CHAPTER 1: DIFFERING PERSPECTIVES ON QUALITY

1. WHAT IS QUALITY?
- According to Webster’s Dictionary, Quality is the degree of excellence of a thing.
- According to American Society for Quality: Totality of features and characteristics that satisfy
needs.
1.1. Product Quality Dimensions
David Garvin found that most definitions of quality were either transcendent, product-based, user based,
manufacturing-based, or value-based.
- Transcendent: Quality is something that is intuitively understood but nearly impossible to
communicate, such as beauty or love.
- Product-based: Quality is found in the components and attributes of a product.
- User-based: If the customer is satisfied, the product has good quality.
- Manufacturing-based: If the product conforms to design specifications, it has good quality.
- Value-based: If the product is perceived as providing good value for the price, it has good quality.
Performance refers to the efficiency with which a product achieves its intended purpose. This might be the
return on a mutual fund investment, the fuel efficiency of an automobile, or the acoustic range of a pair of
stereo speakers. Generally, better performance is synonymous with better quality.
Features are attributes of a product that supplement the product’s basic performance. These include many of
the “bells and whistles” contained in products. A visit to any television or computer retail store will reveal that
features, such as surround sound, HDTV capability, 3-D, and size, are powerful marketing tools for which
customers will pay a premium. A full-line television retail store may carry televisions priced from $200 to
$12,000. This range represents a 6,000% price premium for additional features!
Reliability refers to the propensity for a product to perform consistently (ổn định) over its useful design life.
A subfield in quality management has emerged, called reliability management, based on the application of
probability theory to quality. A product is considered reliable if the chance that it will fail during its designed
life is very low. For example, if a refrigerator has a 2% chance of failure in a useful life of 10 years, we say
that it is 98% reliable.
Conformance (sự phù hợp) is perhaps the most traditional dimension of quality. When a product is designed,
certain numeric dimensions for the product’s performance are established, such as capacity, speed, size,
durability, or the like. These numeric product dimensions are referred to as specifications (thông số kỹ thuật).
The number of ounces of pulp allowed in a half-gallon container of “pulp-free” orange juice is one example.
Specifications typically are allowed to vary a small amount called tolerance (Dung sai). If a particular
dimension of a product is within the allowable range of tolerance of the specification, it conforms.
The advantage of the conformance definition of quality for products is that it is easily quantified. However, it
is often difficult for a service to conform to numeric specifications. For example, imagine trying to measure
the quality of a counselor’s work versus that of a carmaker. Because counseling is intangible, it is almost
impossible to measure.
Durability is the degree to which a product tolerates stress or trauma without failing. An example of a product
that is not very durable is a lightbulb. Lightbulbs are damaged easily and cannot be repaired. In contrast, a trash
can (thùng rác) is a very durable product that can be subjected to much wear and tear.
Serviceability (Khả năng sửa chữa) is the ease of repair for a product. A product is very serviceable if it can
be repaired easily and cheaply. Many products require service by a technician, such as the technician who
repairs your personal computer. If this service is rapid, courteous, easy to acquire, and competent, then the
product generally is considered to have good serviceability. Note that different dimensions of quality are not
mutually exclusive.
Aesthetics are subjective sensory characteristics such as taste, feel, sound, look, and smell. Although vinyl
interiors (nội thất bằng nhựa) in automobiles require less maintenance, are less expensive, and are more
durable, leather interiors generally are considered more aesthetically pleasing. We measure aesthetic quality as
the degree to which product attributes are matched to consumer preferences.
Perceived quality is based on customer opinion. As we said in the beginning of this chapter, quality is as the
customer perceives it. Customers imbue products and services with their understanding of their goodness. This
is perceived quality. In the same way that these factors affect sportswriters’ perceptions, factors such as brand
image, brand recognition, amount of advertising, and word of mouth can affect consumers’ perceptions
of quality.
The Garvin list of quality dimensions, although it is the most widely cited and used, is not
exhaustive. Other authors have proposed lists of additional quality measures, such as safety.
Carol King identified dimensions of service quality such as responsiveness, competence, access, courtesy,
communication, credibility, security, and understanding. Allowed time, you probably could think of additional
dimensions as well.
1.2. Service Quality Dimensions
Parasuraman, Zeithamel, and Berry (PZ&B), three marketing professors from Texas A&M University,
published a widely recognized set of service quality dimensions:
Tangibles include the physical appearance of the service facility, the equipment, the personnel, and the
communication materials.
Service reliability differs from product reliability in that it relates to the ability of the service provider to
perform the promised service dependably and accurately.
Responsiveness is the willingness of the service provider to be helpful and prompt in providing service.
Assurance refers to the knowledge and courtesy of employees and their ability to inspire
trust and confidence.
Empathy, the customer desires caring, individualized attention from the service firm.

2. COSTS OF QUALITY
2.1. Cost of achieving good quality:
- Appraisal costs: to evaluate the products, costs of activities designed to uncover defects, inspection
and testing, test equipment, operation. (Chi phí thẩm định)
- Prevention costs: to reduce the potential for defects, all TQM training, planning, product design, …
and quality improvement costs to prevent defects from occurring.

2.2. Cost of poor quality-failure

- Internal failure costs: are incurred to fix problems that are detected BEFORE the product/service is
delivered to the customer (scrap (phế liệu), process failure, price downgrading…)
- External failure costs: are incurred to fix problems that are detected AFTER the product/service is
delivered to the customer (complaints, warranty, product liability,...)
2.3. Relationship
- Tăng prevention costs -> giảm failure costs
- Cải thiện quality -> tăng sales & market share
- Quality products cao hơn có thể command (yêu cầu) mức giá cao hơn.
3. THE THREE SPHERES OF QUALITY
3.1. Quality control
The first sphere is quality control. The control process is based on the scientific method, which includes the
phases of analysis, relation, and generalization. In the analysis phase, a process is broken into its fundamental
pieces. Relation involves understanding the relationships between the parts. Finally, generalization
involves perceiving how interrelationships apply to the larger phenomenon (hiện tượng) of quality being
studied. Activities relating to quality control include the following:
• Monitoring process capability and stability
• Measuring process performance
• Reducing process variability
• Optimizing processes to nominal measures
• Performing acceptance sampling
• Developing and maintaining control charts
3.2. Quality assurance
Quality assurance refers to activities associated with guaranteeing the quality of a product or service. Often,
these activities are design-related. This view of quality states that quality control is reactive rather than
proactive by detecting quality problems after they occur. Given this, the best way to ensure quality is in
the design of products, services, and processes. Quality assurance activities include tasks such as:
• Failure mode and effects analysis
• Concurrent engineering
• Experimental design
• Process improvement
• Design team formation and management
• Off-line experimentation
• Reliability/durability product testing
3.3. Quality management
Overarch and tie together the control and assurance activities make up quality management.
• Planning for quality improvement
• Creating a quality organizational culture
• Providing leadership and support
• Providing training and retraining
• Designing an organizational system that reinforces quality ideals
• Providing employee recognition
• Facilitating organizational communication
4. TRẮC NGHIỆM
1) Which of the following is not one of Garvin's eight
quality dimensions?
A) reliability
B) performance
C) conformance
D) aesthetics
E) efficiency
2) Which of the following is not one of Parasuraman,
Zeithamel, and Berry's dimensions of service
quality?
A) tangibles
B) service reliability
C) contiguity
D) responsiveness
E) assurance
3) Why is service quality more difficult to define than
product quality?
Answer: services have more diverse quality attributes than products.
4) refers to the efficiency with which a product
achieves its intended purpose.
A) Performance
B) Features
C) Reliability
D) Conformance
E) Serviceability
5) Which of Garvin's dimensions of quality include the
"bells and whistles" contained in products?
A) performance
B) conformance
C) features
D) aesthetics
E) perceived quality
6) refers to the propensity for a product to
perform consistently over its useful design life.
A) Conformance
B) Durability
C) Perceived quality
D) Reliability
E) Serviceability
7) Which of the following is the most traditional dimension
of quality?
A) durability
B) reliability
C) features
D) performance
E) conformance
8) is the degree to which a product tolerates
stress or trauma without failing.
A) Serviceability
B) Conformance
C) Durability
D) Performance
E) Reliability
9) is the ease of repair for a product.
A) Durability
B) Reliability
C) Conformance
D) Contiguity
E) Serviceability
10) are subjective sensory characteristics such
as taste, feel, sound, look, and smell.
A) Intangibles
B) Logistics
C) Aesthetics
D) Tangibles
E) Features
11) is based on customers' opinion of products and
services.
A) Conformance
B) Aesthetics
C) Durability
D) Performance
E) Perceived quality
12) Which of the following choices correctly matches one
of Garvin's dimensions of quality with its definition?
A) reliability—refers to the efficiency with which a product
achieves its intended purpose
B) serviceability—the ease of repair of a product
C) conformance—the degree to which a product
tolerates stress or trauma without failing
D) performance—subjective sensory characteristics such
as taste, feel, sound, look, and smell
E) aesthetics—refers to the propensity for a product
to perform consistently over its useful design life
13) In the context of service quality, include the
physical appearance of the service facility, the equipment,
the personnel, and the communication materials.
A) intangibles
B) logistics
C) features
D) tangibles
E) aesthetics
14) If you select a physician based solely on reputation, you
are basing your decision on which of the following
dimensions of service quality?
A) responsiveness
B) empathy
C) service reliability
D) assurance
E) tangibles
15) is the willingness of the service provider to
be helpful and prompt in providing service.
A) Assurance
B) Service reliability
C) Responsiveness
D) Empathy
E) Conformance
16) Which dimension of service quality refers to the
knowledge and courtesy of employees and their ability
to inspire trust and confidence?
A) empathy
B) service reliability
C) tangibles
D) responsiveness
E) assurance
17) A service provider that consistently provides caring,
individualized attention to its customers would score high
on the dimension of service quality.
A) assurance
B) responsiveness
C) tangibles
D) service reliability
E) empathy
18) Performance refers to the efficiency with which a
product achieves its intended purpose.
19) Reliability is perhaps the most traditional dimension
of quality.
20) The advantage of the conformance definition of quality
for products is that it is easily quantified.
21) Conformance is the degree to which a product
tolerates stress or trauma without failing.
22) Aesthetics are subjective sensory characteristics such
as taste, feel, sound, look, and smell.
23) Services have more diverse quality attributes
than products.
24) High customer involvement plays a major role in
the determination of service quality.
25) Service reliability differs from product reliability in that
it relates to the ability of the service provider to perform the
promised service dependably and accurately.
26) Responsiveness is the willingness of the service
provider to be helpful and prompt in providing service.
27) Empathy refers to the knowledge and courtesy of
employees and their ability to inspire trust and
confidence. => (ASSUARANCE)
88) What are the three spheres of quality?
A) quality costs, quality benefits, and quality control
B) quality planning, quality execution, and quality control
C) quality control, quality assurance, and quality management
D) quality benefits, quality risks, and quality management
E) quality costs, quality risks, and quality assurance
89) The process is based on the scientific method,
which includes the phases of analysis, relation, and
generalization.
A) quality execution
B) quality implementation
C) quality assurance
D) quality management
E) quality control
90) What are the three phases included in the quality
control sphere?
A) analysis, relation, and generalization
B) investigation, experimentation, and discovery
C) investigation, relation, and collaboration
D) analysis, synthesis, and discovery
E) investigation, experimentation, and generalization
91) In the phase of quality control, a process
is divided into its fundamental pieces.
A) synthesis
B) analysis
C) experimentation
D) generalization
E) relation
92) The phase of quality control involves
perceiving how interrelationships apply to the larger
phenomenon of quality being studied.
A) generalization
B) synthesis
C) relation
D) experimentation
E) analysis
93) Which of the following activities is related to
quality control?
A) creating a quality organizational culture
B) concurrent engineering
C) providing employee recognition
D) off-line experimentation
E) performing acceptance sampling
94) refers to activities associated with guaranteeing
the quality of a product or service.
A) Quality control
B) Quality assurance
C) Quality management
D) Quality implementation
E) Quality execution
95) Which of the following activities is related to
quality assurance?
A) providing leadership and support
B) reducing process variability
C) facilitating organizational communication
D) performing acceptance sampling
E) experimental design
96) Which of the following activities is related to
quality management?
A) measuring process performance
B) providing employee
recognition
C) off-line experimentation
D) design team formation and management
E) developing and maintaining control charts
97) The three spheres of quality are quality control,
quality assurance, and quality management.
98) The relation phase of quality control involves
perceiving how interrelationships apply to the larger
phenomenon of quality being studied.
99) Reducing process variability and performing
acceptance sampling are activities related to quality
assurance. QUALITY CONTROL
100) Providing employee recognition and planning for
quality improvement are activities related to quality
management.
101) An operations perspective on quality involves a
subjective assessment of the efficacy of every step of the process for the customer.
103) involves the processes that overarch and tie
together the quality control and assurance activities.
A) Quality management
B) Quality execution
C) Quality implementation
D) Quality testing
E) Quality development
104) Which of the following descriptions best matches
the relationship of the spheres of quality to each other?
A) The spheres occur in a sequential order starting
with quality management
B) The spheres are unrelated to one another
C) The spheres of quality assurance and quality control
overlap with quality management, but not with one
another
D) Quality management overlaps with quality
assurance, while quality control is unrelated
E) All three spheres are related to one another and
possess overlapping functions
105) Quality development involves the processes that
overarch and tie together the quality control and quality
assurance activities.
106) Quality management is the only quality sphere that
overlaps with either of the other two spheres of quality
control and quality assurance; quality control and quality
assurance are unrelated.
107) The activities performed within each of the spheres of
quality do not overlap because they are mutually exclusive
and unrelated to one another.
CHAPTER 2: QUALITY THEORY
1. HISTORY OF QUALITY MANAGEMENT

