MFirst Term Exam Questions 2022
MFirst Term Exam Questions 2022
1. Agriculture started about ______ years ago. (a) 15000 (b) 20000 (c) 5000 (d) 10000
2. The latin word “ager” means (a) agriculture (b) field (c) farm (d) cultivation
3. The three basic necessities of man are (a) money, employment, food (b) clothing, family, money (c) food,
clothing, shelter (d) good job, shelter, car
4. Agriculture provides _______ for textile industries (a) cocoa (b) sugar (c) rubber (d) cotton
5. _______ is concerned with education of farmers on the latest research findings and innovations in the field. (a)
agricultural extension (b) agricultural economics (c) agricultural engineering (d) agricultural mechanization
6. Hunting of animals, gathering of fruits are traced back to …………. (a) nomads (b) early men (c) ancestor (d) oyo
empire
7. Which of these is not a reason for keeping bees? (a) honey (b) pollination (c) beautification (d) beewax
8. Horticulture deals with growing of ………….. (a) arable crops (b) annual crops (c) permanent crops (d) ornamental
crops
9. The part of the plant that is covered by the soil is the (a) root (b) stem (c) leaf (d) flower
10. All of these are examples of dicotyledons except (a) orange (b) maize (c) tomato (d) groundnut
11. Which of the following crops do not possess fibrous root? (a) maize (b) coconut (c) cocoa (d) oil palm
12. The latin word “cultura” means (a) agriculture (b) field (c) farm (d) cultivation
13. The agricultural raw material used in food and beverage industries is (a) cocoa (b) sugar (c) rubber (d) cotton
14. Crop plants can be classified based on habitat into (a) monocotyledons and dicotyledons (b) aquatic and
terrestrial plants (c) anthers and stigma (d) fruits and nuts
15. The reproductive part of plant is …………. (a) root (b) stem (c) flower (d) leaf
16. Which of the following is not an importance of agriculture (a) food for man (b) materials for shelter (c) materials
for clothing (d) provision of raw materials for petroleum
17. Monocotyledons have the following characteristics except ……… (a) tap root (b) fibrous root (c) one seed leaf (d)
narrow leaves
18. Crops which complete their life cycle within two years are called …………… crops. (a) annual (b) biennial (c)
perennial (d) biannual
19. To give flavour or special taste to food,………………. crops are needed. (a) oil (b) beverage (c) spices (d) vegetable
20. …………… can be defined as the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower. (a)
transportation (b) photosynthesis (c) fertilization (d) pollination
21. One of the following is the most important function of the leaf? (a) production of food for plant (b) anchorage of
the plant firmly to the soil (c) absorption of mineral nutrients from roots (d) circulation of gases for the use of
the plant
22. The rearing of snail is called ……………… (a) apiculture (b) heliculture (c) floriculture (d) horticulture
23. The branch of agriculture that deals with the study, prevention and control of pests and diseases of livestock is
………………. (a) animal science (b) animal management (c) veterinary medicine (d) pest and disease control
24. The following are branches of agriculture except ………….. (a) fishery and crop production (b) soil science (c)
horticulture and animal science (d) mining and drilling
25. The process of deliberately keeping or culturing bees is known as …………….. (a) apiculture (b) bumble bees (c)
heliculture (d) horticulture
26. The process by which green plants manufacture their food is called ……………….. (a) pollination (b) photosynthesis
(c) carbondioxide (d) nutrition
27. Which of the following are fibre crops? (a) groundnut, jute, cotton (b) coconut, cotton, sisal (c) jute, sisal, cotton
(d) cotton, groundnut, coconut
28. The system of rearing farm animals for different purposes is known as ………………. (a) agriculture (b) crop farming
(c) apiculture (d) livestock farming
29. Which of the following is used in the clothing industry? (a) cotton (b) kenaf (c) jute (d) palm
30. The major part that prepares food for the plants is ………… (a) flower (b) leaf (c) stem (d) root
31. Farmers that specialize in bee production to produce honey and wax are referred to as ……….. (a) agriculturists
(b) heliculturists (c) apiculturists (d) horticulturists
32. Poultry includes the following except ……………. (a) ducks (b) turkeys (c) chickens (d) pigs
33. Equipment in beekeeping includes the following except ……………. (a) wooden trays (b) wooden frames (c) bee
suit (d) boots
34. Legumes are very important sources of …………… in our diet. (a) carbohydrate (b) protein (c) vitamins (d) mineral
salts
35. Which of the following is not part of plant shoot system? (a) leaves (b) fruit (c) root (d) branches
36. Dicotyledons have ………………. (a) four seed leaves (b) one seed leaf (c) three seed leaves (d) two seed leaves
37. Which of these crops is grown mostly in the northern part of Nigeria? (a) sorghum (b) kolanut (c) banana (d) oil-
palm
38. One of the following is a perennial crop. (a) corn (b) coconut (c) cowpea (d) cabbage
39. The following are leguminous crops except …………….. (a) groundnut (b) cowpea (c) carrot (d) soya bean
40. Which of the following is an aquatic plant? (a) sorghum (b) millet (c) carpet grass (d) algae
SECTION B: THEORY
1) a. State four differences between monocotyledons and dicotyledons. b. List the different parts of a plant and
give one function of each part.
