PHYSICS

“THERE IS NOTHING SPECIAL IN THE WORLD.

NOTHING MAGIC. JUST PHYSICS”
“Chuck Palahniuk”

ELECTRIC FIELD AND GAUSS’S THEOREM

1. A hollow sphere of radius R has a point charge Q at

its centre. Electric flux emanating from it is ɸ. If
both the charge and the radius of the sphere be
doubled, electric flux emanating from the sphere
will
a) Remain the same
b) Become 2 ɸ
c) Become 4 ɸ
d) Become 8 ɸ
2. A closed surface in vacuum encloses charges –q and
+3q. the total electric flux emerging out of the
surface is
a) Zero
2𝑞⁄
b) 𝜖0
3𝑞⁄
c) 𝜖0
4𝑞⁄
d) 𝜖0
3. An electric dipole of length 2 cm is placed at an
angle of 300 with an electric field 2 x 105 N/C. if the
dipole experiences a torque of 8 x 10−3 Nm, the
magnitude of either charge of the dipole, is
a) 4𝜇𝐶
b) 7𝜇𝐶

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 c) 8mC
d) 2mC
4. A negatively charged object X is repelled by
another charged object Y. however, an object Z is
attracted to object Y. which of the following is the
most possibility for the object Z?
a) Positively charged only
b) Negatively charged only
c) Neutral or positively charged
d) Neutral or negatively charged
5. The magnitude of electric field due to a point
charge 2q, at distance r is E. then the magnitude of
electric field due to a uniformly charged thin
spherical shell of radius R with total charge q at a
distance r/2, (r>>>R) will be
a) E/4
b) 0
c) 2E
d) 4E
6. A square sheet of side ‘a’ is lying parallel to XY
plane at z=a. the electric field in the region is
E=c𝑧 2 𝑘̂ . The electric flux through the sheet is
a) 𝑎4 c
1
b) 3 𝑎 3 c
1
c) 𝑎 4 c
3
d) 0

7. Three charges q, -q and 𝑞0 are placed as shown in

figure. The magnitude of the net force on the charge
1
𝑞0 at point O is [ k= ] [n=a]
4𝜋𝜖0

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 a) 0
𝑞2
b) 2
𝑎2
𝑞2
c) √2 2
𝑎
1 𝑞2
d)
√2 𝑎 2
8. Eight equal charges each +Q are kept at the corners
of a cube. Net electric field at the centre of the cube.
𝑄
a) k 2
𝑟
𝑄
b) 8k
𝑟2
𝑄
c) 2k𝑟2
d) Zero
9. Two point charges Q and -3Q are placed at some
distance apart. If the electric field at the location of
Q is E, then at the locality of -3Q, it is
a) –E
b) E/3
c) -3E
d) –E/3
10. A drop of 10−6 kg water carries 10−6 𝐶 charge.
What electric field should be applied to balance its
weight (assume g=10 𝑚⁄𝑠 2 )
a) 10 V/m, Upwards
b) 10 V/m, Downwards
c) 0.1 V/m, Downwards
d) 0.1 V/m, Upwards
11. A point charge placed at any point on the axis of an
electric dipole at some large distance experiences a
force F. the force on the point charge when it’s
distance from the dipole is doubled is
a) F
b) F/2

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 c) F/4
d) F/8
12. ABC is a right angled triangle in which AB = 3m,
BC=4m and angle B=900 . The three charges +15C,
+12C and 20C are placed respectively on A,B and C.
the force acting on B is
a) 125N
b) 35N
c) 25N
d) Zero
13. Two equal charges are separated by a distance d. a
third charge placed on a perpendicular bisector at x
distance, will experience maximum coulomb force
when
a) X=𝑑⁄
√2
b) X= d/2
c) X= 𝑑⁄
2√2
d) X= 𝑑⁄
2√3
14. In a region of space, the electric field is in the x
direction and proportional to x, i.e., E=𝐸0x 𝑖̂.
Consider an imaginary cubical volume of edge a,
with its edges parallel to the axes of coordinates.
The charge inside this cube is
a) Zero
b) 𝜖0 𝐸0 𝑎3
c) 𝐸0 𝑎3 /𝜖0
d) 𝜖0 𝐸𝑎2 /6
15. In an experiment three microscopic latex spheres
are sprayed into a chamber and became charged
with charges +3e, +5e and -3e respectively. All the
three spheres came in contact simultaneously for a