2. LEADING CONTRIBUTORS TO THEORY

a) Walter Shewart
- In 1920s, developed control charts.
- Introduced the term “quality assuarance”.
b) W. Edwwards Deming
The foundation for the 14 points was Deming’s belief that the historic approach
to quality used by American management was wrong in one fundamental aspect: Poor quality
was not the fault of labor; it resulted from poor management of the system for continual
improvement.
- Create constancy of purpose toward improvement of product and service with the aim
to become competitive, stay in business, and provide jobs. Its means that management commits
resources—over the long haul—to see that the quality job is completed.
- Adopt a new philosophy. We are in a new economic age. Western management must
awaken to the challenge, must learn its responsibilities, and must take on leadership of change.
Planned obsolescence was the order of the day when Deming first discussed the new economic age.
- Cease dependence on mass inspection to improve quality (Ngừng phụ thuộc vào kiểm tra hàng loạt để
cải thiện chất lượng). Eliminate the need for inspection on a mass basis by building quality into the
product in the first place. Deming’s alternative is quality at the source. This means that all workers
are responsible for their own work and perform needed inspections at each stage of the process to
 maintain process control. Of course, this is possible only if management trusts and trains its workers
properly.
- End the practice of awarding business on the basis of price tag alone. Instead, minimize total cost.
Move toward a single supplier for any one item, based on a long-term relationship of loyalty and trust.
- Improve constantly and forever the system of production and service, to improve quality
and productivity, and thus constantly decrease cost. In the final analysis, management is responsible
for most of the system design elements because it is management that has the authority and the budget
to implement systems.
- Institute training on the job. People must have the necessary training and knowledge to perform
their work. Many companies employing laborers have found they must design job-related training.
- Improve leadership. The aim of supervision should be to help people, machines, and
gadgets to do a better job. Supervision of management is in need of overhaul as well as supervision
of production workers. All quality experts agree that leadership is key to improving quality.
- Drive out fear so that everyone may work effectively for the company. For the most part, Deming was
referring to those situations in which employees were fearful to change or even admit that problems
existed. Many of these problems still exist. At times, employees who surface problems and seek to
create change are considered troublemakers or dissatisfied. It might be true that such employees are
dissatisfied.
- Break down barriers between departments. People in research, design, sales, and production must work
as a team to foresee problems of production and use that may be encountered with the product or
service.
- Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets for the workforce that ask for zero
defects and new levels of productivity. Such exhortations only create adversarial relationships
because the bulk of causes of low quality and low productivity belong to the system and thus
lie beyond the power of the workforce. In Deming’s view, exhortations to “get it right the first
time” and “zero defects forever” can have the opposite of the intended effect. Examples of providing
systems
to employees might be to provide better training, to empower employees to make process decisions,
and to provide a strategic structure that ensures alignment of key strategic goals and
operational subgoals.
- Eliminate work standards on the factory floor. often work standards are implemented improperly.
It is obvious that if quantity becomes the overriding concern, then quality suffers. More subtle, if
work standards are in place, employees who perform at high levels might lose the impetus to
continually improve because they already will have satisfied standards. Although goals are set for
 employees, systems often are not provided by management to attain these goals. For this reason,
Deming disdained performance appraisals.
- Remove barriers that rob workers of their right to pride in the quality of their work. The responsibility
of supervisors must be changed from sheer numbers to quality. Unskilled managers often add to this
problem by reinforcing the fact that employees cannot be trusted with
decisions and self-determination.
- Institute a vigorous program of education and self-improvement. Point 13 relates to more generalized
education. Firms must exhibit the ability to increase and “freeze” learning. Procedure manuals can
help make learning permanent. However, this is not enough. Organizational learning requires a
structure that reinforces and rewards learning.
- Put everybody in the company to work to accomplish the transformation. The transformation is
everybody’s job. Point 14 reinforces the fact that everyone in the organization is responsible for
improving quality. This again reinforces the fact that a total system for improving quality is needed
that includes all the people in the organization.
c) The Juran Trilogy
Juran identifies three basic processes that are essential for managing to improve quality.
Juran trilogy:
- Planning:
• The purpose of quality is to provide the operating forces
with the means of producing products that can meet the customer’s needs.
• Once planning is complete, the plan is turned over to the operating forces.
- Control:
• Control (kiểm soát, không để xảy ra lỗi hoặc ít xảy ra) is a process-related activity that ensures
processes are stable and provides a relatively consistent outcome. Control involves gathering data
about a process to ensure the process is consistent.
• Breakthrough improvement implies the process has been studied and that some major improvement
has resulted in large nonrandom improvement to the process.
• control versus breakthrough: The difference between control and breakthrough can be understood
when considering a disease such as polio. It is important to understand that control and
breakthrough-related activities should occur simultaneously (đồng thời). This distinction clarifies
a false dichotomy sometimes associated with continuous improvement versus reengineering.
- Improvement:
• Improvement in organizations is accomplished on a project-by-project basis
“and in no other way.”
 • Juran states that managers must prioritize which projects will be undertaken first.
Pareto Analysis (Pareto’s law or the 80/20 rule): This law is named after Vilfredo Pareto (1848–1923), an
Italian economist, who modeled income distributions in Milan, Italy.
- Using Pareto’s law, we see that the majority of quality problems are the result of relatively
few causes.
- Pareto analysis is used as one of the basic seven tools of quality.
d) ARMAND FEIGENBAUM
Feigenbaum proposes a three-step process to improving quality: quality
leadership, quality technology, and organizational commitment. Total Quality Control was published in 1961
by Armand Feigenbaum
- These 19 steps outline his approach to the total quality control (TQC) system, which emphasizes
organizational involvement in improving quality.

e) PHILIP CROSBY
- Crosby became very well known for his authorship of the book Quality Is Free. The primary thesis of
this book is that quality, as a managed process, can be a source of profit for an organization. Crosby
 specified a quality improvement program consisting of 14 steps.

f) KAORU ISHIKAWA
- Ishikawa’s greatest achievement was the development and dissemination of the basic seven tools of
quality (B7).
- His quality philosophy: 11 points

-
- Developed “fishbone” diagram
- Promoted use of quality circles (Continous Improvement)
g) THE REST OF THE PACK
- Robert C. Camp – benchmarking
 - Stephen R. Covey’s “8” Habits - The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People (Be proactive, Begin with
the end in mind, Put first things first, Think win-win, Seek first to understand and then to be
understood, Synergize, Sharpen the saw) and Covey also published a book with an eighth habit: Find
your voice, and inspire others to find theirs.
- Tom Peters - In Search of Excellence
- Michael Hammer and James Champy – reengineering
h) VIEWING QUALITY THEORY FROM A CONTINGENCY PERSPECTIVE
What are our strengths?
Where are our competencies?
In what areas do we need to improve?
What are our competitors doing to improve?
What is our organizational structure?
These are fundamental questions that are asked during the self-assessment phase of
strategic planning. Once these questions are answered, a profound understanding of the business emerges.
Based on this knowledge of the business, an understanding of the major approaches to quality improvement
will provide a means for selecting those points, philosophies, concepts, and tools that will form the basis for
improvement.
=>> The keys to the contingency approach are an understanding of quality approaches, an
understanding of the business, and the creative application of these approaches to the business.
3. A LIST OF VARIABLES ADDRESSED

