Republic of the Philippines

PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION

Manila

BOARD OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Registered Mechanical Engineer Licensure Examination

Saturday, January 29, 2011 07:30 a.m. – 12:30 p.m.
----------------------------------------------------------------

MATHEMATICS,ENG’G ECONOMICS & ENG’G SCIENCES SET A

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil No.2 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A type of bond where the corporation pledges securities which

it owns (I,e, stocks, bonds of its subsidiaries).
A. Mortgage C. Coupon bond
B. Registered bond D. Collateral trust bond *

2. The place where buyers and sellers come together.

A. Market * C. Recreation center
B. Business D. Buy and sell section

3. An evil wrong committed by a person damaged another person’s

property or reputation is
A. tort * C. negligence
B. material breach D. fraud

4. What is the probability of not getting a red ball from a bag

containing 3 white balls, 5 blue balls , and 4 red balls?
A. 2/3 * C. 1/3
B. 5/12 D. 1/4

5. In how many ways can 7 persons be seated on a round table if a

certain couple is in the group and must be seated together?
A. 240 * C. 120
B. 360 D. 720

6. A 100 liter mixture with 85% alcohol is placed in a container.

How much water should be added to produce a mixture with 65%
alcohol?
A. 25.6 C. 30.8 *
B. 20.6 D. 35.8

7. What is the highest position in the corporation?

A. President C. Chairman of the Board *
B. Board of Directors D. Stockholders
8. An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of
operating a business as co-owners for profit.
A. Sole proprietorship C. Partnership *
B. Company D. Corporation

9. Liquid assets such as cash and other assets that can be

converted quickly into cash, such as accounts receivable and
merchandise are called
A. total assets C. current assets *
B. fixed assets D. none of the above

10. The length of time which the property may be operated at a

profit.
A. Physical life C. Operating life
B. Economic life * D. All of the above

11. The provision in the contract that indicates the possible

adjustment of material cost and labor cost.
A. Secondary clause C. Contingency clause
B. Escalatory clause * D. Main clause

12. Gross profit, sales less cost of good sold, as a percentage

of a sales is called
A. profit margin C. net income
B. gross margin * D. rate of return

13. Those funds that are required to make the enterprise or

project a going concern.
A. Initial investment C. Working capital *
B. Current accounts D. Subscribed capital

14. The payment for the use of borrowed money is called

A. loan C. interest *
B. maturity value C. principal

15. Sometimes called second hand value.

A. Scrap value C. Book value
B. Salvage value * D. Going value

16. If John gives $5 to Allen and Allen gives $2 to Eduard, and

they have the same money thereafter, how much is Johns money
higher than Allen?
A. $7 C. $8 *
B. $5 D. $3

17. Transform the polar equation r2cos(theta)sin(theta)= 4 to

rectangular coordinates.
A. xy = 4 * C. x + y = 4
B. x2y = 4 D. x2 + y2 = 4

18. Given f(x)= (x – 1)/(x3 – 3x2 + 2x), find x when the value
of f(x) is undefined.
A. 0, -1 and -2 C. 0 and 2
B. 0, 1 and 2 * D. 1 and 2

19. Given f(x)= 3x – 5, g(f(x))= x , find g(x).

A. (2x + 5)/3 C. (x + 5)/3 *
B. (3x – 5)/4 D. (x – 5)/3
20. The value which has a disinterested third party, different
from the buyer and seller, will determine in order to
establish a price acceptable to both parties.
A. Market value C. Fair value *
B. Goodwill value D. Franchise value

21. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal intervals

of time where the first payment is made after several periods,
after the beginning of the payment.
A. Deferred annuity * C. Progressive annuity
B. Delayed annuity D. Simple annuity

22. A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge

is a fixed percentage of the depreciation book value at the
beginning of the year to which the depreciation applies.
A. Straight lime method C. SYD method
B. Sinking fund method D. Declining balance method *

23. A method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money is

regularly deposited at compound interest in a real or
imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal to the
total depreciation of an asset at the end of the asset’s
estimated life.
A. Straight line method C. Declining balance method
B. Sinking fund method * D. SYD method

24. The lessening of the value of an asset due to the decrease

in the quantity available (referring to the natural resources,
coal, oil, etc.)
A. Depreciation C. inflation
B. depletion * D. incremental cost

25. An association of two or more persons for a purpose of

engaging in a profitable business.
A. Sole proprietorship C. Partnership *
B. Enterprise D. Corporation

26. A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any

business transaction which a real person could do.
A. Sole of proprietorship C. Partnership
B. Enterprise D. Corporation *

27. A type of bind where the corporation pledges securities

which it owns (I,e, stocks, bonds of its subsidiaries).
A. Mortgage C. Coupon bond
B. Registered bond D. Collateral trust bond *
28. A type of bond which does not have security except a
promise to pay by the issuing corporation.
A. Mortgage bond C. Collateral trust bond
B. Registered bond D. Debenture bond *

29. The residual value of a company’s assets after all outside

liabilities (shareholders excluded) has been allowed for.
A. Dividend C. Return
B. Equity * D. Per value
30. The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a
certain price at a given time and place.
A. Demand * C. Market
B. Supply D. Utility

31. Solve for N if log of 3 top the base 6 equals N.

A. 0.613 * C. 0.316
B. 0.218 D. 0.816

32. A man bought a $20 book and wishes to sell it. At what
price should he mark it if he wishes to give a 40 percent
discount and make 50 percent profit on the cost?
A. $40 C. $ 50 *
B. $55 D. $30

33. A steel plate 6 cm square is to be formed into an open box

by cutting equal squares out of the corners and bending up the
edges to form a box. What is the side of the square removed so
that the box formed will have a maximum volume?
A. 1.0 cm * C. 0.5 cm
B. 1.5 cm D. 2.0 cm

34. The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously stand
is called
A. bearing strength * C. ultimate strength
B. yield strength D. fatigue strength

35. Refers to the highest ordinate on the stress-strain

diagram.
A. Rapture strength C. Yield strength
B. Ultimate strength * D. Allowable strength

36. A kind of stress that is caused by forces acting along or

parallel to the area resisting the force.
A. Tensile stress C. Shearing stress *
B. Bearing stress D. Tangential stress

37. The ratio of the unit deformation or strains in a

transverse direction is constant for stresses within the
proportional limit. This is known as
A. Hooke’s Law C. Poisson ratio *
B. Mohr’s circle D. Slenderness ratio

38. What is the constant term in the expansion of (2x2 + 1/x)9 ?

A. 672 * C. 748
B. 724 D. 860

29. Solve for x: 23x = 64

A. 4 C. 2 *
B. 6 D. 1

39. Find x in the expression log 3 to the base 6 equals x times

log 3 to the base 2.
A. 1/3 * C. 2/3
B. 1/2 D. 3/4
40. If ln x = 3 and ln y = 5, find ln(x2 /y1/2)
A. 1.5 C. 3.5 *
B. 2.5 D. 4.5

41. A river is 580 ft wide. The bridge constructed across the

river is banked 1/7 of its length in the east and 1/6 in the
west. What is the length of the bridge?
A. 840 ft * C. 910 ft
B. 760 ft D. 1000 ft

42. What is the probability of getting two faces in a deck of

cards if drawing of cards is to be done twice?
A. 0.02 C. 0.04
B. 0.05 * D. 0.03

43. A plane with a velocity of 300 mph din still air, is

travelling against the wind and travels a distance of 900
miles in 4 hours. Find the headwind velocity.
A. 75 mph * C. 150 mph
B. 100 mph D. 200 mph

44. A, B and C are points on a circle. AC bisects the circle

and AB = BC. The area of triangle ABC is most clearly what
percent of the circles area?
A. 44 C. 32 *
B. 36 D. 24

45. Find the value of x for which f(x) is minimum given f(x) =
x2 + 5x + 2 = 0
A. 0 C. -2
B. -5/2 * D. -3/2

46. Solve for x: x – 3 = 3(1 – x)

A. 0.67 C. 1.50 *
B. 0.33 D. 1.67

47. Find the equation of the family of lines in which the slope
and the y- intercept are equal.
A. y’ = x/y C. y’ = y/x
B. y’ = y/(x + 1) * D. y’ = x + y

48. Find the radius of the circle circumscribing a regular

pentagon with area 560 square units.
A. 15.347 * C. 11.254
B. 16.879 D. 10.543

49. Find the equation of the circle circumscribing a triangle

with vertices (-1,-3), (-2, 4), (2, 1).
A. x2 + 3x + y2 – 7y – 10 = 0
B. x2 + 3x + y2 + 7y – 10 = 0
C. x2 + 3x + y2 – y – 10 = 0 *
D. x2 + 3x + y2 – 7y + 10 = 0

50. The upper and lower bases of a trapezoid measures 12 in and

16 in respectively. If the base angles are 55 deg and 65 deg.
What is the length of the shorter leg?
A. 3.78 * C. 5.24
B. 2.18 D. 4.29
51. What is the maximum area of the rectangle inscribed in an
ellipse having an equation of 4x2 + 16y2 = 16.
A. 4 * C. 8
B. 12 D. 6

52. When a right circular cone is cut by a plane parallel to

the axis of the cone the conic section formed is a/an
A. parabola C. circle
B. ellipse D. hyperbola *

53. If the second derivative of the equation of a curve is

equal to the negative of the equation of that same curve, the
curve is
A. paraboloid C. tangent
B. exponential D. sinusoidal *

54. The act of charging two or more buyers or sellers different

prices for the same product where the elasticity of supply or
demand at each price level differs among market is known as
A. price manipulation C. price discrimination *
B. price optimization D. price war

55. A situation in which rival firms drive prices down through

attempts to undercut each others prices is called
A. price war * C. price leadership
B. price discrimination D. price manipulation

56. Maximum plant capacity in which a CPM is allowed to

operate, tend or maintain
A. 200 kW C. 224 kW
B. 220 kW D. 242 kW *

57. The state of a thermodynamic system is defined by its

A. temperature C. process
B. pressure and temperature D. properties *

58. The partial pressure of a gas is the pressure that the gas
will exert if it alone occupies the volume occupied by the
mixture at the same temperature of the mixture.
A. Dalton’s law * C. Amagat’s law
B. Avogadro’s law D. Pascal’s law

59. An accounting book where the original record of all

transaction is ordinarily recorded.
A. journal * C. ledger
B. balance sheet D. balance sheet

60. Given f(x)= 2x + 4, g(x) = 1/x, find f(g(f(x)))

A. 1/(2x + 4) * C. 2x + 4
B. 1/2x D. 2x + 4

61. Simplify : (a-2)2 / (b-2)3

A. b6/a4 * C. b4/a6
B. a6/b4 D. a4/b6

62. Find the roots of the equation x3 – 16x = 0.

A. 0,4 C. 0,-4
B. 0,-4,-4 D. 0,-4,4 *
63. Solve for x in the equations: 2(x + y)=100 and 4(x + y)=10.

A. 4.55 C. 4.75
B. 4.25 D. 4.15 *

64. What is the value of x in the proportion (x + 1):4 = 15:44.

A. 6 C. 5
B. 4 * D. 3

65. Determine the number of diagonals of a polygon with 15

sides.
A. 60 C. 120
B. 80 D. 90 *

66. What is the area of the rhombus with diagonals of 10 m and

24 m ?
A. 150 C. 120 *
B. 240 D. 180

67. Evaluate the limit of xx as x approaches to zero.

A. 0 C. 1 *
B. 1/2 D. indeterminate

68. Three circles are externally tangent to each other and

having the distances of their centers of 20 in., 23 in., and
25 in. What is the radius of the largest circle?
A. 10 C. 12
B. 14 * D. 16

69. Tom earned $200 for working 40 hours, if he works overtime

he will be paid 1.5 times his regular income. If tom received
a total of $230, how many hours did he worked?
A. 4 C. 5
B. 44 * D. 55

70. The point on the curve where the second derivative of the
function is zero.
A. maxima C. point of inflection *
B. minima D. point of deflection

71. What is the trigonometric substitution used for a function

involving a2 – x2 ?
A. x = asin(theta)* C. x = atan(theta)
B. x = acos(theta) D. x = asec(theta)

72. The first derivative of cosine x is

A. sin x C. –sin x *
B. –cosx D. sec x

73. The sum of three numbers is 19. What is the smallest number
in the group if their geometric mean is 6.
A. 2 C. 8
B. 6 D. 4 *

74. Which of the following numbers will give a maximum

difference when subtracted by its cube?
A. 0.707 C. 0.500
B. 0.533 D. 0.577 *
75. Decrease in the value of physical property due to the
passage of time.
A. depreciation * C. recession
B. inflation D. depletion

76. A situation whereby payment is made for work not done. The
term also applies to the case where more workers are used than
are reasonable requirement for efficient operation.
A. feather bedding * C. check-in pay
B. downtime pay D. moon lighting

77. The minimum grade of mechanical engineer required in the

operation of 500 kW Diesel Power Plant.
A. RME * C. PME
B. CPM D. MPE

78. The ratio of average load to plant capacity.

A. capacity factor * C. demand factor
B. use factor D. load factor

79. Two cylinders each weighing 100 kN and 200 kN with radii of
100 mm and 200 mm respectively, are placed with the heavier
weight above the lighter weight and placed in a container with
a width of 500 mm. Assume the lengths of the cylinders and
container are the same. What is the reaction between the
cylinders?
A. 268.28 * C. 200.00
B. 300.00 D. 293.25

80. A man is standing on a cliff 897 meters. He struck a tree

with his axe and the sound 5.2 seconds after. Assuming
constant temperature, what is the velocity of sound on that
day?
A. 340 m/s C. 345 m/s *
B. 342 m/s D. 453 m/s

81. A 4 inches diameter sphere is floating on water with its

hemisphere submerged. Solve for the density of the sphere.
A. 31.2 lb/ft3 * C. 62.4 lb/ft3
B. 1000 lb/ft3 D. 64.2 lb/ft3

82. A block of wood is floating in seawater with submerged

height of 30 cm. If placed in a pool of mineral oil with
specific gravity of 0.80, what will be the submerged height of
the wood?
A. 30 cm C. 43 cm
B. 39 cm * D. 29 cm

83. Find the velocity of the liquid in the tank at the bottom
10 meters below the surface.
A. 14 m/s * C. 16 m/s
B. 20 m/s D. 10 m/s
84. The cause of a fluid to contract.
A. adhesion C. capillary
B. surface tension * D. cohesion
85. Entropy is a measure of
A. randomness or disorder *
B. the change of enthalpy of a system
C. the heat capacity of a substance
D. the internal energy of a gas

86. What is the most efficient thermodynamic cycle?

A. Rankine C. Diesel
B. Otto D. Carnot *

87. What is the pressure at 4000 ft above sea level?

A. 29.92 in Hg C. 26 in Hg *
B. 24.00 in Hg D. 22 in Hg

88. At what temperature are the degrees Fahrenheit and degrees

Celsius equal?
A. 40 C. -40 *
B. 60 D. -60

89. A pendulum has a certain frequency in London. What is the

effect of this frequency if it is measured with respect to the
equator?
A. increase C. remains the same
B. decrease * D. none of these

90. An interest earning fund in which equal deposits are made

at equal intervals of time for the purpose of gradually
accumulating a specific sum of money required at some future
date.
A. sinking fund * C. amortization
B. annuity D. capitalized cost

91. Find the minimum force P required to turn a 350 lb wheel

with diameter of 10 inches over a block with a height of 2
inches.
A. 240 N * C. 120 N
B. 340 N D. 170 N

92. Find the nominal rate which if converted semi-annually

could be used instead of 11.55% compounded quarterly?
A. 11.06% C. 11.72% *
B. 11.39% D. 12.72%

93. A company purchased an asset for P10,000 and plans to keep

it for 10 years. The salvage value after 10 years is P2000.
Find the book value after 3 years.
A. P6700 C. P7600 *
B. P7100 D. P8000

94. A formal organization of producers with an industry forming

a perfect collision purposely formed to increase profit and
block new comers from the industry:
A. monopoly C. cartel *
B. corporation D. competitors
95. A pile of logs contains 75 logs so that the top layer
contains 3 logs and each lower layer has one more log than the
layer above. How many logs are there in the bottom layer?
A. 10 C. 12 *
B. 14 D. 16

96. If f(x, y) = (x2 - 2xy + y2)/(x2 – y2), f(-x , -y)is equal to

A. 1/(-x + y) C. (-x + y)/(x + y)
B. (x + y)/(y – x) D. (x – y)/(x + y) *

97. Kinematic viscosity is an SI derivative unit described as

A. watt per meter Kelvin C. Pascal second
B. sq. meters per second * D. Newton per meter

98. The length of the time during which property may be

operated at a profit:
A. life C. physical life
B. length of time D. economic life *

99. In a cantilever beam with a concentrated load at the free

end, the moment is:
A. constant along the beam C. ¼ maximum half way out on
the beam
B. maximum at the wall * D. maximum at the free end

100. The logarithm of 1 to any base is:

A. indeterminate C. infinity
B. zero * D. one

SUBMIT THIS TEST QUESTION SET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER SHEET TO
YOUR WATCHERS. BRINGING THE TEST QUESTION SET OUT OF THE ROOM
WILL BE A GROUND FOR DISCIPLINARY ACTION.
 Republic of the Philippines
PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
Manila

BOARD OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Registered Mechanical Engineer Licensure Examination

Sunday, August 6, 2017 07:30 a.m. – 12:30 p.m.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

MATHEMATICS,ENG’G ECONOMICS & ENG’G SCIENCES SET A

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only
one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice
on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil No.2 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. If the digits 0, 1, and 2 are used to form a three-digit number where repetition of
digits is not allowed, then how many possible numbers can be made?
A. 4 C. 8
B. 6 D. 10

2. An angle is half its supplement. What is its complement?

A. 30 C. 60
B. 45 D. 75

3. It takes 12 men 12 days to build a house. How many days will it take 24 men to build
a house?
A. 2 days C. 12 days
B. 3 days D. 6 days

4. The sum of the two numbers is 21. If their difference is 9, what is there product?
A. 54 C. 104
B. 80 D. 90

5. A term used to describe payment of an employee wherein an employee is called back to

work after his regular days work
A. call back pay C. call in pay
B. back wages D. portal to portal pay

6. Manner of liquidating a debt by installment usually at equal intervals of time

A. investment C. amortization
B. depreciation D. bonding

7. What kind of process occurs between points 3 and 4? See Figure 8

A. Adiabatic
B. isobaric
C. Isentropic
D. there is insufficient information to determine the process
8. Find the lateral strain, y, of the steel specimen shown if Fx = 600 kips, E = 2.8 x
107psi, and v = 0.29. See figure 3
A. – 4 x 10-4 in. C. 1.04 x 10-4 in.
B. – 1.04 x 10-4 in. D. 4 x 10-4 in.
9. What type of power cycle does the following diagram illustrate? See figure 9
A. A Carnot cycle
B. an idealized Rankine cycle with reheat
C. an idealized Diesel cycle
D. an idealized Stirling cycle

10. The reduction value and marketability due to competition from newest products
A. obsolescence C. depreciated cost
B. fixed cost D. indirect cost

11. A goat is tied at the corner of a small building with a square base. If the length
of the rope that ties the goat is 6 meters and the side of the square base is 4
meters, what is the largest grazing area of the goat?
A. 10 sq meters C. 29 sq meters
B. 25 sq meters D. 200 sq meters

12. In a group of 50 students, 30 like Math, a certain number like English, 16 like both
English and Math, and 8 like neither subjects. How many students like English?
A. 25 C. 30
B. 27 D. 35
13. Terence’s office is 12 km from his house. If, one day, he drove his car to his
office at a constant speed rate of 30 kph and came back home driving at 20 kph, what
is the average speed for the entire trip?
A. 24 kph C. 27 kph
B. 25 kph D. 28 kph

14. During snack break, 1/3 of the total number of snacks were donuts 2/5 were muffins
and the rest were pancakes. If the total number of muffins and pancakes was 20, how
many pieces of snacks were there?
A. 24 C. 35
B. 28 D. 30

15. Together, Lumen and Rey are going home to the province to visit their mothers.
If Lumen visits her mother every 6 days, and Rey visits his mother every 8 days,
after how many days will they visit their mothers together again?
A. 7 C. 18
B. 14 D. 24

16. The sum of the three angles of a triangle is 180 degrees. One angle is twice the
second and the third angle is 20 less than the second. What is the measure of the
largest angle?
A. 50 degrees C. 120 degrees
B. 100 degrees D. 45 degrees

17. Charlie mixed blue and red paint in the ratio 3 : 5 instead of 5 :3 when he prepared
24 liters of violet paint. How many liters of the blue paint should he add to obtain
the shade he wants?
A. 2 C. 12
B. 8 D. 16

18. A 140-cm stick is cut so that one part is ¾ of the other. How long is the shorter
segment?
A. 105 cm C. 80 cm
B. 35 cm D. 60 cm

19. If 2/3 of the number of red balls in a box is 1/4 of the total number of balls, and
3/4 of the number of blue balls is 3/8 of the total number of balls, then what is
the ratio of the number of red balls to the number of blue balls?
A. 3 : 8 C. 1 : 2
B. 3 : 4 D. 2 : 3

20. A boy’s age is now three-sevenths of what he will be four years from now. How old
is he now?
A. 3 C. 7
B. 4 D. 9

21. A ball rolling on an inclined plane rolls 15 cm in the first second. If in every
second thereafter it rolls 7 cm more than in the preceding second, how far will it
roll in 4 seconds?
A. 29 C. 66
B. 36 D. 102

22. Form of summary of assets, liabilities and net worth

A. production C. balance sheet
B. break even point D. balance method

23. An index of short term paying ability

A. profit margin ratio C. acid test ratio
B. current ratio D. receivable turn over

24. In the ballistic balance shown, a bullet is fired into a block of mass M, which can
swing freely. Which of the following is true for the system after impact?
See figure 7
A. Both mechanical energy and momentum are conserved.
B. Mechanical energy is conserved; momentum is not conserved.
C. Momentum is conserved; mechanical energy is not conserved.
D. Neither mechanical energy nor momentum is conserved.

25. Ratio of annual revenues to the annual expenses

A. benefit ratio C. rate of return
B. benefit cost ratio D. income ratio

26. These are the products or services that are required to support human life and
activities that will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity even though the price
varies considerably
A. luxuries C. necessities
 B. utilities D. produces goods and services

27. The length of time during which the property maybe operated at a profit
A. length of time C. life
B. physical life D. economic life
28. Cesar saves P20 in the first week and each week thereafter saves P1 more than in the
preceding week. Hoe much will he have saved after the 3rd month?
A. 63 C. 275
B. 306 D. 22

29. How many times will a clock strike in 36 hours if it strike only at the hour and
strike once at 1, twice at 2, and thrice at 3 and so on?
A. 63 C. 234
B. 306 D. 666

30. The first of the geometric sequences is 1 and the common ratio is 5, determine the
largest 3-digit number that represents a term of this geometric sequence.
A. 625 C. 995
B. 999 D. 125

31. In the geometric sequence whose first element is 0.0001 and whose common ratio is
10, which element is 10,000 ?
A. 8th C. 10th
B. 9th D. 11th

32. Inee was 5 times as old as Luana five years ago. If Luana will be half as old as
Inee in ten years, how old is Luana now?
A. 5 C. 15
B. 10 D. 30

33. Two cars start at the same time from two places 330 kilometers apart and travel
toward each other. Car A travels at 50 kph and Car B at 45 kph. If Car a rests for
one hour on the way, in how many hours after they left will they meet?
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5

34. A motorist set out from A at certain rate and would have reached B in 5 hours if he
had continued at this rate. However, when he had gone three-fourths of the way he
had motor trouble which delayed him for an hour and a half. During the remainder of
the journey he increased his speed by 10 km an hour and reached B one hour and 15
minutes behind schedule. Find the distance from A to B.
A. 150 km C. 250 km
B. 200 km D. 220 km

35. The tens digit of a two-digit number is 2 more than three times the units digit. How
many two-digit numbers satisfy this condition?
A. 1 C. 4
B. 2 D. none

36. What is the largest angle of triangle whose angles are in the ratio 1:2:3?
A. 30 C. 120
B. 60 D. 90

37. It occurs in unique product of services and is available only from a single supplier
and entry of all possible suppliers prevented.
A. competition C. profitability
B. monopoly D. inventory

38. The difference between the book value and the actual lower resale value
A. sunk cost C. resale value
B. salvage value D. fixed cost

39. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation

A. earning value C. investment
B. money market D. authorized capital

40. An ideal, reversible Carnot cycle is represented on a T-S diagram (See Figure 10)
The efficiency of the cycle is represented by which of the following ratios of area?
A. (1-2-3-6)/ (1-2-4-5) C. (3-4-5-6)/ (1-2-4-5)
B. ( 1-2-4-6)/(1-2-3-6) D. (1-2-4-5)/(3-4-5-6)
41. A cantilever beam with an end mass, m = 7000 kg, deflects 5 cm when a force of 5 kN
is applied at the end. The beam is subsequently mounted on a spring of stiffness,
ks, = 1.5 kN/mcm. What is most nearly the natural frequency of the mass-beam-spring
system (See Fig.12)?
A. 1.5 rad/s C. 6.0 rad/s
B. 3.1 rad/s D. 6.3 rad/s
 42. What is the angle of twist, for the aluminum bar shown? The shear modulus of
elasticity, G, is 3.7 x 106 psi. See Figure 5
A. 0.000554 C. 0.032
B. 0.00554 D. 0.08

43. What single discount rate is equivalent to successive discount rates of 10% and 10%?
A. 10% C. 21%
B. 19% D. none of these

44. To motivate Jose in studying for an examination, his mom promised him some incentives.
For every correct answer, he gets P15.00 and for every mistake, P5.00 will be taken.
How many correct answers did he get in a 100-item exam if he received P1,000?
A. 15 C. 75
B. 25 D. 100

45. Lines are drawn across a circle so that each line crosses the circle at two points.
If five lines are drawn, what is the maximum number of parts the circle is divided?
A. 12 C. 15
B. 13 D. 16