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 moment and got separated. Which one of the
following are possible values for the final charge on
the spheres?
a) +5e, -1e, +5e
b) +6e, +6e, -7e
c) -4e, +3.5e, +5.5e
d) +5e, -8e, +7e
16. An object has charge of 1C and gains 5 x 1018
electrons. The net charge of the object becomes:
a) -0.8C
b) +0.8C
c) +4.8C
d) +0.2C
17. Beams of electrons and protons move parallel to
each other in the same direction. They:
a) Attract each other
b) Repel each other
c) Neither attract nor repel
d) Force of attraction or repulsion depends
upon speed of beams
18. Two-point charges +4q and +q are placed at a
distance L apart. A third charge Q is so placed that
all the three charges are in equilibrium. Then
location and magnitude of third charge will be
a) At a distance L/3 from +4q charge, +4q/9
b) At a distance L/3 from +4q charge, -4q/9
c) At a distance 2L/3 from +4q charge, -4q/9
d) At a distance 2L/3 from +4q charge,+4q/9
19. Assertion (A): in a non uniform electric field, a
dipole will have translator as well as rotator
motion.
Reason (R) : in a non uniform electric field, a dipole
experiences a force as well as torque.

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 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is false.
20. Assertion (A): Electric lines of force cross each
other.
Reason (R): The resultant electric field at a point is
the superposition of the electric fields at that point.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is false.
21. Assertion (A): Using Gauss law, it is possible to find
the electric field at any point.
Reason (R): Gauss law is applicable for any type of
charge distribution.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is false.
22. Assertion (A): If there exists coulomb attraction
between two bodies, both of them may not be
charged.
Reason (R): In coulomb attraction two bodies as
oppositely charged.

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 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is false.
23. Assertion (A): Electric force acting on a proton and
an electron, moving in a uniform electric field is
same; the acceleration of electron is 1836 times that
of a proton.
Reason (R): Electron is lighter than proton.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is false.
24. Assertion (A): In electrostatics, electric lines of force
can never be closed loops, as a line can never start
and end on the same charge.
Reason (R): The number of electric lines of force
originating or terminating on a charge is
proportional to the magnitude of charge.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is false.
25. Assertion (A): A negative charge in an electric field
moves along the electric field.
Reason (R): On a negative charge a force acts in the
direction of the electric field.

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 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is false.

26. If the electric flux entering and leaving a closed

surface in air are ∅1 and ∅2 respectively, the net
electric charge enclosed within the surface is.
27. Two identical point charges, q each, are kept 2m
apart in air. A third point charge Q of unknown
magnitude and sign is placed on the line joining the
charges such that the system remains in
equilibrium. Find the position and nature of Q.
28. Two identical conducting balls A and B have
charges –Q and +3Q respectively. They are brought
in contact with each other and then separated by a
distance d apart. Find the nature of force between
them.
29. What is the electric flux trough a cube of side 1 cm
which encloses an electric dipole?
30. Two balls of equal positive charge q coulombs are
suspended by two insulating strings of equal length.
What would be the effect on the force when a
plastic sheet is inserted between the two?
31. Two charged conducting spheres of radii a and b are
connected to each other by a wire. Find the ratio of
the electric fields at their surfaces.
32. (A) A uniformly charged large plane sheet has
1
charge density 𝜎 = 18𝜋 × 10−15 𝐶⁄𝑚 2. Find the
electric field at point A which is 50cm from the
sheet.

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 Consider a straight line with three points P,Q and
R, placed 50 cm from the charged sheet on the right
side as shown in the figure. At which of these

points, does the magnitude of the electric field due

to the sheet remain the same as that at point A and
why?

(B) Two small identical conducting spheres carrying

charge 10𝜇𝐶 and -20 𝜇𝐶 when separated by a
distance of r, experience a force F each. If they are
brought in contact and then separated to a distance
of r/2, what is the new force between them in terms
of F?

33. Given a uniform electric field⃗⃗⃗𝐸 = 5 × 103 𝑖̂ 𝑁/𝐶, find

the flux of this field through a square of 10 cm on a side
whose plane is parallel to the y-z plane. What could be the
flux through the same square if the plane makes 300 angle
with the x axis?

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 34. Gauss Theorem. The total electric flux through a
1
closed surface, enclosing a volume, in vacuum is times the
𝜖0
net change, enclosed by the surface.
𝑞𝑒𝑛𝑐
⃗⃗⃗⃗ =
Φ = ∮ 𝐸⃗ ∙ 𝑑𝑆
𝜖 0

Gaussian Surface. Any closed surface imagined around the

charge distribution, so that Gauss theorem can be
conveniently applied to find electric field due to the give
charge distribution. Electric field due to infinitely long
straight charged wire of linear charge density λ; E = λ
/2π𝜖0 r where r is the perpendicular distance of the
observation point from the wire. Electric field due to an
infinite plane sheet of charge of surface charge density σ. E
= σ /2𝜖0

i) Two charges of magnitude -2Q and +Q are

located at points (a, 0) and (4a, 0) respectively.
What is the electric flux due to these charges
through a sphere of radius '3a' with its Centre at
origin?
A) Q/𝜖0 B) -2Q/𝜖0 C) 3Q/𝜖0 D) -3Q/𝜖0
ii) ii) A charge q is placed at the Centre of a cube
of side L. What is the electric flux passing
through each face to the cube?
A) q/5𝜖0 B) q/9𝜖0 C) q/6𝜖0 D) q/𝜖0