3. A CATEGORIZATION OF QUALITY MANAGEMENT CONTENT VARIABLES

TRẮC NGHIỆM
1) A coherent group of general propositions used as
principles of explanation for a class of phenomena is referred
to as a(n).
A) postulate
B) axiom
C) theory
D) corollary
E) hypothesis
2) An arrow pointing from an independent variable to a
dependent variable in a theoretical model typically
implies.
A) causality
B) normality
C) randomness
D) proactivity
E) synergy
3) The of a theoretical model involves
which variables or factors are included in the model.
A) why
B) what
C) how
D) who-where-when
E) which
4) The of a theoretical model involves the nature,
direction, and extent of the relationship among the variables.
A) why
B) what
C) how
D) who-where-when
E) which
5) The of a theoretical model is the theoretical glue
that holds the model together.
A) why
B) what
C) how
D) who-where-when
E) which
6) The of a theoretical model is responsible for
placing contextual bounds on the theory.
A) why
B) what
C) how
D) who-where-when
E) which
7) A theory that is generated by observation and description
is said to have been developed by the process of .
A) deduction
B) abstraction
C) simulation
D) induction
E) supposition
8) Researchers use to propose a model based on prior
research, and design an experiment to test the theoretical
model.
A) supposition
B) deduction
C) induction
D) simulation
E) abstraction
9) An arrow pointing from an independent variable to a
dependent variable in a theoretical model typically
implies causality.
10) The four elements of a theory are what, how, why,
and who-where-when.
11) The "what" of a theoretical model involves the
nature, direction, and extent of the relationship among
variables.
12) The "why" of a theory is the theoretical model that holds
the model together.
13) A theory that is generated by observation and description
is said to have been developed by the process of deduction.
14) Using deduction, researchers propose a model based on
prior research, and design an experiment to test the theoretical
model.
16) The "14 points for management" were articulated by
A) Philip Crosby
B) Joseph M. Juran
C) Genichi Taguchi
D) W. Edwards Deming
E) Armand Feigenbaum
17) Deming believed that poor quality resulted from .
A) poor management of the system for continual
improvement
B) poor human resource management
C) consumer complacency
D) a lack of commitment on the part of management
E) poor engineering and design
18) Which of the following points for management devised
by Deming involves the management committing resources to
ensure that the quality job is completed?
A) constantly improve the system
B) eliminate work standards
C) improve leadership
D) adopt a new philosophy
E) create constancy of purpose
19) means that all workers are responsible for their
own work and perform necessary inspections at each stage of
the process to maintain process control.
A) Quality at the source
B) In-process management
C) Constancy of purpose
D) Parallel processing
E) Just-in-time approach
20) minimizes the number of suppliers used,
resulting in decreased variability.
A) Parallel processing
B) Single source purchasing
C) Management by objective
D) In-process management
E) Constancy of purpose
21) Which of the following points for management devised by
Deming encourages parallel processing in focused teams?
A) constantly improve the system
B) create constancy of purpose
C) institute education and self-improvement
D) adopt a new philosophy
E) break down barriers between departments
22) refers to a process of setting annual goals,
typically during a performance appraisal, that are binding to
the employee.
A) Just-in-time approach
B) Management by objective
C) In-process management
D) Parallel processing
E) Constancy of purpose
23) What are the three aspects of Juran's trilogy?
A) planning, control, and improvement
B) cost, quality, and customer satisfaction
C) labor, management, and system
D) organizing, management, and control
E) leadership, cost, and quality
24) According to Juran, is a process-related activity
that ensures processes are stable and provides a relatively
consistent outcome.
A) control
B) organizing
C) planning
D) improvement
E) scheduling
25) improvement implies that the process has been
studied and that some major improvement has resulted in
large, nonrandom improvement to the process.
A) Ongoing
B) Progressive
C) Successive
D) Continuous
E) Breakthrough
26) Juran teaches that improvement in organizations
is accomplished on a basis.
A) project-by-project
B) trial-by-trial
C) process-by-process
D) production-by-production
E) case-by-case
27) According to Juran, the language of management is
.
A) labor
B) quality
C) money
D) performance
E) improvement
28) According to Juran, the language of things pertains to
A) quality inspectors
B) managers
C) workers
D) quality managers
E) engineers
29) The driving force of the Century of Productivity was
the movement known as .
A) total quality management
B) statistical process control
C) human resource management
D) scientific management
E) behavioral modification
30) The theory of scientific management was proposed by
.
A) Frederick W. Taylor
B) Joseph M. Juran
C) Philip Crosby
D) W. Edwards Deming
E) Kaoru Ishikawa
31) is also called the 80/20 rule.
A) Ishikawa's quality philosophy
B) Pareto's law
C) Juran trilogy
D) Taguchi method
E) Deming's points for management
32) was responsible for the development
and dissemination of the basic seven tools of quality.
A) Kaoru Ishikawa
B) Philip Crosby
C) Genichi Taguchi
D) Armand Feigenbaum
E) Joseph M. Juran
33) is credited with democratizing statistics.
A) Armand Feigenbaum
B) Joseph M. Juran
C) Genichi Taguchi
D) Philip Crosby
E) Kaoru Ishikawa
34) What is the major theoretical contribution of Kaoru
Ishikawa?
A) the concept of benchmarking
B) his assertion that the entire organization should be
involved in improving quality
C) the zero-defects approach to quality improvement
D) his emphasis on total
involvement of the operating employees in
improving quality
E) the quality loss function and the concept of robust design
35) What is the primary contribution of Armand Feigenbaum?
A) the concept of benchmarking
B) his assertion that the entire organization should be
involved in improving quality
C) the zero-defects approach to quality improvement
D) his emphasis on total involvement of the operating
employees in improving quality
E) the quality loss function and the concept of robust design
36) What are the three steps proposed by Feigenbaum
to improve quality?
A) quality inspection, quality accountability, and
quality control
B) quality leadership, quality technology, and
organizational commitment
C) employee empowerment, total quality management, and
statistical process control
D) self-directed work teams, employee empowerment, and total
quality management
E) quality leadership, quality management, and total
quality control
37) proposed "The 19 steps of Total Quality
Control."
A) Philip Crosby
B) W. Edwards Deming
C) Joseph M. Juran
D) Genichi Taguchi
E) Armand Feigenbaum
38) What is the primary contribution of Philip Crosby?
A) the concept of benchmarking
B) his assertion that the entire organization should be
involved in improving quality
C) the zero-defects approach to quality improvement
D) his emphasis on total involvement of the
operating employees in improving quality
E) the quality loss function and the concept of robust design
39) What is the primary contribution of Genichi Taguchi?
A) the concept of benchmarking
B) his assertion that the entire organization should be
involved in improving quality
C) the zero-defects approach to quality improvement
D) his emphasis on total involvement of the
operating employees in improving quality
E) the quality loss function and the concept of robust design
40) Quality loss function and robust design are
concepts included in .
A) Ishikawa's quality philosophy
B) the Taguchi method
C) Deming's 14 points for management
D) the Juran trilogy
E) Pareto's law
41) refers to a reference point for determining
the quality level of a product or service.
A) Quality of conformance
B) Hothouse quality
C) Quality loss function
D) Specific quality
E) Ideal quality
42) The Taguchi concept of states that products and
services should be designed so that they are inherently defectfree and of high quality.
A) homoscedasticity
B) robust design
C) quality loss function
D) ideal quality
E) design conformance
43) is the principle pioneer of benchmarking.
A) Robert C. Camp
B) Tom Peters
C) Michael Hammer
D) James Champy
E) Stephen R. Covey
44) Michael Hammer and James Champy are most
closely identified with .
A) statistical process control
B) reengineering
C) total quality management
D) benchmarking
E) Six Sigma quality
45) is best known for his book, The 7 Highly
Effective People.
A) Robert C. Camp
B) Tom Peters
C) Michael Hammer
D) James Champy
E) Stephen R. Covey
46) W. Edwards Deming enumerated the 14 points
for management.
47) According to Deming, poor quality was the fault of labor.
48) Constancy of purpose means that management commits
resources in order to achieve quick returns and bottom-line
results.
49) Deming proposes the need for mass inspection to
improve quality.
50) Quality at the source means that all workers are
responsible for their own work and perform needed inspections
at each stage of the process to maintain process control.
51) Just-in-time purchasing increases the number of
suppliers used, resulting in increased variability.
52) Just-in-time purchasing involves the usage of long-term contracts that result in the ability to develop
andcertify suppliers.
53) Fast design cycles are a result of the departmental
approach to design.
54) Deming stressed the need for work standards on the
factory floor.
55) Management by objective refers to a process of setting
annual goals that are binding on the employee.
56) The three aspects of the Juran trilogy are planning,
control, and improvement.
57) Control involves gathering data about a process to
ensure the process is consistent.
58) Breakthrough improvement implies the process has been
studied and that some major improvement has resulted in
large nonrandom improvement to the process.
59) The theory of scientific management was proposed by
Joseph Juran.
60) According to the theory of scientific management, the
managers and engineers should be responsible for planning
and executing the plans.
61) Kaoru Ishikawa is credited with democratizing statistics.
62) The major theoretical contribution of Ishikawa is his
emphasis on total involvement of the operating employees
in improving quality.
63) According to Kaoru Ishikawa, the ideal state of quality
control is when inspection is no longer necessary.
64) Feigenbaum's three-step process to improve quality include
quality leadership, quality technology, and organizational
commitment.
65) Hothouse quality refers to quality programs that receive
a lot of hoopla and no follow-through.
66) The zero-defects approach to quality improvement was
proposed by Armand Feigenbaum.
67) The Taguchi method provides a method for adjusting
the mean of a process by optimizing controllable variables.
68) Quality loss function and robust design are
concepts included in Ishikawa's quality philosophy.
69) Ideal quality refers to a reference point for determining
the quality level of a product or service.
70) The Taguchi concept of robust design states that
products and services should be designed so that they are
inherently defect-free and of high quality.
71) Tom Peters is the principle pioneer of benchmarking.
72) Robert C. Camp's approach to management is valuebased in that he proposes that people in
management live a
life that balances professional with personal and spiritual
growth.
73) Michael Hammer and James Champy are most closely
identified with reengineering.
84) Which of the following variables is at the core of
quality management?
A) quality breakthrough
B) quality assurance
C) strategic planning
D) information analysis
E) team approach
85) Which of the following variables is not at the core of quality management?
A) leadership
B) employee improvement
C) customer role
D) philosophy
E) environmental characteristics
86) Which of the following variables would not be
considered core, but is important in a supporting role in
quality management?
A) quality assurance
B) information analysis
C) customer role
D) philosophy
E) leadership
87) Quality experts agree that quality can be assured
only during the phase.
A) production
B) marketing
C) analysis
D) testing
E) design
88) Which of the following factors is not addressed by
the reengineering approach to quality improvement?
A) team approach
B) information analysis
C) strategic planning
D) customer focus
E) quality assurance
89) The idea that successful firms adopt aspects of each of
the various approaches to quality is referred to as a(n)
 perspective.
A) engineering
B) operations
C) contingency
D) customer focus
E) quality assurance
90) The underlying precept of reengineering is that firms
can become inflexible and resistant to change.
91) Firms that are successful in improving quality take
a contingency approach. => CUSTOMER PERSPECTIVE
92) Strategic planning is at the core of quality management.
93) Fact-based improvement refers to an approach that
favors information gathering and analysis.
94) The reengineering approach focuses on the need for
in- depth information gathering and analysis.
96) Building a theoretical framework for quality
management begins with .
A) engineering
B) operations
C) contingency
D) leadership
E) team building
97) Strategic Planning is part of the framework for
quality management.
98) Supplier focus is part of the framework for
quality management.
99) Information analysis is core in the theoretical framework
for quality management.
100) Leadership is core in the theoretical framework for
quality management.

CHAPTER 3
GLOBAL SUPPLY CHAIN QUALITY AND INTERNATIONAL QUALITY STANDARDS
1. QUALITY IMPROVEMENT: THE AMERICAN WAY
1.1. THE BALDRIGE PERFORMANCE EXCELLENCE PROGRAM

2. QUALITY IMPROVEMENT: THE JAPANESE WAY

• The Deming Prize: for quality was established in 1951 by the Japanese Union of Scientists and
Engineers (JUSE).
- Policy: management of quality policy, correctness and consistency
- Organization and operations: document processes for clarifying authority and responsibility
- Collecting useful information: document how data is passed through divisions and how it is
transmitted
- Analysis: use of prioritizing analytical methods, statistical methods
- Planning for the future: understand present condition, plan for the future, promote Total Quality
Control
- Education and training: document plans and accomplishments relate to education and training
- Quality assurance: design, safety and reliability issues, process inspection, use of statistical analysis
- Quality effects: documentation of benefits, outcomes and results of quality improvement – both
tangible and intangible.
- Standardization: setting standards, monitoring performance and revision of standards
- Control: How are statistical quality control, control point, control items used?
• Other Japanese Contributions to Quality Thought
- Lean Production: The first view of lean is a philosophical view of waste reduction. The second view
of lean is a systems view stating that lean is a group of techniques or systems focused on optimizing
quality processes
 Lean as a productive system whose focus is on optimizing processes through the philosophy of
continual improvement.
 - Japanese Total Quality Control (TQC)
Just as the Japanese lean approach requires attention to detail in every aspect of the process, so does the TQC
approach. This attention to detail runs deep in the Japanese culture.
+ Visibility: In the Japanese approach to quality, problems must be made visible before they can be addressed.
Another visibility technique the Japanese use is called andon, or warning lights. The approval to stop the line
whenever there is a problem is called linestop authority.
+ In-process inspection: all work is inspected at each stage of the process, and the workers inspect their own
work. Contracting with the American approach to inspection quality.
+ N=2 Technique: is an alternative to acceptance sampling. “If 2 or fewer defects, accept the lot.
If more than 2 defects, reject the lot.”. This technique involves developing and maintaining a close relationship
with suppliers so that it is known if the supplier’s processes are in statistical control.
+ Total involvement of workforce: This includes vertical deployment and horizontal deployment of
quality management. Horizontal deployment means that all departments are involved in quality. Vertical
deployment means that all levels of management and workers are actively involved in quality.
+ The five S’s:

 Quality circles are natural work teams made up of workers who are empowered to improve
work processes and are used by Japanese companies to involve employees in improving processes and process
capability.
+ Preventive maintenance (PM) : The idea behind preventive maintenance is that the worst condition a
machine should ever be in is on the day you purchase the machine. By maintaining scheduled
maintenance and improvement to equipment, machinery actually can improve with age.

3. QUALITY IMPROVEMENT: THE EUROPEAN WAY

Two types of quality recognition are widely used in Europe. These are the European Quality Award (EQA)
and ISO 9000:2008 certification.
3.1. European Quality Award (EQA)
4. COMPARISON OF QUALITY AWARDS

