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Reading Comprehension

The document discusses the Reading Comprehension section in law entrance tests like CLAT, emphasizing the importance of reading speed and comprehension. It outlines strategies for effectively approaching passages and questions, including whether to read the passage or questions first, and highlights the significance of vocabulary and understanding the author's tone. Additionally, it provides practical techniques to improve reading skills through regular practice and summarization of key points.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

696 views67 pages

Reading Comprehension

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hamexo2558

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READING COMPREHENSION

Reading Comprehension is generally designed to test The passages given in CLAT and other law entrance tests
your ability to read a passage and understand its contents do not conform to any standards as regards the subject
and your ability to draw inferences on the basis of what matter or the length of the passage. While the subjects
you read. In other words, your ability to grasp the contents covered can be as wide ranging as Sciences (like Botany,
of the passage in a relatively short span of time is what is Zoology, Chemistry, Physics, Astronomy), Social Sciences
being tested. (like Psychology, History, Economics, Politics, Sociology),
Humanities (like Literature, Art, Music) or Current Affairs
The Reading Comprehension section in CLAT and other
(Social, Political, Economical), the student is not expected
law entrance tests is also no different in this respect,
to have any prior knowledge of the topics given.
i.e., you are expected to read the given passage,
understand its contents well and answer the questions As regards the length of each passage, it is normally in the
given at the end of the passage - all this to be completed range of 400 words to 1200 words. Some passages can be
in the limited time that is given. very complex in nature while others may be simple in
nature and easy to understand.
Hence, the two important things in Reading Comprehension
are:
ASPECTS TO CONSIDER
Reading Speed and Comprehension of the Passage
(1) Should I read the passage first or the questions first?
For good performance in RC area, you need a combination
of the above. Let us look at the two aspects individually and There are people belonging to both schools of thought.
understand them in detail before we get into the techniques There are also people who say that once you read the
of attempting Reading Comprehension. passage, you should remember all the points and
answer the questions without referring back to the
While reading skill cannot be evaluated on a "number of passage. Such a thing is almost humanly impossible
words per minute" scale, reading speed can definitely be and hence you should not keep that as your objective
measured. A person who can read faster can answer when you are reading a passage.
more questions in the given time than a person with Let us discuss the issue of reading the questions first
a slower reading speed, other things remaining equal. It is before reading the passage. A passage is written in
this reading rate or your speed of reading that you have a logical manner and hence when you read
to aim at improving. There is no overnight solution to this. a passage, you will be able to follow the ideas without
Constant and extensive reading will improve your reading great difficulty. Since questions will not be given in
rate. Check your reading speed today (take any passage, any order, reading unrelated questions and
count the number of words, note the time taken to read it remembering them can pose difficulties. However,
and calculate the speed in words per minute) and keep scanning through the questions quickly can be helpful
a record of it. Then, keep checking your speed once when the passage is very long. (Even here, when you
a week and tabulate the same. Check whether your speed go through the questions, you need not remember the
has increased over time with practice. However, do not questions or the answer choices because it may
become complacent if your speed has increased. prove counter productive).
This brings us to the second point, i.e., understanding of the In general, you will do well if you first read the
passage. A person may be able to read the passage much passage and then go to the questions. However, this
faster than others but if he is not able to answer the "reading" is not detailed reading to understand all the
questions pertaining to the passage, then the speed is of no points that the author is making. It should be more of
use at all. It is essential to grasp the meaning of the scanning in nature. The main objective at this stage
passage while reading. While you are reading, you should should be to KNOW what points the author is trying
constantly think, evaluate, reason out, judge and correlate to make rather than UNDERSTAND the points. Once
with what has already been read. A good vocabulary would the points are known, when you go to the questions,
enable you understand the nuances and grasp the meaning depending on what the question asked is, you can get
of various issues discussed in the passage. While an back to the relevant part of the passage and read that
attempt can be made to point out various categories of portion in detail to understand what the author is
questions that may be asked, you will basically have to saying and then answer that particular question.
draw on the resources built by wide and extensive reading
(2) It will be a good idea to ask the questions "who, what,
and rely on your own vocabulary. No coaching is possible
why, when and how" when you read the passage.
regarding understanding and analysing the problem.
However, we are going to take you through an extensive (3) The questions can pertain either to parts directly
set of tests on Reading Comprehension to ensure that you contained in the passage or related to implications and
get thorough practice. inferences. Sometimes you may be asked to comment
In addition to good vocabulary, you should also develop on the tone of the passage or to choose a title for the
the ability to zero in on the central theme of the passage. passage or to identify the main idea in the passage but
This can be developed by extensive reading practice as you are hardly ever asked for your "opinion" on the
well as proper concentration at the time of reading the passage.
passage. You should also consciously develop the habit The following are the major categories of questions
of correlating each new sentence read with the part of the that are asked:
passage already read and mentally form a linkage of all (a) Main idea of the passage/title for the passage
ideas expressed in the passage while simultaneously (b) Specific details – basically reproducing what is
weeding out redundant statements. given in the passage
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(c) Drawing inferences/implications (4) The questions need not be in the order of the text
(d) Determining the meaning of words/phrases as used given in the passage.
in the passage.
(e) Application of the ideas expressed in the (5) Where you have to choose a title for the passage or
passage to other situations identify the main theme of the passage, check the
(f) Tone of the passage opening and closing sentences of each paragraph,
(g) From among a given set of statements, identifying particularly the opening sentence of the first
true or false statement as per the passage. paragraph and the last sentence of the last
(h) Questioning the author: Asking the author an paragraph. At the same time, be wary about answer
appropriate follow up question or seeking choices that are too specific or too broad.
a factual basis or justification for a point of view
presented in the passage.

NOTE ON IDENTIFYING THE TONES OF PASSAGES

Questions on the ‘tone’ of a passage can be worded in different ways. For instance
(1) Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
(2) The tone of the passage is ………..
(3) The author’s approach / tone / style of writing can be best described as ……
On occasion, the question may require the test taker to identify the tone of a particular statement in the passage.
For instance

The tone that the author uses when making the statement ………. can be best described as.
Adjectives like ‘caustic’, ‘critical’, ‘satirical’ etc will be given as answer choices. The student is required to select the most
appropriate choice.

What does ‘tone’ mean?

The word ‘tone’ refers to the general attitude that the author display towards the topic that is discussed in the passage.

Classification of tones
Tones of passages can be broadly classified as positive, negative and neutral. Negative tones can be further classified
as very negative and mildly negative.

Method of identifying the tone of a passage

The tone of a passage can be discerned by studying the nature of the adjectives / nouns / verbs that the author uses to
express his views on the topic under discussion.

Therefore, the reader should focus on the statements that the author makes, not on statements that the author quotes
somebody else as saying.

Once key adjectives / nouns / verbs are identified, they should be analysed carefully.

The following questions will be helpful

(1) Is it a negative word or a positive word?
(2) Is it a mild word or a strong word?
(3) Does the author mean what he says or is he being sarcastic or ironic?
(4) Is there a pattern in the nature of adjectives / nouns / verbs used in the passage? Are they all negative or positive?
If all the key adjectives / nouns / verbs used in the passage are negative, then it can be safely concluded that the
overall tone is negative.

Adjectives that describe various types of tones

Given below are adjectives that describe various types of tones of passages.

(1) Adjectives used to describe very negative tones

The tone of passage can be described as being ..….. if the adjectives / nouns / verbs used suggest that the author
Acerbic, scathing, cutting, biting, vituperative, vitriolic, is very harsh towards somebody.
searing, trenchant, harsh, vicious or caustic
belligerent, bellicose or aggressive is very hostile towards somebody or something.
derisive, contemptuous, ridiculing, scornful, mocking is making fun of somebody or something with a view to
or disparaging belittling it or showing it in poor light.
incendiary or inciting is trying to stir up strife.
provocative is trying to irritate or annoy somebody.

The tone of a passage can be described as being …… if the adjectives / nouns / verbs used suggest that the author
angry or indignant is annoyed about something that he considers unjust or unfair.
apathetic or indifferent has adopted an uncaring attitude towards the issues mentioned.
biased, coloured, partisan, prejudiced, bigoted or
is partial to a certain viewpoint with inadequate justification.
chauvinistic
thinks himself superior to others and tends to talk down to
condescending, patronising, supercilious or disdainful
them.
believes that people are motivated in all their actions only by
cynical selfishness; in other words denying the sincerity of people’s
motives and actions, or the value of living.
has his doubts about something (e.g. the motives behind
skeptical somebody’s actions, the fulfilment of a promise made, the
outcome of a course of action).
is arrogantly and positively stating something as the truth
dogmatic, opinionated or peremptory
without caring to support his claim with evidence.
obsequious is overly submissive to a person or an organisation.
critical is finding fault with somebody or something.
is pretending to be what he is not or being self-righteous when
hypocritical
discussing the issue on hand.
is jeering at or taunting somebody using ironic and biting
sarcastic or sardonic
remarks.
is using ridicule, sarcasm, irony, etc to expose, attack or deride
satirical
vices, follies, stupidities and abuses.
expects misfortune or the worst possible outcome in the given
pessimistic, negative or gloomy
circumstance.
(3) Adjectives used to describe positive tones

The tone of a passage can be described as being ….. if the adjectives / nouns / verbs used suggest that the author
is hopeful of the prospects of something or somebody and feels
optimistic, positive, sanguine, cheerful or buoyant
that good things are in store.
has tried to present the topic in a funny and amusing manner
humourous
with an express view to entertain the reader.
has attempted to analyse his own mind, feelings, actions,
introspective or contemplative
motives etc.
laudatory, acclamatory, complimentary or adulatory is praising something or somebody he considers praiseworthy.
motivating, inspiring or encouraging has tried to encourage somebody to do something constructive.
commiserating or sympathetic has pity or compassion for somebody’s suffering.
(4) Adjectives used to describe tones that are neither positive nor negative

The tone of a passage can be described as being …… if the adjectives / nouns / verbs used suggest that the author
neutral does not favour one point of view over another.
apologetic is expressing regret for something he has said or done.
emotional was moved at the time of writing.
(5) Other adjectives that can be used to describe the nature or type a passage

A passage can be said to be …… in nature if ……..

it surmises or ponders over various aspects of a given subject
speculative
or various outcomes of a course of action.
romantic the views expressed are fanciful and impractical.
the author evinces keen interest in human affairs, nature,
humanistic
welfare, values etc.
technical it extensively uses terminology that is specific to a certain field.
its author has attempted to instruct his readers through the
didactic
passage.
narrative it essentially details a story or incident.
descriptive it attempts to describe a person, place, thing or concept in detail.
it encourages the reader to construct a mental picture of a
evocative
place or an event.
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PRACTICAL TECHNIQUES TO IMPROVE -- Compare the points that you have written down with
the text read to see whether you left out any important
YOUR READING COMPREHENSION
points.
-- If you now find that a point that appeared in your
As already mentioned, you will be given a number of
summary/list was also given in the original text,
practice tests in Reading Comprehension to enable you it means that you have been able to memorize what
to get sufficient practice in this important area. Please you have read.
remember that in this area, unlike in other areas like -- If you find that a point that is there in the text has not
Mathematics where you will be able to assess and see for appeared in your summary but you now consider it to
yourself on a regular basis, how much knowledge you be an important point, then spend a few moments
have added on and how much improvement in speed you trying to think about this point and as to why you could
have achieved, there will not be such clear indicators. not recollect it as an important point when you were
However, performance in Reading Comprehension will doing this exercise.
improve only with practice and that requires a lot of effort -- This exercise done regularly over a period of time will
and determination on your part. certainly help you improve your reading speed as well
as your ability to understand and retain what you
In addition to the test papers you take, you will have to put in read. But, as already mentioned, only regular practice
at least 45 minutes of reading practice per day to improve can help you in this regard.
your reading speed and comprehension. You need to take
In order to facilitate your regular practice, take a fresh
up serious reading material for practice - newspaper exercise note book, preferably with foolscap size pages in it.
editorials, editorials in general magazines like Frontline or
business magazines like Business India or other articles in After reading the passage once, write down the time you
such magazines, general books on a wide variety of subjects have taken to complete the passage at the top of the
like Psychology, Sociology, Technology, etc. page. (Keep a separate page for each passage you read).
Now count the number of words in the passage. Number
For each article or piece of a book that you read, of words divided by the number of minutes taken to read
go through the following process: the passage gives you your speed of reading in "words
per minute". After this calculation, enter the same in
-- Read the article/passage a table. A format of this table is given below. Maintaining
-- Write down 5 to 10 (or up to 20 for longer passages) a record of your reading speeds will give you a clear
important points from the passage in a separate note picture of how you are progressing in your reading
book. practice over a period of time.

EXAMPLE OF TABLE TO ENTER READING SPEEDS (in words per minute)

Reading Speed (Enter your speed in WPM under the type of topic you have read)
Date Economic Political Social Sciences Pure Sciences Others
1.1.18 140 170 180
2.1.18 130 175 175

Make a conscious attempt to read a wide range of topics -- Words given in the passage whose meanings you do
to develop your reading speed. You will note that your not know. (These should be used as a part of your
speeds will be higher in areas/topics with which you are vocabulary improvement exercise discussed
familiar. Keep a copy of this table at the back of your separately under Verbal Ability section.)
exercise note book and observe the gradual
improvement. Make an entry of at least two passages in The important points can range from 10 to 20 depending
this table every day. A sample entry of speeds of three on the length of the passage.
passages read on two days is shown in the table. After the important points are written down, check back
with the passage and see whether all important points
After you read each passage and enter your speed in the have been covered.
table above, you should write down a few points
summarising the passage you just read. We have already PRACTICAL TECHNIQUES TO IMPROVE
mentioned that you should use a separate page for each YOUR READING SPEED
passage you read. You have already written down the
number of words the passage has on this page. Your speed First let us try to answer one question. Why does the
in WPM that you entered in the table should also be entered reading speed differ from person to person? Let us take a
on this page because it pertains to this passage. Now, write statement "If you ask me to choose one important quality
the following details on that page: that led me to success, I will choose PATIENCE."

-- Title of the passage If a person whose reading habits are not honed reads the
-- Main idea of the passage in one sentence above sentence, he will read one word at a time, i.e., his
-- Important points from the passage (as a summary = span of vision allows him to read only one word for each
of the passage) eye movement he makes. This span of vision can be

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Exercise – 1
Directions for questions 1 to 26: Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that follow it and give its
summary in the space provided.

PASSAGE – I

For years the saviour and bread winner of the global game, the fifty-over format has been ridiculed and vilified as stale,
jaded and uninteresting and has had its future questioned. Some countries have given up playing it altogether in domestic
cricket, and others have tried to chop it up to make it more like a new version of sliced bread.

But the World Cup will mitigate such indignity. Despite the timeless grandeur of Test cricket and the instant and animal
appeal of Twenty20, the World Cup remains the grandest event and the biggest prize in cricket. It comes every four years,
it has scale, the participants include the teams and hopefuls.

Winning it means a huge deal and we are not just talking of money here.
Summary of the para : _________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
1. The fifty-over format does not enjoy popularity. 4. Fifty-over game is actually stale, jaded and
Yes/No uninteresting. Yes/No

2. Some countries which have given up playing 5. The World Cup which is a 50-over game is very
fifty-over format have actively criticised it. Yes/No popular. Yes/No

3. Some countries have altered the fifty-over game to

make it appealing to sports lovers. Yes/No

PASSAGE – II

It is said that in politics there are no permanent friends or permanent enemies, only permanent opportunities. A similar
rule extends to the stock market as well, where there is no place for permanent bulls or permanent bears. Only those
ready to swear by this axiom can hope to survive the rough and tumble of Dalal Street where fortunes are made and lost
everyday. A late entrant to the world of equity, investing at 32, it did not take long for Radhakishan Damani to figure this
out. And that is the main reason why the 50 something broker-turned-proprietary investor, Damani is still said to be in the
pink of financial health, even as most of his contemporaries have either faded into obscurity, or been forced out of the
market altogether.
Summary of the para : _________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________

6. Politicians always have opportunities. 9. It is possible for an investor to become exceedingly

Yes/No rich overnight.
Yes/No
7. Politics and stock market have a similarity.
Yes/No 10. Radhakishan Damani believes that there are no
8. The only thing that is permanent about the stock permanent bulls or permanent bears.
market is its uncertainty. Yes/No Yes/No

What is a command? Austin defines a command in terms of two concepts: significance of desire and ability to inflict evil
or harm for the nonsatisfaction of a desire. To command people to do X is simply this: to express to them the desire that
they do X and to make it clear to them that it is within the power of one who commands to inflict some evil or harm on
them if they fail to do X. Austin calls this threatened and possible evil a sanction. A person so commanded is, according
to Austin, bound, obliged or under a duty to do what is commanded.
Initially, this conception of command seems rather bizzare; must one person want or desire to command so that the other
person acts in a certain way? Might not a sergeant, believing that his duty requires it, command a soldier to go on
a dangerous patrol while secretly wishing or desiring, because he likes the soldier so much, that the soldier will in fact go
AWOL (be Absent Without Official Leave) rather than risk his life? It would of course be odd if, in general, people
commanded others to do things without desiring that those things be done, but the connection between desire and
command does not seem strong enough to make the connection between them one of definition. Also it seems odd to
maintain that a person has not been commanded or ordered to do something unless there is a real possibility that the
commander can make some harm or evil befall him for noncompliance.

Summary of the para : _________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________

11. A command is not a command if it is not threatening. 16. A commander has the ability to harm the one
Yes/No commanded. Yes/No

12. A person commanded does what is commanded 17. There is a connection between desire and command.
because of sanctions. Yes/No Yes/No

13. A person who is bound to do what is commanded 18. A sergeant commands the soldier even if he knows
does not face any sanction. Yes/No that it would put the soldier at risk. Yes/No

14. A sanction comes into play when a person bound to 19. The sergeant is bound to command even though he
do something does not do it. Yes/No does not desire. Yes/No

15. It is quite logical that the basis of a command is 20. A commander should command only in the case of
desire. Yes/No compliance. Yes/No

PASSAGE – IV

Many may consider it a necessary prerequisite for setting the stage of violently passionate stories, but Barbey
D’ Aurevilly’s works seem to transcend the state of sheer coincidence and manifest an obsession for portraying
geographically dispersed, physically isolated people who have been ostracized. His utterly unnatural heroes and heroines,
seem to be almost invariably succumbing in some violent way or the other to the ardent mind-set of the different characters
who lie inactive for sometime but suddenly, at some point of time get excited and then fester and eventually perish.
Another glaringly obvious fact in his narration is that his characters are usually the possessors of some domineering
physical traits like breathtakingly enticing beauty or regality which endows them with a sinister capacity to enchant lesser
mortals. Critics like Will L.McLendon and others have felt that it doesn’t take extraordinary intellect to see through the
stratagem of a narrator’s comments and notice Barbey’s excessive admiration for such traits that help gravitate lesser
characters.
Summary of the para: _____________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________

Criticism was the tool used by Jules Amedee Barbey D’ Aurevilly in his fiction and he laced his writings generously with
scathing invective and caustic bias in matters ranging from politics, life-style and religion. He detested democracy and
was a hardcore loyalist defending conventional morality on one hand, and creating novels and stories that not only got
him the image of a dandy but also succeeded in labelling him an annalist and theoretician of dandyism by many who felt
that Barbey, J.K.Huysmans, Charles Pierre Bandelaive, Stendhal had ushered in the era of decadence on the other.
Mysticism, sadism, cruelty, violence, perdition, retribution and diabolism were ubiquitous in almost all his works.
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This did not particularly endear him to the church, which in turn felt that his prurient intent belies his claims to holding on
to his religious convictions firmly. And all this despite the fact that all the blasphemers and heretics were duly punished in
his writings. Though he has been praised for his vivid descriptive accounts yet it is felt they are stunning portrayals
of depravity. He has been compared with Sir Walter Scott for his ability to delineate rural background, though in his later
novels like “What Never Dies”, he resorted to more cosmopolitan settings.
Summary of the para: _____________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________

Directions for questions 19 to 23: Mark ‘True’ or False’. 25. The one good attribute of Barbey’s writings was that
finally heretics and blasphemes were punished.
21. The writer feels that it is sheer coincidence that some [True/False]
of Barbey D’ Aurevilly’s works have passionate but
violent stories. [True/False] 26. Check your understanding of the following expressions
and words.
22. The author’s attitude to Barbey D’ Aurevilly’s writings (1) prerequisite (2) ostracized
can be called ‘disdainful’. [True/False] (3) fester (4) perish
(5) breathtaking (6) endows
23. The author notices a dichotomy in Barbey’s psyche (7) stratagem (8) laced his writings
– claiming to be a champion of morality yet steeping (9) dandyism (10) annalist
his writings with gore. [True/False] (11) perdition (12) retribution
(13) diabolism (14) ubiquitous
24. The Church acclaimed Barbey’s conventional moral (15) prurient
stance. [True/False]

PASSAGE – V
Last year, in a newspaper article headed "I h8 txt msgs: How texting is wrecking our language", John Humphrys argued
that texters are "vandals who are doing to our language what Genghis Khan did to his neighbours 800 years ago. They
are destroying it: pillaging our punctuation; savaging our sentences; raping our vocabulary. And they must be stopped."
As a new variety of language, texting has been condemned as "textese", "slanguage", a "digital virus". According to John
Sutherland of University College London, it is "bleak, bald, sad shorthand. Drab shrinktalk ... Linguistically it's all pig's ear
... it masks dyslexia, poor spelling and mental laziness. Texting is penmanship for illiterates." Ever since the arrival of
printing - thought to be the invention of the devil because it would put false opinions into people's minds - people have
been arguing that new technology would have disastrous consequences for language. Scares accompanied the
introduction of the telegraph, telephone, and broadcasting. But has there ever been a linguistic phenomenon that has
aroused such curiosity, suspicion, fear, confusion, antagonism, fascination, excitement and enthusiasm all at once as
texting? And in such a short space of time. Less than a decade ago, hardly anyone had heard of it. The idea of a
point-to-point short message service (or SMS) began to be discussed as part of the development of the Global System
for Mobile Communications network in the mid-1980s, but it wasn't until the early 90s that phone companies started to
develop its commercial possibilities. Text communicated by pagers were replaced by text messages, at first only
20 characters in length. It took five years or more before numbers of users started to build up. The slow start, it seems,
was because the companies had trouble working out reliable ways of charging for the new service. But once procedures
were in place, texting rocketed. People think that the written language seen on mobile phone screens is new and alien,
but all the popular beliefs about texting are wrong. Its graphic distinctiveness is not a new phenomenon, nor is its use
restricted to the young. There is increasing evidence that it helps rather than hinders literacy. And only a very tiny part of
it uses a distinctive orthography. A trillion text messages might seem a lot, but when we set these alongside the
multi-trillion instances of standard orthography in everyday life, they appear as no more than a few ripples on the surface
of the sea of language. Texting has added a new dimension to language use, but its long-term impact is negligible. It is
not a disaster. Although many texters enjoy breaking linguistic rules, they also know they need to be understood. There
is no point in paying to send a message if it breaks so many rules that it ceases to be intelligible. When messages are
longer, containing more information, the amount of standard orthography increases. Many texters alter just the
grammatical words (such as "you" and "be"). As older and more conservative language users have begun to text, an even
more standardised style has appeared. Some texters refuse to depart at all from traditional orthography. And conventional
spelling and punctuation is the norm when institutions send out information messages, as in this university text to students:
"Weather Alert! No classes today due to snow storm", or in the texts which radio listeners are invited to send in to
programmes. These institutional messages now form the majority of texts in cyberspace - and several organisations forbid
the use of abbreviations, knowing that many readers will not understand them. Bad textiquette.

Central Idea

Summary:

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Exercise – 2
Directions for questions 1 to 9: Read each of the passages and answer the questions that follow them.

PASSAGE – I

N ever despise those whom you address, whatever you may think of their intellectual attainments. Give them the best
you have to give with utmost humility and sincerity. Though noisy and empty speech-making will often draw cheers, still
the masses of the common people almost always appreciate solid and relevant facts, reasonable and useful thoughts
stated in language they can understand. And there will probably be among them those who would perceive and resent
any indication that you were talking down to their inferior capacity. In short your speech reveals your respect and regard
for your audience.

1. The author, through the passage,

(A) wants to improve the quality of speech.
(B) advises the reader to have regard for the listener.
(C) guides the reader to effective oratory.
(D) lists out the expectations of the masses.

PASSAGE – II

T he chief condition of happiness of man, barring certain physical pre-requisites, is the life of reason. Virtue or excellence
will depend on clear judgment, self-control, symmetry of desire, artistry of means; it is not the possession of simple man,
nor the gift of the innocent but the achievement of fully developed man. Yet there is a road to it, a guide to excellence,
which may save many detours and delays; it is the middle way, the golden mean. The qualities of character can be
arranged in triads in each of which the first and the last qualities will be extremes and vices, the middle quality a virtue or
an excellence. So, between cowardice and rashness is courage, between humility and pride is modesty.

2. About the conditions necessary to experience happiness, it can be understood from the passage that
(A) leading a life of reason is of utmost importance.
(B) physical conditions of man as well as a life of reason are required.
(C) virtues that can be acquired by following medium path are of critical importance.
(D) all the qualities of character of man are of utmost importance.

PASSAGE – III

Women have always been passionate about work, right from the evolution of humans. However, they have mostly been
ignored, and their contributions have been rarely acknowledged. Today, most of them regard themselves as humans first
and a female next. They have learnt to distinguish between financial independence and being in the shadow of someone
else.

Earlier, any work was regarded as a hobby or a pastime and any income as something extra. The global financial
slowdown proved that many families were run by the income of women. The recession made the world wake up to the
significance of women’s contribution to economy and households. However, there are many women who are associated
with fields that are female-oriented. The recession showed that one of the major reasons for women not going jobless
was that they were working in female-oriented fields.

Women are now breaking the so-called glass ceilings in every area. They are preferred in communication, research,
health care and the creative field. Thanks to the advent of technology and the internet, the world without borders has
become a boon to women who seek and give advice and support in every aspect of entrepreneurship. Promoting
entrepreneurship among women will require a reversal of the traditional attitudes than a mere creation of jobs. This does
not mean that we should wait for societal change. It implies that women-oriented programmes should go beyond subsidies
and credit allocation to attitudinal changes, group formation, training and other support services.

3. The sentence ‘Women are now breaking the so called 4. The passage highlights the need for
glass ceilings in every area’ implies all of the following (A) promoting the status of women in society.
EXCEPT:
(A) Women are exploring hitherto forbidden fields of (B) creating more job opportunities for women.
work. (C) helping women to become self-sufficient.
(B) Women are moving up the professional ladder. (D) promoting entrepreneurship among women.
(C) Women are challenging their traditional roles.
(D) Women are preferred to men in various professions.
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PASSAGE – IV

Losing sleep can upset the body's metabolism and possibly hasten the onset of age-related illness like diabetes,
hypertension and memory loss, researchers said. Previous studies have shown the harm to mental functions caused
by a loss of sleep, but a team of University of Chicago researchers found the body reacts adversely as well. "We found
that the metabolic and endocrine (hormonal system) changes resulting from a significant sleep debt mimic many of the
hallmarks of aging", said Eve Van Cauter, who directed the study published in the Lancet, a medical journal.
"We suspect that chronic sleep loss may not only hasten the onset but could also increase the severity of age-related
ailments such as diabetes, hypertension, obesity and memory loss", she said. The sleep debt can be made up by
spending longer than the normal eight hours in bed, which returns the body's chemical balance to normal, or better,
the study found. The researchers examined 11 healthy young male subjects for 16 nights. The first three nights the
subjects were allowed to sleep for eight hours, the next six nights they slept just for four hours, and the final seven
nights they spent 12 hours in bed. After several nights racking up sleep debt, the men had heightened levels of blood
glucose and their ability to secrete and respond to insulin decreased by 30 percent. Their symptoms were similar to
those who suffer from diabetes. The sleep-deprived men also had increased levels of cortisol in blood, typical in older
men and thought to cause memory loss. The results indicated young men may need more than eight hours of sleep
nightly. The researchers said the average night's sleep decreased from about nine hours early in the century to the
standard eight hours today, though that number continues to shrink

5. From the passage, we learn that Eve Van Cauter (B) cannot be compensated, as the changes in the
(A) is the editor of a medical journal. body metabolism are permanent.
(B) directed the study published in Lancet. (C) is not a major cause of worry as diabetes can be
(C) owns the journal, Lancet. treated nowadays.
(D) personally examined and selected the 11 male (D) involves a decrease in the level of cortisol in the blood.
subjects.
6. According to the passage, the adverse reaction of the
body to sleep-debt
(A) can be compensated, if the debt is made up.

PASSAGE – V

Professor Greene is lecturing. Down the hall, her arch-rival, Professor Browne, is also lecturing. Professor Greene is
holding forth at length about how absurd Professor Browne's ideas are. She believes Professor Browne to be lecturing in
Room 33. So to emphasize her point, she writes on the blackboard the single sentence: Everything written on the board
in Room 33 is false. But Professor Greene has made a mistake. She, herself, is in Room 33. So, is what she has written
on the board true or false? If it's true, then since it itself is written on the board, it's false. If it's false, then since it is the
only thing written on the board, it's true. Either way, it's both true or false. This is called the Liar Paradox, discovered by
the ancient Greek philosopher Eubulides (4th Century B.C.) Paradoxes are apparently good arguments that lead to
conclusions that are beyond belief (Greek: "para" = beyond, "doxa" = belief). And when you meet a paradox, you've got
only two choices. One is to accept that the conclusion, implausible as it may seem, is actually true; the other is to reject
the conclusion, and explain what has gone wrong into the argument
7. How does the last sentence function? (B) The conclusion of the argument is a bald
(A) A term is defined based on some schools of thought. contradiction.
(B) The positive and negative outcomes of the (C) Paradoxical sentences are simply meaningless.
argument are highlighted for further discussion. (D) The paradox seems to show that common beliefs
(C) Resolutions arising from the earlier discussion about truth and falsity actually lead to a contradiction.
are identified as points of departure for further
study of the argument. 9. Select the choice that can be a version of the Liar
(D) A theory is given and an alternative viewpoint is Paradox.
introduced. (A) I sometimes tell the truth
(B) The glass is half-full
8. A problem of the Liar Paradox can be? (C) This sentence is false
(A) A resolution of the paradox leads to no definite (D) She is a habitual liar
conclusions as such.

Exercise – 3
Directions for questions 1 to 19: Read each passage carefully and choose the best answer for the questions that follow it.

PASSAGE – I

Lying is a survival skill in the words of Salk Institute neuroscientist Terence Sejnowski. According to him, “Humans
probably had it even before they acquired language”. Even children, not withstanding parental threats, learn how to tell
a falsehood and get away with it. However much we dislike it, lying is a natural, even essential part of our lives. Humans
dissimulate for the same reasons that animals use camouflage to save their own skin.
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German anthropologist Volker Sommer, author of In Praise of Lying believes that self-deception could save your life.
He quotes a study carried out by psychologist Richard Lazarus of the University of California, Berkeley to uphold his claim.
Lazarus found that people who were ill and who deluded themselves about the nature and extent of the illness were more
likely to have fewer complications than their counterparts who spent time dwelling on their illness. In a separate study
carried out on 69 patients with breast cancer, it was found that, five years after masectomy, 75% of the women who had
dissembled their illness and had denied to themselves its gravity were alive and healthy. Compared this to 35% of those
who had resigned themselves to their fate and paid the penalty. It is probably an age-old theory; a strong belief that
something is true is the first step to making it so.
Psychologist Peter Stiegnitz of the University of Budapest, author of Lying - The Spice of life, conducted a survey which
shows that men lie approximately 20% more than women, but that women make better liars. The stigma however attached
to a woman’s falsehood is much greater as a legacy of generations of conditioning. The difference is not only a quantitative
one but qualitative too. Women are more prepared to deceive in a social situation, as they are more attuned to the fact that
the truth might cause hurt or friction whereas a little fabrication would probably alleviate the problem and soothe egos. While
women might lie to protect their children or friends, men are more likely to lie to uphold their image especially when it concerns
their career. Catharina Lohmann, author of Women Lie Differently claims, "A man deceives for profit and egotism. He lies
most cleverly and effectively …. at the levers of power”.
A lifetime of constant social interaction might be impossible without at least some deception involved. You might even be
more lied to than lying. Gerald Jellison of the University of South Carolina opines that people are lied to about
200 times a day. David Wyberg, Professor of Philosophy at the State University of New York asserts, “Truth telling is
morally overrated. Being against all deception is as wrong-minded as loathing all bacteria, including the ones responsible
for wine and cheese.” So, is truth no longer in vogue?
1. Which of the following choices best illustrates the (C) He gives supporting evidence in favor of his
idea(s) implied in para 1? assertion that lying is natural and helpful.
(A) Mr. Terence Sejnowski strongly feels that every (D) He gives instances from history or anthropology
person should cultivate the art of deception as it to substantiate the claim that human beings have
has always helped in the past. been lying since ages.
(B) Children tend to learn how to express
a falsehood by observing 'non-verbal clues' even 3. Which of the following best describes the function of
if they do not understand the language spoken the concluding paragraph?
by their parents and other adults. (A) It sums up the author's agreement with the idea
(C) Parents may not like their children lying but they that lying is a harmless activity.
allow them to get away with it as it is just a part of life. (B) It suggests a compromise between contradictory
(D) Despite a tendency to loath it, falsehood is views concerning the effects of lying on society.
unpremeditated and has practical utility. (C) It asserts that it may not be feasible to lead
a social life by being honest always.
2. What does the author, do in the second paragraph?
(D) As a moral value truth is no longer in fashion and
(A) He discusses the possible repercussions of lying.
is an archaic concept.
(B) He elaborates how animals manage to camouflage
and escape being a prey.

PASSAGE – II

The largest green leaf in Nigeria is certainly the burdock-leaf. If you hold it in front of you, it is large enough for an apron;
and if you hold it over your head, it is almost as good as an umbrella, it is so wonderfully large. A burdock never grows
alone; where it grows, there are many more, and it is a splendid sight; and all this splendor is good for snails. The great
white snails, which grand people in olden times used to have made into fricassees; and when they had eaten them, they
would say, "O, what a delicious dish!" for these people really thought them good; and these snails lived on burdock-leaves,
and for them the burdock was planted.
4. The burdock was planted for 6. With reference to the passage, consider the following
(A) the snails. (B) fricassees. statements:
(C) people in the country. (D) the grand people. (1) The people loved the dish made of snails.
(2) Burdock grows in a thicket.
5. The description of burdock leaf is given to
(A) list out its uses. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(B) give the reason why people plant them. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) describe how big/huge it is. (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
(D) reason why the snails like them.