46. In a certain constant mass system, the conditions change from point 1 to point 2.
How does the change in enthalpy for path A differ from the enthalpy change for path
B in going from point 1 to point 2? (See figure 11)
A. HA > HB C. HA < HB
B. HA = HB D. HA / (P1+P2)/2 = HB/P1
47. By how many cubic centimeters does the volume of a cube whose side is 10 cm exceed
that of another cube whose side is 8 cm?
A. 2 C. 498
B. 8 D. 488

48. If the surface area of a cube is 54 square units, what is its volume?
A. 3 cu units C. 18 cu units
B. 6 cu units D. 27 cu units

49. A cube whose volume is 64 cubic units is put on top of a table. If another cube
whose volume is 27 cubic units is put on the center of the top of the first cube,
what is the total exposed surface area of the first cube?
A. 16 C. 91
B. 64 D. 71

50. Find the probability of getting a head or a tail in a single toss of a coin?
A. 1/4 C. 1/8
B. 1/2 D. 1

51. A pair of dice is tossed. If one die shown a 5, what is the probability that the
other die shows a 5 also?
A. 1/36 C. 1/11
B. 1/6 D. 1/12

52. A multiple choice test consists of 5 questions with 3 possible answers but only one
of which is correct. In how many ways can a student answer the 5 questions and get
them all correct?
A. 1 C. 5
B. 3 D. 15

53. How many straight lines can be drawn, given 5 points no three of which are collinear?
A. 5 C. 15
B. 10 D. 20

54. Mr. Ayala left P 225,000,000 to his 4 children. For every P100 Carlos received, Ben
received P75 Alfred received P50, and Daniel received P150. What was the total
amount received by Ben?
A. P30,000,000 C. P75,000,000
B. P45,000,000 D. P90,000,000

55. A bookstore raises the prices of all its items by 25% every June. Every October they
offer a Cut-Price Sale, after which they only restore the original prices before June
of that year. To do this, they must reduce the price of each item by how many
percent?
A. 18 % C. 22 %
B. 20 % D. 25 %
56. A kaing of lanzones costing P700 was sold partly at 7 % loss and the remaining at
13% profit. The total proceeds were P741. Find the cost of the part that was sold
at 13% profit?
A. P91 C. P450
B. P250 D. P96.33

57. A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P 10,000 and agreed to pay the
dealer uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% compounded annually,
that the final payment will cancel the debt for principal and interest. What is the
annual payment?
A. 12 years C. 15 years
B. 10 years D. 17 years

58. An electric motor has a cash price of P8000. It can also be bought on installment
basis with down payment of P2000 and with periodic equal payments at the end of every
6 months for 5 years if interest is fixed at 8% compounded semi-annually, how much
is each periodic payment?
A. 122.56 C. 739.75
B. 439.56 D. 874.32

59. A polygon with fifteen sides

A. Nonagon C. Pentedecagon
B. Decagon D. Dodecagon

60. The point where the second derivative of function is equal to zero
A. inflection point C. point of intersection
B. minima D. maxima

61. A curve generated by a point which moves in uniform circular motion about an axis
while traveling with a constant speed parallel to the axis.
A. Epicycloid C. Cycloid
B. Helix D. Spiral of Archimedes

62. A collateral agreement in a transaction, which gives one of the parties, or both,
the right to choose a course of action. Example, option to buy a thing within a
specific period.
A. executed C. inventory
B. option D. interest

63. Statute limiting the time period in which a lawsuit may be brought
A. stipulation C tender of payment
B. statute of limitations D. nullity

64. It is the return of the land or property to the state if there is no person legally
entitled to inherent it
A. asset C. liability
B. escheat D. cash

65. A ski resort installs two new ski lift at a cost of P 1,800,000. The resort expects
annul gross revenue to increase P 500,000 while it incurs an annual expense of P
50,000 for lift operations and maintenance. What is the pay back period?
A. 4 years C. 2 years
B. 3 years D. 7 years

66. How much money should a man invest in a bank account paying 8 percent annual interest
compounded continuously if he wants to use the money to by 20,000 equipment in 4
years?
A. 14,522.98 C. 12,457.45
B. 15,346.76 D. 11,237.45

67. A stock certificate of a mining company guarantees a dividend of P100 at the end of
each year for 10 years and a final additional payment at the end of 10 years of
P1,200. If money is worth 12% effective, what is the certificate worth now?
A. 951.39 C. 1095.54
B. 897.54 D. 789.45

68. A tank is in the form of a frustum of a tight circular cone is filled with oil
weighing 50 pounds per cubic foot. If the height of the tank is 10 feet, base radius
is 6 ft and the top radius is 4 feet, find the work required in ft-tons to pump oil
to a height 10 feet above the tank.
A. – 312 ft-tons C. – 325 ft-tons
B. – 324 ft-tons D. – 435 ft-tons

69. Find the rate of change of the volume of the sphere with respect to its radius when
its radius is 5.
A. 100  C. 150
B. 200  D. 250
70. A savings association pays 4% interest compounded quarterly. What is the effective
annual interest rate?
A. 18.045% C. 17.155%
B. 16.985% D. 17.230%

71. A bank offers 1.2% effective monthly interest. What is the effective annual rate
with monthly compounding?
A. 15.4% C. 8.9%
B. 14.4% D. 7.9%
72. What is the present worth of P27,000.00 due in 6 years if money is worth 13% and is
compounded semi-annually?
A. P12,681.00 C. P13,500.00
B. P15,1250.00 D. P21,931.00

73. The nominal interest rate is 4%. How much is my P10,000.00 worth in 10 years in a
continuous compounded account?
A. P13,500.10 C. P13,620.10
B. P13,498.60 D. P13,650.20

74. An equilateral polygon or sometimes known as a regular polygon.

A. equigon C. perigon
B. isogon D. decagon

75. The base of a number system.

A. radius C. characteristics
B. radix D. matrix

76. 20000 PS to hp:

A. 17920 C. 17290
B. 19720 D. 19270

77. The product of the n consecutive integers from 1 to n.

A. serial C. differential
B. integral D. factorial

78. Which is not a qualification for an applicant for ME Board Examination?

A. Certified Plant Mechanic
B. Holder of BSME degree
C. At least 18 years of age
D. A citizen of the Philippines

79. The column shown has a cross-sectional area of 13 m2. What can be the approximate
maximum load if the compressive stress cannot exceed 9.6 kPa? See figure 2
A. 125 kN C. 200 kN
B. 102 kN D. 125 kN
80. The figure below shows a two-member truss with a load F=11,500 kips applied
statically. Given that L1 = 4 feet, L2 = 5 feet, and that the beams have cross-
sectional area A= 6 in2, find the elongation of member AB after F is applied. Use E
= 29,000,000 psi. See figure 4
A. -2.48 in. C. – 1.98 in.
B. – 1.48 in. D. 1.48 in.
81. Find the expression for the bending moment as a function of x for the following beam.
See Figure 6
A. M(x) = - x2 + 2x C. M(x) = - x2 + 2x
B. M(x) = -x2 + 1 D. M(x) = x2 – 2x

82. A series of numbers which are perfect square such as the series ( 1,4,9,16,25…….)
A. Fermat’s numbers C. Fibonacci’s numbers
B. Euler’s numbers D. Fourier series

83. It is point on the axis midway between the focus and the directrix of the parabola.
A. vertex C. latus rectum
B. origin D. eccentrity

84. The highest point of figure with respect to the base or the plane of the base.
A. apothem C. apex
B. peak D. altitude

85. What is the MOST nearly the stress at the surface S of the cylindrical object shown?
The specific weight of the material is gamma = 76.9 kN/m^3. See figure 1
A. 310 kPa C. 250 kPa
B. 180 kPa D. 275 kPa
86. How much must be invested on January 1 year 1, in order to accumulate P2,000 on
January 1, year 6 at 6%?
A. P1,495.00 C. P1.595.00
B. P1,295.00 D. P1,695.00

87. A bank charges 12% simple interest on a P300.00 loan. How much will be repaid if
the loan is paid back in one lump sum after three years?
A. P408.00 C. P551.00
B. P415.00 D. P450.00

88. If P5000.00 shall accumulate for 10 years at 8% compounded quarterly.Find the

compounded interest at the end of 10 years.
A. P6,005.30 C. P6,040.20
B. P6,000.00 D. P6,010.20

89. XYZ Corporation manufactures bookcases that it sells for P65.00 each. It cost XYZ
P35,000.00 per year to operate its plant. This sum includes rent, depreciation
charges on equipment, and salary payments. If the cost to produce one bookcase is
P50.00, how many cases must be sold each year for XYZ to avoid taking a loss?
A. 2334 cases C. 750 cases
B. 539 cases D. 2333 cases

90. An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years, after which it
will be sold for P1,000.00. Find the book value during the third year if the sum-
of-the-year’s digit (SYD) depreciation is used.
A. P6,100.00 C. P5,072.00
B. P4,500.00 D. P4,800.00

91. A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par at the ends
of 15 years to accumulate the funds for redemption, the firm established a sinking
fund consisting of annual deposits, the interest rate of the fund being 4%. What
was the principal in the fund at the end of the 12th year?
A. P35,983.00 C. P41,453.00
B. P38,378.00 D. P37,519.00

92. A sum of P1,000.00 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the
principal is withdrawn. The interest that has accrued is left for another eight
years. If the effective annual interest rate is 5%, what will be the withdrawal
amount at the end of the 16th year?
A. P706.00 C. P774.00
B. P500.00 D. P799.00

93. How much of a 40% solution of alcohol and how much of an 80% solution should be mixed
to give 150 liters of a 50% solution?
A. 112.5 liters/37.5 liters C. 211 liters/3.5liters
B.121.5 liters/53.7liters D. 212 liters/ 53.7 liters

94. How much water must be evaporated from the 18 kg of 20% salt solution to produce a
50% solution.
A. 2.25 kg C. 7.5 kg
B. 5.0 kg D. 10.5 kg

95. It is straight line towards which a curve approaches but never meets.
A. directrix C. asymptotes
B. major axis D. conjugate axis

96. Consist of the totality of property belonging to a deceased person, which must be
administered and distributed in accordance with a last will and testament and/or the
laws on succession
A. payee C. title
B. tax D. estate

97. Used in sales or ordinary contracts, describes any person who requires property or
negotiable instruments in good faith and for valuable consideration.
A. liability C. bonafide purchaser for value
B. asset D. owner

98. It is rule used for differentiating a function, that is , if z is function if y and

y is function of x, then dz/dx= (dz/dx)(dy/dx)
A. L. Hospital’s rule C. Crammer’s rule
B. Chain rule D. slide rule

99. The process of plotting points to give rise to the graph of a curve. It includes the
use of techniques of symmetry, maxima and minima, curvature and asymptote.
A. drafting C. dimensional analysis
B. curve tracing D. correlation
100. A court writ issued to compel the performance of a public or official duty owed
by the person to whom the order is directed.
A. arrest C. mandamus
B. bail D. payee

***END***

SUBMIT THIS TEST QUESTION SET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER SHEET TO YOUR WATCHERS.
BRINGING THE TEST QUESTION SET OUT OF THE ROOM WILL BE A GROUND FOR DISCIPLINARY
ACTION.
 Republic of the Philippines
PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
Manila

BOARD OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Registered Mechanical Engineer Licensure Examination

Sunday, Jan 20, 2019 07:30 a.m. – 12:30 p.m.

MATHEMATICS AND BASIC ENGINEERING SCIENCES SET A

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil No.2 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Three numbers m+2, 4m – 6, 3m – 2 are in arithmetic progression if m is

equal to what value?
A. 0 C. 2
B. 1 D. 3

2. Using the wheel and the axle, a 400 N load can be raised by a force of 50N
applied to the rim of the wheel. The radii of the wheel and the axle are 85
cm and 6 cm respectively. Calculate the efficiency of the machine.
A. 56% C. 12.5%
B. 65% D. 10 %

3. The sum of the reciprocals of three numbers in H.P. (harmonic progression)

is 12 and the product of these numbers is 1/48. What is the largest number?
A. 1/2 C. 1/6
B. 1/4 D. 1/3

4. A machine costing Php 720,000 is estimated to have a life of 10 years. If

the annual rate of depreciation is 25%, determine the total depreciation
using the constant percentage or declining balance method.
A. 523,845.34 C. 542,437.23
B. 679,454.27 D. 753,243.33

5. What is the geometric mean between – 4 and – 25?

A. 10 C. 16
B. – 10 D, - 16

6. A train weighing 1000 KN is being pulled up a 2% grade. The train’s

resistance is 5 N/KN. Traveling the distance of 300 m the speed of the
train was increased from 6 m/s to 12 m/s. What is the maximum power
developed by the locomotive.
A. 520.4 kW C. 503.5 kW
B. 432.8 kW D. 521.7 kW
7. There are 15 men is a room shake hands with each other, the total number of
handshakes is:
A. 90 C. 110
B. 105 D 115

8. Which of the following is not an assumption implicit in engineering

economic analysis?
A. The beginning of the year convention is applicable.
B. There is no inflation now, nor will there be any inflation during the
lifetime of the project.
C. The effective interest rate in the problem will be constant during the
lifetime of the project.
 D. Nonquantifiable factors can be disregarded.

9. The number of triangles that can be formed with 6 points on a circle is

A. 6 C. 15
B. 12 D. 20

10. The term independent of x in the expansion of ( 2x + 1/3x) (raised to 6)

is
A. 80/3 C. 160/27
B. 80/9 D. 160/9

11. An air-water vapor mixture is at a temperature of 20oC. The partial

pressure of water is 2.3 kPa, and the partial pressure of the dry air is
99.1 kPa. The saturation pressure for water vapor at 20oC is 2.339 kPa.
What is most nearly the humidity ratio of the air-water vapor mixture?
A. 0.014 C. 0.35
B. 0.26 D. 0.38

12. If matrix A is equal to first row ( ab , b(squared) ) and second row ( - a

(squared) , - ab), then A is a:
A. Scalar matrix C. idempotent matrix
B. Nilpotent matrix D. involuntary matrix

13. In calculations using standard structural shapes of I-beams, it is assumed

that the shear stress is carried by the
A. entire cross-sectional area. C. web only.
B. top flange only when in compression. D. flanges only.

14. A torsional pendulum is composed of a 0.5 m long shaft with a diameter of

0.5cm and a shear modulus of 8 x 104 MPa, and a thin 3 kg disk with a
radius of 30 cm. The natural frequency of the pendulum is 8.5 rad/s. What
is most nearly the period of oscillation?
A. 0.61 s C. 0.87 s
B. 0.74 s D. 0.96 s

15. Calculate the largest diameter circle that will fit inside a regular
pentagon with 2-cm sides?
A. 1.54 cm C. 3.29 cm
B. 2.752 cm D. 1.54 cm

16. Compute the sum of integers from 1 to 100 that are divisible by 2 or 5.
A. 5450 C. 3050
B. 2520 D. 2050

17. If matrix A, first row (-3, 4 ) , second row ( 2 , - 1 ) , then its

characteristic roots are:
A. ( 1, -5) C. (-1 , 5 )
B. ( 1, 5) D. (-1, -5 )

18. An engine is expected to have a maintenance cost of P1000 the first year.
It is believed that the maintenance cost will increase P 500 per year. The
interest rate is 6% compounded annually. Over a 10-year period, what will
be the approximate effective annual maintenance cost?
A. P 3011.00 C. P 2450.00
B. P 3452.00 D. P 1345.00

19. There are 10 defectives per 1,000 items of a product in the long run. What
is the probability that there is one and only one defective in random lot
of 100?
A. 0.01 C.0.5
B. 0.99(raised to 100) D.0.3697

20. A company has N machines of equal capacity that produce a total of 180
pieces each work day. If 2 machines break down, the workload of the
remaining is increased by 3 pieces each per day to maintain production.
What is the value of N?
A. 8 C. 10
B. 12 D. 15
21. A substance goes into solution at the rate of 25% of the undissolved
portion each minute. If the initial amount was 64/27 lb, what amount is
undissolved after 6 minutes?
A. 2/27 C. 27/64
B. 16/27 D. ¾

22. On a certain day the sun is observed to subtend an angle 032’10”. If the
diameter of the sun is 866,500 miles, how far away from it?
A. 9.26 x 10(raised to 6) miles
B. 4.63 x 10(raised to 8) miles
C. 9.26 x 10 (raised to 5 miles)
D. 4.68 x 10 (raised to 6) miles

23. All of the following processes can be found on a psychrometric chart

except
A. heating and humidifying. C. cooling and dehumidification.
B. black body radiation. D. evaporative cooling.

24. The number of ways which 5 boys and 5 girls can be seated so that no two
girls sit next to each other.
A. 5! (squared) C. 6!x5!
B. 10!/5! D. 10!/(5!)(squared)

25. The Carnot refrigeration cycle includes all of the following processes
except
A. isentropic expansion. C. isothermal heating.
B. isenthalpic expansion. D. isentropic compression.

26. Three posts are set in level ground in such a manner that their bases form
an equilateral triangle with sides 20 ft long. If the heights of the posts
are 12, 18, and 30 ft, find the area of the triangle formed by their tops?
A. 342 sq ft C. 235 sq. ft
B. 153 sq. ft D. 205 sq. ft.

27. Find the equation that must be satisfied by the coordinates of every
point(x, y) that is equidistant from the origin and the point (1,1)?
A. x + y = 1 C. 2x = y
B. x – y = 1 D. 3x – 2y = 1.

28. Which of the following statements is false?

A. The time rate of change of the angular momentum about a fixed point is
equal to the total moment of the external forces acting on the system
about the point.
B. The coefficient of restitution can be less than zero.
C. Momentum is conserved during elastic collisions.
D. The period of a simple pendulum is independent of the mass of the
pendulum.

29. A cubical box designed to hold 8 cu ft of water holds only 7.997 cu.ft.
What is the relative error in its edge?
A. – 0.00125 C. – 0.125
B. – 0.00025 D. – 0.000125

30. A stone dropped into a calm lake causes series of circular ripple. The
radius of the outer one increases at 2 ft/sec. How rapidly is the disturbed
area are changing at the end of 3 seconds?
A. 24pi sq.ft/s C. 12pi sq.ft/s
B. 48pi sq.ft/s D. 2pi sq.ft./s

31. If the first term of an infinite geometric series is 1 and its every term
is the sum of the next successive terms, the its fourth term will be:
A. 1/8 C. 1/4
B. 1/16 D. 1/2

32. Find the area of the region bounded by y = x(squared)/ 4 and y = x/2 + 2.
A. 11 C. 12
B. 9 D. 10
33. A solid is constructed with a circular base of radius 1 and such that
every plane section perpendicular to a certain diameter of the base is an
isosceles triangle whose altitude is 2. Find the volume.
A. pi/2 C. pi
B. 2pi D. 1.5 pi

34. Find the area of the largest isosceles triangle that can be drawn with
equal sides k inch long.
A. k(square)/3 C. k(square)/2
B. 2k(square) D. 2.5 k(square)

35. When using net present worth calculations to compare two projects, which
of the following could invalidate the calculation?

A. differences in the magnitudes of the projects

B. evaluating over different time periods
C. mutually exclusive projects
D. nonconventional cash flows

36. The inclined plane is 15 m and rises 3 m. A force is needed to slide a 20

kg box up the plane if friction is neglected. Find the AMA (Actual
Mechanical Advantage) if the force if a 70 N force is actually required.
A. 2.8 C. 3.1
B. 3.6 D. 5.0

37. If a quantity increase by 0.1% of its current value every 0.1 sec, the
doubling time is approximately equal to:
A. 14 sec C. 690 sec
B. 69 sec D. 69,000 sec

38. One of the advantages of comparing interest rates to the minimum

attractive rate of return (MARR)is that
A. the MARR is easy to calculate.
B. an effective interest rate need never be known.
C. it need not be used in numerical calculations.
D. it is guaranteed by an agency of the federal government.

39. The diameter of a sphere and the base of a cone are equal. What percentage
of that diameter must the cone’s height be so that both volumes are equal?
A. 133% C. 166%
B. 150% D. 200%

40. What do you think is the reason why does a spinning ice skater’s angular
velocity increase as she brings her arms in toward her body?
A. Her mass moment of inertia is reduced.
B. Her angular momentum is constant
C. Her radius of gyration is reduced.
D. All of these

41. A cubical container that measures 2 in. on a side is tightly packed with 8
marbles and is filled with water. All the 8 marbles are in contact with the
walls of the container and the adjacent marbles. All the marbles are the
same in size. What is the volume of water in the container?
A. 0.38 cu in C. 2.5 cu in
B. 3.8 cu in D. 4.2 cu in

42. What is the product of the complex numbers 3 + 4j and 7 – 2j?

A. 10 + 2j C. 13 + 34j
B. 13 + 22j D. 29 + 22j

43. What is the general solution to the following differential equation?

2d(squared)y / dx(squared) – 4 dy/dx + 4y = 0
A. y = C1cosx + C2sinx
B. y = C1e(raised to x) + C2e(raised to –x)
C. y = e(raised to –x) (C1cosx - C2sinx)
D. y = e(raised to x) (C1cosx + C2sinx)
44. A particle’s curvilinear motion is represented by the equation s (t) = 40t
+ 5t(squared) - 8t(cube).Calculate the initial acceleration of the
particle?
A. 2 m/ s (squared) C. 8 m/ s (squared)
B. 3 m/ s(squared) D. 10 m/ s (squared)

45. A particle position defined by S(t) = 2 sin t i + 4 cos t j (t in radians)

What the magnitude of the particle’s velocity when t = 4 rad?

A. 2.6 C. 3.3
B. 2.7 D. 4.1

46. A projectile has an initial velocity of 110 m / s and a launch angle of

20o from the horizontal. The surrounding terrain is level, and air friction
is to be disregarded. Compute the flight time of the projectile?
A. 3.8 s C. 8.9 s
B. 7.7 s D. 12 s

47. A 1530 kg car is towing a 300 kg trailer. The coefficient of friction

between all tires and the road is 0.80. The car and trailer are traveling
at 100 km/h around a banked curve of radius 200 m. What is the necessary
banking angle such that tire friction will not be necessary to prevent
skidding?
A. 8.0 C. 36
B. 21 D. 78

48. A pickup truck is traveling forward at 25 m/s. The bed is loaded with
boxes whose coefficient of friction with the bed is 0.40. What is most
nearly the shortest time that the truck can be brought to a stop such that
the boxes do not shift?
A. 2.3 s C. 5.9 s
B. 4.7 s D. 6.4 s

49. Solve for the value of x in the equation square root of (x – 3 ) = - 6.

A. 0 C. 39
B. - 3 D. no solution

50. Two circles are such that the sum of their circumference is 24 pi and the
sum of their areas is 84 pi square ft. Find the smaller radius.
A. 3.55 * C. 6
B. 8.45 D. 48

51. A debt of Php 10,000 with 10% interest compounded semi-annually is to be

amortized by semi-annual payments over the next 5 years. The first due is 6
months. Determine the semi-annual payment.
A. Php 1,200.00 C. Php 1,295.05
B. Php 1,193.90 D. Php 1,400.40

52. A gun is shot into a 0.50 KN block which is hanging from a rope of 1.8 m
long. The weight of the bullet is equal to 5 N with a muzzle velocity of
320 m/s. How high will the bag swing after it was hit by the bullet?
A. 0.61 m C. 0.90 m
B. 0.51 m D. 0.34 m

53. All of the following units are acceptable for quantifying work except
A. foot-pounds. C. joules.
B. watt-seconds. D. dynes.

54. A conical vessel has a height of 24 cm and a base diameter of 12 cm.

It holds water to a depth of 18 cm above its vertex. Find the volume of
itscontent in cubic centimeter.
A. 387.4 cm3 C. 381.7 cm3
B. 383.5 cm3 D. 385.2 cm3

55. What is the minimum initial velocity a rocket must be fired if it is to be

able to reach the target 1000 km away?
A. 3.1 km/s C. 4.4 km/s
 B. 3.4 km/s D. 2.4 km/s

56. An object weighing 400 N is held by a rope that passes over a horizontal
drum. The coefficient of friction between the rope and the drum is 0.25. If
the angle of contact is 150, determine the force that will raise the
object.
A. 350 N C. 540 N
B. 770 N D. 780 N

57. Two freight cars weighing 5 mtons each roll toward each other and couple.
The left car has a velocity of 1.5 m/s and the right car has a velocity of
1.2 m/s prior to the impact. What is the velocity of the two cars coupled
together after the impact?
A. 0.15 m/s right C. 0.15 m/s right
B. 0.25 m/s left D. 0.17 m/s right

58. A company issued 50 bonds of P 1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par
at the end of 15 years to accumulate the funds required for redemption. The
firm established a sinking fund consisting of annual deposits, the interest
rate of the fund being 4 %. What was the principal in the fund at the end
of the 12th year?
A. Php 32,938.00 C. Php 40,378.00
B. Php 38,453.00 D. Php 37,519.00

59. If the nominal interest rate is 3%, how much is Php 5000.00 worth in 10
years in a continuously compounded account?
A. P 5,450.00 C. P 6,750.00
B. P 6,300.00 D. P 6,120.00

60. The population of a certain city doubles every 40 yr. If the population is
1950 was 10,000, what was the population in 2010?
A. 2/27 C. 27/64
B. 16/27 D. 3/4

61. A tank contains 100 L of brine made by dissolving 60 kg of salt in pure

water. Salt water with a concentration of 1 kg/L enters the tank at a rate
of 2 L/min. A well-stirred mixture is drawn from the tank at a rate of 3
L/min. The mass of salt in the tank after one hour is most nearly:
A. 13 kg C. 37 kg
B. 43 kg D. 51 kg

62. If the sum of first n terms of a series is be 5n(squared) + 2n ,then the

second term is
A. 7 C. 24
B. 17 D. 42

63. The first term of an infinite geometric progression if 1 and each term is
twice the sum of the succeeding terms, then the sum of the series is:
A. 3/2 C. 5/3
B. 4/3 D. 5/2

64. The rule of 72 can be used to calculate the

A. number of monthly payments in six years.
B. time to double an investment.
C. time to triple an investment.
D. time to decrease an investment to 1/72 of its original value.