2) a. Crops can be classified based on their life span into three main groups. Mention them. b. Explain the
classes of crops mentioned in 2a with examples. c. What is a crop?
3) a. Enumerate three importance of agriculture to the nation. b. Define aquatic plants and terrestrial plants and
give examples. c. List six scope of agriculture.
4) a. What is fishery? Give six examples of aquatic organisms. b. Highlight six classes of crops based on their
economic uses, with two examples of each class. c. What is the meaning of agriculture?
5) a. Define forestry. b. List six examples of ornamental plants. c. What are ornamental plants?
6) a. State three adaptive features of terrestrial plants. b. What is livestock farming? c. Highlight five importance
of agriculture to the individual.
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION
Subject:Agricultural science Class: JSS 2
DURATION: 1 HOUR 15 MINUTES
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE
1. ………………. are rectangular farm structures used for storing grains. (a)cribs (b) barns (c) rhumbus (d) silos
2. Fish ……………. are used for making glue. (a) fins (b) gills (c) bones (d) skin
3. The farming system where deep rooted crops are followed by shallow rooted crops on the same piece of land is
known as …………………… (a) mixed cropping (b) crop rotation (c) monoculture (d) shifting cultivation
4. Fish and fish products are important sources of …………………. to man. (a) protein (b) mineral (c) water (d)
carbohydrate
5. Which of these methods is not good for harvesting fish? (a) basket (b) hook and line (c) net (d) chemical
6. The practice of growing the same crop on a piece of land year after year is known as …………….. (a) crop rotation
(b) mono cropping (c) continuous cropping (d) mixed cropping
7. ………………… can be stored in a barn. (a) cocoa (b) yam (c) tomatoes (d) onion
8. Planting of crops and rearing of animals on the same piece of land at the same time is called …………… (a) mixed
farming (b) ley farming (c) pastoral farming (d) mixed cropping
9. Two types of mixed cropping are ……………. and …………….. (a) crop rotational and inter cropping (b) continuous
cropping and mono-cropping (c) mono-cropping and inter planting (d) inter cropping and inter planting
10. Shagreen is a special leather gotten from …………….. (a) crocodile (b) turtle (c) shark (d) whale
11. Which of the following animals are kept in pastoral farming? (a) pig (b) sheep (c) poultry (d) guinea pig
12. The following are aquatic organisms except? (a) crocodiles and snakes (b) oysters and periwinkles (c) lobsters
and crayfish (d) fish and prawns
13. Cutting, layering, budding and grafting of plants are examples of ………………… propagation. (a) sexual (b) bisexual
(c) fertilization (d) asexual
14. Shelled maize is best stored in ………………… (a) rhumbus (b) silo (c) crib (d) barn
15. Based on ……………., fishes can be classified into fresh water and salt water fishes. (a) morphology (b) habitat (c)
properties (d) size
16. Which of the following is not a cropping system? (a) bush fallowing (b) crop rotation (c) mixed cropping (d) none
of the above
17. Fingerlings refer to the young of ……………. (a) duck (b) turkey (c) guinea pig (d) fish
18. Fruits and seeds in flowering plants are formed through ………………. (a) fertilization and particurition (b)
organization and circulation (c) pollination and fertilization (d) pollination and gestation
19. An example of a crop propagated by corm is ………………. (a) ginger (b) cocoyam (c) plantain (d) sugar cane
20. The following are farm structures except ……………….. (a) weighbridge (b) crib (c) fences (d) grazing paddocks
21. Farm buildings should be sited on elevated land to ………….. (a) avoid offensive odour (b) receive maximum
illumination (c) be easily accessible (d) avoid erosion and drainage problems
22. Which of the following fish products have medicinal properties? (a) whale oil (b) shark oil (c) cod-liver oil (d)
crocodile-liver oil
23. The male reproductive part of a flower is the ………………. (a) pollen grain (b) stamen (c) ovule (d) stigma
24. An example of a cartilaginous fish is …………….. (a) salmon (b) catfish (c) trout (d) mackerel