5. TRẮC NGHIỆM
1) allows foreign firms to sell in restricted markets
while using the design of the original designer.
A) Exporting
B) Franchising
C) Licensing
D) Importing
E) Partnering
2) By changing their environment, firms locate
themselves near to or far away from natural resources.
A) economic
B) task
C) physical
D) global
E) social
3) The portion of a firm's environment that has to do with
the operating structure the firm encounters when globalizing
is called the environment.
A) global
B) physical
C) social
D) task
E) economic
4) The environment facing globalizing corporations
refers to cultural factors such as language, business customs,
customer preferences, and patterns of communication.
A) task
B) social
C) physical
D) global
E) economic
5) produce their products and ship them
internationally.
A) Exporters
B) Licensors
C) Franchisors
D) Importers
E) Retailers
6) By licensing, a U.S. firm can allow foreign firms to sell
in restricted markets while using the design of the original
designer.
7) Through licensing, firms are able to reach
international markets without having to establish
international supply chains or marketing arms.
8) The benefits of licensing and partnering are that the
exporting firm does not have to globalize to make sales in
international markets.
9) With growing economies in many parts of the world,
firms need to globalize to participate in these markets.
10) The social environment of the firm has to do with the
operating structure that the firm encounters when
globalizing.
11) The physical environment facing globalizing
corporations refers to cultural factors such as language and
business customs.
12) Market diversity drives the need for culture-specific
research and development.
13) Importers produce their products and ship
them internationally.
17) Which of the following approaches to quality is
influenced by a culture of waste reduction due to limited
natural resources and high importing costs?
A) the Japanese approach
B) the European approach
C) the Chinese approach
D) the American approach
E) the Russian approach
18) Which of the following quality approaches is
influenced by a culture of results and focuses on the
benefits quality provides to the bottom-line?
A) the Japanese approach
B) the European approach
C) the Chinese approach
D) the American approach
E) the Russian approach
19) The approach to quality is most sensitive to
employees and employee satisfaction as a result of strong
unions.
A) Japanese
B) European
C) Chinese
D) American
E) Russian
20) Group technology is utilized among which of
the following cultures as a quality method?
A) Japanese
B) European
C) Chinese
D) American
E) Russian
21) The European cultural approach to quality is based in
waste elimination and an ethic of consistency.
22) Americans have a command-and-control approach to
quality based upon a culture of political and military business
management practices
25) The for quality was established in 1951 by the
Japanese Union of Scientists and Engineers.
A) Deming Prize
B) Juran Prize
C) Ishikawa Prize
D) Taguchi Prize
E) Baldrige Prize
26) The Deming Prize is awarded to individuals and
groups who have contributed to the field of .
A) lean manufacturing
B) quality control
C) sales management
D) just-in-time production
E) strategic planning
27) Which of the following is a category of the Deming
Prize? A) information analysis
B) workforce focus
C) strategic planning
D) partnerships and resources
E) customer results
28) Which of the following is a category of the
European Quality Award?
A) policy deployment
B) operations focus
C) information analysis
D) partnerships and resources
E) human resources development
29) The Deming Prize is awarded to individuals and
groups who have contributed to the field of quality control.
30) Customer focus and workforce focus are categories of
the Deming Prize.
31) Leadership and strategy are categories of the
European Quality Award.
32) The highest level of the European Quality Award is
the award for the most accomplished applicant in a given
year.
33) The European Quality Award focuses on those things
that lead to customer service and improved products,
whereas the Baldrige criterion focuses on employee
satisfaction as an outcome of the quality system.
34) The model for the Baldrige consists of
interrelated categories that compose the organizational
system for performance.
A) four
B) five
C) six
D) seven
E) eight
35) The basis of the Baldrige model is .
A) operations management
B) information and analysis
C) accounting and finance
D) statistical process control
E) Six Sigma
36) Which of the following categories is not a criterion for the
Malcolm Baldrige Award?
A) Internet competencies
B) operations focus
C) strategic planning
D) business results
E) leadership
37) Which of the following Baldrige criteria is used to
evaluate the extent to which top management is personally
involved in creating and reinforcing goals, values,
directions, and customer involvement?
A) workforce focus
B) leadership
C) strategic planning
D) operations focus
E) business results
38) Which of the following Baldrige criteria requires
the applicant to outline what the firm is doing to fulfill
its responsibility as a corporate citizen?
A) business results
B) operations focus
C) strategic planning
D) leadership
E) customer focus
39) Which of the following Baldrige criteria focuses on how
a firm assesses the relative importance of product or service
features to the customer?
A) operations focus
B) business
results
C) customer focus
D) leadership
E) strategic planning
40) Which of the following Baldrige criteria involves
developing an internal environment conducive to full
participation and personal growth, including human
resources development?
A) workforce focus
B) strategic planning
C) measurement, analysis, and knowledge management
D) customer focus
E) leadership
41) Which of the following Baldrige criteria examines key
aspects such as customer focus in design, work system,
design for services and products, support processes, and
processes relating to partners?
A) workforce focus
B) strategic planning
C) measurement, analysis, and knowledge management
D) business results
E) operations focus
42) What is the first step for a firm applying for the
Baldrige award?
A) a review of financial statements
B) quality assessment
C) a site-visit by examiners
D) eligibility determination
E) consensus review
43) What is the main purpose of a Baldrige site visit?
A) to introduce the selection committee to the
top management team of the contending firm
B) to formally congratulate an award winner
C) to verify and clarify those portions of the Baldrige
application having the greatest impact on the judges'
scores
D) to discuss the outcome of the evaluation process
E) to collect additional information on each of the
seven evaluation criteria
44) What is the major reason for the decrease in the number
of applicants for the Malcolm Baldrige Award?
A) decline in the prestige associated with the award
B) high application fee
C) difficulty associated with winning the award
D) lack of legitimacy of the award criteria
E) low focus on quality
45) In the approach, the scores required to win
the state awards are lower than those for the national
awards.
A) multilevel
B) Baldrige quality
C) Baldrige-lite
D) full-Baldrige
E) consensus
46) The approach uses the Baldrige criteria but with
a simplified process or application.
A) Baldrige quality
B) consensus
C) full-Baldrige
D) Baldrige-lite
E) multilevel
47) In the multilevel approach, the top level includes the
approach.
A) consensus
B) full-Baldrige
C) strategic
D) Baldrige quality
E) Baldrige-lite
48) In the multilevel approach, the second level includes the
approach.
A) consensus
B) full-Baldrige
C) strategic
D) Baldrige quality
E) Baldrige-lite
49) Which of the following is a category of the
Baldrige Award?
A) policy development
B) information analysis
C) workforce focus
D) partnerships and resources
E) management system
50) The Baldrige criteria are nonprescriptive and adaptable. Đ
51) The Baldrige criteria specify which tools, techniques,
or organization a company should use to improve. S
52) The Baldrige criterion that evaluates the extent to
which top management is personally involved in creating
and reinforcing goals is the leadership category. Đ
53) Customer focus involves developing an internal environment conducive to full participation and personal
growth, including human resources development. S => WORKFORCE FOCUS
54) The main purpose of a Baldrige site visit is to collect
additional information on each of the seven evaluation criteria. S =>> TO VERIFY AND CLARIFY…
55) The scoring summary in the feedback report is a synthesis
of the most important strengths and areas for improvement
for each of the seven Baldrige categories. Đ
56) The examiners for the Baldrige Award demonstrate their
commitment to its core values by being willing to give up
approximately 10% of their year to serve on the board with no compensation. Đ
57) In the full-Baldrige approach, the scores required to win
the state awards are higher than those for the national awards. S =>> LOWER THAN
58) The Baldrige-lite approach uses the Baldrige criteria
but with a simplified process or application. Đ
59) Information analysis is a category of the Baldrige Award. S=>> DEMING AWARD
64) The first view of lean manufacturing is a philosophical view of .
A) strategic planning
B) waste reduction
C) inventory control
D) product development
E) reengineering
65) A productive system whose focus is on optimizing
processes through the philosophy of continual improvement
is called .
A) lean manufacturing
B) reengineering
C) benchmarking
D) just-in-time production
E) statistical process control
66) was fundamental in helping Toyota reduce
waste.
A) Genichi Taguchi
B) Kaoru Ishikawa
C) Shigeo Shingo
D) Armand Feigenbaum
E) Philip Crosby
67) Which of the following is not one of Shingo's
seven wastes?
A) waste of stocks
B) waste of funds
C) waste of motion
D) waste of transportation
E) waste of waiting
68) With inspection, all work is inspected at each
stage of the manufacturing process, and the workers inspect
their own work.
A) in-process
B) multilevel
C) dynamic
D) continuous
E) line-stop
69) The N=2 technique is an alternative to .
A) in-process inspection
B) acceptance sampling
C) statistical process control
D) benchmarking
E) quality control
72) With respect to the five S's, organizing by getting rid
of the unnecessary files, forms, and other materials is
called.
A) seiri
B) seiton
C) seiso
D) seiketsu
E) shetsuke
73) With respect to the five S's, neatness that is achieved
by straightening offices and work areas is called .
A) seiri
B) seiton
C) seiso
D) seiketsu
E) shetsuke
74) With respect to the five S's, cleaning plant and
equipment to eliminate dirtiness that can hide or obscure
problems is called .
A) seiri
B) seiton
C) seiso
D) seiketsu
E) shetsuke
75) With respect to the five S's, standardizing locations
for tools, files, equipment, and all other materials is called.
A) seiri
B) seiton
C) seiso
D) seiketsu
E) shetsuke
76) With respect to the five S's, discipline in maintaining
the prior four S's is called .
A) seiri
B) seiton
C) seiso
D) seiketsu
E) shetsuke
70) means that all departments are involved in quality.
A) Vertical deployment
B) Cross-functional deployment
C) Horizontal deployment
D) Multilevel deployment
E) Parallel deployment
71) means that all levels of management and
workers are actively involved in quality.
A) Vertical deployment
B) Cross-functional deployment
C) Horizontal deployment
D) Multilevel deployment
E) Parallel deployment
77) are natural work teams made up of workers
who are empowered to improve work processes and are used
by Japanese companies to involve employees in improving
processes and process capability.
A) Empowerment task forces
B) Cross-functional teams
C) Horizontal task forces
D) Vertical task forces
E) Quality circles
78) The idea behind is that the worst condition a
machine should ever be in is on the day you purchase the
machine.
A) quality circles
B) vertical deployment
C) line-stop authority
D) horizontal deployment
E) preventive maintenance
79) The first view of lean manufacturing is a
philosophical view of waste reduction. Đ
80) Lean manufacturing is a productive system whose focus
is on optimizing processes through the philosophy of
continual improvement. Đ
81) Kaoru Ishikawa was fundamental in helping Toyota to
reduce waste. S =>>> SHIGEO SHINGO
82) The Japanese approach follows the policy that
when problems exist in business, the first reflex is to
hide the problems as though they do not exist. S
83) The visibility technique used by the Japanese is
called andon, or warning lights. Đ
84) With in-process inspection, all work is inspected at each
stage of the process, and the workers inspect their own
work. Đ
85) The N=2 technique is an alternative to
acceptance sampling. Đ
86) Horizontal deployment means that all levels of
management and workers are actively involved in
quality. Đ
87) The idea behind preventive maintenance is that the
worst condition a machine should ever be in is on the day it
is purchased. Đ
88) Organizing by getting rid of the unnecessary materials
is called seiri. Đ
89) Cleaning plant and equipment to eliminate dirtiness
that can hide or obscure problems is called seiso. Đ (seiri – seiton – seiso – seiketsu – shetsuke)
90) Standardizing locations for tools, files, equipment,
and other materials is called shetsuke. S
91) Quality circles are natural work teams made up of
workers who are empowered to improve work processes. Đ
96) is the European standard for quality that has
been expanded worldwide.
A) ISO 9000:2005
B) ISO 9000:2015
C) ISO 9001:2000
D) ISO 9004:2009
E) ISO 14001:2004
97) The focus of ISO 9000:2015 is to .
A) encourage the adoption of total quality management
in Europe
B) reward European firms that embrace quality
management techniques
C) provide a standardized format for firms to document
their quality systems in order to facilitate trade
D) teach European firms the importance of
quality management
E) provide a framework for organizational improvement
and change
98) What is the first step in the registration process for
ISO 9000:2015?
A) inquiry
B) client contract
C) phase 1 audit
D) certification audit
E) process audit
99) What is the most important and most difficult step of
the ISO process?
A) selecting a registrar
B) contracting with the client
C) phase 1 audit
D) certification audit
E) process audit
100) Which of the following is not a quality
management principle underlying ISO 9000:2015?
A) involvement of people
B) improvement
C) leadership
D) dedication
E) customer focus
101) ISO 9004:2009 is the European standard for quality
that has been expanded worldwide. FALSE
102) The first step in the registration process for
ISO 9000:2015 involves a phase 1 audit. FALSE => INQUIRY

CHAPTER 4
STRATEGIC QUALITY PLANNING
1. DEFINITION SQP
- SQP emphasizes quality improvement in the process as the organization works towards its strategies.
- Strategic quality planning is the systematic process by which an organization defines its long-term
goals with respect to quality and customers, and integrates them into a cohesive business plan. It
enables an organization to execute organizational breakthroughs to achieve a competitive advantage
and quality leadership.
- 2 important dimensions: content and process
• Content: what is to be contained in the strategic quality plan?
• Process: steps and tools for developing SQP
- The importance of time in quality improvement
• the time it takes to achieve business goals as a result of quality and the speed at which companies
improve.
• Shingo stated that 25 years were required for Toyota Motor Company to achieve significant
improvement.
2. LEADERSHIP FOR QUALITY
• Leadership is a key strategic variable for quality management.
• Leadership is the process by which a leader influences a group to move toward the attainment of
superordinate goals.
• leadership is about the sharing of power. This power takes many forms:
Power of expertise. (quyền lực chuyên môn) Sometimes a leader has special knowledge (or is
perceived to have special knowledge).
Reward power. If a leader has rewards that he or she can bestow on subordinates in return
for some desirable action, the leader has reward power. This is often the case in the granting of raises,
promotions, rewards, recognition, or a variety of other incentives.
Coercive power. (quyền lực cưỡng chế) If the leader has power to punish the follower for not
following rules or guidelines, the leader has coercive power.
Referent power. If a leader is charismatic or charming and is followed because he or she is
liked, then the leader has referent power.
 Legitimate power. (quyền lực hợp pháp) As a result of the positions that different people hold within
an organization, the manager has the obligation to request things of subordinates, and the subordinates
have the duty to comply with the request.
• Leadership Dimensions
+ Trait dimension: leaders tend to be taller than the average, more intelligent, and too bright, and tend to
be very productive and reach high levels of performance.
+ Leader skills

4. QUALITY AS A STRATEGY (cost, differentiation, and focus)

4.1. Costs of Quality
There are two broad categories of cost: costs due to poor quality and costs associated with
improving quality.
Paf paradigm
The three categories are prevention, appraisal, and failure costs.
• Prevention costs
+ are those costs associated with preventing defects and imperfections from occurring.
+ The most subjective
+ include costs such as training, quality planning, process engineering and other costs…
+ Two caveats associated with the collection of quality-related costs include (1) there may be
some debate as to whether these costs are all related to quality and (2) persons who work in prevention often
do not keep accurate records of all costs.
• Appraisal costs
+ the direct costs of measuring quality
+ include a variety of activities such as lab testing, inspection, test equipment and materials, losses.