65. What is the area of an ellipse with an aspect ratio of two and total
perimeter of 18 inches?
A. 20.63 C. 14.53
B. 12.54 D. 22.54

66. What percent increase in volume is achieved for a sphere whose diameter
increases from 3cm to 4cm?
A. 200% C. 105%
B. 137% D. 270%
67. A current of 7 A passes through a 12 ohm resistor. What is most nearly the
power dissipated in the resistor?
A. 0.10 Hp C. 0.60 Hp
B. 0.8 Hp D. 8 Hp

68. A piece of equipment has an initial cost of Php5000 in year 1. The

maintenance cost is Php 300/yr for the total lifetime of seven years.
During years 1-3, the rate of inflation is 5%, and the effective annual
rate of interest is 9%. The uninflated present worth of then equipment
during year 1 is most nearly
A. Php3200 C. Php3400
B. Php3300 D. Php3500

69. Calculate the surface area (including both side and base) of a 4 m high
right circular cone with a base 3 m in diameter?
A. 24 m2 C. 32 m2
B. 27 m2 D. 36 m2

70. One item that differentiates the “Christmas club problem” from a standard
cash flow problem is
A. varying interest rates through the life of the problem.
B. varying cash flows through the life of the problem.
C. the existence of a payment at the beginning of the time at t = 0 and
the absence of a payment at the end of the problem.
D. the nonexistence of interest in the problem at all.

71. Permanent mineral rights on parcel of land are purchased for an initial
lump-sum payment of Php 5,000,000. Profits from mining activities are Php
600,000 and each year, and these profits are expected to continue
indefinitely. The interest rate earned on the initial investment is most
nearly
A. 8.3% C. 10%
B. 9.0% D. 12%

72. An auditorium is designed to seat 200 people. The ventilation rate is 2.50
x 10(raised to 4) cu m/h of outside air, or 3.3 x 10(raised to 4) kg/h.
The outside temperature is -10oC dry-bulb, and the outside pressure is
101.3 kPa. Air leaves the auditorium at 23oC dry-bulb. The air temperature
entering the auditorium is 21.6oC. Most nearly, how much heat should be
supplied to the ventilation air?
A. 120 kW C. 540 kW
B. 290 kW D. 780 kW

73. Air enters a cooling tower at 50 F dry-bulb and 49F wet-bulb temperature.
It leaves the tower saturated at 70F. Which condition is a likely outcome
of this?
A. Adsorption C. Condensation
B. Fog D. Sublimation

74. The parameter that has the greatest limiting effect on the thermal
performance of an open, evaporative cooling tower is:
A. Approach C. Range
B. Dry-bulb temperature D. Wet-bulb temperature

75. How many joules is equivalent to the energy of 1 kg matter??

A. 10 (raised to -10) J C. 1 MJ
B. 10(raised to -15) J D. 10 (raised to 17)

76. The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is defined as the order quantity
which minimizes the inventory cost per unit time. Which of the following
is notan assumption of basic EOQ model with no shortages?

A. The demand rate is uniform and constant.

B. There is a positive cost on each unit inventoried.
C. The entire reorder quantity is delivered instantaneously.
D. There is an upper bound on the quantity ordered.
77. Which of the following is NOT a correct derivative?
A. d(cos x)/dx = –sin x
B. d( 1 – x) cubed / dx = – 3(1 – x )squared
C. d(1/x) / dx = – 1 /x(squared)
D. d(csc x )/dx = – cot x

78. Which of the following is the engineering economic analysis that is

concerned with situations in which there is not enough information to
determine probability or frequency for the variables involved?
A. synthetical analysis
B. risk analysis
C. sensitivity analysis
D. uncertainty analysis

79. When exposed to the atmosphere, which of the following liquids is coldest?
A. oxygen C. nitrogen
B. argon D. helium

80. Find the locus of a point that moves so that it is always twice as far
from (1, 2) as from (-3 , 4)
A. 3x(squared) + 3y(squared) + 26x – 28y + 95 = 0
B. 3x(squared) - 3y(squared) + 20x – 12y + 90 = 0
C. 5x(squared) - 5y(squared) + 25x – 10y + 45 = 0
D. 5x(squared) + 5y(squared) + 15x – 7y + 40 = 0

81. Which of the following is the acceleration produced when a particle moves
away from its center of rotation?
A. tangential acceleration C. centripetal acceleration
B. coriolis acceleration D. centrifugal acceleration

82. All of the following are recognized and accepted methods of general
systems modelling except:
A. Monte Carlo simulation.
B. Replacement and renewal models.
C. Decision trees.
D. Rule of thumb methods.

83. Comparing successive terms of an unknown series to those of a series that

is known to converge or diverge is called :
A. the comparison test. C. the ratio test.
B. L’Hôpital’s rule. D. the mean value theorem.

84. A cable carrying a constant uniform load per unit length along the length
of the cable (e.g., a loose cable loaded by its own weight) will have a
shape of a
A. Straight line C. catenary
B. Parabola D. hyperbola

85. A room’s sensible space load is 72.5 kW. The latent load from occupants
and infiltration, but excluding intentional ventilation, 3.2 kW. A total of
600 L/s of outside air is required. What is most nearly the room sensible
heat ratio?
A. 0.12 C. 0.96
B. 0.39 D. 1.1
86. A 12.5 mm diameter steel rod is pinned between two rigid walls. The rod is
initially unstressed. The rod’s temperature subsequently increases 50oC.
The rod is adequately stiffened and supported such that buckling does not
occur. The coefficient of linear thermal expansion for steel is 11.7 x 10-6
1/oC. The modulus of elasticity for steel is 210 GPa. What is the
approximate axial force in the rod?
A. 2.8 kN C. 19 kN
B. 15 kN D. 58 kN
87. Which of the following metals has the highest specific heat capacity at
1000C?
A. aluminum C. copper
B. bismuth D. iron
88. Solve the spherical excess of the triangle formed by the North pole and
two points on the earth’s equator separated by 85 of longitude?
A. 85 deg C.275 deg
B. 60 deg D.95 deg

89. Study the series of numbers to discover “system” in which they are
arranged. For the series 1, 5, 14, 30, , 91 the fifth term is:
A. 59 C.55
B. 53 D.50
90. If an all-positive term diverging series is equal term for term to a
converging series with alternating signs, the original series is said to
be:
A. Monotonically increasing. C. Absolutely convergent.
B. Conditionally convergent. D. Finite.

91. The study of the practical laws of fluid flow and the resistance of open
pipes and channels is the purview of
A. fluid mechanics. C. aerodynamics
B. hydraulics. D. thermodynamics.

92. A circular sector has a radius of 8 cm and an arc length of 13 cm.

Calculate its area?
A. 48 cm2 C. 52 cm2
B. 50 cm2 D. 60 cm2
93. The relationship between the total volume of a mixture of nonreacting
gases and their partial volumes is given by
A. gravimetric fractions. C. Dalton’s law.
B. Amagat’s law. D. mole fractions.

94. All of the following processes are irreversible except

A. stirring of a viscous fluid.
B. a isentropic deceleration of a moving, perfect fluid.
C. an unrestrained expansion of a gas.
D. phase changes.

95. What is the indirect product cost (IPC) spending variance

A. the difference between actual IPC and IPC absorbed
B. the difference between actual IPC and IPC volume adjusted budget
C. the IPC volume adjusted budget (fixed + volume(variable IPC rate))
D. the IPC volume adjusted budget minus the total IPC absorbed

96. The sinking fund method is seldom used in industry because

A. the term “sinking fund” has a bad connotation for business.
B. sometimes it gives misleading answers.
C. the initial depreciation is low.
D. the initial depreciation is high.

97. Second law limitation on the maximum horsepower output from any power unit
burning 1,000,000 BTU/hr of fuel with high and low temperature extremes of
15400F and 400F is:
A. 98. C. 1140.
B. 295. D. 3830.
98. Equilibrium conditions exist in all except which of the following:

A. in reversible processes.
B. along ideal frictionless, nondissipative paths where forward and
reverse processes occur at equal rates.
C. in processes where driving forces are infinitesimals.
D. in a steady state flow process.
99. If one root of equation x(squared) + ax + 12 = 0 is 4 while the equation
x(squared) + ax + b = 0 has equal roots, then the value of b is:
A. 4/7 C. 4/49
B. 7/4 D. 49/4

100. The ratio of a load-bearing force to the applied force for a lever is
called its
A. Load factor C. mechanical advantage
B. Efficiency D. influence factor

*** END***

SUBMIT THIS TEST QUESTION SET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER SHEET TO YOUR WATCHERS.
BRINGING THE TEST QUESTION SET OUT OF THE ROOM WILL BE A GROUND FOR DISCIPLINARY
ACTION.
MATHEMATICS,ENG’G ECONOMICS & ENG’G SCIENCES

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Together, Lumen and Rey are going home to the province to visit their mothers. If Lumen visits her mother
every 6 days, and Rey visits his mother every 8 days, after how many days will they visit their mothers
together again?
A. 7 C. 18
B. 14 D. 24 *

2. What is the equation of the line passing through A(3,1) parallel to the line 2x + y -11 =0 ?
A. 2x + y - 4 = 0 * C. 2x + y + 2 = 0
B. -2x –y + 4 = 0 D. x - 2y – 4 = 0

3. Approximately how many years will it take to double an investment at a 6% effective annual rate?
A. 10 yr C. 15 yr
B. 12 yr * D. 17 yr

4. An individual contributes Php200 per month to a 401 (k) retirement account. The account earns interest at a
nominal annual interest rate of 8%, with interest being credited monthly. What is the value of the account after
35 years?
A. Php368,000 C. Php447,000
B. Php447,000 D. Php459,000 *

5. Find the equation of the line perpendicular to the line that passes through point A(2,3) and the origin ?
A. 3x + y – 8 = 0 C. 3x – y – 10 = 0 *
B. x + 3y = 0 D. x + 3y – 6 = 0

6. Cash money credit necessary to establish and operate an enterprise

A. assets C. capital *
B. liabilities D. funds

7. Two triangles are congruent if two angles and the included side of one are equal respectively to two angles and
the included side of the other.
A. accuracy C. theorem *
B. significant figures D. experimentation

8. A line that meets a plane but is not perpendicular to it in relation to the plane.
A. coplanar C. oblique *
B. parallel D. collinear

9. Php5000 is put into an empty savings account with a nominal interest rate of 5%. No other contributions are
made the account. With monthly compounding, how much interest will have been earned after five years?
A. Php1250 C. Php1410
B. Php1380 D. Php1420 *

10. An engineer deposits Php10,000 in a savings account on the day her child is born. She deposits an additional
Php1000 on every birthday after that. The account has a 5% nominal interest rate, compounded continuously.
How much money will be in the account the day after the child’s 21 st birthday?
A. Php36,200 C. Php64,800 *
B. Php41,300 D. Php84,300

11. Find the smallest positive integer n such that the nth derivative of cosx is cosx.
A. 2 C. 3
B. 4 * D. 5

12. The angle which the line of sight to the object makes with the horizontal which is above the eye of the observer
is called
A. angle of elevation * C. acute angle
B. angle of depression D. obtuse angle

13. An equilateral triangle is also equiangular.

A. axiom C. theorem *
B. Lemma D. corollary

14. The sum of the exterior angles of any polygon is equal to

A. two straight angles* C. straight angle
B. right angles D. three straight angles

15. The three altitude of a triangle meet in a common point called

A. incenter C. centroid
B. circumcenter D. orthocenter *
16. All radii of a circle are equal.
A. axiom C. theorem *
B. Lemma D. corollary

17. If P 500 is invested now, P 700 two years from now, and P 900 four years from now ( all at 4 % ) , what will
be the total amount in ten years ?
A. 2837.00 * C. 2783.00
B. 3287.00 D. 3827.00

18. What is the compounded amount of P 550 left for eight years with interest at nominal 6 % compounded semi-
annually.
A. 388 C. 499
B. 883 * D. 995

19. How much would be accumulated in the sinking fund that is to amount to P 50,000 at the end of 18 years if
interest is nominal 4 % compounded monthly
A. 35,785 C. 66,745
B. 99,400 D. 22,738 *

20. An urn contains 7 red balls and 3 white balls. What is the probability of getting 2 red balls and a white ball?
A. 7/40 * C. 7/21
B. 10/21 D. 21/40

21. A card is dealt successively from an ordinary deck of 52 playing cards without repetition. What is the probability
of getting a spade, a diamond, a heart and a club?
A. 0.0055 C. 0.0044 *
B. 0.0066 D. 0.0077

22. A lighthouse blinks five times in a minute. A neighboring lighthouse blinks four times in a minute. If they will
blink simultaneously, in how many seconds will they blink together again?
A. 20 C. 40
B. 30 D. 60 *

23. The second and sixth terms of a geometric progression are 3/10 and 243/160, respectively. What is the first
term of its sequence?
A. 1/10 C. 3/5
B. 1/5 * D. 3/2

24. An item is purchased for P 100,000. Annual costs are P 18,000. Using 8% , what is the capitalized cost of
perpetual service ?
A. 425,000 C. 225,000
B. 525,000 D. 325,000 *

25. What is the true effective annual rate of a credit card plan that charges 1.5 % per month on an unpaid balance ?
A. 19.56% * C. 20.56%
B. 18.56% D. 17.56%

26. How much must be invested at the end of each month for 30 years in a sinking fund that is to amount to P
50,000 at the end of 30 years if interest is nominal 4 % compounded monthly ?
A. 72.05 * C. 77.78
B. 80.05 D. 88.65

27. It is defined as the motion of a rigid body in which a straight line passing through any two of its particle always
remains parallel to its initial position
A. Rotation C. Translation *
B. Plane motion D. Kinematics

28. A perpendicular segment from a vertex of the triangle to the line containing the opposite side
A. altitude* C. angle bisector
B. median D. apothem
29. Four committees is to be formed in a high school club of 8 sophomores and 5 freshmen. In how many ways can
they formed by choosing two from each group?
A. 1120 ways * C. 1160 ways
B. 2240 ways D. 2320 ways

30. Five firms agrees to contribute each, to buy a library. If three more firms join in the group the share will be
reduced by $900. What is the price of the library?
A. $24000 C. $10000
B. $12000 * D. $20000

31. Solve for x if arccosx + arccos2x = 600

A. 0.5 * C. 0.3
B. 0.6 D. 0.4
32. The special type of quadrilateral with two pairs of adjacent sides equal.
A. parallelogram C. rectangle
B. trapezoid D. kite *

33. It is point on the axis midway between the focus and the directrix of the parabola.
A. vertex * C. latus rectum
B. origin D. eccentrity

34. The highest point of figure with respect to the base or the plane of the base.
A. apothem C. apex *
B. peak D. altitude

35. A painting of height 3 ft hangs on the wall of a museum, with the bottom of the painting 6 ft above the floor. If
the eyes of an observer are 5 ft above the floor, how far from the base of the wall should the observer stand to
maximize his angle of vision?
A. 30 C. 18
B. 2 * D. 4

36. Find the radius of curvature of the hyperbola xy =1 at (1.1).

A. 2 * C. 1
B. 1/ 2 D. 1/2

37. Penal provision of a contract to compensate for the losses incurred by one party due to the failure to comply
with contract provisions
A. force majuore C. liquidated damages *
B. quasi-delicts D. dacion-en-pago

38. The balance sheet is a statement showing the financial status of the company at any given time. Which of the
statements not a part of the balance sheet.
A. net worth C. liabilities
B. asset D. cost of goods sold *

39. A device used to determine whether the part has been made to the tolerance required and does not usually
indicate a specific dimension.
A. gage * C. micrometer
B. meter D. durometer

40. What is the angle of pi and less than 2pi.

A. acute C. obtuse
B. oblique * D. supplementary

41. A cylinder weights 150 lbf. Its cross-sectional area is 40 square inches. When the cylinder stands vertically on
one end, what pressure does the cylinder exert on the floor?
A. 14.1 kPa C. 63.2 kPa
B. 25.8 kPa * D. 89.7 kPa

42. What pressure is a column of water 100 centimeters high equivalent to?
A. 9810 dyne/cm2 C. 0.1 bars
B. 9810 N/m2 * D. 0.1 atm

43. A statement the truth of which follows with little or no proof from a theorem.
A. axiom C. postulate
B. corollary * D. hypothesis

44. The temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the pressure exerted on the liquid.
A. pour point C. cloud point
B. boiling point * D. flash point
45. The weight of an object in air is equal to the weight of the displaced liquid on which the object is placed.
A. Pascal’s law C. Torrecelli’s theorem
B. Bouyancy * D. Equilibrium

46. Terence’s office is 12 km from his house. If, one day, he drove his car to his office at a constant speed rate of
30 kph and came back home driving at 20 kph, what is the average speed for the entire trip?
A. 24 kph * C. 27 kph
B. 25 kph D. 28 kph

47. A solid having a constant cross - section in plane perpendicular to its axis.
A. conic C. prism *
B. cissoid D. ellipse

48. Costs that are difficult to attribute or allocate to a specific output or with activity.
 A. indirect cost * C. variable cost
B. direct cost D. invariable cost

49. The velocity of propagation of an infinitely small disturbance relative to the fluid ahead is
A. acoustic velocity * C. nozzle velocity
B. velocity of sound D. interior velocity

50. Velocity of sound in an ideal gas is only a function of

A. pressure C. volume
B. temperature * D. entropy

51. A machine costs Php10,000 and can be depreciated over a period of four years, after which its salvage value will
be Php2000. What is the straight-line depreciation in year 3?
A. Php2000 * C. Php4000
B. Php2500 D. Php6000

52. If a credit union pays 4.125% interest compounded quarterly, what is the effective annual interest rate?
A. 4.189% * C. 12.89%
B. 8.250% D. 17.55%

53. The ratio of the actual velocity at a given location and the velocity of sound at the same location .
A. Prandlt number C. Reynolds number
B. Mach number * D. Moles number

54. A jet plane travels at 1100 km/hr. If the mach number at this speed is less than unity, it is called
A. sonic C. trans-sonic
B. supersonic D. subsonic *

55. If the second derivative of the equation of a curve is equal to the negative of the equation of that same curve,
the curve is
A. tangent C. a parabola
B. a sinusoid * D. an exponential

56. Varignon’s theorem is used to determine

A. volume of sphere C. location of centroid *
B. moment of inertia D. area of a circle

57. Force that opposes the relative motion of a body at rest or in motion
A. frictional force * C. centripetal force
B. resultant force D. centrifugal force

58. It is the one having all terms of the same degree for polynomials such as x³+x²y+y³
A. identical C. homogeneous *
B. heterogeneous D. partial

59. The operation of root extraction.

A. evolution* C. revolution
B. involution D. devolution

60. The specific gravity of mercury relative to water is 13.55. What is the specific weight of mercury? (The specific
weight of water is 62.4 lbf per cubic foot.)
A. 82.2 kN/m3 C. 132.9 kN/m3 *
B. 102.3 kN/m 3
D. 150.9 kN/m3

61. If the specific weight of a liquid is 58.5 lbf per cubic foot, what is the specific volume of the liquid?
A. 0.5321 cm3/g C. 0.9504 cm3/g
B. 0.6748 cm /g 3
D. 1.0675 cm3/g *

62. The angle of the line of sight on the stationary object referred from the standard directions
A. direction C. depression
B. bearing * D. elevation

63. An equilateral parallelogram is called:

A. rhomboid C. rectangle
B. rhombus * D. polygon

64. How much of a 40% solution of alcohol and how much of an 80% solution should be mixed to give 150 liters of
a 50% solution?
A. 112.5 liters/37.5 liters * C. 211 liters/3.5liters
B.121.5 liters/53.7liters D. 212 liters/ 53.7 liters
65. How much water must be evaporated from the 18 kg of 20% salt solution to produce a 50% solution.
A. 2.25 kg C. 7.5 kg
B. 5.0 kg D. 10.5 kg *

66. A series of numbers having the common ratio:

A. geometric progression * C. harmonic progression
B. arithmetic progression D. no answer

67. Find the last term of the series of numbers 2,5,8,….. to the 8th term.
A. 20 C. 22
B. 21 D. 23 *

68. It is straight line towards which a curve approaches but never meets.
A. directrix C. asymptotes *
B. major axis D. conjugate axis

69. It is rule used for differentiating a function, that is , if z is function if y and y is function of x, then dz/dx=
(dz/dx)(dy/dx)
A. L. Hospital’s rule C. Crammer’s rule
B. Chain rule * D. slide rule

70. Two triangles are congruent if they satisfy ____________.

A. SAS rule C. SSS rule
B. ASA rule D. any of the above *

71. The process of plotting points to give rise to the graph of a curve. It includes the use of techniques of symmetry,
maxima and minima, curvature and asymptote.
A. drafting C. dimensional analysis
B. curve tracing * D. correlation

72. A method of solving linear equations of several unknown simultaneously using determinants or matrices.
A. Binomial theorem C. Cramer’s rule *
B. Coulumb’s law D. Chain rule

73. Geometric figures having identical shape and size.

A. similar C. concurrent
B. conjugate D. congruent *

74. An equilateral polygon or sometimes known as a regular polygon.

A. equigon C. perigon
B. isogon * D. decagon

75. The base of a number system.

A. radius C. characteristics
B. radix * D. matrix

76. The product of the n consecutive integers from 1 to n.

A. serial C. differential
B. integral D. factorial *

77. A line segment joining two points on a circle

A. Sector C. Arc
B. Chord * D. Tangent

78. An angle formed by a tangent and a chord drawn to the point of contact is measured by
A. twice the intercepted arc
B. thrice the intercepted arc
C. one-half the intercepted arc *
D. one-third the intercepted arc

79. In a proportion, the second and third terms are called

A. means* C. interior
B. extremes D. exterior

80. A statement, the truth of which is admitted without proof.

A. theorem C. corollary
B. hypothesis D. axiom*

81. If the area of a circle is 64pi mm2, compute the allowable error in the area of a circle if the allowable error in the
radius is 0.02 mm.
A. 1.01 mm2 * C. 2.32 mm2
 B. 1.58 mm2 D. 0.75 mm2

82. The roots of the quadratic equation are 1/3 and 3/2. What is the equation?
A. 6x2 + 5x + 3 = 0 C. 6x2 + 7x – 3 = 0 *
B. 6x2 – 7x – 3 = 0 D. 6x2 + 7x + 3 = 0

83. The water tank in Calamba Water District can be filled by pipe A in half the time pipe B can empty the tank.
When both pipes are operating, the tank can be filled in 1 hour and 12 minutes. Determine the time, in hours,
for pipe A to fill the tank alone.
A. 0.6 * C. 0.75
B. 0.7 D. 0.8

84. What is the value of k to make the expression kx2 – 3kx + 9 a perfect square?
A. 2 C. 3
B. 4 * D. 5

85. A cat has a litter of seven kittens. If the probability is 0.52 that a kitten will be female, what is the probability
that exactly two of the seven will be male?
A. 0.07 C. 0.23
B. 0.18* D. 0.29

86. What is the approximate probability that no two people in a group of seven have the same birthday?
A. 0.056 C. 0.92
B. 0.43 D. 0.94*

87. What is the approximate probability of exactly two people in a group of seven having a birthday on April 15?
A. 1.2 x 10-18 C. 7.4 x 10-6
B. 2.4 x 10-17 D. 1.6 x 10-4 *

88. A bag contains 100 balls numbered 1 to 100. One ball is drawn from the bag. What is the probability that the
number on the ball selected will be odd or greater than 80?
A. 0.1 C. 0.6*
B. 0.5 D. 0.7

89. Two 20 m diameter circles are placed so that the circumference of each just touches the center of the other.
What is the area common to each circle?
A. 61.4 m2 C. 123 m2 *
B. 105 m2 D. 166 m2

90. The vertical angle to the top of a flagpole from point A on the ground in observed to be 3711’. The observer
walks 17 m directly away from point A and the flagpole to point B and finds the new angle to be 2543’. What is
the approximate height of the flagpole?
A. 10 m C. 82 m
B. 22 m * D. 300 m

91. A graduating high school student decided to take a year off and work to save money for college. The student
plans to invest all money earned in a saving account earning 6% interest, compounded quarterly. The student
hopes to have Php5000 by the time school starts in 12 months. How much money will the student have to save
each month?
A. Php396 / mo C. Php407 / mo *
B. Php405 / mo D. Php411 / mo

92. A gold mine is projected to produce Php20,000 during its first year of operation, Php19,000 the second year,
Php18,000 the third year, and so on. If the mines is expected to produce for a total of 10 years, and the
effective annual interest rate is 6%, what is the present worth?
A. Php118,000 * C. Php150,000
B. Php125,000 D. Php177,000

93. The national debt is approximately Php4 trillion. What is the required payment per year to completely pay off the
debt in 20 years, assuming an interest rate of 6%?
A. Php315 billion C. Php350 billion *
B. Php325 billion D. Php415 billion

94. The president of a growing engineering firm wishes to give each of 50 employees a holiday bonus. How much is
needed to invite monthly for a year at 12% nominal interest rate, compounded monthly, so that cash employee
will receive a Php1000 bonus?
A. Php2070 C. Php3940 *
B. Php3840 D. Php4170

95. An iron block weighs 5 Newtons and has a volume of 200 cubic centimeters. What is the density of the block?
A. 800 kg/m3 C. 1255 kg/m3
 B. 988 kg/m3 D. 2550 kg/m3 *

96. If the density of the gas is 0.003 slugs per cubic foot, what is the specific weight of the gas?
A. 9.04 N/m3 C. 76.3 N/m3
B. 15.2 N/m * 3
D. 98.2 N/m3

97. Which of the following are not units of pressure?

A. Pa C. kg/m.s2
B. bars D. kg/m2 *

98. Water (specific heat c = 4.2 kJ/kg.K) is being heated by a 1500W heater. What is the rate of change in
temperature of 1 kg of the water?
A. 0.043 K/s C. 0.357 K/s *
B. 0.179 K/s D. 1.50 K/s