25. Which of these is an advantage of nomadic herding? (a) high death rate (b) uncontrolled breeding (c) high
incidence of pests and diseases (d) variety of pasture
26. The combination of pasture with crop production is known as …………… (a) pastoral farming (b) ranching (c) ley
farming (d) mixed farming
27. ……………… involves the growing of only one type of crop on a piece of land at any given time. (a) continuous
cropping (b) sole cropping (c) multiple cropping (d) none of the above
28. The female sex cell of a plant is the …………… (a) ovule (b) ovary (c) stigma (d) style
29. The method of crop propagation which involves the uniting of a whole shoot into another plant is known as
…………….. (a) grafting (b) budding (c) layering (d) cutting
30. The method in which two crops are planted on a piece of land and the first crop matures and is harvested
before the second is known as ………..... (a) continuous cropping (b) inter – cropping (c) inter –planting (d) relay
cropping
31. The part of ginger used for propagation is the …………… (a) corm (b) stem (c) rhizome (d) tuber
32. The rearing of grazing animals on a large expanse of fence land is known as ……………. (a) pastoral farming (b) ley
farming (c) mixed farming (d) ranching
33. ………………. is an earthen container, with the top covered with thatch, used for storing grains. (a) silo (b) barn (c)
crib (d) rhumbus
34. Shells of …………….. and ……………….. are sometimes mixed with cement and sand to make the walls of buildings
stronger. (a) crabs, periwinkles (b) shrimps, snails (c) oysters, periwinkles (d) oysters, lobsters
35. One of the following is not a method of fish preservation. (a) frying (b) boiling (c) smoking (d) salting
36. The growing of two or more crops on the same farm in the same year is referred to as …………….. (a) multiple
cropping (b) inter cropping (c) mixed cropping (d) relay cropping
37. The choice of the fishing method and equipment depends on the following except ………….. (a) area (b) type of
aquatic animal (c) capital available for acquiring the materials (d) none of the above
38. One of the following is not a wounding equipment used in fishing. (a) hooks (b) arrows (c) guns (d) spears
39. The bending of a mature branch or shoot, down to the ground without breaking for purpose of propagation is
called …………… (a) layering (b) grafting (c) budding (d) cutting
40. Which of the following can damage farm building and structure constructed with wood? (a) earthworm (b)
termites (c) grasshopper (d) soldier ants
SECTION B: THEORY
1) a. Define farm structures. b. Enumerate four ways of maintaining farm structures and buildings. c. State four
importance of good siting of farm structures and buildings.
2) a. Write a short note on ranching. b. What is mixed farming? c. Identify two advantages and two disadvantages
of mixed farming.
3) a. Define propagation. b. Highlight three advantages of vegetative propagation. c. Enumerate two advantages
of sexual reproduction.
4) a. What is a fish pond? State four conditions necessary for siting a fish pond. b. Identify the risk factors involved
in fish farming. c. Highlight four ways of maintaining a fish pond.
5) a. What does farming system mean? b. State three advantages and two disadvantages of bush fallowing. c.
Enumerate three principles guiding crop rotation.
6) a. Highlight four purposes of fencing b. Write a short note on the classification of fishes.
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION
Subject:Agricultural science Class: JSS 3
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE DURATION: 1 HOUR 15 MINUTES
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in this section.
1. The most suitable packaging material for dried agricultural produce is (a) polythene bags (b) jute sacks (c) metal
drums (d) cans
2. The price of an agricultural product depends on an environment called (a) market (b) supply (c) demand (d) all
of the above
3. When the supply of an agricultural product is low, the price will be (a) low (b) high (c) moderate (d) not sure
4. The process of making people aware of the available agricultural products through radio, television and
newspapers is ………. (a) advertisement (b) broadcasting (c) marketing (d) announcement