PASSAGE – III
A lot of interesting outcomes can surely be expected from the workshop on renewable sources of energy. Only
periodically throughout the past has the reliance on renewable energy sources been interrupted by the discovery of huge
new deposits of coal, oil, natural gas and uranium. In all the three cases small hitches do exist – coal burning is warming
the atmosphere and producing acid rain which was some years ago implicated in damaging millions of hectares of forests
in central Europe, nuclear power has its own hazards and oil wells cannot be replenished on a human time scale.
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7. With reference to the passage consider the following 9. It is clear that the attitude of the author towards the
statements: use of renewable sources of energy is
(1) According to the author there have been many (A) favourable. (B) antagonistic.
workshops on renewable energy sources. (C) optimistic. (D) negative.
(2) According to the author in the past there were
attempts to make use of renewable energy. 10. Why does the use of renewable energy sources get
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? interrupted periodically?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) The inability of users to use them to their
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 advantage.
(B) Initial prohibitive cost of the energy sources.
8. We are warned that
(A) coal-burning will cause acid rain. (C) Hazards of their over-use.
(B) oil-burning will pollute the atmosphere. (D) The availability of other energy resources
(C) nuclear power cannot be restored. through discovery of huge deposits.
(D) renewable energy will endanger industrial progress.

PASSAGE – IV

It is not every day that well-maintained 28 acre palaces are disposed of for a mere `10 lakh. Many eye brows were raised
in Srinagar when the picturesque palace of the former maharaja of Jammu and Kashimir, Hari Singh, on the up market
Boulevard along the Dal Lake, was sold for a throw away price which would not have fetched even a three-bed-room
house any where in Srinagar.
The sale deed was executed by the heirs of Hari Singh, including former Sardar-I-Riyasat and Rajya Sabha member
Dr. Karan Singh and his family. The palace has been sold to Narinder Kumar Batra, younger son of influential Kashmir business
magnate Dharma Veer Batra. However, it is alleged that the ‘sale’ was carried out to provide a legal cover to the real owner,
Lalit Suri of Bharat Hotels, who being a non-Kashmiri cannot, by law, purchase immovable property in Jammu & Kashmir.
The sale is the envy of other hoteliers in Srinagar. Says Bashir Ahmed, who is also in the hotel business: “I am prepared
to pay `20 crore for the same property. Let Suri or his front man Narinder Batra come forward. They are good businessmen
looking for profits and this should be an attractive proposition – `20 crore for what they purchased for `10 lakh”.
11. What caused many an eyebrow to rise in Srinagar was (B) His close association with Narinder Kumar Batra
(A) the sale of the palace of the former Maharaja for led to a partnership.
a whooping sum. (C) He could not purchase any property in Kashmir
(B) the political controversy involved in the sale of as he was a non-Kashmiri.
the palace. (D) He did not want to be in the lime-light by
(C) the sale of a grand palace for a throw away price. purchasing a historical property.
(D) the purchase of the palace by a non-Kashmiri.
14. The sale of the palace is the envy of other hoteliers
12. Who purchased the palace and from whom?
because
(A) Lalit Suri from Dharam Veer Batra.
(B) Dharam Veer Batra from Hari Singh. (A) it is a valuable property.
(C) The heirs of Hari Singh from Hari Singh. (B) it has historical significance.
(D) Narinder Kumar Batra from the heirs of Hari Singh. (C) a non-Kashmiri bought it.
(D) it is the only sale of a palace in Kashmir.
13. Why did Lalit Suri not purchase the palace from the
real heirs?
(A) His relationship with the real heirs was not good.

PASSAGE – V
One undeniable fact about our urban areas is that they are all extremely filthy. This is not proof of poverty. It is usual to see
mounds of garbage piled outside busy marketplaces where crores worth of business is transacted every day. Public health
is the immediate sufferer. When epidemics strike, we are all at risk. Obviously, what is wrong is the manner in which the task
is being carried out. There is an alternative to the bureaucratic method of delivering public services. This is the New Public
Management (NPM). The traditional bureau chief, say a municipal commissioner, carries out garbage removal today with
battalions of sweepers and fleets of trucks. He therefore spends most of his time handling 'inputs' to his bureau: NPM is the
extension of market principles to public administration. It advises 'contracting-out' of services to competing private agencies
– which could include co-operatives of former municipal sweepers. Now, the bureau chief can actually supervise the 'output'
of his bureau. NPM principles can be extended ad infinitum to all areas of bureaucratic activity. The idea is to provide a 'hollow
state' quite like the 'hollow corporations' that contract-out all manufacturing. The IAS should try NPM. We need clean towns.
15. The author is concerned about the way the garbage 16. How is NPM better than the present method?
is handled by (A) It cleans up the city better.
(A) business community. (B) NPM advises contracting-out of services.
(B) the Government's agents.
(C) It is not a hollow state.
(C) the people who follow Gandhism.
(D) vendors in market areas. (D) It is cost-effective.
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17. If NPM is implemented, the erstwhile lower rung 19. With reference to the passage consider the following
employees of municipal corporations statements:
(A) will be given a golden hand shake. (1) The advantage of following NPM is that it
(B) will be given jobs. brings down running expenses.
(C) can form unions and disrupt the cleaning up activity. (2) The advantage of following NPM is that the
(D) can form cooperatives and start delivering the
manager or chief can devote his attention to the
same services they have been rendering.
result of work undertaken.
18. It can be inferred from the passage that
(A) poverty encourages filthy surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(B) poverty alone should not be blamed for the (A) 1 only
accumulation of filth. (B) 2 only
(C) filthy surroundings need not necessarily reflect (C) Both 1 and 2
poverty. (D) Neither 1 nor 2
(D) health of the poor is at a greater risk.

Exercise – 4
Directions for questions 1 to 25: Read each passage carefully and choose the best answer for the questions that follow it.
PASSAGE – I
In this century, the wealth and success of nations will depend like never before on the ability to produce and use
knowledge. In an increasingly globalized world, and in the face of rapid scientific change, universities will need to think
about a set of new challenges and how best to prepare their students for the coming decades.
It will be vital, as never before, for university graduates to have a grasp of foreign cultures and global issues. Before September
11, 2001, if you had asked the average American to name a remote country that matters little to the United States, the response
might well have been Afghanistan. Today, it is clear that no country is so remote that it cannot affect our way of life. Universities,
especially in the United States, will need to evolve to reflect the reality of interdependence, to educate more foreign students,
to send more of their students abroad and to incorporate international perspectives in every area of study.
Universities will need to teach a new kind of literacy, defined not just by global awareness. Beyond their contribution to
scientific progress, universities are uniquely suited to grapple with the important ethical questions raised by modern
science. This means that those who wish to be educated members of our society will need to understand something of
science and technology. It may once have been acutely embarrassing to not know the names of five plays by
Shakespeare, but acceptable to not know the difference between a gene and a chromosome. This can no longer be the
case. As universities seek to meet the challenges of greater global integration and more advanced science, they will need
to keep in mind the values that have been central to their success.
1. The author gives the example of a gene and (B) They should deny admission to foreign students.
chromosome to show that (C) They should encourage more American students
(A) educated people must know something of to study abroad.
science and technology. (D) They should introduce new courses.
(B) we must read Shakespeare’s plays.
(C) there is no ethics in society. 4. September 11, 2000 is mentioned in the context of
(D) universities play an important role in society. (A) the ignorance of the average American.
(B) the increasing spread of terrorism.
2. In this century, the wealth or the prosperity of the (C) the role of universities in eradicating violence.
nation depends on (D) the need to understand foreign culture and global
(A) the development of industries. issues.
(B) the production and utilization of knowledge.
(C) multiplication of universities. 5. The passage is about
(D) its natural resources. (A) the flaws in the American universities.
(B) the progress in science and technology.
3. Which of the following, is NOT a suggestion made by (C) the need for moral and ethical values.
the author to the American universities? (D) the role of the universities in meeting the
(A) They should learn to understand the reality of challenges of the day.
interdependence.

PASSAGE – II
I t was few years ago that an entirely new disease, the Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), suddenly appeared
first in China and spread panic worldwide. In a matter of a few months, over 8,000 people were infected and more than
700 had died in 29 countries spanning the globe. Strict quarantine ultimately halted the pandemic.
SARS is the first disease to be tackled right from the beginning with a whole new scientific armour created by the genomic
revolution. The network of 13 laboratories mobilized by the World Health Organisation (WHO) last year pinned down a
coronavirus as being responsible for SARS in just two weeks. Within a month, the entire genome of the SARS virus had
been independently sequenced by two groups. Using genomic information, scientists have identified viral proteins that
drugs could target. Vaccines to protect people from contracting the disease are already being tried on animals.
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Despite all this frenetic scientific activity, there is also considerable unease. Human coronaviruses had hitherto been
responsible only for colds and other mild respiratory infections. It was not a case of an existing human coronavirus becoming
potent by changing its genes, either through mutation or by swapping genes with another virus. Studies comparing the SARS
viral genome to that of other animal coronaviruses have suggested that the former has mammalian ancestry.
The SARS virus probably evolved separately from the ancestor of a known coronavirus, and infected an unidentified
animal host for a very long time before moving to humans and starting the SARS epidemic, say Kathryn Holmes and Luis
Enjuanes, experts on coronaviruses. But no one still knows with any certainty which animal (or animals) harbours the
virus and from where it made the leap into humans.
The human SARS virus might well have arisen when different virus strains infected the same animal and exchanged
genes. David Guttman and John Stavrinides of the University of Toronto in Canada, suggest that the SARS virus may
have combined mammalian and avian genes.
Large numbers of people, fowl and animals living cheek by jowl in China increases the chances of a dangerous new viral
strain successfully entering the human population, and the possibility of a deadlier form of SARS arising cannot be ruled out.
6. How was the deadly disease SARS contained 8. Till recently human coronaviruses were considered
according to the passage? responsible for
(A) A network of 13 laboratories, mobilized by the (A) colds and mild respiratory infections.
World Health Organisation had pinned down the (B) heart problems.
deadly disease. (C) fatal diseases.
(D) None of the above.
(B) Powerful vaccines curbed SARS.
(C) Scientists controlled the disease with the use of 9. Which of the following statements is true, according
genome information. to the passage?
(A) All coronaviruses have the same ancestry.
(D) The spread of the disease was prevented by
(B) The SARS virus may have mammalian ancestry.
isolating the countries that were affected by
(C) The SARS virus may have mammalian but not
SARS.
avian genes.
7. According to the passage, which is the root cause for (D) The SARS first emerged in Canada.
the spread of SARS virus? 10. The phrase ‘cheek by jowl’ as used in the passage means
(A) Chicken (A) close together. (B) isolated.
(B) Cats and Ferrets (C) far away. (D) outdoors.
(C) Not known
(D) Pigs

PASSAGE – III

Growing digitization and use of data for decision-making increase the risk of hacking and fraud manifold. The drive
towards a cashless economy is spurring demand for digital security architects, who will look into various aspects of cyber
and digital security. ‘As digitization goes up, security aspect will be crucial. There will be a huge demand for people who
can make transactions and digital channels (mobile banking, Internet banking, wallet) secure,’ said Rishi Aurora,
managing director, financial services at Accenture. Even big companies such as Sony and Yahoo have faced
cyberattacks. This underscores the need for devising more robust cyber security systems. ‘With digitization, we will see
a lot of data breaches in the future as well because semi-literate people are getting into the digitized payment system,’
said Jappreet Sethi, cofounder of YoStartups. Startups will need digital security officers just like their established
counterparts. ‘No startup in India is firm on this and Indian data is like fodder. One breach can cost an entire company to
shut down since wallets aren’t tight enough, security wise,’ said Sethi. We need people who bring in design thinking skills
and can build apps and websites.The skills required for such roles would be knowledge of security solutions and strong
business knowledge to understand the complexity of transactions. Proficiency in high level languages and experience in
ethical hacking – companies could do legal hacking marathons to identify younger people who are experts in this. Such
staff members need not even come to office in some cases unless they are in a senior role.
The government’s demonetization drive has led to new risks, with a few unscrupulous elements attempting to misuse the
banking system. Their modus operandi is to exploit existing banking products or services to undertake dubious
transactions. This has a potentially debilitating impact on customer and investor confidence, reputational risk and
regulatory impact that together add up to impact the reliability of a bank. In this scenario, the roles of the bank’s anti-
money laundering unit’s principal officer and the fraud containment unit become crucial. ‘We will be able to detect
abnormal transactions or patterns made more difficult due to large volumes of such transactions in the current scenario.
We will also be able to detect irregularities or fraudulent actions and documentation frauds that may be embedded in
seemingly bonafide transactions,’ said Deodutta Kurane, group president (human capital management) at YES Bank.
A few perquisites for this job would be thorough understanding of post demonetization banking process, regulatory and
compliance knowledge, and advanced customer insights. Further, using big data analytics to build a fraud indicator dash
board for robust monitoring to help provide real-time fraud alarms on customer transactions and internal violations, enable
customer profiling and provide analysis to strengthen product gaps. Analysing possible deviation or suspicious activity by
monitoring customer transaction patterns in relation to customer profiles.
One of the biggest challenges pertaining to demonetization and digitization is bridging the literacy gap. This will require
a combination of biometrics, regional language programming and graphical UI design. Companies such as Apple that
have managed to successfully pull these hardware, software and design elements together have managed to derive
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sustainable competitive advantage. “These skills aren’t readily available in the labour market in India and employers will
need to find people with core technical aptitude and train them up to specification,” said Rakshit Desai, managing director
of FCM Travel Solutions. The basic skills one must have here are people with knowledge of robotics, artificial intelligence
and machine learning will become quite valuable in this evalution. These are people who can translate business
requirements into digital language and when digital geeks come up with solutions they can connect that to the core
business strategy. “There will be a huge demand for such people who can connect what technology provides with
business solutions to create new opportunities for business,” said Raghu Gullapalli, managing director (products)
at Accenture. In consumer facing businesses such as automobiles, fast-moving consumer goods, airports and real estate,
there are three main challenges thrown up by digitization: externally serving customers, internally leveraging digitization
across organization to unlock efficiency and looking at digital technology to transform and disrupt digital models. Digital
champions will play a crucial role in acting as a bridge between various solutions and business processes. One must have
strong business and domain knowledge, along with an MBA degree to fit in here.
11. According to the author, (C) a combination of devising more sturdy cyber
(A) digitisation has resulted in infinite challenges security systems.
when interacting with consumers. (D) transacting business requirements into digital
(B) absence of digital security officers can lead to language.
occasional breaches.
(C) customer connect is an ingenious way of 14. Which of the following best describes a digital
representing market forces. security architect?
(D) semi-literate people will add to the digitized (A) One who can disrupt digital models.
payment section. (B) A person who exploits existing banking products.
(C) An expert in ethical hacking and cyber security
12. Which of the following is a challenge in the digitization functions.
era, according to the passage? (D) One who ensures complete customer connect.
(A) proving credibility to customers
(B) lack of experts 15. It can be inferred from the passage that
(C) devising strategies to narrow the literacy gap (1) training is essential even for people with core
(D) inability to detect abnormalities technical aptitude.
(2) digital champions will pioneer business solutions.
13. Business solutions will be centered around (3) digital CXOs are essential for acquiring customers.
(A) acquiring customers at a fast pace. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) 1 and 3
(B) demonetisation.

PASSAGE – IV

In many areas, grasslands have been used for centuries by pastoral communities. Over-utilization and changes in
landuse of the 'common grazing lands' of rural communities has lead to their degradation. The grass land cover in the
country, in terms of permanent pastures, now covers only 3.7% of the total land. A main threat to natural grasslands is
the conversion of grasslands into irrigated farmlands. In the Deccan, grasslands have been altered to irrigated farms and
are now mainly used to grow sugarcane, which is a water intensive crop. After continuous irrigation, such land becomes
saline and useless in a few years. More recently, many of these residual grassland tracts have been converted into
industrial areas. This provides short-term economic gains but results in long-term economic and ecological losses.
Grasslands have a limited ability to support domestic animals and wildlife. Increasing this pressure by increasing the
number of domestic animals reduces the 'naturalness' of the grassland ecosystem leading to its deterioration.
Most grassland ecosystem are highly modified by human activities. Cattle, sheep and goat grazing, and lighting repeated
fires all affect the grasslands adversely. Changing the grasslands to other forms of landuse such as agriculture, tree
plantations and industrialization poses a serious threat to this highly-productive ecosystem. Thus, some of the grassland
patches, which are in a less disturbed state and have retained their special plants and animals, need to be urgently protected.
The degradation of grassland due to over-grazing by cattle, sheep and goats occurs if more than a critical number of
domestic animals are present in the grasslands. When animals overgraze the area, the grasses are converted into flat
stubs with very little green matter. Degraded grasslands have fewer grass species as the nutritious species are entirely
used up by the large number of domestic animals, and are thus unable to regenerate.
When fires are lit in the grasslands in summer, the burnt grass gets a fresh flush of small green shoots which the domestic
animals graze on. If this is done too frequently, the grasslands begin to deteriorate. Finally, the grasslands become bare;
the soil is solidly compacted by trampling, or is washed away during the monsoon by rain and whipped into dust storms
during the hot dry summer. The land is degraded, as there is no grass to hold the soil in place. It becomes a wasteland.
Most people feel that it is only our forests and its wildlife that is disappearing. However, other natural ecosystems,
such as grasslands, are disappearing, even more rapidly.
Many of the grasslands species have disappeared from several parts of India in which they were found 50 or 60 years
ago. The Cheetah is extinct in India; the wolf is now highly threatened; the blackbuck and chinkara are being poached for
their meat birds such as the beautiful Great Indian Bustard are vanishing. Unless grassland species are protected, they
will vanish from their shrinking habitat, as natural and undisturbed grasslands are left in very few locations. If these animals
and birds are killed or their habitat is reduced further, their extinction will rapidly follow.
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16. How are irrigated farmlands in the Deccan a major (B) Agricultural activities have no impact on the
threat to natural grasslands? grassland cover.
(A) They don't help grow sugarcane. (C) Domestic animals help expand the grassland cover.
(B) They are used to grow a water-intensive (D) Forest fires lead to the overgrowth of grasslands.
sugarcane crop, leading to salinity of the land.
(C) They are used to establish industries. 19. Which of the following is not a cause that turns
(D) They provide short-term economic gains grasslands into wastelands?
(A) Repeated fires during summer
17. Which of the following leads to the degradation of the (B) Grazing of domestic animals on grasslands
grasslands? (C) Dependence of pastoral communities on grasslands
(1) Over-utilization (D) The soil on the degraded grasslands getting
(2) Increase in the number of domestic animals compacted by trampling
(3) Industries
20. How does the degradation of grasslands affect
(4) Changes in landuse of the common grazing lands
animal life?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (A) It contributes to the disappearance of several
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4 other grassland species.
(B) It reduces their habitat, contributing to their extinction.
18. Which of the following can most plausibly be inferred
(C) It helps them adapt to the harder circumstances.
from the passage?
(D) It makes them look for new habitats.
(A) Human activities must be regulated to protect the
grassland ecosystem.

PASSAGE – V
O siris was the offspring of an intrigue between the earth-god Seb (Keb or Geb, as the name is sometimes transliterated)
and the sky-goddess Nut. The Greeks identified his parents with their own deities Cronus and Rhea. When the sun-god
Ra perceived that his wife Nut had been unfaithful to him, he declared with a curse that she should be delivered of the
child in no month and no year. But the goddess had another lover, the god Thoth or Hermes, as the Greeks called him,
and he playing at draughts with the moon won from her a seventy-second part of every day, and having compounded five
whole days out of these parts he added them to the Egyptian year of three hundred and sixty days. This was the mythical
origin of the five supplementary days which the Egyptians annually inserted at the end of every year in order to establish
a harmony between lunar and solar time. On these five days, regarded as outside the year of twelve months, the curse
of the sun-god did not rest, and accordingly Osiris was born on the first of them. At his nativity a voice rang out proclaiming
that the Lord of All had come into the world. Some say that a certain Pamyles heard a voice from the temple at
Thebes bidding him announce with a shout that a great king, the beneficent Osiris, was born. But Osiris was not the only
child of his mother. On the second of the supplementary days she gave birth to the elder Horus, on the third to the god
Set, whom the Greeks called Typhon, on the fourth to the goddess Isis, and on the fifth to the goddess Nephthys.
Afterwards Set married his sister Nephthys, and Osiris married his sister Isis. Reigning as a king on earth, Osiris reclaimed
the Egyptians from savagery, gave them laws, and taught them to worship the gods.

Before his time the Egyptians had been cannibals. But Isis, the sister and wife of Osiris, discovered wheat and barley
growing wild, and Osiris introduced the cultivation of these grains amongst his people, who forthwith abandoned
cannibalism and took kindly to a corn diet. Moreover, Osiris is said to have been the first to gather fruit from trees, to train
the vine to poles, and to tread the grapes. Eager to communicate these beneficent discoveries to all mankind, he
committed the whole government of Egypt to his wife Isis, and travelled over the world, diffusing the blessings of civilisation
and agriculture wherever he went. In countries where a harsh climate or niggardly soil forbade the cultivation of the vine,
he taught the inhabitants to console themselves for the want of wine by brewing beer from barley. Loaded with the wealth
that had been showered upon him by grateful nations, he returned to Egypt, and on account of the benefits he had
conferred on mankind he was unanimously hailed and worshipped as a deity. But his brother Set (whom the Greeks called
Typhon) with seventy-two others plotted against him. Having taken the measure of his good brother's body by stealth, the
bad brother Typhon fashioned and highly decorated a coffer of the same size, and once when they were all drinking and
making merry he brought in the coffer and jestingly promised to give it to the one whom it should fit exactly. Well, they all
tried one after the other, but it fitted none of them. Last of all Osiris stepped into it and lay down. On that the conspirators
ran and slammed the lid down on him, nailed it fast, soldered it with molten lead, and flung the coffer into the Nile. This
happened on the seventeenth day of the month Athyr, when the sun is in the sign of the Scorpion, and in the eight-and-
twentieth year of the reign or the life of Osiris. When Isis heard of it she sheared off a lock of her hair, put on a mourning
attire, and wandered disconsolately up and down, seeking the body.

21. Which of the following is not among the things Osiris did? (C) Osiris married his sister Isis.
(A) He was the first to gather fruit from trees. (D) Osiris attacked other nations to gain wealth.
(B) He discovered wheat and barley growing wild.
(C) He introduced the cultivation of grains to people. 23. What curse did Ra put on Nut?
(D) He spread agriculture and civilisation to other (A) That the birth of Osiris would lead to wars and
parts of the world. famines.
(B) That the river Nile would dry up on Osiris's birth.
22. All of the following are correct about Osiris, EXCEPT:
(A) Osiris was the first child of Nut and Geb. (C) That Nut shall not give birth any day of the year.
(B) He was the brother of Seth, Nephthys, and Isis. (D) That Nut would become infertile.
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24. Why did Typhon take a measure of Osiris's body? 25. Why did Osiris travel around the world?
(A) To get new clothes designed for him (A) To establish colonies
(B) To make a stone statue of him (B) To spread Christianity
(C) To make a coffer that would fit Osiris's body (C) To spread civilisation and agriculture
(D) It was part of a custom (D) To gain allies to fight his enemies at home

Exercise – 5
Directions for questions 1 to 30: Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions given below.

PASSAGE – I

S hortly after my education at college was finished, I happened to be staying at Paris with an English friend. We were
both young men then, and lived, I am afraid, rather a wild life, in the delightful city of our sojourn. One night we were idling
about the neighborhood of the Palais Royal, doubtful to what amusement we should next betake ourselves.
My friend proposed a visit to Frascati's; but his suggestion was not to my taste. I knew Frascati's, as the French saying
is, by heart; I had lost and won plenty of five-franc pieces there, merely for amusement's sake, until it was amusement no
longer, and was thoroughly tired, in fact, of all the ghastly respectabilities of such a social anomaly as a respectable
gambling-house. "For Heaven's sake," said I to my friend, "let us go somewhere where we can see a little genuine,
blackguard, poverty-stricken gaming with no false gingerbread glitter thrown over it all. Let us get away from fashionable
Frascati’s, to a house where they don't mind letting in a man with a ragged coat, or a man with no coat, ragged or
otherwise." "Very well," said my friend, "we needn't go out of the Palais Royal to find the sort of company you want.
Here's the place just before us; as blackguard a place, by all report, as you could possibly wish to see." In another minute
we arrived at the door, and entered the house, the back of which you have drawn in your sketch.
When we got upstairs, and had left our hats and sticks with the doorkeeper, we were admitted into the chief gambling-
room. We did not find many people assembled there. But, few as the men were who looked up at us on our entrance;
they were all types--lamentably true types--of their respective classes.
We had come to see blackguards; but these men were something worse. There is a comic side, more or less appreciable,
in all blackguardism--here there was nothing but tragedy--mute, weird tragedy. The quiet in the room was horrible.
The thin, haggard, long-haired young man, whose sunken eyes fiercely watched the turning up of the cards, never spoke;
the flabby, fat-faced, pimply player, who pricked his piece of pasteboard perseveringly, to register how often black won, and
how often red--never spoke; the dirty, wrinkled old man, with the vulture eyes and the darned great-coat, who had lost his
last soul, and still looked on desperately, after he could play no longer--never spoke. Even the voice of the croupier sounded
as if it were strangely dulled and thickened in the atmosphere of the room. I had entered the place to laugh, but the spectacle
before me was something to weep over. I soon found it necessary to take refuge in excitement from the depression of spirits
which was fast stealing on me. Unfortunately I sought the nearest excitement, by going to the table and beginning to play.
1. When did the narrator of the passage and his friend 4. According to the passage, what do they do at
start their stay at Paris? Frascati's?
(A) Shortly after staying off classes at college (A) They gamble.
(B) Shortly after finishing college midway through term (B) They socialize.
(C) Shortly after the college rusticated the narrator (C) They drink and dance.
(D) Shortly after formally finishing education at college (D) They argue and shout at each other.

2. "a wild life" led by the narrator and his English friend 5. What did the narrator of the passage do after entering
could mean "the house"?
(A) a life beyond their wildest dreams and fantasies. (A) He introduced himself to a few others in the room.
(B) a life dedicated to preserving wildlife in Paris. (B) He made friends with like-minded men there.
(C) a life dictated by the ministry of the environment. (C) He ordered drinks for himself and his English friend.
(D) a life that is uncontrolled, dangerous and (D) He went to a table and began to play.
undisciplined.
6. What adjectives are used to describe the young man
3. "Blackguard" can be defined as at the beginning of the last para?
(A) a guard who is black in colour. (A) Hollow-cheeked, haggard, thin, gaunt and
(B) a security guard assigned the duty of guarding long-haired.
blacks. (B) Sunken-eyed, thin, haggard, long-haired and young.
(C) a man who treats other people very badly. (C) Silent, gray-haired, thin, haggard and famished.
(D) a guard born of black parents in the US and the UK. (D) Clean-shaved, thin, tonsured, haggard and tall.

PASSAGE – II
And so, all of a sudden, the industrialised countries found themselves falling over each other in a race to get to remote and
wild places. The wilder they were the better. They needed them not only so they could sell their goods, but also because
those places often had things that their own countries didn’t have, such as cotton for making cloth and oil for petrol. But there
again, the more of these so-called ‘raw materials’ they brought from the colonies to Europe, the more the factories were able
to produce, and the more eager was their search for places where there were still people who would buy their vast output.
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People who were unable to find work in their own countries could now emigrate to these foreign places. In short, it became
vitally important for the countries of Europe to own colonies. No one bothered to ask the native inhabitants what they
thought about it. And, as you can imagine, they were often very badly treated if any of them tried shooting at the invading
troops with their bows and arrows.
Of course, the British did best in this division of the world. After all, they had had possessions in India, Australia and North
America for several centuries, and colonies in Africa, where their influence in Egypt was particularly strong. The French
had also started early, and by now owned a large part of Indo-China and several parts of Africa, among them the Sahara
desert – more impressive, perhaps, on account of its size than for any other reason. The Russians had no colonies
overseas, but their own empire was vast and they didn’t yet have many factories. They wanted to extend their grasp
across Asia as far as the sea, and trade from there. But their way was barred by those good students of the Europeans,
the Japanese, who said: ‘Stop!’ In a dreadful war that broke out between Russia and Japan in 1905, the tsar’s mighty
empire was defeated, and forced to give up some of its territory by tiny, new Japan. And now the Japanese also began
building more and more new factories for themselves, and they, too, needed foreign lands, not just to sell their goods, but
because there wasn’t enough room for them all in their tiny island kingdom.
Naturally enough, last in line for the share-out were the new states: Italy and Germany. While they had been fragmented,
they had been in no position to conquer lands overseas. Now they wanted to make up for centuries of lost opportunities.
After much fighting, Italy obtained some narrow strips of land in Africa.
Germany was stronger and had more factories, so its needs were greater. And in time, Bismarck succeeded in acquiring
several larger stretches of land for Germany, mainly in Africa, together with some islands in the Pacific.
But because of the way the whole thing works you can never have enough land. More colonies mean more factories,
more factories mean more goods and more goods mean that even more colonies are needed. The demand isn’t driven by
ambition or the lust for power, but by a genuine need. But now the world had been shared out. To create new colonies – or
merely to prevent the old ones being snatched from them by stronger neighbours – it was necessary to fight, or at least to
threaten to do so. So each state raised powerful armies and navies and kept on saying: ‘Attack me if you dare!’ The countries
that had been powerful for centuries felt they had a right to be so. But when the new German empire and its excellent
factories entered the game, built a great navy and tried to win more and more influence in Asia and Africa, the others took
it very badly. And because everyone knew that sooner or later there was bound to be a fearful conflict, they all went on
expanding their armies and building bigger and bigger battleships.
7. Which of the following, according to the passage, was (D) Both Italy and Germany wanted other European
NOT a reason why it was important to own colonies nations to prosper first
for European countries?
10. Which of the following, according to the passage
(A) To sell their goods produced by their industries
stopped Russia from extending their grasp across Asia?
(B) To get raw material for their industries
(A) China (B) France (C) India (D) Japan
(C) Jobs for their citizens
(D) Spreading Christianity 11. Which of the following regions was not a part of the
8. The passage claims- 'Britain did best in this division of British colonies?
the world.' Which of the following justifies this statement? (A) Egypt (B) India
(A) None of the other nations had the military might (C) Australia (D) Japan
of Britain 12. Which of the following best expresses the summary
(B) It was the most successful in acquiring new of the passage?
territories among countries vying for colonies (A) The establishment of colonies by European powers
(C) Britan was a peaceloveing country led to the emancipation of the people around the
(D) All the European countries were united in the world who had been living in centuries of darkness
quest for new colonies (B) Japan was the only Asian power that challenged
9. Why were Italy and Germany late to join the fight for the European hegemony of the world.
colonies? (C) Germany and Italy by joining the rush for
(A) They had no need of colonies as they did not colonies led to the First World War.
have industries (D) The quest for raw materials to feed their ever-
(B) Italy and Germany did not wish to colonise other growing industries led to the rush for colonies
people and considerable hostilities among major powers
(C) They had been fragmented nations and so could of the world.
not conquer other lands

PASSAGE – III
The Palestinian economy would expand by more than a third if Israeli restrictions on movement, land access and water use
are lifted in the majority of the occupied West Bank that remains under full Israeli control, a World Bank report has said.
The report warned of a “bleak” future if Israel did not relinquish its economic strictures in what is known as area C, which
comprises 61 per cent of the West Bank, but it also said Palestinians would have to address Israeli security concerns there.
“More than half of the land in the West Bank, much of it agriculture and resource rich, is inaccessible to the Palestinians,”
the report said. “Without the ability to conduct purposeful economic activity in area C, the economic space of the West
Bank will remain crowded and stunted, inhabited by people whose daily interactions with the state of Israel are
characterised by inconvenience, expense and frustration.”
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The report, which was welcomed by Palestinians, but criticised by Israel’s foreign ministry, comes two weeks after
Tony Blair, in his capacity as envoy of the Middle East peace making quartet, unveiled at the United Nations plans for a
major effort to boost the Palestinian private sector including in construction, housing, and agriculture. Mr Blair said success
would depend, among other things, on Israel’s implementing “large scale easing measures”.
While the World Bank said there has been some easing of movement and access restrictions in recent years, it stressed
that they still “fragment” the West Bank and cause major economic damage. At the end of 2012, sixty percent of the
Palestinian communities were still compelled to use detours that are 2 to 5 times longer than the direct route to the closest
city, the report said. Israel has said the restrictions are needed to prevent Palestinian attacks, but Palestinians charge
that they constitute economic warfare. The report said movement of people and goods “is severely limited by a
multi-layered system of physical, institutional and administrative impediments. Physical barriers are compounded by
unpredictable regulatory measures and practices.”
The report added that Palestinian agriculture is obstructed by Israeli restrictions on accessing land and on water use and
would undergo a major transformation if curbs were lifted. It cited the formidable output of Israeli settlements in date and
pomegranate production, noting most Palestinian cultivation is still of olives due to their relatively low water requirement.
The report said that minerals from the Dead Sea, including potash and bromide, could become a major boon for the
Palestinian economy as they have for Jordan and Israel and that Palestinians could open hotels on the Dead Sea shore.
“The total potential value added for alleviating today’s restrictions on the access and activity and production in area C is likely
to amount to $3.4bn or thirty five per cent of the Palestinian GDP,” the report said. It estimated that Palestinian unemployment
would shrink by more than a third if the strictures were eased and that the need for foreign donor support would be reduced.
Israeli foreign ministry spokesman Paul Hirschson criticised the report as “partial”.
“It ignores the global economic situation, violence in Palestinian society and the fact that Israel has spoken of the need to
nurture the Palestinian economy, including area C, and has done so.” he said. Mr Hirschson said that issues in the report
would be discussed in the peace negotiations that resumed in July
Samir Abdallah, director of the Ramallah-based Palestinian Economic Policy Research Institute, praised the report as
being “an objective assessment”. “I’m sure lifting restrictions in area C will have a meaningful and dramatic impact on the
growth of the Palestinian economy,” he said.
He did not rule out that Mr Blair’s efforts could produce some results. “Our experience with Tony Blair is that he promises, but
that his delivery has not been impressive. Now he’s backed by this plan and the Americans so this time let’s wait and see.”
13. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the (3) It would expand if Israeli restrictions on taxes and
word ‘expand’ given in bold as used in the passage? other policies is lifted.
(A) grow (B) compress (A) Only (1) (B) (1) and (2)
(C) impress (D) restrict (C) Only (3) (D) (A) and (3)
14. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to 17. Which of the following is not true according to the
the word ‘unpredictable’ given in bold as used in the passage?
passage? (A) Minerals from the Dead Sea could become
(A) uncertain (B) steady a major boon for the Palestinian economy.
(C) unstable (D) unreliable (B) Palestinians could open hotels on the dead sea
15. Which of the following is true according to the passage? shore.
(C) Israeli Finance Ministry spokesperson claimed
(A) More than half of the land in the West Bank is
the World Bank report to be partial.
inaccessible to the Palestinians.
(D) The World Bank report was not welcomed by the
(B) Palestinians get access to agriculture and
Palestinians.
resource rich lands.
(C) Palestinians do not claim to have constituted 18. Which of the following is not true according to the
economic welfare. passage?
(D) Palestinian employment would shrink with (A) The economic space of the West Bank will
foreign support. remain crowded and stunted.
(B) The economic space of the West Bank will be
16. How can Palestinian economy expand according to
inhabited by the people whose daily interactions
the World Bank report mentioned in the passage?
with the state of Israel are inconvenient.
(1) It can expand if Israeli restrictions on land and
(C) At the end of 2012, 60% of the Palestinian
water use are lifted.
communities were compelled to use detours.
(2) It can expand if Israeli restrictions on people’s
(D) Potash and bromide could become a major curse
movement are lifted.
for Jordan and Israel.

