47) Answer : (B)


Hint:
Δ G° = −nF E
o

cel l
, is an extensive property.
Solution:
A
3+
+ 3e

→ A ,
o
E1 = x V

A
2+
+ 2e

→ A ,
o
E = −y V
2

A
+3
+ e

→ A
2+
,
E3
o
=?

o o o
Δ G3 = Δ G1 − Δ G2

o
−1 × E × F = (−3 × x × F ) − (−2 × (−y) × F )
3

o
E = 3x + 2y
3

(48) Answer : (A)


Hint:
κ×1000
∧m =
M

Solution:
For 0.1 M solution, κ = c×

1 ℓ
0.014 = ×
40 a

ℓ −1
∴ = 0.014 × 40 cm
a

For 0.2 M solution,


1
( × 0.014× 40)×1000
κ× 1000 210

∧m = =
M 0.2

=13.33 S cm² mol–1


(49) Answer : (D)
Hint:
On dilution, total number of ions in solution increases, but total number of ions per unit volume decreases.
Solution:
On dilution specific conductance decreases, but molar conductance and equivalent conductance increase.

(50) Answer : (C)


Hint:
Mixing of acetone and ethanol is a spontaneous process which shows positive deviation from Raoult's law
Solution:
For solution showing positive deviation ΔS > 0, ΔG < 0 and ΔH mix > 0. mix mix

(51) Answer : (A)


Hint:
o 0.0591 P
ERP = E − log 10 [ ]
RP n R

Solution:
In pure H2O, [H
+
] = 10
−7
mol/L and E
H
o
+
/H2
= 0 V

10
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

+ −
2H (aq) + 2 e → H2 (g)

(PH )
.0591 2
o
ERP = E − log 10 [ ]
RP 2 + 2
(H )

−14
(10 )
0.0591
= 0− log = 0
2 2
−7
(10 )

(52) Answer : (D)


Solution:
Hint : If A—B interactions > A—A or B—B interactions then the mixture shows negative deviation from Raoult's law.
(53) Answer : (A)
Hint:
c
Λm
Degree of dissociation of weak electrolyte : α =
Λ°m

Solution:
Λ°m (CH3COOH) = λ°m (H+) + λ°m(CH3COO–)
= 349.1 + 40.9
= 390.0 Scm2 mol–1
c
Λm 16.48
α = = = 0.042
Λ°m 390

(54) Answer : (C)


Solution:
π fVf = π 1 V1 + π 2V2
1.2 V+2.5 V 3.7 V
π f= 2 V
=
2 V
= 1.85 atm

(55) Answer : (D)


Solution:
ΔTf = iK f m = 0.1 × 5 Kf = 0.5 Kf ( K4 [Fe(CN) ]6 )

ΔTf = iK f m = 0.2 × 1 Kf = 0.2 Kf ( C6 H12 O6 )

ΔTf = iK f m = 0.1 × 5 Kf = 0.5 Kf ( Al2 ( SO4 ) )


3

ΔTf = iK f m = 0.3 × 2 Kf = 0.6 Kf (KCl)

(56) Answer : (C)


Solution:
The conductivity of electrolyte increases with temperature
(57) Answer : (A)
Solution:
0 0 + 0 ¯¯
¯
Λm (CH3 COOH) = λm (H ) + λm (CH3 CO O)

0 ¯¯
¯
390. 7 = 349. 7 + λm (CH3 CO O)

0 ¯¯
¯
λm (CH3 CO O) = 390. 7– 349. 7 = 41 S cm2 mol–1

(58) Answer : (D)


Solution:
Metallic conductor Which adsorb gas can act as gas electrode
(59) Answer : (D)
Solution:
11.7% Helium, 56.2% nitrogen and 32.1% oxygen.
(60) Answer : (B)
Solution:
PT = PA0XA + PB0XB = PA0XA + PB0(1 – XA)
PT =PB0 + (PA0 – PB0)XA
PB0 = 140 mmHg, PA0 – PB0 = 120
PA0 = 120 + 140 = 260 mmHg

(61) Answer : (D)


Solution:
π = CRT
π∝C

11
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

π∝T
(C = Molarity)

(62) Answer : (B)


Solution:
In negative deviation average interaction of A–B molecules is more than average interactions of A–A or B–B molecules.
Therefore ΔH will be negative.