5. Cardboard boxes are most appropriate for packing (a) rice grains (b) yam flour (c) bananas (d) groundnut oil
6. The following are factors that affect pricing of agricultural product except ……………. (a) perishable nature of
products (b) cost of transportation (c) season products (d) harvesting period
7. The marketing practice of creating a name, logo, symbol or design to easily identify a produce is called ……………..
(a) advertising (b) pricing (c) branding (d) packaging
8. All of the following are examples of packaging materials except? (a) plastic (b) cardboard (c) polythene (d)
ceramic
9. The following are sources of farm power except………….. (a) sun (b) sand (c) water (d) wind
10. Which of these implements is used for repair and maintenance of tractors? (a) lathe (b) mill (c) sheller (d)
harrow
11. ……………… serves as a way for consumers to easily identify one product from another. (a) branding (b)advertising
(c) packaging (d) all of the above
12. One of these is not a purpose of advertising. (a) to increase the price of the products (b) to attract the interest of
people (c) to influence people to pay a good price for the products (d) none of the above
13. Plastic bottles are used in storing …………... (a) groundnut (b) millet (c) vegetable oil (d) mackerel
14. Which of these is not a farm machine? (a) sprayer (b) planter (c) harvester (d) saw
15. The media for advertising farm produce include the following except …………….. (a) facebook, whatsapp (b) radio,
television (c) trade fair, war fair (d) newspaper, magazine
16. Which of these factors can affect pricing? (a) scarcity (b) spoilage (c) surplus (d) all of the above
17. The act of placing farm products in crates is called …………… (a) storage (b) packaging (c) distribution (d) packing
18. Advertisement is done to create ……………… about a new agricultural produce. (a) awareness (b) income (c)
education (d) service
19. Liquids of large quantities are packaged using …………….. (a) plastic bottles (b) metal drums (c) crates (d) metal
cans
20. A high demand for an agricultural product, and a low supply of the product will result in ………….. (a) high price
(b) moderate price (c) low price (d) all of the above
21. The following are examples of seasonal produce except ……………. (a) okra (b) fresh maize (c) beans (d) avocado
pear
22. The type of advertising aimed at shifting interest from one product to another is ……………… advertising. (a)
indirect (b) specific (c) direct (d) competitive
23. The most suitable packaging material for onion is ………….. (a) barrel (b) jute sack (c) basket (d) cardboard boxes
24. Why is pricing necessary for products? (a) to cost its value (b) to weigh its importance (c) to maximize profit (d)
all of the above
25. The method of advertising aimed at providing information to a group of people with similar needs is known as
……………. (a) specific advertising (b) direct advertising (c) competitive advertising (d) indirect advertising
26. Which of the following is not a tractor-drawn implement? (a) lathe (b) ridger (c) harrow (d) cultivator
27. Bullocks are used to pull …………… (a) tractors, ploughs (b) ploughs, harrows (c) planters, harrows (d) ploughs,
sprayers
28. Farm machines should be properly maintained so as to ……………. (a) keep them in good, working condition for a
long time (b) sell them at a high price later (c) pass them on to one’s grandchildren (d) all of the above
29. ……………… is used for the artificial hatching of eggs. (a) sheller (b) lathe (c) incubator (d) mill
30. One of these is a reason for packaging a product. (a) to increase its price (b) to increase its quantity (c) to make
it beautiful for buyers (d) all of the above
31. The most important farm machine is the ………………. (a) planter (b) tractor (c) plough (d) harvester
32. When a particular product brand is encouraged by an advert, it is called ……………… advertising. (a) competitive
(b) direct (c) specific (d) persuasive
33. The price of agricultural products will be affected by the following except …………… (a) transportation cost (b)
seasonality cost (c) advertisement of product (d) perishability of the product
34. The aim of advertisement is to …………….. (a) increase the cost of products (b) create confusion in the minds of
consumers (c) lead to the loss of company products (d) increase the sales of goods
35. Tomato can be best packaged by using ……………… (a) cage (b) sack (c) drum (d) basket
36. Pricing in terms of agriculture can be defined as a process whereby a farmer sets the …………….. (a) price to sell
his products (b) amount to buy inputs on the farm (c) money to pay the workers (d) revenue to produce on the
farm
37. Which of the following is not an intermediate farm machinery? (a) tractor (b) ridges (c) ploughs (d) harrows
38. Arrangement of agricultural produce into portable or small units for storage or transportation is called …………..
(a) grading (b) packaging (c) sorting (d) processing
39. A farm machine which helps in pulling, pushing and lifting other machines is called a ………………. (a) wheel-
barrow (b) plough (c) bulldozer (d) tractor
40. The method of educating the farmer and encouraging him to adopt an improved method of farming is known as
agricultural ……………… (a) co-operative (b) extension (c) policy (d) research
SECTION B: THEORY
INSTRUCTION: Answer any four questions from this section.
1) a. Define packaging in agriculture. b. Highlight three reasons for packaging agricultural produce. c. Enumerate
three criteria for selecting packaging materials for agricultural produce.
2) a. State three disadvantages of packaging. b. What is price? c. List and explain two factors that determine the
price of an agricultural produce.
3) a. Define farm machines? b. What is a tractor? c. Identify five methods of maintaining farm machines.
4) a. Enumerate three advantages and two disadvantages of branding. b. State four purposes of advertising
agricultural products. c. Highlight the information provided to advertise agricultural products.
5) a. List and explain the methods of advertising. b. Highlight six factors that influence buying decisions. c. Define
advertising media, and list five advertising media.