PASSAGE – IV

O ur character, basically, is a composite of our habits. "Sow a thought, reap an action; sow an action, reap a habit; sow
a habit, reap a character; sow a character, reap a destiny," the maxim goes.

Habits are powerful factors in our lives. Because they are consistent, often unconscious patterns, they constantly, daily,
express our character and produce our effectiveness ... or ineffectiveness.
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As Horace Mann, the great educator, once said, "Habits are like a cable. We weave a strand of it everyday and soon it
cannot be broken." I personally do not agree with the last part of his expression. I know they can be broken. Habits can
be learned and unlearned. But I also know it isn't a quick fix. It involves a process and a tremendous commitment.
Those of us who watched the lunar voyage of Apollo 11 were transfixed as we saw the first men walk on the moon and return
to earth. Superlatives such as "fantastic" and "incredible" were inadequate to describe those eventful days. But to get there,
those astronauts literally had to break out of the tremendous gravity pull of the earth. More energy was spent in the first few
minutes of the lift-off, in the first few miles of travel, than was used over the next several days to travel half a million miles.
Habits, too, have tremendous gravity pull---more than most people realize or would admit. Breaking deeply embedded
habitual tendencies such as procrastination, impatience, criticalness, or selfishness that violate basic principles of human
effectiveness involves more than a little willpower and a few minor changes in our lives. "Lift off" takes a tremendous
effort, but once we break out of the gravity pull, our freedom takes on a whole new dimension.
Like any natural force, gravity pull can work with us or against us. The gravity pull of some of our habits may currently be
keeping us from going where we want to go. But it is also gravity pull that keeps our world together, that keeps the planets
in their orbits and our universe in order. It is a powerful force, and if we use it effectively, we can use the gravity pull of
habit to create the cohesiveness and order necessary to establish effectiveness in our lives.
For our purposes, we will define a habit as the intersection of knowledge, skill and desire. Knowledge is the theoretical
paradigm, the what to do and the why. Skill is the how to do. And desire is the motivation, the want to do. In order to
make something a habit in our lives, we have to have all three.
I may be ineffective in my interactions with my work associates, my spouse, or my children because I constantly tell them
what I think, but I never really listen to them. Unless I search out correct principles of human interaction, I may not even
know I need to listen.
Even if I do not know that in order to interact effectively with others I really need to listen to them, I may not have the skill.
I may not know how to really listen deeply to another human being.
19. According to the author, why are habits powerful and rocket technology.
consistent factors in our lives?
(A) They are part of our day-to-day lives. 22. According to the author, a habit can be defined as
(B) They are unchanging and lead us to rigid positions. (A) a lot of wisdom, foresight and willingness.
(C) They are fickle and cannot be trusted to last long. (B) the intersection of knowledge, skill and desire.
(D) They express our character and produce our (C) a combination of human resources and talents.
effectiveness or ineffectiveness. (D) patience, perseverance, tolerance and
willpower.
20. Why does the author of the passage disagree with the
great educator Horace Mann when the latter gave 23. How does the gravity pull help our universe?
a definition of habits? (1) The gravity pull keeps our world together.
(A) Because the author constantly disagreed with (2) The gravity pull keeps the planets in their orbits.
and contradicted Horace Mann. (3) The gravity pull keeps our universe in order.
(B) Because the author's perception and definition of (A) Only (1)
things were different. (B) Both (1) and (2)
(C) Because the author thinks habits can be broken, (C) Only (2)
learned and unlearned. (D) All the three: (1), (2) and (3)
(D) Because the author says our character is
a composite of our habits. 24. Why does the author say that he is being ineffective
in his interactions with others?
21. Why did the Apollo 11 spacecraft need more energy (A) The author is restless and impatient and in a
in the first few minutes of its lift-off than in the later hurry to finish saying his say.
part of its voyage to the moon? (B) The author never got into the habit of listening to
(A) As Apollo 11 had to break out of the tremendous anyone from birth.
gravity pull of the earth. (C) The author has too much to say and he says it all
(B) As Apollo 11 mission was the first manned within the given time.
voyage to the moon. (D) The author constantly tells others what he thinks
(C) As Apollo 11 astronauts were flying to the moon but never listens to them.
for the first time ever.
(D) As Apollo 11 spacecraft didn’t have the modern

PASSAGE – V

Douglas is the kicking coach for the Miami Dolphins in the National Football League. He has this job despite the fact
that he has spent his life flat on his back in bed or enthusiastically tooling around in his wheelchair. Douglas has never
taken a step or kicked a ball, yet he's one of the most successful, highly motivated people you'll ever see.

The question is, how did Douglas become a successful coach in the most highly competitive branch of football in the
world? The credit starts with his parents. They raised him to believe that he could accomplish incredible objectives if he

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believed that he could, set them as goals, studied, and worked hard at accomplishing those objectives. As a child,
Douglas's goal was to coach in the NFL.
How did Douglas learn how to coach, having never kicked a football? Never having kicked has turned out to be an advantage,
because he never imposes his own techniques or experiences on a player. Early on, he studied intently the techniques of
the most successful kickers. At Douglas's request, Ben Agajanian, who was working with the Dallas Cowboys, sent him all
the material that he had on successful kickers, including videotapes. Douglas invested countless hours intently watching
videos of the best kickers in professional football. As a result, he was able to detect the slightest flaws when a kick went
wide, fell short, or never got airborne enough to keep from being blocked. More important, he carefully studied every detail
of what happened when the kick was good. Over a lengthy period of watching those kickers, Douglas was able to identify
the techniques that were the most effective---not for any specific kicker, but for kickers in general.
Douglas had an opportunity to coach at the high school level and was an instant success. Next, he wrote to Miami
Dolphins’ coach Jimmy Johnson and sent him reports and concepts that he had developed as a coach of kickers. Johnson
was thoroughly impressed and invited Douglas for an interview. At that point, Johnson had no idea that Douglas had
been wheelchair-bound all his life. This fact obviously made zero difference to Johnson, who is results-oriented. He
invited Douglas aboard to be his kicking coach, which is really incredible, since it's almost unheard of for a coach to jump
straight from high school coaching to the National Football League.
It's important to note that there are things Douglas cannot do---that is, run and kick, However, he recognizes that he can
think, study, plan, prepare and expect. Because he does all those things, he has become the successful kicking coach
for the Miami Dolphins that he is today. The same process enables you to be more successful, too. I encourage you to
take this powerful message and apply it in every phase of your own life and to emphasize it to your kids.
25. Even though he is wheelchair-bound, Douglas (B) Douglas sent him weekly newspaper clippings
(A) lies flat on his back in bed. about football matches.
(B) enthusiastically tools around in his wheelchair. (C) Douglas sent him pictures and wrote to him
(C) has never kicked a ball about his dreams.
(D) All the above options. (D) Douglas wrote reports about the flaws in kicking
the football.
26. What did Douglas's parents do to contribute to his
phenomenal success as a football coach? 29. Why did Johnson, the Miami Dolphins’ coach,
(A) The parents sent Douglas to the best sports overlook Douglas's wheelchair and his physical
school in his hometown. disability during an interview?
(B) The parents taught him how to become a coach. (A) Johnson and Douglas got on very well before
(C) The parents sent him to university. and during the interview.
(D) The parents told him that he could accomplish (B) Johnson heard a lot about Douglas before the
his incredible objectives if he set them as goals. interview and was impressed.
(C) Johnson was thoroughly pleased with the reports
27. How did his inability to kick a football turn out to be an and concepts sent by Douglas.
advantage for Douglas? (D) Douglas's wheelchair made zero difference to
(A) He never wasted his time or energy in the field. Johnson and Johnson was results-oriented.
(B) He never imposed his own techniques or
experiences on a player. 30. What attributes does the author see in Douglas which
(C) He depended on his parents' direction and guidance. made him the successful kicking coach for the Miami
(D) He borrowed ideas from his well-wishers. Dolphins?
(A) think, deter, persuade, study, play
28. What did Douglas write to and send Miami Dolphins’ (B) glorify, persuade, write, report, conceive
coach Jimmy Johnson? (C) study, plan, think, prepare, expect
(A) Douglas sent him reports and wrote concepts he (D) practise, prepare, parade, persuade, perform
developed as a coach.

Exercise – 6
Directions for questions 1 to 36: Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions given below. Certain
words/phrases are printed in bold to enable you to locate them while answering questions on them:

PASSAGE – I
I would wish to declare at the beginning of this story, that I shall never regard that cluster of islets which we call Bermuda
as the Fortunate Islands of the Ancients. Do not let professional geographers take me up, and say that no one has so
accounted them, and that the ancients have never been supposed to have gotten themselves so far westwards. What I
mean to assert is this - that, had any ancient been carried thither by enterprise or stress of weather, he would not have
given those islands so good a name. That the Neapolitan sailors of King Alonzo should have been wrecked here, I
consider to be more likely. The vexed Bermoothes is a good name for them. There is no getting in or out of them without
the greatest difficulty, and a patient, slow navigation, which is very heart-rending. That Caliban should have lived here I
can imagine; that Ariel would have been sick of the place is certain; and that Governor Prospero should have been willing
to abandon his governorship, I conceive to have been only natural. When one regards the present state of the place, one
is tempted to doubt whether any of the governors have been conjurers since his days.
Bermuda, as all the world knows, is a British colony at which we maintain a convict establishment. Most of our outlying convict
establishments have been sent back upon our hands from our colonies, but here one is still maintained. There is also in the
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islands a strong military fortress, though not a fortress looking magnificent to the eyes of civilians as do Malta and Gibraltar.
There are also here some six thousand white people and some six thousand black people, eating, drinking, sleeping, and dying.
The convict establishment is the most notable feature of Bermuda to a stranger, but it does not seem to attract much
attention from the regular inhabitants of the place. There is no intercourse between the prisoners and the Bermudians.
The convicts are rarely visited. As to the prisoners themselves, of course it is not open to them - or should not be open to
them - to have intercourse with any but the prison authorities.
There have, however, been instances in which convicts have escaped from their confinement, and made their way out among
the islands. Poor wretches! As a rule, there is but little chance for any that can so escape. The whole length of the cluster is
but twenty miles, and the breadth is under four. The prisoners are, of course, white men, and the lower orders of Bermuda,
among whom alone could a runaway have any chance of hiding himself, are all blacks; so that such a one would be known
at once. Their clothes are all marked. Their only chance of a permanent escape would be in the hold of an American
ship; but what captain of an American or other ship would willingly encumber himself with an escaped convict?
1. A cluster of islets can mean (B) Magnificent-looking fortresses in these two
(A) a group of islands that are neglected and partly former colonies.
underdeveloped. (C) The beaches on these islands attract countless
(B) all the islands in the Pacific Ocean. tourists and visitors.
(C) a group of small islands. (D) The islands have small populations that are
(D) a part of a peninsula. diligent and entrepreneurial.
2. According to the author of the passage, what price 5. Point out an undesirable feature of the convict
should one pay in order to get to or get out of Bermuda? establishment of Bermuda.
(A) Endure the greatest difficulty and make slow, (A) The prisoners freely mix the inhabitants of Bermuda.
patient, heart-rending navigation (B) The prisoners are allowed once a week to walk
(B) One must apply to the authority of the Island and freely in any part of Bermuda.
pay a hefty fee. (C) The authorities of the island have habitually
(C) One must apply to Governor Prospero. neglected prison reform.
(D) One must be well armed and fight one's way into (D) Interaction/intercourse between prisoners and
and out of Bermuda. regular Bermudians is forbidden.
3. What does a convict establishment do on the island
6. How can a convict make a permanent getaway from
of Bermuda?
the convict establishment?
(A) It conducts trials of convicts sent from other
(A) By rioting and taking hostage inside the prisons
British colonies.
(B) By tunneling under the prison grounds
(B) It executes hardened and die-hard convicts and
(C) By pretending serious illness and getting hospitalized
criminals.
(D) By getting into the hold of an American ship
(C) It educates, reforms and transforms the convicts
before their release. 7. Select the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning
(D) It holds prisoners who have been convicted of to the word WRECKED, as used in the passage.
crimes committed by them. (A) wreaked (B) wrested
4. What do the islands of Malta and Gibraltar boast, (C) worsted (D) destroyed
according to the passage?
(A) They boast more convict establishments there.

PASSAGE – II

A s an intellectual and ethical tradition, Confucianism is more than 25 centuries old. Its basic values were embraced not
only in China proper, but in Japan, Korea and Vietnam as well, and helped to shape East Asia’s self-consciousness as a
distinct cultural region. As might be expected, there is no essential Confucianism which endured throughout this long
history. Rather, the Confucian tradition, like other intellectual and religious traditions of comparable age and significance,
evolved and changed, even as some real continuities were maintained. This diverse cultural heritage has provided rich
resources for twentieth-century East Asians to reflect on contemporary social life, although Confucianism has also had to
face numerous challenges concerning its compatibility with new social knowledge and values.
The Western name ‘Confucianism’ might suggest that Confucius, a Chinese philosopher and teacher who lived in the
sixth century BC, was the founder of this intellectual and ethical tradition. In fact, he saw himself only as a transmitter of
a heritage which had taken shape centuries before his time, and generally ‘Confucianism’ has been known in East Asia
as the ‘Scholarly Tradition’. Confucius lived in a period of great political and cultural disorder. His concern to restore order
and harmony to society and to cultivate individual morality within a social order defined by tradition became values which
motivated and guided the subsequent development of Confucian social thought. As a way of life, Confucianism became
noted for its concern for personal well-being, social harmony and solidarity, political stability and universal peace, all of
which are to be pursued within structures of meaning inherited from the past.
Confucian social thought has generally been corporativist, assuming that the ideal society is a hierarchically differentiated order
and that ritually structured human relationships are essential to this ideal. This emphasis on human relationships was
expressed in a linked interest in distinguishing between individuals and differentiating the kinds of relations possible among
them. Traditionally, Confucians acknowledged the possibility of many kinds of relations between individuals but gave special
emphasis to ‘five cardinal relations’ as fundamental to a proper social order: those between parent and child, those between
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ruler and subject, between husband and wife, between older brother and younger brother and between friends. The Confucian
concern with those relations within the family, especially those between parents and children, have led some observers to
describe Confucian social theory as restrictively group oriented, but the Confucian concern with the possibility and significance
of voluntarily constructed relationships, such as those between friends, should not be underestimated. Each of these cardinal
relationships fixes roles as well as responsibilities. Proper behaviour within these traditionally defined relationships is not only
crucial to the establishment of an ordered society, but is essential to the necessary development of an individual, for in the
Confucian view of things persons only become human through a lifelong process of cultural and ethical learning.
The Confucian tradition was institutionalised in patterns of family life, in a sophisticated educational system, and in
government. The Confucian educational system, in principal, was open to anyone, and is one of the few examples of an
aspiration to universal education in the premodern world. In the past, Confucian social thought gave a special place to
the role of the ruler in establishing the ideal society and encouraging moral perfection in individuals. Some of Confucius’s
own teachings, collected in the ‘Analects’, advocated government by exemplary behaviour, rather than by coercion and
punishment. He advised rulers to lead the people according to proper personal conduct. The elite community of Confucian
scholars often aspired to play a role in government as advisors to rulers. Confucius and his successors urged rulers to
give positions of authority to ‘people of virtue and ability’, that is, those who were successful in Confucian education, and
the Confucian tradition generally preferred meritocracy to any system of government which privileged birthright.
In the twentieth century, many of the core values of Confucian social thought have been subjected to extensive criticism
and outright rejection. This is particularly the case with the political dimensions of Confucian thought, since few rulers
attained the moral status necessary to rule according to the instructions of Confucian political theory. At the turn of the
century, Confucianism was identified quite realistically with authoritarianism and political corruption, since its ideals could
easily be manipulated to enhance the power of particular individuals or groups. This internal critique of Confucianism in
practice, which had many precedents in Chinese history, was accompanied by the challenge of alternative social ideals
learned from contact with the West in the nineteenth century. Increasingly, Confucian values and institutions were
perceived as incompatible with democratic or socialist ideals, or just with modernity in general. Much of Confucian social
thought in the twentieth century has thus been necessarily defensive, attempting to show that Confucian tradition either
has values analogous to the new challengers or can promote the attainment of the new ideals.
More recently, there has been a revival of Confucian values throughout East Asia as part of ongoing reconsiderations of
cultural identity in the modern world. This revival has emphasised the traditional Confucian insistence that social life
should be shaped by the moral and symbolic resources of the past. While it has been critical of the Confucian tradition
which it has inherited, this revival has also begun to rethink whether modernity must necessarily be defined with an
emphasis on the autonomy of the individual. The example of industrial East Asia suggests that the Confucian values of
respect for authority, social solidarity based on familism, and a preference for consensus rather than independent thought
can make positive contributions to a modern society.
8. Identify the statement relevant to the concepts related 11. The feature thought to be inherently prevailing in a
to modernity. society based on the Confucian principles is
(A It believes that education is one of the important (A) the society’s responsibility towards cultivated
factors that moulds man’s moral development. relationships.
(B) It gives more importance to personal freedom (B) the behaviour of people as defined by the type of
wherein man has the independence to exercise relationships they are involved in.
his choice. (C) the existence of stratification of social classes.
(C) It stresses on equal rights to all people (D) the influence of past values on shaping the
irrespective of their caste, creed or religion. present ones.
(D) It explicitly supports democracy where peoples’
moral values, instead of their scholarly knowledge, 12. The author’s stand regarding the changes that took
have a major role in choosing their leaders. place in the tenets of the Confucian theory over a
period of time, is
9. From the passage, we can understand that Confucius (A) expected, as the principles appear to be incongruent
(A) was a Chinese philosopher. with those supported by modern society.
(B) is considered to be the founder of the Confucian (B) natural, as in case of evolution of any theory.
philosophy. (C) anticipated, since the theory supported the
(C) supported the classification of society saying that concentration of power in the hands of a few.
the process decided the roles to be played by (D) unthinkable because the principles deal with
man with respect to his society. values and ethics that are fundamental to life.
(D) recognised only the five cardinal relationships
while theorising on the ways to establish morality 13. The difference between the traditional Confucian and
within family set up. the modern social theories is
(A) the former’s focus on consensus.
10. In case of East Asia, the values propounded by
(B) the latter’s attention on universal accessibility to
Confucianism
education.
(A) helped it to gain a unique cultural identity.
(C) the former’s insistence on self-governance.
(B) made its inhabitants ponder over the necessity of
(D) the latter’s emphasis on the nurturing of human
ethics and culture.
relationships.
(C) taught them the ways of maintaining solidarity
within family hierarchy. 14. The reason(s) behind the criticism of the political
(D) helped them realise the fact that the morals aspects of the Confucian thought is/are
reflected by a society are the extensions of those (A) the occasional political revolts witnessed in the
nurtured by its families. Chinese history.
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(B) the effect of Western social concepts. (D) Both (B) and (C)
(C) the corruption witnessed when power was vested
in the hands of the few elite scholars.

PASSAGE – III

When we look at theatre traditions in Bengal, Kerala, Tamil Nadu or Maharashtra, for instance, we observe the rich influx
of local practices that exist in each of these regions. The popular folk tradition leading to the development of Marathi
theatre was the Tamasha. This was a form of theatre which came into existence in the early sixteenth century in Maharashtra.
Tamasha was a folk tradition of theatricals and love songs called Lavanis popular among the common people especially those
from the Kolhati and Mahar communities. One of the significant facts to remember about the Tamasha is that it adapted into
its practice of song, dance and story, a host of narratives from the Sanskrit tradition, namely the Puranas, the Dasavataras and
the Krishna leelas. The Tamasha could be performed anywhere, in an open courtyard, in a large open stretch of land or even
in front of a house. Thus, as you can see, it was not constrained by the absence of a proper or regular stage. The Tamasha
was perhaps one of the earliest community cultural activities in which women danced and sang before an audience.
The classical and folk traditions of theatre were then followed by what we could broadly term the modern period in Indian Theatre.
In the instance of Maharashtra, we can see the eighteenth century as the period from which we can trace the beginnings of
modern Marathi theatre. Modern Marathi theatre is indebted to the contributions of Vishnu Das Bhave’s adaptations of older
Sanskrit narratives like Sita Swayamvar, in Marathi. His contribution was to present the dialogues in the form of ordinary,
everyday conversations. He also used innovations like changeable scenery which he borrowed from the Western stage. Another
important personage associated with modern Marathi theatre was Anna Saheb Kirloskar. The foundation of commercial
repertoires in Marathi theatre can be dated to the time of his founding of the Kirloskar Natya Mandali in 1880.
Meanwhile a lot of English theatre also travelled to India. The early twentieth century saw a lot of English plays being
staged in different parts of India. Indian theatre in the twentieth century owes a great deal to ideas and influences from across
the continent, from both Europe and America. Both in the First and the Second World, idealistic men and women struggled to
put across on paper their concerns about the rights and desires of a burgeoning population. The Twentieth Century is about
the spread of notions of democracy all over the world and its implementation in political governments as well. With the exception
of small pockets in the world, most countries moved in the direction of governments by the people, of the people and for the
people. This did not of course mean that an equal or equitable world was immediately achieved. Yet, this was a major step in
that direction and several playwrights the world over began to engage with the lives of the ordinary people. Most of the
characters in Modern Drama are from a new class that grew to its optimum in the twentieth century, namely the middle class.

15. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Tamasha? (2) The classical Sanskrit theatre traditions
(A) Women took an active part in performing before dominate the modern theatre in India.
an audience in Tamasha. (3) European and American theatres have
(B) It was easy to perform anywhere. influenced modern theatre traditions in India.
(C) It came into existence in the early sixteenth century. (A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1 only
(D) It could not contribute to the development of
Marathi theatre. 19. According to the passage, dramatists in the First and
the Second World were concerned about
16. According to the passage, how did Vishnu Das Bhave (A) the success of their plays in the modern era.
contribute to modern Marathi theatre? (B) the problems of the people in countries like India.
(A) He established the Kirloskar Natya Mandali. (C) the rights and desires of the people.
(B) He used India’s struggle for independence as a (D) democracy and its implementation across the world.
predominant theme for his plays.
(C) He presented the dialogues in Sanskrit. 20. According to the passage, how did the spread of
(D) He brought in innovative changes such as democracy affect the dramatists?
changeable scenery to Marathi theatre. (A) They started to concern themselves with the lives
of common men.
17. According to the passage, the modern drama draws (B) They began to create an equitable world.
its characters mostly from the (C) They fought for the upliftment of the ordinary people.
(A) upper class. (B) middle class. (D) They criticized the countries that did not adopt
(C) puranas. (D) Sanskrit narratives. democracy.
18. Which of the following is/are TRUE about modern 21. Select the word that is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning
theatre traditions in India? to the word BURGEONING, as used in the passage.
(1) Modern theatre traditions comprise a lot of local (A) growing (B) evading
practices. (C) shrinking (D) embracing

PASSAGE – IV
Capitalism and the role of private enterprise are currently being questioned across the world, particularly after last year’s
economic melt down and the current economic recession, which has gripped the world. Criticism, which appears largely
valid, focuses on the factors that led to the current crisis. There is now widespread acceptance of the fact that a lack of
effective regulation of private sector activity combined with unethical decisions at the leadership level in the corporate
sector have been the main cause of the current impasse.

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If one examines recent trends in corporate philosophy and decision-making, it is felt that business leaders have been
exhibiting an increasing preoccupation with myopic goals and narrow targets. Mahatma Gandhi defined the nature of
ownership of private capital akin to trusteeship of social enterprise. His lofty view of corporate philosophy clearly
emphasised the responsibility that the private sector has towards meeting much larger and much longer-term social goals.
While we have conveniently forgotten most of Gandhiji’s thoughts and deeds, there is, even for the benefit of the owners
of businesses themselves, great merit in reminding ourselves of his enlightened view of ownership of private capital. In
some sense, the growing acceptance of corporate social responsibility as an important part of business activity is an
acknowledgement of Gandhian philosophy.
The time has come for corporate organisations to realise the importance of in-depth scrutiny of all their actions by civil
society and their own interests in articulating and implementing a genuine programme of corporate social responsibility.
In an age when deviant corporate behaviour is highlighted instantly and information about it disseminated through the
internet and other instant communication channels, misbehaviour by corporate entities cannot be forgiven. There have
been, in recent times, many examples of well-established and successful organisations losing public trust and market
strength on account of negligence of social norms or even unethical practices. However, even though civil society in India
has become increasingly active in whistle blowing, redressal of irresponsible actions on the part of corporate organisations
seldom takes place on a timely or adequate basis. However, the day is not far when the public, supported ably by an
increasingly active media, would ensure that irresponsible corporate behaviour will not remain hidden or neglected.
Corporate organisations need to realise that upholding the interests of society is clearly in the interest of these organisations
themselves. It has been said that business cannot succeed in a society that fails. This adage is not only symbolic of today’s
challenges, but is brought to our consciousness through several historical developments. The problem of climate change
− the outcome of cumulative emissions of greenhouse gases, with carbon dioxide being the most dominant − was brought
about by industrialisation based on the use of fossil fuel. As a result of assessments carried out by the Intergovernmental
Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), there is now adequate understanding of the scientific reasons underlying climate change
and their impacts that could cause large scale damage. There is also acceptance in most countries and by most world leaders
of the need to rapidly reduce emissions of greenhouse gases. Efforts in this direction will involve an international agreement
expected to be reached in Copenhagen in December this year along with a major shift in government policies and actions
by corporate organisations and civil society. Since the world would move towards a low-carbon future, it would be in the
interest of companies all over the world, including in India, to develop low-carbon technologies, products and processes.
India today is at a stage where it can make a range of choices, including those that would ensure sustainability.
The corporate sector must not only lead in this effort as its duty to Indian society, but also as a measure of enlightened self-
interest, since future markets worldwide would favour products and services that subserve the objectives of sustainability.
An important ingredient for ensuring proper analysis of future options and for informing the public at large on the
implications of today’s decisions on the future of Indian society would be to foster centres of excellence and institutions
that provide high level intellectual endeavour to support the government and business enterprises in their efforts to move
along the path of sustainable development. The corporate sector can play an important part in establishing such
institutions of excellence, particularly since their record in this regard has been far less than noteworthy. The results of
this extensive analysis showed progressive damage and degradation of the country’s natural resource including forests,
biodiversity, water resources, clean air and healthy soils. On the basis of the economic estimation of this damage, it was
concluded that India was losing over 10% of its GDP annually in the form of depletion of natural resources. Such a trend
at some stage will start imposing major costs on business and industry, and therefore there is a clear conformity of interest
between shareholders in business enterprises and stakeholders in society.
Even though civil society and the non-government sector in India have a remarkable record of service to the country, it is
unfortunate that while most of them very ably highlight and expose problems in the system they seldom work on providing
solutions. It is in this context that research organisations with a deep commitment to bringing about transformation of Indian
society need to create intellectually sound and socially relevant solutions that could be replicated and disseminated for the benefit
of this diverse country. Perhaps the corporate sector should take initiatives towards the establishment and strengthening of such
institutions. This is an imperative if India is to succeed globally as a leader in the knowledge society of the twenty-first century.
22. A company loses its public faith and market strength when collectively reduce the emissions of greenhouse
(A) it fails to comply with the standards set by society. gases by all nations.
(B) it incurs losses. (C) The depletion of natural resources has a bearing
(C) it neglects the importance of conservation of on the economy of the country.
natural resources. (D) There is a need to understand that corporate social
(D) it becomes a cause for environmental destruction. responsibility is a part of Gandhian philosophy.
23. Corporates need to uphold the interests of society in 25. There is a consensus among most nations about
their own self interest in order which of the following?
(A) to cater to the needs of sustainability.
(A) The role of corporate organisations in reducing
(B) to avoid going bankrupt.
(C) not to lose their market credibility. the damage caused to the environment.
(D) to avoid being prosecuted. (B) The need to implement the philosophy
advocated by Mahatma Gandhi.
24. Which of the following statements is TRUE according (C) The need for citizens to be more proactive in
to the passage? condemning deviant behaviour by corporate
(A) Deviant behaviour by corporate organisations is organisations.
never redressed in India. (D) The need to minimize the damage caused to the
(B) A global agreement has been reached to environment by reducing carbon emissions.
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spreading awareness of the scientific reasons
26. The corporate sector can help India to move on the underlying climate change?
path of sustainable development by (A) The assessments carried out by the
(A) adopting low carbon technologies which help in Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
reducing the emissions of green house gases. (B) Social service organisations
(B) making a conscious effort to conserve precious (C) The print media
(D) The internet
natural resources.
(C) promoting centres of excellence and institutions 28. Select the word that is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning
that provide intellectual support to the government to the word LOFTY, as used in the passage.
to embrace the path of sustainable development. (A) modest (B) base (C) cheap (D) short
(D) All of these

27. Which of the following has been instrumental in

PASSAGE – V

An earthquake occurs when rocks break and slip along a fault in the earth. Energy is released during an earthquake in
several forms, including as movement along the fault, as heat, and as seismic waves that radiate out from the “source”
and cause the ground to shake, sometimes hundreds of kilometers away. They occur from the deformation of outer, brittle
portions of “tectonic plates”, the earth’s outermost layer of crust and upper mantle. Due to the heating and cooling of the
rock below these plates, the resulting convection causes the adjacently overlying plates to move, and under great
stresses, deform. The rates of plate movements range from about 2 to 12 centimetres per year. Sometimes, tremendous
energy can build up within a single plate, or between neighbouring plates. If the accumulated stress exceeds the strength
of the rocks making up these brittle zones, the rocks can break suddenly, releasing the stored energy as an earthquake.

Earthquakes occur everyday around the world. Each day there are about 1000 very small (magnitude 1-2) earthquakes
on Earth (that is about one every 87 seconds !!!). Each year, on an average, the earth experiences 800 earthquakes
capable of causing damage (magnitude 5-5.9), and 18 earthquakes of magnitude 7 or larger. Though they occur all over
the world, most occur on active faults that define the major tectonic plates of the earth. 90% of the world’s earthquakes
occur along these plate boundaries (that represent about 10% of the surface of the earth). The “Ring of Fire” circling the
Pacific Ocean, and including Canada’s west coast, is one of the most active areas in the world.

With the present state of scientific knowledge, it is not possible to predict earthquakes and certainly not possible to specify in
advance their exact date, time and location. However, a great deal of research is being conducted to develop reliable prediction
methods. Out of hundreds of earthquakes that occur every year, only a very tiny minority of these precede a larger earthquake.
Although a large earthquake may be preceded by a foreshock, the occurrence of a small earthquake is not in itself a typical
sign. For example, about 1500 small earthquakes occur every year in Canada, whereas major earthquakes have occurred
only a few times in this century. A small earthquake, however, provides an ideal opportunity to offer reminders about the safety
measures to take before, during and after an earthquake. However, it is important to note that minor earthquakes can
sometimes be triggered by human activities such as the filling of reservoirs, and the injection of fluids into wells for oil recovery
or waste disposal. Such cases have been documented in many areas, including the United States, Canada, Japan and India.
The largest earthquake ever recorded was of magnitude 9.5. This earthquake struck just off the coast of Southern Chile
on May 22, 1960. It ruptured a segment of fault more than 1300 km long and caused a tsunami that caused destruction
around the Pacific Ocean area, including Hawaii and Japan. This earthquake occurred along a subduction fault, where
the ocean floor is being pushed beneath a continent.

The Richter scale was developed by Charles Richter in the 1930s for measuring the magnitude of earthquakes in Southern
California where a seismograph was used. As seismographs were deployed around the world, and as different types of
seismometers were developed, it became apparent that the Richter scale was strictly valid only over a certain distance
range and for limited range of shaking frequency. An earthquake has a single magnitude value (e.g., magnitude = 6.3)
that is assigned based on the amount of energy released by that earthquake. The magnitude is determined using a
seismograph recording the amplitude of the ground shaking, and correcting this measurement for the distance from the
earthquake source. Intensity refers to how the earthquake is felt at various locations, and a range of values (between I
and XII) will be assigned. Intensity values are generally largest, close to the epicentre of the earthquake, and will generally
decrease with increasing distance from the epicentre. However, local soil conditions may increase the level of shaking.

Most earthquake damage is caused by ground shaking. The magnitude or size of an earthquake, distance to the
earthquake focus or source, type of faulting, depth, and type of material are important factors in determining the extent of
ground shaking that might be produced at a particular site. Where there is an extensive history of earthquake activity,
these parameters can often be estimated. The magnitude of an earthquake, for instance, influences ground shaking in
several ways. Large earthquakes usually produce strong shaking over much larger areas than do smaller earthquakes.
In addition, the amplitude of ground motion decreases with increasing distance from the focus of an earthquake.
The frequency content of the shaking also changes with distance. Close to the epicentre, both high (rapid) and low
(slow)–frequency motions are present. Farther away, low-frequency motions are dominant, a natural consequence of
wave attenuation in rock. The frequency of ground motion is an important factor in determining the severity of damage to
structures and the type of structures that are affected.