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 iii) Three charges +2q, -q and +3q are given. Two
charges + 2q and -q are enclosed with in a
surface 'S'. What is the electric flux due to this
configuration through the surface 'S'?
A) 5q/2𝜖0 B) 3q/𝜖0 C) 4q/𝜖0 D) q/𝜖0
iv) SI unit of electric flux is
A) 𝑁 2 𝑚𝐶 B) Nm𝐶 −2 C) 𝑁𝑚2 C D) N𝑚 −2 C

35. When electric dipole is placed in uniform electric

field, its two charges experience equal and opposite forces,
which cancel each other and hence net force on electric
dipole in uniform electric field is zero. However, these forces
are not collinear, so they give rise to some torque on the
dipole. Since net force on electric dipole in uniform electric
field is zero, so no work is done in moving the electric dipole
in uniform electric field. However, some work is done in
rotating the dipole against the torque acting on it

i) The dipole moment of a dipole in a uniform external field

Ē is B. Then the torque τ acting on the dipole is

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(a) τ=p x E (b) τ = P. Ē (c) τ = 2(p + Ē) (d) τ = (P + E)

ii) An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges, each

of magnitude 1.0 μC separated by a distance of 2.0 cm. The
dipole is placed in an external field of 105 N𝐶 −1 . The
maximum torque on the dipole is (a) 0.2 x 10−3 Nm (b) 1x
10−3 Nm (c) 2 x 10−3 Nm (d) 4x 10−3 Nm

iii) When an electric dipole is held at an angle in a uniform

electric field, the net force F and torque τ on the dipole are

(a) F= 0, τ = 0 (b) F≠0, τ≠0 (c) F=0, τ ≠ 0 (d) F≠0, τ=0

iv) An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric

field of intensity E. The dipole acquires a position such
that the axis of the dipole makes an angle with the
direction of the field. Assuming that potential energy of the
dipole to be zero when 0 = 90°, the torque and the
potential energy of the dipole will respectively be

(a) pEsinθ, -pEcosθ (b) pEsinθ, -2pEcosθ (c) pEsinθ,

2pEcosθ (d) pEcosθ, – pEsinθ

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 CHEMISTRY
“Knowing without seeing is at the heart of
chemistry.” – Roald Hoffmann

SOLUTION

(1) Calculate the amount of benzoic acid (𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻)

required for preparing 250ml of 0.15M solution in
methanol.
(2) Calculate the depression in the freezing point of water
when 10g of 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑙𝐶𝑂𝑂 𝐻Is required to 250g of
water.𝐾𝑎 =1.4× 10−3 ,𝐾𝑓 =1.86kkg mo𝐼 −1 .
(3) 19.5g of CH2 FCOOH is dissolved in 500 g of water The
depression in the freezing point of water. observed is
1.00 𝐶 calculate the van"t Hoff factor and dissociation
constant of fluoroacetic acid.
(4) Vapour pressure of water at 293 k is 17.535 mm Hg.
Calculate the vapour pressure of water at 293K when 25
g of glucose is dissolved in 450 g of water.
(5) The vapour pressure of water is 12.3 k Pa at
[Link] vapour pressure of 1 molal solution of a
non volatile solute in it.
(6) The mole fraction of water in a solution of HCL is
[Link] the molality of the solution .
(7) calculate the molarity of pure water at room
temperature of its density is 0.998g C𝑚 −3 .
(8) At 250 C,the vapour pressure of water is 23.75mm
[Link] the vapour pressure at the same
temperature of 5%aqueous solution of urea
(N𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑁𝐻2 ).