• Failure costs
+ Internal failure costs are those associated with onl failure.
+ External failure costs are associated with product failure after the production process.
+ Increasing prevention and appraisal activities (and costs) could result in a significant decrease in failure
costs.
Lundvall–Juran Quality Cost Model
- a simple economic model.
- It states that as expenditures in prevention and appraisal activities increase, quality conformance should
increase.
- this flies in the face of the idea of continuous improvement.

4.2.Differentiation through Quality

+ Differentiation is achieved by a competitor if the consumer perceives the product or service to be unique in
an important way.
4.3.Focus through Quality
+ The third generic strategy is to focus on the product.
+ For example, think of a product that is particularly regional or is marketed to a particular segment of the
population. This limited customer group or segment of the market is the object of the focus strategy.
 The three generic strategies of cost, differentiation, and focus have been identified as
important strategic decisions. A company that emphasizes cost will use different approaches
to producing quality products than will a company that emphasizes differentiation or focus.
4.4. Quality as a Core Competency
- Consists of communication, involvement, and a deep commitment to working across organizational
boundaries.
- Using the Prahalad and Hamel definition of competency, quality—in and of itself—probably is not a
core competency.
- core competency is built on the foundation of a long-term commitment to quality and continual process
improvement
5. QUALITY STRATEGY PROCESS
Forced-Choice Model
- simplicity and its usefulness
- is generic and is used simply for explanation purposes.
- begins by sequestering 6 to 12 members of upper management to a retreat
6. DEPLOYING QUALITY (HOSHIN KANRI)
- the company develops a three- to five-year plan
- senior executives develop the current year’s Hoshin objectives
- Catchball is the term used to describe the interactive nature of the Hoshin planning process.
7. TRẮC NGHIỆM
1) Which of the following is not an example of a
strategic content variable?
A) time
B) leadership
C) quality costs
D) generic strategies
E) product development
2) refers to the variables, definitions, components,
and concepts that are included in the strategy.
A) Content
B) Process
C) Prototype
D) Paradigm
E) Criterion
3) consists of the steps for developing strategy
within an organization.
A) Prototype
B) Criterion
C) Process
D) Content
E) Paradigm
4) Which of the following is not an example of a
strategic process?
A) forced-choice model
B) leadership
C) Hoshin planning
D) supply chain strategy
E) product development
5) Strategy process answers the question of what is to be
contained in the strategic plan, and strategy content consists
of the steps used to develop the strategy. S => NGƯỢC LẠI
6) Hoshin planning is a strategic content variable that
results in cascading action plans desired to achieve
corporate goals.
7) The two dimensions of strategic planning are content and
process.
8) Strategic planning implies planning for the short term.
10) involves a power-sharing relationship between
two or more individuals where the power is distributed
unevenly.
A) Leading
B) Empowerment
C) Planning
D) Organizing
E) Controlling
11) goals are those goals that pertain to achieving a
higher end that benefits not just the individual but the group.
A) Substantive
B) Deterministic
C) Congruent
D) Superordinate
E) Hierarchical
12) is derived from a leader's possession of special
knowledge.
A) Power of expertise
B) Reward power
C) Coercive power
D) Referent power
E) Legitimate power
13) If a leader grants raises or promotions to subordinates
in return for some desirable action, the leader has .
A) coercive power
B) legitimate power
C) reward power
D) power of expertise
E) referent power
14) If the leader has power to punish the follower for not
following rules or guidelines, the leader has .
A) power of expertise
B) referent power
C) legitimate power
D) coercive power
E) reward power
15) often results in unintended responses, and
causes the follower to rebel and attempt to even the power
relationship.
A) Reward power
B) Coercive power
C) Legitimate power
D) Power of expertise
E) Referent power
16) If a leader is charismatic or charming and is
followed because he or she is liked, then the leader has .
A) referent power
B) coercive power
C) power of expertise
D) legitimate power
E) reward power
17) A case of power is the mentor who is admired
by his or her protégés who want to be like the mentor.
A) reward
B) referent
C) legitimate
D) coercive
E) power of expertise
18) is derived from the positions that different
people hold within an organization.
A) Power of expertise
B) Coercive power
C) Referent power
D) Reward power
E) Legitimate power
19) Which of the following is a knowledge skill exhibited by
a leader?
A) Assertiveness
B) image building
C) identifying opportunities
D) evaluation skills
E) risk taking
20) Which of the following is a communication skill
exhibited by a leader?
A) time management
B) assessing the climate
C) ethics
D) evaluation skills
E) conflict management
21) Which of the following is a planning skill exhibited by
a leader?
A) developing competence
B) structuring
C) risk taking
D) identifying opportunities
E) assertiveness
22) Which of the following is a vision skill exhibited by
a leader?
A) decision making
B) identifying opportunities
C) risk taking
D) conflict management
E) time management
23) means that leaders provide funding, slack time,
and resources for quality improvement efforts to be
successful.
A) Cost evaluation
B) Task management
C) Time management
D) Commitment to quality
E) Task structuring
24) Commitment to quality is measured .
A) in decades
B) in quarters
C) in budget-cycles
D) annually
E) monthly
25) In the forced-choice model, the organization's position is
determined by examining .
A) major future programs
B) major technological forces
C) key government issues
D) explicit strategies of competitors
E) broad economic assumptions
26) In the forced-choice model, the environmental assessment
is completed by examining .
A) the forecast of operational needs
B) explicit strategies of competitors
C) the statement of mission
D) interrelated set of financial and nonfinancial objectives
E) major future programs
27) The acronym TQEM stands for total quality .
A) environmental management
B) engineering and management
C) employee management
D) energy management
E) evaluation and management
28) The plan-do-check-act cycle is associated with .
A) W. Edwards Deming
B) Walter Shewhart
C) Joseph Juran
D) Armand Feigenbaum
E) Kaoru Ishikawa
29) Which of the following is not a factor considered
during supply chain strategic planning?
A) suppliers
B) service
C) logistics
D) prices
E) products
31) Which of the following is one of the primary reasons
that quality efforts have not led to gains in bottom-line
results?
A) companies price high quality items too low
B) low cost items are not profitable
C) quality and profitability are negatively correlated
D) quality is the only variable that affects profitability
E) many companies implement quality incorrectly
32) Reducing waste and improving environmental
performance, which are consistent with lean and quality
management philosophies, are linked to what business
practice or variable?
A) leadership
B) sustainability
C) productivity
D) consistency
E) pricing
33) Which of the following would be an example of a
leader with referent power?
A) a leader who punishes rule-breakers
B) a newly appointed leader in a position of power
C) a manager who offers perks and privileges
D) an admired mentor
E) a professor in a classroom
34) Leading involves a power-sharing relationship
between two or more individuals where the power is
distributed unevenly. Đ
35) If a leader has power to punish the follower for not
following rules or guidelines, the leader has referent power. S => coercive
36) A leader with coercive power grants raises
and promotions to employees. S => REWARD
37) Referent power is derived from personal charisma or
charm. Đ
38) Legitimate power is derived from the position
an individual holds in an organization. Đ
39) Superordinate goals pertain to achieving a higher end
that benefits not just the individual but the group. Đ
40) Conflict management is an example of a knowledge skill
exhibited by a leader. S =>> COMMUNICATION
41) Assertiveness is an example of a communication
skill exhibited by a leader. Đ
42) Acceptance of diversity is an example of a vision skill
exhibited by a leader. S => KNOWLEDGE
43) The trait dimension of leadership deals with variables,
such as height, productivity, and intelligence. Đ
44) Nothing can damage a quality improvement effort faster
than management's failure to consider implementing changes
that employees recommend. Đ
45) Commitment to quality means that leaders provide
funding, slack time, and resources for quality
improvement efforts to be successful. Đ
46) Commitment to quality is measured in budget cycles. S, This commitment is measured in decades,
not quarters or budget cycles.
47) A low-cost orientation is based on continual learning and
production competence. Đ
48) Simplification of processes results in flows that are
of lower productivity. S
49) Sustainability is the ability to meet the needs of the
current generation without compromising the ability of
future generations to meet their needs. Đ
50) The acronym TQEM stands for Total Quality
Engineering and Management. S=> ENVIRONMENT
51) TQEM systems involve a holistic systems view of
the processes causing environmental degradation.
60) What are the three broad categories of the PAF paradigm?
A) performance, appraisal, and functional costs
B) process, assessment, and failure costs
C) prevention, appraisal, and failure costs
D) performance, assessment, and failure costs
E) process, appraisal, and functional costs
61)… costs are costs that limit the occurrence of
defects and imperfections.
A) Process
B) Assessment
C) Prevention
D) Failure
E) Appraisal
62) …costs include costs such as training, quality
planning, process engineering, and other costs associated
with quality beforehand.
A) Prevention
B) Process
C) Appraisal
D) Assessment
E) Failure
63) Which of the following is considered a prevention cost?
A) cost of troubleshooting
B) laboratory acceptance testing
C) warranty
D) supplier quality assurance
E) on-site performance tests
64) costs are associated with the direct costs of
measuring quality.
A) Failure
B) Appraisal
C) Assessment
D) Prevention
E) Process
65) costs include lab testing, inspection, test
equipment and materials, and losses due to destructive tests.
A) Assessment
B) Failure
C) Prevention
D) Appraisal
E) Process
66) Which of the following is considered an appraisal cost?
A) supplier assessment
B) cost of troubleshooting
C) process waste
D) robust design
E) product quality audits
67) …failure costs are those associated with online
failure.
A) Indirect
B) Generic
C) External
D) Internal
E) Direct
68) External failure costs are associated with product failure after the production process.
69) Failure after the customer takes possession of the product results in a(n)… failure cost.
A) indirect
B) generic
C) external
D) internal
E) direct
74) Appraisal costs include costs such as training and
quality planning. S
75) Appraisal costs are associated with the direct costs
of measuring quality. Đ
76) Supplier monitoring is an example of a preventive cost. S
77) Failure costs are categorized into tangible failure
costs and intangible failure costs. S
78) Internal failure costs are the costs associated with
online failure. Đ
79) External failure costs are associated with product failure after the production process. Đ
80) Warranties and concessions are examples of failure costs. Đ
81) Increasing prevention and appraisal costs could result in
a significant increase in failure costs S =>> DECREASE.
70) Which of the following is considered a failure cost?
A) on-site performance tests
B) warranty
C) supplier quality assurance
D) robust design
E) product quality audits
71) Using the , quality costs can be modeled to
show the trade-offs between these costs.
A) law of diminishing marginal returns
B) order-winning criterion
C) forced-choice model
D) supply chain strategy
E) PAF paradigm
72) Using the law of diminishing marginal returns, quality
costs can be modeled to show the trade-offs between these
costs. This trade-off model is called the .
A) order-winning criterion
B) supply chain model
C) PAF paradigm
D) forced-choice model
E) Lundvall-Juran model
73) The Lundvall-Juran quality cost model states that
.
A) as quality increases, customer satisfaction increases
B) as expenditures in inspection and control
activities increase, quality conformance decreases
C) as design and manufacturing costs increase,
quality increases
D) as expenditures in prevention and appraisal
activities increase, quality conformance increases
E) as inspection costs increase, customer satisfaction
82) The Lundvall-Juran quality cost model states that
as expenditures in appraisal activities increase, quality
conformance should decrease. S => INCREASE
85) If a product is regional or is marketed to a particular
segment of the population, then the generic strategy in use is
.
A) quality
B) cost
C) differentiation
D) flexibility
E) focus
86) The key to the Hill model for strategic quality planning
is reaching consensus on the .
A) order-winning criterion
B) Lundvall-Juran model
C) supply chain model
D) PAF paradigm
E) forced-choice model
87) is built upon a foundation of long-term
commitment to quality and continual process
improvement.
A) Core competency
B) Process engineering
C) Task management
D) Quality control
E) Employee empowerment
88) Which generic strategy is being utilized if a
customer perceives uniqueness of a high-status product
or service?
A) quality
B) cost
C) differentiation
D) flexibility
E) focus
89) An example of a generic focus strategy would be
targeting baby-boomers by marketing fitness clubs for
seniors. Đ
90) Differentiation is achieved by a competitor if the
consumer merely perceives the product or service to
be unique. Đ
91) The order winning criterion cannot be applied to
service strategy. S
92) Core competencies diminish with use. S
93) Core competency is built on the foundation of a long-term
commitment to quality and continual process improvement. Đ
94) The forced-choice model is only useful for companies
that are experienced in strategic planning. S
98) Kanri refers to .
A) quality control
B) employee empowerment
C) product development
D) management control
E) quality conformance
99) A method for strategic quality planning where a three- to
five-year plan is developed along with the current year's
objectives is called the .
A) logistics model
B) PAF paradigm
C) sustainability process
D) Hoshin planning process
E) forced-choice model
100) Catchball is the term used to describe the
nature of the Hoshin planning process.
A) simple
B) complex
C) interactive
D) iterative
E) competitive
101) Which of the following is the first step in the Hoshin planning process?
A) product management action plans
B) senior management action plans
C) product management development of one-year goals
D) senior management development of one-year goals
E) development of three- to five-year goals
102) Kanri is the term used to describe the interactive nature
of the Hoshin planning process. S => CATCH BALL
103) Catchball involves reporting from teams and
feedback from management. Đ