Exercise – 7
Directions for questions 1 to 42: Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions given below them.
Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering questions related to them:

PASSAGE – I

Y our journey towards success will flow more smoothly if you ride the "right" attitude all the way to the top. "I think I can"
beats "I can't" every time. A can-do outlook on life helps you to achieve goals in record time and make friends and lifelong
business associates along the way. Everyone enjoys being around someone who is a solution-finder and who looks for
the good instead of the bad in everything.
Here are some important points about attitude to keep in mind:

You need to have the right attitude towards your family, friends, and associates. An attitude of acceptance, forgiveness,
love, kindness, respect, and consideration goes a long way in any relationship, including those with family members,
friends and business associates.

You need to have an accepting, open-minded attitude towards your personal growth and education. The world changes
constantly; as they say, “Change is inevitable --- except from a vending machine. “Unless you change with it, you’re
destined for mediocrity at best.”

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If you don't stay abreast of the knowledge brought about by modern technology, the trends in the marketplace and the
discoveries in the field of health improvement, you will be left far behind or, at best, will experience only a portion of the progress
that you're capable of experiencing. Having the desire to stay familiar with these changes and being open-minded about them
ensures your continued success well into later life. (Some people are so narrow-minded that they can look through a keyhole
with both eyes at the same time. Others are so cynical that they still think somebody pushed Humpty-Dumpty.)
You need to have a positive yet cautiously realistic attitude towards your own abilities and yourself. Knowing your
capabilities and being realistic about your possibilities are starting places for success. For example, your chances of being
a rocket scientist are slim if you flunked fifth grade maths twice. Then you spend several years in college taking every
course you need to be a rocket scientist but avoid the maths classes until the last semester is the same as planning to
fail. Unrealistic expectations are the seedbed of depression. If you gained 20 pounds over the last three years, believing
that you can lose all 209 pounds in three or four weeks is setting yourself up for a letdown. That goal just isn't realistic.

You should, however, be far more positive than negative. You can undermine your success just as easily by setting your
sights too low. If you set out to lose one pound a month, for example, the slow pace will eventually cause you to lose hope,
interest and enthusiasm. That's one of the reasons I believe that counselors and mentors are an important part of the mix that
makes the success formula work. The most popular and successful weight-loss programs combine sensible eating, exercise,
and the help of mentors or counselors. Everyone needs help in setting realistic goals, especially in areas where they have
previously suffered setbacks. Then they need encouragement and motivation to hang in there until they reach those goals.

1. What are the advantages of a can-do outlook on life? (D) One's contention that being slow and steady will
(1) This kind of outlook will speed up achieving goals always win the race.
in record time.
5. According to the passage, what are the ingredients of
(2) This kind of outlook enables you to make friends.
the most popular and successful weight-loss
(3) This kind of outlook helps one to make lifelong
programs?
business associates along the way.
(A) The ingredients are enthusiasm, realism and
(A) Only (1) (B) Both (1) and (2) idealism.
(C) Only (2) (D) All three (1), (2) and (3) (B) The ingredients are caution, perseverance and
diligence.
2. What does "open-minded" mean?
(C) The ingredients are one's capability, capacity
(A) The compound adjective means the quality of
and endurance.
being surprised and shocked at changes.
(D) The ingredients are sensible eating, exercise and
(B) The compound adjective means willing to listen
the help of mentors or counsellors.
to, think or accept different ideas or opinions.
(C) The compound adjective means one will change 6. What are the twin ways to set and reach realistic
except when change is imposed on one. goals, according to the passage?
(D) The compound adjective means one is openly at (A) The author says one has to be down-to-earth
variance with people who propose contrary views. realistic about one's goals.
(B) The author says one has to consult elders before
3. According to the author, what is the consequence of
setting and reaching goals.
flunking fifth grade mathematics twice?
(C) The author says one needs help in setting goals,
(A) One may fail to become a rocket scientist.
plus encouragement and motivation to realize them.
(B) One may be asked to repeat the same class all
(D) The author says one should have right attitudes
over again.
and good friends to set and achieve goals.
(C) One may be asked to leave school without
completing the course. 7. Select the word that is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to
(D) One may be asked to take extra courses. the word DESTINED, as used in the passage.
(A) desired (B) suspended
4. What example does the author cite to describe (C) fated (D) suited
unrealistic expectations?
(A) One’s belief that one cannot lie on a seedbed of 8. Select the word that is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning
depression all the time. to the word UNDERMINE, as used in the passage.
(B) One's belief that one can lose 20 pounds in just (A) understand (B) belittle
three or four weeks (C) strengthen (D) undertake
(C) One's argument that nothing is impossible no
matter what.

PASSAGE – II

In the next 40 years, humans will need to produce more food than they did in the previous 10,000 years put together.
But with sprawling cities gobbling up arable land, agricultural productivity gains decreasing, and demand for biofuels
increasing, supply is not keeping up with demand. Clever farmers, scientists and entrepreneurs are bursting with ideas.
But they need money to make this jump.

Financiers more often found buying and selling companies have cottoned on to the opportunity. Farm gates have
traditionally been closed to capital markets: nine in ten farms are held by families. But demography is forcing a shift: the
average age of farmers in Europe, America and New Zealand is now in the late fifties. They often have no successor,
because offspring do not want to farm or cannot afford to buy out family members. In addition, adopting new technologies
and farming at ever-greater scale require the sort of capital few farmers have, even after years of bumper-crop prices.

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Institutional investors such as pension funds see farmland as fertile ground to plough, either doing their own deals or
farming them out to specialist funds. Some act as landlords by buying land and leasing it out. Others buy plots of low-
value land, such as pastures, and upgrade them to higher-yielding orchards. Investors who are keen on even bigger risks
and rewards flock to places such as Brazil, Ukraine and Zambia, where farming techniques are often still underdeveloped
and potential productivity gains immense.
Farmland has been a great investment over the past 20 years, certainly in America, where annual returns of 12% caused
some to dub it "gold with a coupon". In America and Britain, where tax incentives have distorted the market, it outperformed
most major asset classes over the past decade and with low volatility to boot. Those going against the grain warn of
a land price bubble. Believers argue that increasing demand and shrinking supply---as well as urbanization, poor soil
management and pressure on water systems that are threats to farmland---mean the investment case is on solid ground.

It is not just the asset appreciation and yields that attract outside capital, says Bruce Sherrick of the University of Illinois
at Urbana-Champaign: as important is the diversification to portfolios that farmland offers. It is uncorrelated with paper
assets such as stocks and bonds, has proven relatively resistant to inflation, and is less sensitive to economic shocks
(people continue to eat even during downturns) and to interest-rate hikes. Moreover, in the aftermath of the financial crisis
investors are reassured by assets they can touch and sniff.

Some are already getting their boots dirty. In 2009 Hassaad, part of Qatar's sovereign-wealth fund, asked Bydand Global
Agriculture to buy nearly 50 farms in Australia and merge them into a single investment portfolio. Terrapin Palisades,
a private-equity firm, bought a dairy company and some vineyards and tomato fields in California, and converted all to
grow almonds, whose price has soared as the Chinese have gone nuts for them. Such conversions require up-front
capital and the ability to survive without returns for years.

9. In what ways are cities losing their arable and 12. According to the fourth para, why has farmland been
cultivable land? a great investment in America?
(A) Cities are inundated periodically with no (A) Investors in great numbers have flocked to invest
restoration/repair undertaken. in America.
(B) Cities are prone to earthquakes and frequent (B) Farmland investment gave annual returns of 12%.
cyclones and tornadoes. (C) Farmland investment is backed by government
(C) Cities absorb population from different parts of bonds.
the country. (D) Farmland investment grew apace owing to World
(D) Cities are sprawling and urban development Bank intervention.
gobbles up the land.
13. According to the passage, what are the threats to
10. What is stopping the land-owning families from farmland?
farming their lands? (1) Increasing demand, shrinking supply and
urbanization
(A) Farmers are over fifty, their offspring refuse farming
(2) Poor soil-management
and they lack finance to buy/adopt new technologies. (3) Pressure on water systems
(B) Farmers are disunited and they quarrel over the
strategy they have to adopt in order to buy new (A) Only (1)
(B) Both (1) and (2)
technology to boost their farm produce.
(C) Only (2)
(C) Few farmers get the subsidy they are promised (D) All the three options: (1), (2), and (3)
by their governments with the result that they
lose incentive to farming. 14. "Up-front capital" can mean
(D) Some farmers complain of inadequate water (A) capital that is put up for disbursement.
(B) capital that is on standby in the event of a crisis.
supply to raise crops and they point the accusing
(C) capital that is offered by a bank or a financial
fingers always at their governments. institution.
(D) capital that is paid in advance.
11. Why do investors flock to Brazil, Ukraine, and Zambia
even when farming techniques are still underdeveloped? 15. Select the word that is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to
(A) These countries offer excellent incentives and the word SOARED, as used in the passage.
rewards to farmers. (A) rose (B) scorched
(B) These countries offset farming losses by offering (C) suffered (D) flew
insurance cover. 16. Select the word that is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning
(C) These countries guarantee low input costs and to the word ARABLE, as used in the passage.
high returns. (A) barren (B) agreeable
(D) These countries offer potentially immense (C) bare (D) fertile
productivity gains.

PASSAGE – III

E merging markets used to be a beacon of hope in the world economy, but now they are more often a source of gloom.
China's economy is slowing. Brazil is mired in stagflation. Russia is in recession, battered by Western sanctions and the
slump in the oil prices; South Africa is plagued by inefficiency and corruption. Amid the disappointment one big emerging
market stands out: India.
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If India could only take wing it would become the global economy's high-flier – but to do so it must shed the legacy of
counter-productive policy. That task falls to Arun Jaitley, the finance minister, who on February 28th will present the first
full budget of a government elected with a mandate to slash red tape and boost growth. In July 1991, a landmark budget
opened the economy to trade, foreign capital and competition. India today needs something equally momentous.

India possesses untold promises. Its people are entrepreneurial and roughly half of the 1.25 billion population is under
25 years old. It is poor, so has lots of scope for catch-up growth: GDP per person (at purchasing-power parity) was
$5,500 in 2013, compared with $11,900 in China and $15,000 in Brazil. The economy has been balkanized by local taxes
levied at State borders, but cross-party support for a national goods and services tax could create a true common market.
The potential is there: the question has always been whether it can be unleashed.
Optimists point out that GDP grew by 7.5% year on year in the fourth quarter of 2014, out-pacing even China. But a single
number that plenty think fishy is the least of the reasons to get excited. Far more important is that the economy seems
to be on an increasingly stable footing. Inflation has fallen by half after floating above 10% for years. The current-account
deficit has shrunk; the rupee is firm; the stock market has boomed; and the slump in commodity prices is a blessing for
a country that imports four-fifths of its oil. When the IMF cut its forecasts for the world economy, it largely spared India.
The real reason for hope is the prospect of more reforms. Last May Narendra Modi's Bharatiya Janata Party won a huge
election victory on a promise of a better-run economy. His government spent its early months putting a rocket up a sluggish
civil service and on other useful groundwork. But the true test of its reforms credentials will be Mr Jaitley's budget.
The easy part will be to lock in India's good fortune, with fiscal and monetary discipline. In addition India's public sector
banks need capital and since the state cannot put up the money, the minister must persuade potential shareholders that
they will be run at arm's length from politicians.
17. Why has the Russian economy slid into recession? people in the government.
(A) The Russian economy has battered the Western (C) The budget made a huge provision to slash red tape.
economy. (D) The budget opened the Indian economy to trade,
(B) The Russian economy is hard hit by Western foreign capital and competition.
sanctions and by the oil-price slump.
(C) China's slowing economy is having a direct 21. What are India's untold promises, according to the
impact on the Russian economy. passage?
(D) Brazil's stagflation is virtually pounding the (1) Indians are entrepreneurial
Russian economy. (2) Half of India's 1.25 billion population is under 25.
(3) Owing to its poverty, India has much scope for
18. "Take wing", as used in the first sentence of the catch-up growth.
second para, can be understood as (A) Only (1) (B) Only (1) and (2)
(A) waiting in the wings to do a new job. (C) Only (2) (D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(B) taking somebody under your wing in order to help
him/her. 22. How does the author of the passage describe India's
(C) clipping somebody's wings so as to prevent economy in the last quarter of 2014?
him/her from doing something. (A) The economy is on a stable footing and inflation
(D) becoming active, lively or moving on swiftly. is reduced to half.
(B) The current-account deficit has shrunk.
19. What mandate did the Modi government get at the (C) The Indian rupee is on a firm footing and the
last general elections? stock market has boomed and the commodity
(A) The mandate for the government was to present prices have slumped.
the first full budget on time. (D) All the above
(B) The mandate for the government was to create
more employment and end delays. 23. Select the word that is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to
(C) The mandate for the government was to the word BEACON, as used in the passage.
globalize the Indian economy. (A) siren (B) signal
(D) The mandate for the government was to rid India (C) flag (D) light
of red tape and boost growth.
24. Select the word that is MOST OPPOSITE to the word
20. Why is the July 1991 budget called a landmark budget? MOMENTOUS, as used in the passage.
(A) The budget was introduced during P V Narasimha (A) eventful (B) disastrous
Rao's term as prime minister. (C) momentary (D) unimportant
(B) The budget pooled the brains of all the talented

PASSAGE – IV

E mile Durkheim, the first person to be formally recognised as a sociologist and the most scientific of the pioneers, conducted
a study that stands as a research model for sociologists today. His investigation of suicide was, in fact, the first sociological
study to use statistics. In Suicide (1964, originally published in 1987) Durkheim documented his contention that some aspects
of human behaviour - even something as allegedly individualistic as suicide - can be explained without reference to individuals.
Like all of Durkheim's work, suicide must be viewed within the context of his concern for social integration. Durkheim
wanted to see if suicide rates within a social entity (for example, a group, organisation, or society) are related to the degree
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to which individuals are socially involved (integrated and regulated). Durkheim described three types of suicide: egoistic,
anomic and altruistic. Egoistic suicide is promoted when individuals do not have sufficient social ties. Since single (never
married) adults, for example, are not heavily involved with family life, they are more likely to commit suicide than are
married adults. Altruistic suicide, on the other hand, is more likely to occur when social integration is too strong. The ritual
suicide of Hindu widows on their husbands' funeral pyres is one example. Military personnel, trained to lay down their
lives for their country, provide another illustration.
Durkheim's third type of suicide - anomic suicide - increase when the social regulation of individuals is disrupted.
For example, suicide rates increase during economic depressions. People who suddenly find themselves without a job or
without hope of finding one are more prone to kill themselves. Suicide may also increase during periods of prosperity.
People may loosen their social ties by taking new jobs, moving to new communities, or finding new mates.
Using data from the government population reports of several countries (much of it from the French Government Statistical
Office). Durkheim found strong support for his line of reasoning. Suicide rates were higher among single than married
people, among military personnel than civilians, among divorced than married people, and among people involved in
nationwide economic crises.

It is important to realise that Durkheim's primary interest was not in the empirical (observable) indicators he used such as
suicide rates among military personnel, married people, and so forth. Rather, Durkheim used the following indicators to
support several of his contentions: (1) Social behaviour can be explained by social rather than psychological factors;
(2) suicide is affected by the degree of integration and regulation within social entitles; and (3) Since society can be studied
scientifically, sociology is worthy of recognition in the academic world. Durkheim was successful on all three counts.

25. In his study of suicide Durkheim's main purpose was (C) an example of anomic suicide.
(A) to document that suicide can be explained (D) an example of egoistic suicide.
without reference to the individual.
(B) to provide an explanation of the variation in the 30. Increase in the suicide rate during economic
rate of suicide across societies. depression is an example of
(C) to categorise various types of suicide. (A) altruistic suicide. (B) anomic suicide
(D) to document that social behaviour can be explained (C) egoistic suicide. (D) Both (A) and (C).
by social rather than psychological factors. 31. According to Durkheim altruistic suicide is more likely
26. According to Durkheim, suicide rates within a social among
entity can be explained in terms of (A) military personnel than among civilians.
(A) absence of social ties. (B) single people than among married people.
(B) disruption of social regulation. (C) people involved in nationwide economic crises.
(C) nature of social integration. (D) people caught up in the throes of change.
(D) All of the above. 32. To support his contentions, Durkheim relied on the
27. Since single adults are not heavily involved with following indicators:
family life, they are more likely to commit suicide (A) Social behaviour is explicable predominantly
which Durkheim categorised as through social factors.
(A) anomic suicide. (B) altruistic suicide. (B) Suicide is contingent upon the degree of
(C) egoistic suicide. (D) (B) and (C). regulation and interaction.
(C) Recognising sociology is to acknowledge that
28. Higher suicide rate during rapid progress in a society society is susceptible to scientific investigation.
is a manifestation of (D) All of the above.
(A) altruistic suicide. (B) anomic suicide.
(C) egoistic suicide. (D) all of the above. 33. Basing himself on his own indicators, Durkheim was
(A) right on some counts, not others.
29. Ritual suicide of Hindu widows on their husbands' (B) vindicated on all counts.
funeral pyres was (C) wrong but did not realise that he was wrong.
(A) a manifestation of strong social integration. (D) substantially correct but formally wrong.
(B) an example of brutality against women.

PASSAGE – V

L abour may be defined as human energy spent either on the mental or physical work or on both in combination to acquire
income and wages as the payments made for the service of labour. The term 'wage' may refer to piece wage, time wage,
money wage, real wage, etc. Normally, in economic discussions, the term is used to mean the money wage, i.e., the rate
per hour or per day or per week or per month-and in few cases per year too-for the mental and physical service of a
person. It represents to the firm the labour cost of production. We commonly use the term 'wage level' which is
compounded of the wage rate of many types of labour in innumerable occupations and trades. Some wage rates may be
low as a few rupees a day while others may be as much as Rs.200 per day. Wage level which is an average of all types
of heterogeneous wage rates is a vague but useful concept like the parallel concept of price level.

It is necessary that the special characteristics of labour as a factor of production are noted at the outset so that the different
theories of wages can be better understood and appreciated. Firstly, as a factor of production, labour consists of the work of
human beings and the payment made for the service constitutes the income of persons providing the services. Secondly,
only the service of labour is bought and sold and not the worker himself who is the source of labour service. Thirdly, since
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the factor service consists of work on the part of human beings, considerations of personal likes and dislikes for work are
major determinants of the supply of labour. Fourthly, due to the personal nature of labour service, the economic consideration
of wages alone is not significant. Other considerations like the number of hours worked, relative security of work, working
conditions, pensions vacations, etc. are also important. Lastly, the basic source of labour supply is population which is not
strictly related to economic factors. Population and labour supply are dependent primarily upon several factors other than
wages and no functional relationship between the wage rate and population can be formed.
Although different theories have been advanced to explain how labour's share in the national product is determined but
none of the theories is adequate or free from criticisms. A consideration of the earlier theories will assist us to comprehend
more readily the explanation of wages which is most widely held by modern economists. The most important of these
theories are the Subsistence Theory, popularly known as the Iron Law of Wages, Standard of Living Theory; Wages-Fund
theory; Residual Claimant theory and Marginal Productivity.
Subsistence theory was developed in the eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries when population was rapidly expanding in
Western Europe but food supplies were relatively short. The theory found considerable support after the publication of Malthus
"Essay on Population". The theory was based primarily on two assumptions. The first assumption was the law of diminishing
returns according to which there were definite limits to a continued high rate of expansion of food production. The second
assumption was that population in the absence of checks increased at a faster rate than the rate of which food supply increased.
These two assumptions as to world conditions were in obvious conflict and the result was the determination of wages in the
long-run at a bare subsistence level, i.e., the amount which was just sufficient to maintain the worker and his family.
The subsistence theory held that labour was a commodity bought and sold between employers and workers at a price
which in the long run would be equal to the cost of production in the same way as the value of other commodities tended
to be determined by their cost of production. The cost of production of labour was taken to be the subsistence level, the
minimum necessary for existence. Wages must approximate to this level, if these were at any one time, above this natural
rate, labourers would tend to increase in numbers. Consequently, population and labour supply would expand. With the
increase in the supply of labour, wage rates would fall toward the long-run or natural rate. On the other hand, market rate
of wages below subsistence level would be accompanied by starvation and disease resulting eventually in the shortage
of supply of labour and in the consequent rise in the wages offered to the workers. Ricardo, in fact, believed that the price
of labour-wages-estimated in food and necessaries would be absolutely constant and rigidly fixed for all time. The German
writers called the subsistence theory as the 'iron' or 'brazen' law of wages.
The subsistence wage theory is primarily an attempt to explain long-run wage levels and not the market wages existing
at any point of time. Although unsound as a doctrine, it is fairly correct empirical description of actual facts in the labour
world in most parts of the globe. The theory enables us to appreciate that there is a minimum level below which normal
general wages cannot fall if the supply of labour is to be maintained. The recognition of this fact has enabled modern
economists to propound a theory of wages which is more in accordance with actual industrial conditions.
In the first place, the theory fails to take note of the demand for labour. It is a cost of production theory and endeavour to
explain wages from the side of supply alone, whereas in the determination of price of every good and service including
labour, both demand and supply should be considered together. By ignoring the demand for labour, the theory has given
no recognition to the role of productivity of labour in wage determination.
The theory is pessimistic because it contemplates no bright future for labour and excludes all possibilities of improvement
in the conditions of labour either through increased efficiency or due to general economic progress.
The theory ignores completely the efficiency of workers. It is true that in certain cases efficiency would tend to disappear if
wages continued to remain at the subsistence level for long. But in most cases, workers may be specially gifted or better
qualified or more enduring. With the increase in efficiency, labour productivity also increases and with it wages also increase.
Another defect of the theory is that it does not explain the difference in wages as between different regions, trades and
persons. Even in the same locality and factory, differences in wages are found. If all labourers must get the bare necessaries
of life, all must get the same amount of wages. This, however, does not happen in real life. The theory, therefore, ignores the
fact that labour is heterogeneous and the supply of labour depends upon standards of living quite apart from biological forces.
Lastly, the theory is based on the Malthusian theory of population according to which a rise in wages above the
subsistence level is immediately followed by a growth of population which forces down wages to the level of subsistence.
But experience has shown that a rise in wages leading to the higher standard of living restricts the supply of labour. In
that case, wages will not fall to the level of subsistence.
34. What does the Malthusian theory of population lay down? physical service of a person.
(A) A rise in wages leading to a high standards of (B) As the rate per year of the physical or mental
living restricts the supply of labour. service of a person.
(B) Wages which are equal to the standard of living (C) As something that determines the consideration
promote the efficiency of workers. of personal likes and dislikes.
(C) A rise in wages above the subsistence level is (D) As human energy spent either on mental or
followed by a growth of population which drags physical work or both to earn wages.
wages down to the level of subsistence. 36. The first shortcoming of the subsistence theory is
(D) Labour wages would be rigidly fixed. (A) it does not take into consideration the demand for
labour.
35. How does the passage describe 'labour'?
(B) it excludes all possibilities of improvement in the
(A) As rate per hour or per day or week of mental or
conditions of labour.
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(C) it ignores the personal nature of labour service. real wage, and so on and so forth.
(D) it fails to explain long-run-wage levels. (D) Consideration of a person's tastes and choices
are major determinants of the supply of labour.
37. One of the assumptions of the subsistence theory is
(A) labour consists of the work of human beings and 40. Ricardo's belief about wages was
the payment made for the services constitutes the (A) that it was always determined by the demand
incomes of persons providing the services. and the supply of labour.
(B) wages depend upon the proportion of population (B) that it would be constant and rigid forever if
to capital. estimated in terms of food and other requirements.
(C) wages depend upon the quality of the labour (C) that it is not related strictly to economic factors.
force in a country. (D) that it cannot have a functional relation with the
growth of population.
(D) population, if left unchecked, increases faster
than the rate of the supply of food. 41. According to the passage,
38. A fact that the subsistence theory ignores, according (A) rates of wages usually decrease with the
to the passage is increase in the number of labourers.
(A) wages are not only determined by the standard (B) of all the theories put forward to explain the
of living; they are also determined by the labour's share in the national product only the
economic progress. subsistence theory is not free of criticism.
(B) labour is heterogeneous and its supply depends (C) the subsistence theory lays utmost emphasis on
upon the standard of living, apart from biological the efficiency of the workers.
forces. (D) the subsistence theory ignores the efficiency of the
(C) the impact of the standard of living on the demand workers which is directly proportional to the wages.
and the supply of labour is indirect and remote. 42. What has enabled modern economists to propound a
(D) the cost of production of labour is the subsistence theory of wages which takes actual industrial
level, the minimum requirements for existence. condition into a closer account?
39. Which of the following is not one of the special (A) The assumption of the subsistence theory about
characteristics of labour as a factor of production? the law of diminishing returns.
(A) Only the economic consideration of labour (B) The fact that wages are different in different
service is not significant since labour service is geographical locations.
personal in nature. (C) The fact that the market rate of wages below
(B) It is the service of a person which is bought and subsistence level would breed starvation and disease.
sold as labour, not the person himself. (D) The fact that wages cannot be dragged down
(C) 'Wage' refers to piece, time wage, money wage, below a certain minimum level.

Exercise – 8
Directions for questions 1 to 48: Read each passage carefully and choose the best answer for each of the questions
that follow it.
PASSAGE – I
C arnatic Sangeet, a South Indian system of music, is found in the south Indian states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh
and Karnataka. These states are known for their strong presentation of Dravidian culture. In the West, Carnatic Sangeet is not
as well known as Hindustani Sangeet (north Indian music). Whenever Westerners think of Indian music, they immediately think
of Ravi Shankar and the sitar. Although South Indian music is extremely sophisticated, there has not emerged an artist with
the widespread recognition that North Indian artistes, like Ravi Shankar, have been able to generate.
The reasons for the differentiation between North and South Indian music is not clear. The generally held belief is that
North Indian music evolved along different lines due to an increased exposure to the Islamic world. This results from
nearly 800 years of Islamic rule over northern India. Unfortunately, evidence suggests that this answer is a gross over-
simplification. For instance, Kerala has an extremely large Muslim population, but virtually no identification with North
Indian music. By the same token, the Islamic influence over Orissa was negligible, yet the artistic forms are clearly
identifiable as Hindustani. Although there is a poor correlation between the geographical distribution of Hindus/Muslims
and the two musical systems; there is an almost exact correlation between the Indo-European/Dravidian cultures and the
two musical systems. Therefore, we come to the politically uncomfortable, yet inescapable conclusion that the differences
between North and South Indian music does not represent a differentiation caused by Islamic influence, but instead
represents a continuation of fundamental cultural differences.
We can begin our discussion of the history of Carnatic Sangeet with Purandardas. He is considered to be the father of Carnatic
Sangeet. He is given credit for the codification of the method of education, and is also credited with several thousand songs.
Venkat Mukhi Swami (17th century) is the grand theorist of Carnatic music. He was the one who developed the melakarta
system. This is the system for classifying south Indian ragas. Carnatic music really acquired its present form in the 18th century.
It was during this period that the "trinity" of Carnatic music, Thyagaraja, Shamashastri, and Muthuswami Dikshitar composed
their famous compositions. In addition to our "trinity", numerous other musicians and composers enriched this tradition.
Carnatic music has a very highly developed theoretical system. It is based on the complex system of ragam (rag) and thalam
(tal). These describe the intricacies of the melodic and rhythmic forms respectively. The melodic foundation is the ragam
(rag). Ragam (rag) is basically the scale. The seven notes of the scale are Sa Ri Ga Ma Pa Dha and Ni. However, unlike a
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simple scale, there are certain melodic restrictions and obligations. Each ragam (rag) has a particular way that moves from
note to note. The ragams are categorised into various modes. These are referred to as mela, and there are 72 in number.
The melas are conceptually similar to those in North Indian music. There is however, a major difference. South Indian scales
allow chromatic forms that are not allowed in Hindustani sangeet. For instance, it is perfectly acceptable for the first three
notes (i.e., Sa Re Ga) to all be roughly one semitone apart. It is these permissible forms which allows so many melas.
The tal (thalam) is the rhythmic foundation to the system. The south Indian tals are defined by a system of clapping and
waving, while this is much less important in the north. North Indian musicians define their tals by their theka.
Nomenclature is one of the biggest differences between North and South Indian music. It is normal for a particular rag or
tal to be called one thing in the North and something totally different in the South. It is also common for the same name
to be applied to very different rags and tals. It is these differences in nomenclature that have made any theoretical
reconciliation difficult. Vocal music forms the basis of South Indian music. Although there is a rich instrumental tradition
that uses vina, venu and violin, they revolve around instrumental renditions of vocal forms. There are a number of sections
to the Carnatic performance. Varnam is a form used to begin many South Indian performances. The word varnam literally
means a description and this section is used to unfold the various important features of the ragam. The kritis are fixed
compositions in the rag. They have well identified compositions and do not allow much scope for variation. However such
compositions are often preceded by alapana. The alapana offers a way to unfold the ragam to the audience, and at the
same time, allows the artiste considerable scope for improvisation. These and the kalpana swara also provide
opportunities to improvise. Another common structure is the ragam, thanam, and pallavi. South Indian performances are
based upon three major sections. These are the pallavi, anupallavi and charanam. These roughly correspond to the sthai,
antara and the abhog in Hindustani sangeet.
1. Where can a singer indulge in artistic liberty while 5. The melakarta system of the South Indian music
performing Carnatic music? (A) codifies the melas.
(A) During alapana (B) describes the intricacies of the Carnatic music.
(B) While singing varnam (C) classifies the ragas falling under it.
(C) During pallavi (D) is a major part of its theoretical content.
(D) While rendering kritis
6. The existence of many melas suggests
2. One of the reasons cited in the passage responsible (A) many authors. (B) multiple ragas.
for the low profile image of South Indian music is (C) flexibility. (D) chromatic tones.
(A) the richness of its theoretical content. 7. In case of tal,
(B) the intricacy of the system of rag and tal. (A) it describes the intricacies of the rhythmic form of
(C) the absence of a globally recognised Carnatic icon. Carnatic music.
(D) the rigidity of a rag. (B) it is very important in the South Indian music system.
(C) theka is its Hindustani counterpart.
3. The factor responsible for two distinct forms of music
(D) all hold true.
to flourish in the same country is:
(A) the prevalence of Indo-European and Dravidian 8. “Theoretical reconciliation” means
cultures. (A) distinct nomenclature.
(B) the basic cultural differences that allowed one type (B) harmonization of the literature of both systems of
of music to develop under a particular culture. music
(C) the excessive influence of the Muslim rulers. (C) identical names in both systems of music.
(D) the personal choice of the people residing under (D) agree in theory but not in practice.
a particular culture.
9. A Varnam
4. The culture most prevalent in South India, as inferred (A) has scope for improvisation.
from the passage is (B) follows a Kriti during a recital.
(A) Dravidian. (B) Mughal. (C) is comparable to antara.
(C) European. (D) Islamic. (D) depicts various important features of the ragam.

PASSAGE – II

A s far as we know, all animals dream; and humans probably started to dream even before they were sufficiently intelligent to
think about the process. It has been suggested that some of the earliest prehistoric cave paintings are records of dreams.
Freud set out the theory that, although they may be prompted by external stimuli, wish-fulfilment was the basis of most dreams.
According to him, our dreams reflected our deepest desires, rooted in our infancy, and always held a serious meaning. He
stressed the erotic content of dreams. Carl Gustav Jung collaborated with Freud for some years, but disagreed with him on
this very point: hidden sexual problems were not, Jung argued, at the root of most dreams. Freud believed that dreams were
the result of concealed desires and, continued, on the whole, to conceal them; Jung, on the other hand, felt that dreams
revealed our deepest wishes and longings enabling us to realize our unconscious ambitions and helping us to fulfil them. Jung
suggested that dreams are, in fact, important messages from ourselves to ourselves, and messages that we ignore to our loss.
Most modern psychologists tend to lean towards Jung rather than Freud. Freud would have denied that someone could be
taught to interpret their own dreams; whereas Jung believed that although it was a difficult task it could and should be done
for, dreams were “meant” to be understood. The idea of losing consciousness, of ceasing to be ourselves, and of relinquishing
all control over our thoughts and movements, is dreadful to us; and yet it happens every night when we sleep.