99. One kilogram of water (c = 4.2 kJ/kg.K) is heated by 300 BTU of energy. What is the change in temperature,
in K?
A. 17.9 K C. 73.8 K
B. 71.4 K D. 75.4 K *

100.Determine the change in enthalpy per lbm of nitrogen gas as its temperature changes from 500 F to 200 F. c
= 0.2483 BTU/lbm-R)
A. -74.49 BTU/lbm * C. -68.47 BTU/lbm
B. -72.68 BTU/lbm D. 63.78 BTU/lbm
 Republic of the Philippines
PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
Manila

BOARD OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Registered Mechanical Engineer Licensure Examination

Sunday, January 30, 2011 07:30 a.m. – 12:30 p.m.
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

POWER AND INDUSTRIAL PLANT ENGINEERING SET A

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the
answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil No.2 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. For a fuel-rich mixture, the equivalence ratio for a given mass of air is always
A. greater than one * C. less than one
B. equal to one D. less than or equal to one

2. In heat transfer by conduction, due to symmetry the heat flow at a point is perpendicular to the
isothermal surface through the point. This mode of conduction is a characteristic of
A. non - isotropic C. insulators
B. isotropic solid * D. conductors

3. In Diesel power plants, its purpose is to reduce the weight to power ratio
A. supercharging * C. turbo-charging
B. lubricating D. rubber brushing

4. Indicator used to determine the anti-knock characteristics of gasoline

A. octane number * C. heptane number
B. cetane number D. dodecane number

5. Why should you avoid bending or twisting of fan blades in an air conditioning unit?
A. It will not cause ice build-up
B. It will wear out the motor bearings & cause noise *
C. It may not slice suction line
D. It decreases the volume flow of refrigerant

6. The total stack flow loss is usually less than what percentage of calculated draft ?
A. 4 C. 6
B. 5 * D. 7

7. An improved steam power cycle in which steam are extracted from the turbine for feedwater
heating.
A. Rankine cycle C. Topping cycle
B. Binary cycle D. Regenerative cycle *

8. The carbon dioxide (CO2) percentage in the flue gas of an efficiency fired boiler should be
approximately.
A. 6 C. 18
B. 12 * D. 24

9. What kind of heat exchanger where water is heated to a point that dissolved gases are liberated
?
A. Evaporator C. Deaerator *
B. Intercooler D. Condenser

10. When water inside a beaker is heated; over a hot plate, the mechanism of heat transfer through
the water is considered to be
A. conduction C. natural convection *
B. forced convection D. radiation
11. An ideal surface that absorbs all incident radiation, regardless of wavelength and direction and is
also considered to be perfect emitter is referred to as a
A. gray body C. black body *
B. black hole D. pin hole

12. Which of the following controls flow of water to boiler in one direction ?
A. Globe valve C. Gasket
B. Check valve * D. Steam trap

13. Generally steam turbines in power stations operate at

A. 3000 rpm * C. 400 rpm
B. 1000 rpm D. 500 rpm

14. Quality is a measure of which of the following ?

A. Volatility C. Dryness *
B. Moisture D. Wetness

15. The property of the solid that provides a measure of the rate of heat transfer relative to the
energy storage is referred to as
A. thermal conductivity C. thermal diffusivity *
B. heat capacity D. viscosity

16. Most people are comfortable with the relative humidity of

A. 30 % to 70 % * C. 10 % to 40 %
B. 20 % to 30 % D. 40 % to 80 %

17. What is the minimum factor of safety of a re-installed or second hand boiler ?
A. 4 C. 6 *
B. 5 D. 7

18. Which of the following is not an instrument used to measure flow rates ?
A. Anenometer C. Flowmeter
B. Rotameter D. Velometer *

19. When the movement of a gas vapor is effected at a low pressure i. e., up to 0.1 kg/cm 2, the
equipment used is
A. jet C. blower *
B. compressor D. fan

20. The heat transferred radially across insulated pipe per unit area
A. remain constant
B. inversely proportional to the thermal conductivity
C. decrease from pipe wall to insulated surface *
D. increase from pipe wall to insulated surface

21. Under normal operating conditions, when a solid material to be dried is placed inside a batch
tray dryer, the material is usually subjected
A. under constant drying conditions *
B. under variable drying conditions
C. under high temperature drying
D. under low temperature drying

22. States that the external pressure applied to a confined fluid increases the pressure of every
point in the fluid by an amount equal to the external pressure.
A. Archimedes principle C. Bernoulli’s principle
B. Pascal’s law * D. Dalton’slaw

23. A heat exchange device used to provide heat transfer between the exhaust gases and the air
prior to its entrance to the combustor.
A. Economizer C. Regenerator *
B. Reheater D. Heat exchanger

24. A change of phase directly from vapor to solid without passing through the liquid state is called
as
A. Sublimation C. Solidification
B. Vaporization D. Deposition *
25. In terms of heat transfer, the use of a cooling tower is said to be more efficient and more
economical compared to an ordinary heat exchanger since
A. large volume of air is available and free
B. temperature profiles of air and water can cross each other *
C. large amount of water can be processed
D. a cooling tower is much smaller and cheaper than a heat exchanger

26. A boiler where the water passes through inside the tube while the hot gases surround the
outside surface of the tube is
A. fire-tube boiler C. stoker
B. water-tube boiler * D. Scotch boiler

27. The simultaneous on-site generation of energy and steam from the same plant output is
A. Regeneration C. Binary cycle
B. Waste heat recovery D. Co-generation *

28. Which of the following indicates the water level inside the boiler ?
A. Baffles C. Water walls
B. Fusible plug D. Water column*

29. A line that shows the relation of the steam consumption and the load of steam turbine-
generator.
A. Dalton’s line C. Jonval’s line
B. Willan’s line * D. Rankine line

30. In boilers, what is the maximum distance of any smokestack from any woodwork or framing ?
A. 405 mm C. 305 mm *
B. 505 mm D. 205 mm

31. What is the temperature of a pure substance at a temperature of absolute zero ?

A. Unity C. Infinity
B. Zero * D. Undefined

32. In cooling cycle, the dry bulb temperature (db) of the air is lowered. When this happens the
relative humidity
A. increases *
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. increases or decreases depending on the temperature at which it is cooled

33. A pipe with an outside diameter of 2 ½ in. is insulated with a 2 in. layer asbestos ( k = 0.12 )
followed by a layer of cork 1 ½ in thick ( k = 0.03 ). If the temperature of the outer surface of
the pipe is 290 oF and that of the outer surface of the cork is 90 oF, calculate the heat loss per
hour per 100 ft of insulated pipe.
A. 6,190 Btu/hr * C. 7869 Btu/hr
B. 4560 Btu/hr D. 3678 Btu/hr

34. Which of the following converts energy of water to mechanical energy ?

A. Pump C. Generator
B. Turbine * D. Draft tube

35. In gas compressors, when the volumetric efficiency increases, then the piston displacement is
A. increased C. constant
B. decreased * D. defined

36. Which of the following smoothens the flow due to the nature of flow of the liquid from a
reciprocating pump ?
A. Air filter C. Strainer
B. Air chamber * D. Foot valve

37. Pump whose purpose is to increase the effective water pressure by sucking water from a public
service main or private use water system
A. Submersible pump C. Horizontal split-case pump
B. Booster pump * D. Vertical shaft turbine pump

38. When a solid material is said to be “dry” it means that

A. the solid does not contain any moisture
B. the solid still contains very small amount of moisture *
C. the solid contains equilibrium moisture
D. the weight of the solid is the same as the bone dry weight
39. In case of axial flow compression for minimum fluid friction and blade tip clearance losses, the
blades of an axial flow compressor are designed for
A. 80 reaction C. 60 reaction
B. 85 reaction D. 53 reaction *

40. This is the temperature of a vapor - gas mixture as ordinarily determined by the immersion of a
thermometer in the mixture.
A. Wet bulb temperature C. Dew point temperature
B. Dry bulb temperature * D. Saturation temperature

41. A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air over its top surface. The heat that is first transferred to
the air layer close to the block is by conduction. It is eventually carried away from the surface
by
A. convection * C. conduction
B. radiation D. thermal

42. When drying banana chips under the sun, the rate of drying is faster
A. on a slightly breezy day C. on a cloudy day
B. on a calm day D. on a hot and windy day *

43. As a liquid changes phase to a solid , its entropy_____

A. increases C. remains the same
B. decreases * D. constant

44. As a gas is cooled in an isobaric process, its volume___

A. increases C. remains the same
B. decreases * D. constant

45. During the compression process, the internal energy of the refrigerant vapor
A. increases * C. remains the same
B. decreases D. none of the above

46. As the saturation pressure of the refrigerant in the evaporator increases, the refrigeration
effect of the process ____
A. increases * C. remains the same
B. decreases D. none of the above

47. The type of compressor that uses ring valves is a ____compressor

A. roller C. rotary vane
B. scroll D. reciprocating *

48. A receiver tank is used to___

A. hold the excess refrigerant during lighter loads *
B. collect oil from the base of a riser
C. separate liquid from vapor refrigerant
D. all of the above

49. As the refrigeration load decreases, the amount of refrigerant catering through-flow
receiver_____
A. increases C. decreases *
B. remains the same D. varies

50. If the specific heat for a certain process is given by the equation c = 0.2 + 0.00005T Btu per lb
– deg, how much heat should be transferred to raise the temperature of 1 lb from 500 R to 2000
R?
A. 394 Btu/lb * C. 590 Btu/lb
B. 788 Btu/lb D. 187 Btu/lb

51. If the volumetric efficiency of a pump is 95%, what is the slip?

A. 0.05 * C. 0.00005
B. 0.005 D. 0.0005

52. A gas is heated at a constant temperature of 550 C until the entropy increases by 3.00 x 10 6
J/K. How much heat is added?
A. 2.5 GJ * C. 2.7 GJ
B. 2.9 GJ D. 3.1 GJ
53. What would be the resistance of the scale deposit if the overall heat transfer coefficient for a
tube reduced from 1,500 W/m2 K to 1,100 W/m2 K?
A. 2500 W/m2 K C. 3500 W/m2 K
B. 4125 W/m K *
2
D. 5550 W/m2 K

54. Two different types of heat exchangers are being considered – parallel flow and counter flow.
The heating fluid is water at a rate of 4.0 kg/min. which enters at 60 C and leaves at 40 C. The
heated fluid is also water at a rate of 8.0 kg/min. It enters at 10 C and leaves at 20 C. What
would be the relative sizes of the two types of heat exchanger?
A. They would be equal in size
B. The counter flow heat exchanger would be 10 % larger
C. The parallel flow heat exchanger would be 5 % smaller
D. The parallel flow heat exchanger would be 6 % larger *

55. A dam 15 m high has a water behind it to a depth of 10 m. What is the overturning force per
meter of width?
A. 1.6 MJ * C. 2.0 MJ
B. 1.8 MJ D. 2.3 MJ

56. A two meter I.D. pipe is flowing half full. What is the hydraulic radius?
A. 1.00 m C. 1.50 m
B. 0.50 m * D. 1.75 m

57. Why must instrumentation and measurement equipment be maintained to provide accurate
measurements?
A. It is in the union contract
B. The insurance company requires it
C. To keep tabs on the manufacturing process
D. To ensure part replacement compatibility *

58. A large paper plant uses its own cogeneration power plant to generate its electricity because
A. it permits the use of a more efficient generator
B. the company can better control the voltage
C. it does away with high power lines leading to the plant
D. it provides a more efficient conversion of fuel *

59. A large municipal power plant produces 1,000 MW of power. The overall plant efficiency is 32 %.
Coal with a heating value of 24 MJ/kg is used to heat the boilers. How much coal is burned each
day?
A. 10,500 metric tons C. 12,000 metric tons
B. 11,250 metric tons * D. 12,500 metric tons

60. An office air conditioning system drew in a quantity of hot air from outside, cooled it to 1 C, and
mixed it with the internal air of a building. Care was taken to supply enough fresh air to
eliminate objectionable odors. The temperature of the space was maintained constant, and yet
some people became uncomfortable in the afternoon. Why?
A. The relative humidity had dropped *
B. When a person spends a long time at a constant temperature that person becomes
uncomfortable
C. Radiant heat from others in the office made the space uncomfortable
D. The complainers were not really uncomfortable, they were just bored

61. What would be the cooling requirement due to the emission of a body heat to maintain a
comfortable temperature in a dance hall that had an attendance of 1500 people if it has been
determined that 75 % of the people will be dancing and the others will be seated. Tests have
shown that an adult will give off 71.8 W of sensible heat while engaging in moderate dancing,
and 57.1 W of sensible heat while sitting. The latent heat emissions for similar situations have
been found to equal 177.3 W for dancers, and 45.4 sitters.
A. 200 kW C. 267 kW
B. 301 kW D. 319 kW *

62. A refrigerator is rated at USA one ton capacity. It maintains a cooling temperature of 4.4 C
(evaporator temperature). A refrigerant with a refrigerating effect of 136 kJ/kg is in the
condenser just ahead of the expansion valve. If the refrigerant vapor has a density of 19.80
kg/m3 what should be the capacity of the compressor?
A. 0.078 m3/min * C. 0.091 m3/min
B. 0.102 m3/min D. 0.113 m3/min
63. The volumetric output of a centrifugal pump is reduced by closing a valve part way on the intake
side of the pump, throttling the intake. The reduction of flow is accompanied by “ popping “
noises which seem to come from inside the case. What is the probable cause?
A. The impeller has broken
B. Dirt particles have got into the pump intake
C. The intake valve flow seal is loose and vibrates
D. The fluid is cavitating *

64. A centrifugal pump pumps water at the rate of 1000 L/min against a head of 10 m. What is the
power requirement?
A. 1.59 kW C. 1.98 kW
B. 1.63 kW * D. 1.07 kW

65. A fan delivers 225 m3 of standard air per minute against a back pressure of 10.0 cm of water to
a coal burning furnace. What power is required to operate the fan if it is 85 % efficient?
A. 4.33 kW * C. 3.95 kW
B. 3.68 kW D. 4.87 kW

66. Compute the available power if a hydropower station has an average flow of 1,500 cubic meters
per second and a head of 420 meters.
A. 8420 MW C. 63 MW
B. 45 MW D. 6174 MW

67. A turbine with an overall efficiency of 85% is supplied with 8 cubic meters per second of water
under a net head of 200 meters. Calculate the power developed by the turbine.
A. 15696.0 kW C. 17585.5 kW
B. 13341.6 kW D. 11230.4 kW

68. An engine operating on a Carnot cycle between temperatures of 500 C and 30 C produces 50 kJ
of work. What change in entropy occurs during the heat rejection process?
A. -0.1064 kJ/K * C. -0.2128 kJ/K
B. -0.1340 kJ/K D. -0.2056 kJ/K

69. Water flows through a pipe of 10 mm diameter at a velocity of 1 m/s. Determine the velocity of
water if the pipe diameter gradually increases t 15 mm.
A. 0.55 m/s C. 0.44 m/s *
B. 0.33 m/s D. 0.66 m/s

70. Water in an insulated container is heated by 3 kW electric heater. In order to maintain a uniform
temperature inside the container, a 200 W capacity mechanical stirrer is used. Assuming heat
and work transfer to the water only, determine the change in internal energy of the water in 10
minutes of time.
A. 120 kJ C. 1800 kJ
B. 1200 kJ D. 1680 kJ *

71. In an Otto cycle, the initial volume of 50 cc of air and petrol mixture is compressed to 10 cc
isentropically with index of compression k = 1.4 . Calculate the thermal efficiency.
A. 47.5 % * C. 45.7 %
B. 37.5 % D. 57.7 %

72. A reversed Carnot cycle absorbs heat at the rate of 1 kW from cold chamber maintained at 250
K and discharges it to the atmosphere at 300 K. Find the work required for the cycle.
A. 1 kW C. 0.2 kW *
B. 1.5 kW D. 0.5 kW

73. A steel plate of 10 cm thickness and 1 sq. m area is maintained at temperature of 600 C at one
face and 100 on the other side. The thermal conductivity of steel is 20 W/m K. Calculate the
conduction heat transfer rate through this plate.
A. 100 kW * C. 200 kW
B. 300 kW D. 400 kW

74. A composite wall is made of 2 slabs with outermost surface temperatures maintained at 1300 C
and 115 C. The first slab has a thickness of 500 mm and thermal conductivity 0f 1.4 W/m K and
the thickness and the thermal conductivity of the second slab are 161 mm and 0.35 W/m K
respectively. Calculate the conduction heat transfer through this composite wall per sq. m area.
A. 2.45 kW C. 3.45 kW
B. 4.45 kW D. 1.45 kW *
75. A hollow cylinder of 2 m length has inner and outer radius as 50 mm and 100 mm. The inner
surface and outer surface temperatures of this cylinder are 300 C and 200 C. Determine the
conduction heat transfer rate through this cylinder. Assume thermal conductivity of this cylinder
as 70 W/m K.
A. 126.9 kW * C. 192.6 kW
B. 196.2 kW D. 162.9 kW

76. Steam is carried in a steel pipe having inner radius 5 cm and outer radius 5.5 cm. This pipe is
covered with two layers of insulation each 5 cm thick. The thermal conductivity of steel pipe,
first and second layers of insulation are 50, 0.06 and 0.12 W/m K respectively. The temperature
of steam is 225 C and the temperature of the outermost surface is 25 C. Calculate the
intermediate temperatures.
A. 224.97 C, 79.2 C C. 224.97 C, 72.9 C *
B. 201.67 C, 79.2 C D. 201.97 C, 72.9 C

77. A coal fired steam power plant has to generate 1000 MW of electricity. The efficiency of boiler,
turbine and generator are 85 %, 80 % and 90 % respectively. If the calorific value of coal is 20
MJ/kg, calculate the fuel required for the plant per day.
A. 7059 tons * C. 8001 tons
B. 6543 tons D. 6666 tons

78. A four stroke single cylinder IC engine develops 5 kW of brake power with mechanical efficiency
of 80 % running at 1500 rpm. If the mean effective pressure is 7 bar, find the diameter of the
cylinder assuming stroke and diameter are equal.
A. 97 mm * C. 79 mm
B. 58 mm D. 85 mm

79. A petrol engine develops 20 kW of brake power. If the brake thermal and mechanical efficiency
are 25 % and 80 % respectively, calculate the indicated thermal efficiency.
A. 35.21 % C. 32.51 %
B. 33.25 % D. 31.25 % *

80. An IC engine works with thermal efficiency of 28 % with a fuel having a calorific value of of
40,000 kJ/kg. If its relative efficiency is 50 %, find the specific fuel consumption in kg/kW hr.
A. 0.28 C. 0.32 *
B. 0.45 D. 0.25

81. A 75 MW power plant has an average load of 35,000 kW and a load factor of 65%. Find the
reserve over peak.
A. 21.15 MW * C. 25.38 MW
B. 23.41 MW D. 18.75 MW

82. A hydraulic turbine receives water from a reservoir at an elevation of 100 m above it. What is
the minimum water flow in kg/s to produce a steady turbine output of 50 MW.
A. 50,247 C. 50,672
B. 50,968 * D. 59,465
83. A reaction turbine develops 500 BHP. Flow through the turbine is 50 cfs. Water enters at 20 fps
with a 100 ft pressure head. The elevation of the turbine above the tailwater level is 10 ft. Find
the effective head.
A. 130.2 ft C. 110.2 ft
B. 120.2 ft D. 116.2 ft *

84. A hydro-electric plant discharges water at the rate of 0.75 m 3/s and enters the turbine at 0.35
mps with a pressure of 275 kPa. Runner inside diameter is 550 mm, speed is 520 rpm and the
turbine efficiency is 88%. Find the turbine speed factor.
A. 0.638 * C. 0.836
B. 0.386 D. 0.386

85. During sensible heating, the absolute humidity remains constant but the relative humidity:
A. increases C. remains constant
B. decreases * D. zero

86. A 2.2 kW refrigerator or heat pump operates between –17 C and 38 C. The maximum
theoretical heat that can be transferred from the cold reservoir is nearest to
A. 7.6 kW C. 15.6 kW
B. 4.7 kW D. 10.2 kW *
87. The isentropic compression of 1 m3 of air, cp /cv = 1.4, from 20 kPa to a pressure of 100 kPa
gives a final volume of
A. 0.16 m3 C. 0.32 m3 *
B. 0.20 m 3
D. 0.40 m3

88. The relative humidity become 100 and where the water vapor starts to condense
A. critical point C. dew point *
B. saturated point D. cloud point

89. A property of lubricating oil that measure the thickness of the oil and will help determine how
long oil will flow at a given temperature is known as
A. viscosity * C. pour point
B. flash point D. cloud point

90. The Westphal balance is a laboratory instrument used to measure which of the following ?
A. volume C. weight
B. mass D. specific gravity *

91. If the initial volume of an ideal gas is allowed to expand to twice its original volume and lower its
temperature by half, the pressure
A. doubles C. remains
B. is reduced to one fourth * D. is indeterminate

92. A solidified form of carbon dioxide is termed as

A. clear ice C. pure ice
B. white ice D. dry ice *

93. What is the Chemical formula of Ozone?

A. O3 * C. O2
B. D2O D. O1

94. The temperature at which oil will vaporize and burn continuously
A. Cloud point C. Critical point
B. Dropping point D. Fire point *

95. Which of the following is the chemical composition of fuel ?

A. 65 carbon, 35 hydrogen C. 75 carbon, 25 hydrogen
B. 85 carbon, 15 hydrogen * D. 90 carbon, 5 hydrogen

96. In a standard Otto cycle, when the compression ratio is increased, then the thermal efficiency
A. will decrease C. will not change
B. will increase * D. cannot be determined

97. If a man touches two metals which were kept together at room temperature, why would one
metal feel colder than the other?
A. One has a high temperature coefficient
B. One has a lower temperature
C. One has a high thermal conductivity *
D. One has a high temperature

98. Find the kinematic viscosity of oil having a specific gravity of 0.8 and a viscosity of 0.01 poise.
A. 1.25 x 10-6 m2/s * C. 2.25 x 10-6 m2/s
B. 3.25 x 10-6 m2/s D. 0.25 x 10-6 m2/s

99. A combustion equipment which is used for firing solid fuels

A. Stoker * C. Fuel igniter
B. Burner D. Air combustion

100. The ratio of the internal thermal resistance of a solid to the boundary layer thermal resistance
is described by
A. Biot number * C. Prandtl number
B. Nusselt number D. Reynolds number

*** END***

SUBMIT THIS TEST QUESTION SET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER SHEET TO YOUR
WATCHERS. BRINGING THE TEST QUESTION SET OUT OF THE ROOM WILL BE A GROUND
FOR DISCIPLINARY ACTION.
 Republic of the Philippines
PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
Manila

BOARD OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Registered Mechanical Engineer Licensure Examination

Saturday, August 5, 2017 08:00 a.m. – 1:00 p.m.
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POWER AND INDUSTRIAL PLANT ENGINEERING SET A

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the
answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil No.2 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Air is compressed rapidly in an insulated cylinder to ¼ its initial volume. What will a
gauge show as the final pressure if the initial pressure is 13.79 kPa gauge?
A. 575 kPa C. 660 kPa
B. 620 kPa D. 700 kPa *

2. The surface temperatures of the faces of a 15 cm thick slab of material are 77°C and 20°C.
What is the rate of heat loss, Q, through the slab if the thermal conductivity, k, of the
slab equals 1.039 W/m·K?
A. 365 W/m2 C. 432 W/m2
B. 395 W/m2 * D. 451 W/m2

3. One kg of air at 300 K and 5 bars is acted upon by a piston. Heat is transferred in a
constant pressure process until the volume has doubled. The final temperature is 400 K.
The initial volume is most nearly:
A. 1.7 m3 C. 0.17 m3 *
B. 2.5 m3 D. 0.017 m3

4. One kg of air at 300 K and 5 bars is acted upon by a piston. Heat is transferred in a
constant pressure process until the volume has doubled. The final temperature is 400 K.
The work done by the gas in kJ is most nearly:
A. 86 * C. 128
B. 104 D. 35

5. A 75 kW internal combustion engine is being tested by loading it with a water-cooled Prony

brake. When the engine delivers the full-rated 75 kW to the shaft, the Prony brake being
cooled with tap water absorbs and transfers to the cooling water 95 percent of the 75 kW.
Which of the following most nearly equals the rate at which tap water passes through the
Prony brake, if the water enters at 18°C and leaves at 55°C?
A. 18 l /min C. 35 l /min
B. 28 l /min * D. 42 l /min

6. Assume that 2 kg of a gas mixture is 30 percent CO, and 70 percent O 2 mass fractions. It
is compressed from (1) a pressure of 100 kPa abs. to (2) a pressure of 1.05 MPa abs. by a
process characterized by the equation Pv n = Constant where the value of n is 1.0. The
temperature of the mixture is 15°C at the beginning of the process. Which of the following
most nearly equals the work needed to compress the 2 kg of mixture?
A. 217 kJ C. 287 kJ
B. 252 kJ D. 323 kJ *

7. An indicator card of a four-cycle automobile engine taken with a 115.37 MPa/m spring is
71 mm long and has an area of 774.2 mm2. If the engine has six cylinders, 89 mm in diameter,
with a stroke of 76 mm, and is operating at 3000 r/min, which of the following most nearly
equals the developed power of the engine?
A. 92 kW C. 88 kW *
B. 98 kW D. 79 kW

8. Steam expands behind a piston doing 67,800 joules of work. If 12.7 kJ of heat is radiated
to the surrounding atmosphere during the expansion, which of the following most nearly
equals the change of internal energy?
A. 80.5 kJ * C. 91.4 kJ
B. 76.2 kJ D. 84.5 kJ