6) a. State two uses of the tractor. b. Identify six sources of farm power. c. List four career opportunities in
agriculture
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION
Subject:Physical and Health Education Class: JSS 2
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE DURATION: 1 HOUR
1. A judo suit is called …………… (a) judogi (b) judoka (c) tatami (d) jujitsu
2. All of these are sports injuries except ………… (a) fracture (b) bite (c) dislocation (d) sprain
3. Safety can be defined as a way of …………. (a) taking preventive measures (b) been are free behavior (c) flying to
cause accidents (d) running into pebbles
4. First aid treatment is given ……….. after injury. (a) immediately (b) two days (c) a day before injury (d) a week
after injury
5. Fracture is common to one of the following organs. (a) Bone (b) Skin (c) Joints (d) Muscles
6. One of the following is not a component of recreation. (a) free time activities (b) voluntary participated activities
(c) enjoyable activities (d) monetary activities
7. Dislocation is common to one of the following organs. (a) bones (b) skin (c) joints (d) muscles
8. A first aid box should contain the following except ………. (a) razor blade (b)bandage (c) cotton wool (d) coca-cola
9. A good first aider should possess the following except…….. (a) knowledgeable (b) honest (c) unstable (d)
resourceful
10. One of the following is not an outdoor activity. (a) watching television (b) fishing (c) hunting (d) cycling
11. These are the reasons for traditional dances except ………….. (a) appease gods (b) cause sorrow (c) entertain
people (d) coronation
12. An ordered movement that runs through all the body is known as ………….. (a) dance (b) rhythm (c) jogging (d)
singing
13. The activity done during leisure hour is …………. (a) recreation (b) sports (c) games (d) gymnastics
14. A wound whereby there is damage to the soft tissue and blood vessels under the skin is called ……………. (a)
incision (b) avulsion (c) laceration (d) bruise
15. Emergency care given to an injured or sick person before the doctor arrives is known as ……….. (a) safety
education (b) emergency aid (c) first aid (d) temporary treatment
16. The following are indoor recreational activities except …………. (a) table tennis (b) scrabble (c) monopoly (d)
tennis
17. The following must be ensured during heavy bleeding except …………. (a) victim must not be crowded (b)
bandaging the affected area (c) stop bleeding with dirty cloth (d) elevating the limbs
18. The following items are regarded as missiles except ………… (a) hammer (b) shot put (c) javelin (d) pole vault
19. Which of the following events involves jumping for height? (a) high jump (b) shot put (c) long jump (d) triple
jump
20. A judoka is also known as Judo …………... (a) controller (b) hall (c) cloth (d) fighter
21. Which of the following dances is common to the efik tribe? (a) atilogwu (b) ekombi (c) sango (d) makosa
22. One of the following apparatus is not used in rhythmic gymnastics. (a) hoop (b) ball (c) ribbon (d) none of the
above
23. ……………. Is a damage to any part of the body that may allow the escape of blood. (a) wound (b) bruise (c) injury
(d) cuts
24. An ippon is a …………….. (a) winning point (b) losing point (c) equal point (d) no point
25. Injuries that occur as a result of human factors are ……………. (a) unavoidable (b) fatal (c) minor (d) avoidable
26. Judo became an Olympic sport in …………. (a) 1984 (b) 1974 (c) 1964 (d) 1954
27. ……………. is an injury to the muscle. (a) strain (b) dislocation (c) sprain (d) fracture
28. One of these is a cause of haemorrhage except …………….. (a) direct injury or cutting of the blood vessel (b)
infection of the body (c) blood disease (d) high blood pressure
29. ……………. jumps are jumps for distance. (a) vertical (b) high (c) horizontal (d) long
30. In throwing events, a competitor is allowed ………… trials (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 4
SECTION B: THEORY
1) a. What is dance? b. List and explain three examples of traditional dances. c. Enumerate three values of dance
and rhythmic activities.
2) a. Define (i) Accident (ii) Safety education b. Identify three causes of school accidents and three ways of
preventing them. c. Highlight five ways of preventing road/transportation accidents.
3) a. List eight materials that will most likely be found in the first aid box. b. State four objectives of first aid. c.
Highlight four basic principles of first aid.
4) a. Mention five factors that can cause sport injuries. b. List and explain four types of wounds. c. Highlight four
first aid treatments for wounds.
5) a. State two differences between a strain and a sprain. b. What is a sprain? c. Enumerate three causes of
strain.
d. What first aid treatment should be administered to someone who has strain?
6) a. Highlight three general rules of field events. b. Enumerate three importance of Judo. c. State five basic judo
rules.