(63) Answer : (D)


(64) Answer : (B)
Solution:
The solubility of a gas in liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid.
1
[∵ Solubility ∝ ]
KH

(65) Answer : (C)


Solution:
o
λ

o m
λ =
eq n-factor

(Al3+) + (SO42–)
o o o
λ (Al2(SO4)3) = λ λ
eq eq eq

= 1

3
o
λm (Al
3+
)+
1

2
o
λm (SO
2−

4
)

(66) Answer : (B)


Solution:
0.5
i = (0. 5) × 2 + = 1. 25
2

(67) Answer : (B)


Solution:


For strong electrolytes, Λm increases slowly with dilution and can be represented by the equation 0
Λm = Λm − A√C .

(68) Answer : (B)


Solution:
Ba(OH)2 = BaCl2 + 2(NaOH) − 2(NaCl)

(69) Answer : (C)


Solution:
ΔTf = iKfm
K4[Fe(CN)6] → 4K+ + [Fe(CN)6]4–
i=5
ΔTf = 5 × 1.86 × 0.01 = 0.093 K

(70) Answer : (D)


Solution:
Osmotic pressure measurement is used to determine molar mass of proteins or polymers or other macromolecules.

(71) Answer : (C)


Solution:
po – ps = p
10

100

0
p − ps

0
= 0.1
p

n
urea
0.1 = n + NH O
2
urea

0.1 = w
60

162
+
60 18

w = 60 g
(72) Answer : (B)
Solution:
Ethylene glycol is added to car radiators to prevent freezing of water as depression of freezing point is observed.
(73) Answer : (C)
Hint:
Molar conductivity increases with charge.
Solution:

12
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

Ions λ° / (S cm2 mol–1)

Na+ 50.1

K+ 73.5

Ca2+ 119.0

Mg2+ 106.0

(74) Answer : .
Solution:
(a) Moles of ethylene glycol =
45

62
= 0. 73 mol

Mass of water in kg =
600

1000
= 0. 6 kg

0.73 mol
Molality = = 1. 2 mol kg
−1

0.60 kg

ΔTf = Kf × m
= 1.86 × 1.2 = 2.2 K
(b) Freezing point of the aqueous solution = 273.15 K – 2.2 K
= 270.95 K

(75) Answer : (B)


Solution:
+ 2−
Na2 SO4 → 2 Na + SO4

1 – 0.6 2 × 0.6 0.6


= 0.4 = 1.2
∴ i = 0.4 + 1.2 + 0.6 = 2.2
(76) Answer : (B)
Solution:
0.15 =
15.9

2P+3Q
… (i) for P2Q3
0.15 =
9.3

P +2Q
… (ii) for PQ2
On solving (i) & (ii)
P = 26 u
Q = 18 u
(77) Answer : (B)
Hint:
1 mole CaCO3 gives 1 mole CO2 on complete decomposition.
Solution:
CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
5.6
nCO
2
= nCaCO
3
= = 0 .25 mole
22.4

wCaCO = 0 .25 ×100 = 25 g


3

% purity = 25

150
× 100 = 16.67%

(78) Answer : (B)


Solution:
n= 67.2

22.4
= 3 mol NH3 = 12 NA atoms

(79) Answer : (B)


Hint:
2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
Solution:
∵ 2 mol NaHCO3 gives 1 mol CO2(g)
∴ 0.1 mol NaHCO3 will give 0.05 mol CO­2
= 0.05 × 22.4 L CO2 at STP
= 1.12 L
(80) Answer : (C)
Hint:

13
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

Given mass
Number of moles =
Molar mass

Solution:
N2 : 2x g and O2 : 5x g
Mole of N2 = 2x

28

Mole of O2 =
5x

32

2x

Mole of N2 28 2x 32 16
= 5x
= × =
28 5x 35
Mole of O2
32

Mole ratio and ratio of molecules will remain same.


(81) Answer : (C)
Solution:
Alloy is the homogeneous solid solution.