9. A liquid metal is flowing inside of a 3 cm diameter pipe, 5 meters long with an entering
temperature of 400 °C. The wall temperature is maintained at 500 °C and the mass flow rate
of the metal is 50 kg/min. ρ = 5,500 kg/m 3 ,Pr = 0.0025, µ = 0.0025 N-s/m2 , k = 6.2 W/m-
K, cp = 0.33 kJ/kg-K. The convection coefficient of the liquid metal in W/m 2-K is most
nearly:
A. 560 * C. 895
B. 760 D. 1,290
10. What size motor would be required to operate a fan which is to supply 30.0 m3/min of air
against a static pressure of 12.0 cm of water pressure if the fan efficiency is 78%? Assume
standard conditions of one atmosphere and 20°C.
A. 654 W C. 754 W *
B. 694 W D. 794 W

11. What size motor would be required to pump 350 L/min of fluid with a density of 1.20
against a pressure of 360 kPa if the efficiency of the pump is 85%?
A. 2.25 kW C. 2.75 kW
B. 2.50 Kw * D. 3.00 kW

12. A centrifugal pump delivers 1,200 L/min of water at a discharge pressure of 165 kPa and a
suction pressure of 5.0 cm of mercury. The motor draws 6.30 kW of power. What is the
overall efficiency of the motor-pump combination?
A. 55% * C. 65%
B. 60% D. 70%

13. It is proposed to use a standard gasoline engine with a compression ratio of 6:1 for an
industrial operation. A test is conducted to determine the efficiency of the engine.
Gasoline with a density of 0.70 and a heating value of 44.432 MJ/kg is used for the test.
A torque device measures 200 N at a distance of one meter at an engine speed of 1,500
r/min. The engine uses 3 ¾ liters of gasoline in 15 min. while developing that torque.
Which of the following most nearly equals the thermal efficiency of the engine.
A. 19.8% C. 28.3%
B. 24.2% * D. 32.1%

14. A pressure gage on a tank reads 689.64 kPa. The gage was calibrated on a dead-weight gage
tester and found to read 0.025% low over the range from 600 to 700 kPa. What was the true
pressure in the tank?
A. 688.47 kPa C. 689.64 kPa
B. 689.47 kPa * D. 689.81 kPa

15. A U-tube mercury manometer is to be used to measure an estimated differential pressure of

88 cm of water in a water system. Using a safety factor of 1.5, how long should the
measurable section of the U-tube be?
A. 8.33 cm C. 9.71 cm *
B. 9.04 cm D. 10.47 cm

16. A diesel-engine-driven generator produces 10.0 kW of power. The generator has an efficiency
of 96%. If the diesel engine operates with an efficiency of 34%, how many liters of fuel
would it consume in an eight-hour shift? Diesel fuel has a specific gravity of 0.81 and a
heating value of 42.57 MJ/kg.
A. 26 L * C. 41 L
B. 30 L D. 35 L

17. A 15 cm diameter cylinder has a mass of 1.10 kg. It is placed in a cylindrical barrel
which is 30 cm inside diameter and is partly full of water. The inserted cylinder floats.
How much will the surface of the water in the barrel rise?
A. zero C. 1.56 cm
B. 0.82 cm D. 2.10 cm

18. A jet of water 2.5 cm in diameter flows at the rate of 0.500 m 3/min. It impinges on a flat
surface perpendicular to the axis of the stream. What force is exerted on the surface?
A. 142 N * C. 152 N
B. 147 N D. 157 N

19. A beaker of liquid is set on a bench to cool. If the temperature of the liquid falls from
70°C to 60°C in 12 minutes, how much longer will it take for the liquid to cool to 50°C?
The ambient temperature is 20°C. Neglect extraneous losses.
A. 13.5 min C. 14.9 min
B. 14.2 min * D. 15.5 min

20. The wall of a house is made up of a layer of plaster over brick. The coefficients of
conductance are as follows:
Film coefficient for indoor surface 9.37 W/m2 K
Plaster layer 26.35 W/m2 K
Brick outer layer 3.58 W/m2 K
Film coefficient for outer surface 34.07 W/m2 K
What is the overall heat transfer coefficient for the wall?
A. 2.21 W/m2 K * C. 1.46 W/m2 K
B. 1.84 W/m2 K D. 1.32 W/m2 K

21. What theoretical power is required for the isothermal compression of 25 cubic meters of
air per minute from one atmosphere to 830 kPa absolute pressure.
A. 94 kW C. 84 kW
B. 89 Kw * D. 79 kW

22. A rigid container holds 1.5 kg of air at 175 kPa and 40° C. What is the volume of the
container?
 A. 0.57 m3 C. 0.77 m3 *
B. 0.67 m3 D. 0.87 m3

23. Heat is lost through one m2 of furnace wall at the rate of 1.639 kW. The temperature on
the inside of the furnace wall is 1040°C, and it is 0.500 m thick. The average thermal
conductivity of the furnace wall is 1.056 W/m·K. What is the temperature of the outside
surface of the wall?
A. 264° C * C. 274° C
B. 269° C D. 279° C

24. A counterflow heat exchanger operates with hot liquid entering at 200° C and leaving at
160°C. The liquid to be heated enters at 40°C and leaves at140°C. What is the log mean
temperature difference between the hot and cold liquids?
A. 87° C * C. 97° C
B. 92° C D. 102° C

25. A home owner plans to use solar heat to warm his house. He figures to heat water, store
it, and then circulate the warm water through coils to heat his living area. The design
calls for 5.0 kW of roof heating to supply the reserve heat for the water reservoir. If
his solar panels will provide a 20% conversion of incident energy to heat water running
through piping attached to the panels, and it is estimated that in his area the radiant
solar energy will average 1.35 kW/m 2, how large a roof area must he cover with the solar
panels?
A. 18.5 m2 * C. 22.9 m2
B. 20.7 m2 D. 25.0 m2

26. What would be the expected increase in efficiency of an Otto-cycle gasoline engine if the
compression ratio were increased from 6.5 to 8.0?
A. 4.6% C. 7.2% *
B. 5.9% D. 8.5%

27. A fluid at 689.5 kPa and a specific volume of 0.250 m 3/kg enters an apparatus with a
velocity of 152.4 m/sec. Heat and radiation losses in the apparatus equal 23,263 J/kg of
fluid supplied. The fluid leaves the apparatus at a pressure of 137.90 kPa with a specific
volume of 0.9365 m3/kg and a velocity of 304.79 m/sec. In the apparatus the shaft work
done by the fluid is equal to 582,938 J/kg. What is the change in the internal energy of
the fluid?
A. -598 kJ/kg C. -523 kJ/kg
B. -561 kJ/kg D. -486 kJ/kg

28. Methane (CH4) enters an ideal nozzle at a static pressure of 689.5 kPa abs and a static
temperature of 26.67 °C. The entering velocity is 121.9 m/sec. The nozzle discharges 0.7256
kg/sec into a vessel in which the static pressure is 551.6 kPa abs. For methane k = 1.30
and cv = 1.687 kJ/kg-K. What is the exit velocity from the nozzle?
A. 207 m/sec C. 256 m/sec
B. 230 m/sec D. 284 m/sec

29. A heavy fuel oil with a specific gravity of 0.94 and a viscosity of 2.01 poise is to be
pumped at the rate of 2,000 liters/min through a 30 cm I.D. pipe. What would be the
friction factor?
A. 0.033 C. 0.077
B. 0.055 D. 0.099 *

30. A pump uses a 1200 rpm motor to pump 100,000 kg/min of standard temperature water that has
a density of 1000 kg/m3 (which may be assumed constant through the pump) has a pressure
rise from 1 bar to 40 bar using a 10 cm diameter impeller. The inlet diameter is 35 cm and
the exit diameter is 25 cm. The outlet from the pump is at the same elevation as the inlet
to the pump. The pump has an efficiency of 75%. For the new pump – what is the new flow
rate in kg/min.
A. 150,000 * C. 193,000
B. 170,000 D. 211,000

31. A water cooled air compressor operating on the polytropic process with an n = 1.2, is used
to compress 500 m3/min of air at 1 bar and 20°C to a pressure of 15 bar. The compressor
has an isentropic efficiency of 75%. Power input required in kW.
A. 2,500 C. 3,100
B. 3,800 * D. 4,500

32. A fan delivers 225 m3/min of standard air per minute against a back pressure of 10 cm of
water while it is operating at 500 rpm. The efficiency of the fan is 85%. If the rpm is
increased to 700 rpm how much power is required and what is the new flow rate?
A. 7.6 C. 10.1
B. 8.5 D. 11.9 *
33. Air enters the diffuser of a ramjet engine at 25 kPa and 250 K with a velocity of 4000
km/hr and is decelerated to a low velocity at the exit of the diffuser of the engine. The
heat addition in the combustion chamber is 1000 kJ/kg. The air exits the nozzle at 25 kPa.
The pressure at the diffuser exit, in kPa, is most nearly:
A. 850 C. 1450
B. 1200 D. 1717
34. A large municipal power plant produces 1,000 MW of power. The overall plant efficiency is
41%. Coal with a heating value of 24 MJ/kg is used for heating the water in the boilers.
If cooling water is allowed to raise 12°C as it goes through the condenser, how much
cooling water is necessary in kg/min?
A. 450,000 C. 1,100,000
B. 850,000 D. 1,380,000

35. A conduit having a cross section of an equilateral triangle of sides b has water flowing
through it at a depth b/2. Find the “hydraulic radius”. (Fig. 5-12)
A. 0.39b C. 0.24b
B. 0.32b D. 0.17b

36. A mass of copper, suspected of being hollow, weighs 523 g in air and 447.5 g in water. If
the specific gravity of copper is 8.92, what is the volume of the cavity, if any?
A. 11 cm3 C. 17 cm3 *
B. 14 cm3 D. 21 cm3

37. A liquid metal is flowing inside of a 3 cm diameter pipe, 5 meters long with an entering
temperature of 400 °C. The wall temperature is maintained at 500 °C and the mass flow rate
of the metal is 50 kg/min. ρ = 5,500 kg/m 3 ,Pr = 0.0025, µ = 0.0025 N-s/m2 , k = 6.2 W/m-
K, cp = 0.33 kJ/kg-K. The exit temperature of the liquid metal is most nearly:
A. 430 C. 465
B. 445 D. 500

38. Oil at 300 K is flowing over a flat plate maintained at 400 K. The plate is 0.5 m long and
2 m wide. The velocity of flow is 0.2 m/s. The properties are evaluated at the mean
temperature of 350 °C. Properties of the oil are: v = 41.7 x 10 -6 m2/s, k = 0.138 W/m-K,
Pr = 546, ρ = 853 kg/m3. The Nusselt number is most nearly:
A. 260 C. 230
B. 295 D. 180

39. A constant cross-section rectangular fin 6 cm long with a base of 1 cm by 2 mm is used to

dissipate heat from a 400 °C surface. The convection coefficient is h = 20 W/m 2-K and the
conductivity is 40 W/m-K. The temperature of the air surrounding the fin is 35 °C. The
heat transfer in watts from the fin is most nearly:
A. 6.5 C. 4.9
B. 5.8 D. 7.1

40. A barometer tube 88 cm long contains some air above the mercury. It gives a reading of 68
cm when upright. When the tube is tilted to an angle of 45’, the length of the mercury
column becomes 80 cm. Which of the following most nearly equals the reading of an accurate
barometer?
A. 76.0 mm Hg C. 75.6 mm Hg
B. 75.8 mm Hg D. 75.2 mm Hg

41. Which of the following most nearly equals the resulting quality of the steam if 5.0 kg of
water is injected into an evacuated vessel which is maintained at 175 °C, if the volume
of the vessel is 283 l ?
A. 26% C. 21%
B. 32% D. 35%

42. If a 75 kW heat engine operates on the ideal Carnot cycle between the temperatures of 280
and 60 °C, which of the following most nearly equals the amount of heat rejected?
A. 41 kJ/s C. 54 kJ/s
B. 49 kJ/s * D. 57 kJ/s

43. Determine which of the following is most nearly equal to the amount of heat which would
be lost through a window which measured 60 cm by 75 cm if the inside temperature were 25
C greater than the temperature outside. The window glass is 3.0 mm thick, and the surface
coefficients, “h”, and glass conductivity, “k”, are as follows: h i = 8.52 W/m2·K; hO =
34.07 W/m2·K; k = 1.04 W/m·K
A. Q = 58 W C. Q = 71 W
B. Q = 64 W D. Q = 75 W *

44. The plant engineer in a steam power plant that burns a hydrocarbon fuel makes an Orsat
analysis of the stack gas. The analysis shows the following: 11.3% CO 2, 4.5% O2 and 84.2%
N2. The discharge temperature of the stack gas is 315 °C and the pressure is 29.65 kPa
gauge. The specific heats at constant pressure for the products of the combustion are: CO 2
, 0.846 kJ/(kg·K), O2 , 0.918 kJ/(kg·K), N2 , 1.04 kJ/(kg·K) and H2O (steam), 1.989
kJ/(kg·K). The fuel is a member of the methane series (CnH2n+2). Which of the following is
the chemical formula of the fuel?
A. C6H14 C. C4H10
B. C5H12 D. C2H6

45. The volumetric analysis of a gas mixture shows that it consists of 70 percent nitrogen,
20 percent carbon dioxide, and 10 percent carbon monoxide. If the pressure and temperature
 of the mixture are 140 kPa abs and 40°C, respectively, which of the following most nearly
equals the mass percent of the carbon monoxide?
A. 13% C. 9%
B. 11% D. 7%

46. The pressure of 37 gal/min (65 L/s) of 80F (27C) SAE 40 oil is increased from 1 atm to
40 psig (275 kPa). The hydraulic power required is most nearly
A. 0.45 hp (9kW) C. 1.8 hp (36kW)
B. 0.9 hp (18 kW) D. 3.6 hp (72 kW)

47. What is the typical approximate supply air pressure in a pneumatic HVAC control system?
A. 7 psig C. 35 psig
B. 18 psig D. 140 pig

48. The control signal in a pneumatic control system is air pressure that falls which
approximate range?
A. 0-4 psig C. 12-45 psig
B. 3-15 psig D. 30-120 psig

49. A double-suction water pump moving 300 gal/sec (1.1 kL/s) turns at 900 rpm. The pump adds
20 ft (7 m) of head to the water. The specific speed is most nearly
A. 3000 rpm (52 rpm) C. 9000 rpm (160 rpm) *
B. 6000 rpm (100 rpm) D. 12,000 rpm (210 rpm)

50. A two- stage centrifugal pump draws water from an inlet 10 ft below its eye. Each stage
of the pump adds 150 ft of head. What is the approximate maximum suggested speed for this
application?
A. 900 rpm C. 1700 rpm
B. 1200 rpm D. 2000 rpm

51. The velocity of the tip of a marine propeller is 4.2 times the boat velocity. The propeller
is located 8 ft (3 m) below the surface. The temperature of the seawater is 68F (20C).
The density of seawater is approximately 64.0 lbm/ft 3 (1024 kg/m3), and the salt content
is 2.5% by weight. The practical maximum boat velocity, as limited strictly by cavitation,
is most nearly
A. 9.1 ft /sec (2.7 m/s) C. 15 ft/sec (4.5 m/s)
B. 12 ft/sec (3.8 m/s) D. 22 ft/sec (6.6 m/s)

52. A Pump was intended to run at 1750 rpm when driven by a 0.5 hp (0.37 kW) motor. The
required power rating of a motor that will turn the pump at 2000 rpm is most nearly
A. 0.25 hp (0.19 kW) C. 0.65 hp (0.49 kW)
B. 0.45 hp (0.34 kW) D. 0.75 hp (0.55 kW) *

53. A horizontal turbine reduces 100 ft 3/sec of water from 30 psia to 5 psia. Friction is
negligible. The power developed is most nearly
A. 350 hp C. 650 hp *
B. 500 hp D. 800 hp

54. 1000 ft3/sec of 60F water flow from a high reservoir through a hydroelectric turbine
installation, exiting 625 ft lower. The head loss due to friction is 58 ft. The turbine
efficiency is 89%. The power developed in the turbines is most nearly
A. 40 kW C. 43 MW
B. 18 MW D. 71 MW

55. A 10 in (250 mm) bore, 18 in (460 mm) stroke, two-cylinder, four-stroke internal combustion
engine operates with an indicated means effective pressure of 95 psig (660 kPa) at 200
rpm. The actual torque developed is 600 ft-Ibf (820 Nm). The friction horsepower is most
nearly
A. 17 hp (13 kW) C. 45 hp (33 kW) *
B. 22 hp (17 kW) D. 78 hp (60 kW)

56. A four-cycle internal combustion engine has a bore of 3.1 in (80 mm) and a stroke of 3.8
in (97 mm). When the engine is running at 4000 rpm, the air-fuel mixture enters the
cylinders during the intake stroke with an average velocity of 100 ft/sec (30 m/s). The
intake valve opens at top dead center (BCD). The volumetric efficiency is 65%. The effective
area of the intake valve is most nearly
A. 0.012 ft2 (0.0012 m2) * C. 0.034 ft2 (0.0034 m2)
B. 0.023 ft2 (0.0023 m2) D. 0.058 ft2 (0.0058 m2)

57. A 4.25 in x 6 in (110 mm x 150 mm), six-cylinder four-stroke diesel engine runs at 1200
rpm while consuming 28 Ibm of fuel per hour (0.0035 kg/s). The actual volumetric fraction
of carbon dioxide in the exhaust is 9% (dry basis). At another throttle setting, when the
air-fuel ratio is 15:1, there is 13.7% (dry basis) carbon dioxide in the exhaust. The
atmospheric conditions are 14.7 psia and 70F (101.3 kPa and 21C). The volumetric efficient
at 1200 rpm is most nearly
A. 59% C. 72%
B. 65% D. 80%
58. At standard atmospheric conditions, a fully loaded diesel engine runs at 2000 rpm and
develops 1000 bhp (750 kW). Metered fuel injection is used. The brake specific fuel
consumption is 0.45 Ibm/bhp-hr (76 kg/GJ). The mechanical efficiency is 80% independent
of the altitude. International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) conditions are applicable.
At an altitude of 5000 ft (1500 m), the brake horse-power will be most nearly
A. 810 R (720K) C. 890 R (690K)
B. 860 R (650K) D. 950 R (740K)

59. A gasoline-fueled internal combustion engines runs at 4600 rpm. The engine is four-stroke
and V-8 in configuration with a displacement of 265 in 3 (4.3 L). The indicated work done
by the exhaust gases in expansion is 1500 ft-Ibf (2.0 kJ) per cycle. The input energy from
fuel combustion is 1.27 Btu (1.33 kJ) per cycle. Atmospheric air is at 14.7 psia and 70F
(101.3 kPa and 21C). The air-fuel ratio is 20:1. The heating value of gasoline is 18,900
Btu/Ibm (44 MJ/kg). Neglect the effects of friction.
The indicated horsepower is most nearly
A. 140 hp (110 kW) C. 200 hp (160 kW)
B. 170 hp (120 kW) D. 240 hp (190 kW)

60. In an air-standard gas turbine, air at 14.7 psia and 60F (101.3 kPa and 16C) enters a
compressor and is compressed through a volume ratio of 5:1. The compressor efficiency is
83%. Air enters the turbine at 1500F (820C) and expands to 14.7 psia (101.3 kPa). The
turbine efficiency is 92%. The thermal efficiency of the cycle is most nearly
A. 33% C. 44%
B. 39% * D. 51%

61. A 65% efficient regenerator is added to the gas turbine described in Prob. 2. Assume the
specific heat remains constant. The new thermal efficiency is most nearly
A. 24% C. 34%
B. 28% D. 41%

62. A nuclear reactor develops 4000 MW thermal (1200 MW electric) When operating a full power.
The fuel rods are submerged in pressurized water within the pressure vessel. Each fuel
rod’s average linear power density is 19 kW / m. The pressure vessel is modeled as a
cylinder with an internal diameter of 5 m and an average internal length of 12 m. Fuel
rods and control assemblies occupy 20% of the internal volume of the pressure vessel. Fuel
rods is 3.6 m in length. The tops of the fuel rods are 6.1 m below the pool surface. At
full capacity, conditions within the pressure vessel are 17.5 MPa and 350C. After a loss
of pressurization, gravity-fed emergency flooding will maintain the water temperature at
95C for 12 hours. If the reactor stays in the full capacity configuration, and if
electrical power to the pumps and other emergency back-up cooling and control systems is
lost, assuming no heat loss to the surroundings, and neglecting the heat capacity of the
fuel rods and control assemblies, approximately how long after a loss of pressurization
event will the tops of the fuel rods become uncovered?
A. 0.02 h C. 37 h
B. 12 h D. 72 h

63. A source with an activity of 2 curies emits 2 MeV gamma rays. For this intensity, the
linear attenuation coefficient and build-up factor for a lead shield are 0.5182 cm-1 and
2.78, respectively. Approximately how thick must a lead shield be to reduce the activity
to 1%?
A. 5 cm C. 11 cm
B. 8 cm D. 25 cm

64. An ocean thermal energy conversion plant draws 40F (4.4C) Water from depth of 1200 ft
(360 m). The water temperature at the surface is 82F (27.8C). The maximum achievable
thermal efficiency is most nearly
A. 7.8% * C. 15%
B. 11% D. 21%

65. A bank of solar cells supplies power to a 95% efficient electric water heater. The area
of a solar cell bank is 500 ft2. The solar cell bank has a maximum theoretical efficiency
of 31% and receives an incident solar flux of 150 W/m 2. The heater boils water to make
saturated steam at 30 psig to supply a turbine. Feed-water enters the boiler as saturated
liquid at 140F. What is most nearly the maximum steam flow rate to the turbine?
A. 6.3 Ibm / hr * C. 11 Ibm / hr
B. 9.5 Ibm / hr D. 21 Ibm / hr

66. A 20 mi /hr wind at standard temperature and pressure passes through a horizontal wind
turbine. The wind is perpendicular to the plane of the blades. The turbine has a blade
diameter of 30 ft. Air temperature and pressure are 70F and 1 atm. What is most nearly
the maximum power that the turbine can generate?
A. 12 hp C. 150 hp
B. 38 hp * D. 1200 hp

67. A wind turbine and generator powers an off-grid load. The turbine has a power coefficient
of 0.45 and a rotor diameter of 35 ft. The load is three phase at 480 V and draws 20 A
with a power factor of 0.90. The air is at standard conditions. The wind velocity is 20
 mi / hr. Air temperature and pressure are 70F and 1 atm. What is most nearly the efficiency
of the turbine generator system?
A. 73% C. 85%
B. 81% D. 87% *

68. In a 20 mi / hr wind, a turbine produces 200 kW. The power coefficient, turbine, and
generator efficiencies are constant for all wind speeds. The turbine is required to supply
50 kW to the electrical grid and 250 kW to a local load. What is the most nearly the wind
speed required for the turbine to supply the load and the electrical grid?
A. 23 mi / hr * C. 29 mi / hr
B. 25 mi / hr D. 32 mi / hr

69. Air expands isentropically at the rate of 10 ft 3/sec from 200 psia and 1500F to 50 psia
. Using air tables, the air’s final temperature is most nearly
A. 1275R C. 1375R
B. 1325R * D. 1425R

70. Which statement is FALSE?

A. The availability of a system depends on the location of the system.
B. In the absent of friction and other irreversibilities, a heat engine cycle can have
a thermal efficiency of 100%. *
C. The gas temperature always decreases when the gas expands isentropically.
D. Water in a liquid state cannot exist at any temperature if the pressure is less than
the triple point pressure.

71. Which statement is TRUE?

A. Entropy does not change in an adiabatic process. *
B. The entropy of a close system cannot decrease.
C. Entropy increases when a refrigerant passes through a throttling valve.
D. The entropy of air inside a close room with a running electrical driven fan will
always increase over time.