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION
Subject:Physical and Health Education Class: JSS 1
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE DURATION: 1 HOUR
1. The scope of health education includes all the following except ……………. (a) drug education (b) sex education (c)
sound education (d) environmental education
2. Physical fitness components are grouped into …………… (a) health and performance related components (b)
educational and health related components (c) performance and education related components (d) skills and
education related components
3. The following are sources of water except …………….. (a) rain (b) tap (c) toilet (d) well
4. The following are uses of water except …………… (a) cooking (b) drinking (c) colouring (d) bathing
5. All the following are objectives of physical education except ………….. (a) physical development (b) social
development (c) mental development (d) seasonal development
6. A branch of physical education is …………. (a) poultry (b) gymnastics (c) water (d) fishery
7. Health education is the knowledge is obtained through …………… (a) health related instructions (b) drug abuse
and misuse (c) immoral behaviours (d) fitness exercises
8. Water closet system is usually used where there is ………….. water. (a) rain (b) well (c) pipe-borne (d) all of the
above
9. What is physical education? (a) education through carefully selected physical activities (b) education through
dancing (c) education through the act of selling and buying (d) education through the act of walking and singing
10. One of the following is not a component of physical fitness. (a) balance (b) flexibility (c) pivot (d) endurance
11. Sewage primarily means …………… (a) liquid waste (b) solid waste (c) soluble waste (d) gaseous waste
12. Which of the following is a performance related physical fitness component? (a) strength (b) cardiovascular
endurance (c) flexibility (d) body composition
13. The ability of an individual to cover a distance in a short period of time is called …………. (a) agility (b) endurance
(c) speed (d) flexibility
14. A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being is also known as ……….. (a) sanitation (b) health (c)
hygiene (d) sanitation
15. Which of these is not an exercise used to develop endurance? (a) stretching (b) cycling (c) aerobic (d) swimming
16. One of the following is a health related component of physical fitness. (a) power (b) speed (c) endurance (d)
balance
17. Which of these diseases may be prevented by adequate sewage disposal? (a) HIV/AIDS (b) ringworm (c) malaria
(d) tuberculosis
18. The ability to move easily at a joint is known as ……….. (a) power (b) flexibility (c) speed (d) agility
19. Components of physical fitness which relate to specific exercises and sports are ………….. (a) health related
components (b) sport related components (c) performance related components (d) skills related components
20. One of these is not a branch of physical education. (a) banking (b) aquatics (c) athletics (d) games and sports
21. Which of the following is not an aerobic exercise? (a) press up (b) swimming (c) jogging (d) none of the above
22. The prolonged ability of one’s heart and lungs to supply muscles with nutrients and oxygen is known as
……………. (a) endurance (b) cardio-respiratory endurance (c) muscular endurance (d) strength
23. ……………… may be regarded as a balance of physical, mental and social aspect of life in a human being. (a)
physical fitness (b) physical education (c) health education (d) health
24. Waste refers to ………….. (a) both refuse and sewage (b) refuse only (c) sewage only (d) neither refuse nor
sewage
25. A person is said to be physically fit when he/she ……………. (a) gets tired easily (b) lacks stamina (c) is agile (d) is
overweight
26. Which of the following is true about performing exercises? (a) eat something heavy to get stamina (b) don’t
exercise when sick (c) don’t drink or eat anything when exercising (d) all of the above
27. A state of emotional and psychological well-being of an individual is referred to as …………… (a) health (b)
physical health (c) physical fitness (d) mental health
28. ……………… is the best method of sewage disposal. (a) open dumping (b) water carriage system (c) pit latrine (d)
all of the above
29. Which of these exercises will improve flexibility? (a) stretching (b) aerobics (c)squat (d) all of the above
30. The ability of the muscles to perform contractions for long periods is called ………….. (a) endurance (b) cardio-
respiratory endurance (c) muscular endurance (d) strength
SECTION B: THEORY
1) a. Highlight four objectives of physical education. b. Mention six scope of physical education. c. Define
physical and health education
2) a. What is health education? b. State four objectives of health education. c. Identify six scope of health
education.
3) a. List four health related components and four performance related components of physical fitness. b. Define
physical fitness. c. Enumerate five importance of physical fitness.
4) a. State four characteristics of a physically fit person. b. Highlight six safety precautions while performing
exercises. c. What is health?
5) a. Define the following: (i) sewage (ii) refuse (iii) waste disposal b. Enumerate four purposes of proper waste
disposal. c. What are the qualities of good water supply?
6) a. Highlight four methods of refuse disposal. b. State three methods of obtaining water supply. c. Identify six
uses of water.
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION
Subject:Physical and Health Education Class: JSS 3
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE DURATION: 1 HOUR
1. One of the following is not a career in physical and health education. (a) teaching (b) coaching (c) sports training
(d) sports fighter
2. Communicable diseases can be transmitted through the following except ……….. (a) coughing (b) sharing of