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(9) The vapour pressure of water at
0
20 𝑐 𝑖𝑠 17 𝑚𝑚 𝐻𝑔.Calculate the vapour pressure of a
solution containing 6g of glucose in 50g of water.
(10) Two liquids X and Y boil at 1100 𝐶 𝑎𝑛𝑑 1300 𝐶
[Link] one of them has higher vapour
pressure at 500 C?
(11) The vapour pressure of water at 298 K Is 23.75 mm
[Link] the vapour pressure at the same
temperature over 5% aqueous solution of
urea[CO(N𝐻2 )2 ].
(12)The vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain
temperature is 200 mm [Link] the same
temperature,the vapour pressure of a solution
containing 2 g of non volatile ,non electrolytic solid in
78 g of benzene is 195mm Hg. What is the molecular
weight of the solid?
(13) At 230 C,the vapour pressure of pure water is 23.76mm
of Hg and that of an aqueous dilute solution of urea is
22.98mm of [Link] the molality of the solution.
(14)A Current of dry air is passed through a bulb containing
5 g of a solute in 100g of water and then through water
[Link] loss in the weight of the solution and pure
water were respectively 0.78 g and 0.02g .calculate
(a) Relative lowering of vapour pressure and
(b) Molecular weight of solute.
(15)A Solution containing 12.5 g of a non electrolyte
substance in 175 g of water gave boiling point elevation
of 0.70 K. Calculate the molar mass of the substance
.(𝑘𝑏 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟=0.52𝑘 𝑘𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙−1 ).
(16)10 grams of a non volatile solute when dissolved in 100
grams of benzene raise its boiling point by
10 𝐶. 𝑤ℎ𝑎𝑡 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒 ? (𝑘𝑏 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑏𝑒𝑛𝑧𝑒𝑛𝑒 =
2.53 𝑘𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 ).

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(17)A Solution containing 0.5216 g of naphthalene
(Molecular mass =128.16)in 50 g of CC𝐿4. yields on
boiling an elevation of 0.402 k while a solution of
0.6216g of an unknown solute in
(18)The same mass of solvent gives a boiling point elevation
of [Link] the molecular mass of the unknown
solute.
(19)A Solution of 3.795 g of sulphur in 100g of carbon
disulphide(b.p. 46. 300 𝐶,
∇Hvap = 6400cal per mole)boils
at 46.660 [Link] is the formula of sulphur
molecule in the solution?
(20) The air is a mixture of a number of [Link] major
components are oxygen and nitrogen with approximate
proportion of 20% is to 79 % by volume at 298 [Link]
water is in equilibrium with air at a pressure of 10
[Link] 298 K, If the Henry”s law constants for oxygen
and nitrogen are 3.30X107 mm and 6.51 X107 mm
respectively,calculate the composition of these gases in
water.
(21) Henry’s law constant for the molarity of methane in
𝐶6 𝐻6 at 298K is 4.27 X 1105 mm Hg . Calculate the
solubility of methane in
𝐶6𝐻6 𝑎𝑡298 𝐾 𝑢𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑟 760𝑚𝑚 𝐻 𝑔.
(22) The Henry’s law constant for oxygen dissolved water is
4.34 X 104 𝑎𝑡𝑚 𝑎𝑡 250 c. IF the partial pressure of
oxygen in air is 0.2atm under atmosphereic conditions
,calculate the concentration (In moles per litre)of
dissolved oxygen in water in equilibrium with air at
250 C.
(23)Air contains 02 and 𝑁2 In the ratio of 1:4 .Calculate the
ratio of solubilities in terms of mole fractions of 02 and

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 𝑁2 dissolved in water at atmospheric pressure and room
temperature at which Henry’s constanr for 𝑜2 and 𝑁2
are 3.30 X 107 torr and 6.60X107 torr respectively.
(24)The partial pressure of ethane over a saturated solution
containing 6.56X 10−2 of ethane is 1bar . If solution
contains 5.00X 102 g of ethane ,than what shall be the
partial pressure of the gas ?
(25)IF Nitrogen gas is bubbled through
H02 𝑎𝑡 293𝑘 , ℎ𝑜𝑤 𝑚𝑎𝑛𝑦 𝑚𝑖𝑙𝑙𝑖𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑁2 𝑔𝑎𝑠 ,would
diddolved in 1litre of 𝐻2 o. Assume that 𝑁2 Exerts a
partial pressure of 0.987 bar . given ( 𝐾𝐻 )𝑁2=76 .48𝐾 𝑏𝑎𝑟.
(26)At what partial pressure ,oxygen will have a solubility
of 0.05 g𝑙 −1 in water at 293 k ? HENRY’S Constant
(𝑘𝐻 ) For oxygen in water at 293k is 34.86kbar .Assume
the density of the solution to be same as that of the
solvent .
(27)The vapour pressure of ethanol at 298 k is 40 mm of
Hg. Its moie fraction in a solution with methanol is
[Link] is its vapour pressure in solution if the
mixture obeyes Raoult’s law ?
(28)Toluene and benzene are tow arenws that form an ideal
solution . At 310k the vapour pressure of benzene is 160
mm( Hg) and that of toluene is 60mm (Hg )
[Link] the partial pressure of each
component and the total pressure over the following
solutions :
(1)one made by mixing 3 moles of benzene
and three moles of toluene.
(2)One made by mixing 4 moles of toluene
with one molle of benzene.
(3)One made by mixing equal masses of
toluene and benzene .