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PASSAGE – III
Between man and other animals, there are various differences, some intellectual, some emotional. One of the chief emotional
differences is that some human desires, unlike those of animals, are essentially boundless and incapable of complete
satisfaction. The boa constrictor, when it has had its meal, sleeps until its appetite revives; if other animals do not do likewise,
it is because their meals are less adequate or because they fear enemies. The activities of animals, with few exceptions, are
inspired by the primary needs of survival and reproduction, and do not exceed what these needs make imperative.
With men, the matter is different. A large proportion of the human race, it is true, is obliged to work so hard in obtaining
basic necessities that little energy is left over for other purposes; but those whose livelihood is assured do not, on that
account, cease to be active. Xerxes had no lack of food or raiment or wives at the time when he embarked upon the
Athenian expedition. Newton was certain of material comfort from the moment he became a Fellow of the Trinity, but it
was after this that he wrote the Principia. St Francis and Ignatius Loyola had no need to found Orders to escape from
want. These were eminent men, but the same characteristic, in varying degrees, is to be found in all but a small
exceptionally sluggish minority. In day-dreams, there is no limit to imagined triumphs, and if they are regarded as possible,
efforts will be made to achieve them.
Imagination is the goal that forces human beings into restless exertion after their primary needs have been satisfied. Most
of us have known very few moments when we could have said: “If it were now to die, ‘Twere now to be most happy, for
I fear My soul hath her content so absolute that not another comfort like to this succeeds in unknown fate.” And in our
rare moments of perfect happiness, it is natural, like Othello, to wish for death, since we know that contentment cannot
last. What we need for lasting happiness is impossible for human beings: only God can have complete bliss, for His is
‘the kingdom and the power and the glory’. Earthly kingdoms are limited by other kingdoms; earthly power is cut short by
death; earthly glory, though we build pyramids or be ‘married to immortal verse’, fades with the passing of centuries. To
those who have but little of power and glory, it may seem that a little more would satisfy them, but in this they are mistaken:
these desires are insatiable and infinite, and only in the infinitude of God could they find repose.
While animals are content with existence and reproduction, men also desire to expand, their desires in this respect are
limited only by what imagination suggests as possible. Every man would like to be God, if it were possible; some few find
it difficult to admit the impossibility. These are the men framed after the model of Milton’s Satan, combining, like him,
nobility with impiety. By ‘impiety’ I mean something not dependent upon theological beliefs: I mean refusal to admit the
limitations of individual human power. This Titanic combination of nobility with impiety is most notable in the great
conquerors, but some element of it is to be found in all men. It is this that makes social cooperation difficult, for each of
us would like to conceive of it after the pattern of the cooperation between God and His worshippers, with ourself in the
place of God. Hence competition, the need of compromise and government, the impulse to rebellion, with instability and
periodic violence. And hence the need of morality to restrain anarchic self-assertion.
Of the infinite desires of man, the chief are the desires for power and glory. These are not identical, though closely allied:
the Prime Minister has more power than glory, the king has more glory than power. As a rule, however, the easiest way
to obtain glory is to obtain power; this is especially the case as regards the men who are active in relation to public events.
The desire for glory, therefore, prompts, in the main, the same actions as are prompted by the desire for power, and the
two motives may, for most practical purposes, be regarded as one.
The orthodox economists, as well as Marx, who in this respect agreed with them, were mistaken in supposing that economic
self-interest could be taken as the fundamental motive in the social sciences. The desire for commodities, when separated
from power and glory, is finite, and can be fully satisfied by a moderate competence. The really expensive desires are not
dictated by a love of material comfort. Such commodities as a legislature rendered subservient by corruption, or a private
picture gallery of Old Masters selected by experts, are sought for the sake of power or glory, not as affording comfortable
places in which to sit. When a moderate degree of comfort is assured, both individuals and communities will pursue power
rather than wealth: they may seek wealth as a means to power, or they may forego an increase of wealth in order to secure
an increase of power, but in the former case as in the latter, their fundamental motive is not economic.
This error in orthodox and Marxist economics is not merely theoretical, but is of the greatest practical importance, and has
caused some of the principal events of recent times to be misunderstood. It is only by realizing that love of power is the cause
of the activities that are important in social affairs that history, whether ancient or modern, can be rightly interpreted.
19. The author feels that one of the following is the root cause (C) the devotion of animals towards achieving bare
behind misunderstanding some of the social events: necessities.
(A) realisation of the importance of power. (D) the greed of man to hoard more than what is
(B) assumption of an improper fundamental motive required.
in social sciences.
(C) failure in recognising the finite desire for 21. As understood from the passage, a Satan
commodities. (A) is an epitome of perseverance and imagination.
(D) missing the ulterior motive behind a person’s (B) is obsessed with an all-consuming desire to
infinite pursuit for material possessions. expand his power.
(C) believes that there are no limitations to individual
20. The difference, zeroed in on by the writer, between human power.
man and other animals is (D) depends too much on theological beliefs.
(A) the insatiable nature of some human desires.
(B) the primary motive for which man strives to achieve. 22. In the statement, “the same characteristic is to be found
in all ___”, the term, “the same characteristic” refers to
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(A) becoming indolent after one’s livelihood is assured. (D) The inability to assert oneself.
(B) working towards ensuring basic amenities for a 26. Pick the odd man out, regarding power and glory.
peaceful living. (A) Both cannot always be satisfied at once.
(C) day dreaming about various rewards and trying (B) They are regarded as being ‘infinite desires’ by
to achieve them. the author.
(D) involving oneself actively in striving towards (C) There is a subtle difference between the two.
achieving one’s plausible dreams instead of (D) Basic actions behind achieving power and glory
being complacent. are the same.
23. The author uses the term “impiety” to refer to 27. Proper perspective of important historical events can
(A) the fearless attitude of men. be generated by realizing the fact that
(B) the sacrilege committed by men in assuming (A) both orthodox and Marxist theories are erroneous.
themselves to be omnipotent. (B) power and glory are in fact one and the same.
(C) the belief held by a few men that they too can have (C) important events are manifestations of man’s
power similar to that possessed by God. efforts in seeking wealth as a means of power.
(D) the act of disobeying theological laws. (D) man’s socially relevant activities, driven by his
24. One of the following is the sole cause behind the insatiable lust for power, affect history in their
relentless pursuit of human beings, as believed by the own way.
author.
(A) Avarice (B) Creativity 28. The author says that it is natural for some to wish to
(C) Insatiety (D) Dissatisfaction die at a time of perfect happiness because
(A) contentment cannot last.
25. What makes social cooperation difficult? (B) only God is gifted with everlasting happiness.
(A) One’s desire for others to be docile and (C) it is impossible for man to achieve perfect
subservient towards him. happiness.
(B) The combination of nobility and impiety found in (D) the desire to achieve it can never be satisfied
all conquerors.
(C) The refusal to accept the fact that only God can
be omnipotent.
PASSAGE – IV

Over the years, I've done my fair share of flying, but have never grown entirely comfortable with the airborne state. Everyone has
their least favourite point in a flight: for me, it is take-off, when my belief in man's capacity to defy gravity always wavers a little.
I have had one or two hairy moments. The worst was landing in a howling gale in a small plane in Galway, at the third
attempt. But my head tells me that flying remains the safest form of travel, despite the recent appalling midair collision
over Switzerland. So do my eyes, for, from the back of our flat in Richmond, we can watch the planes approaching
Heathrow at intervals of little more than a minute.
The statistics tell the same story, though it is true that they have to be read with caution: they say that being a pedestrian is
the most dangerous form of travel, but this odd result is explained by the method which divides deaths by passenger miles.
As a result, the statistics are about as mathematically convincing as Levi Eshkol's famous dictum: 'Put three Zionists in a
room and they will form four parties.' They flatter aviation, with its enormous journeys, and give a bad name to shanks's pony.
But society's attitude to risk often seems illogical. More than 350,000 people have been killed by traffic since 1945 - a
greater number than British service personnel killed in the Second World War - yet only the most horrendous accidents
attract much media attention.
The Hatfield railway crash in 2000 took four lives but it destroyed public confidence in the railways, led to many
unnecessary speed restrictions and stimulated thousands of column inches. The most minor incident in the air is closely
scrutinised and catastrophes are exhaustively analysed in the public prints. It is necessary, for the public good, to prove
that catastrophic accidents result from a clear and demonstrable cause.
If we regard the railway and the skies as carrying risk, we obviously bring a different attitude to the roads. In the days of
capital punishment, murder had a real fascination, now much dissipated. One reason was that in the drama of the scaffold,
we could easily imagine ourselves in the shoes of the condemned man. Similarly, we are extremely interested in rail and
air accidents because they could, we perceive, happen to us if remedial systematic action were not taken. Road accidents,
by contrast, are caused by other people, by folly or by aberration.
Risk, in short, is not the same as danger. The first can be managed but the second comes out of a clear blue sky. Now it is
true that better roads can be built, traffic can be 'calmed', and drunk-drivers can be punished. Cameras can track offenders
and bring them to book. But no government has so far shown much appetite for radical measures, such as road-pricing.
Part of the reason is our adoration of the motorcar. Indeed, some writers have suggested that this is a cult as powerful as the
old Aztec religion which sacrificed its children to the gods. If pantheism is the belief in God in nature, then autotheism is the
worship of the divine motor car. The other day, passing through Knutsford, I pressed my nose against the window of the
Bentley showroom, and gawked at the continental tourer with white upholstery and its staggering price, which would have
easily paid for a comfortable family house in the same town.

PASSAGE – V

Can the macabre experiments carried out by the Nazi doctors ever be justified even if it led to discoveries that ultimately
alleviated human suffering? Not really. For some, the same holds good even if cure for Alzheimer's, Parkinson disease
or diabetes were possible but only by destroying the embryo's (by fishing out stem cells). Their argument is 'destroying
embryos is tantamount to killing human beings.' And that, according to Michael J. Sandel, one of the members of the
(U.S.) President's Council on Bioethics, which advises the administration on several issues including stem cell research,
is a flawed argument.

For the opponents of stem cells research, ensoulment begins at conception. The difficulty in pinpointing the moment when
the human person emerges during the passage from conception to birth means embryos should be treated with the same
respect as an individual. But Dr. Sandel writing in the 'New England Journal of Medicine' says the argument is flawed. 'The
fact that every person began life as an embryo does not prove that embryos are persons,' argues Dr. Sandel. According to
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him, every oak tree was once an acorn. But that does not imply that all acorns are oak trees. Stretching the analogy further,
he says, if all acorns are indeed oak trees, then an acorn eaten by a squirrel will mean loss, or to be more specific, death of
an oak tree. But that is not so. So in spite of their developmental continuity, acorns and oak trees are different kinds of things.
The fate of embryos and human beings is no different. Human life, like the acorn, develops by degrees.

To further debunk their arguments, Dr. Sandel challenges the critics' insistence of according embryos the same moral
status generally reserved for human beings. "Perhaps the best way to see its implausibility is to play out its full
implications," he says. If indeed harvesting stem cells from embryos is akin to harvesting organs from a baby, then the
morally correct alternative will be to ban stem cell research and not just limit federal funding to a few cell lines. God forbid,
imagine a situation when doctors killed babies with an explicit intention of harvesting organs for transplantation. Will the
government take the moral high ground and declare that such a practice of killing children be ineligible for federal funding
and force the doctors to seek private funds?

If that is ghastly to our senses, what explanation does it have to justify its restricted funding pattern for stem cell research,
he wonders. "If we were persuaded that embryonic stem-cell research were tantamount to infanticide, we would not only
ban it but treat it as a grisly form of murder and subject scientists who performed it to criminal punishment," he writes.

Going by opponents' view, if one were to regard an embryo as a person, then embryonic stem cell research should not be
the only one to stand close scrutiny. Fertility clinics around the world routinely create excess embryos with an express
mandate to spare the woman the ordeal of repeated procedures and to increase her chances of pregnancy. Excess embryos
are then summarily destroyed or frozen indefinitely in the process. Now come the double standard of accepting or allowing
the destruction of embryos created to treat infertility but protesting when used for stem cell research.

The issue gets further complicated. Natural pregnancy that outnumbers in-vitro fertilisation by thousands is no saint either.
It is a well-known fact that natural procreation entails the loss of several embryos for every successful birth. "Perhaps we
should worry less about the loss of embryos that occurs in in-vitro fertilisation and stem-cell research," he opines. But the
critics may take refuge in the argument that high infant mortality does not justify or sanction infanticide. Of course not. But
then the manner in which we respond to natural loss of embryos suggests that we do not consider the loss akin to either
moral or religious equivalent of the death of infants. "Moreover, if the embryo loss that accompanies natural procreation
were the moral equivalent of infant death, then pregnancy would have to be regarded as a public health crisis of epidemic
proportions," he writes. "Alleviating natural embryo loss would be a more urgent moral cause than abortion, in vitro
fertilization and stem cell research combined."

Even as the embryonic stem cell debate heats up in the Congress, the most vocal opponents of embryo research are yet
to mount a national campaign calling for a ban on in-vitro fertilisation or to prohibit the fertility clinics from creating and
discarding excess embryos. Then what else can be the justification to limit federal funding? There is a fear that stem cell
research will lead down the slippery slope of abuse and exploitation and this fear is not unfounded. The answer lies in
legislation and not in outright banning of technology. It serves none.
39. In order that we obtain the benefits of stem cell (C) the natural destruction of embryos is not a license
research, there is an urgent need for for destroying them for research purposes.
(A) close monitoring of the research activities. (D) the natural loss of embryos is akin to infanticide.
(B) banning destruction of embryos in fertility clinics.
(C) identifying the point when the ensoulment of an 43. The main aim of the author is to
embryo happens. (A) champion the cause of the pro stem cell research
(D) ordinances that prevent the misuse of this research. lobby.
(B) expose the double standard adopted by the
40. Dr. Sandel would probably define an embryo as opponents of stem cell research regarding
(A) a human being with distinct identity. embryo destruction.
(B) a rudimentary form of man. (C) build a case for legislation that will regulate stem
(C) an entity with a soul. cell research.
(D) only a fertilized egg. (D) convince people that there is no moral or ethical
issue in stem cell research.
41. According to Dr. Sandel,
(A) one of the urgent priorities is to reduce the 44. Which of the following statements are true according
number of embryos that are lost through natural to the passage?
conception. (a) On an aggregate, more embryos are lost by way of
(B) embryos acquire personality traits at later stages in-vitro fertilisation than through natural pregnancies.
of their development. (b) Embryo destruction for medical purposes is not a
(C) the government should stop all federal funding novel concept.
for stem cell research. (c) Government funding is presently limited to a few
(D) it is incorrect to say that an embryo is a nebulous stem cell lines.
miniature of a fully grown adult. (d) Apprehensions regarding the misuse of stem cell
research are largely baseless.
42. The statement 'high infant mortality does not justify
infanticide' means that (A) Only (b) and (c)
(A) the proponents of stem cell research should not (B) Only (b) and (d)
cite abortions as a justification for their crimes. (C) Only (a), (c) and (d)
(B) the natural loss of an embryo does not have (D) Only (b), (c) and (d)
moral and ethical implications. 45. The analogy between the embryo and the acorn
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assumes which of the following argument? 47. The phrase 'the double standard' as used in the
(A) Each acorn is unique just as each embryo is. passage means
(B) Every acorn need not necessarily grow into an (A) legally allowing certain types of research even if
oak tree. they involved embryo destruction.
(C) Acorns and embryos are miniatures of their fully (B) giving the government's stamp of approval for the
grown forms. destruction of embryos for scientific purposes by
(D) Acorns and embryos are both devoid of way of funding the stem cell research.
personality traits. (C) treating the process of destruction of embryos in case
of infertility problems to be moral while the same in
46. The limited federal funding for research into a few stem cell research being considered unethical.
stem cell lines implies which of the following? (D) limiting the government's funding to stem cell
(A) Research in some lines holds greater promise research in certain cells instead of enforcing a
than in others. blanket ban on all types of research involving
(B) The morality of embryo destruction is linked to its embryos.
end use.
(C) Certain stem cell lines are more prone to misuse 48. The author's stand regarding the views expressed by
than others. Dr. Sandel is one of
(D) Destruction of embryo is justified in some cases (A) corroboration. (B) contradiction.
while not in others. (C) correlation. (D) incongruity.

Exercise – 9
Directions for questions 1 to 50: Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions given below them.
Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

PASSAGE – I

T he atmosphere is a mixture of several gases. There are about ten chemical elements, which remain permanently in
gaseous form in the atmosphere under all natural conditions. Of these permanent gases, oxygen makes up about 21 per
cent and nitrogen about 78 per cent. Several other gases, such as argon, carbondioxide, hydrogen, neon, krpton, and
xenon, comprise the remaining one percent of the volume of dry air. The amount of water vapour, and its variations in
amount and distribution is of extraordinary importance in weather changes. Atmospheric gases hold in suspension great
quantities of dust, pollen, smoke, and other impurities which are always present in considerable, but variable amounts.
The atmosphere has no definite upper limits but gradually thins until it becomes imperceptible. Until recently it was assumed
that the air above the first few miles gradually grew thinner and colder at a constant rate. It was also assumed that upper air
had little influence on weather changes. Recent studies of the upper atmosphere, currently being conducted by earth satellites
and missile probing, have shown these assumptions to be incorrect. The atmosphere has three well-defined strata.
The layer of the air next to the earth, which extends upward for about ten miles is known as the troposphere. It makes up
about 75 per cent of all the weight of the atmosphere. It is the warmest part of the atmosphere because most of the solar
radiation is absorbed by the earth’s surface which warms the air immediately surrounding it. A steady decrease of
temperature with increasing elevation is its most striking characteristic. The upper layers are colder because of their
greater distance from the earth’s surface and rapid radiation of heat into space. The temperature within the troposphere
decreases about 3.5 degrees per 1000 feet increase in altitude. Within the troposphere, winds and air currents distribute
heat and moisture. Strong winds, called jet streams, are located at the upper levels of the troposphere. These jet streams
are both complex and widespread in occurrence. They normally show a wave-shaped pattern and move from west to east
at velocities of 150 mph, but velocities as high as 400 mph have been noted. The influences of changing locations and
strengths of jet streams upon weather conditions and patterns are also considerable. Current intensive research may
eventually reveal their true significance.
Above the troposphere to a height of about 50 miles is a zone called the stratosphere. The stratosphere is separated from
the troposphere by a zone of uniform temperatures called the tropopause. Within the lower portions of the stratosphere
is a layer of ozone gases which filters out most of the ultraviolet rays from the sun. The ozone layer varies with air pressure.
If this zone were not there, the full blast of sun’s ultraviolet light would burn our skins, blind our eyes, and eventually result
in our destruction. Within the stratosphere, the temperature and atmospheric composition are relatively uniform.
The layer upward of about 50 miles is the most fascinating but the least known of these three strata. It is called the
ionosphere because it consists of electrically charged particles called ions, thrown from the sun. The northern lights
(aurora borealis) originates within this highly charged portion of the atmosphere. Its effect upon weather conditions, if any,
is as yet, unknown.
1. Which of the following is the best title for the passage? 2. Which of the following questions does the passage
(A) The makeup of the atmosphere answer?
(B) Studying the atmosphere Ι. What does the atmosphere consist of?
(C) Atmosphere and Weather ΙΙ. How does the ionosphere affect the weather?
(D) Temperature in the stratosphere ΙΙΙ. How do earth satellites study the atmosphere?
(A) Only Ι
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(B) Only ΙΙΙ (D) considerable waste products.
(C) Only Ι & ΙΙΙ
8. The passage can best be described as
(D) Only ΙΙ
(A) discursive. (B) informative.
3. According to the passage, life as we know it exists on (C) analytical. (D) didactic.
the earth because the atmosphere
9. Which of the following is/are false according to the
(A) contains a layer of ozone.
passage?
(B) contains electrically charged particles.
Ι. Both within the stratosphere and troposphere,
(C) is the warmest at the bottom.
wind and air distribute heat and moisture.
(D) becomes thinner as we go higher up.
ΙΙ. The layer of ozone gases in the stratosphere is
4. Jet streams, according to the passage harmful for our eyes.
(A) are a flow of exhaust gases from a jet plane. ΙΙΙ. Within the stratosphere, the temperature is rarely
(B) can be felt just below the troposphere. uniform.
(C) are strong air currents which move from west to east.
(A) Only Ι (B) Only ΙΙ
(D) are all of the above.
(C) Only ΙΙΙ (D) All the statements
5. Pick the odd man out.
(A) Stratosphere (B) Lithosphere 10. Which of the following statements is true?
(C) Ionosphere (D) Troposphere Ι. Recent studies indicate that the atmosphere has
6. The passage states that the troposphere is the no definite upper limits, but gradually thins until it
warmest part of the atmosphere because it becomes imperceptible.
(A) is closest to the sun. ΙΙ. An important feature of the troposphere is a steady
(B) contains electrically charged particles. decrease of temperature with increasing elevation.
(C) radiates heat into space. ΙΙΙ. The effect of ionosphere on the weather
(D) is warmed by the earth’s heat. conditions has been well established.
7. According to the passage, the atmosphere consists (A) Only Ι (B) Only Ι & ΙΙ
of all the following except (C) Only ΙΙ (D) All the statements
(A) 21% oxygen.
(B) a definite amount of water vapour.
(C) 10 permanent elements.

PASSAGE – II
A sk any luxury retailer where their most valuable customers are from and most will say China. The post-2016 years have
not been the easiest for luxury brands, but China's apparently unquenchable thirst for all things bling has made up for the
slowing down of European consumption. By some estimates, half of the world’s luxury spending will come from Chinese
wallets by next year. The Chinese taxman, however, is missing out on the splurging: around two-thirds of luxury products
bought by Chinese (and often made in China) are purchased outside the country. Why do the Chinese spend so much
on luxury goods abroad?
The Chinese only recently started making enough money to splurge. Now, with the middle classes expanding fast and the
number of millionaires soaring (2.8m at the latest count), they have been catching up rapidly. In a country that is finely attuned
to social-status signals, branded goods and sophisticated travel are high on many people's wish lists. Global Blue, a retail
-tourism company, found that for 82% of Chinese travellers shopping was a crucial part of their travel plans. In Britain, they
spend nearly £1,700 ($2,800) per person per trip, three times the market average. Much of it is spent on shopping; Chinese
tourists have no problem buying an expensive Prada by day for which they are even willing to sleep in two-star hotels by night.
The main reason why the Chinese prefer European or American stores over their own is price. Hefty import tariffs and
consumption taxes, as well as higher pricing strategies, can increase prices in China to 50% more than a shopper would
pay elsewhere. According to LVMH, a French luxury conglomerate, a Louis Vuitton handbag costs 30% more in Beijing
than in Paris. A guarantee of authenticity is another reason. Bragging is also part of the story: people want to show they
have been abroad, which is why “Made in Italy” labels outrank “Made in China” ones, says Wan-Yu Cho, a Mandarin-
speaker who works at Bicester Village, an out-of-town shopping area in southern England. Bicester’s Chinese customers
account for 42% of its total tax-refunded sales; last year their spending grew by nearly half. Finally, because giving
presents (another form of bragging) is often the reason why Chinese tourists buy luxury goods, a successful man
(or increasingly woman—Bain, a consultancy, estimates that women now account for half of Chinese luxury spending, up
from 10% in 1995) simply cannot return home without a sizeable excess-luggage bill.
The slowing Chinese economy and the steps taken by the government to curb corruption and lavish gifting has tempered
the luxury market after years of double-digit growth. The time where $800 bottles of wine were imported by the plane-load
is coming to an end. But whereas ostentatious displays of wealth may be less common at the top end of the market, the
new Chinese middle classes still see luxury goods as a way to show they have made it. “Dior” and “Rolex” remain popular
search terms on Chinese microblogging sites. What’s more, says Scott Malkin of Value Retail, the company which runs
Bicester and eight similar shopping villages in Europe, the Chinese also shop abroad for the “experience” and the stories
they can tell afterwards. For instance, bicestor has red telephone-booths where people line up for pictures. The Chinese
shopping-spree looks set to continue.
11. Which of the following, according to the passage, is
not true?
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(A) Chinese luxury consumers shop abroad not only 15. Which of the following does the last line of the
for the ‘experience’ but also for the story they can passage suggest?
tell afterwards. (A) an end to the shopping spree of the Chinese.
(B) The attrition to luxury goods of Chinese people is (B) a perpetuation of the shopping spree of Chinese
a recent phenomenon highly associated with the people
expansion of the middle class as well as the
(C) neither an end nor a perpetuation of the shopping
increases in number of millionaires.
spree of Chinese people
(C) Over two thirds of Chinese use the internet to
research brands, but most luxury firms have (D) a temporary end to the shopping spree of
pitiful digital strategies. Chinese people
(D) Chinese tourists would even be ready to sleep in
16. Which of the following, according to the passage, has
a pathetic hotel so that they can afford to buy weakened the luxury market which thrived in China
prada dearer than ever. for the past few years?
a. Economic slowdown.
12. The passage is primarily about which of the following? b. Collapse of the import of bottles of wine costing
(A) Luxury goods more than $800.
(B) Chinese luxury goods consumers who are c. Clampdown on extravagant gifting.
d. Initiatives taken by the government to prevent
younger than their European counterparts
corruption.
(C) China’s luxury market which is digitally challenged (A) a and b (B) b, c and d
(D) China’s addition to luxury goods (C) Only b (D) a, c and d
13. Which of the following according to the passage is the Directions for questions 17 and 18: Select the word
primary factor that leads Chinese people to rather which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word given in
shop in America or Europe than in China? bold, as used in the passage.
(A) System/practice of giving gifts which is another
form of bragging 17. OSTENTATIOUS
(B) Cost of the product (A) vulgar (B) sporty
(C) showy (D) funny
(C) genuineness of the product
(D) quality of service offered 18. LAVISH
(A) economical (B) moderate
14. The author of the passage is likely to agree with which (C) reasonable (D) opulent
of the following?
a. Mobile commerce is growing in China, but few luxury Directions for questions 19 and 20: Select the word
firms websites are optimized for mobile devices. which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word given
b. Big import tariffs and consumption taxes are not in bold, as used in the passage.
the only factors that can increase prices in China 19. AUTHENTICITY
to 50% more than elsewhere. (A) genuineness (B) credibility
c. In most French luxury goods shops there is (C) reliability (D) inaccuracy
systematically vast majority of Chinese employees
in order to solve language barrier and propose the 20. TEMPERED
best quality service to Chinese clients. (A) eased (B) abated
(A) a and b (B) b and c (C) increased (D) magnified
(C) Only a (D) Only b

PASSAGE – III

Foreign institutional flows into the Indian equity market in CY15 have been at its lowest level in four years, but domestic
institutional investors bought `65,000 crore worth of equities during the year, turning net buyers after three years of
back-to-back selling. What has turned these serial sellers into serious buyers?
Local fund managers cite ‘attractive valuation’ as the primary reason for their renewed interest. “While the valuation in the
mid-cap space has run ahead of earning estimates due to the sustained rally starting from 2016, the valuation in large-caps
has turned reasonable,” says Sampath Reddy, CIO at Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance. Since CY14, the 30-share Sensex is up
21%, while the BSE Mid-Cap Index is up 64%. The fact is that the local buying spree has been made possible by strong
inflows into equity mutual funds this year — in 2017 till November equity mutual funds have garnered `87,000 crore.
Currently, most fund managers are positioning their portfolio for a revival in domestic growth. Future Generali’s CIO Jyoti
Vaswani says her strategy would be to steer clear of global names and be more inward looking, focusing on companies
exposed to the domestic economy. “We are overweight on sectors like auto and cement. We also remain overweight on
consumer staples as we believe the sector would be a major beneficiary of the Seventh Pay Commission. Studies show
that a large part of disposable income is spent on durables and food articles,” she says.
Bajaj Allianz’s Reddy is also putting his money into auto, consumer durables and sectors exposed to urban discretionary
spending. “We also see some opportunities in private banks, infra companies and roads sector,” he adds. AK Sridhar,
CIO at India First Life Insurance and Mihir Vora, CIO at Max Life Insurance expect engineering and construction

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companies to do well. “We expect the order-book position of engineering and construction companies to improve with
government spending reviving. These companies are available at attractive beaten-down prices,” says Sridhar.
Notwithstanding the valuation, where prices head in the next year will depend on how fund flows pan out. Despite domestic
managers being on a buying spree, stock prices have headed nowhere. While bulk of DII inflows (60%) came in during
the second half of CY17, the benchmark Sensex corrected 7% during that period.
No one is reading too much into the FII selling currently. They sold equities worth `23,389 crore in the second half of
CY17. Rajiv Shastri, CEO, Peerless AMC, says that FIIs are not differentiating India from its emerging markets peer
group. “While India’s peers are net commodity exporters, India is a net commodity importer. So, while its peers are facing
headwinds due to falling commodity prices, India stands to naturally gain from it.” While foreign investors may not take an
isolated view of India when the general sentiment is to pull out from emerging markets, this time around, there has been
a technical factor.
“There has been an outflow from Emerging Market(EM) funds. As India’s weightage in the EM basket has gone up due
to its out-performance, India has witnessed significant outflows.” says Sailesh Bhan, Deputy CIO at Reliance AMC.
“However, all this has led to a correction in valuation and the timing can’t be better as the domestic economy seems to
be on the verge of a cyclical upturn,” he adds. Notwithstanding local investor sentiment, the upturn and its reflection on
stock prices will still be in question if foreign investors remain on the selling side.
21. Why have companies become more 'inward-looking' 25. Why was the Indian market unaffected even when
as per the passage? commodity prices plunged?
(A) due to 'attractive valuation' (A) The Indian market remained isolated from the
(B) seeing prospective benefits promised by the global economy.
seventh pay commission (B) because of higher shares of Foreign Institutional
(C) because there has been more investment in Investments compared to its peers
mutual funds (C) Unlike in other emerging markets where
(D) because a larger share of disposable income is commodity prices spearheaded, the Indian
spent on durables and food items market thrived on stable commodity prices.
(D) with regard to net commodity trade volume,
22. Which of the following can be understood from the imports weighed more than exports.
passage? 26. Because of what reason did foreign investors not
Ι. Foreign institutional investment rate has been withdraw themselves from the Indian markets?
very low in the last few years. (A) The value of Indian currency appreciated against
ΙΙ. The surge or decline of Stock market prices is foreign currencies
solely dependent on valuation of currency (B) because they wanted to remain on the selling side
ΙΙΙ. Consumer durables sector appears to have a (C) because the Indian economy was on the verge
high potential for growth. of a cyclical upturn
(D) because of significant outflows from emerging
(A) Ι only (B) Ι and ΙΙ only market funds
(C) Ι and ΙΙΙ only (D) Ι, ΙΙ and ΙΙΙ
27. What is the 'isolated view' that is being mentioned in
23. Domestic markets look more buoyant than global the passage?
ones. Why? (A) Investing in Indian equity market
(A) Some companies are available at fetching prices (B) Investing in Indian mutual fund firms
due to increased government spending in some (C) pulling out from the Indian market
of the sectors. (D) to remain in the emerging market of India
(B) Because the domestic economy flourished due
to its strong position with regard to emerging 28. Which of the following sectors are likely to improve in
market funds. the upcoming calendar year, as per the passage?
(C) Because the value of currency increased against (A) Engineering and Construction
global currencies. (B) Road and Infrastructure
(D) All the above (C) Automobile
(D) All the above
24. For which of the following reasons is/are the
29. Which of the following has/have NOT contributed to
consumer goods sector given more attention?
better valuation of currency?
Ι. This sector is likely to get benefits as per the (A) significant amount of outflows from emerging
recommendation of the seventh pay commission. market funds
ΙΙ. The urban spending pattern shows more share (B) imbalance in global commodity trade
of consumer durables and food articles. (C) strong inflows into equity mutual funds
ΙΙΙ. Government spending in this sector is likely to (D) Both statements (A) and (B)
increase.
(A) Ι and ΙΙ 30. Select the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning
(B) Ι only to the word GARNERED, as used in the passage.
(C) Ι and ΙΙΙ (A) gathered (B) nourished
(D) All Ι, ΙΙ and ΙΙΙ (C) deployed (D) delegated

PASSAGE – IV

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Biological evolution happens by random mutation and selection. Technological evolution involves selection, too.
Products preferred by customers are the ones that reproduce. But since technology is the product of conscious design,
the mutation part of the process might reasonably be assumed to be deliberate rather than random.
A study just published in the Proceedings of the Royal Society suggests, however, that this is not always the case. Nicholas
Makris and his colleagues at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, in collaboration with Roman Barnas, a violin maker
at the North Bennet Street School, in Boston, have been looking at the evolution of that instrument. One aspect of the process
intrigued them in particular—the changing shape, over the years, of the holes in a violin’s body that allow the sound to emerge.
The violin’s oldest European ancestors date from the tenth century. They were called “fitheles”, a word derived from vitula,
the Latin for heifer, the source of the gut for the strings. (The Latin word also eventually gave rise to “violin”; “fitheles”,
meanwhile, became “fiddle” in a process of linguistic speciation also akin to the biological sort.) The instrument arrived at
its modern form between the 16th and the 18th centuries, in the workshops of Cremona, a city in northern Italy that produced
the Amati, Guarneri and Stradivari dynasties of luthiers.
Dr Makris and his team noticed that, in the transition from tenth-century fithele to 18th-century violin, the holes on top of the
sound box evolved from simple circles to the complex, elongated f-shapes familiar in today’s instruments. They wondered why.
The answer, arrived at after several pages of advanced mathematics, and confirmed by experiment, is that holes’
sound-amplification properties depend not on their areas but on the lengths of their peripheries. They showed how the
shape of the hole varied over the centuries, and how that affected its power output. The final Cremonese design had twice
the sonic power of the circular holes of the fithele.
Except that Dr Makris doubts “design” is precisely the right word for what happened. Design implies intent. But his analysis
of 470 Cremonese instruments made between 1560 and 1750 suggests, that change was gradual—and consistent, in
Dr Makris’s view, with random variations in craftsmen’s techniques producing instruments of different power. The market,
presumably, favoured those journeymen within a workshop who made more powerful instruments. When they became
masters in their turn, they then passed their ways of doing things on to their own apprentices. Only at the very end of the
period might a deliberate change have been made, as the holes get suddenly longer.
Intriguingly, intentional attempts in the 19th century to fiddle further with the f-holes’ designs actually served to make things worse,
and did not endure. As is also the case with living organisms, mutation and selection seem to have arrived at an optimal result.