sharp objects (c) mosquito bites (d) proper hygiene
3. Physical fitness can help reduce one of the following except ………… (a) high blood pressure (b) tension (c) strains
(d) HIV/AIDS
4. Disease that cannot be transmitted from one person to another is called ………… (a) communicable disease (b)
non-communicable disease (c) common disease (d) uncommon disease
5. Lassa fever is transmitted through ………. (a) cats (b) rats (c) flies (d) monkey
6. Which of the following equipment is not used in hockey game? (a) shin guard (b)
7. These are the techniques of javelin except the ……….. (a) landing (b) run-up (c) grip (d) release
8. Cross ………. is an equipment in pole vault. (a) arm (b) pole (c) stick (d) bar
9. Hockey is a game played by two teams of ……… players. (a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12
10. Which of the following is a communicable disease? (a) hypertension (b) cancer (c) measles (d) diabetes
11. Communicable diseases are caused by …………… (a) vectors (b) worms (c) pathogens (d) all of the above
12. To play the game of hockey you need a ……………. (a) hockey racket (b) hockey pad (c) hockey stick (d) hockey bat
13. Teenage pregnancy occurs in females between the ages of ……….. (a) 12-19 (b) 13-19 (c) 12-20 (d) 13-20
14. One of the following diseases is not a non-communicable disease (a) corona virus (b) diabetes (c) cancer (d)
asthma
15. The flags used by officials in pole vault are …………… (a) white and red (b) yellow and red (c) white and black (d)
yellow and black
16. In pole vault, the jumper is expected to plant his pole to take off from the ground in the ………….. (a) runway (b)
landing pitch (c) vaulting box (d) upright
17. A hockey match is played for …………. minutes. (a) 45 (b) 35 (c) 90 (d) 70
18. The take-off in pole vault is divided into the following phases except …………. (a) lift (b) swing (c) pull and turn (d)
pull and push
19. The size of the javelin in weight for men is ………….. (a) 600g (b) 650g (c) 800g (d) 850g
20. Which of these is not a way of method the javelin? (a) underarm (b) underhead (c) overarm (d) overhead
21. One of these is not an air borne disease. (a) typhoid (b) tuberculosis (c) common cold (d) corona virus
22. Which of the following diseases occur as a result of dietary imbalance? (a) stomach ulcer (b) cancer (c) sickle cell
disease (d) goiter
23. The total number of players playing on the field in a hockey match is ……… (a) 22 (b) 11 (c) 24 (d) 12
24. ………………. is the major official in a hockey game. (a) referee (b) time keeper (c) umpire (d) linesmen
25. Which of these is not a consequence of teenage pregnancy? (a) (b) unemployment (c) abortion (d) poverty
26. The skill in hockey used to lift the ball over the opponent is the ………….. (a) flick (b) scoop (c) hit (d) dribble
27. The causative agent of malaria is …………… (a) protozoa (b) pathogens (c) mosquito (d) vector
28. An individual should the following when choosing a career except …………… (a) financial needs (b) skills (c)
other’s opinions (d) personal style
29. A person is said to be physically fit when he/she ……………. (a) gets tired easily (b) lacks stamina (c) is agile (d) is
overweight
30. Which of the following is not true about physical fitness? (a) it is necessary for survival and good living (b)
individuals should engage in exercises regularly to be physically fit (c) physical fitness affects only the physical
aspects of health (d) none of the above
SECTION B: THEORY
1. a) Define puberty. b) Highlight three changes that occur in boys and three changes that occur in girls during
puberty. c) Enumerate five consequences of teenage pregnancy.
2. a) State eight career opportunities in physical and health education. b) Identify five things a hockey player
should not do when playing the ball. c) What is a career?
3. a) List six disease causative agents. b) Highlight the modes of transmission of communicable diseases and give
two examples of diseases for each. c) Mention six measures for preventing communicable diseases.
4. a) Enumerate four benefits of being physically fit. b) State five causes of non-communicable diseases and give
an example in each case. c) Identify three factors that may prevent an individual from taking up exercises.
5. a) Highlight the steps in choosing a career. b) With regard to the opponent, mention three things a hockey
player is not allowed to do. c) State four sport promotion agencies in Nigeria.
6. a) State five basic skills and techniques in javelin. b) Highlight four common errors in javelin. c) Explain pole
vault event. d) State five skills in pole vault.
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION
Subject:Biology Class: SS 1
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE DURATION: 1 HOUR 30 MINUTES
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in this section.
1. The structure in the cell that controls the movement of substances in and out of the cell is the ……………… (a)
cytoplasmic membrane (b) nuclear membrane (c) cytoplasm (d) protoplasm
2. Which of the following structures differentiates an animal cell from a plant cell? (a) ribosomes (b) cell
membrane (c) chloroplast (d) mitochondrion
3. An example of organ level of organization is ………….. (a) algae (b) kidney (c) blood (d) spermatozoa
4. The scientist who introduced binomial nomenclature in the classification of organisms was …………….. (a) Charles
Darwin (b) Carolus Linnaeus (c) John Ray (d) Isaac Newton
5. Which of the following cell organelles is found only in plant cells? (a) mitochondria (b) cell wall (c) lysosomes (d)
cell membrane
6. The organism that can carry out both autotrophic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition is (a) chlamydomonas
(b) eudorina (c) euglena (d) spirogyra
7. The basic unit of classification which has the commonest features and can interbreed is called …………… (a) family