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 Two liquids A and B from an ideal solution ,
At 300k , The vapour pressure of a solution
containing 1 mol of A and 3 mol of B is 550
mm Hg. At the same temperature , if one
mole of B is added to this solution , the
vapour pressure of the solution increases by
10 mm HG. Calculate the vapour pressure of
pure A and B .
(29)The vapoue pressure of acetome at 300k is 45 mmHg .
The vapour pressure of acetone in a solution with 1 –
propanol is 36mm [Link] the mole fraction of
acetone in the solution if it obeys the Raoult,s law .
(30)An aqupous solutions of glucose is made by dissolving
10g of glucouse
(𝐶6 𝐻12 06)𝑖𝑛 90𝑔 𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑡 303𝑘.𝐼𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑣𝑎𝑝𝑜𝑢𝑟 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑒 of
pour water at 303 k be 32.8mm Hg, what would be the
vapour pressure of the solution ?

Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solution . At a

certain temperature , the vapour pressure of the pure
benzene is 150mm Hg and of pure toluene is 50mm Hg .
calculate the vapour pressure of the solution containing
equal weights of two substances at this temperature .

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 BIOLOGY
“BIOLOGY IS THE MOST POWERFUL TECHNOLOGY
EVER CREATED. DNA IS SOFTWARE, PROTEINE ARE
HARDWARE, AND CELLS ARE FACTORIES.”- RYAN
BETHENCOURT
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

1. How may pollen mother cells should undergo

meiotic division to produce 48 pollen grains?
a) 8 b) 12 c) 16 d) 24
2. 60% of angiosperms shed their pollens at the
a)2-celled stage b) 3-celled stage c) 4-celled d)
1-celled stage

3. Pollen grains retain viability for months in plants

belonging to different families given below

i) Solanaceae ii)Leguminosae iii)Graminaceae

iv) Rosaceae v) Liliaceae

The correct option is

a) i,ii,v b) i,ii,iv c) ii, iv,v d) i, iii,v

4. Match the following columns:
COLUMN I (OVARY) COLUMN II
(PISTIL)
A) Monocarpellary 1) Free pistil
B) Multicarpellary 2) Fused pistil
C) Syncarpous 3) Many pistil
D) Apocarpous 4) Single pistil

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 CODES:
A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 3 4 2 1
d) 4 3 1 2
5) Enclosed within the integuments of typical anatropous
ovule is a diploid mass of cellular tissue known as
a) Megaspore mother cell b)nucellus c)
synergids d) embryo sac
6) Which of the following outbreeding devices are used by
majority of flowering plants to prevent inbreeding
depression
a) Pollen release and stigma receptivity are not
synchronized
b) Different position of anther and stigma
c) Production of different types of pollen grains
d) Formation of unisexual flowers along with
bisexual flowers
7) Pollen grains of different plants differ in
a) Size and shape b) colour and design c)
size, shape and design d) size, shape, colour
and design
8) During Microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs
a) Endothecium b) microspore mother cell c)
microspore tetrads d) pollen grains
9) Starting from the innermost part, the correct sequence
of parts in an ovule is
a) Egg, nucellus, embryo sac, integument
b) Egg, embryo sac, nucellus, integument
c) Embryo sac, nucellus, integument, egg
d) Egg, integument, embryo sac, nucellus

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10) In a flower is the megaspore mother cell forms
megaspore without undergoing meiosis and if one of the
megaspores develop into an embryo sac, its nuclei
would be
a) Haploid b) diploid c) few haploid and few
diploid d) with varying ploidy

Micropyle exists in
a) seed b) ovule c) both (a) and (b) d) fruit
12) In angiosperms functional megaspore develops into
a) embryo sac b) ovule c) endosperm d)
pollen sac
13) Majority of plants use
a) biotic agents for pollination b) non-biotic
agents for pollination c) air for pollination
d) animals for pollination
14) Pollination by snails and slugs are called
a) ornithophily b) chiropterophily c)
entomophily d) malacophily
15) From the situations given below, choose the one
that prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy
a) Monoecious plant breeding unisexual flowers
dioecious plant breeding only male or female flowers
c) monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
d) dioecious plant with bisexual flowers
16) In the embroyos of typical dicot and a grass, true
homologous structures are
a) coleorrhiza and coleoptiles
b) coleoptiles and scutellum
c) cotyledons and scutellum
d) hypocotyl and radical
17) Find out the right statement(s)
I) endosperm formation is the prior event than
zygote formation

