12th NEET

CITY TEST-02
DURATION: 180 Minutes DATE: 11/05/2025 M.MARKS: 720

Topic Covered
Physics : Electric Charges and Fields up to electric Flux (Except Dipole and Gauss Law)
Chemistry : Solutions ( Excluding Van't hoff factor )
Botany : Sexual reproduction in flowering plants upto megagametogensis
Zoology : male reproductive system, female reproductive system,

GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four section in the Question paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-1 (Physics),
Section - II (Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section-IV (Zoology) and having 45 Questions in each
Subject
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry and textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
4. An electron is projected with certain velocity into
1. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a
an electric field in a direction opposite to the field.
square ABCD as shown in the figure. The force on
Then it is
the positive charge kept at the centre ' O ' is
(1) accelerated
(2) retarded
(3) neither accelerated nor retarded
(4) either accelerated or retarded

5. Intensity of electric field inside a uniformly

charged hollow sphere is
(1) zero (1) zero
(2) along the diagonal AC (2) non zero constant
(3) along the diagonal BD (3) change with r
(4) perpendicular to side AB (4) inversely proportional to r
2. Two point charges − q and +2q are placed at a 6. Statement A: If an electron travels along the
certain distance apart. Where should a third point direction of electric field it gets accelerated
charge be placed so that it is in equilibrium? Statement B: If a proton travels along the
direction of electric field it gets retarded
(1) Both A & B are true
(2) A is true, B is false
(1) on the line joining the two charges on the (3) A is false, B is true
right of +2q (4) Both A & B are false
(2) on the line joining the two charges on the left
of − q 7. Two point charges of magnitude 4µC and -9 µC
(3) between − q and +2q are 0.5 m apart. The electric intensity is zero at a
(4) at any point on the right bisector of the line distance ' x ' m from ' A ' and ' y ' m from ' B '.
joining − q and +2q . ' x ' and ' y ' are respectively
3. Figure shows the electric lines of force emerging
from a charged body. If the electric field at ‘ A ’
and ‘ B ’ are E A and EB respectively and if the
displacement between ‘ A ’ and ‘ B ’ is ‘ r ’ then
(1) 0.5 m,1.0 m (2) 1.0 m,1.5 m
(3) 2.0 m,1.5 m (4) 1.5 m, 2.0 m

8. What is the value of the electron (e) charge?

(1) 1.60217662 × 10−29
(2) 1.60217662 × 10−27
(1) E A > EB (2) E A < EB
(3) 1.60217662 × 10−9
E E
(3) E A = B (4) E A = 2B (4) 1.60217662 × 10−19
r r
Space for Rough Work

[2]
9. Neutral particles contain 16. Two charges +2 C and +6 C are repelling each
(1) Equal numbers of protons and electrons other with a force of 12 N . If each charge is given
(2) More protons than electrons -2 C of charge, then the value of the force will be:
(3) More electrons than protons (1) 4 N (attractive)
(4) None of the options (2) 4 N (repulsive)
(3) 8 N (repulsive)
10. The electrostatic force is also known as the …… (4) Zero
(1) Charge force (2) Coulomb force
(3) Electron force (4) None of the option 17. When 1019 electrons are removed from a neutral
metal plate, the electric charge on it is?
11. Coulomb's law is given by the formula (1) -1.6 C (2) + 1.6 C
q +q q −q 19
(1) F = k 1 2 2 (2) F = k 1 2 2 (3) 10 C (4) 10−19 C
d d
qq 2*q1q2 18. Three charges are placed at the vertices of an
(3) F = k 1 22 (4) F = k
d d2 equilateral triangle of side 'a' as shown in the
12. Electric field is a ………. following figure. The force experienced by the
(1) Scalar quantity charge placed at the vertex A in a direction
(2) Vector quantity normal to BC is
(3) Dimensionless quantity
(4) None of the options