(b) species (c) class (d) genus
8. Viruses possess (a) only RNA (b) only DNA (c) either RNA and DNA (d) both RNA and DNA
9. ……………… is the largest phylum in the animal kingdom. (a) chordata (b) mammalia (c) arthropoda (d) mollusca
10. One of these organisms has a three-chambered heart. (a) shark (b) frog (c) snake (d) pigeon
11. Anaerobic respiration produces carbon(IV)oxide and ………….. (a) ethanol (b) water (c) oxygen (d) glucose
12. The breaking down of a glucose molecule from glycolysis to Kreb’s cycle results in the production of …………
ATPs. (a) 2 (b) 36 (c) 38 (d) 32
13. The pyruvic acid formed in glycolysis is converted to …………….. in animals, in the absence of oxygen. (a) acetyl
CoA (b) citric acid (c) alcohol (d) lactic acid
14. Glycolysis takes place in the ……………. (a) cell (b) nucleus (c) cytoplasm (d) mitochondria
15. The excretory organ of tapeworm is ……………... (a) body surface (b) flame cells (c) nephridia (d) lenticels
16. Which of the following is not an excretory product of cockroach? (a) carbon(IV)oxide (b) water (c) uric acid (d)
urea
17. The leaflets of the Mimosa plant folds up when touched. This type of response is known as ………….. (a) nastism
(b) taxis (c) tropism (d) thigmotropism
18. Flagella is the organ for movement in the following organisms except …………… (a) trypanosome (b) amoeba (c)
euglena (d) paramecium
19. The bending of a mature branch or shoot, down to the ground without breaking for purpose of propagation is
called …………… (a) layering (b) grafting (c) budding (d) cutting
20. An example of a crop propagated by corm is ………………. (a) ginger (b) cocoyam (c) plantain (d) sugar cane
21. One of the following is not an example of disaccharides. (a) lactose (b) galactose (c) maltose (d) sucrose
22. Organisms which feed on dead and decaying organic materials are called …………… (a) scavengers (b) parasites (c)
saprophytes (d) predators
23. Which of the following organisms exhibit symbiotic nutrition? (a) goat feeding on guinea grass (b) tapeworm in
the small intestine of man (c) nitrogen fixing bacteria in the root nodules of leguminous plants (d) none of the
above
24. Amphibians have the following features except (a) cold blooded (b) external fertilization (c) four-chambered
heart (d) moist skin
25. The waste product of photosynthesis is (a) ammonia (b) carbohydrate (c) glucose (d) oxygen
26. Fats and oils are known as (a) amino acid (b) fatty acid (c) glycerol (d) lipids
27. Which of the following substances is not a complex carbohydrate? (a) glycogen (b) cellulose (c) starch (d)
glucose
28. Viviparity occurs mainly in the …………. (a) aves (b) amphibians (c) mammals (d) reptiles
29. Removal of nitrogenous wastes from the body is (a) defecation (b) egestion (c) excretion (d) perspiration
30. All living organisms can (a) photosynthesize (b) respire (c) move (d) transpire
31. Which of the following plants can be referred to as seed plants? (a) pteridophytes (b) gymnosperms (c)
bryophytes (d) tracheophytes
32. One of the differences between plants and animals is (a) growth is indefinite in animals but definite in plants (b)
nutrition is autotrophic in plants but is heterotrophic in animals (c) in plants there is excretory system but in
animals, waste products are stored away (d) respiration takes place in animals but does not take place in plants
33. Scorpion, ticks and mites belong to the group (a) chilopods (b) insects (c) crustacea (d) arachnida
34. The mode of nutrition in mushroom is (a) autotrophic (b) symbiotic (c) parasitic (d) saprophytic
35. The circulation of certain nutrients like nitrogen, carbon, oxygen and water in nature is referred to as ……………
(a) nutrition (b) respiration (c) nutrient cycles (d) all of the above
36. Animals that feed on both plants and animals are classified as ……………. (a) carnivores (b) herbivores (c)
omnivores (d) scavengers
37. One of the following statements is not true of virus. (a) they are microscopic organisms (b) they are smaller than
bacteria (c) they contain both DNA and RNA (d) they can cause diseases of both plants and animals
38. Which of the following has the most complex level of organization? (a) euglena (b) hydra (c) heart (d) virus
39. The link between glycolysis and Kreb’s cycle (a) acetyl CoA (b) pyruvic acid (c) ATP (d) glucose
40. Write the full meaning of ATP.
SECTION B: THEORY
INSTRUCTION: Answer either questions one or two and any other four questions from this section.
1) a. Draw a labeled diagram of the plant cell. b. State four similarities and three differences between a plant cell
and an animal cell.
2) a. Draw a well labeled diagram of Euglena. b. State three animal characteristics and two plant characteristics of
Euglena.
3) a. Is virus a living or non-living thing? Give two reasons. b. Highlight four advantages of complexity in higher
organisms. c. Identify three differences between gymnosperm and angiosperm.
4) a. What is a cell? b. Explain the forms in which living cells exist and give an example in each case. c. What is
diffusion? Highlight four factors which affect the rate of diffusion.
5) a. Differentiate between osmosis and diffusion. b. Write short notes on (i) hypotonic solution (b) isotonic
solution (c) hypertonic solution c. Define (i) Turgidity (ii) Flaccidity
6) a. What is cellular respiration? b. State two similarities and three differences between aerobic and anaerobic
respiration. c. Describe in detail the process of glycolysis.
7) a. Write short notes on (i) Chemosynthetic nutrition (ii) Parasitic nutrition (iii) Saprophytic nutrition b. What are
enzymes? c. Highlight three functions of digestive enzymes.
8) a. List and define the three major types of responses. b. State five differences between sexual and asexual
reproduction. c. Enumerate four advantages of vegetative propagation.