20 | P a g e
 II) angiospermic endosperm is 3n
III) gymnospermic endosperm is n
Only I b) II and III c) I and III d) I,II and III
18) Find out the right statement (s)
I) most common endosperm is of nuclear type
II) coconut water is male gametophyte
III) coconut has both free and cellular types of endosperm
I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I,II and III
19) Testa of the seed is produced from
a) ovary wall b) hilum c) outer integument of
ovule d) funicle
20) number of seeds are equal to
a) number of ovules b) number of ovaries c) both (a) and
(b) d) none of these
21) non-albuminous seed
a) has endosperm b) has thick cotyledons c) has food
storage in cotyledons d) both (b) and (c)
22) The phenomenon observed in some plants where in
parts of sexual apparatus are used for forming embryos
without fertilization is called
a) parthenocarpy b) apomixes c)vegetative propagation
d)sexual reproduction
23) What is the function of tassels in the corn cob?
a) to disperse pollen grain b)to protect the seeds c)to
attract insects d)to trap pollen grains
24) Given below are two statements:
Statement 1: cleistogamous flowers are invariably
autogamous
Statement 2: cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no
chance of cross pollination
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

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Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct
25) In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes
place by
a) insects and wind b)water currents only c)wind and
water d) insects and water
26) What type of pollination takes place in Vallisneria?
a) pollination occurs in submerged condition in water
b)flowers emerge above surface of water and pollination
occurs by insects c) flowers emerge above water surface,
and pollen is carried by winds
d) male flowers are carried by water currents to female
flowers at surface of water
27) The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to
a) megasporangium b) megasporophyll c)megaspore
mother cell d) megaspore

28) Which one if the following statements is not true

a) pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
b) stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop
breeding programmes
c) tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
d) exine of pollen grain is made up of sporopollenin

29) In angiosperms microsporogenesis and

megasporogenesis
a) involves meiosis b) occur in ovule c) occur in anther
d) form gametes without further divisions

30) Megaspores are produced from the megaspore mother

cells after

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a) mitosis b) formation of thick wall c)differentiation
d) meiosis

31)What does filiform apparatus do at the entrance into

ovule
a) it brings about opening of pollen tube
b) it guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg
c) it helps in the entry of pollen tube into synergid
d) it prevents entry of more than 1 pollen tube into the
embryo sac

32) The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac

in the dicot plant is
a) 3+3+2 b) 2+4+2 c)3+2+3 d)2+3+3

33) If there are 4 cells in anther, what will be the number of

pollen grains
a) 16 b) 12 c)8 d)4

34) Number of meiotic divisions required to produce

200/400 seeds of pea would be
a) 200/400 b) 400/800 c) 300/600 d) 250/500

35) Male gametophyte of angiosperms monocots is

a)microsporangium b)nucellus c)microspore d)stamen

36) Generative Cell was destroyed by laser but a normal

pollen tube was still formed because
a) vegetative cell is not damaged b)contents of killed
generative cell stimulate pollen grain
c) laser beam stimulate growth of pollen tube d)the region
of emergence of pollen tube is not harmed

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37) Double fertilization is characteristic of
a) angiosperms b)pteridophytes c)gymnosperms
d)bryophytes

38) Coconut water from a tender coconut is

a) innermost layers of the seed coat b) degenerated
nucellus c)immature embryo d)fre nuclear endosperm

39) Perisperm differs from endosperm in

a) being a diploid tissue b)its formation by fusion of
secondary nucleus with several sperms
c) being a haploid tissue d) having no reserve food

40) The viability of seeds is tested by

a) 2,6 dichlorophenol indophenols b) 2,3,5-
triphenyl tetrazolium chloride
c) Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMO) d) safranine

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 MATHEMATICS
“MATHEMATICS IS THE MOST BEAUTIFUL AND
MOST POWERFUL CREATION OF THE HUMAN
SPRIT.” –STEFAN BANACH

RELATION AND FUNCTION

IMPORTANT POINTS

Void relation :- let A be a non-empty set then ∅ ⊂ 𝐴 × 𝐴

and it follows that ∅ is a relation on A which is called the
empty or void or null relation

1. Universal relation :- let A be a non-empty set, then 𝐴 ×

𝐴 ⊆ 𝐴 × 𝐴 and it follows that 𝐴 × 𝐴 is a relation on A
which is called the universal relation.
2. Identity relation:- the relation 𝐼𝐴 on non-empty set A is
called an identity relation, if every element of A is
related to itself.
𝐼𝐴 = {(𝑎, 𝑎): 𝑎 ∈ 𝐴}
Eg. 𝐼𝐴 = {(1,1),(2,2)} is identity elements of set A
={1,2}
3. Reflexive relation:- if every elements of a set A is
related to ifself. Eg. A = {1,2,3} then 𝑅1 =
{(1,1),(1,2),(2,3),(2,2)} is not a reflexive relation reason
is R does not contain (3,3) element.
𝑅2 ={(1,1),(2,3),(2,2),(3,1),(3,3)} this relation is reflexive