(82) Answer : (A)


Solution:
Air is mixture of different gases like O2, N2, CO2 etc., hence it is a mixture.

(83) Answer : (D)


Hint:
Number of atoms = moles × atomicity × NA
Solution:
(1) N : × 2 × N = N
2
14

28
A A

(2) SO2 :
64

64
× 3 × NA = 3NA

(3) CO2 :
88

44
× 3 × NA = 6NA

(4) H2 :
8

2
× 2 × NA = 8NA

(84) Answer : (C)


Hint:
Moles of solute×1000
Molality =
Weight of solvent(g)

Solution:
0.1×1000 1000
Molality = = = 6 .17 m
0.9×18 9×18

Molality of H+ = 6.173 × 2 = 12.346 ; 12.34 m


Molality of SO4
2−
= 6.17 m

(85) Answer : (D)


Hint:
Atoms are conserved in chemical reactions.
(86) Answer : (B)
Hint:
Anionic hydrolysis takes place in CH3COONa
Solution:
Salt of strong base and weak acid are basic due to anionic hydrolysis.
(87) Answer : (C)
Solution:

1 1
pH = [pKa − log C] = [4.76 − log(0.2)] = 2.72
2 2

(88) Answer : (C)


Solution:
13 g potassium is present in 100 g of salt
39 g potassium is present in = = 300 g 100×39

13

(89) Answer : (C)


Solution:
V1 = 100 ml V2 = 1000 ml
M1 = 10–2 M2 = ?

14
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

−2

M
10 ×100 −3
M2 = = 10
1000

pH = – log (10–3) = 3
(90) Answer : (A)
Hint:
m
d =
v

Solution:
Density of ethanol = 0.8 g/cm3
Mass of 1 molecule of ethanol =
46

23
g
6.022×10

m 46 1 −23 3
v = = × = 9 .55 ×10 cm
d 23 0.8
6.022×10

Botany

(91) Answer : (C)


Solution:
Amorphophallus and Yucca are pollinated by insects.
(92) Answer : (A)
Solution:
Mature seeds of black pepper and beet have remains of nucellus, and thus these seeds are called perispermic.

(93) Answer : (D)


Solution:
Dehydration and dormancy of mature seeds are crucial for storage of seeds which can be used as food throughout the
year and also to raise crop for next season.
(94) Answer : (B)
Hint:
A typical anther has 4 sporangia.
Solution:
25 PMC in each sporangium.
Thus total PMCs are = 25 × 4 = 100
Since 1 PMC → 1 tetrad → 4 microspores or pollen grains
100 PMC = 100 tetrads and 4 × 100 = 400 pollen grains
1 pollen grain produces 2 male gametes
Therefore, 400 pollen grains will produce = 400 × 2 = 800 male gametes.
(95) Answer : (B)
Solution:
All these events-from pollen deposition on stigma until pollen tubes enter the ovule-are together referred to as pollen-
pistil interaction.
(96) Answer : (B)
Solution:
Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants and is limited to about 30 genera of mainly monocots.

(97) Answer : (B)


Solution:
In wind pollinated flowers (anemophilous), nectaries are absent, flowers are packed into inflorescence and stamens
are well exposed.

(98) Answer : (D)


Hint:
In typical angiosperms, the MMC undergoes meiosis and forms four haploid megaspores in which only one remains
functional.
Solution:
For 'n' number of seeds, n + meiosis are required.
n

∴ For 400 seeds the number of meiosis = 400 +


400

4
= 500

(99) Answer : (C)


Solution:
Exine of pollen grain is made up of sporopollenin. It can withstand high temperature, strong acids and alkali. This also
helps in fossilization of pollen grains.
(100)Answer : (A)
Solution:

15
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

Maize and castor have endospermous seeds. Maize and castor are monoecious. Pea and bean having bisexual
flowers require removal of anther (emasculation) during artificial cross hybridisation process.