31. Which of the following cases of mutation is random 35. What, according to Dr. Markis, was the reason behind
according to the passage? circular holes gradually changing over to the
(A) The increase in the size of violin holes elongated f-shaped holes?
(B) The decrease in the size of violin holes (A) They looked better.
(C) Changing the shape of the violin holes due to the (B) Sound-amplification gradually gained importance.
fact that lengths of peripheries amplify sound. (C) Makers found that the f-shaped holes amplify
sound better than existing circular holes due to
(D) The change in the shape of the violin holes
the length of the periphery.
32. Which of the following does the violin's mutation (D) There is no reason.
come under according to the passage? 36. According to the passage, which of the following is
(A) Mutation that happens with expected consequences. NOT true?
(B) Mutation that happens without intention. (A) Design is not the right word according to
(C) Mutation that happens with intention. Dr Markis because it implies intention.
(A) Only A is true (B) The market favoured powerful instruments.
(B) Only B is true (C) Technology is an example of random mutation.
(C) Only C is true (D) The violin evolved much similar to human beings
(D) Only A and B are true 37. Of which of the following types does the content of
33. Which of the following is NOT true according to the the passage fall into?
passage? (A) Interpretative (B) Informative
(A) Heifer refers to the source of the gut used for the (C) Deductive (D) Subjective
strings. 38. What is the purpose of the 3rd paragraph in the passage?
(B) Guarneri, Amati and Stradivari are violin dynasties. (A) To propose a hypothesis
(C) The final cremonese design has twice the sonic (B) To make a conclusion
power than the circular holes of the fithele. (C) To portray the main theme of the passage
(D) The quality of the sound of the violin depends on (D) To provide a historical background about the
the length of the periphery of the holes. subject
34. For the assumption that violins evolved by conscious 39. What could be a suitable title for the passage?
mutation to be true, which of the following conditions (A) The Natural evolution of Artefacts – the case of Violin
has to be met? (B) A Few Facts about the Violin
(A) The violin holes remaining as simple circles (C) A History of the Violin
(B) The maker being unaware of the relation between (D) Sound Amplification in the Violin
sound amplification and the shape of the holes
(C) The changeover from circle to the f-shaped holes 40. Select the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning
being abrupt. to the word ENDURE, as used in the passage.
(D) Sound amplification not being the concern of the (A) continue (B) torture
maker (C) suffer patiently (D) end

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PASSAGE – V
It would evoke nothing short of amusement and may be even derision to be told that some so-called scientists not even
remotely acquainted with a particular area of study or a body of systematised knowledge should not only be making claims
of research in it, but worse, go on to announce in the pages of a "prestigious" journal that their findings discredit it. But this is
precisely what is happening in sections of the 'scientific community' in the west in its tirade against Jyotisha or astrology and
which is being lapped up eagerly by segments of the media in our country. This phenomenon, apart from its entertainment
value, is a sad reflection on the quality or lack of it in "research studies" claimed in the west with the avowed objective of
denigrating astrology. A case in point is the recent sensational claims by Prof. Ivan W. Kelly (Department of Psychology,
University of Saskatchewan, Saskatchewan, Canada) and another, Prof. Geoffrey Dean (a scientist from Perth, Australia) in
an article "Is astrology relevant to consciousness and Psi?" from the Journal of Consciousness Studies This article is
supposed to have thrown sections of the media into frenzied excitement that finally astrology had been debunked.
In order to both appreciate and evaluate the worth of such claims, certain questions need to be critically examined and
honestly answered. The foremost would be what constitutes the content of Jyotisha, the subject claimed of the research
study. The eligibility of those conducting research must be verified if their findings are to be taken seriously. Lastly, the
findings themselves must be carefully reviewed and artefacts, if any, used to nudge conclusions, identified.
The whole idea of the science of Jyotisha started with the Hindus of ancient India as did many other branches of
knowledge wrongly believed to have originated in the west. The ancient Indians not only tried to understand the inner
universe of the human mind and soul (Pindanda) but grappled equally hard to comprehend the external universe
(Brahmanda) starting with the earth, the centre of their observations. Instead of resting content with it, the ancient Indians
moved on to explore the solar system and the stellar systems beyond, dotting the skies. They discovered that the inner
and outer universes were not distinct islands divorced from each other. They had a link which was as indisputable as it
was hard to prove. And so developed Jyotisha or Vedic astrology which links man with the cosmos.
The Hindus were the first to use mathematics and logic for discovering the truths of Nature. They then developed their arguments
on truths already verified and proceeded on sound methods of reasoning to arrive at conclusions. Theirs was the earliest form
of incisive and sublime thinking to develop in the world and it never had to contend with other religious and dogmatic schools of
thought to capture the heart of the true thinker in man, the scientist in him. And it was in such a congenial atmosphere of
unfettered intellectual adventurism and liberty that the sciences – mundane and spiritual – including Vedic astrology developed.
Jyotisha or Vedic astrology is not confined to the solar system alone although it begins with it. The Hindu fixed Zodiac is
the Sidereal Zodiac and star-based. The planets are spread along the Zodiac of 27 constellations and are influenced by
the constellations they occupy. That means these stars or star-systems which actually are sun-systems (far beyond the
solar system) have a role in the scheme of astrology. The 9 Grahas or planets and the 27 constellations together with the
12 signs form the tools of the astrologer.
Dr. Raman who may rightly be described as the Father of Modern Astrology, identifies the three schools of astrology as
of Parasara, Jaimini and Nadi. Therefore any astrological postulate to merit validity, for application or experiment, must
be drawn from any of these schools. Otherwise, it cannot be treated as valid in astrology. Though each of these schools
of thought has its own method of prediction, there is considerable overlapping as well as interdependence of dicta in
drawing conclusions but that is not relevant to our present discussion.
The Brihat Parasara Hora is the most authoritative text of astrologers and deals with both Parasari and Jaimini astrology.
The backbone of Parasari astrology is the Rasi chart read against the backdrop of the Dasa system. There are as many
32 Dasa systems to be applied under different conditions. But it is the Vimshottari time-scale of 120 years that has been
generally accepted in astrology circles as the most reliable in deciphering events and occurrences. Under it, the optimum
span of human life is 120 years. The Vimshottari Dasa system is based on the Nakshtra occupied by the Moon at birth.
Results are deduced on the basis of planetary ruler ships.
The unique feature of Parasari astrology, with which no 'scientist' appears to be familiar with, is what are called Yogas or
combinations and permutations of different planets. Sometimes, the Yogas spill into the Navamsa chart also. All Yogas
can broadly be divided into Yogas and Arishtas. Yogas are fortunate combinations – for success, prosperity, health, fame
and so on. Arishtas cover misfortune  deaths, deformity, tragedies, ill-health. Yogas in turn, in the sense of beneficial
Yogas, can be Raja Yogas (political power, pomp, pelf), Dhana Yogas (combinations for wealth) or Gnana Yogas (Yogas
for knowledge and spirituality). There are other kinds of Yogas also attributed specific results. Yogas drastically alter the
results in a horoscope and are extremely important in interpretation.
In Jaimini, the aspects are reckoned differently. There are different Dasa systems but they are sign-oriented. Depending
upon the rising sign at birth, the order and extent of Dasas such as Chara, Trikona and other Dasas are determined.
Karakas take precedence over lordships. Karakas are natural significators. For example, depending upon the longitude
of planets signwise, we have the Atmakaraka, the chief or prime planet and all important in Jaimini astrology. In Parasara,
the Karakas are fixed and the same for all charts. In Jaimini, the Karaka is determined on the basis of the longitude of a
planet with reference to the beginning of the sign. The Karakas differ for different charts in Jaimini.
According to the Nadi system, each sign of the Zodiac is divided into 150 parts so that each part equates to 12' of arc or
48 seconds of time. Each of these parts, in turn, is further split into 2 parts  the Poorvabhaga (first part) and the
Uttarbhaga (second part). Depending upon how correctly the exact part under which a birth takes place can be identified,
a general outline of the pattern of life awaiting the native can be obtained. Of course, for this certain other planetary clues
must be matched. Therefore, according to the Nadi system of prediction, which has for hundreds of years in our country
boasted of breathtakingly accurate predictions, each arc of 24 seconds of time gives rise to a distinct destiny pattern.
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That makes for 3600 basic patterns a day, each unique in its own way and reflecting in all human births around the globe.
The method of delineation of results according to the Nadi system is, however, not easy and one is led through a maze
of astrological clues before one can pitch on the right destiny pattern which is given a specific name and works for a birth
under a specific 24 second time period.
How many who claim to test astrology are even aware of what constitutes astrology?
41. Pick the choice which has the statements pertaining to the Hindu fixed Zodiac.
(a) It is based on constellations or fixed stars.
(b) The planets are said to be influenced by the constellations they occupy.
(c) There are 9 planets, 27 constellations and 12 signs in this Zodiac.
(d) Star systems that are beyond our solar system are also said to exert influence.
(A) Only (a) (B) Only (a) and (d)
(C) Only (b) and (c) (D) All of the above four statements.
42. According to the Nadi system, (d) Prof. Geoffrey Dean is from Perth.
(a) a general prediction about the course of life of a (A) (a) and (d) (B) (a), (c) and (d)
native can be made depending on the specific 24 (C) (a), (b) and (c) (D) Only (a)
second time period.
46. As understood from the passage, Astrology or Jyotisha
(b) the Zodiac is on the whole divided into 150 parts.
(A) can be used to indicate what will take place in future.
(c) the second half of the 12' arc is called Uttarbhaga.
(B) can hit 100% accuracy only under the Nadi system.
(d) though difficult, it may be possible to make
(C) is never amenable to an in-depth study given its
accurate predictions.
complex nature.
(A) Only (a) and (b) are true. (D) can be used by a person to his advantage if he
(B) Only (c) and (d) are true. follows any one of the three schools.
(C) Only (a), (c) and (d) are true.
(D) All the four statements are true. 47. Regarding the Parasari school of astrology,
(A) its unique feature is the combinations and
43. The author, through the passage, tries to permutations of different planets.
(A) correct what has been said by Prof. Ivan W. Kelly (B) misfortunes come under Arishtas.
and Prof. Geoffrey Dean. (C) Yogas have a significant influence on the horoscope.
(B) explain the fact that astrology is a field where (D) all the above statements are true.
research studies are still not a part of routine
procedure. 48. A common entity for Parasari and Jaimini schools of
(C) counter the claims made by certain scientists and Astrology that is clearly seen to be applied in a unique
thereby silence the critics of Astrology. way in each school is
(D) show that the astrological scientists of the west are (A) the Rasi chart. (B) the Dasa system.
not equipped with the knowledge pertinent to India. (C) the Karakas. (D) the Navamsa chart.

44. What does the passage say about Hinduism, as a 49. The ancient Indians
religion? (A) tried to comprehend Pindanda and Brahmanda.
(a) It is the earliest form of religion to have (B) developed Jyotisha that links man with the cosmos.
developed in the world. (C) studied not only the solar system but other stellar
(b) Mathematics and logic were used to decode the systems too.
truths of Nature. (D) found links between the inner world of man and
(c) It does not have any holy book. the world of outer universe.
(A) Only (a) (B) (a) and (b) 50. The three schools of astrology are
(C) (a) and (c) (D) Only (c) (A) dependent on the Dasa system.
45. Identify the statements that can be attributed to the (B) interdependent.
author and pick your choice accordingly. (C) not the only ones through which a horoscope can
(a) Dr. Raman is considered to be the Father of be studied.
Modern Astrology. (D) liable to give contradictory predictions about the
(b) Prof. Ivan W. Kelly is from America. same horoscope.
(c) The Brihat Parasara Hora is the most
authoritative text of astrologers.

Exercise – 10
Directions for questions 1 to 65: Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions given below them.
Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

PASSAGE – I

Researchers at the University of California-San Diego have embarked upon a search for the unique genetic and molecular
programmes operating inside prostate cancer cells. They hope to figure out which programmes make some cancers
aggressive and which ones tell others to remain dormant. "The biggest problem with prostate cancer screening is that we
are overtreating," says doctor Carol Salem, a UCSD investigator and Assistant Professor of Surgery. "We really want to be
sure we're treating the right patients because treating prostate cancer poses a threat to a man's quality of life."

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The UCSD endeavour is part of a booming nationwide effort to gather the molecular profiles of all cancers. Already,
investigators have deciphered profiles of melanomas, leukemias, and breast cancers, among many others, and found intriguing
results. Cancers that look the same under the microscope may actually be completely different diseases because they have
distinct genetic characteristics, and therefore they require different treatments. Indeed, a new molecular perspective is
expected to soon enable doctors to look beyond traditional cancer classification techniques – the size, shape, and location of
tumors – and make critical decisions for patients based on a sound understanding of their tumor's biology.
Eventually, the entire diagnostic vocabulary will require overhaul. "Right now, we say silly things like breast cancer or lung
cancer," says Larry Norton, president of the American Society of Clinical Oncology and Chief of Medical Oncology at
Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Centre in New York. In future, he says, clinicians will identify cancer not by the site
where it arises, but rather by the kinds of molecular defects it has. In other words, a typical patient would be diagnosed
with a certain kind of cancer that just happens to be in the breast or lung. Then, the treatment would match the patient's
tumor type, not simply its location.
It's not that scientists had an epiphany about cancer. It's just that they now have the tools to effectively investigate its
genetic complexity. Until recently, cancer researchers laboriously studied one gene at a time. But advances in molecular
biology and computer science are combining to accelerate cancer exploration. In particular, a new tool called the gene
chip, invented by Stanford biochemist Patrick Brown, is now allowing researchers to sort through thousands of genes at
a time, doing the work of years in just a few days.
The gene chip, known more technically as a DNA microarray, is a thumbnail-size glass wafer embedded with thousands
of genes. Despite its name, the chip has no relation to a microprocessor and involves just a few simple steps to produce
and use. In fact, many labs are building their own machines to make the chips. Each gene chip analysis gives a readout
of the distinct patterns of genes switched on or off in a cell, effectively letting the researcher peer inside and get a
comprehensive snapshot of the cellular dynamics at work. "It's the molecular microscope of modern cancer research,"
says Todd Golub, Associate Professor of Pediatrics at Harvard Medical School and Director of Cancer Genomics at the
Whitehead/MIT Centre for Genome Research.
The new science is still being feverishly worked out in the lab, but already there are signs of its clinical potential. Indeed,
normally cautious scientists are using superlatives they generally avoid, to describe how molecular profiling will change
the ways doctors detect, diagnose, and treat diseases.
Oncology's first rule has always been to spot cancer early, when it is most vulnerable. That's why a lot of effort has gone
into refining early-detection instruments such as mammography, X-rays, and CT scans. These technologies, however,
are far from perfect. They can miss critical tumors and raise alarms over benign ones. A growing number of researchers
now believe that the future of early detection lies in discovering cancer's molecular signposts deep within the body, even
before the disease becomes visible or symptomatic.
As cancer silently moves about the body, it leaves an incriminating trail of genes and proteins – a residue fundamentally
different from that shed by normal tissue. Several teams of scientists are working on blood, saliva, and urine tests to catch
those hallmark gene and protein patterns. One group recently reported promising results for a potential ovarian cancer
detection test, which they hope to replicate for prostate, breast, lung, and pancreatic cancers.
More than 80 percent of ovarian cancer cases are advanced by the time of detection, and only about a third of those
patients survive five years or more. Elise Kohn of the National Cancer Institute, has been working with other government
scientists on a test that would spot in one drop of blood the distinctive pattern of proteins associated with ovarian cancer.
The test gives results in 30 minutes, though it is still very much at the experimental stage.
To devise the simple test, Kohn's team took blood samples from cancer patients and healthy patients and ran them
through a device that sorts proteins by size and electrical charge. The device spewed out a chart for each sample's protein
pattern – "almost like a bar code you would get in a grocery store," says coinvestigator Emanuel Petricoin of the Food
and Drug Administration. Those bar codes were then fed into an artificial intelligence system, which "learned" to sift out
those with cancer from those without, by using a distinctive pattern of only a handful of proteins. To check the "trained"
computer's reliability, the scientists blindly fed it a set of unknown samples. It identified all 50 cancer patients correctly –
including 18 that were at early stages and thus highly curable – and it picked out 63 of 66 of the noncancerous samples.
Only three healthy women would have gotten a false positive.
Barnett Kramer, Associate Director of the Office of Disease Prevention at the National Institute of Health, calls the study
"potent proof" that molecular techniques in principle can be used for early detection, but he cautions against premature
conclusions. The test still needs validation by other researchers using many more patients; and it needs to be piloted in
the real world to see if the benefits of screening healthy people outweigh the harms. If it can pass these tests, a cancer
that whispers may finally be heard.
1. Scientists are concentrating increasingly on analysis of blood, urine and saliva of potential
molecular studies of cancerous cells as a way to patients.
effectively fight the disease because
2. The ‘new molecular perspective’ as described in the
(A) early detection techniques and devices are not
passage is not expected to result in all of the following
fool proof.
except
(B) results are reliable with present methods.
(A) An overhauling of diagnostic vocabulary related
(C) they are attempting to detect the disease even
to oncology.
before its explicit manifestation.
(B) A reemphasis on traditional cancer classification
(D) it is easier to detect the vulnerable cells based on
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techniques. (B) rapid advances made in molecular biology and
(C) A renewed emphasis on identifying cancer by the computer science.
site where it occurs. (C) the DNA micro array.
(D) Identify cancer only after the symptoms become (D) effective sorting computer packages.
manifest.
3. “The molecular microscope” is 8. A chart for each sample’s protein content is
(A) is an optical instrument for making genes visible. compared to a barcode because
(B) cellular dynamics. (A) both are unique for each entity.
(C) distinct pattern of genes.
(B) the charts are compatible with computers, like
(D) the gene chip.
barcodes.
4. The statement, “a cancer that whispers may finally be (C) they can be replicated.
heard” implies: (D) both are based on reading a magnetic field.
(A) Easy identification of molecular clues given off by
cancer. 9. The present way of treating cancer is based on
(B) Early detection of cancer before becoming visible (A) the type of tumor.
or symptomatic. (B) the stage of the disease.
(C) Giving patient a better chance of survival. (C) the patient’s biology.
(D) Treating the disease depending upon its unique (D) the location of the tumor.
characteristics.
10. In the content of the passage, when Dr. Carol Salem
5. The test carried out by Kohn’s team says that the doctors, at present, are overtreating
(A) was not the first used to detect ovarian cancer. prostrate cancers, he actually means that
(B) fails to pick up the proteins unique to a cancer. (A) overtreating may actually deteriorate a patient’s
(C) uses a calculator to identify a potential victim by quality of life.
the blood sample’s specific protein pattern. (B) proper diagnostic techniques are not available.
(D) has a high rate of accuracy. (C) it is next to impossible to decide the correct
dosage of treatment.
6. Researchers at the University of California- San (D) there is a chance that patients with some of the non
Diego are trying to -aggressive types of cancers are also being treated.
(A) pinpoint the causes that predisposes one to an
attack of cancer. 11. One of the following can be inferred about cancer
(B) study the genetic makeup of all types of cancer. from the passage :
(C) decipher the molecular programmes of patients. (A) A person affected with cancer is doomed to
(D) figure out the programmes which make some a premature death.
cancers aggressive and others dormant. (B) Cancer is not life threatening any more.
(C) Some forms of cancers are benign.
7. Advanced research on cancer is being propelled by (D) Treatments based on the type of tumor are most
(A) effective tools that study its gene completely. effective.
PASSAGE – II

U ntil the discovery of the Indus Valley Civilization, the development of literature and culture in India was always credited to
the Aryans. In 1920, archaeologists announced the discovery of extensive urban ruins in the Indus Valley which pre-dated
the earliest archaeological sources. These ancient dwellers in India were Dravidians, and in fact, their culture had developed
a highly sophisticated way of life. Archaeological evidence also shows that the Indus Valley culture moved from west to east,
with sites towards Central and Southern India flourishing after Harappa and Mohenjo-daro had declined. This civilization is
one of the three great early civilizations that arose in the late fourth and third millennia BC around the three large alluvial
systems of the Tigris-Euphrates, Nile and Indus rivers. This civilization was thought to have been confined to the valley of
the river Indus, hence the name given to it was Indus Valley Civilization. This civilization was a highly developed urban one
and two of its towns, Mohenjo-daro and Harappa, represent the high watermark of the settlements. Subsequent
archaeological excavations established that the contours of this civilization were not restricted to the Indus Valley but spread
to a wide area in northwestern and western India. Thus, this civilization is now better known as the Harappan Civilization.
Mohenjo-daro and Harappa are now in Pakistan and the principal sites in India include Ropar in Punjab, Lothal in Gujarat
and Kalibangan in Rajasthan. The extensive excavations carried out at the two principal city sites, Harappa and
Mohenjo-daro, indicate that this Dravidian culture was well established by about 2500 B.C. What we know of this ancient
civilization is derived almost exclusively from archaeological data since every attempt to decipher the script used by these
people has failed so far. Recent analyses of the order of the signs on the inscriptions have led several scholars to the view
that the language is not of the Indo-European family, nor is it close to the Sumerian, Hurrian, or Elamite, nor can it be related
to the structure of the Munda languages of modern India. If it is related to any modern language family, it appears to be
Dravidian akin to Old Tamil, presently spoken throughout the southern part of the Indian Peninsula.
The Indus cities seem to have had very few public buildings. The only one of any note is the Great Bath at Mohenjo-daro
which appears to have been used in the performance of certain rituals. Nothing that can be clearly identified as a temple
or a shrine has yet been discovered. A structure once considered a granary is now thought to have been a palace with
ventilated air ducts. The people depended upon agriculture and trade for their livelihood. Wheat, barley and date palm
were cultivated; animals were domesticated; and cotton textiles, ivory and copper were exported to Mesopotamia, and
possibly China and Burma in exchange for silver and other commodities. Production of several metals such as copper,
bronze, lead and tin was also undertaken and some remnants of furnaces provide evidence of this fact. The discovery of

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kilns to make bricks supports the fact that burnt bricks were used extensively in domestic and public buildings. Evidence
for the religious beliefs and practices of these people is slight, since the Indus script cannot be read and apart from the
bath, there appears to be no religious structure. A certain amount of information has been derived from scenes depicted
on seal-amulets and from the terracota figurines found at different sites throughout the area. However, such evidence is
open to wide interpretation. The predominance of female figurines and seals depicting a horned goddess in association
with the sacred pipal tree is generally regarded as evidence of the worship of a mother goddess who presided over fertility
and birth and who may have acted as guardian and protector of the dead.

The great bath at Mohenjo-daro could not have been constructed for the purpose of hygiene since all the private dwellings
were equipped with excellent bathrooms. Since so many elements of the Indus culture appear to have found their way
into Hinduism, it is possible that ancient purification rites were taken over and reinterpreted by members of the Brahmin
caste. If this is so, the later practice of constructing artificial lotus ponds may be very ancient indeed. These lotus ponds
were used during historic times for various purification ceremonies and one theory suggests that the bath was probably
used by the mother goddess cult.
The appearance of coarser type of pottery points to invaders in the Indus cities. Around 1750 B.C., the uniform culture of this
great area broke up. The cause or causes of the end of the Indus Civilization are not easy to determine. At Mohenjo-daro,
groups of sprawling skeletons of this period suggest some sort of massacre or invasion. The end of the Indus Valley Civilization
may have been fairly abrupt and violent, but long before the end came, there seems to have been a gradual process of internal
decay and stagnation. It is probable that the fall of this great civilization was partly due to the widespread migratory movements
of charioteering peoples which altered the face of the whole civilized world in the 2nd millennium B.C.

12. The actual purpose of the great bath of Mohenjo-daro 18. A feature which can be considered unique to the
can be deduced Harappan Civilization is
(A) after careful consideration of various elements of (A) the existence of only one palace.
Hinduism. (B) the absence of any religious structure.
(B) only by studying the private residences (C) the worship of mother goddess.
constructed then. (D) the terracota figurines.
(C) from the study of artificial lotus ponds.
(D) through the reinterpretations of several rites by 19. The end of the Indus Valley Civilization
the Brahmins. (A) was due to outside invasions.
(B) was preluded by mass massacres.
13. The available evidence for the religious practices and (C) could have been due to widespread migration of
rituals has come from people.
(A) the inscriptions found at that site. (D) was due to a natural calamity.
(B) the presence of a common bathing structure.
(C) the excavations carried out at Harappa. 20. Which of the following can be said to be true
(D) the seal-amulets and the terracota figurines regarding public buildings of the Indus Valley
discovered at the site. Civilization?
(a) They were constructed using burnt bricks.
14. Aryans were, according to the passage, wrongly (b) There were very few public buildings.
credited with (c) The most prominent public place mentioned in
(A) patronising literature and culture. the passage was most probably used for rituals.
(B) the urbanisation of their civilization.
(C) devising excellent street layout. (A) Only (a) (B) (a) and (c)
(D) developing a sophisticated way of life. (C) Only (b) (D) (a), (b) and (c)

15. Indus Valley Civilization is now being referred to as 21. One of the following could have supported the
Harappan Civilization because Harappan Civilization:
(A) traces of Indus Valley Civilization were found in (A) agrarian economy.
Harappa of Pakistan. (B) barter system.
(B) it covers extensive areas of northwestern India. (C) trading of metals.
(C) it moved from west to east. (D) export of precious metals.
(D) it had spread widely in northwestern and western 22. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
parts of India. (A) The script used by the Indus valley civilization
16. The odd man is was borrowed from Tamil.
(A) Nile. (B) Indus. (B) The Indus valley civilization was confined largely
(C) Tigris. (D) Harappa. to the valley of the Indus river.
(C) Indus valley culture died out with the fall of the
17. The limited knowledge about Indus Valley Civilization cities of Mohenjo-doro and Harappa.
has come from archaeological data because the (D) None of the above.
script could not be
(A) studied. 23. The phrase ‘high watermark’ as used in the passage
(B) found. is closest in meaning to
(C) converted into an intelligible script. (A) Paragon. (B) Zenith.
(D) used. (C) Perigee. (D) Nadir.

PASSAGE – III

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An international team has just published a review of the events, showing the number of landslides in Nepal was far lower
than people had feared. And the group could find no evidence of Himalayan glacial lakes suffering significant damage
which is a key concern. This issue has also been presented in San Francisco at the Fall Meeting of the American
Geophysical Union - the world's largest annual gathering of Earth scientists. "There were a lot of surprises," said study
lead Jeffery Kargel from the University of Arizona, Tucson. "The nature of the earthquakes' influence on the landscape,
from the largest scales to the smaller scales, was not really as we would have expected," he told BBC News.

By any measure, the Nepal quakes in April and May were devastating: more than eight and a half thousand people lost
their lives. But researchers believe that even this horrific outcome was slight compared with what could have happened.
The main magnitude 7.8 tremor on 25th April buckled the Earth's surface, making a broad swathe of the high Himalayas
slump down while lifting up the adjacent Kathmandu basin. This whole region was also shifted 2m to the south. Scientists'
immediate reaction was to expect many tens of thousands of landslides to be triggered, but a huge effort to scour satellite
images could identify only 4,312.
Similarly, researchers thought that many lakes that had built up behind the rocky deposits of glaciers would be breached
by the tremors, sending torrents of water down Nepalese valleys. However, satellite photos and subsequent on-the-
ground inspections could find no serious damage. This is still under study, but scientists think several factors could have
contributed. One factor could be the nature of the shaking: although energetic, it was relatively smooth. Another idea is
that the rock strength in the region may have been underestimated. Vegetation, like rhododendron forests, could also
have played an important role in holding the landscape together.
Still none of this diminishes the awfulness of what happened. In the famous trekking village of Langtang which is in the
north of Kathmandu, some two million cubic metres of debris came down the mountainside. Brian Collins from the US
Geological Survey, who visited the aftermath, said "It started off as a snow and ice avalanche somewhere above 5,000m
and then slid over 1,000m before going off a cliff and into free-fall for about 500m; and that free-fall was really the
damaging aspect of it. This had also collected a lot of material on the way down and it landed directly on the village." The
scientists have calculated that the mass of snow, ice and rock hit the valley floor with the energy equivalent to half a
Hiroshima nuclear bomb. "There's another part of the village that was completely blown away by the landslide or
avalanche winds, which we estimate were somewhere in the EF-5 Tornado range, strong enough to completely blow
away stone-slab hotels” says Jeffery Kargel, the assessment's senior author. More than 350 people perished at Langtang.
But, again, even this extraordinary event is put into perspective by a companion paper published in Science magazine. This
details investigations of historic earthquakes in Nepal that occurred around 1,000 years ago. These tremors were probably
of magnitude 8, or greater, and the landslides and debris movements they triggered completely transformed the landscape
around them. The team found that Pokhara, the second largest city in Nepal, is actually built on top of all this material.
Co-author Oliver Korup, from the University of Potsdam, Germany, said: "Most of it came from a high-lying mountain basin
in the Annapurna Massif, 3,000m above sea level. And the debris spread out over nearly 150 square km, and invaded
several river valleys upstream, against the flow direction, for up to 7km. The Downtown San Francisco area would be
buried beneath at least 50m of debris.
However, there is an increased risk of a future major earthquake in an area that straddles the west of Nepal and India,
scientists warn. New data has revealed that the devastating quake that hit Nepal in April did not release all of the stress
that had built up underground, and has pushed some of it westwards.
24. Which of the following is/are true in the context of the
passage? 26. What was so surprising about the Nepal quakes
(1) The number of landslides was more than the according to the earthquake study lead, Jeffery Kargel?
expectations of people. (A) More than eight and a half thousand people lost
(2) According to researchers the Nepal earthquakes their lives.
was not as horrific as it could have been. (B) There was no loss of human life which was
(3) Satellite photos and subsequent on-the-ground surprising for the researchers.
inspections could find no serious damage in the (C) The nature of the earthquakes' influence on the
Nepal quakes. landscape, from the largest scales to the
(A) Only (1) and (2) (B) Only (2) and (3) smallest scales, was not really as they had
(C) Only (1) (D) Only (1) and (3) expected.
(D) The main magnitude 7.8 tremor on 25th April
25. What were the immediate expectations of the which buckled the Earth's surface, surprised the
scientists after the horrific earthquake in Nepal which researchers.
measured 7.8 in the Richter Scale?
(A) The scientists were scared and terrified by the 27. Which of the following can be an appropriate title for
quakes of Nepal. the passage?
(B) Scientists' immediate reaction was to expect less (A) Nepal Earthquake: Fewer than Expected
number of landslides in the Himalayan region. Landslides
(C) Scientists believed that Lang Tang, which is (B) The Horrific Nepal Earthquakes
situated in the north of Kathmandu, would be (C) The Landslides of Nepal
totally destroyed. (D) Destruction of Lang Tang
(D) Scientists' immediate reaction was to expect
many tens of thousands of landslides to be 28. Which of the following is/are NOT TRUE in the
triggered after the Nepal quakes. context of the passage?
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(1) The mass of snow, ice and rock hit the valley (B) Behind the rocky deposits of glaciers
floor of Langtang with an energy equivalent to (C) In the fields of Nepal
half a Hiroshima nuclear bomb. (D) In the volcanic erupted areas
(2) One of the factors for which Nepal did not
32. Why is there a mention of “American Geophysical
experience any serious damage was the
Union” in the passage?
geographical location of Nepal.
(A) Because the Americans has better knowledge of
(3) There was no evidence of Himalayan glacial
geography
lakes suffering significant damage due to the
(B) Because this Union deals with earthquakes
earthquake of Nepal. (C) Because the government of Nepal asked for help
(A) Only (1) and (2) (B) Only (2) from America
(C) Only (1) (D) Only (1) and (3) (D) Because this is the world's largest annual
gathering of Earth scientists which deals with
29. What does the author want to say when he says, “Still geophysical sciences
none of this diminishes the awfulness of what
happened” in the passage? Directions for questions 33 and 34: Select the
(A) He meant that the relatively low number of word/phrase which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the
landslides, cannot diminish the horrific effect of word given in bold, as used in the passage.
the destruction which happened.
(B) He meant that many lakes would be breached by 33. Buckled
the tremors, sending torrents of water down the (A) fastened (B) hooked
Nepalese valleys. (C) collapsed (D) clipped
(C) He meant that there was less destruction in 34. Swathe
comparison to the earthquakes which had (A) wrap (B) strip
occurred previously. (C) segment (D) area or layer
(D) He meant while the 1988 earthquake was fairly
strong, it's been many years since the last "big Directions for questions 35 and 36: Select the word
one" struck Nepal. which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word given
30. One of the other part of Langtang village was in bold, as used in the passage.
completely blown away by 35. Triggered
(A) landslide or avalanche winds. (A) checked (B) ended
(B) huge snowfall. (C) prompted (D) provoked
(C) heavy rain.
(D) flood and wind. 36. Breached
(A) fused (B) ruptured
31. As mentioned in the passage, where are many of the
(C) split (D) broke
lakes in the Himalayan country of Nepal?
(A) In the mountain ranges

PASSAGE – IV

In literary terms, "reading" can mean two distinct things: the first meaning on texts, the second on receivers of texts. First,
"a reading" is an interpretation, one critic's version of what a piece of writing has to say. "A feminist reading", in this usage,
would be an interpretation of a text assuming gender's centrality to what the text means. In "a feminist reading" of a text,
gender can come into play as something represented in the text (as in "images-of-woman" criticism); as something
shaping the experience and therefore, the writing of the author (as in gynocriticism); or as a significant influence in the
life-and, therefore, the interior experience - of the particular reader who is trying to understand what the text says.
"Reading," in its second literary sense, refers directly to that interior experience of readers, understood as an activity or
a process. Rarely do theorists or critics make empirical studies of what actual readers do when they peruse books,
although a few do apply psychoanalytic or ethnographic principles to their observations of real readers reading. More
often, reader-response theorists hypothesize a universalized abstraction called "the reader," and they describe what "he"
feels, thinks, or does when confronted with a given text. For such critics, "reading" is something conceptual, based - one
assumes - on their own personal experiences with texts. In the theoretical work of such reader-response specialists as
Peter Brooks, Norman Holland, David Bleich and Wolfgang Iser, gender seldom surfaces as a potential influence upon
"the reader's" experience. "Feminist reading," then, would be the reception and processing of texts by a reader who is
conceived of not only as possibly female, but also as conscious of the tradition of women's oppression in patriarchal
culture. The feminist reader - whether in fact male or female - is committed to breaking the pattern of that oppression by
calling attention to the ways some texts can perpetuate it.

Judith Fetterley's 'The Resisting Reader' (1978) is one of the first attempts to conceptualize feminist reading, a process
that Fetterley says occurs when a female reader confronts an androcentric (male-centered) or even a misogynist
(anti-woman) text. Explaining that "great" American literature treats male experience as universal, Fetterley argues in her
"Introduction: On the Politics of Literature" that reading the American canon requires one to "identify as male" to
sympathize with masculine heroes whose troubles are overtly or covertly associated with the women in their stories.
This has led, Fetterley says, to the "immasculation" of the woman reader, who must identify "against herself" as she reads,
thus becoming a "divided self". The "resisting reader" would work to exorcise the male-imposed part of that self, to be
conscious of the way American classes exclude and alienate her.
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In a project that resists theorizing about readers in general to concentrate instead on a flesh-and-blood community of
readers in the American Midwest, Janice Radway's chapter "The Readers and their Romances" from Reading the
Romance (1984) takes us into an empirical study of how some real women say they actually read. Working from
interviews, conversations and questionnaires inquiring into the reading practice of a group of suburban white women in
the pseudonymous "Smithcon," Radway takes an anthropological approach to try to explain how and why the women love
to read commercially produced romances. She provides statistics to support her descriptions of the kinds of setting, action,
characters and closure that appeal most strongly to her sample group. Following the principles of anthropologist, Clifford
Geertz and psychoanalyst, Nancy Chodorow, Radway also speculates about the basic needs these women seem to
satisfy with their romance reading. Although she is careful in the beginning of her chapter to limit her generalizations to
the race and class, the regional and educational background of "the Smithton women," her project raises broader
questions about the 'therapeutic value" of romance reading for women living in "a culture that creates needs in (them) that
it cannot fulfil." In Radway's work, "reading" is more than a process: it is a way of life, a means of coping with the
troublesome gender politics of ordinary middle-class experience.
Patrocinio P. Schweickart, in her 1986 essay, "Reading Ourselves: Toward a Feminist Theory of Reading," revisits reader-
response theory for a specifically polemical purpose: "to change the world." Arguing that reader-centred criticism must
attend to "difference" if it is to be taken seriously, Schweickart begins by supplying three parables of reading, leading to
a fourth. Schweickart retells Wayne Booth's story of his life as a reader, in which he compares himself to Malcolm X and
suppresses crucial differences arising from racial experience; she juxtaposes Booth's story with Malcolm X's own version
of how he became a reader, a story that – Schweickart asserts – speaks only for and to men, suppressing the differences
gender can make. Schweickart answers the two men's stories with two versions of feminist reading. The first – a woman's
angry encounter with texts written by misogynist men – is from Virginia Woolf's A Room of One's Own the second – a
woman's confrontation of Emily Dickinson's poems, texts by another woman whose interior experience is nevertheless
pointedly not identical to the female reader's own–is from Adrienne Rich's "Vesuvius at Home."