25 | P a g e
 relation because each elements of A contains its identity
elements.
4. All reflexive are identity but all identity is not
reflexive.
5. Symmetric relation:- A relation R on a set is called a
symmetric relation if (𝑥, 𝑦) ∈ 𝑅 → (𝑦, 𝑥) ∈ 𝑅 i.e. if x is
related to y , then y is also related to x. In a set of
triangles if A is congruent to B then B is congruent to
B. but every time this condition is not true for example
if x is multiple of y then conversion argument is not
true.
6. Transitive relation :- in a relation R , if (𝑥, 𝑦) ∈
𝑅𝑎𝑛𝑑 (𝑦, 𝑧) ∈ 𝑅 𝑖𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑖𝑒𝑠 (𝑥, 𝑧) ∈ 𝑅, then a given
relation is known as transitive relation. In these
relation second component of (x,y) and first component
of (y,z) should be equal .
7. Equivalence:- A relation R on a set is called an
equivalence relation, if
a. R is reflexive :- (𝑎, 𝑎 ) ∈ 𝑅, ∀𝑎 ∈ 𝐴.
b. R is symmetric :- (𝑎, 𝑏) ∈ 𝑅 → (𝑏, 𝑎) ∈ 𝑅.
c. R is transitive:- (𝑎, 𝑏) ∈ 𝑅 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (𝑏, 𝑐) ∈ 𝑅 →
(𝑎, 𝑐) ∈ 𝑅.

1. One-one function (injective ):- if a different

elements of A have different image in B
𝑎 = 𝑏 → 𝑓 (𝑎) = 𝑓 (𝑏)

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 If a function domain contain unique solution in
codomain that function is known as injective.
𝑝(𝑛, 𝑚 ), 𝑖𝑓 𝑛 ≥ 𝑚
The number of injective :-{
0 𝑜𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑤𝑖𝑠𝑒
where n = order of range and m = order of
domain.
To make understandable let imagine that school
have conduct a fresher party. Each students need to
select a partner for dance. If each students select
only one partner that mapping is known as one –
one mapping. If students choose more than one
partners then that mapping is not injection , that
mapping is known as many – 0ne mapping.
2. Onto function (surjective):- if each elements of
domain has its pre-image in co-domain or if a
function range is equal to codomain that function is
called surjective.
For each 𝑏 ∈ 𝐵, there exist 𝑎 ∈ 𝐴, where 𝑓: 𝐴 → 𝐵
such that f(a)=b.
If a set A has m elements and set B has n elements,
then the number of onto functions from A to B
The number of onto = nm – nC1(n-1)m + nC2(n-2)m –
nC3(n-3)m+….- nCn-1 (1)m

Note that this formula is applicable iff m is greater

than or equal to n.
For example, in the case of onto function from A to
B, all the elements of B should be used. If A has m
elements and B has 2 elements, then the number of
onto functions is 2m-2. From a set A of m elements

27 | P a g e
 to a set B of 2 elements, the total number of
functions is 2m. In these functions, 2 functions are
not onto (If all elements are mapped to the 1st
element of B or all elements are mapped to the 2nd
element of B). So, the number of onto
function is 2m-2.
Note:- if a function is not injective that function
said to be many-one mapping
If a function is not surjective, then given function is
known as into mapping.
Important point: All function are mapping , but all
mapping are function.
How to identify the function?
If the first component of the relation is unique that
relation is known as function. Eg
{(a,1),(b,3),(c,5),(d,1)} this relation is function
because all first components in this set contain no
identical elements.

Bijection :- if a mapping is both injective and surjective

that mapping is known as bijection. In this mapping
domain =co-domain = [Link] number of bijective = n!,
where n = order of domain or co-domain or range.

Problem

1. Find the number of bijection of a set contain

106 elements.

28 | P a g e
2. Find the number of onto mapping from a set
{1,2,3,4} to itself.
3. Relations 𝑅1 , 𝑅2 , 𝑅3 , 𝑅4 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑅5 are defined on
the sets 𝐴 = {1,2,3}
𝑅1 = {(1,1)(1,2)(2,3)(2,1)(3,2)(3,3)}
𝑅2 = {(3,3)}
𝑅3 = {(1,2)}
𝑅4 = {(1,2)(2,1)}
𝑅5 = {(1,2)(2,3)(1,3)}

4. Test whether the following relation are

reflexive, symmetric and transitive
a. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): 𝑎 + 𝑏 = 1}
b. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 > 0}
c. R={(𝑎, 𝑏): 𝑎 2 − 4𝑎𝑏 + 3𝑏2 = 0}
d. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): |𝑎 −
𝑏| 𝑖𝑠 𝑚𝑢𝑙𝑡𝑖𝑝𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑝, 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑝 𝑖𝑠 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑒}
e. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): 𝑎 ≤ 𝑏2 }
f. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): 𝑎 ≤ 𝑏3 }
g. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): 𝑎 ≤ 𝑏}
h. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): (𝑎 −
𝑏)𝑖𝑠 𝑑𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑠𝑖𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟}
i. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): |𝑎 − 𝑏| 𝑖𝑠 𝑑𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑠𝑖𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑓 7}
j. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): |𝑎 − 𝑏| 𝑖𝑠 𝑚𝑢𝑙𝑡𝑖𝑝𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑓 3}
k. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): 𝑎 𝑖𝑠 𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑏
l. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): 1 + 𝑎𝑏 > 0}
m. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): 𝑎 𝑖𝑠 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑙 𝑡𝑜 𝑏}
n. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): 𝑎 𝑖𝑠 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑡𝑜 𝑏}
o. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): |𝑎| < 𝑏}