(101)Answer : (A)
Hint:
In monocots single large cotyledon is situated towards lateral side of embryonal axis.
Solution:
Single large cotyledon in monocots is called scutellum and remains of second cotyledon is called epiblast.
(102)Answer : (D)
Hint:
In flowers, which do not open, anther matures and dehisces in bud condition and pollen comes in contact to the stigma
of same flower.
Solution:
In cleistogamy flowers do not open. There is no chance of geitonogamy or xenogamy. Monoecious condition, bisexual
flowers and homogamy can promote both autogamy and geitonogamy.

(103)Answer : (C)
Hint:
Insect pollinated flowers are colourful and have nectaries.
Solution:
Some aquatic plants such as water lily show entomophily i.e., pollination by biotic agents.
(104)Answer : (C)
Solution:
Zostera (sea grass) is a marine water plant.
In Zostera, pollination is by water i.e. hydrophily.

(105)Answer : (B)
Solution:
In some members of Rosaceae, Leguminoseae and Solanaceae, pollen maintains viability for months.
(106)Answer : (A)
Solution:
In angiosperms, endosperm is the result of triple fusion and thus the endosperm cells are triploid.

(107)Answer : (B)
Solution:
Seals are aquatic mammals and have thick layer of fat below their skin which works as thermal insulation.
(108)Answer : (C)
Solution:
Lupinus arcticus excavated from the Arctic Tundra and the seed germinated and flowered after an estimated record of
10,000 years of dormancy.
(109)Answer : (D)
Solution:
In flowering plants, double fertilization occurs in embryo sac.
(110) Answer : (C)
Solution:
Flowers pollinated by different agencies have different features.
The flowers pollinated by wind have long-well exposed stamens, so the pollens are easily carried by air currents.
(111) Answer : (D)
Solution:
Insect pollinated flowers are colourful and fragrant.
Fragrance of flower is to attract insects for pollination. Nectar, pollen and safe place to lay eggs are floral rewards.
(112) Answer : (A)
Solution:
Hard outer layer of pollen grain is exine which is made up of sporopollenin.

(113) Answer : (B)


Solution:
Flowers of water hyacinth and water lily emerge above the level of water and therefore pollinated by insects or wind. In
Vallisneria, pollination occurs by water and Salvia is insect pollinated plant.
(114) Answer : (A)
Solution:
A chemical dialogue occurs between pollen and pistil for acceptance or rejection of pollen during pollen-pistil
interaction.
(115) Answer : (B)
Solution:

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OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

A typical angiospermic anther has four sporangia, one at each corner.


A typical anther is tetragonal, bilobed, tetrasporangiate.
(116) Answer : (B)
Solution:
In the given figure of monocot seeds, the A represents Endosperm, B represents coleoptile, C represents Scutellum, D
represents Coleorhiza.
(117) Answer : (A)
Solution:
Megaspores develop into female gametophyte.
(118) Answer : (C)
Solution:
If the female parent bears bisexual flowers, removal of anthers from the flower bud before the anther dehisces using a
pair of forceps is necessary. This step is referred to as emasculation.
(119) Answer : (D)
(120)Answer : (D)
Solution:
Xenogamy is genetically a cross-pollination.
(121)Answer : (B)
Hint:
Entry of pollen tube into the ovule can be through chalaza, micropyle or through integuments.
Solution:
Entry of pollen tube into the embryo sac is through micropylar end only.

(122)Answer : (D)
Solution:
When a flower cannot be divided into similar halves by any vertical plane passing through the centre is called
asymmetric flower.
Flower of canna are asymmetric. Flower of Cassia and bean are zygomorphic. While, flowers of mustard and Datura
are actinomorphic.
(123)Answer : (B)
Hint:
Flower with superior ovary is hypogynous.
Solution:
When female reproductive part occupies highest position then flower is called hypogynous with superior ovary.
(124)Answer : (C)
Hint:
Turmeric has rhizome.
Solution:
Turmeric is a modified stem. Radish, Carrot and sweet potato are storage roots.