Schweickart's essay points out that how feminists read depends on the gender perspective of the author that they read.
Schweickart tackles questions that had been raised by Jonathan Culler in "Reading as a Woman" (1982), about whether
being a woman is a biological or a cultural matter, and whether reading from a feminine point of view is possible for a
man. To address those questions, Schweickart appeals to female psychology: she cites the suggestion of feminist
psychoanalysts that women's identities (their "ego boundaries") are less strictly delineated than those of men. In the end,
Schweickart sees reading theory as a potentially powerful tool for "building and maintaining connections among women."

Wai-Chee Dimock looks to reader-centred theory as a means of building and maintaining connections between two kinds
of literary criticism that often came into conflict during the 1980s: feminism and new historicism. In "Feminism, New
Historicism, and the Reader," Dimock analyzes the "ideal reader" of Charlotte Perkins Gilman's "The Yellow Wallpaper"
to show that the text was aimed at an audience that, in Gilman's day, did not yet exist: a reader "created in the image of
professionalism at its most idealized, endowed with the sacred attributes of specialized knowledge and interpretive
competence," a reader who is – in spite of being "professionalized" through the text's address – female. Dimock points to
"this gap” as the space in which Gilman's story does its "cultural work," as new historicists would call it. She sketches out
the strife between new historicist and feminist criticism and cautions against over simplifying the difference between the
two approaches. Dimock's essay tries to destabilize that difference, as well as the difference between male and female
readers, resisting essentialism in her concept of the relation between gender and reading. Dimock uses the figure of the
reader to illuminate the inevitable interconnection between gender and history; her example of "The Yellow Wallpaper"
shows that neither feminist nor historicist claims about the text's significance make sense in isolation from each other.

37. The author criticizes the generalised concept of a historicism.

'reader' as being (C) trying to highlight patterns in literature than
(A) an oversimplification of reality. reinforce androcentric attitudes and perceptions.
(B) subjective. (D) viewing literature through the prism of female
(C) unrealistic, as the experiences of readers vary subjugation.
and no generalisation is possible.
(D) derogatory. 40. According to Janice Radway's work, women read
commercially produced romances because they
38. Which of the following is based on factual data? (A) question a milieu that spawns those needs in them.
(A) Reading Ourselves: Toward a Feminist Theory of (B) to escape from the pains of everyday injustices.
Reading. (C) play an important role in strengthening their self
(B) Feminism, New Historicism and the Reader. image.
(C) The Readers and their Romances. (D) enable them to come to grips with gender politics
(D) The Resisting Reader. in their day-to-day experience.
41. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
39. The author defines 'feminist reading' as (A) Emily Dickinson's poems may not reveal a keen
(A) analysing a text in a manner that exposes sense of the patriarchal subjugation of women.
'immasculation'. (B) 'Feminist reading' precludes the application of
(B) attempting to reconcile feminism with new psychoanalytic and ethnographic theories to

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understand the process of reading. (C) is a female who fights for equality of rights for the
(C) Every 'feminist reader' can be a 'resisting reader'. fairer sex.
(D) Dimock analyses the 'ideal reader' in order to (D) is one who reads only books that focus on
delineate the apparent differences between male women’s issues.
and female readers.
46. The fact pointed out by Schweickart regarding
42. Based on the first meaning of reading, the term feminist reading is that
'feminist reading' implies that (A) the prevailing culture of the society is bound to
(A) the reader is essentially a feminist. shape the way a female reader responds to a
(B) the reader is a female. work of literature.
(B) the racial differences that arise when the reader
(C) the writer is definitely a feminist.
and the writer belong to different races define a
(D) the central idea of a piece of literary work is reader's response.
gender based. (C) a feminist writing written by a male writer sounds
43. Match the following authors with the characteristics of different from that written by a female one.
their works. (D) the way a feminist reads a text depends on the
perspective – male's or female's - from which it
Authors is written.
(a) David Bleich
(b) Janice Radway 47. The phrase, 'this gap', as used in the passage, refers to
(A) the non-identity between the ideal reader invoked
(c) Patrocinio Schweickart
by the story and the actual woman reading it.
(d) Virginia Woolf.
(B) the absence of any link between feminism and
new historicism.
Characteristics of Works (C) the difference between the male and female
(e) Examines whether a woman is a biological or perceptions of the text.
cultural entity. (D) the incongruity between the concept of reading
(f) Relies on empirical studies. from the reader's perspective and the consequent
(g) Does not view gender as a key factor in shaping reading experience.
a reader's experience.
(h) Confronts male chauvinists. 48. While commenting on the reader-centred theory of
reading, which of the following is not relevant to
(A) (B) Dimock's views?
(A) She is against the belief that each entity has a
a g a f set of characteristics which make it what it is.
b e b e (B) She says that the way a woman reads a piece of
c f c g literature is influenced by past social and cultural
d h d h phenomena.
(C) As expressed through the works of Fetterley's,
(C) (D) Radway's and Schweickart's essays, she also
points out the fact that the reader becomes the
a g a h bearer of the meaning.
(D) She generalises the gender of a feminist reader
b f b f to be always female.
c e c e
d h d g 49. Regarding the questions raised by Jonathan Culler,
Schweickart's essay says that
(A) men do not appreciate a feminist's point of view.
44. The theoretical work of reader-response specialists (B) men may not be able to read from a feminine
like Peter Brooks etc, says that point of view.
(A) the gender of the universalized concept of the (C) a woman can easily identify herself with a
reader rarely influences the personal experiences masculine perspective of reading.
of a reader. (D) man's rigid roles that are influenced by his
(B) it is not possible for a reader to transcend the society and culture make him prejudiced against
pattern of male oppression of females. feminist views.
(C) the gender of the universal reader is presumed
to be male by most of the writers of fiction. 50. Which of the following could be regarded as one of the
(D) female readers find it difficult to understand the first attempts to form a theory regarding feminist reading?
male point of view. (A) Reading as a woman.
(B) Reading the Romance.
45. A feminist reader, according to the passage, (C) The Yellow Wall Paper.
(A) is definitely female. (D) The Resisting Reader.
(B) need not necessarily be female.

PASSAGE – V

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India has emerged as the best performing economy of 2017. A recent study by the Center for International Development
at Harvard University predicts that the next decade belongs to India. This article explores the research study of CID at
Harvard University, and assesses the growth potential for India in the mid- to long-run.

The research study at Harvard is based on the Economic Complexity Index (ECI), an indicator of complex production
characteristics of national or regional economies.

The traditional methods of economic analysis usually take sums of different economic components, which include all kinds
of produce. Assume the case of two nations, one producing and exporting a staple crop like wheat worth $X million, and
another building and exporting highly advanced robotics worth the same $X million. Both will be considered at par as per
the traditional economic methods. However, due to the complexity and advanced level of knowledge required in building
robotics, the latter has an edge over the former in terms of knowledge, growth and scalability potential.

Complexity is high for advanced products like automobiles, robotics and chemical compounds, and low for raw products
like agriculture produce.
The ECI methodology quantifies this complexity of products being produced and exported from an economy. It utilizes
a complex and calculation- intensive approach to measure the knowledge in a nation’s society, which gets translated into
the products a nation manufactures and exports. Along with complexity, the methodology also takes into consideration
the number of different complex products being produced and exported. ECI takes a holistic approach, and attempts to
measure the economy as a whole.

The benefits of this methodology lie in an improved measurement of future potential, prediction of growth rate and
scalability potential. The economy of a nation surviving solely on raw agro-produce may easily get devastated due to
unfavorable weather conditions, while the one that has a diversified and complex product base has tremendous potential
to scale up and mitigate any ill effects of unfavorable conditions. The latter nation, having a diversified and complex
basket of export products, is more economically developed with a high level of knowledge, can innovate as per dynamic
global markets, and can be expected to have rapid growth in near future. The ECI, hence, provides a better measure of
economic forecast, and development for an economy.

A quick check on the 12-year long history of ECI rankings of different countries indicates success and a high level of
accuracy for economic forecasts. While the current rankings indicate the existing state of economic complexity, the trends
over different time periods in recent past provide useful insights.

China, currently ranked at number 17 on the ECI index, has seen a consistent increase in economic complexity index
since the year 2005. This is accurately reflected in the rapid economic development of China in the past decade. During
this period, China has had a high growth rate with a booming economy, and it managed to double its per capita income.

The growth rate in developed nations like the U.S., the UK, Japan and Germany has remained flat, as accurately predicted
by the ECI index over the last decade. Although these countries rank among the top, their ECI graph has remained flat
over recent periods. It indicates that these nations have made no significant innovations in coming up with new and
complex products for exports, thereby leading to limited growth potential for future.

Oil-dependent economies, like Venezuela and Algeria, have dropped significantly in rankings amid declining oil prices.
This indicates that economies that are low on complex product manufacturing and have high dependency on a few select
sector(s) are prone to economic challenges.

Other smaller economies, like Botswana and Trinidad and Tobago, have seen wide swings with lower ranks. The study
rightly indicates the challenging state of such smaller economies that remain dependent on select sector(s).

Among all the peer countries included in Harvard's CID study looking at long-term growth, India ranks number one with a
predicted annual growth rate of 7 percent. China remains much lower with only 4.3 percent growth rate till the year
2024. (Other authorative agencies, for example the International Monetary Fund, predict 2020 growth for India at
7.5%, and for China 6.3%.)

India has made significant strides in diversifying its manufactured product base and is expected to accelerate the
momentum with enhanced production capabilities. The “Make In India” campaign initiated in 2014 has not only started
bolstering local manufacturers, but also attracted multinational corporations as well as nations to set up manufacturing
facilities in India. India is now on its way to producing and exporting complex products across different industry sectors
including automobiles, pharma, and even electronics, which has traditionally been a stronghold of China.

51. How is the Economic Complexity Index (ECI) different (B) Traditional methods do not take into account
from the traditional methods of economic assessment? certain products but ECI takes them into account.
(A) Traditional methods consider all kinds of produce (C) Traditional methods are more successful than
equally but ECI treats them differently in terms of the ECI.
complexity.

55. What does that 12 year long history of ECI rankings 61. HOLISTIC
of different countries show? (A) incomplete (B) holy
(1) Oil dependent countries have dropped in rankings. (C) total (D) partial
(2) The current flat growth rate in countries like
Germany was accurately predicted by the ECI. 62. STRIDES
(3) India ranks first among in the ECI, which means (A) sways (B) runs
the predicted annual growth its is the highest. (C) progress (D) slips

(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 Directions for questions 63 to 65: Select the word which
(C) Only 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word given in bold,
as used in the passage.
56. Which of the following is true?
(1) Japan ranks higher than India in ECI. 63. MITIGATE
(2) According to ECI, India will have a better growth (A) mollify (B) lessen
rate in the future than a lot of economically strong (C) induce (D) aggravate
countries.
(3) Oil is a product that has lesser complexity 64. INSIGHT
compared to robotics. (A) acumen (B) access
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) far-sight (D) ignorance
(C) Only 3 (D) Only 2 and 3
65. POTENTIAL
57. Which of the following is the central idea presented in (A) possibility (B) ability
the essay? (C) power (D) absence
(A) The economy of a country which is based on
complex and diverse products will have a better
growth rate.
(B) The countries which are currently rich will not
improve their growth rates but will remain rich.
(C) Rich countries need not worry about complexity
in products.
(D) ECI is the best system to predict the economic
future of countries.

Note: Refer Explanatory Notes.

Exercise – 2

1. B 4. D 7. C
2. B 5. B 8. D
3. D 6. A 9. C

Exercise – 3

1. D 5. C 9. A 13. C 17. D
2. C 6. C 10. D 14. A 18. C
3. C 7. D 11. C 15. B 19. B
4. A 8. A 12. D 16. B

Exercise – 4

1. A 6. D 11. B 16. B 21. B

2. B 7. C 12. C 17. C 22. D
3. B 8. A 13. D 18. A 23. C
4. D 9. B 14. C 19. C 24. C
5. D 10. A 15. A 20. B 25. C

Exercise – 5

1. D 7. D 13. A 19. D 25. D

2. D 8. B 14. B 20. C 26. D
3. C 9. C 15. A 21. A 27. B
4. A 10. D 16. B 22. B 28. A
5. D 11. D 17. D 23. D 29. D
6. B 12. D 18. D 24. D 30. C

Exercise – 6

1. C 7. D 13. A 19. C 25. D 31. C

2. A 8. B 14. D 20. A 26. D 32. B
3. D 9. A 15. D 21. C 27. A 33. D
4. B 10. A 16. D 22. A 28. B 34. A
5. D 11. C 17. B 23. C 29. A 35. D
6. D 12. B 18. A 24. C 30. D 36. D

Exercise – 7
1. D 8. C 15. A 22. D 29. A 36. A
2. B 9. D 16. A 23. D 30. B 37. D
3. A 10. A 17. B 24. D 31. A 38. B
4. B 11. D 18. D 25. A 32. D 39. C
5. D 12. B 19. D 26. D 33. B 40. B
6. C 13. D 20. D 27. C 34. C 41. D
7. C 14. D 21. D 28. B 35. D 42. D
noe

1. A 11. C 21. C 31. B 41. D

2. C 12. A 22. D 32. A 42. C
3. B 13. A 23. C 33. D 43. B
4. A 14. D 24. C 34. A 44. A
5. C 15. D 25. A 35. A 45. D
6. D 16. D 26. A 36. A 46. B
7. D 17. D 27. D 37. C 47. C
8. B 18. C 28. A 38. A 48. A
9. D 19. B 29. A 39. D
10. A 20. A 30. D 40. D

Exercise – 9

1. C 11. C 21. D 31. D 41. D

2. A 12. D 22. C 32. B 42. C
3. A 13. B 23. B 33. D 43. C
4. C 14. D 24. D 34. C 44. B
5. B 15. B 25. D 35. D 45. B
6. D 16. D 26. D 36. C 46. A
7. B 17. C 27. D 37. C 47. D
8. B 18. D 28. D 38. D 48. C
9. D 19. D 29. B 39. A 49. D
10. B 20. C 30. A 40. D 50. B

Exercise – 10

1. C 14. A 27. A 40. D 53. B

2. A 15. D 28. B 41. A 54. D
3. D 16. D 29. A 42. D 55. D
4. B 17. C 30. A 43. C 56. D
5. D 18. B 31. B 44. A 57. A
6. D 19. C 32. D 45. B 58. D
7. B 20. D 33. C 46. D 59. D
8. A 21. A 34. D 47. A 60. A
9. D 22. D 35. B 48. D 61. C
10. D 23. B 36. A 49. B 62. C
11. C 24. B 37. B 50. D 63. D
12. C 25. D 38. C 51. A 64. D
13. D 26. C 39. D 52. D 65. D

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Explanatory Notes
Exercise – 1 (6) provided with a quality
(7) trick
Explanatory notes for questions 1 to 26: (8) added to his uniting
PASSAGE – I (9) concern with style and fashion
(10) historian
Summary: (11) damnation
The fifty-over format, in spite of being the saviour and (12) punishment in revenge for something
bread-winner of cricket, has been criticized and its future (13) wickedness
questioned; but the World Cup, being far more popular than either (14) found everywhere
test cricket or twenty20, mitigates that indignity. Held every four (15) lustful
years, both veterans and amateurs are its participants; a win is
both lucrative as well as prestigious. PASSAGE – V
1. No Central idea: Texting is not the disaster for language that
2. No many fear it to be.
3. Yes Main Points:
1. Many people decry texting because of the freedom taken
4. No
with the language.
5. Yes 2. But this forms only a small part of the whole.
3. It helps rather than hinders literacy.
PASSAGE – II
Summary: Many people fear that texting is destroying the
Summary: English language and that youngsters who take freedom with
Just as in politics, the stock market too has no permanency. Only spelling, use abbreviations and innovative ways to
those who understand this can survive the inconsistent Dalal street.
communicate are killing the language. But such fears are
Radhakishan Damani, a late entrant to this market at 32, realized this always there whenever a new technology is introduced. Only a
and so at 50, he is highly successful, while his contemporaries are not. small part of the total message actually changes the language
6. Yes and so texting can actually help rather than hinder literacy.
7. Yes Exercise – 2
8. Yes Explanatory notes for questions 1 to 9:
9. Yes
1. Choice A is ruled out as it is not improvement of the quality
10. Yes of speech that the author wants; Choice B is what the
PASSAGE – III passage is about. Choices C – D are outside the passage.
Choice (B)
Summary:
2. Refer to the first sentence which renders choice B correct.
Austin defines a command in terms of significance of desire and
Choice (B)
ability to harm for the non-satisfaction of a desire and a sanction as
a possible threatening evil. According to him, a person commanded 3. Choices (A), (B) and (C) are all implied. Only Choice (D) is
is bound, obliged and under a duty to do what is commanded. not and is the answer. There is no comparison made
between men and women in the passage. Choice (D)
It seems rather bizarre that one must want/desire in order to
command another; so does commanding without a threat for 4. Only option (D) brings out the primary idea. Refer to the last
non-compliance. two paras. Choice (D)
11. Yes 5. Sentence 3 supports option (B). Choice (B)

12. Yes 6. Sentence 5 supports option (A). Option (B) is erroneous for
the same reason. Option (C) is obviously incorrect as
13. No sentence 4 clearly mentions that lack of sleep causes
14. Yes diabetes. Option (D) is erroneous as sentence 10 clearly
mentions that lack of sleep results in an increase in the
15. Yes cortisol levels in blood. Choice (A)
16. Yes 7. The last sentence of the passage suggests two options to
17. Yes the reader, given a paradox.
Either way, the theory is open to further discussion, as hinted
18. Yes at by "implausible asset may seem" and "explain what has
19. Yes gone wrong". Hence, only answer Choice (C) most
accurately and most completely answers the question
20. No posed. Answer Choice (A) is not correct as the passage
PASSAGE – IV covered only the Greek school of thought. Answer Choice
(B) is misleading as only the conclusions are stated, no
21. False judgment is passed on them. Answer Choice (D) is not true,
22. True as the passage states two outcomes of an argument, and
not two theories. Choice (C)
23. True
8. In the context of the passage, answer Choice (A) is not
24. False correct, as there are two conclusions to the given argument,
25. True however flawed they may be. Answer Choice (B) is
an observation and not a reasoned inference. Answer
26. (1) pre-condition Choice (C) is judgmental in nature. What is clearly evident
(2) boycotted from Professor Greene's case is that what is true, can be
(3) rot false, and vice versa. Hence, answer Choice (D) is the only
(4) suffer complete ruin possible inference that can be made, given the Liar Paradox.
(5) attractive The correct answer is Choice (D). Choice (D)
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9. Answer Choice (A) leads to a conclusion that the speaker 15. Sentence 6 and 7 point to choice B. Choice (B)
has uttered a truth on at least one occasion. This does not
lead to a paradox. Thus, answer Choice (A) is not true. 16. Refer to the sentence ‘it advises “contracting-out” of services
answer Choice (B) is an observation, and is not subject to to . . . ‘ Choice (B)
a contradiction. 17. Refer to the last but 5th sentence from the end of the passage
Answer Choice (D) is a judgment, and not a version of the from which choice D can be understood. Choice (D)
Liar Paradox.
When we try to assign a classical binary truth value to the 18. Choices A and B are rendered incorrect by the first two
statement "This sentence is false", it leads to a contradiction, sentences of the passage. Choice C is correct. Choice D is
thus this statement is a version of the Liar Paradox. incorrect as everyone is equally at risk including the rich and
The correct answer is Choice (C). Choice (C) poor. Choice (C)

Exercise – 3 19. The sentence ‘now, the chief can . . . his bureau’ points to
statement 2. Choice (B)
Explanatory notes for questions 1 to 19:
Exercise – 4
1. The first paragraph focuses on the utilitarian and practical
aspects of telling lies. Choice (D) mediates with this view- Explanatory notes for questions 1 to 25:
"However much we dislike it, lying is essential....."
1. Refer to the second and third sentences of the last para.
The references to past, or to animals, or to parents and
Choice (A)
children are incidental. Thus choices (A), (B), (C) are
misleading. Choice (D) 2. Refer to the first sentence of the passage.
Choice (B)
2. We have to determine the function of the second paragraph
in the passage. The main point of the first paragraph was 3. The phrase ‘seek to meet the challenges of greater global
that lying is an essential part of our lives. The negative integration’ renders choice (B) incorrect. Choice (B)
connotation in Choice (A) is thus uncalled for. The analogy
implied in "camouflage" does not warrant an entire 4. Refer to the first two sentences of para 2. Choice (D)
paragraph, the focus of the passage being on humans.
The first paragraph indicates that we lie instinctively, not 5. Choice (D) is understood from the passage.
historically, so an extensive account of history would be Choice (D)
superfluous. Children have been cited only as an
6. The last sentence of para 1 points to choice (D)
afterthought in the passage, which studies human
Choice (D)
behaviour. Hence Choice (C) is the answer.
Choice (C) 7. The last sentence of para 4 ‘no one still knows’ points to
3. The last paragraph points out that telling the truth on all choice (C). Choice (C)
occasions may not be desirable, and, in fact it may lead to 8. The second sentence of para 3 renders choice (A) correct.
detrimental outcomes. "Truth-telling is morally overrated" Choice (A)
Choice (A) understates the importance of lying. Choice (B)
is not true, given the author's practical approach to telling 9. The phrase ‘human corona virus’ implies that there are
lies–no compromise is evident. Choice (D) is dismissive of different corona viruses. The passage says that not much is
truth altogether, creating an absurd situation. Hence, Choice known about the ancestry. This renders choice (A) incorrect.
(C) is the answer. Choice (C) The last sentence of para 3 renders choice (B) correct.
The words ‘but not’ in choice (C) render it incorrect. The first
4. Refer to the last sentence. Choice (A)
sentence of the passage renders choice (D) incorrect.
5. The description is used to describe the size of the burdock Choice (B)
leaf. Choice (C)
10. The phrase ‘cheek by jowl’ means ‘close together’.
6. Both the statement can be inferred from the given Choice (A)
paragraph. Choice (C)
11. Refer to the first paragraph. The phrase ‘startups will need...’
7 Both the statements are incorrect. Choice (D) verifies choice B. Choice (B)
8. Choice (A) is the required answer choice. The clause 12. Refer to paragraph 3, the writer clearly states that the
‘oil wells cannot be replenished on a human scale’ is the challenge is bridging the literacy gap. The rest of the options
hitch in the case of oil; pollution is not mentioned, this are not stated, though they may appear to be challenges.
renders choice (B) incorrect. The phrases ‘cannot be Choice (C)
restored’ in C and ‘endanger industrial progress’ are outside
the passage. Choice (A) 13. The passage deals with digital jobs and the specific roles
they play in the future. In paragraph 3, there’s a specific
9 The author talks of how non-renewable sources, fossil fuels mention of people who can translate business requirements
and uranium cause harm. Thus he is in favour of renewable into digital language – this is a strategy by which solutions
sources of energy. Choice (A) can be connected. Hence, option (D) is relevant; option (C)
10. Refer to the second sentence. Choice (D) is not a part of a business solution. Choice (D)

11. What caused many an eyebrow to rise in Srinagar was the 14. The first paragraph talks about the need for digital security
sale of a grand palace for a throw away price. (Refer to the architects and since they have to be experts in dealing with
second sentence of the passage). Choice (C) data breaches and cyber attacks, they have to have a sound
knowledge in computer skills and coding. Option C is
12. Narinder Kumar Batra purchased the palace from the heirs validated through this idea and is hence the correct option.
of Hari Singh. (Refer to the second sentence, paragraph Choice (C)
two). Choice (D)
15. In paragraph 3, there is a clear mention of bridging the
13. Lalit Suri did not purchase the palace from the real heirs literacy gap, which requires a combination of hardware,
because a non-Kashimiri cannot, by law, purchase software and design elements, which can be brought about
immovable property in Jammu and Kashmir. (Refer to the by training specific people. As only statement (1) relates to
last sentence, second paragraph). Choice (C) this fact, choice (A) is correct. Statement (2) is false. Further,
14. The sale of the palace is the envy of other hoteliers because it is CMOs who are essential for acquiring customers and not
it is a valuable property. Choice (A) CXOs as stated in (3). Choice (A)

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16. The fourth sentence of the first para makes it clear that 5. The end of the first para says the narrator has gone into the
irrigated farmlands are a major threat to the natural house and the end of the last para says he began to play. The
grasslands as they are used to grow sugarcane, a water- correct option is (D); other options are wrong. Choice (D)
intensive crop, which leads to salinity of the land. So, choice
6. The adjectives used by the narrator are in (2); other options
(B) is the right answer. As choice (A) distorts what is stated
aren't fully given in the passage. The meaning of "sunken-eyed"
in the passage, and choices (C) and (D) state supplementary
is that the eyes are set deep in their sockets, which is a sign of
threats or long-term consequences of irrigated farmlands, they
lack of sleep and many other symptoms; "haggard" means
are eliminated. Choice (B)
"looking very tired because of illness, worry or lack of sleep;
17. The second sentence of the first para points to the causes "long-haired" could have been due to fashion, party due to lack
mentioned in (A) and (D). Similarly, the second paragraph of time and money or just sheer neglect. Choice (B)
suggests that even an increase in the number of domestic
animals leads to the degradation of grasslands. So, choice 7. The first part of the passage deals with why it became
(C) is the right answer. Choice (C) imperative for the European countries to own colonies.
The first three options maybe genuine reasons but,
18. The third paragraph makes it clear that human activities according to the passage 'spreading christianity' was not
often lead to the destruction of grasslands in one way or the a motive behind the rush for colonies. Choice (D)
other. So, this suggests that we need to regulate them in
order for the grasslands to survive. This makes choice (A) 8. What it means to say that 'Britain did best in this division of
correct. The other choices distort the passage. So, they are the world' is that it acquired the maximum territories around
ruled out. Choice (A) the world.
'They had possessions in India, Australia and North America
19. The fifth paragraph supports all the options, except the third for several centuries, and colonies in Africa.' This was
one as the cause of a grassland being turned into probably the most expansive hold on territories across the
a wasteland. Choice (C) is the right answer. Choice (C) world. None of the other options give meaning to the
20. The last paragraph suggests that if the grasslands are statement in anyway. Choice (B)
destroyed, it will lead to the extinction of the wildlife by 9. The answer lies in the fourth paragraph.
reducing their habitat. Hence, choice (B) is the right answer. “While they had been fragmented they had been in no
Choice (B) position to conquer lands overseas.” Choice (C)
21. According to the story, it was not Osiris but Isis, the sister 10. According to the passage, Japan put a stop to Russia’s
and wife of Osiris, who discovered wheat and barley growing expansion in Asia; Japan and Russia fought a war in 1905 in
wild. Choice (B) which Russia was defeated. Choice (D)
22. Osiris did not attack other nations for wealth. On the 11. According to the passage, Japan was not a colony but
contrary, he wanted to spread agriculture, and civilisation to a coloniser like the other European nations discussed in the
other parts of the world for which a lot of grateful nations passage. It was not a British colony. Choice (D)
showered him with wealth. Choice (D)
12. The passage starts with explaining why it became vital for
23. According to the legend, “When the sun-god Ra perceived the industrialised countries to gain colonies around the
that his wife Nut had been unfaithful to him, he declared with world. First the British and the French occupied large regions
a curse that she should be delivered of the child in no month of the world. Japan and Russia too had ambitions
and no year.” of expanding their empires and even fought a war. But when
This meant that Nut would not be able to give birth on any of Germany and Italy too starting vying for colonies it led to
the days that constituted the Egyptian year. Choice (C) these nations arming themselves protect their territories or
24. According to the story, Osiris's brother Set (Typhon) gain new ones. Choice (D)
conspired to kill Osiris by making him play a game. For this, 13. The meaning of ‘expand’ is to grow in size, number or
the evil brother had to take the measure of his body, so that importance. The rest of the choices are either opposite in
a coffer could be made fitting his size. Choice (C) meaning or inapt in the context. Choice (A)
25. Osiris travelled around the world to spread civilisation and 14. The word ‘unpredictable’ means to be unstable. The opposite
agriculture. Choice (C) of ‘unpredictable’ is ‘steady’. The rest are almost similar in
meaning to ‘unpredictable’. Choice (B)
Exercise – 5
15. Refer to the 1st sentence of the 3rd paragraph. Only
Explanatory notes for questions 1 to 30:
option (1) is true. Choice (A)
1. The narrator and his friend started their stay at Paris shortly
16. Refer to the 1st sentence of the passage. Options (1) and (2)
after the narrator completed his college education.
are true. Choice (B)
The correct option is (D) and other options contradict the
contents of the passage. Choice (D) 17. Refer to the 1st sentence of the 4th paragraph. Choice (D)
2. The standard meaning of the noun phrase "a wild life" is in 18. Refer to the 7th paragraph. Option (D) is false.
option (D). Since these two men were young and perhaps Choice (D)
unmarried, they lived a wild life without control, restraint,
discipline or counsel. Options (A) to (C) deviate from the 19. The answer, according to the author, is in option (D) and
passage. Choice (D) is confirmed by the end of the second para of the passage.
In other words, what the author means is that our habits
3. The true definition of "blackguard" is (3); in addition, other shape or determine our character and our effectiveness.
definitions of the same word are: "a rude or dishonest man: Choice (D)
a man who deserves to be hated; a man who is dishonest
and has no sense of what is right and what is wrong." Other 20. The answer, according to the fourth and the fifth sentences
options given above do not accord with any of the three of the third para, is in option (C). The author disagreed with
definitions given. The words comprising the compound noun Horace Mann. The author adds that habits aren’t a quick fix
"black" and "guard" don't give a clue to its meaning. and they involves a process and a tremendous commitment.
Choice (C) Other options do not reflect the passage. Choice (C)
4. The answer option, according to the middle of the first para, 21. The answer is given in the last but one sentence of the fourth
is that Frascati's is a respectable gambling house; in other para and it agrees with option (A). At lower levels the gravity
words, people who go there gamble, make money or lose it. pull is tremendous and therefore more energy is consumed
Other options deviate from the passage, though implicitly, by the spacecraft to overcome it and to enter the no-gravity
they could be acceptable too. Choice (A) area. Options (B) to (D) are not correct. Choice (A)
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22. The correct option, according to the passage, is (B) as given 4. The correct answer option is (B) and confirmatory text can
in the first sentence of the seventh para. Other options be found in the third sentence of the second para. The author
do not match the correct answer. Choice (B) says that the fortress in Bermuda isn't magnificent, though
there are magnificent-looking ones in Malta and Gibraltar.
23. The correct answer option is (D), all the three choices. Other options deviate from the passage. Choice (B)
They can be found in the third sentence of the sixth para.
The author has pointed out multiple uses of the gravity pull. 5. The right answer is (D); other options do not accord with the
Choice (D) passage. The prisoners aren't allowed to have interaction with
the inhabitants of the island. The prisoners have to interact only
24. In the last but one para, the author acknowledges that
with the authorities and no one else. This is the undesirable
he constantly tells others what he thinks and refuses to listen
feature of the convict establishment. Choice (D)
to them. The answer choice (D). Choice (D)
6. The right option is (D) and its confirmation is in the last
25. The first paragraph of the passage portrays a brief vignette
sentence of the passage. The "hold" of a ship or plane is the
of Douglas, parts of which are given in options (A) to (C).
part of a ship or plane where the goods being carried are
It is no less a stupendous feat for a paralyzed person to move
stored. A convict, if lucky, can get into the hold and escape to
around in his wheelchair and be able to coach football players
freedom or safety. Other options are wrong. Choice (D)
in the US National Football League. Owing to his physical
disability, he has never kicked a ball but nonetheless has 7. A ship is involved in an accident and it is damaged or sunk;
coached countless football players. Choice (D) in other words, the ship is “destroyed” or "wrecked." The right
26. The answer option is (D) and evidence of it could be found synonym of the headword is (4) "destroyed". Other words are
in the middle of the second paragraph. His parents are remote from the true meaning of the headword. Even if
equally responsible for enabling him to become a successful sailors drown or ships sink, the action is termed "wrecked".
football coach. They encouraged him to set each incredible Choice (D)
objective as a goal and work hard to accomplish it. Options 8. Last para line 5. Choice (B)
(A) to (C) deviate from the content of the passage and hence
they are all wrong. Choice (D) 9. Para 2, line 1. Choice (A)
27. The fact that he never imposed his own techniques 10. Last para, lines 1-2. Choice (A)
or experiences on players worked to his advantage.
The correct answer is in option (B). He chartered an 11. Para 3, lines 1-2. Choice (C)
independent course and was able to reach his own 12. Para 1 compares it to other traditions and says how
techniques of coaching football players. He mapped his own it ‘evolved’. Choice (B)
strategy and that is where the success of his approach lies.
Options (A), (C) and (D) aren't based on the passage. 13. Last sentence of the passage. Choice (A)
The answer can be found in the second sentence of the third
paragraph. Choice (B) 14. Para 5 − the middle of the para supports choice (B) and (C).
Choice (D)
28. The correct answer option is (A) and textual evidence of it
can be found in the second sentence of the fourth paragraph. 15. The second sentence of the first para makes it clear that
Options (B) to (D) aren't based on the passage and hence Tamasha did contribute to the development of the Marathi
they are dismissed. While being a coach at the high school theatre. Hence, choice (D) is incorrect. The first para
level, he attained instant success and was able to develop supports all the other statements. So, choice (D) is the right
concepts based on his observation. Choice (A) answer. Choice (D)