CHAPTER 5
DESIGNING QUALITY SERVICES
1. DIFFERENCES BETWEEN SERVICES AND MANUFACTURING
- Services are distinguished from manufacturing on several dimensions.
+ many service attributes are intangible
+ The outputs of services are also heterogeneous.
+ One useful distinction between services and manufacturing centers on the aspect of customer contact.
Customers tend to be more involved in the production of services than they are in production of goods.
You probably are actively involved in the production of services you receive. In many restaurants it is not
uncommon for the customers to fill their own drinks. This is called customer coproduction (Doanh nghiệp
hợp tác sản xuất cùng khách hàng).
+ Internal versus external services:
External services are those whose customers pay the bills. Internal services are in-house services such as
data processing, printing, and mail. Although internal and external services may be very different, they do have
many similarities. In both cases, competitive pressures can result in the possible loss of customers.
+ Voluntary versus Involuntary Services
Voluntary services are services that we actively seek out and employ of our own accord.
The quintessential example of an involuntary service is a prison. Other involuntary services include hospitals,
the IRS, the police department, the fire department, and other services that you do not choose.
 How Are Service Quality Issues Different from Those of Manufacturing?
- in services, such measurable dimensions are often unavailable like in manufacturing
- Simultaneous production and consumption of services means that you have to do it
right the first time.
- Product liability issues in services are very different from manufacturing. manufacturing liability
issues center around safety concerns, in services liability issues often relate to malpractice, which
refers to the professionalism of the service provider and whether
reasonable measures were taken to ensure the customer’s well-being.
 How Are Service Quality Issues Similar to Manufacturing?
- the customer is the core of the business, and customer needs provide the major input to design.
2.WHAT DO SERVICES CUSTOMERS WANT?
Tangibles; Reliability; Responsiveness; Assurance; Empathy
3. SERVQUAL
- Developed by Parasuraman, Zeithamel, and Berry

-
- It is accepted as a standard for assessing different dimensions of services quality.
- It has been shown to be valid for a number of service situations.
- It has been demonstrated to be reliable, meaning that different readers interpret the questions similarly.
- Each instrument is parsimonious in that they have only 22 items. This means that it can be filled out
quickly by customers and employees.
- Finally, it has a standardized analysis procedure to aid both interpretation and results.
- 2 factors dimension
4. DESIGNING AND IMPROVING THE SERVICES TRANSACTION
a) Services Blueprinting
- Lynn Shostack developed the process known as services blueprinting.
- Services blueprinting is a tool to help with brainstorming activities that lead to customer service
improvement.
b) Moments of Truth
- These are the times at which the customer expects something to happen.
- Customers’ contact with the business can occur in many different ways—face to face, over the Internet,
by phone, through a machine such as an ATM, or through the mail. All these moments of truth result
in either happy customers or lost customers.
c) Poka-yoke
- Dr. Richard Chase and Dr. John Grout have been influential in promoting the use of poka-yokes
(fail-safes) in services.
- The idea behind fail-safing is to ensure that certain errors will never
occur. Just as many processes seem to be designed to fail, they also can be designed not to fail.
 - fail-safe devices: warning methods, physical contact methods, visual contact methods OR “3 Ts”: Task
to be performed, Treatment provided to the customer, Tangibles provided to the customer.
5. THE CUSTOMER BENEFITS PACKAGE
- tangibles that define the service – goods content
- intangibles that make up the service – service content
- 4 stages of the service benefit package: Idea/concept generation, The definition of a services package,
Process definition and selection, Facilities requirement definition
6. SERVICE TRANSACTION ANALYSIS
- This is a service improvement technique that allows managers to analyze their service processes at a
very detailed level.
- a method for identifying these transactions and evaluating them from the customer’s perspective to
determine if there is a gap between service design and what the customer perceives as the service.
7. SUPPLY CHAIN QUALITY IN SERVICES
- service supply chains are bidirectional

8. A THEORY FOR SERVICE QUALITY MANAGEMENT

Proposition 1: The Unified Services Theory. “With services, the customer provides significant inputs into
the production process. With manufacturing, groups of customers may
contribute ideas to the design of the product; however, individual customers’ only part in
the actual process is to select and consume the output. Nearly all other managerial themes unique to services
are founded in this distinction.”
Proposition 2: The Unreliable Supplier Dilemma. “With services, the customersuppliers often provide
unreliable inputs.”
Proposition 3: Capricious Labor. “With services, customer-labor may ignore, avoid, or
reject technologies or process improvements which are intended to increase quality and
productivity. As a result, customer buy-in to process changes must be carefully addressed.”
Proposition 4: Everyone Presumes to Be an Expert. “With services, the customer often
provides product specifications (what to make) and process design (how to make it), often
without the invitation of the service provider.”
 9. TRẮC NGHIỆM
1) service attributes cannot be inventoried or carried in
stock over long periods of time.
A) Continuous
B) Objective
C) Tangible
D) Discrete
E) Intangible
2) The heterogeneous nature of services means that .
A) no two services are exactly the same
B) they cannot be inventoried
C) customers cannot be involved in the production of the service
D) production and consumption of services occur simultaneously
E) they cannot be carried in stock over long periods of time
3) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Tangible service attributes cannot be inventoried or carried
in stock over long periods of time.
B) The homogeneous nature of services means that no
two services are exactly the same.
C) Production and consumption of services often occur
simultaneously.
D) Customers cannot exert control over the service provider
to achieve customization.
E) Customers tend to be more involved in the production of
goods than in the production of services.
4) The participation of a customer in the delivery of a service
product is called .
A) customer interaction
B) customer coproduction
C) customer conformity
D) customer proactivity
E) customer compliance
5) In many restaurants, it is common for customers to fill
their own drinks. This activity is an example of .
A) customer compliance
B) customer interaction
C) customer coproduction
D) customer proactivity
E) customer conformity
6) services are those whose customers pay the bills.
A) External
B) Tangible
C) Internal
D) Discrete
E) Intangible
7) services generally include services such as data
processing, printing, and mail.
A) Tangible
B) External
C) Internal
D) Intangible
E) Discrete
8) Services that we actively seek out and employ of our own
accord are referred to as services.
A) voluntary
B) internal
C) external
D) intangible
E) involuntary
9) Which of the following is an example of a voluntary service?
A) police department
B) hospital
C) gas station
D) the IRS
E) fire department
10) Services that individuals do not choose to engage are
referred to as services.
A) internal
B) voluntary
C) intangible
D) involuntary
E) external
11) Which of the following statements is true?
A) It is easy to obtain hard data relating to services
because services' attributes are intangible.
B) Simultaneous production and consumption of services
means that you have to do it right the first time.
C) Customer contact leads to a decrease in variability in the
process.
D) Service liability issues center around safety concerns.
E) Manufacturing liability issues often relate to malpractice.
12) refers to the professionalism of the service provider
and whether reasonable measures were taken to ensure the
customer's well-being.
A) Malpractice
B) Negligence
C) Indifference
D) Mismanagement
E) Empathy
13) The phenomenon of customers providing themselves,
their belongings, and information as process inputs is known as.
A) the reinvention process
B) services blueprinting
C) the Unreliable Supplier Dilemma
D) the capricious labor theory
E) service transaction analysis
14) Intangible service attributes cannot be inventoried or
carried in stock over long periods of time.
15) The outputs of service are homogeneous, which means that
no two services are exactly the same.
16) The production and consumption of services often occur Simultaneously
17) Customers tend to be more involved in the production
of goods than in the production of services.
18) Customers can exert control over the service provider
and achieve customization.
19) Internal services are those whose customers pay the bills.
20) Data processing, printing, and mail are examples of
external services.
21) Internal and external services are similar in that
competitive pressures can result in the possible loss of
customers.
22) Voluntary services are services that we actively seek out
and employ of our own accord.
23) A gas station is an example of an involuntary service.
24) A hospital is an example of a voluntary service.
25) Measurable dimensions, such as height and weight, are
often unavailable in services.
26) Simultaneous production and consumption of services
means that you have to do it right the first time.
27) Customer contact leads to a decrease in variability in
the process.
28) In services liability issues center around safety concerns,
whereas in manufacturing liability issues relate to
malpractice. => Manufacturing - Liability centers around safety concerns (malpractice)
29) For both manufacturing and service firms, the customer is
the core of the business.
30) Service supply chains are bidirectional, which means that
service customers actually provide inputs to the supply
chain.
31) The Unreliable Supplier Dilemma occurs because
service companies receive most of their supplies from other
service companies. => This simultaneous relationship as supplier and customer makes it difficult for the
service provider to control the supplied inputs
32) Capricious labor occurs because many services customers
provide themselves as labor inputs into the production
process.
38) Which of the following is not a quality dimension
relating to services?
A) empathy
B) assurance
C) durability
D) tangibles
E) responsiveness
39) Managers who view service quality as a force of
underlying profitability and business success possess .
A) high standards
B) a service vision
C) a laissez-faire leadership style
D) responsiveness
E) an in-the-field leadership style
40) Managers who are focused on details and are highly
organized with better equipped firms exemplify which of the
following attributes of leader service?
A) high standards
B) a service vision
C) a laissez-faire leadership style
D) responsiveness
E) an in-the-field leadership style
41) Managers who stop by and visit their service
locations demonstrate .
A) high standards
B) a service vision
C) a laissez-faire leadership style
D) assurance
E) an in-the-field leadership style
42) Responsiveness, assurance, and intangibles are three of
the dimensions of service quality.
43) Leaders with service vision view service quality as the force
underlying profitability and business success
45) The SERVQUAL tool for assessing services quality
was developed by .
A) Hammer and Champy
B) Juran, Deming, and Shewhart
C) Ishikawa and Taguchi
D) Feigenbaum, Crosby, and Peters
E) Parasuraman, Zeithamel, and Berry
46) The two parts of the SERVQUAL survey are .
A) customer expectations and customer perceptions
B) service quality and product quality
C) product integrity and customer service
D) services liability and manufacturing liability
E) service vision and high standards
47) shows the difference between actual customer
expectations and management's idea or perception of
customer expectations.
A) Gap 1
B) Gap 2
C) Gap 3
D) Gap 4
E) Gap 5
48) Gap 2 shows the difference between .
A) service delivery and external communications to customers
B) management perceptions of customer expectations and
expected service
C) service delivery and service quality specifications
D) expected service and perceived service
E) service quality specifications and management perceptions of
customer expectations
49) shows the difference between service delivery and
service quality specifications.
A) Gap 1
B) Gap 2
C) Gap 3
D) Gap 4
E) Gap 5
50) Gap 4 shows the difference between .
A) service delivery and external communications to customers
B) management perceptions of customer expectations and
expected service
C) service delivery and service quality specifications
D) expected service and perceived service
E) service quality specifications and management perceptions of
customer expectations
51) shows the difference between expected service and
perceived service.
A) Gap 1
B) Gap 2
C) Gap 3
D) Gap 4
E) Gap 5
52) A university administered the SERVQUAL survey to its
customers as a way to assess its current position in the market. On
the basis of 80 responses, the following averages were computed
for the tangibles construct. What is the difference for the tangibles dimension?