72. The isentropic efficiency of a compressor that takes in air at 8 psia and - 10F (55 kPa
and - 20C) and discharges it at 40 psia and 315F (275 kPa and 160C) is most nearly
A. 61% C. 74%
B. 66% D. 81%

73. A reciprocating air compressor has a 7% clearance and discharges 65 psia (450 kPa) air at
the rate of 48 Ibm/min (0.36 kg/s). Ambient air is at 14.7 psia and 65F. The polytropic
exponent is 1.33. The mass of air that is compressed each minute is most nearly
A. 42 Ibm / min (0.32 kg / s) C. 56 Ibm / min (0.42 kg / s)
B. 51 Ibm / min (0.38 kg / s) D. 74 Ibm / min (0.55 kg / s)

74. A heat pump operates on the Carnot cycle between 40F and 700F (4C and 370C). The
coefficient of performance is most nearly
A. 1.5 C. 2.2
B. 1.8 * D. 2.7

75. A heat pump using refrigerant R-12 operates on the Carnot cycle. The refrigerant evaporates
and is compressed at 35.7 psia and 172.4 psia (246 kPa and 1190 kPa), respectively. The
coefficient of performance is most nearly
A. 3.2 C. 4.3
B. 3.9 D. 5.8

76. A refrigerator using refrigerant R-12. The input power is 585 W. Heat absorbed from the
cooled space is 450 Btu / hr (0.13 kW). The coefficient of performance is most nearly
A. 0.2 * C. 0.7
B. 0.4 D. 0.9

77. A refrigerator cools a continuous aqueous solution (C p = 1 Btu / Ibm - F; 4.19 kJ / kg
C) flow of 100 gal / min (0.4 m3 / min) from 80F (25C) to 20F (- 5C) in an 80F (25C)
environment. The minimum power requirement is most nearly
A. 82 hp (63 kW) C. 130 hp (90 kW) *
B. 100 hp (74 kW) D. 150 hp (94 kW)

78. An air refrigeration cycle compresses air from 70F (20C) and 14.7 psia (101 kPa) to 60
psia (400 kPa) in a 70% efficient compressor. The air is cooled to 25F (-4.0C) in a
constant pressure process before entering a turbine with isentropic efficient of 0.80.
Assume air is an ideal gas.The temperature of the air leaving the compressor is most nearly
A. 720R (400K) C. 860R (270K)
B. 790R (440K) D. 900R (490K) *

79. Experiments have shown that the thermal conductivity, k, of a particular material varies
with temperature, T, according to the following relationship.
KT = (0.030) (1 + 0.0015 T)
What is the most nearly the value of k that should be used for a transfer of heat
through the material if the hot-side temperature is 350 (F or C) and the cold-side
temperature is 150 (F or C)?
 A. 0.04 C. 0.10
B. 0.06 D. 0.20

80. What is the most nearly the heat flow through insulating brick 1.0 ft (30 cm) thick in an
oven wall with a thermal conductivity of 0.038 Btu-ft / hr-ft2 - F (0.066 W/mK)? The
thermal gradient is 350F (195C).
A. 10 Btu / hr-ft2 (30 W/m2) C. 20 Btu / hr-ft2 (60 W/m2)
B. 15 Btu / hr-ft2 (40 W/m2) D. 30 Btu / hr-ft2 (100 W/m2) *

81. A round 18 in (457 mm) duct is to be replaced by a rectangular duct with an aspect ratio
of 4:1. The dimensions of the rectangular duct are most nearly
A. 8 in x 30 in (200 mm x 760 mm) C. 12 in x 18 in (300 mm x 460 mm)
B. 9 in x 35 in (220 mm x 880 mm) D. 18 in x 72 in (460 mm x 1800 mm)

82. A motor rated at 5 hp delivers 4.3 hp to a fan. The fan rotates at 920 rpm and moves 160F
air at standard pressure into a drying process. The static pressure across the fan is 2.3
in wg. The fan efficiency is 62%. The fan flow rate at standard conditions is most nearly
A. 5100 ft3 / min C. 6300 ft3 / min
B. 5800 ft3 / min D. 7400 ft3 / min *

83. A propose residential fuel cell system runs on bottle natural gas. The system consists of
a fuel reformer, A power stock, and a power conditioner. The over-all efficiency of the
system will be 45%. The average load supplied by the fuel cell system is 1.7 kW, But the
proposed system can supply a maximum of 2.3 kW. The cost of the natural gas is $0.40/therm,
and by comparison, the cost of electricity from the electrical grid is $0.08/kW-hr. The
fuel cell system will cost $3500, including installation. What is the pay-back period for
the system?
A. 1.6 yr C. 3.5 yr
B. 2.1 yr D. 4.7 yr *

84. An engine runs on the Otto cycle. The compression ratio is 10:1. The total intake volume
of the cylinders is 11 ft3 (0.3 m3). Air enters at 14.2 psia and 80F (98 kPa and 27C). In
two revolutions of the crank, after the compression strokes, 160 Btu (179 kJ) of energy
is added.
The temperature after the heat addition is most nearly
A. 1290R (720K) C. 1750R (970K)
B. 1550R (860K) D. 2320R (1340K) *

85. A steam cycle operates between 650F and 100F (340C and 38C). The maximum possible
thermal efficiency is most nearly
A. 42% C. 54%
B. 49% * D. 58%

86. A steam Carnot cycle operates between 650F and 100F (340C and 38C). The turbine and
compressor (pump) isentropic efficiencies are 90% and 80%, respectively. The thermal
efficiency is most nearly
A. 31% C. 41%
B. 36% D. 58% *

87. A steam turbine cycle produces 600 MWe (megawatts of electrical power). The condenser load
is 3.07 x 109 Btu/hr (900 MW). The thermal efficiency is most nearly
A. 32% C. 40% *
B. 37% D. 44%

88. Two centrifugal pumps operate in series and have a combined discharge of 50 gpm. What is
most nearly the total discharge head?
A. 24 ft C. 80 ft
B. 50 ft D. 100 ft *

89. 2000 gal/min of 60F thickened sludge with a specific gravity of 1.2 flows through a pump
with an inlet diameter of 12 in and an outlet diameter of 8 in. The centerlines of the
inlet and outlet are at the same elevation. The inlet pressure is 8 in of mercury (vacuum).
A discharge pressure gauge located 4 ft above the pump discharge centerline reads 20 psig.
The pump efficiency is 85%. All pipes are schedule-40. The input power of the pump is most
nearly
A. 26 hp C. 37 hp
B. 31 hp * D. 53 hp

90. 80 gal/min (5 L/s) of 80F (27C) water is lifted 12 ft (4 m) vertically by a pump through
a total length of 50 ft (15 m) of a2 in (5.1 cm) diameter smooth rubber hose. The discharge
end of the hose is submerged in 8 ft (2.5 m) of water as shown. The head added by the pump
is mostly nearly
A. 10 ft (3.0 m) C. 22 ft (6.6 m)
B. 13 ft (4.0 m) D. 31 ft (9.3 m)
91. A Francis-design hydraulic reaction turbine with 22 in (560 mm) diameter blades runs at
610 rpm. The turbine develops 250 hp (185 kW) when 25 ft 3/sec (700 L/s) of water flow
through it. The pressure head at the turbine entrance is 92.5 ft (28.2 m). The elevation
of the turbine above the tail water level is 5.26 ft (1.75 m). The inlet and outlet
velocities are both 12 ft/sec (3.6 m/s).
The effective head is most nearly
A. 90 ft (27 m) * C. 100 ft (31 m)
B. 95 ft (29 m) D. 105 ft (35 m)

92. A steam engine with bore and stroke of 250 mm x 450 mm rotates at 250 rpm. If the mean
effective pressure is 400 kPa, what is the indicated power developed in the cylinder?
A. 85.45 kW C. 84.75 kW
B. 73.63 kW * D. 78.57 kW

93. The bore and stroke of an air compressor are 276 mm and 164 mm respectively. If the piston
displacement is 0.039 m3 /s, what is the operating speed of the compressor?
A. 238.49 rpm * C. 338.49 rpm
B. 261.54 rpm D. 361.54 rpm

94. A car engine with a power output of 65 hp has a thermal efficiency of 24 %. Determine the
fuel consumption rate of this car if the fuel has a heating of 19,000 Btu/lb.
A. 36.3 * C. 30.24
B. 33.6 D. 34.2

95. A refrigeration system has refrigerating effect per kilogram of 220 kJ. The heat to be
removed is 630 kJ/hr. Calculate the mass circulated per hour.
A. 3.186 kg/hr C. 8 kg/hr
B. 10 kg/hr D. 2.86 kg/hr *

96. A refrigerant leaves the condenser as a liquid at 26°C and expands into the evaporator
which is at 1.5°C. Data from a table show a refrigerating effect of 130.85 J/kg. What
would be the mass flow rate for a refrigeration requirement of 52.75 kW?
A. 20.72 kg/min C. 23.17 kg/min
B. 22.09 kg/min D. 24.19 kg/min *

97. Water is the working fluid in a power cycle that operates according to an ideal Rankine
cycle. Superheated vapor enters the turbine at 10 MPa and 520°C and is exhausted into the
condenser at 8 kPa. The net output of the Rankine cycle is 120 MW. Determine the heat flow
out of the condenser kJ/hr.
A. 9.178 x 109 kJ/hr C. 8.178 x 109 kJ/hr
B. 7.178 x 109 kJ/hr D. 6.178 x 109 kJ/hr

98. Which process CANNOT be modeled as an isenthalpic process?

A. Viscous drag on an object moving through air
B. an ideal gas acceleration to supersonic speed through a converging-diverging nozzle.
C. Refrigerant passing through a pressure-reducing throttling valve
D. high-pressure steam escaping through a spring-loaded pressure-relief (safety) valve.

99. Which of the following would NOT normally be used to vary the flow rate of a fan-driven
ventilation system?
A. system dampers C. inlet vanes
B. variable pitch blade D. variable speed motors

100. Which of the following parameters is normally sensed in order to control a variable
frequency drive (VFD) in a variable air volume (VAV) system?
A. duct velocity pressure C. fan motor current
B. supply air fan rate of flow D. VAV box airflow

***END***

WARNING: Failure to submit this test question set will be a ground for
disciplinary actions.
 Republic of the Philippines
PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
Manila

BOARD OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Registered Mechanical Engineer Licensure Examination

Saturday, Jan 19, 2019 08:00 a.m. – 1:00 p.m.

POWER AND INDUSTRIAL PLANT ENGINEERING SET B

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil No.2 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The power delivered by an auxiliary turbine is 500,000 Btu /hr when the
steam flow is 4000 lb/hr. Find the specific work in ft·lbf/lb.

A. 90,540 C. 87,450
B. 97,250 D. 78,868

2. A split shaft gas turbine has a power turbine rated at 15,000 internal
horsepower. Typical operating conditions for the unit are: compressor inlet
14.5 psia and 60˚ F; compressor discharge 174 psia and 716˚ F; compressor
turbine inlet 171 psia and 1630˚ F; and power turbine exhaust 14.8 psia and
760˚ F. The compressor turbine at the above rating has an 85 percent
isentropic turbine efficiency. For these rated conditions calculate the
compressor turbine discharge pressure in psia.

A. 34.06 C. 30.56
B. 43.5 D. 40.1
3. The peak load on a power plant is 60 MW. The loads having maximum demands
of 20 MW, 30 MW, 10 MW and 12 MW are connected to the power plant. If the
capacity of the power plant is 80 MW and annual load factor is 0.50,
compute the demand factor?

A. 0.70 C. 0.75
B. 0.833 D. 0.333

4. At a remote jobsite, a 12 V direct current inverter provides 120 V

alternating current power from battery to run a 0.60 kW orbital
reciprocating saw. Calculate the effective current flowing to the inverter
of resistance equivalent 0.16 ohms and an average efficiency of 68%.

A. 5.6 A C. 84 A
B. 8.9 A D. 74 A

5. A split shaft gas turbine has a power turbine rated at 15,000 internal
horsepower. Typical operating conditions for the unit are: compressor inlet
14.5 psia and 60˚ F; compressor discharge 174 psia and 716˚ F; compressor
turbine inlet 171 psia and 1630˚ F; and power turbine exhaust 14.8 psia and
760˚ F. The compressor turbine at the above rating has an 85 percent
isentropic turbine efficiency. For these rated conditions, calculate the
compressor isentropic efficiency, %

A. 82 C. 78
B. 90 D. 80
6. A large water-cooled air compressor takes in air at 15 psia and 50° F and
delivers it at 90 psia and 270°F. The compressor delivers 35.6 hp to the
air, and heat is rejected by the air at the rate of 452 Btu/min. Find the
rate change of enthalpy in Btu/min.

A. 1135 C. 1028
B. 1058 D. 1209
7. Air undergoes a cycle consisting of a series of non-flow processes listed
below :
1-2 constant volume heat addition
2-3 constant pressure heat addition
3-4 constant volume heat rejection
4-1 constant pressure heat rejection
The maximum and the minimum values for pressure and specific volume for
the cycle are 30 psia,15 psia , 25 ft3/lb and 12.5 ft3/lb. Find the heat
added in Btu /lb.

A. 329.8 C. 194.8
B. 432.7 D. 234.6

8. A refrigerating system for an ice plant circulates 213.5 lb Freon-12 per

minute. The evaporation pressure is 30 psia, the condensing pressure is 110
psia, The Freon-12 temperature leaving the coil and entering the compressor
is 20°F and the temperature entering the expansion valve is 80°F. The plant
produce ice at 30°F from fresh water at 55°F . Assume isentropic
compression and determine the enthalpy of the Freon-12 entering the
freezing box in Btu/lb.

A. 26.28 C. 28.45
B. 32.40 D. 32.45
9. During a non-flow process 120 Btu are removed as heat from each pound of
working substance while the internal energy decreases 85.5 Btu /lb.
Calculate the work involved in the process in ft·lbf/lb

A. 32,505 (on) C. 26,840 (by)

B. 26,840 (on) D. (32,504 (by)

10. A room 14 ft x 16 ft x 10 ft contains atmospheric air at 72°F. The partial

pressure of the water vapor in the air is 0.2140 psia. Barometer is
standard. Calculate the mass of dry air in the room in lb.

A. 164.7 C. 209.6
B. 154.7 D. 128.3

11. Compute the heat to be removed from 110 kg of lean beef if it were to be
cooled from 20C to 4C, after which it is frozen and cooled to -18C. The
latent heat of fusion is 233 kJ/kg.

A.40,319 kJ C. 36,438 kJ
B.37,438 kJ D. 42,329 kJ

12. If the sensible heat ratio is 0.80 and the cooling load is 100 kW, what is
the amount of sensible heating?

A. 80 kW C. 125 kW
B. 60 kW D. 100 kW
13. A 10-stages air compressor compresses air from 100 kPa to 800 kPa. Find
the intercooler pressure between the first and second stage.

A. 123.11 kPa C. 182.44 kPa

B. 132.17 kPa D. 753.51 kPa

14. Find the number of generator poles for a generator running at 600 rpm and
60 Hz.

A. 12 C. 6
B. 24 D. 48
15. Calculate the approximate enthalpy of water at 90oC.

A. 366.83 kJ/kg C. 376.83 kJ/kg

B. 386.83 kJ/kg D. 396.83 kJ/kg
16. A refrigerating system for an ice plant circulates 213.5 lb Freon-12 per
minute. The evaporation pressure is 30 psia, the condensing pressure is 110
psia, The Freon-12 temperature leaving the coil and entering the compressor
is 20°F and the temperature entering the expansion valve is 80°F. The plant
produce ice at 30°F from fresh water at 55°F . Assume isentropic
compression then determine the enthalpy of Freon-12 leaving the compressor
in Btu/lb.

A. 91.02 C. 87.45
B. 100.45 D. 71.87
17. In an ideal Brayton cycle, air enters the compressor at 15 psia and 75˚ F.
The temperature of the air at turbine inlet is 1600˚ F. For maximum
theoretical network, find the pressure ratio.

A. 10.6 C. 9.7
B. 11.5 D. 12.3
18. Brayton cycle with a pressure ratio of 6 has compressor inlet condition of
70°F and 14.7 psia. The turbine inlet temperature is equal to 1500°F.The
basic cycle is to be modified by adding ideal reheat. Calculate the HP
turbine discharge pressure in psia.

A. 36 C. 40
B. 45 D. 30

19. For same power output and same compression ratio, as compared to two-
stroke engines, four stroke SI engine have:

A. higher fuel consumption C. lower thermal efficiency

B. higher exhaust temperatures D. higher thermal efficiency

20. A split-shaft gas turbinehas a power turbine rated at 15,000 internal

horsepower. Typical operating conditions for the unit are: compressor
inlet, 14.5 psia and 60˚ F; compressor discharge, 174 psia and 716˚ F;
compressor turbine inlet, 171 psia and 1630˚ F; and power turbine exhaust,
14.8 psia and 760˚ F. The compressor turbine has an 85% isentropic turbine
efficiency at the above power rating. Using the Air Tables, calculate the
compressor isentropic efficiency, %

A. 80 C. 78
B. 82 D. 90

21. What is the major constituents of natural gas?

A. Butane C. ethane
B. methane D. propane

22. Air enters an ideal diffuser at a speed of 1500 ft/sec at 22 psia and 650°
F. For an isentropic compression, calculate the stagnation temperature in
deg. R.

A. 1245.9 C. 1297.1
B. 2414.5 D. 1530.5

23. A Brayton cycle aircraft gas turbine engine has an axial flow compressor
which provides a pressure ratio of 10 to 1. Material design conditions
limit the temperature of the working substance entering the turbine to
2200°F. The engine designed to handle 90 lb of air/sec at static conditions
and 120 lb/sec at a flight speed of 400 knots when sea level ambient
pressure and temperature are 15.0 psia and 530°R, respectively. Estimate
the propulsive efficiency,% for a flight speed of 400 knots at sea level
( 1 knot= 1.69ft/sec.)

A. 45 C. 40
B. 38 D. 50
24. A steam turbine develops 149 kW while receiving 930 kJ from each
kilogram of steam passing through the turbine. Calculate the kilograms of
steam perhour required to produce this power (in kg/hr).

A. 436.7 C. 329.6
B. 435.8 D. 576.8
25. A 10-in. wall of solid concrete which is 20 ft long by 8 ft high. The
thermal conductivity of concrete is 1.0 Btu/hr·ft·°F, the external surface
temperature is 5°F and the internal surface temperature is 45°F. The
outside coefficient is 6.0 and the inside is 1.5 Btu/ht·ft2·°F; the outside
air temperature is -3°F and the inside air temperature is 77°F. Calculate
the rate of heat flow through the wall in Btu/hr.

A. 7680 C. 6104
B. 8750 D. 7160
26. Steam enters the buckets of a simple impulse wheel at an absolute velocity
of 1200 ft/sec and leaves with an absolute velocity of 245 ft/sec. The
relative entering velocity is 640 ft/sec, and the relative exit velocity is
540 ft/sec. Determine the available energy to the buckets in ft· lbf/lb.

A. 29,870 C. 31,450
B. 14,560 D. 22,360

27. Air initially at 10°F and 100 psia and occupying a volume of 0.5 ft3
undergoes a reversible non-flow constant temperature process such that
the final pressure becomes 20 psia. Find the work done in ft·lbf.

A. 11,590 (by) C. 13,450 (on)

B. 12,450 (by) D. 15,480 (on)

28. In an ideal reheat cycle, steams enters the high pressure turbine at 750
psia and 800°F and leaves at 100 psia. It is then reheated to 800°F, passes
through the low pressure turbine and exhausts to a condenser at 1 psia .
Find the total turbine work in Btu/lb.

A. 906.6 C. 897.8
B. 609.6 D. 908.7

29. Air enters a convergent-divergent nozzle having stagnation conditions of

65 C and 285 kPa. The Mach number of the throat is 0.77. For isentropic
expansion through the nozzle, calculate the throat temperature in K.

A. 334.7 C. 351.3
B. 302.2 D. 270.5

30. Steam enters the buckets of a simple impulse wheel at an absolute velocity
of 1200 ft/sec and leaves with an absolute velocity of 245 ft/sec. The
relative entering velocity is 640 ft/sec, and the relative exit velocity is
540 ft/sec. Determine the unused kinetic energy in the leaving jet in ft-
lbf/lb.

A. 930 C. 860
B. 980 D. 720
31. A refrigerating system for an ice plant circulates 213.5 lb Freon-12 per
minute. The evaporation pressure is 30 psia, the condensing pressure is 110
psia, The Freon-12 temperature leaving the coil and entering the compressor
is 20°F and the temperature entering the expansion valve is 80°F. The plant
produce ice at 30°F from fresh water at 55°F. Assume isentropic compression
then calculate the refrigerating effect in Btu/lb.

A. 34.45 C. 60.45
B. 45.67 D. 54.45

32. In an ideal reheat cycle, steams enters the high pressure turbine at 750
psia and 800°F and leaves at 100 psia. It is then reheated to 800°F, passes
through the low pressure turbine and exhausts to a condenser at 1 psia .
Find the heat supplied in Btu/lb.
 A. 2058.9 C. 1801.7
B. 1568.7 D. 1732.6
33. In an ideal reheat cycle, steams enters the high pressure turbine at 750
psia and 800°F and leaves at 100 psia. It is then reheated to 800°F, passes
through the low pressure turbine and exhausts to a condenser at 1 psia .
Find the network of the cycle in Btu/lb.

A. 607.3 C. 652.7
B. 708.5 D. 865.9
34. Air is to be conditioned from tD = 39° F and  = 80 percent to tD = 74° F
and  = 70 percent. How much moisture in grains is added during
humidification in grains/lb D.A.?

A. 70 C. 50
B. 61 D. 78

35. A Stirling cycle operating with air as a working substance has a pressure
of 80 psia, a temperature of 250°F and a specific volume of 3.28 ft3/lb at
the beginning of the isothermal heat rejection process. The ratio of
volumes at the beginning and end of isothermal heat rejection is 2. The
highest temperature involved in the cycle is 1200°F. Calculate the heat
supplied in Btu/lb.

A. 87.7 C. 78.8
B. 72.3 D. 68.9

36. Two kilograms of gas undergo a reversible non-flow process at 350 kPa
while the volume increases from 0.4734 m3 to 0.9468 m3. Find the work done
in kJ/kg.

A. 82.8(by) C. 78.8 (by)

B. 82.8(on) D. 78.8 (on)
37. During a gas process the temperature remains constant while the pressure
is doubled. How will the specific volume be affected?

A. Twice C. double
B. Halved D. not affected

38. A Stirling cycle operating with air as a working substance has a pressure
of 80 psia, a temperature of 250°F and a specific volume of 3.28 ft3/lb at
the beginning of the isothermal heat rejection process. The ratio of
volumes at the beginning and end of isothermal heat rejection is 2. The
highest temperature involved in the cycle is 1200°F. Calculate the heat
rejected in Btu/lb.

A. 54.8 C. 14.5
B. 44.5 D. 33.7

39. Air initially at 75 psia and 65°F is compressed to a final pressure of 300
psia and temperature of 320°F. Find the polytropic exponent for the
process.

A. n = 1.4 C. n = 1.7
B. n =1.2 D. n = 1.13
40. A hydraulic turbine develops 1000 kW power for a head of 40 m. Calculate
the power developed if the head is reduced to 20 m?

A. 237 kW C. 400 kW
B. 354 kW D. 347 kW

41. A ventilating operation has a fan which delivers 400 cu m /min against a
back pressure of 5 cm water gage when the fan runs at 450 rpm. Determine
the new speed considering that the new requirement calls for an increase in
air flow to 500 cu m/min?

A. 545.4 rpm C. 655.7 rpm

B. 562.5 rpm D. 512.4 rpm
42. Air initially at 400 K expands in a constant pressure non-flow process
until the initial volume is doubled. Find the work in kJ/kg.

A. 213.5 C. 189.7
B. 114.8 D. 175.8
43. Air undergoes a cycle consisting of a series of non-flow processes listed
below :
1-2 constant volume heat addition
2-3 constant pressure heat addition
3-4 constant volume heat rejection
4-1 constant pressure heat rejection
The maximum and the minimum values for pressure and specific volume for
the cycle are 30 psia,15 psia , 25 ft3/lb and 12.5 ft3/lb. Find the heat
rejected in Btu/lb.

A. 309.7 C. 120.3
B. 321.7 D. 294.9

44. Air enters a convergent-divergent nozzle having stagnation conditions of

65 C and 285 kPa. The Mach number of the throat is 0.77. For isentropic
expansion through the nozzle, calculate the throat velocity in m/sec.

A. 352.7 C. 298.9
B. 268.3 D. 308.7
45. A Stirling cycle operating with air as a working substance has a pressure
of 80 psia, a temperature of 250°F and a specific volume of 3.28 ft3/lb at
the beginning of the isothermal heat rejection process. The ratio of
volumes at the beginning and end of isothermal heat rejection is 2. The
highest temperature involved in the cycle is 1200°F. Calculate the thermal
efficiency of the cycle, %.

A. 67.7 C. 57.2
B. 78.6 D. 34.7

46. How many tons of refrigeration are required to produce 10 metric tons of
ice per day at –10C from raw water at 22C if miscellaneous losses are 15%
of the chilling and freezing load?

A. 17 TOR C. 15 TOR
B. 20 TOR D. 24 TOR
47. A 10-in. wall of solid concrete which is 20 ft long by 8 ft high. The
thermal conductivity of concrete is 1.0 Btu/hr·ft·°F, the external surface
temperature is 5°F and the internal surface temperature is 45°F. The
outside coefficient is 6.0 and the inside is 1.5 Btu/ht·ft2·°F; the outside
air temperature is -3°F and the inside air temperature is 77°F. Calculate
the overall heat transfer coefficient in Btu/hr·ft2·°F.

A. 0.52 C. 0.98
B. 0.60 D. 0.72

48. A Carnot power cycle has a maximum cycle temperature of 800°F. The change
of entropy for the heat addition process is 0.085 Btu/Ib·°R. Heat is
rejected at a rate of 45.0 Btu/Ib. Determine the net cycle work in Btu/lb.

A. 15.6 C. 34.5
B. 62.1 D. 23.7
49. Air enters an ideal diffuser at a speed of 1500 ft/sec at 22 psia and 650°
F. For an isentropic compression, calculate the inlet Mach number.

A. 0.817 C. 0.942
B. 0.918 D. 0.790
50. Air enters an ideal converging-diverging nozzle at a pressure of 73.5 psia
with a temperature of 1400° F and negligible approach velocity. For
isentropic expansion to an exit pressure of 14.7 psia, calculate the
kinetic energy of the air leaving the nozzle in Btu/lb.
 A. 164.6 * C. 125.76
B. 154.7 D. 187.56
51. During the reversible process with a certain working substance, the
entropy remains constant while the temperature increases from 250°F to
450°F. Find the heat transferred in Btu/lb
A. 0 C. 100
B. 10 D. 200
52. A Carnot power cycle has a maximum cycle temperature of 800°F. The change
of entropy for the heat addition process is 0.085 Btu/Ib·°R. Heat is
rejected at a rate of 45.0 Btu/Ib. Determine the heat supplied in Btu/lb.

A. 190.6 C. 98.4
B. 107.1 D. 200.9
53. In an ideal reheat cycle, steams enters the high pressure turbine at 750
psia and 800°F and leaves at 100 psia. It is then reheated to 800°F, passes
through the low pressure turbine and exhausts to a condenser at 1 psia .
Find the thermal efficiency of the cycle in %.

A. 42.6 C. 38.7
B. 31.7 D. 42.9

54. The power delivered by an auxiliary turbine is 500,000 Btu /hr when the
steam flow is 4000 lb/hr. Find the power delivered in hp.

A. 176.6 C. 196.5
B. 120.7 D. 209.8

55. Steam enters the buckets of a simple impulse wheel at an absolute velocity
of 1200 ft/sec and leaves with an absolute velocity of 245 ft/sec. The
relative entering velocity is 640 ft/sec, and the relative exit velocity is
540 ft/sec. Determine the bucket work in Btu/lb.

A. 32.4 C. 25.2 Btu/lb

B. 42.5 D. 15.3 Btu/lb
56. Many steam propulsion plants achieve a fuel rate of 0.45 pound of fuel per
shaft horsepower hour. Determine the equivalent fuel rate in kilograms per
shaft kilowatt-hour.