29. The correct answer is (D) and is supported by the second 16. The fifth sentence of the second paragraph states that
half of the fourth paragraph. Johnson was solely focused on Vishnu Das Bhave introduced innovative changes to the
getting results, nothing else; here was a candidate, Douglas, Marathi theatre. Hence, choice (D) is the right answer.
who delivered the desired results. Johnson's desire for result Choice (D)
made him overlook Douglas's disability and the consequent
17. The last sentence of the third paragraph makes it clear that
wheelchair. Options (A) to (C) are only partially correct
most of the characters in modern drama come from the
so they aren't acceptable. Choice (D)
middle class. Hence, choice (B) is the right answer.
30. The five actions the author has pointed out are listed in (C); Choice (B)
others aren't mentioned in the passage. The author
18. The very first sentence of the passage makes it clear that
attributes Douglas's incredible success to these actions
a lot of local practices have been adapted into theatre
or qualities. Refer to the last paragraph. Choice (C)
traditions in Bengal, Kerala and so on. So, this confirms
Exercise – 6 statement (1). The second paragraph suggests that the
modern theatre traditions have superseded the classical and
Explanatory notes for questions 1 to 36: folk traditions. So, this makes statement (2) incorrect.
And, the first three sentences of the third para confirm that
1. The meaning of the phrase is in (C); "a cluster" is a group European and American theatre traditions have indeed
and is a collective noun used to denote groups of things, influenced India theatre traditions in the 20th century.
men, materials, islands, etc. Here, a cluster of isles means So, choice (A) is the right answer. Choice (A)
a group of small islands that are close together and
constitute one geographical entity. "Islet" is a small island, 19. The fourth sentence of the third para makes it clear that the
not the one that is as big as Australia or Sri Lanka. Other dramatists were concerned about the rights and desires of a
options aren't correct. Choice (C) growing population. Hence, choice (C) is the right answer.
Choice (C)
2. The correct answer option, which is confirmed by the middle
of the first para, is Choice (A). Other options aren't supported 20. The penultimate sentence of the third paragraph suggests
by the passage. Choice (A) that the spread of democracy encouraged the dramatists to
take an interest in the lives of common men. So, choice (1)
3. The correct answer option is (D); it's an establishment where is the right answer. Choice (A)
these convicted criminals are housed and kept till they
complete serving their jail sentences. There could be life 21. ‘Burgeoning’ refers to growing at a fast rate. Hence,
sentences and other varying terms of imprisonment. ‘shrinking’, which means becoming smaller in size
Besides, the establishment may have provision for training, or amount, is the right answer. As ‘evading’ (escaping), and
rehabilitation, employment, counseling, re-education, etc. ‘embracing’ (accepting) are out of context, they are ruled out.
Other options are beside the point. Choice (D) So, choice (C) is the right answer. Choice (C)
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22. Refer to para 3 of the passage. The line, ‘There have been... 6. The answer choice, according to the last two sentences
unethical practices’, suggests that choice (A) is the answer. of the last para, is in option (C). Other options veer away
Choice (A) from the passage. Choice (C)
23. It is implied in paras 4 and 5 that choice (C) is the answer. 7. A sentence in the passage says, “Unless you change with
Choice (C) it (the world), you’re destined for mediocrity at best.” Destiny
24. Refer to para 3 − where it is stated that deviant corporate and fate are synonyms and therefore “destined for” can be
behaviour is indeed redressed but in a tardy way. Hence, used in place of “fated to” with the same meaning.
choice (A) is not true. It is stated in para 4 of the passage Choice (C)
that ‘an international agreement is expected to be reached’, 8. The sentence in the passage says, “You can undermine your
hence choice (B) is not true. The last sentence of success...”. This crisis has undermined our position;
para 2 states that there is growing acceptance that corporate constant criticism has started undermining her confidence.
social responsibility is part of Gandhian philosophy. Hence, The meaning of “undermine” is “to make something
choice (D) is not true. Choice (C) is true according to the gradually weaker or less effective.” The right antonym of the
penultimate para of the passage. Choice (C) word is (C) “strengthen.” Choice (C)
25. According to para 4 of the passage, ‘There is also 9. The answer option is (D) and is confirmed by the second
acceptance in most countries . . . . greenhouse gases’ sentence of the first para of the passage. There are two
− Choice (D) is the answer. Choice (D) words used in the sentence/answer which are the key words
26. All the given measures are suggested for implementation leading us to the answer. They are “sprawling” and “gobble
by corporate organisations in order to ensure sustainable up.” “Sprawling” means “to spread or develop in an uneven
development. Choice (D) or uncontrolled way.” And the meaning of “gobble up” is “take
something quickly or suddenly.” This pattern of growth of
27. According to para 4 of the passage choice (A) is the answer. cities is characteristic of most cities across the world.
Choice (A) And this is what is responsible for the shortage of food.
28. Base (lowly) is an antonym of lofty (noble; exalted). Choice (D)
Choice (B)
10. The answer option is (A) and is confirmed by the third, the
29. Para 5 supports all the statements. Choice (A) fourth and the fifth sentences of the second para. The
30. Refer to para 1. Choice (D) second para talks of a demographic shift. The shift involves
that the average age of farmers is 50 plus, some have no
31. Refer to para 3. Choice (C) successor, their offspring do not like to do farming and they
32. (B) is false. Refer to para 1, (“Rates of plate movement. cannot afford to adopt new technologies. Other options (B)
. . . year”). Choice (B) to (D) veer away from the passage. Choice (A)
33. Refer to para 6. Choice (D) 11. The correct answer is option (D) and is confirmed by the last
sentence of the third para. Other options aren’t based on the
34. Refer to last para. Choice (A) passage. Choice (D)
35. Refer to para 1. Choice (D)
12. The correct answer, according to the first sentence of the
36. Refer to the last but one para. Choices A, B and C determine fifth para, is option (B). Options (A) and (C) to (D) aren’t
the damage, low frequency motions do not cause damage based on the passage. Choice (B)
since they are felt at a distance also where the damage
is less. Choice (D) 13. The correct option is (D): All the three options (A), (B) and
(C). The answer appears at the end of the fourth para.
Exercise – 7 Choice (D)
Explanatory notes for questions 1 to 42: 14. The meaning of “upfront capital” is in option (D). Other
1. The answer choice is (D) and all the three options apply and options aren’t correct. Choice (D)
are confirmed by the third sentence of the first para of the 15. The sentence in the passage says, ... whose price has
passage. A can-do person is definitely positive and optimistic soared... . The meaning of “soar” is “to increase very quickly
and therefore part of the success in this kind of outlook. in amount or price.” The synonym is (1) “rose.” Examples:
A can-do person is a go-getter and is inherently dynamic. the temperature soared to 100 degrees; stock prices are
Choice (D) beginning to soar.” The verb “rose” is intransitive, as in
2. The correct answer is (B). The word “open-minded” is “the prices rose”, and “raised” is transitive, as in “the
a hyphenated adjective used to describe nouns. The noun government raised the price of petrol.” Choice (A)
used in the first sentence of the fourth para is “attitude”.
The opposite of “open-minded” is “closed-minded”, or 16. The meaning of “arable” is “able to produce crops; suitable
“narrow-minded.” Eg: He is the most open-minded person for farming.” Examples: the family is selling several acres of
I’ve ever met. Choice (B) arable land; the land is too rocky to be arable. The antonym
of the headword is (1) “barren.” Choice (A)
3. The author is at pains to point out that avoiding or failing maths
twice is no way to become a rocket scientist. On the contrary, 17. The third sentence of the first para confirms (2) as the
one has to be exceptionally good at maths in order to become answer to the question. The Western nations have imposed
a rocket scientist. The correct option is (A). Options (B) to (D) their own individual sanctions on Russia because of Russia's
are not based on the passage. The answer is in the third involvement in Ukraine. Another reason for the recession is
sentence of the sixth para of the passage. Choice (A) the slump in the international oil price. These two factors
have combined to produce a devastating effect on the
4. The correct answer option, according to the second half of economy, making it slide into recession. Choices (A), (C) to
the sixth para, is (2). Other options do not find an echo in the (D) are not factual and aren't based on the passage.
passage. The unrealistic goal set up is to lose the extra Choice (B)
20 pounds within four weeks. This extra baggage was
gained over a three-year period and it will certainly take more 18. The meaning of the idiom is as given in option (D).
than four weeks to shed. The author is advising his readers The author of the passage expects India to take wing and
to be more realistic about achieving goals. Choice (B) become the global economy's high-flier. The author has
also attached a condition to India's becoming a high-flier:
5. The correct answer, according to the second half of the last
India should abandon the legacy of counter-productive
para, is option (D). Other options don’t apply to the question.
policy. The form of the idiom remains unchanged.
The author has pointed out a realistic solution to weight loss.
Choice (D)
Choice (D)
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19. Every government is elected with a popular mandate; the Exercise – 8
mandate the Modi government got from the voters was
to slash red tape and boost growth. The answer option is Explanatory notes for questions 1 to 48:
(D); the remaining options aren't based on the passage.
1. Refer to lines 7 to 12 of the last para. Choice (A)
Choice (D)
2. Refer to the last sentence of para 1. Choice (C)
20. The answer choice is (D); though other choices may be
acceptable to an extent, they find no mention in the passage. 3. Refer to the last sentence of para 2. Choice (B)
It was following this budget that the Indian economy was
opened to foreign trade, foreign investment and foreign 4. Refer to the second sentence of para 1. Choice (A)
competition in the Indian economy. This budget was, 5. Refer to para 3, lines 4 - 5. Choice (C)
therefore, a landmark budget that brought about a sea
change in the Indian economy. Choice (D) 6. Refer to para 4, lines 8 - 9. Choice (D)
7. Refer to the last sentence of para 4. Choice (D)
21. The answer to the question is (4) All (A), (B) and (C). All the
three options given as answers can be found in the third para 8. Refer to line 4 of para 5. Choice (B)
of the passage. True, India has immense potential for growth
but it's stymied by various factors. Choice (D) 9. Refer to line 8 of the last para. Choice (D)

22. The answer choice is (D); all the three answer choices are 10. Refer to para 2, lines 8-9 Choice (A)
given in the fourth para of the passage. All the features 11. Refer to the last sentence of para 1. Choice (C)
mentioned may not be true, only partly true. Choice (D)
12. Refer to para 1, line 7. Choice (A)
23. A beacon is "a strong light that can be seen from far away
and that is used to help guide ships, airplanes," etc. 13. Refer to the 2nd line of the last para. Choice (A)
A synonym of "beacon" is (D) "light". Example sentences:
these countries are a beacon of democracy; our nation 14. Refer to the last para, line 10. Choice (D)
should be a beacon of peace to people around the world; this
new medicine is a beacon of hope for thousands of terminal 15. Para 1, line 4 supports choice 1, para 1, line 5 supports
patients. The noun "beacon" is a countable noun and is used choice 2 para 1, lines 8-9 supports choice 3. Choice (D)
figuratively in the passage, not literally. Other words aren't 16. Refer to para 1, last line. Choice (D)
synonymous with the word. Choice (D)
17. Refer to para 1. Choice (D)
24. The adjective "momentous" doesn't have anything to do with
"momentary". The meaning of "momentous" is "very important: 18. Refer to the last sentence of the passage. Choice (C)
having great or lasting importance." An antonym of this word is
19. Refer to the first sentence of para 6. Choice (B)
(D) "unimportant". Example sentences: our wedding was
a momentous day; momentous events/ developments are 20. The 2ndline of the 1st
para “one of the chief -- differences
taking place in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. Other words -- incapable of complete satisfaction” makes option 1 the
don't serve as antonyms of the word. Choice (D) correct choice. Choice (A)
25. Refer to the end of para 1. Choice (A) 21. Refer to lines 3 to 6 of para 4 “These are the men -- human
power” which shows that option C is the right choice.
26. Refer to para 2, line 5 and 8 and para 3, line 1. Choice (C)
Choice (D)
22. The words in quote occur at the end of para 2 (third line from
27. Refer to para 2, line 5 - 6. Choice (C) the end). The words ‘the same characteristics’ refer to the
characteristics mentioned in the preceding lines – men like
28. Refer to para 3 last 2 lines (suicide may also increase . . . )
Xerxes and Newton who continued to be active even after
Choice (B)
their needs were met to achieve their dream. Choice (D)
29. Refer to para 2 lines 7 - 8. Choice (A)
23. Fifth line of para 4, “I mean refusal ---- power” shows option
30. Refer to para 3, lines 1 - 2. Choice (B) 3 to be the correct choice. Choice (C)
31. Refer to para 2, lines 7 - 8. Choice (A) 24. Refer to the last sentence of Para 3. Choice (C)
32. Choices (A), (B) and (C) are mentioned in the last para of the 25. Refer to lines 6 to 9 of para 4 which make option 1 the right
passage. Choice (D) choice “---- some element ---- it is this ---- with ourselves
33. Refer to the last line of the passage. Choice (B) in the place of God”. Choice (A)
26. Para 5 shows options 2, 3 and 4 to be true. Option 1 is untrue
34. Refer to the last para. Choice (C)
as per the same para. Choice (A)
35. Refer to the opening lines of the passage. Choice (D) 27. The last line of the last para “---- by realizing ------ history can
be interpreted” shows that option 4 is, the right choice.
36. Refer to the first line of para 7. Choice (A)
Choice (D)
37. Refer to para 4, lines 5 - 6 (The second assumption was 28. Refer to sentence 3 of para 3 which shows that option 1 is
.....) Choice (D) the right choice. Choice (A)

38. Refer to the last sentence of the penultimate para. 29. The first line of para 8 (….. our adoration of the motor car)
Choice (B) and para 9 (I am not free of the disease myself) makes
it clear that the ‘disease’ is ‘admiration of the motor car’.
39. Para 2 lists the special features of labour. Choice (C) is not Choice (A)
among them. Choice (C) is mentioned in para 1.
30. Para 1, line 2 makes it clear that he hates the take-off stage
Choice (C)
the most. Choice (D)
40. Refer to the last sentence of para 5. Choice (B) 31. The second sentence in para 3 “this odd result is explained
41. Refer to the third para from the end. Choice (D) by the method which divides deaths by passenger miles ---”
makes option II correct. Option 2 says “the inverse
42. Refer to para 6 especially the last sentence. Choice (D) relationship of … miles and deaths …” Choice (B)
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32. “The different attitude” is to regard roads as safe. Option 1 is Exercise – 9
the correct choice. The first sentence of para 6, “If we regard
the railway and the skies as carrying risk,” gives the answer. Explanatory notes for questions 1 to 50:
Choice (A)
1. Option (C) is the answer. Option (A) is restrictive. It only
33. “The polished killer” refers to the “the road”. The 4th sentence touches on the first para. Option (B) is generalised. Option
in the last para, “But the carnage on the roads ….. will kill (D) is irrelevant. Choice (C)
face more than Bin Laden’s ….. “refers to the “polished killer 2. Only the question raised in statement I has been answered in
in our midst” Choice (D) the passage (para 1). None of the other questions have been
answered. Choice (A)
34. This is an inference-based answer. Option 1 is correct as the
author first talks of “air and railways” as agents of accidents 3. Refer to the penultimate para which provides the reason.
and goes on to prove how ‘road’ is much more fatal. This has been referred to in option (A). All the other options
Choice (A) are way off. Choice (A)

35. Option 1 is correct. The second sentence in para 7, “danger 4. Refer to the penultimate para. Only option (C) fits in.
comes out of the blue sky” shows that danger can come from Choice (C)
unexpected quarters. Choice (A) 5. Lithosphere (option B) is not mentioned anywhere in the
passage. Choice (B)
36. Refer to para 6. People do not take road accidents seriously.
They blame it on folly or aberration. Choice (A) 6. The third sentence in the third para validates option (D)
as the answer. Choice (D)
37. Option 3 is correct. The first two lines of para 10 gives the
answer. Choice (C) 7. Refer to para (A), all the options except option (B) have been
stated. “A definite amount” in option (B) is a distortion.
38. The fact that the author has personified the ‘car’ as ‘the old girl’ Choice (B)
and 2nd line in para 9 “but I am ……. attached to ……. an
8. The passage does not weigh the pros and cons of an issue.
assemblage of metal, rubber and plastic” show that option 1 is
It does not provide any message and has no moralistic tone.
the right choice. Choice (A)
It only provides plain facts and so it is informative.
39. Refer to the concluding lines of the passage – what Choice (B)
is needed is legislation not a bar. Choice (D) 9. All the statements are false. This can be verified by reading
paras 3, 4, and 5. Choice (D)
40. Dr. Sandel does not believe an embryo is a human being or
that it has a soul. Choice (D) 10. Para (2) supports statement I, para (3) backs statement II.
The last sentence of the para shows statement III to be false.
41. Refer to para 2 the comparison to an acorn and oak tree So, option (B) is the answer. Choice (B)
shows that the author does not consider the embryo to be
a miniature adult. Choice (D) 11. Refer to the passage. It validates choice (C) as the correct
option. Choice (C)
42. Refer to para 6 where the words in quote occur and the
context shows that this may be the argument of the critics of 12. The passage starts by stating that the Chinese are the most
stem cell research. So it means that just as natural mortality valuable customers of luxury retailers. It then goes on to say
does not give us the license to kill, so the natural loss of that Chinese consumers buy luxury goods abroad instead of
embryo does not justify deliberate destruction of it. buying them directly in their country. The rest of the passage
Choice (C) is devoted to the various aspects of why the Chinese spend
so much money on luxury goods abroad. This makes choice
43. Refer to paras 3 and 4. His argument is that if embryos can (D) the correct option. Choice (D)
be destroyed or frozen in fertility clinics, then why such a hue
and cry when they are used for stem cell research. 13. Refer to the first line of Para 3. It validates choice (B) as the
Choice (B) correct option. Choice (B)

44. Statement (a) cannot be inferred as the passage does not 14. The author of the passage is likely to agree with only
have the relevant figures. Statement (b) is true as shown in statement (b). This is because statements (a) and (c) are not
the case of in intro fertilization. Statement (c) is true – refer mentioned in the passage. Choice (D)
to the first sentence of para 4. Statement (d) is negated in
the concluding lives of the passage. Choice (A) 15. Refer to the last line of the passage. It validates choice (B)
as the correct option. Choice (B)
45. Refer to para 2 at the end of the para he says acorns and
oak trees are different kinds of things. So it implies that 16. Refer to 1st line of Para 4. It validates choice (D) as the
embryo and human beings are also different. This wings on correct option. Choice (D)
the assumption that acorns and embryos lack individuality.
Choice (D) 17. Ostentations, in the context of the passage, means flashy
or showy. The rest of the options being inapt or totally out
46. Refer to para 3 – his argument is that if the destruction of the of context can easily be ruled out. Choice (C)
embryo is criminal, then it should be totally banned. But since
18. ‘Lavish’ in the context of the passage means ‘luxurious’.
the government allows private funding and funds some stem
So ‘opulent’ which means the same is the correct option.
cell research, the morality is linked to what it is used for.
The rest of the options being inapt or totally out of context
Choice (B)
can be ruled out. Hence choice (D). Choice (D)
47. Refer to para 5 – the comparison is between destruction of
19. Except choice (D) all the other options are synonyms of the
embryo for stem cell research and that in fertility clinic.
headword. Therefore the apt antonym is choice (D)
Choice (C)
Choice (D)
48. The author appears to agree with Dr. Sandel’s views. Para 1
20. ‘Tempered’ in the context of the passage means ‘moderated’.
shows that the argument against stem cell research is the
So ‘increased’, is the correct antonym. The rest of the
view of ‘some’ (line 2). The author does not agree and uses
options being inapt or totally out of context can be ruled out
Dr. Sandel’s views to express his opinion. Choice (A)
Choice (C)

22. Statement Ι is validated by the opening sentence of the 35. (B) is wrong as there is no evidence given in the passage that
passage, that is, foreign institutional flows into the Indian sound-amplification was not important earlier. (C) is wrong as
equity market in CY17 have been at its lowest level in four the last para mentions that the change was deliberate only
years. The second statement is false according to the first after the holes had evolved and takes the f-shape. Gradual
sentence of the fifth paragraph. The third paragraph change without a reason is the sign of random mutation
mentions that fund mangers give emphasis on consumer according to the passage. Choice (D)
durables and staples as they believe the sector would be
36. Choices (A), (B) and (D) are true according to para
a major beneficiary of the Seventh Pay Commission.
6 and 7. Technology is a matter of conscious design which
Thus, statement ΙΙΙ is also true. Choice (C)
is the opposite of random mutation (para 1). Therefore, it is
23. All the other statements except choice (B) are mentioned as not true. Choice (C)
consequences of the booming of the domestic markets.
37. A deductive analysis is one where conclusions are derived
The last but one paragraph says that there has been
from available facts by the application of reason. Thus, the
a technical factor, that is, there has been a huge outflow from
right choice is C. The passage is not just one of several
Emerging Market (EM) funds, and this is cited as one of the
interpretations and so choice A is wrong. Neither is it just
reasons for the appreciation in the value of currency and,
informative as there is he subjectively involved.
Therefore, of the markets. Choice (B)
Choice (C)
24. All the three statements are supported by the passage.
38. The para talks about the origins and kinds of violins.
Choice (D)
The intention is clearly to provide a historical background to
25. The answer is obtained from the following lines. “While the reader. Choice (D)
India’s peers are net commodity exporters, India is a net
39. A suitable title will be one that combines the argument
commodity importer. So, while its peers are facing
presented in the passage (Inanimate objects can evolve
headwinds due to falling commodity prices, India stands to
naturally too) and the inherence of the same in the specific
naturally gain from it.” Choice (A) is out of the context of the
case of violin. Choice (A) does this well. All the others portray
passage. Choice (B) speaks against what is mentioned in
either one of these but not both. Choice (A)
the opening sentence of the passage. Choice (C) is an
outcome and not a reason. Choice (D) 40. To endure is to remain in existence. End is the opposite.
Choice (D)
26. The last but one paragraph says that though the general
opinion among investors was to pull out from emerging 41. Refer to para 5, all the statements are correct.
markets, there has been a technical reason for not doing so. Choice (D)
This finds mention in the last paragraph of the passage
– significant outflows from emerging market funds. 42. Para 10. Statement (b) is wrong as it says that the entire
Choice (D) zodiac is divided into 150 parts instead of each sign.
Choice (C)
27. The general view was to pull out from all emerging markets,
including that of India. But, due to some reason, investors 43. Refer to Para 1. Choice (C)
acted against this view in the case of India – thus taking an
isolated view on the emerging market of India, while they 44. Para 4. Statement (c) is not true because it is not explicitly
went with the general opinion in case of its emerging market started in the passage. Choice (B)
peers. Choice (D)
45. Statement (b) cannot be inferred from para 1 – he is from
28. All the above sectors show good chances of improvement, Canada not America. Choice (B)
according to the passage. Choice (D)
46. Choice (A) as the passage talks about prediction.
29. Choices (A) and (C) are mentioned in the passage for the Choice (A)
increased valuation of currency.
47. Para 8 Refer to the part of the passage on Parasari School
Choice (B) is not explicitly cited as the reason for the
of astrology. Choice (D)
improvement of currency. Choice (B)
48. A careful reading of para 9 will help. Choice (C)
30. The passage says that mutual funds have garnered some
funds. Gathered, which means 'to bring together', 49. Para 3 states this. Choice (D)
'to assemble' or 'to accumulate' is the correct synonym.
Choice (A) 50. Para 6 says that all the three schools of astrology depend
31. Choices (A) and (B) are wrong because the passage does upon one another. Choice (B)
not mention the holes becoming bigger or smaller. Choice
(C) is wrong because if the mutation happens with a reason, Exercise – 10
it is not random. Choice (D) is the right answer because the Explanatory notes for questions 1 to 65:
change in the shape of the holes was gradual.
Choice (D) 1. Refer to the last sentence of para 7. Choice (C)
32. The passage mentions that the violin's mutation was 2. Choice (A) is true supported by para 3. Choice (A)
random, which means it happened without intentions.
Choice (B) 3. Refer to para 5. Choice (D)
33. Choices (A), (B) and (C) are true according to para 3 and 4. The words in quote appear at the end of the passage and
5. (D) is not true because the passage only mentions that the refer to detection of cancer in early stages. Choice (B)
length of the periphery of the holes influence the sound
amplification and not the quality of the sound. 5. Refer to the penultimate para that supports choice (D).
Choice (D) Choice (D)
34. (A) is wrong because the holes remaining circular is not 6. Refer to the first few lines of the passage.
a case of mutation. (B) is wrong because if the maker Choice (D)
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7. Refer to para 4. Choice (B) 26. It is clearly mentioned in the first paragraph of the passage
where Jeffrey Kargel mentions that the nature of the
8. Refer to the penultimate para; each samples protein pattern earthquakes' influence on the landscape, from the largest
is different like the bar code for products. Choice (A) scales to the smaller scales, was not really as they had
expected and this indeed surprised them. Hence, choice (C) is
the correct choice. The other statements are nowhere
9. Refer to para 3 – at the moment, treatment is based mentioned in the passage. Choice (C)
on where it occurs rather than on what type of cancer it is.
Choice (D) 27. In the passage, the author mentions how the scientists were
surprised by fewer landslides due to the Nepal earthquakes
10. Refer to the end of para 1. Carol Salum’s statement leads to that they actually expected. The passage also discusses the
choice (D). Choice (D) factors for the less destruction due to the quakes than the
scientists expected. Though there was a huge destruction of
11. Refer to the lines 3 - 4 (. . . raise alarms over benign ones) lives, it was less than what was expected. The passage more
which shows that some cancers are benign. Choice (C) specifically talks about landslides, so choices (B) and (D) are
incorrect in the context of the passage. Choice (C) can be
12. Refer to para 3. Choice (C)
a possible choice but choice (A) is a better option which
13. Refer to para 2, lines 10 – 14 (Evidence for the . . . at different depicts the subject of the passage. Hence, (A) is the correct
sites . . .). Choice (D) choice. Choice (A)

14. Refer to the first line of the passage. Choice (A) 28. In the last paragraph of the passage, the author mentions
the destruction in Lang Tang. The scientists have calculated
15. Refer to para 1, lines 13 – 14. Choice (D) that the mass of snow, ice and rock hit the valley floor with
the energy equivalent to half a Hiroshima nuclear bomb.
16. The odd man is Harappa because the others are rivers. Similarly, in the very first paragraph, it is mentioned that no
Choice (D) evidence of Himalayan glacial lakes suffering significant
damage which is a key concern for the scientists. So,
17. Refer to the 6th line from the end of the first para (attempt choices (A) and (C) are incorrect choices. When we refer to
to decipher the script . . . has failed). Choice (C) the penultimate paragraph of the passage, it is nowhere
mentioned that the geographical location of Nepal was one
18. The absence of religious structure is the unique feature of of the factors for which Nepal did not experience any serious
the Harappan Civilization. Refers to the second paragraph. damage in the Nepal quakes. Choice (B)
Choice (B)
29. The line has been mentioned in the last paragraph of the
19. Choice (A), (B) and (D) are definitive statements and not passage. It has been told by the author after mentioning the
supported by the passage. Choice (C) is an expression probable factors for which the scientists could find no serious
of probability supported by the last sentence of the passage. damage due to the earthquake. So, he meant that though
Choice (C) there were no serious damage due to the quakes, the Nepal
quakes in April and May were devastating; more than eight
20. Refer to the first 10 lines of para 2 – all the three statements
and a half thousand people lost their lives. Also, the valley of
are true. Choice (D)
Langtang was badly affected as the author mentions after
21. Line 5 of para 2 says the people depended upon agriculture saying the line in the last paragraph. This makes choice (A)
and trade for their livelihood which supports choice (A). the correct choice. Choice (A)
Choices (C) and (D) are limited and hence not right. 30. In the last paragraph, it is clearly mentioned by the author
Choice (A) that another part of Langtang village was completely blown
away by landslide or avalanche winds. Flood, heavy rain
22. All the three statements are false. Choice (D) or snowfall cannot blow away something. Choice (A)
23. Refer to line 11 of para 1 where the word in quote appears. 31. When we refer to the penultimate paragraph of the passage,
Mohenjo-daro and Harappan are called the ‘high watermark’ the author has mentioned that many lakes that were behind
of the settlement. Hence, we can understand that it means the rocky deposits of glaciers would be breached by the
the highest point or the zenith. Choice (B) tremors, sending torrents of water down Nepalese valley.
This makes choice (B) the correct choice.
24. When we refer to the first paragraph, the author has
Choice (B)
mentioned that the number of landslides in Nepal was less
than people had feared. So, statement (A) is incorrect in the
32. The scientists of the American Geophysical Union deals with
context of the passage. In the second paragraph, it is
geophysical sciences as mentioned in the name of this
mentioned that researchers believe that the horrific outcome
Union itself. Also it has been mentioned that this Union is the
of the Nepal quakes was smaller compared with what could
world's largest annual gathering of Earth scientists. Hence,
have happened. Similarly, the author has also mentioned in
choice (D) is the correct choice. Choice (D)
the penultimate paragraph that satellite photos and ground
inspections of the earthquakes in Nepal could not find any
33. The phrase 'magnitude 7.8 tremor on 25th April buckled the
serious damage as it was expected. Hence, choices (B) and
Earth's surface..' depicts that something negative has
(C) are correct in the context of the passage.
happened to the Earth surface as an earthquake has
Choice (B)
negative results. The verb 'buckled' means “bend and give
way under pressure”. Hence, choice (C) is the correct
25. When we refer to the second paragraph, the author has
choice. Choice (C)
mentioned that after the 7.8 earthquake in Nepal, the
scientists' immediate reaction was to expect many tens of
34. The word 'swathe' has been used as a noun here in the
thousands of landslides to be triggered, but a huge effort to
passage which means a layer or large area (especially
scour satellite images could identify only 4,312. This makes
of land). Hence, choice (D) is the most appropriate choice in
choice (D) the correct choice. Choice (B) is incorrect as the
the context of the passage. An example sentence is 'Huge
scientists expected more number of landslides according to
swathes of rain forest are being cleared for farming and
the passage. The other choices are not mentioned in the
mining'. Choice (D)
passage. Choice (D)

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35. The word 'triggered' means 'to cause or happen'. In the 53. (1) is wrong as traditional methods rely on current economic
passage, the scientists expected many landslides to happen values. The passage does not say anything about traditional
or to be triggered. Hence, the opposite of 'triggered' can be methods not taking technological products into account.
'ended' or 'prevented'. 'Paused' is colloquially as well as Infact, it considers them on par with other products (para 3).
contextually incorrect. Choice (B) Thus, statements (1) and (3) are wrong. Statement (2)
is correct according to para 6.
36. The word 'breached' means 'to rupture'. In this passage, the Choice (B)
author says the glaciers were breaking through the
earthquake and falling down. So, the exact opposite of the 54. Choices A, B and C are the benefits of ECI according
word 'breached' is to join' or “fused”. Hence, choice (A) is the to paras 5, 3 and 6. The choice is thus, (D) Choice (D)
correct choice. Choice (A)
55. Paras 8, 9, 10, 12 mention the facts given in 1, 2 and 3.
37. Refer to para 2, lines 5 - 7 (. . . a universalized abstraction Thus (D) is the right choice. Choice (D)
called the reader . . . . their own personal experiences with
texts). Choice (B) 56. As Japan’s products are more complex than India’s (1) is
correct and (2) is correct. (3) is correct as it can be inferred
38. Refer to para 4, lines 1 - 4. Choice (C) from para 4. Choice (D)

39. Refer to the last four lines of para 2. Choice (D) 57. Choice 1 is the idea that can be inferred from the passage.
This is the reason why countries like India which have
40. Refer to para 4, especially the last sentence. diversity in their products, are expected to have a high
Choice (D) growth rate in the future despite their no-so-rich status.
Choice (A)
41. Choice (A) is borne out by para 5, last sentence.
Choice (A) 58. Choice (A) is wrong as the argument itself is not presented
in the paragraph. What is given is an example case of one
42. Refer to para 1, the first four lines. Choice (D) of the arguments from the passage. This makes (D) the right
choice. Choice (D)
43. A careful reading of the passage shows choice (C) to
be right. Choice (C) 59. Choices (A) and (B) are wrong because they are factors
serving minor purposes connected to the main purpose of
44. Refer to para 2, lines 8 - 9. Choice (A) the passage. C is absurd the first part of the passage speaks
about the success of the ECI with examples and later
45. Refer to the last sentence of para 2 Choice (B) explains why India tops the ECI rankings.
Choice (D)
46. Refer to the first line of the penultimate para.
Choice (D) 60. Staple means the most important in terms of trade or
production. Choice (A)
47. Refer to the last para. ‘this gap’ occurs in line 8. The lines
prior to it identify the ‘ideal’ reader who does not exist. 61. Holistic means integrated or complete.
Choice (A) Choice (C)

48. Refer to the last 9 lines of the passage which negates choice 62. Stride in the context of the passage means progress.
(D) and supports the other choices. Choice (D) Choice (C)

49. Refer to the penultimate para. Choice (B) 63. Mitigate means to make something bad less severe.
The opposite is aggravate. Choice (D)
50. Refer to para 3, line 1. Choice (D)
64. Insight is observation or judgement about something.
51. Para 3 talks about the difference in the kinds of produce. Ignorance is the opposite. Choice (D)
Some produce have an edge over the others because they
are complex. ECI uses this information in its assessment but 65. Potential is the ability to do something. Absence is the
traditional methods do not. Choice (A) opposite. Choice (D)

52. Para 5 states that the ECI factors in the complexity of the
produce of a country. Later, in para 8 and 12 we find that
China, despite being ahead of India economically currently,
ranks below India in ECI. Economic complexity is at the core
of ECI. Choice (D)

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Reading Comprehension

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Reading Comprehension

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READING COMPREHENSION

NOTE ON IDENTIFYING THE TONES OF PASSAGES

What does ‘tone’ mean?

Method of identifying the tone of a passage

The following questions will be helpful

Adjectives that describe various types of tones

(1) Adjectives used to describe very negative tones

A passage can be said to be …… in nature if ……..

EXAMPLE OF TABLE TO ENTER READING SPEEDS (in words per minute)

3. Some countries have altered the fifty-over game to

6. Politicians always have opportunities. 9. It is possible for an investor to become exceedingly

Summary of the para : _________________________________________________________________________

1. The author, through the passage,

27. Which of the following has been instrumental in

37. The author criticizes the generalised concept of a historicism.

Note: Refer Explanatory Notes.

1. A 6. D 11. B 16. B 21. B

1. D 7. D 13. A 19. D 25. D

1. C 7. D 13. A 19. C 25. D 31. C

1. A 11. C 21. C 31. B 41. D

1. C 11. C 21. D 31. D 41. D

1. C 14. A 27. A 40. D 53. B

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