13. If two conducting spheres are charged separately

and then connected, the following may occur:
(1) The electrostatic energy of the spheres will be
conserved.
(2) the total charge on the spheres is conserved
(3) Both the electrostatic energy and charge will (
(1) Q 2 / 4πε0 a 2 ) (
(2) −Q 2 / 4πε0 a 2 )
be conserved.
(4) None of the above. (3) Zero (
(4) Q 2 / 2πε0 a 2 )
14. Number of electrons in 1 Coulomb charge is……. 19. Two particles of equal mass m and charge q are
(1) 6.25 × 1018 (2) 6.25 × 1020 placed at a distance of 16 cm . They do not
(3) 6.25 × 1025 (4) 6.25 × 1023 experience any net force. The value of
q
is:
m
15. Two charges each of 1 coulomb are at a distance 1 πε0
km apart, the force between them is (1) l (2)
G
(1) 9 × 103 Newton
G
(2) 9 × 10−3 Newton (3) (4) 4πε0G
4πε0
(3) 1.1 × 10−4 Newton
(4) 104 Newton
Space for Rough Work

[3]
20.
An infinite number of charges, each of charge 24. A metallic solid sphere is placed in a uniform
1µC , are placed on the x -axis with co-ordinates electric field. The lines of force follow the path(s)
= x 1, 2, 4,8,…∞ . If a charge of 1 C is kept at the shown in figure as
origin, then what is the net force acting on 1 C
charge?
(1) 9000 N (2) 12000 N
(3) 24000 N (4) 36000 N

21. A charge q is placed at the centre of the line

(1) 1 (2) 2
joining two equal charges Q . The system of the
(3) 3 (4) 4
three charges will be in equilibrium, if q is equal
to 25. The figure shows some of the electric field lines
Q Q corresponding to an electric field. The figure
(1) − (2) −
2 4 suggests
Q Q
(3) + (4) +
4 2

22. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges + q are

placed at each corner. The electric intensity at O
will be: (1) E A > EB > EC (2) E=
A E=
B EC
(3) E=
A EC > EB (4) E=
A EC < EB

26. Three identical positive point charges, as shown

are placed at the vertices of an isosceles right-
angled triangle. Which of the numbered vectors
coincides in direction with the electric field at the
mid-point M of the hypotenuse?
1 q 1 q
(1) (2)
4π0 r 2 4π0 r
1 3q
(3) zero (4)
4π0 r 2
23. The magnitude of electric field intensity E is such
that, an electron placed in it would experience an (1) 1 (2) 2
electrical force equal to its weight is given by (3) 3 (4) 4
mg
(1) mge (2)
e
e e2
(3) (4) g
mg m2

Space for Rough Work

[4]
27. The figures below show regular hexagons, with 29. Infinite charges of magnitude q each are lying at
charges at the vertices. In which of the following = x 1, 2, 4,8… meter on x -axis. The value of the
cases the electric field at the centre is not zero? intensity of the electric field at point x = 0 due to
these charges will be
(1) 12 × 109 qN / C
(2) Zero
(3) 6 × 109 q / C
(4) 4 × 109 qN / C

30. A pendulum bob of mass 30.7 × 10−6 kg and

carrying a charge 2 × 10−8 C is at rest in a
horizontal uniform electric field of 20000 V / m .
The tension in the thread of the pendulum is
(g = 9.8 m / s 2 )
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 3 × 10−4 N (2) 4 × 10−4 N
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 5 × 10−4 N (4) 6 × 10−4 N

28. Two small spherical balls each carrying a charge 31. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a
Q= 10µC ( 10 micro-coulomb) are suspended by uniform electric field E parallel to the cylinder
two insulating threads of equal lengths 1 m each, axis. The total flux for the surface of the cylinder
from a point fixed in the ceiling. It is found that in is given by
equilibrium threads are separated by an angle 60 (1) 2πR 2 E
between them, as shown in the figure. What is the (2) πR 2 / E
tension in the threads (Given:
1
(3) ( πR 2
)
− πR / E
= 9 × 109 Nm / C2 ) (4) Zero
( 4πε0 )
32. A cube of side / is placed in a uniform field E ,
where E = Ei . The net electric flux through the
cube is
(1) Zero (2) I 2 E
(3) 4I 2 E (4) 612 E