29 | P a g e
 p. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): ℎ𝑐𝑓 (𝑎, 𝑏) = 1}
q. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): 𝑎, 𝑏 ∈ 𝑁, 2𝑎 + 𝑏 = 41}
r. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): 𝑎 − 𝑏 > 0}
s. 𝑅 = {(𝐴, 𝐵): 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵}
t. 𝑅 = {(𝐴, 𝐵): 𝐴 ∩ 𝐵}
u. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): 𝑎 =
2𝑘 . 𝑏 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑠𝑜𝑚𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑔𝑒𝑟 𝑘 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑎, 𝑏 ∈ 𝑍}
v. 𝑅 = {(𝑎, 𝑏): 𝑎 − 𝑏 + √2, 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑎, 𝑏 ∈ 𝑅}
5. Give an example
a. That R is equivalence
b. That R is reflexive and symmetric but nor
transitive
c. That R is symmetric and transitive but nor
reflexive
d. That R is reflexive but neither symmetric
nor transitive
e. That r is transitive bit neither symmetric
nor reflexive

6. Examine that the function is injection or

surjection or both
a. 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥 2 , 𝑓: 𝑍 → 𝑍
b. 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥 3 , 𝑓: 𝑍 → 𝑍
c. 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥 + 1 , 𝑓: 𝑅 → 𝑅
𝑥+1
d. 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥−1 , 𝑓: 𝑅 − {1} → 𝑅 − {1}
𝜋 𝜋
e. 𝑓 (𝑥) = sin 𝑥 , 𝑓: [− 2 , 2 ] → [−1,1]
f. 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 1 , 𝑓: 𝑅 → 𝑅
1 𝑅 𝑅
g. 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥 , 𝑓: {0} → {0}

30 | P a g e
 2𝑥+1
h. 𝑓 (𝑥) = , 𝑓: 𝑅 − {−1} → 𝑅 − {2}
𝑥+1
2
i. 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 1, 𝑓: 𝑅 → 𝑅
j. 𝑓 (𝑥) = 2𝑥 , 𝑓: 𝑅 → 𝑅
k. 𝑓 (𝑥) = 1 + tan2 𝑥 , 𝑓: 𝑅 → 𝑅
l. 𝑓 (𝑥) = log|𝑥 2 + 1| , 𝑓: 𝑅 − {0} → 𝑅 − {0}
1+𝑥
m. 𝑓 (𝑥) = log | | , 𝑓: 𝑅 − {0} → 𝑅 − {0}
1−𝑥
7. Prove that 𝑓(𝑥) = |𝑥| 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑓: 𝑅 → 𝑅 is many-
one and onto mapping
8. Prove that 𝑓(𝑥) = cos 𝑥 where 𝑓: 𝑅 → 𝑅 is not
one-one and onto mapping
9. Show that the exponential function 𝑓: 𝑅 → 𝑅,
given by 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑒 𝑥 is both one-one and onto.
𝑥 + 1 𝑖𝑓 𝑥 𝑖𝑠 𝑒𝑣𝑒𝑛
10. Show that the 𝑓(𝑥) = { is
𝑥 − 1 𝑖𝑓 𝑥 𝑖𝑠 𝑜𝑑𝑑
one-one and onto mapping.
11. Prove that 𝑓(𝑥) = log 𝑥 is bijective mapping.
12. Fill in the blank:-
a. Set A has 3 elements and set B has 4
elements. The number of injections that can
be defined from A to B is ________.
b. The number of surjections from
A={1,2,3,….,n}, n≥ 2, onto B={a,b} is
_________.
c. Let A and B be two finite sets having m and
n elements respectively. Then the total
number of mappings from A to B is
_______.

31 | P a g e
 d. The total number of injective mappings
from a set m elements to a set with n
elements, 𝑚 ≤ 𝑛, is ____________.
e. Let A be a set containing 10 distinct
elements, then the total number of distinct
function from A to A is _________.

Note : using horizontal line w.r.t x-axis we can identify that

given function is injective or not. Eg.

In this graph the line above the x- axis intersects 2

times with graph it means that function is not one-one. For
one-one line should intersect only at one point.

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