A) -1.50
B) -0.575
C) 1.50
D) 0.575
E) not enough data to determine the answer
53) A university administered the SERVQUAL survey to its
customers as a way to assess its current position in the market.
On the basis of 80 responses, the following averages were
computed for the reliability construct.

What is the difference for the reliability dimension?

A) -0.2
B) -0.025
C) 0.025
D) 0.2
E) not enough data to determine the answer
54) Which of the following is not one of the advantages of
the SERVQUAL instrument?
A) It has been shown to be valid for a number of
service situations.
B) It has been accepted as a standard.
C) It has a standardized analysis procedure.
D) It is more widely used that statistical quality control.
E) It can be filled out quickly by customers and employees.
55) W. Edwards Deming developed the SERVQUAL survey
for assessing services quality.
56) The SERVQUAL instrument is accepted as a standard
for assessing different dimensions of services quality.
57) The two parts of a SERVQUAL survey are services
liability and manufacturing liability.
58) The greater potential for increasing customer satisfaction
lies in addressing tangibles first.
59) The SERVQUAL instrument is useful for performing
gap analysis.
60) When a retailer incorrectly feels that the majority of his
customers are men shopping for tools when in fact most
customers are women shopping for linens, they are
experiencing gap 3.
61) Gap 1 shows that there can be a difference between actual
customer expectations and management's idea or perception of
customer expectations.
62) Gap 3 is the difference between service delivery and
service quality specifications.
63) Gap 4 is the difference between expected and
perceived services.
66) A is a flowchart that isolates potential fail points in
a process.
A) services statement
B) services draft
C) services plan
D) services blueprint
E) services data table
67) What is the first step in the development of a service
blueprint?
A) Identify processes.
B) Isolate fail points.
C) Establish a time frame.
D) Eliminate highest risks.
E) Analyze profits.
68) Which of the following best defines the front office in
a service blueprint?
A) the portion of the firm's activities that the customer can see
B) the area in the firm where the majority of the work is done
C) the portion of the firm's activities that the customer cannot
see but is necessary to perform
D) the area in the firm where the majority of the profitability
is generated
E) the area in the firm where the employees plan
quality initiatives
69) Which of the following best defines the back office in a
service blueprint?
A) the area in the firm where the majority of the work is done
B) the portion of the firm's activities that the customer cannot
see but are necessary to perform
C) the portion of the firm's activities that the customer can see
D) the area in the firm where the majority of the profitability
is generated
E) the area in the firm where the employees plan
quality initiatives
70) should be kept on every process in a service and
available on a computer network for all to view.
A) Service blueprints
B) STA sheets
C) CBPs
D) SERVQUALs
E) Gap analyses
71) A services blueprint is a flowchart that isolates potential
fail points in a process.
72) The first step in the development of a services blueprint is
to isolate fail points.
73) In a services blueprint, the area above the line of visibility
is referred to as the back office.
74) Services process blueprinting places the focus on front-office
activities.
76) The fail points in the service blueprint are often referred to as.
A) defining events
B) turning points
C) poka-yokes
D) moments of truth
E) tangibles
77) The idea behind fail-safing is to ensure that .
A) certain errors will never occur
B) customer expectations are met
C) the highest risks are eliminated
D) forward planning takes place
E) the importance of quality is not neglected
78) After a customer sits down in a restaurant, the server
coming to the table to take the customer's order is an example of
a
.
A) service transaction analysis
B) moment of truth
C) poka-yoke
D) customer perception
E) gap analysis
79) Which of the following is one of the classifications of
fail- safe devices?
A) emotional contact methods
B) visual contact methods
C) task awareness methods
D) intangible methods
E) error notification methods
80) The "three Ts" of fail-safe methods are .
A) transactions, task, and tangibles
B) tangibles, theories, and transactions
C) task, transactions, and treatment
D) task, treatment, and tangibles
E) task, theories, and transactions
81) The fail points in the services blueprints are referred to
as turning points.
82) The idea behind fail-safing is to ensure that certain errors
will never occur.
84) The package of tangibles that define a service and
intangibles that make up a service is referred to as a(n) .
A) quality output package
B) internal services package
C) service vision package
D) fail-safe package
E) customer benefits package
85) In a customer benefits package, tangibles are known as.
A) service-content
B) process-content
C) product-content
D) quality-content
E) goods-content
86) In a customer benefits package, intangibles are referred to as.
A) service-content
B) goods-content
C) quality-content
D) process-content
E) product-content
87) Which of the following is not one of the four stages of
the service benefit package design process?
A) idea/concept generation
B) service concept investigation
C) the definition of a services package
D) process definition and selection
E) facilities requirement definition
88) The first stage of the service benefit package design process is
.
A) service concept investigation
B) facilities requirement definition
C) process definition and selection
D) the definition of a services package
E) idea/concept generation
89)___ service packages are of the one-size-fits-all variety.
A) Unique
B) Selective
C) Restricted
D) Generic
E) Constricted
90) service packages are especially tailored for each
customer.
A) Selective
B) Constricted
C) Unique
D) Restricted
E) Generic
91) Which of the following is not an issue that could affect a
firm's ability to provide unique services packages?
A) organizational flexibility
B) employee motivation
C) training
D) product offerings
E) nature of the service
92) Which of the following is not a type of service package
offered by firms?
A) selective
B) constricted
C) unique
D) restricted
E) generic
93) In a customer benefits package, the tangibles that define the
service are known as service-content.
94) The first stage of the service benefit package design process
is the definition of a services package.
95) One of the objectives of customer benefits package design
is to evaluate each attribute in terms of process and service
encounter capability.
96) Generic services packages are of the one-size-fits-all variety.
97) Selective services packages are especially tailored for
each customer.
99) is a service improvement technique that allows
managers to analyze their service processes at a very detailed
level.
A) Generic service analysis
B) Selective service analysis
C) Service transaction analysis
D) Service data analysis
E) Service quality analysis
100) Service transaction analysis entails___ rating each
transaction in the process being studied.
A) managers
B) quality experts
C) mystery shoppers
D) service employees
E) customers
101) Which of the following helps service designers, managers,
and staff understand why customers did not like certain aspects of
a service so they may improve the service?
A) service blueprints
B) SERVQUAL surveys
C) service transaction analysis sheet
D) poka-yokes
E) benefits packages analysis
102) Service analysis transactions do all of the following except
.
A) they lead to prescribed service customization packages
B) they lead to improving service processes
C) they help managers analyze service processes at a
very detailed level
D) they identify a series of transactions
E) they help identify gaps between service design and customer
perception of service
103) Service transaction analysis is a service improvement
technique that allows managers to analyze their service
processes at a very detailed level
 CHAPTER 7 QUALITY TOOLS

1. PROCESS MAPS
- a picture of a process

-
- Steps in process mapping include:
• Setting on a standard…
• Clearly communicating the purpose of the process map …
• Observing the work being performed …
• Developing a map
• Reviewing the process map…
• Develop a map of the improved process
2. CHECK SHEETS
Steps:
- Identify common defects occurring in the process
- Draw a table with common defects …
- The user of the check sheet then places checkmarks …
3. HISTOGRAMS
4. SCATTER DIAGRAMS
- Used to examine the relationships between variables.
- These relationships are sometimes used to identify indicator variables in organizations.
- Steps:
• Determine your x (independent) and y (dependent) variables.
• Gather process data relating to the variables identified in step
• Plot the data on a two-dimensional plane.
• Observe the plotted data to see whether there is a relationship between the variables.
5. CONTROL CHARTS
- Control charts are used to determine whether a process will produce a product or service with consistent
measurable properties
- It is invested by Dr. Walter A. Shewhart in 1920s
-
6. CAUSE AND EFFECT (ISHIKAWA) DIAGRAMS (FISHBONE)
- Is a good tool to help us move to lower levels of abstraction insolving problems
- The problem being the head of the fish
- Major causes being the “ribs” of the fiish
- Subcauses forming smaller “bones” off the ribs
- Steps:
• State the problem clearly in the head of the fish.
• Draw the backbone and ribs. Ask the participants in the brainstorming session to identify major causes
of the problem labeled in the head of the diagram. If participants have trouble identifying major problem
categories, it may be helpful to use materials, machines, people, and methods as possible bones.
• Continue to fill out the fishbone diagram, asking “Why?” about each problem or cause of a problem
until the fish is filled out. Usually it takes no more than five levels of questioning to get to root causes—
hence the “five whys.”
• View the diagram and identify core causes.
• Set goals to address the core causes.
 7. PARETO CHARTS
- Used to identify and priotizie problems to be solved
- These are actually frequency charts that are aided by the 80/20 rule adapted by Joseph Juran from
Vilfredo Pareto, the Italian economist.
- there are a vital few causes that create most of the problems.
- Steps:
1. Gathering categorical data relating to quality problems.
2. Drawing a frequency chart of the data.
3. Focusing on the tallest bars in the frequency chart first when solving the problem.
Parallelogram
 Ishikawa's seven basic tools of quality : First, a flow chart is used to get a big picture of the
process. From this big picture, critical points along the process are selected for data collection,
which is accomplished with a check sheet. The data collected by a check sheet are analyzed with
histograms, scatter plots, or control charts. Then, a cause-and-effect diagram can be used to find the
root causes of the primary problem, and finally a Pareto chart can be used to prioritize causes for
mitigation.

TRẮC NGHIỆM
1) The concept of a process map is that we must… the
process before we can improve it.
A) understand
B) plan
C) know
D) analyze
E) coordinate
2) What is the first step in a process improvement project?
A) creating a control chart
B) developing scatter plots
C) developing a histogram
D) creating a process map
E) setting up a check sheet
3) A determines the parameters for process
improvement.
A) process map
B) check sheet
C) control chart
D) cause-and-effect diagram
E) histogram
4) With reference to the language of process maps, a
indicates there is a decision to be made.
A) parallelogram
B) rectangle
C) diamond (hình thoi)
D) triangle
E) circle
5) With reference to the language of process maps, a is
used whenever materials, forms, or tools enter or leave the
process.
A) circle
B) triangle
C) diamond
D) rectangle
E) parallelogram (hình bình hành)
6) With reference to the language of process maps, a is
used whenever processing takes place.
A) circle
B) triangle
C) diamond
D) rectangle
E) parallelogram
7) What is the first step in process mapping?
A) developing a map of the process
B) settling on a standard set of process mapping
symbols to be used
C) reviewing a draft copy of the process map with the employees
D) observing the work being performed by shadowing the workers
performing the work
E) clearly communicating the purpose of the process map to
all the individuals involved in the exercise
9) The "P" in the acronym SIPOC stands for .
A) project
B) problem
C) people
D) process
E) product
10) A histogram is a picture of a process.
11) The first step in many process improvement projects is
to create a map of the process as it exists.
12) In a process map, a rectangle indicates there is a decision to
be made.
13) In a process map, a parallelogram appears whenever
materials, forms, or tools enter or leave the process.
14) The first step in process mapping is to settle on a standard
set of process mapping symbols to be used.
15) A SIPOC diagram is useful when it is clear who the customers
are and where specifications for inputs do not exist.
18) are data-gathering tools that can be used in forming
histograms.
A) Process maps
B) Pareto charts
C) Check sheets
D) Scatter plots
E) Control charts
19) Check sheets are data-gathering tools that can be used
in forming .
A) Pareto charts
B) scatter diagrams
C) cause-and-effect diagrams
D) histograms
E) control charts
20) The first step in setting up a … is to identify common
defects occurring in the process.
A) histogram
B) Pareto chart
C) check sheet
D) control chart
E) process map
21) are simply graphical representations of data in a bar
format.
A) Cause-and-effect diagrams
B) Process maps
C) Histograms
D) Scatter plots
E) Pareto charts
22) Calculate the number of classes (k >= ln(130) /ln(2) ) if there are 130
observations in a data set.
A) 8
B) 7
C) 6
D) 5
E) 4
23) Calculate the number of classes if there are 65 observations
in a data set.
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 4
E) 3
24) Calculate the number of classes if there are 32 observations
in a data set.
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 4
E) 3
25) Calculate the number of classes if there are 16 observations
in a data set.
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 4
E) 3
26) The _ is used to examine the relationships
between variables.
A) scatter diagram
B) process map
C) cause-and-effect diagram
D) Pareto chart
E) control chart
27) The first step in setting up a is to determine
the independent and dependent variables.
A) control chart
B) scatter plot
C) process map
D) histogram
E) check sheet
28) are used to determine whether a process will
produce a product or service with consistent measurable
properties.
A) Scatter diagrams
B) Control charts
C) Process maps
D) Cause-and-effect diagrams
E) Histograms
29) The is used to move to lower levels of abstraction in
solving problems.
A) cause-and-effect diagram
B) Pareto chart
C) control chart
D) histogram
E) scatter diagram
30) The cause-and-effect diagram is also called a(n) .
A) fishbone diagram
B) tree diagram
C) affinity diagram
D) matrix diagram
E) scatter diagram
31) The first step in creating a is to state the problem
clearly in the head of the fish.
A) control chart
B) Pareto chart
C) scatter diagram
D) cause-and-effect diagram
E) histogram
32) are used to identify and prioritize problems to be
solved.
A) Scatter diagrams
B) Histograms
C) Control charts
D) Cause-and-effect diagrams
E) Pareto charts
33) are frequency charts that are aided by the 80/20
rule.
A) Cause-and-effect diagrams
B) Control charts
C) Pareto charts
D) Histograms
E) Scatter diagrams
34) The first step in constructing _ is to gather
categorical data relating to quality problems.
A) control charts
B) histograms
C) scatter diagrams
D) Pareto charts
 E) cause-and-effect diagrams
35) The RC and More Superstore decides to track customer
complaints as part of their ongoing customer satisfaction
improvement program. After collecting data for two months,
their check sheet appears as follows:

A) 20%
B) 28%
C) 54%
D) 68%
E) 80%

CHAPTER 8: MANAGING QUALITY IMPROVEMENT TEAMS AND PROJECTS

1. Why Employees Enjoy Teams
- Mutuality: support, encouragement between line management and project managers
- Recognition for personal achievement: rewwards, status, incentives
- Belonging: cảm giác thuộc về, supporting, cohesive, friendly tem relations
- Bounded power: phân quyền, the need for authority and control, nhân viên có khả năng ảnh hưởng tới
decision that affect the project
- Creative autonomy: need to have cơ hội to use their creativity
2. LEADING TEAMS FOR QUALITY IMPROVEMENT
a) Employee Empowerment and Involvement
- means giving power to team members
- A number of preconditions (điều kiện tiên quyết) are necessary for empowerment.
• Clear authority and accountability. Employees must know what is expected of them and
be given authority over their own work.
• Participation in planning at all levels. Employees should be involved in planning related
 to their jobs. They should be provided with planning tools.
• Adequate communication and information for decision making. If employees are to
make decisions related to their jobs, they need the right managerial information.
• Responsibility with authority. Employees should be given a definition of power that
focuses on getting things done rather than exerting influence over people.
b) Flattening Hierarchies for Improved Effectiveness
- have eliminated layers of bureaucratic managers in order to improve communication and simplify work.
- Too many layers of management also can impede (cản trở) creativity, stifle initiative, and make empowerment
impossible.
c) Team Leader Roles and Responsibilities
- situational leadership model - Hersey and Blanchard
- readiness (sẵn sàng)
d) Team Roles and Responsibilities

d) Team Formation and Evolution

Forming, where the team is composed, and the objective for the team is set;
storming, where the team members begin to get to know each other, and agreements have not yet been made
that facilitate smooth interaction between team members;
norming, where the team becomes a cohesive unit, and interdependence, trust,
and cooperation develop;
and performing, where a mutually supportive, steady state is achieved.
mourning, where team members regret the ending of the project and the breaking up of the team.
e) Team rules

2.TYPES OF TEAMS

3.IMPLEMENTING TEAMS
- Facilitation: is helping or aiding teams by maintaining a process orientation and focusing the group.
- Team bulding is accomplished by following a process that identifies roles for team members and then helps
them to become competent in achieving those roles.
a) Meeting management
- an important skill for facilitator
- tools: agenda, predetermined obj for the meeting, a process for running the meeting, processes for voting, and
development of an action plan.
- steps:
1. Defining an agenda
2. Developing meeting objectives
3. Designing the agenda activity outline
4. Using process techniques
- parking lot:
+ another meeting management tool by Hewlett Packard
+ is a flipchart or whiteboard where topics that are off the subject are parked with the agreement that these
topics agreement that these topics will be candidates for the next meeting’s
agenda.
b) Conflict Resolution in Teams
Four recognizable stages occur in the conflict resolution process:
Frustration. People are at odds, and competition or aggression ensues.
Conceptualization and orientation. Opponents identify the issues that need to be resolved.
Interaction. Team members discuss and air the problems.
Outcome. The problem is resolved.
 - Resolve conflict by:
• Passive conflict resolution
• Win-win: balancing demands 4 the participants
• Structured problem solving
• Confronting conflit
• Choosing a winner
• Selecting a better alternative
• Preventing conflict
 Generally speaking, these conflict-resolution approaches involve three alternatives: avoidance,
defusion, or confrontation. Avoidance involves letting things work themselves out without
involving a leader. Defusion means smoothing ruffled feelings while getting the team project
back on track. Confrontation involves injecting the leader into the conflict to find a solution.
TRẮC NGHIỆM
1) One of the biggest reasons why so many influential voices
call for participation and teamwork to manage businesses today is _ in the workplace.
A) consanguinity
B) diversity
C) complexity
D) unity
E) simplicity
2) Knowledge work is effective when workers are given a
certain amount of autonomy and decision-making authority.
Companies such as 3M encourage their employees to
become more… in their approach to work.
A) entrepreneurial
B) conspiratorial
C) corporeal
D) surreal
E) competitive
3) Which of the following is a reason why employees
like teams?
A) mutuality
B) recognition for personal achievement
C) belonging
D) creative autonomy
E) all of the above
4) In the context of quality teams, is the need for
mutual support and encouragement between line
management and project managers as well as personal loyalty
of project managers to their teams and organizations.
A) mutuality
B) recognition for personal achievement
C) belonging
D) bounded power
E) creative autonomy
5) In the context of quality teams, is the
opportunity for personal development as well as recognition
for personal achievement through rewards, incentives, or
status.
A) belonging
B) recognition for personal achievement
C) mutuality
D) bounded power
E) creative autonomy
6) In the context of quality teams, is the
individual's need for supportive, cohesive, and friendly team
relations.
A) mutuality
B) recognition for personal achievement
C) belonging
D) bounded power
E) creative autonomy
7) In the context of quality teams, is the need for
authority and control over project resources and people,
personal accountability and challenge, individuals' abilities to
influence decisions that affect the project, and opportunities
for personal growth and development.
A) recognition for personal achievement
B) creative autonomy
C) belonging
D) bounded power
E) mutuality
8) In the context of quality teams, is the need for
individuals to have opportunities to use their creativity and
potential during the course of a project and to enjoy good
working conditions.
A) mutuality
B) recognition for personal achievement
C) bounded power
D) belonging
E) creative autonomy
9) means giving power to team members who
perhaps had little control over their jobs.
A) Needs analysis
B) Implicit promise
C) Empowerment
D) Trust
E) Quality improvement
10) Of the preconditions necessary for empowerment,
means employees must know what is expected of them and be
given authority over their own work.
A) clear authority and accountability
B) flattening hierarchies
C) adequate communication and information for
decision making
D) responsibility with authority
E) organizational learning
11) Of the preconditions necessary for empowerment,
means employees should be involved in planning related to their
jobs.
A) clear authority and accountability
B) participation in planning at all levels
C) organizational learning
D) responsibility with authority
E) adequate communication and information for decision
making
12) Of the preconditions necessary for empowerment,
means that if employees are to make decisions related to their
jobs, they need the right managerial information.
A) corporate learning
B) participation in planning at all levels
C) adequate communication and information for
decision making
D) responsibility with authority
E) clear authority and accountability
13) Of the preconditions necessary for empowerment,
means that employees should be given a definition of power that
focuses on getting things done rather than exerting influence
over people.
A) adequate communication and information for decision making
B) participation in planning at all levels
C) clear authority and accountability
D) responsibility with authority
E) flattening hierarchies
14) is the extent to which a follower has the ability
and willingness to accomplish a specific task.
A) Finesse
B) Sleekness
C) Effectiveness
D) Readiness
E) Quickness
15) are high-powered teams assigned to work on a
specific problem for a limited amount of time.
A) Process improvement teams
B) Natural work groups
C) Tiger teams
D) Virtual teams
E) Cross-functional teams
16) work to improve processes and customer service.
A) Process improvement teams
B) Cross-functional teams
C) Tiger teams
D) Natural work groups
E) Virtual teams
17) enlist people from a variety of functional
groups within the firm.
A) Process improvement teams
B) Cross-functional teams
C) Self-directed work teams
D) Natural work groups
E) Virtual teams
18) are teams organized around a common product,
customer, or service.
A) Process improvement teams
B) Self-directed work teams
C) Tiger teams
D) Natural work groups
E) Cross-functional teams
19) are teams that rarely or never physically
meet, except in electronic meetings using group decision
software.
A) Process improvement teams
B) Cross-functional teams
C) Tiger teams
D) Self-directed work teams
E) Virtual teams
20) are identified as either little s or big S teams
who have been chartered to work on projects identified by
team members with little managerial oversight.
A) Process improvement
teams B) Cross-functional
teams
C) Tiger teams
D) Self-directed work teams
E) Virtual teams
21) is helping or aiding teams by maintaining a
process orientation and focusing the group.
A) Meeting management
B) Team building
C) Facilitation
D) Brainstorming
E) Conceptualization
22) is accomplished by following a process
that identifies roles for team members and then helps
them to become competent in achieving those roles.
A) Brainstorming
B) Team building
C) Meeting management
D) Conflict resolution
E) Facilitation
23) Tools for successful include an agenda,
predetermined objectives for the meeting, a process for running
the meeting, processes for voting, and development of an action
plan.
A) interaction
B) team building
C) meeting management
D) facilitation
E) conceptualization and orientation
24) The is a flipchart or whiteboard where topics that
are off the subject are parked with the agreement that these
topics will be candidates for the next meeting's agenda.
A) project charter
B) flowchart
C) facilitation board
D) PERT chart
E) parking lot
25) The "parking lot" methodology was pioneered by .
A) GM
B) IBM
C) GE
D) HP
E) CIGNA
26) The formula used to calculate the payback period
for qualifying projects is .
A) Ct = ∑ (Cd + Ci)
B) Ct = PP/Ba
C) PP = ∑ (Cd + Ci)
D) PP = Ct/Ba
E) Ba = Cd + Ci
29) Business is transforming itself from a "command
and control" environment to one of collaboration.
30) A team is defined as a finite number of individuals who are
united in a common purpose.
31) In a study of project managers who were involved in
project teams, two of the motivators that emerged were creative
autonomy and recognition for personal achievement.
32) Empowerment means giving power to team members
who perhaps had little control over their jobs.
33) The Baldrige criteria encourage employee participation.
34) Major challenges in the area of workforce development
include the integration of human resources practices and the
alignment of human resource management with strategic
change processes.
35) Granting authority to employees guarantees that people
will work well together and will necessarily achieve all the
lofty goals that are espoused in empowerment.
36) Organizational learning leads to change in
organizational behavior in a way that reduces performance.
37) Corporate learning relies on an open culture where no one
feels threatened to expose opinions or beliefs.
38) With fewer layers of management, companies tend to
rely more on teams.
39) Quality professionals are unanimous: in order to be
successful in achieving teamwork and participation, strong
leadership both at the company level and within the team
is essential.
40) The situational leadership model clarifies the interrelation
between employee preparedness and effectiveness of
leadership.
41) Readiness is a function of job maturity and
psychological maturity.
42) Quality management is a vehicle by which leaders
abdicate their responsibility.
43) The scope of a Tiger team is organization-wide.
44) The scope of a process improvement team is local or
a single department.
45) The scope of a natural work group is customer- or
region- centered.
46) A Big S self-directed team is involved in managing the
different functions of the company with a traditional
management structure.
47) Effective meeting management is an important skill for
a facilitator of quality improvement teams.
48) Some of the meeting structured process techniques, such
as silent voting and idea writing, help team members reach
consensus rapidly.
49) Only cost-benefits analysis (CBA) involves
identifying direct and indirect project costs and expected
returns for projects.
50) Soft costs are easily recovered in project savings.
51) Force-field analysis is designed to identify and quantify
all of the forces for or against organizational change.