(1) 18 N (2) 1.8 N

(3) 0.18 N (4) None of the above

Space for Rough Work

[5]
33. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear 36. A surface of side L metre in the plane of the paper
charge densities λ1 and λ 2 respectively are placed is placed in a uniform electric field E ( volt / m )
at a distance of R meters. The force per unit acting along the same plane at an angle θ with the
 1  horizontal side of the square as shown in figure.
length on either wire will be K =  The electric flux linked to the surface in unit of
 4πτ0 
V − m , is
2λ1λ 2 2λ λ
(1) K 2
(2) K 1 2
R R
λ1λ 2 λ1λ 2
(3) K 2 (4) K
R R
34. The electric field due to a uniformly charged solid
sphere of radius R as a function of the distance
from its centre is represented graphically by –
(1) EL2 (2) EL2 cosθ
(3) EL2sinθ (4) 0

(1) (2) 37. A charge of magnitude 3e and mass 2m is

moving in an electric field E . The acceleration
imparted to the charge is
(1) 2Ee / 3 m (2) 3Ee / 2 m
(3) 2 m / 3Ee (4) 3 m / 2Ee

(3) (4) 38. Find electric field due to a uniformly charged, long
and thin rod.
35. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q , are kλ kλ
(1) (2)
separated by a distance d. If F is the force of r 2r
repulsion between the ions, the number of 2k λ kλ
(3) (4)
electrons missing from each ion will be (e being r 4r
the charge on an electron)
4πεo Fd 2 39. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear
(1) charge densities +λC / m and +λC / m are placed
e2
at a distance R . The electric field mid-way
4πε0 Fe 2 between the two line charges is:
(2)
d2 λ
(1) N/C (2) zero
4πε0 Fd 2 2πε0 R
(3) 2λ λ
e2 (3) N/C (4) N/C
4πε0 Fd 2 πε0 R πε0 R
(4)
q2

Space for Rough Work

[6]
40. Four charges of +1µC, +1µC, −1µC and +1µC are 44. On the axis of a uniformly charged ring of radius
R , as shown, the electric field is maximum at
placed at the vertices of a square of side 2 cm ,
in sequence. The net force experienced by 0.1µC
charge at the centre of square:
(1) 9 N (2) 18 N
(3) 36 N (4) Zero

41. Two identical small metal spheres having charges

q and −3q exert force F on each other. The R
spheres are touched with each other and then kept (1) x = 0 (2) x =
2
at the same separation. The magnitude of the new R
force between the spheres will be: (3) x = R 2 (4) x =
4 2
(1) F (2) 4F
3
45. An electric field in space is given by
F
(3) 2F (4)
3 ( 
)
10i + 3 j + 4k unit, then electric flux through a
42. A particle with charge + ve and mass m is surface of area 1 unit lying in yz plane is
projected with velocity v in the opposite direction (1) 10 units (2) 17 units
of a uniform electric field E as shown in the figure (3) 30 units (4) 40 units
in a gravity-free space. After what time the
velocity will become -v?

mv mv
(1) (2)
2qE qE
2mv 4mv
(3) (4)
qE qE

43. Force of interaction between two bodies of the

same nature of the charge
(1) Must be repulsive
(2) May be attractive
(3) Must be attractive
(4) Zero

Space for Rough Work

[7]
 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
46. The molarity of pure water is: 53. In which case Raoult’s law is not applicable?
(1) 18 (1) 1 m NaCl (2) 1m urea
(2) 55.5 (3) 1 m glucose (4) 1 m sucrose
(3) 100
(4) None of these 54. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. At
300 K , vapour pressure of the solution containing
47. When the volume of the solution is doubled, the 1 mol of X and 3 mol of Y is 550 mm Hg . At the
following becomes exactly half same temperature if 1 mol of Y is further added to
this solution, vapour pressure of the solution
(1) Molality (2) Mole-fraction increases by 10 mm Hg . Vapour pressure (in mm
(3) Molarity (4) Weight percent Hg) of X and Y in their pure states will be
respectively
48. What is the molarity of 0.2 N Na 2 CO3 solution? (1) 200 and 300 (2) 300 and 400
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0 M (3) 400 and 600 (4) 500 and 600
(3) 0.4 M (4) 0.2 M
55. Study the figures given below and mark the correct
49. Which of the following is temperature dependent? statement
(1) Parts per million (2) Molality
(3) Mole fraction (4) Molarity