A. 0.27 C. 0.34
B. 0.54 D. 0.15
57. Brayton cycle with a pressure ratio of 6 has compressor inlet condition of
70°F and 14.7 psia. The turbine inlet temperature is equal to 1500°F.The
basic cycle is to be modified by adding ideal reheat. Calculate the thermal
efficiency of the ideal reheat cycle, %.

A. 30 C. 45
B. 27 D. 35
58. In another non-flow process involving 2 kg of working substance there is
no heat transferred, but the internal energy increases 5000 joules. Find
the work done on or by the substance in J/kg

A. 2500 on C. 2500 by
B. 5000 on D. 5000 by
59. In an ideal (reversed Joule cycle) air-refrigerating system the
temperature of the air entering the compression cylinder is 50F,
the temperature entering the after-cooler is 160° F and the
temperature entering the brine tank is 0F. Calculate coefficient of
performance

A. 4.54 C. 5.3
B. 3.5 D. 2.4
60. A 2 kW centrifugal compressor operates with suction conditions of 100 kPa
abs and 25˚ C. The pressure ratio for the unit is 3 and isentropic
compression efficiency is 0.70. Determine the discharge pressure in kPa.

A. 280 C. 300
B. 250 D. 350

61. Helium , k = 1.66 at a temperature of 130 C is flowing at a local speed of

1500 m/s. Determine the local sonic velocity in m/s.

A. 1067.7 C. 1179.6
B. 1265.5 D. 2149.5
62. At standard atmospheric pressure, saturated steam has a specific volume of
26.80 ft3 /lb. If the enthalpy of that same vapor is 1150.5 Btu/lb,
calculate the internal energy of the steam in Btu/lb.

A. 2038.5 C. 1540.4
B. 1077.6 D. 1230.2

63. A fuel oil heater receives 23,200 lb of oil per hour at 80°F and
discharges it at 160°F. The specific heat of the oil is 0.48 Btu/lb·°F.
Find the rate of heat transfer to the oil in Btu/hr.

A. 782,000 C. 981,000
B. 891,000 D. 950,000

64. Theoretical horsepower required to pump water at 100 gallons per minute
from a large reservoir to the surface of another large reservoir 400 feet
higher is nearest to:

A. 6. HP C. 18. HP
B. 10. HP D. 35. HP
65. A large water-cooled air compressor takes in air at 15 psia and 50° F and
delivers it at 90 psia and 270°F. The compressor delivers 35.6 hp to the
air, and heat is rejected by the air at the rate of 452 Btu/min. Find the
change of specific enthalpy in Btu/lb.

A. 29.7 C. 43.9
B. 48.9 D. 52.8
66. What is the approximate percentage of heat of combustion is lost to the
jacket cooling water?

A. 5% C. 10%
B. 15% D. 25%

67. A room 14 ft x 16 ft x 10 ft contains atmospheric air at 72°F. The partial

pressure of the water vapor in the air is 0.2140 psia. Barometer is
standard. Calculate the dew point temperature in deg. F.

A. 55° C. 43
B. 58 D. 60
68. A Diesel cycle has a 16 to 1 compression ratio and a peak cycle
temperature of 2912° R. Conditions at the beginning of compression are 14.7
psia and 6:0° F. Assuming constant specific heat determine the heat
supplied in Btu/lb.

A. 320 C. 230
B. 540 D. 463

69. Steam is flowing in a pipe at a velocity of 100 ft per sec. What is the
associated kinetic energy per pound of steam flowing in ft-;lb/lb?

A. 155.3 C. 109.7
B. 203.5 D. 302.6
70. An Otto cycle, with a 7 to 1 compression ratio, has 320 Btu/lb of heat
supply. At the beginning of the compression process the pressure and
temperature are 14.7 psia and 60°F. Assuming constant specific heat, what
is the network in Btu/lb

A. 234.4 C. 355.8
B. 173.6 D. 297.8
71. A Brayton cycle aircraft gas turbine engine has an axial flow compressor
which provides a pressure ratio of 10 to 1. Material design conditions
limit the temperature of the working substance entering the turbine to
2200°F. The engine designed to handle 90 lb of air/sec at static conditions
and 120 lb/sec at a flight speed of 400 knots when sea level ambient
pressure and temperature are 15.0 psia and 530°R, respectively. Estimate
the sea level static thrust in lbf.

A. 5400 C. 7900
B. 8700 D. 7300
72. Five hundred kilograms of poultry enter a chiller at 8C and are frozen
and chilled to a final temperature of -18C for storage in 15 hours. The
latent heat is 246 kJ/kg and the freezing temperature is -5C. Compute the
product load.

A. 2.75 kW C. 2.95 kW
B. 2.85 kW D. 3.15 kW

73. In an ideal Brayton cycle, air enters the compressor at 15 psia and 75˚ F.
The temperature of the air at turbine inlet is 1600˚ F. For maximum
theoretical network, find the network in Btu/lb.

A. 129.7 C. 110.8
B. 152.9 D. 118.9
74. A Brayton cycle aircraft gas turbine engine has an axial flow compressor
which provides a pressure ratio of 10 to 1. Material design conditions
limit the temperature of the working substance entering the turbine to
2200°F. The engine designed to handle 90 lb of air/sec at static conditions
and 120 lb/sec at a flight speed of 400 knots when sea level ambient
pressure and temperature are 15.0 psia and 530°R, respectively. Estimate
the thrust in lbf.

A.7819 C. 7018
B.7559 D. 7710
75. Symmetrical blading is used in a turbine when its degree of reaction is

A. 25 % C. 50 %
B. 75 % D. 100 %
76. A refrigerating plant for an air-conditioning system is to have a
capacity of 10 tons and a coefficient of performance of 2.50 when operating
with a refrigerating effect of 61.4 Btu/lb of refrigerant. Calculate the
refrigerant flow rate in lb/min.

A. 32.6 C. 42.4
B. 23.4 D. 14.5
77. A refrigerating plant for an air-conditioning system is to have a
capacity of 10 tons and a coefficient of performance of 2.50 when operating
with a refrigerating effect of 61.4 Btu/lb of refrigerant. Calculate the
work done on the refrigerant by the compressor in Btu/lb.

A. 20.5 C. 32.5
B. 24.6 D. 43.4
78. In an ideal (reversed Joule cycle) air-refrigerating system the
temperature of the air entering the compression cylinder is 50F,
the temperature entering the after-cooler is 160° F and the
temperature entering the brine tank is 0F. Calculate the temperature
in deg. F of the air leaving the after-cooler.
 A. 78 C. 99
B. 90 D. 86
79. A small air compressor delivers 1 lb per min of air while supplying 3
horsepower to the air. Calculate the specific work, ft-lbf/lb, supplied to
the air.

A. 99,000 C. 92,000
B. 89,000 D. 86,000

80. An Otto cycle, with a 7 to 1 compression ratio, has 320 Btu/lb of heat
supply. At the beginning of the compression process the pressure and
temperature are 14.7 psia and 60°F. Assuming constant specific heat, the
thermal efficiency, %.

A. 48 C. 60
B. 54 D. 44

81. A Diesel cycle has a 16 to 1 compression ratio and a peak cycle

temperature of 2912° R. Conditions at the beginning of compression are 14.7
psia and 6:0° F. Assuming constant specific heat determine the peak
pressure, in psi.

A. 714 C. 739
B. 649 D. 871

82. Brayton cycle with a pressure ratio of 6 has compressor inlet condition of
70°F and 14.7 psia. The turbine inlet temperature is equal to 1500°F.The
basic cycle is to be modified by adding ideal reheat. Calculate the HP
turbine discharge temperature in deg. R.

A. 1243.7 C. 1517.4
B. 1240.6 D. 1410.9

83. A gas turbine operating in an ideal open cycle is served by a compressor

which receives air at 15 psia, 80°F and delivers it to the combustion
chamber at 60 psia. Three hundred Btu are added at constant pressure to
each pound of air in the combustion chamber. Using the Air Tables calculate
the compressor work in Btu/lb.

A. 72.7 C. 120.4
B. 63.0 D. 45.8

84. Which of the following cycles where most high speed compression engines
operates?

A. Diesel cycle C. Otto cycle

B. Dual combustion engine D. Gas turbine

85. A gas turbine operating in an ideal open cycle is served by a compressor

which receives air at 15 psia, 80°F and delivers it to the combustion
chamber at 60 psia. Three hundred Btu are added at constant pressure to
each pound of air in the combustion chamber. Using the Air Tables calculate
the the turbine work in Btu/lb.

A. 145.7 C. 156.7
B. 127.7 D. 186.7
86. Helium , k = 1.66 at a temperature of 130C is flowing at a local speed of
1500 m/s. Determine the Local Mach number.

A. 1.453 C. 1.762
B. 1.272 D. 1.02
87. During an isentropic non-flow process with air, the pressure drops from 60
psia to 20 psia. The air has mass of 0.10 lb and the initial temperature
was 280°F. Find the final temperature in deg. F.

A. 87 C. 81
B. 90 D. 78
88. The work delivered by a turbine is 400 Btu per lb of steam supplied when
the steam flow is 20,000 lb per hour. Find the power delivered in hp.

A. 7780 C. 3300
B. 3143 D. 550
89. Air initially at 400 K expands in a constant pressure non-flow process
until the initial volume is doubled. Find the heat transfer in kJ/kg.

A. 235.8 C. 401.9
B. 504.6 D. 304.7
90. Air enters an ideal converging-diverging nozzle at a pressure of 73.5 psia
with a temperature of 1400° F and negligible approach velocity. For
isentropic expansion to an exit pressure of 14.7 psia, calculate the
temperature of the air leaving the nozzle in deg. F.

A. 679 C. 725
B. 714° D. 732

91. At what location of a converging-diverging nozzle does the shock-boundary

layer interaction takes place?

A. converging portion C. throat

B. inlet D. diverging portion

92. The pressure of the air entering an ideal convergent nozzle is 73.5
psia, the temperature is 1400° F and the velocity of approach is
negligible. The nozzle discharges against a pressure of 14.7 psia. What is
the nozzle exit velocity when expansion in the nozzle is isentropic,
ft/sec?

A. 1150 C. 2381
B. 1930 D. 4273

93. Air enters a convergent-divergent nozzle having stagnation conditions of

65 C and 285 kPa. The Mach number of the throat is 0.77. For isentropic
expansion through the nozzle, calculate the throat pressure in kPa.

A. 154.9 C. 131.5
B. 254.7 D. 192.5

94. Air is to be conditioned from tD = 39° F and  = 80 percent to tD = 74° F

and  = 70 percent. To what temperature should the air be heated before
humidifying, °F?

A. 102.5 C. 110.6
B. 120.7 D. 135.2

95. In an ideal Brayton cycle, air enters the compressor at 15 psia and 75˚ F.
The temperature of the air at turbine inlet is 1600˚ F. For maximum
theoretical network, find the temperature of the air leaving the compressor
in deg. F.

A. 1040 C. 590
B. 670 D. 620

96. A split shaft gas turbine has a power turbine rated at 15,000 internal
horsepower. Typical operating conditions for the unit are: compressor inlet
14.5 psia and 60˚ F; compressor discharge 174 psia and 716˚ F; compressor
turbine inlet 171 psia and 1630˚ F; and power turbine exhaust 14.8 psia and
760˚ F. The compressor turbine at the above rating has an 85 percent
isentropic turbine efficiency. For these rated conditions calculate the
power turbine isentropic efficiency, %

A. 70.4 C. 73.4
B. 75.5 D. 79.6
97. A 2 kW centrifugal compressor operates with suction conditions of 100 kPa
abs and 25˚ C. The pressure ratio for the unit is 3 and isentropic
compression efficiency is 0.70. Determine the discharge temperature
(actual)in Kelvin.
 A. 440 C. 325
B. 405 D. 455
98. A refrigerating plant for an air-conditioning system removes 10,000
Btu/min from the air. The plant circulates 170 lb of refrigerant/min and
the internal power delivered by its compressor is 60 horsepower. The
refrigerant evaporation temperature is 40F, and its condensation
temperature is 100·F. Calculate the capacity of the plant in tons.

A. 50 C. 100
B. 250 D. 58
99. A Diesel cycle has a 16 to 1 compression ratio and a peak cycle
temperature of 2912° R. Conditions at the beginning of compression are 14.7
psia and 6:0° F. Assuming constant specific heat determine the thermal
efficiency, %.

A. 70.2 C. 82.7
B. 62.2 D. 68.3

100. An air c o m p r e s s i o n refrigeration system is to have an air pressure

of 100 psia in the brine tank and an allowable air temperature increase
of 60F. For standard vapor compression cycle temperatures of 77F
entering the expansion cylinder and 14 F entering the compression
cylinder, calculate the coefficient of performance.

A. 5 C. 1.0
B. 3.33 D. 2.5

*** END***

SUBMIT THIS TEST QUESTION SET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER SHEET TO YOUR WATCHERS.
BRINGING THE TEST QUESTION SET OUT OF THE ROOM WILL BE A GROUND FOR DISCIPLINARY
ACTION.
 Republic of the Philippines
PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
Manila

BOARD OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Registered Mechanical Engineer Licensure Examination

Saturday January 29, 2011 01:30 p.m. – 06:30 p.m.
----------------------------------------------------------------
MACHINE DESIGN, MATERIALS AND SHOP PRACTICE SET A

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil No.2 only.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A thin hollow sphere of radius 10 in and thickness 0.1 in
is subjected to an internal pressure of 100 psig. The
maximum normal stress on an element of the sphere is
A. 2500 psi C. 7,070 psi
B. 5000 psi * D. 10,000 psi

2. In designing a cylindrical pressure tank 3 feet in

diameter, a factor of safety of 2.5 is used. The cylinder
is made of steel (yield stress = 30 ksi) and will contain
pressures up to1000 psi. What is the required wall
thickness, t, based on circumferential stress
considerations?
A. 0.75 in. C. 3 in.
B. 1.50 in. * D. 3.75 in.

3. A flywheel weighing 6 kN has a mean diameter of 90 cm. The

maximum speed of the flywheel is 7 rev/sec slowed down to 4
rev/sec during the shearing process. Determine the energy
released by the flywheel.
A. 7856 kg-m C. 9872 kg-m
B. 8145 kg-m D. 8241 kg-m *

4. When measuring a drill for size measure across the:

A. margins * C. shank
B. flutes D. point

5. The tool used in precision work to smooth or enlarge holes

is called a:
A. round out C. reamer *
B. drift pin D. protractor

6. Which of the following chisels would be used for cutting

oil grooves?
A. diamond-point chisel C. round-nose chisel *
B. cold chisel D. hot chisel

7. Which of the following is not a cut of file?

A. smooth C. half-round *
B. second cut D. bastard

8. Which of the following is the smallest size drill?

 A. # 80 * C. # 1
B. # 60 D. # 0

9. Two parallel shaft connected by pure rolling turn in the

same direction and having a speed ratio of 4. What is the
distance of the two shaft if the small cylinder is 8 cm?
A. 10 cm C. 18 cm
B. 12 cm * D. 20 cm

10. What modulus of elasticity in tension is required to obtain

a unit deformation of 0.00107 m/m from a load producing a
unit tensile stress of 50, 000 psi?
A. 34.5 x 106 psi C. 46.7 x 106 psi *
B. 46.7 x 10 psi
5 D. 4.67 x 106 psi

11. Determine the bursting steam pressure of a steel plate with

a diameter of 12 in.a and made of ¼ in steel plate. The
joint efficiency is at 75% and the tensile strength is 55
ksi.
A. 3, 440 psi * C. 3, 430 psi
B. 3, 437 psi D. 3, 427 psi

12. What is the working strength of a 2 in bolt which is

screwed up tightly in a packed joint when the allowable
working stress is 11,000 psi?
A. 12,400 lb C. 18,700 lb *
B. 15,500 lb D. 22,500 lb

13. Which of the following is the largest size drill?

A. A C. Z *
B. X D. XX

14. The size of a drill is stamped on the:

A. point C. margin
B. shank * D. flute

15. Which of the following safety precautions should be followed

when pouring babbitt?
A. operator must wear goggles
B. the surface to be babbitted must be free of moisture
C. the surface to be babbitted must be clean
D. all of the above *

16. Which of the following safety precautions should be

followed when renewing a flange gasket?
A. drain the line thoroughly
B. tie down isolation valves
C. isolate the section to be worked on
D. all of the above *

17. Before installing a new flange gasket be sure that the:

A. flange faces are painted
B. flange faces are absolutely clean *
C. isolating valves are open
D. old gasket is in place

18. On a standard wire gage:

A. #10 is larger than #5 C. # 1is smaller than #2
 B. #25 is smaller than #20 * D. #30 is larger than #25

19. Which of the following tools would be most useful when

taking leads on bearings?
A. dividers C. micrometer *
B. outside calipers D. center gage

20. The cutting action in on both stokes in

A. Open side planer C. Double housing planer
B. Pit planer D. Universal planer *

21. The straddle milling is done by means of two

A. Side milling cutters * C. Plain milling cutters
B. Face milling cutters D. Form cutters

22. The formula to find out the number of turn of the crank
simple indexing is
A. T=20/N C. T=N/20
B. T=40/N * D. T=N/40
23. In a standard dividing head the ratio between the worm
wheel and the worm is
A. 10:1 C. 20:1
D. 30:1 D. 40:1 *

24. There are two different movements of the crank in

A. Simple indexing C.Compound indexing *
B. Differential indexing D. Angular indexing

25. In a vertical milling machine the spindle is situated to

the
A. Horizontal C. vertical *
B. Angular D. None of the above

26. Planer type built machine is built up for work of

A. light duty C. heavy duty *
B. medium duty D. None of the above

27. In a straddle milling operation how many cutters are used

to mill the work?
A. One C. Two *
B. Three or more D. Any one of the above

28. All four compression coil spring support one load of 700
kg/mm. All four springs are arranged in parallel and rated
same at 0.609 kg/mm. Compute the deflection in mm.
A. 64 C. 178
B. 147 D. 287 *

29. A body weighing 1000 lb falls 6 inches and strikes a 2000

lb per in spring. The deformation of the spring is:
A. 1 in C. 3 in *
B. 2 in D. 6 in

30. A 60 inch diameter steel pipe, 3/8 inch thick, carries

water under a pressure head of 550 ft. Determine the hoop
stress in the steel.
A. 34,320 psi C. 19,066 psi *
B. 25,780 psi D. 15,920 psi
31. The maximum moment induced in a simply supported beam of 20
ft span, by a 2000 pound load at midspan is
A. 125,000 ft – lb C. 30,000 ft – lb
B. 15,000 ft – lb D. 10,000 ft – lb *

32. Determine the length of belt needed for a two flat belt
pulleys having a diameter of 70 cm and 30 cm. The center
distance is 400 cm and pulleys rotate in same direction.
Assume power transmitted is 10 hp at 200 rpm.
A. 958 cm * C. 589 cm
B. 859 cm D. 895 cm

33. A round steel bar 12 inches long is to withstand a dead

load of 40,000 lb in compression. The rod must not shorten
more than 0.004 inch and have a factor safety of at least
10. Assume the ultimate strength of the material to be
110,000 psi and modulus of elasticity to be 15,500,000 psi.
Determine the diameter of the rod.
A. 2.14 in. C. 4.14 in.
B. 3.14 in * D. 5.14 in.

34. How long will it take to saw a rectangular piece of steel

plate size ½ “ x 4’ x 8’ the length of cut is 4 ft. The
power hacksaw makes 120 rpm and the feed per stroke is
0.008 in.?
A. 48 min. C. 50 hr
B. 0.83 hr * D. 52 min.
35. For gear cutting which cutter is used?
A. End mill cutter C. Plain milling cutter
B. Form relieve cutter * D. All of the above

36. In a slotter, the table gets ___ different feeds

A. One C. Two
B. Three * D. None of the above

37. If a clearance of a cutting edge is 15 deg, the lip (wedge)

angle in 75 deg, the rake angle will be
A. 80 deg C. 70 deg
B. 10 deg * D. None of the above

38. The approximate hardness of HSS end mill cutter is

A. 45 HRC C. 52 HRC
B. 62 HRC * D. 72 HRC

39. When the feed motion takes place in a slotting machine

A. during the cutting motion.
B. after each forward stroke.
C. at the end of return motion.
D. after each double stroke. *
40. Which of the following conditions may cause error during
knurling?
A. to much longitudinal feed. *
B. clamped length of tool too short.
C. surface speed too low.
D. unnecessary support with tail stock center.
41. Mark the milling method during which the formation of the
chatter marks is very likely
A. during down cut milling with a straight tooth cutter.
B. during up cut milling with a straight tooth cutter. *
C. during face milling with a straight tooth cutter.
D. while using spiral tooth cutter.

42. Mark the cutter which works simultaneously with up cut and
down cut process
A. Side milling cutter.
B. Semi-circular milling cutter.
C. Shell end mill. *
D. Plain milling cutter.

43. A polygon with 9 flats is to be milled using the indexing

head. The indexing head transmission ratio is
40:1.Determine the number of crank rotation and mark the
correct answer
A. 9 full rotation.
B. 5 full rotation, 2 holes on the 36 hole circle.
C. 4 full rotation, 12 holes on the 27 hole circle. *
D. 2 full rotation, 16 hole on the 47hole circle.

44. Where the relieved cutters are reground?

A. on the circumstances
B. relieved cutters are not reground
C. on the flank *
D. on the side faces

45. What happens if the job is loosely fitted between centers

in cylindrical grindings?
A. the job will be out of round. *
B. the job will be oversize.
C. the job will be thrown out.
D. the job will not rotate.

46. Internal and external taper on cylindrical jobs are ground

in
A. plain cylindrical grinding machine.
B. universal cylindrical grinding machine. *
C. internal grinding machine.
D. centreless grinding machine.

47. Which of the following is used to clean the gauge blocks

before and after use?
A. Brush
B. Cotton waste
C. Chamois leather or lenen cloth *
D. None of the above

48. The grade of grinding wheel depends upon

A. Grain size C. Structure
B. Kind of abrasive D. Hardness of bond *

49. Which kind of bond is commonly used?

A. Vitrified * C. Rubber
B. Shellac D. None of the above
50. The symbol conventionally used for resinoid bond is
A. ‘V’ C. ‘R’
B. ‘B’ * D. ‘E’

51. A grinding wheel is marked as 51A 46L 5V 23, out of these 5

means
A. Kind of abrasive C. Kind of bond
B. Structure * D. Grain size

52. Balancing of grinding wheel is done to

A. make the outside diameter concentric with the bore.
B. make the sides of wheel parallel.
C. equalize the weight in every portion of the wheel. *
D. None of the above.

53. Taps are resharpened by grindings

A. Flutes * C. Threads
B. Diameter D. Relief
54. The purpose of______is to prevent gears from jamming
together and making contact on both sides of their teeth
simultaneously
A. tooth fillet C. backlash *
B. stress relieving D. all of these

55. Choose the economical type of material for gears that

give/sustain good operating quality/life for intended
operation
A. plane carbon steel C. all of these
B. high alloy steel D. heat treated carbon steel *

56. Allowance added in the casting pattern to compensate for

the contraction of metal
A. tapering allowance C. finish allowance
B. shrinkage allowance * D. draft pattern

57. Ratio of the angle of action to the pitch angle

A. contact ratio * C. ratio of gearing
B. approach ratio D. module

58. The principle materials used in the production of metal

working tools:
A. high carbon steel *
B. titanium, phosphorous
C. tungsten, silicon, hadfield Mn
D. vanadium, chromium, molybdenum

59. Also called eccentrically loaded bearing is ________.

A. full bearings C. partial bearing
B. offset bearing * D. fitted bearings

60. In the selection of wire rope, regular lay means wires and
strands are arranged in the following manner:
A. twisted in the same direction
B. twisted in opposite direction*
C. twisted in any direction
D. twisted in along direction
61. In involute teeth, the pressure angle is often defined as
the angle between the line of action and the line of
tangent to the pitch circle. It is also termed as-
A. helix angle C. Angle of obliquity *
B. angle of recess D. Arc of action

62. Height of tooth above pitch circle or the radial distance

between pitch circle and top land of the tooth.
A. top root C. land
B. addendum * D. hunting tooth

63. The function of clutch in the machine tool is?

A. lowering of drive speed
B. to disconnect or connect at will the drive *
C. alignment of drive shaft
D. to insure that two shaft line up at high speed

64. The rule of thumb in journal bearing design; the clearance

ratio/clearance should be.
A. 0.0090 C. 0.0010 *
B. 0.0042 D. 0.00120

65. Cold rolled shafting is not available in diameter larger

than__________
A. 6 inches C. 6 ½ inches
B. 5 inches * D. 5 ½ inches

66. The cast iron flywheels are commonly designed with a

factor of safety of______
A. 14 to 15 C. 8 to 9
B. 10 to 13 * D. 6 to 12

67. A pair of equal and opposite (not collinear) forces that

tend cause a rotation of a body
A. couple * C. equilibrium
B. centroids D. vector

68. The ratio of the pitch diameter in inches to the number of

teeth
A. pitch circle C. module
B. English module * D. pitch diameter

69. When high strength and durability are a requirements for

choosing gear materials it is preferable to
use_________material
A. hardened bronze C. phenolic laminated
B. steel * D. white iron

70. The distance between similar, equally-spaced tooth surfaces

in a given direction and along a given line.
A. pitch circle C. pitch *
B. pitch plane D. pitch diameter

71. The use of hardened steel for the mating metal gear appears
to give the best results and longer operational life. The
usual hardness is in the range of-
A. over 600 BHN * C. below 350 BHN
B. 300 to 400 BHN D. over 400 BHN
72. Continuous stretching under load even if the stress is less
than the yield point
A. plasticity C. creep *
B. elasticity D. ductility

73. The most known lubricants being utilized in whatever

category of load and speed are oil, air, grease and dry
lubricants like
A. bronze C. silicon
B. lead D. graphite *

74. A coupling that allows axial flexibility/movement in the

operation. Made of alternate bolting of steel, leather,
fabric and/or plastic material into the two flanges
A. Flexible disk coupling *
B. flexing Oldham coupling
C. Flexible toroidal spring coupling
D. Elastic-material bonded coupling

75. It consists of two cranks, a stationary piece called the

line of centers and the connecting rod is a
A. five-bar linkage C. three-crank linkage
B. four-crank braces D. four-bar linkage *

76. Find the torsional moment in N-m developed when the shaft
delivers 40.2 hp at 260 rpm.
A. 901 x 10 to the 3rd power C.1102 x 10 to the 2nd power
B. 901 x 10 to the 2nd power D.1102 x 10 to the 3rd power *

77. Compute how many ¼ inch diameter set screws required to

transmit 3 HP at a shaft speed of 900 rpm. The shaft
diameter is 1 ¼ in
A. 2 C. 4 *
B. 3 D. 2.5

78. A pair of gear and pinion having a ratio of 4 with the gear
having 100 teeth and the pinion with 25 teeth. Find the
circular pitch, if the center distance is 15 and the pitch
is at 6.
A. 0.94 C. 0.610
B. 0.754 * D. 0.552

79. A gear of 80 teeth and a pinion of 20 teeth has a gear and

pinion ratio of 4. Find the center distance , in inches, if
the circular pitch is 0.885.
A. 14.1 * C. 16.1
B. 15.1 D. 17.1

80. The section modulus of a circle of radius 5 cm is equal to:

A. 58.2 cm3 C. 98.2 cm3 *
B. 78.2 cm3 D. 108.2 cm3

81. A hollow shaft with outside diameter of 14 cm and wall

thickness of 0.08 cm transmits 200 kW at 400 rpm. What must
be the angular deflection of the shaft if the length is 5
meters? Take G = 12,000,000 psi.
A. 0.019 deg C. 1.94 deg
 B. 1.14 deg * D. 2.44 deg

82. Compute the safe wall thickness of a 90 cm diameter steel

tank. The tank is subjected to 7 MPa pressure and the steel
material has yield stress of 220 MPa. Use a factor of
safety of 3.
A. 4.3 cm * C. 3.2 cm
B. 3.8 cm D. 2.5 cm

83. A bolt has a tensile load of 300 lbs. The bolt is made of
SAE 1040 material with Sy = 55 ksi, what is the stress area
of the bolt?
A. 0.1023 in2 * C. 0.327 in2
B. 0.1230 in 2 D. 0.5190 in2

84. With an electric arc welding rate rate of 18 in/min, how

long will it take to weld a ½ in. thick plate by 3 ft long
seam?
A. 3 min. C. 1.5 min.
B. 2 min. * D. 4 min.