(125)Answer : (B)
Hint:
In mustard, placenta is present at periphery and ovules are attached to it.
Solution:
Lemon, tomato and china rose have axile placentation while mustard has parietal placentation.
(126)Answer : (A)
Hint:
Perianth is found in the members of Liliaceae family.
Solution:
Tulip being a member of Liliaceae family, has perianth.
(127)Answer : (B)
Solution:
Indigofera belongs to Fabaceae family.
Flowers of Fabaceae family have monocarpellary gynoecium.
(128)Answer : (B)

(129)Answer : (D)
(130)Answer : (D)
Solution:
A – Paramoecium
B – Euglena
(131)Answer : (D)
Solution:

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OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

They are facultative anaerobes.


(132)Answer : (B)
Solution:
Mycelium in the members of Phycomycetes such as Albugo, Rhizopus and Mucor is coenocytic.

(133)Answer : (A)
Solution:
Syncarpous gynoecium is found in mustard, tomato, potato and tulip.
(134)Answer : .
Solution:
Features Phycomycetes Ascomycetes
(i) Type of mycelium Aseptate and coenocytic Septate and branched
(ii) Type of fruiting bodies Absent Ascocarp

(135)Answer : (C)

Zoology

(136)Answer : (D)
Solution:
A protein is imagined as a line, where the left end is represented by the first amino acid and the right end is represented
by the last amino acid. The first amino acid is also called N-terminal amino acid. The last amino acid is called the C-
terminal amino acid.

(137)Answer : (A)
Solution:
Secondary metabolites such as antibiotics, etc. are useful to human welfare.
(138)Answer : (D)
Solution:
GLUT-4 is a protein, that enables glucose transport into cells.

(139)Answer : (B)
Solution:
Receptors are proteins, usually cell surface receptors, which bind to ligands and cause responses in the immune
system, including cytokine receptors, growth factor receptors, etc.
(140)Answer : (C)
Hint:
Simple and compound lipids can be glycerol and sphingosine based.
Solution:
Cholesterol is water insoluble and composed of 4 fused rings. Compound such as steroids are considered as derived
lipid.
(141)Answer : (B)
Hint:
DNA shows right handed coiling.
Solution:
In a protein, only right-handed helices are predominantly observed.
(142)Answer : (B)
Solution:
Oils generally have lower melting point than saturated fats, hence remain as liquid at room temperature.

(143)Answer : (C)
Solution:
Enzymes catalysing a transfer of a group (other than hydrogen) between two molecules is called transferases.
(144)Answer : (C)
Solution:
Living organisms have also got inorganic elements and compounds in them.

(145)Answer : (B)
Solution:
Allergy/hypersensitivity involves inflammation. Glucocorticoids are anti-inflammatory hence used to counter allergic
response.
(146)Answer : (C)
Hint:

18
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

Aldosterone increases salt and water reabsorption


Solution:
Aldosterone increases the blood volume thereby restoring salt levels and blood pressure. Aldosterone acts mainly at
the renal tubule and stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and water and excretion of K+ and phosphate.
(147)Answer : (B)
Solution:
Glucagon is a hyperglycemic hormone. Inhibin inhibits FSH. Somatostatin (GHIH) inhibits GH release.
(148)Answer : (B)
Solution:
Melatonin plays a very important role in the regulation of a 24-hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body.
(149)Answer : (D)
Solution:
Iodothyronine is a lipid soluble hormone.
Since, it is a lipid soluble hormone, it will interact with intracellular receptors by diffusing inside the cell.
(150)Answer : (C)
Solution:
I.Q. of pituitary dwarfs is normal.

(151)Answer : (A)
Solution:
Receiving chamber of the heart.
ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor) is secreted from the atrial wall of heart and decreases blood pressure.

(152)Answer : (C)
Solution:
Rapid secretion of LH during mid-cycle is called LH surge which induces rupture of Graafian follicle.
(153)Answer : (D)
Solution:
Meiosis II is completed after the entry of sperm into secondary oocyte in fallopian tube.
(154)Answer : (C)
Hint:
23 chromosomes are present in a human sperm.
Solution:
Both ova and sperms in humans have 23 chromosomes each. Sperm is much smaller in size than ova but it is highly
motile. Spiral arrangement of mitochondria is observed in sperms.
(155)Answer : (A)
Solution:
The male reproductive system is located in the pelvis region. It includes a pair of testes, accessory ducts, glands and
external genitalia.
(156)Answer : (A)
Solution:
The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum. The scrotum helps in maintaining
the low temperature of the testes (2–2.5° C lower than the normal internal body temperature) necessary for
spermatogenesis.
(157)Answer : (B)
Solution:
The penis is the male external genitalia. It is made of special tissue that helps in erection of the penis to facilitate
insemination.
(158)Answer : (A)
Solution:
The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone which is essential for maintenance of the endometrium.
Such an endometrium is necessary for implantation of the fertilised ovum and other events of pregnancy.