50. H 2 S is a toxic gas used in qualitative analysis. If

solubility of H 2 S in water at STP is 0.195 m ,
what is the value of K H ?
(1) 0.0263 bar (2) 69.16 bar (1) (i) Nitric acid + water(ii) Acetone + ethyl
(3) 192 bar (4) 282 bar alcohol
(2) (i) Water + ethyl alcohol(ii) Acetone +
51. Which one of the following gases has the lowest Benzene
value of Henry's law constant? (3) (i) Acetone + ethyl alcohol (ii) Acetone +
(1) N 2 (2) He chloroform
(3) CO 2 (4) O 2 (4) (i) Benzene + chloroform(ii) Acetone +
chloroform
52. Which of the following gas mixture is used by the
divers inside the sea? 56. Lowering of vapour pressure of an aqueous
(1) O 2 + He (2) O 2 + Xe solution of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte 1 molal
aqueous solution at 100°C is:
(3) O 2 + Ar (4) O 2 + CO 2 (1) 14.12 torr (2) 312 torr
(3) 13.45 torr (4) 352 torr

Space for Rough Work

[8]
57. Which of the following statement is correct? 63. A non-ideal solution was prepared by mixing 30
(1) A saturated solution will remain saturated at mL chloroform and 50 mL acetone. The volume of
all temperatures mixture will be:
(2) A plant cell swells when placed in hypertonic (1) > 80 mL (2) < 80 mL
solution (3) = 80 mL (4) ≥ 80 mL
(3) The depression in freezing point is directly
proportional to molality of the solution 64. At a given temperature, total vapour pressure in
(4) None of these torr of a mixture of volatile components A and B is
given by= P 120 − 75x B , hence vapour pressure of
58. What weight of glycerol should be added to 600 g pure components A and B respectively (in torr)
of water in order to lower its freezing point by are-
10°C? ( K f = 1.86° Ckgmol−1 ) (1) 120, 75 (2) 120, 195
(1) 496 g (2) 297 g (3) 120, 45 (4) 75, 45
(3) 310 g (4) 426 g
65. Match the item given in Column-I and Column –
59. If 1 g of solute (molar mass = 50 g mol−1 ) is
II.
dissolved in 50 g of solvent and the elevation in Column –I Column – II
boiling point is 1 K . The molal elevation constant
(a) Saturated (i) Solution having same
of the solvent is:
solution osmotic pressure at a
(1) 2 (2) 3 given temperature as
(3) 2.5 (4) 5 that of given solution
(b) Binary (ii) A solution whose
60. The colligative property is not represented by: Solution osmotic pressure is less
(1) Elevation in boiling point than that of another.
(2) Osmotic pressure (c) Isotonic (iii) Solution with two
(3) Optical activity solution components
(4) Relative lowering of vapour pressure (d) Hypotonic (iv) A solution which
solution contains maximum
61. If the elevation in boiling point of a solution of 10 amount of solute that
g of solute (molecular weight =100) in 100 g of can be dissolved in a
water is ∆Tb , the ebullioscopic constant of water given amount of
is: solvent at a given
temperature
(1) 10 (2) 100 Tb
(e) Solid (v) A solution whose
∆Tb solution osmotic pressure is
(3) ∆Tb (4)
10 more than that of
62. A solution has higher osmotic pressure than its another
standard solution. Which of the following term (f) Hypertonic (vi) A solution is solid
will be used for this solution? phase
(1) Isotonic (2) Hypertonic
(3) Dilute (4) Hypotonic
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 (1) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i), (e)–(v), (f)– 69. Statement-I: Azeotropes are binary mixtures