85. Determine the power transmitted, in kW, by a main power

transmitting steel shaft with 2 3/8 inches in diameter
using SAE 1060 material mounting a 12 inches pulley at a
speed of 170 rpm.
A. 21.3 * C. 28.5
B. 25.8 D. 0.75

86. Determine the polar section modulus, Zp (in3) of a shaft

delivering 5 hp at 150 rpm. The diameter of the shaft is 1
inch and allowable stress of 6000 psi.
A. 0.175 C. 0.489
B. 0.196 * D. 0.895

87. Compute the deflection of a 20 coils helical spring having

a load of 120 kgs. The modulus of elasticity in shear of
spring is 98 GPa, outside diameter of 10 cm and wire
diameter of 10 mm. The spring is squared and ground ends.
A. 162.1 mm C. 134.1 mm
B. 154.4 mm D. 126.1 mm *

88. The torsional deflection of steel shaft is 0.6 deg per

meter length. The shear stress is 60 MPa. Compute the
diameter of the shaft in mm. Steel modulus of elasticity is
79 GPa.
A. 90 mm C. 130 mm
B. 105 mm D. 145 mm *

89. What is the size of an air cylinder operating at 10 bar

with a required force of 7854 N? Use a load ratio of 90%.
Load ratio means the ratio of required force and
theoretical force.
A. 100 mm C. 150 mm
B. 105 mm * D. 300 mm

90. A steel rod 30 ft long used in a control mechanism must

transmit a tensile force of 980 lb without stretching more
than 1/8 in. nor exceeding an allowable stress of 20,000
 psi. What must the diameter of the rod be? (E = 30 x 106 psi
)
A. 1/4 in C. 1/2 in
B. 3/8 in * D. 3/4 in

91. A steel bar initially free of stress, is held between rigid

supports. Determine the stress in the bar if the
temperature drops 130 deg F. (k = 6.5 x 10-6 per deg F)
A. 11,400 psi C. 20,600 psi
B. 15,600 psi D. 25,400 psi *

92. When working on bearings and checking for high spots, it is

customary to apply:
A. white lead C. dykem blue
B. red lead D. Prussian blue *

93. If you wanted to check the face of a pump slide valve or

other flat-faced valve, you could check for trueness on a:
A. flat board C. piece of glass
B. surface plate * D. bearing plate

94. Before splicing electric wires, they should be:

A. tinned C. soldered
B. cleaned and tinned * D. insulated

95. Which of the following is not a standard thread form?

A. Square C. Double flute *
B. American National D. 60 deg. sharp V

96. Hand taps are provided in sets of three called:

A. taper, plug and end C. taper, plug and bottom *
B. short, taper and bottom D. short, medium and long

97. When preparing to tap a hole, the size of the drill will be
A. equal to the size of the tap
B. larger than the size of the tap
B. smaller than the size of the tap *
D. none of the above

98. When preparing to tap a hole for a pipe fitting the size of
the drill will be :
A. larger than the tap size *
B. smaller than the tap size
C. equal to the size of the tap
D. none of the above

99. Which of the following does not have to be lubricated when

drilling?
A. steel C. monel
B. brass * D. tool steel

100. The tool to use when cutting a hole in the side of a

round piece of metal is called a:
A. vise C. “V” block *
B. jaw holder D. chuck

*** END ***

 Republic of the Philippines
PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
Manila

BOARD OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Registered Mechanical Engineer Licensure Examination

Sunday, August 6, 2017 01:30 p.m. – 06:30 p.m.
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------

MACHINE DESIGN, MATERIALS AND SHOP PRACTICE SET A

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only
one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your
choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil No.2 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Compute the tooth thickness of a gear tooth having a diametral pitch of 12. The
gear tooth pressure angle is 14 ½ degree full depth tooth.
A. 0.0309 in C. 0.0507 in
B. 0.1309 in * D. 0.1906 in

2. A gear set having a gear ratio of 3 is to be used at a center distance of 16

inches. If the gear has 80 teeth, what must be the circular pitch?
A. 23.6 mm C. 29.3 mm
B. 23.9 mm * D. 32.9 mm

3. A shearing machine requires 150 kg-m of energy to shear a steel sheet, and has a
normal speed of 3 rev/sec, slowing down to 2.8 rev/sec during the shearing
process. The flywheel of the machine has a mean diameter of 75 cm and weighs
0.0155 kg/cm3. The width of the rim is 30 cm. If the hub and arms of the flywheel
account for 15% of its total weight, find the weight of the flywheel.
A. 457 kg C. 754 kg
B. 547 kg D. 985 kg

4. A line shaft with a power of 100 kW at a speed of 1200 rpm, had a rectangular key
used in its pulley connection. Consider the shearing stress of the shaft to be 40
MPa and the key to be 200 MPa, determine the width of the rectangular key if it is
one-fourth of the shaft diameter.
A. 23.65 mm C. 11.65 mm *
B. 14.65 mm D. 9.65 mm

5. Two shafts are connected by a flanged coupling. The coupling is secured by 6

bolts, 20 mm in diameter on a pitch circle diameter of 150 mm. If torque of 120 N-
m is applied, find the shear stress in the bolts.
A. 1.245 N/mm2 C. 0.995 N/mm2
B. 1.115 N/mm2 D. 0.848 N/mm2 *

6. Choose the economical type of material for gears that give/sustain good operating
quality/life for intended operation
A. plane carbon steel C. all of these
B. high alloy steel D. heat treated carbon steel *

7. A material plane was subjected to a load. When the load was removed the strain
disappeared. From the structural change which of the following can be considered
about this material?
A. it does not follow Hooke’s Law C. it is elastic *
B. it has high modules of elasticity D. it is plastic

8. Two shafts are connected by spur gears. The pitch radii of gears A and B are 100
mm and 500 mm respectively. If shaft A makes 800 rpm and is subjected to a
resisting torque of 113 N – m . What is the torque in shaft B?
A. 375 N-m C. 565 N-m
B. 495 N-m D. 690 N-m

9. What is the working strength of a 4 in bolt which is screwed up tightly in a

packed joint when the allowable working stress is 12,000 psi
A. 82,500 lbs C. 93,600 lbs
B. 95,600 lbs D. 95,000 lbs
10. How long will it take to drill a hole through a 10 cm thick steel plate if the
drill feed is 0.1 mm per rev and a ¼ - in diameter drill is turning at 750 rpm?
A. 80 sec C. 500 sec
B. 100 sec D. 1000 sec

11. In a uniformly loaded simple beam, the maximum vertical shearing force occurs
A. at the center C. at beam bottom fiber
B. at the section of maximum moment D. at either end support *

12. The path of contact in involute gears where the force/power is actually
transmitted. It is a straight imaginary line passing through the pitch point and
tangent to the base circle.
A. principal reference plane C. front angle
B. pitch point D. line of action *

13. What is the difference between a shaper and a planer?

A. the tool of the shaper moves while on the planer is stationary *
B. the shaper can perform slotting operation while the planer cannot
C. the shaper handles large pieces while the planer handle only small pieces
D. the tool of the shaper moves in reciprocating motion while the tool in the
planer moves in rotary motion

14. The shearing stress strain of a block of metal, 3 inches high is subject to a
shearing high force with distorts the top surface through a distance of 0.0036
inch;
A. 0.0015 all in radians C. 0.0010
B. 0.008 D. 0.0012 *

15. An engine parts is being with a load of 30,000 lb. The allowable tensile stress
6
is 10,000 psi, modulus of elasticity of 40 x 10 psi. If the original length of
specimen is 42 inches with elongation not exceeding 0.0015 inch, what diameter of
the specimen is required?
A. 4.2 in C. 2.5 in
B. 3.0 in D. 5.17 in *

16. Brazing is more superior than soldering in joining metals because:

A. all of these *
B. molten metal flaws between joints because of capillary forces
C. it has slight diffusion of metal involved
D. higher melting temperature joining

17. The purpose of______is to prevent gears from jamming together and making
contact on both sides of their teeth simultaneously
A. tooth fillet C. backlash *
B. stress relieving D. all of these

18. Any internal/residual stress in a steel work can be remedied by:

A. tempering C. annealing
B. stress relieving D. all of these *

19. The use of hardened steel for the mating metal gear appears to give the best
results and longer operational life. The usual hardness is in the range of-
A. over 600 BHN * C. below 350 BHN
B. 300 to 400 BHN D. over 400 BHN

20. _______is the product of the resultant of all forces acting on a body and the
time.
A. linear momentum C. angular momentum
B. linear impulse * D. all of these

21. The separate forces which can be so combined are called

A. concurrent forces C. couple
B. non concurrent forces D. component forces *

22. A thin hollow sphere of radius 10 in and thickness 0.10 in is subjected to an

internal pressure of 100 psi. The maximum normal stress on an element of the
sphere is:
A. 5000 psi * C. 1410 psi
B. 7070 psi D. 4500 psi
23. Determine the load in kN on a 30 mm diameter by 1000 mm long steel shaft if its
maximum elongation will not exceed 1.2 mm.
A. 167 C. 199
B. 176 * D. 245

24. How long will it take for a 51 mm length keyway to be milled if the milling
machine has a 24 teeth cutter turning at 130 rpm and feed rate of 0.127 mm per
tooth?
A. 0.281 min C. 0.128 min *
B. 0.218 min D. 0.812 min

25. Continuous stretching under load even if the stress is less than the yield
point
A. plasticity C. creep *
B. elasticity D. ductility

26. The most known lubricants being utilized in whatever category of load and speed
are oil, air, grease and dry lubricants like
A. bronze C. silicon
B. lead D. graphite *

27. A coupling that allows axial flexibility/movement in the operation. Made of

alternate bolting of steel, leather, fabric and/or plastic material into the two
flanges
A. Flexible disk coupling * C. flexing Oldham coupling
B. Flexible toroidal spring coupling D. Elastic-material bonded coupling

28. It consists of two cranks, a stationary piece called the line of centers and
the connecting rod is a
A. five-bar linkage C. three-crank linkage
B. four-crank braces D. four-bar linkage *

29. Used to change rotary motion to reciprocating motion____________

A. rack gears * C. Helical gears
B. hypoid gears D. herringbone gears

30. The effective face width of a helical gear divided by gear axial pitch
A. approach ratio * C. Arc of recess
B. Arc of action D. Face overlap

31. Pitch diameter less the diameter of the roller chain is equal to:
A. top land C. addendum
B. bottom diameter * D. Face overlap

32. Torsional deflection is a significant consideration in the design of shaft and

the limit should be in the range of_____________degree/foot of length
A. 0.4 to 1 C. 0.08 to 1 *
B. 0.1 to 1 D. 0.6 to 1

33. The property that characterizes a material’s ability to be drawn into a wire
A. tensile strength C. endurance limit
B. ductility * D. thermal conductivity

34. Which of the phases of steel elements has a face-centered cubic structure?
A. pyrite C. all of these
B. austenite * D. cementite

35. Steel spring material is usually hardened to 400 to 500 BHN and the carbon
content is in the range of____
A. 0.50 to 0.90 % * C. 0.45 to 0.48
B. all of these D. 0.96 to 0.97

36. Principal stresses occur on these plane

A. which are subjected to ultimate tension
B. which are subjected to maximum compression
C. The shearing stress is zero *
D. which are 45  apart

37. The property of material wherein the content is continuously distributed

through its entire mass
A. plasticity C. homogeneity *
B. malleability D. all of these
38. The properties of metal to withstand loads without breaking down is
A. elasticity C. plasticity
B. strength * D. strain

39. Shafts readily available in the market are made in many ways and wide variety
of material composition. It is likely be cold drawn carbon steel in size smaller
than __________inches diameter
A. 3.75 * C. 5
B. 4 D. 51/2

40. Plain carbon steel standard designation SAE________

A. 6xxx C. 10xx *
B.13xx D. 2xxx

41. The rigidity of polymer can be increased by

A. furnace melting C. crystallization *
B. normalizing D. shot opening

42. Recommended design practice for steel line shafting to limit the linear
deflection to ________inch/foot of length (maximum)
A. 0.020 C. 0.012
B. 0.010 * D. 0.15

43. For acceptable ideal range of tightness which may result from the application
of specific combination of allowances and tolerances.
A. allowance limit C. interference
B. tolerance limit D. Fit *

44. The recommended center distance of sprockets should not be less than _________
times the diameter of bigger sprocket
A. 1.75 C. 1 ½ *
B. 2 D. 2 ¼

45. The absolute viscosity of the fluid divided by its density expressed in same
term of units is also called_________
A. centistokes C. Petroffs equation
B. kinematic viscosity * D. light petroleum oil

46. It is required that pipes bigger than ________mm. should not be screwed but
flanged
A. 76.2 C. 2 ¼ inch
B. 63.5 * D. 68.5

47. Formed by the intersection of the adjacent flanks of adjacent threads when
extended is called.
A. crest apex C. sharp root *
B. all of these D. sharp crest

48. In designing the spoke or wheel arm of a flywheel it is ideal to consider that
the cross-sectional area of the spoke at rim side should not be less than
________of the cross area at the hub side
A. 80% C. 90%
B. 2/3 * D. 3/8

49. The cutting up to 70% is best for drilling extremely hard metals and for soft
materials ______degrees may be applied
A. 60 C. 40 *
B. 45 D. 48

50. _________is the process necessary to reduce the brittleness in alloy steel
A. martempering C. normalizing
B. carburizing D. tempering *

51. Steel springs are made of high carbon steel heat treated and/or cold worked to
a high elastic limit to get good elastic deflection. In general the carbon content
is at _________.
A. 0.40% or more C. 0.5% or more *
B. 0.65% or more D. 0.66% or more

52. In a chain drive design for large speed reduction it is preferable to use a
double reduction or compound type of transmission instead of single two sprockets
transmission. Drives should type be so designed that the angle between two tight
chain strand does not exceed_____degrees.
 A. 45 * C. 55
B. 60 D.90

53. The welded joints permit placing the added metal exactly where needed and
produce an integral structure which can develop_____% efficiency on any thickness
of section specially for mild steel materials
A. 95% C. 100% *
B. 85% D. 90%

54. Forces not on the same plane are called

A. Component C. Non-coplanar *
B. Resolution D. Composition of forces

55. The distance between the center of oscillation and the point of suspension is
called____
A. center of percussion C. radius of oscillation *
B. center of gravity D. Fix axis

56. If the velocity is variable and regularly/constantly increasing the rate of

change is called____
A. Moment C. Constant work
B. Motion D. Acceleration *

57. ______is a kinematic chain in which one link is considered fixed for the
purpose of analysis but motion is possible in other links
A. Sprocket chain C. Mechanism
B. Belting D. Frame *

58. __________is one of the rigid members/bodies joined together to form a

kinematic chain
A. All of these C. Frame
B. Link * D. Coplanar

59. The resultant of a pair of equal forces but opposite in direction is

called______
A. Non-concurrent C. Resultant
B. Concurrent D. Couple *

60. The helical and herringbone gear teeth cut after heat treatment should have a
hardness in the range of 210/300 BHN. The pinion gear teeth hardness, on the other
hand ideally/normally should be at______BHN
A. 250/320 C. 400
B. 350/380 D. 340/350 *

61. As a rule the center to center distance between sprocket should not be less
than____ times the diameter of the bigger sprocket and not less than 30 times the
pitch nor more than about 50 times to pitch
A. 2.5 C. 3
B. 2 D. 1.5 *

62. A single forces which produces the same effect upon a mass as two or several
forces acting together is called______
A. components C. composition of forces
B. resultant * D. resolution of forces

63. A low coefficient of expansion, corrosion resistant weak in strength and used
for non-ferrous application as an alloying element
A. Aluminum * C. copper
B. copper oxide D. aluminum oxide

64. For better mounting of bearing it is preferred to heat the inner ring the range
of 200  F and___ but never more than______  F as overheating might reduce the ring
hardness
A. 280 C. 300
B. 250 * D. 320

65. For large speed ratio and large sprocket utilized it is recommended cast_______
material since the large sprocket teeth are having fewer engagement.
A. alloyed steel C. malleable iron
B. iron * D. heat treated steel

66. Roller bearing is utilized on_______ carrying capacity and is better than
ball bearing in this condition
 A. high temperature load C. low load
B. heavy load * D. reversing load

67. To enhance mechanical properties, fabrication characteristic or any other

attributes of steel, some elements are added in melting in specific ranges or
minimum aside from carbon and generally termed____
A. Bessemer steel C. AISI steel
B. Alloy steel * D. SAE steel

68. Materials having thermal expansion of about 10 times higher than those of
metals and has more heat generated during machining is____?
A. Aluminum C. Asbestos
B. Plastic D. PVC

69. To hold to minimum the axial direction of deflection/movement, a separate

thrust bearing or pre-loaded bearing capable of absorbing considerable load is
required. The type of bearing to use is a_____bearing
A. Double row angular contact * C. Tapered roller bearing
B. Wide type self-aligning D. Deep groove ball

70. Pulley made of ______ordinarily is 45 to 55% less in weight and 2.35 to 2.70%
less slippage compared with______pulley
A. wood/iron C. steel/iron *
B. iron/steel D. wood/steel

71. To avoid scoring in the bearing surface and the shaft due to
contamination/absorption of the fine dirt in the bearing during
operation/lubrication, the bearing material to apply should have good
_____properties
A. corrosion resistance confermability C. embeddability *
B. corrosion resistance D. anti-scoring

72. What do impact tests measure?

A. plasticity C. ductility
B. toughness * D. compactness

73. The material that can cut/wear hardest substance subjected to:
A. carbide C. tungsten
B. abrasive * D. vanadium

74. A ridge of uniform section in the form of a helix cut around the circumference
of a cylinder and advancing along the axis
A. thread roots C. screw threads *
B. helix thread D. chamfers

75. Cast iron flywheels are commonly designed with factor of safety of
A. 10 to 13 * C. 10 to 14
B. 10 to 12 D. 8 to 13

76. Class of material exhibiting decreased electrical conductivity with increasing

temperature
A. aluminum C. metals *
B. p-type semiconductors D. n-type semiconductors

77. The welding made along the edges of two parallel plates is called ______
A. groove joint C. edge joint *
B. fillet joint D. corner joint

78. Not part and in fact should not be used in the steel melting process
A. coke * C. zinc
B. silicon D. aluminum

79. Length of contact between two mating parts in a screw and nut threads measured
axially is termed______.
A. Length of Engagement * C. Arc of contacts
B. Axis of contact D. Depth of Engagement

80. The sum of their addendums and dedendums

A. whole depth * C. width of space
B. full depth D. working depth

81. What load in Newton must be applied to a 25 mm round steel bar 2.5 m long (E=
207 Gpa) to stretch the bar 1.3 mm?
 A. 42,000 C. 53,000
B. 52,840 * D. 60,000

82. An air cylinder has a bore of 25 mm and is operated with a shop air at a
pressure of 6.3 bars ( approximately 90 psi). Find the push force exerted by the
piston rod in Newtons.
A. 127 N C. 402 N
B. 70 N D. 305 N *

83. A 76 mm solid shaft is to be replaced with a hollow shaft of equal torsional

strength. Find the inside diameter and percentage of weight saved, if the outside
of the hollow shaft is 100 mm.
A. 56.53 % * C. 48.49 %
B. 67.31% D. 72.50 %

84. A line shaft is to transmit 200 Hp at 900 rpm. If the line shaft is connected
with a speed of 1,600 rpm, find the horsepower transmitted.
A. 493 Hp C. 365 Hp *
B. 465 Hp D. 200 Hp

85. A steel shaft transmits 40 Hp at 1400 rpm. Considering allowable shearing

stress based on pure torsion to be 5000 psi, find the torsional deflection of the
shaft in degrees per foot.
A. 0.392 degrees/foot C. 0.541 degrees/foot
B. 0.246 degrees/foot * D. 0.435 degrees/foot

86. A 48 inches diameter diamond saw blade is mounted on a pulley driven steel
shaft, requiring a blade peripheral linear speed of 150 ft./sec. Motor drive is
125 Hp at 1,200 rpm, with 6 inches diameter pulley, determine the shaft diameter.
A. 1.483 in C. 2.106 in *
B. 3.204 in D. 4.392 in

87. A 6.5 mm shaft is designed with a working stress of 48 MPa in shear. If it

rotates at 1725 rpm, how much power can it safely transmit?
A. 436 Watts * C. 673 Watts
B. 521 Watts D. 712 Watts

88. A body of mass 50 kg is being hoisted by a winch and the tension in the cable
is 600 Newtons. What is the acceleration in meters per sec per sec?
A. 1.19 C. 3.19
B. 2.19 * D. 5.19

89. Method of finishing/shaping a machine part of exceptionally high carbon or high

chromium steel parts (orveryhard material)
A. using oxygen lanching C. using abrasive grinding *
B. machining using carbine insert D. machining using high speed tool steel

90. Alloy steel used in manufacturing bolts studs tubings subjected to torsional
stresses
A. AISI 3141 C. AISI4830
B. AISI 2330 * D. AISI 4310

91. Which of the following is not a viscoelastic material?

A. Teflon C. all of these
B. plastic D. metal *

92. A shearing machine is used to crop off lengths of round bar 20 mm diameter. If
the ultimate shear strength of the material is 160 MPa, calculate the force needed
to crop the bar.
A. 48 kN C. 50.3 kN *
B. 53 kN D. 55.0 kN

93. The force of a point of a shaper when cutting is 1500 N. If the length of the
stroke is 120 mm, how much work is done in one cutting stroke?
A. 180 J * C. 200 J
B. 195 J D. 100 J

94. A spur pinion rotates at 1800 rpm and transmit to a mating gear 50 HP. The
pitch diameter is 6 in and the pressure angle is 14 ½ deg. Determine the
tangential load.
A. 283 lbs C. 583 lbs *
B. 265 lbs D. 485 lbs
95. A flywheel has a diameter of 1.5 m and a mass of 1000 kg. What torque is needed
to produce an angular acceleration of 120 revolutions per minute, per second?
A. 3534 J * C. 3345 J
B. 3354 J D. 3453 J

96. A cantilever beam is 5 ft long and of square cross section, 2 in on each side
is loaded at its end by a vertical force of magnitude 500 lbs. Determine the
magnitude of the reaction at the fixed end.
A. 100 lbs C. 500 lbs *
B. 250 lbs D. 1000 lbs

97. In designing a cylindrical pressure tank, 3 ft in diameter a factor of safety

of 2.5 is used. The cylinder is made of steel having a yield point of 30 ksi, and
will contain pressures up to 1000 psi. What is the required wall thickness t?
A. 0.75 in. * C. 3 in.
B. 1.50 in. D. 3.75 in.

98. A car starts from rest and moves with a constant acceleration of 6 m/s2 . What
is the speed of the car after 4 seconds?
A. 18 m/s C. 35 m/s
B. 24 m/s * D. 55 m/s

99. How long will it take to cut a 4-in long thread at 100 rpm if the threading
machine has a configuration of 20 threads per inch?
A. 1 sec C. 48 sec *
B. 25 sec D. 90 sec

100. A cylindrical tank with 12 inches inside diameter contains air at 2000 psi.
Calculate the required thickness under stress of 25, 000 psi.
A. 0.48 mm C. 12.2 mm *
B. 4.8 mm D. 21.9 mm

***END***

SUBMIT THIS TEST QUESTION SET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER SHEET TO YOUR WATCHERS. BRINGING
THE TEST QUESTION SET OUT OF THE ROOM WILL BE A GROUND FOR DISCIPLINARY ACTION.
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