(159)Answer : (B)
Solution:
Luteal phase lasts for 14 days. The release of the ovum is called ovulation and occurs nearly 14 days before the onset
of the next menstrual cycle.

(160)Answer : (D)
Solution:
Primary oocyte – Arrested at prophase-I
Zona pellucida – Glycoproteinaceous acellular layer
Corona radiata – Granulosa cells
Secondary oocyte – Arrested at metaphase-II

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OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

(161)Answer : (A)
Solution:
Inner cell mass contains certain cells called stem cells which have the potency to give rise to all the tissues and organs.
(162)Answer : (D)
Solution:
Estrogen is an ovarian hormone.
(163)Answer : (C)
Solution:
Hint: Birth canal lined by stratified epithelium.
Sol.: Cavity of cervix is called cervical canal, which alongwith vagina forms birth canal during parturition for delivery of
foetus.

(164)Answer : (C)
Solution:
Fact
(165)Answer : (C)
Solution:
The regions outside the seminiferous tubules called interstitial spaces, contain small blood vessels and interstitial cells
or Leydig cells. Other immunologically competent cells are also present.
(166)Answer : (B)
Solution:
Spermatid and secondary oocyte have 23 chromosomes. Spermatogonia, primary oocyte, primary spermatocyte are
diploid structures.
(167)Answer : (A)
Solution:
Trophoblast and extraembryonic parietopleural mesoderm form chorion responsible for formation of chorionic villi.
(168)Answer : (A)
Hint:
Zona pellucida.
Solution:

(169)Answer : (B)
Hint:
Membranes synthesized by secondary oocyte itself.
Solution:
The secondary oocyte forms acellular membrane called zona pellucida.
(170)Answer : (A)
Solution: A
(171)Answer : (B)
Hint:
This yellow coloured structure is remnant of graffian follicle in ovary.
Solution:
After the decrease in LH level, hCG secreted by chorion maintains corpus luteum upto the end of first trimester.
(172)Answer : (C)
Hint:
Placenta a source of many hormones is a structural and functional connection between maternal and foetal tissue.
Solution:
Umbilical cord carries only foetal blood. CRH stimulates anterior pituitary to release ACTH. ACTH from both mother and
foetus acts on adrenal cortex to release cortisol. This cortisol prepares foetal lungs for respiration. ACTH also stimulates
adrenal glands to release DHEA which gets converted into estrogen. High levels of estrogen sets in motion the events
that initiate labor.

20
OYM TE01 DDN Ballupur

(173)Answer : (B)
Hint:
Mammary glands are situated over pectoralis major muscle.
Solution:
A – Nipple
B – Pectoralis major muscle
C – Rib
D – Lactiferous duct
(174)Answer : (A)
Solution:
The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum. The scrotum helps in maintaining
the low temperature of the testes (2 – 2.5°C lower than the normal internal body temperature) necessary for
spermatogenesis.
(175)Answer : (B)
Solution:
Pitocin (oxytocin injection) is a natural hormone that causes that uterus to contract to induce labour pain.
(176)Answer : (B)
Solution:
Placenta acts as a temporary endocrine structure.
(177)Answer : (D)
Hint:
Human placenta is haemochorial type.
Solution:
In haemochorial placenta, the maternal blood is in direct contact with chorionic villi which are covered by maternal
blood.
(178)Answer : (B)
Hint:
BTB is critical for adult fertility.
Solution:
Answer (2)
(179)Answer : (C)
Solution:
There is positive feedback of estrogen in mid cycle, causing LH surge.
(180)Answer : (D)
Solution:
Graafian follicle release secondary oocyte in abdominal cavity which is captured by fimbrae of fallopian tube.

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