(vi) having the same composition in liquid and vapour
(2) (a)–(ii) (b)–(iii) (c)–(vi) (d)–(v) (e)–(i) (f)– phase and boil at a constant temperature.
(vi) Statement-II: Nitric acid and water form
(3) (a)–(iv) (b)–(iii) (c)–(i) (d)–(ii) (e)–(vi) (f)– minimum boiling azeotrope..
(v) (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(4) (a)–(iv) (b)–(iii) (c)–(ii) (d)–(i) (e)–(v) (f)– (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(vi) incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
66. A solution which is described as 10 % glucose in incorrect.
water by mass means (4) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
(1) 10 g of glucose is dissolved in 90 g of water correct.
resulting in a 100 g solution
70. Which of the following units is useful in relating
(2) 90 g of glucose is dissolved in 10 g of water
concentration of solution with its vapour pressure?
resulting in a 100 g solution
(1) Mole fraction (2) Parts per million
(3) 100 g glucose is dissolved in 100 g of water
(3) Mass percentage (4) Molality
resulting in a 100 g solution
(4) 10 g of glucose is dissolved in 110 g of water
71. Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol.wt. 60) in 1000g of
resulting in a 100 g solution
water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/ml. the
67. Which of the following statements is correct, if the molarity of the solution is:
intermolecular forces in liquids A, B and C are in (1) 1.78 M (2) 2.00 M
the order A < B < C ? (3) 2.05 M (4) 2.22 M
(i) B evaporates more readily than A
(2) B evaporates less readily than C 72. Assertion: Mole fraction has no units.
(3) A and B evaporate at the same rate Reason: Mole fraction is independent of
(4) A evaporates more readily than C temperature.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the
68. Correct statement(s) is/are: Reason is a correct explanation of the
A. The solubility of gases in liquid increases Assertion.
with increase of temperature. (2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but
B. Aquatic species are more comfortable in Reason is not a correct explanation of the
warm water rather than in cold water Assertion.
C. At high altitudes, the partial pressure of (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
oxygen is less than that at the ground level. (4) Assertion is False but Reason is True.
D. There is low concentration of O 2 in the blood
73. Assertion: A solution of table salt in a glass of
and tissue of the people living at high altitude. water is homogeneous.
(1) A and B Reason: Solution having same composition
(2) B, C and D throughout is heterogeneous.
(3) C and D (1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the
(4) Only A Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
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 (2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but 79. The value of Henry's constant, K H is:
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (1) greater for gases with higher solubility
Assertion. (2) greater for gases with lower solubility
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (3) constant for all gases
(4) Assertion is False but Reason is True. (4) not related to the solubility of gases

74. Considering the formation, breaking and strength 80. The molal elevation constant is the ration of the
of hydrogen bond, predict which of the following elevation in B.P. to:
mixtures will show a positive deviation from (1) Molarity
Raoult's law? (2) Molality
(1) Methanol and acetone (3) Mole Fraction of solute
(2) Chloroform and acetone (4) Mole Fraction of Solvent
(3) Nitric acid and water
(4) Phenol and aniline 81. On the basis of information given below mark the
correct option: Information
75. Colligative properties depend on: (i) In bromoethane and chloroethane mixture
(1) the nature of the solute particles dissolved in intermolecular interactions of A-A and B-B
solution type are nearly the same as A-B type
(2) the number of solute particles in solution interactions.
(3) the physical properties of the solute particles (ii) In ethanol and acetone mixture A – A or B –
dissolved in solution B type intermolecular interactions are
(4) the nature of solvent particles stronger than A–B type interactions.
76. The unit of ebullioscopic constant is: (iii) In chloroform and acetone mixture A –– A or
B – B type intermolecular interactions are
(1) K kg mol−1 or K (molality ) −1 weaker than A–B type interactions:
(2) mol kg K −1 or K −1 (molality) (1) Solution (i) will follow Raoult's law
(2) Solution (ii) will show negative deviation
(3) kg mol−1 K −1 or K −1 (molality) −1
from Raoult's law
(4) K mol kg −1 or K (molality) (3) Solution (ii) and (iii) will follow Raoult's law.
77. Low concentration of oxygen in the blood and (4) Solution (iii) will show positive deviation
tissues of people living at high altitude is due to…. from Raoult's law
(1) Low temperature
(2) High atmospheric pressure 82. Two beakers of capacity 500 mL were taken. One
(3) both low temperature and high atmospheric of these beakers, labelled as "A", was filled with
pressure 400 mL water whereas the beaker labelled "B' was
(4) Low atmospheric pressure filled with 400 mL of 2 M solution of NaCl . At
the same temperature, both the beakers were
78. Value of Henry's constant K H : placed in closed containers of same material and
(1) increases with increase in temperature same capacity as shown in figure:
(2) decreases with increase in temperature
(3) remains constant
(4) first increases then decreases
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[11]
 86. In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a
solute, there is
(1) 1000 g of solvent
(2) 500 mL of solvent
(3) 500 g of solvent
At a given temperature, which of the following (4) 100 mL of solvent
statement is correct about the vapour pressure of
pure water and that of NaCl solution? 87. The following solutions were prepared by
(1) Vapour pressure in container (A) is more than
dissolving 10 g of glucose ( C6 H12 O6 ) in 250 ml
that in container (B)
(2) Vapour pressure in container (A) is less than of water ( P1 ) , 10g of urea ( CH 4 N 2 O ) in 250 ml
that in container (B) of water ( P2 ) and 10 g of sucrose ( C12 H 22 O11 ) in
(3) Vapour pressure is equal in both the
containers 250 ml of water ( P3 ) . The right option for the
(4) Vapour pressure in container (B) is twice the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these
vapour pressure in container (A) solutions is:
(1) P1 > P2 > P3 (2) P2 > P3 > P1
83. In isotonic solutions:
(1) Solute and solvent both are same (3) P3 > P1 > P2 (4) P2 > P1 > P3
(2) Osmotic pressure is same 88. The mixture which shows positive deviation from
(3) Solute and solvent have higher concentration Raoult's law is:
(4) Solute is always the same solvent may be (1) Benzene + Toluene
different (2) Acetone + Chloroform
84. K H value for Ar(g), CO2(g), HCHO(g) and (3) Chloroethane + Bromoethane
CH 4 ( g) are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83 × 10−5 and 0.413 (4) Ethanol + Acetone
respectively. Arrange these gases in the order of
their increasing solubility: 89. The osmotic pressure is expressed in the unit of:
(1) HCHO < CH 4 < CO 2 < Ar (1) MeV (2) Calorie
(3) Cm/sec (4) atm
(2) HCHO < CO 2 < CH 4 < Ar
(3) Ar < CO 2 < CH 4 < HCHO 90. For an ideal solution, the correct option is:
(4) Ar < CH 4 < CO 2 < HCHO (1) ∆ mix S = 0 at constant T and P
85. Intermolecular forces between two benzene (2) ∆ mix V ≠ 0 at constant T and P
molecules are nearly of same strength as those (3) ∆ mix H = 0 at constant T and P
between two toluene molecules. For a mixture of
(4) ∆ mix G = 0 at constant T and P
benzene and toluene, which of the following are
not true?
(1) ∆ mix H = zero
(2) ∆ mix V = zero
(3) These will form minimum boiling azeotrope
(4) These will form ideal solution

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[12]
 SECTION-III (BOTANY)
91. Identify A to D in the following diagram 95. Intine is made up of
(1) cellulose
(2) pectin
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) protein

96. Hardest substance in plant kingdom is

(1) A - Filament (stalk), B - Pollen sac, C - (1) sepal (2) corolla
Pollen grain, D - Line of dehiscence (3) sporopollenin (4) anther
(2) A - Filament (stalk), B - Pollen sac, C - Line
of dehiscence, D - Pollen grain 97. 60% of the angiosperms shed their pollens at the
(3) A-Line of dehiscence, B - Filament (stalk), C (1) 2-celled stage (2) 3-celled stage
- Pollen sac, D - Pollen grains (3) 4-celled stage (4) 1-celled stage
(4) A - Filament (stalk), B - Line of dehiscence,
C - Pollen sac, D - Pollen grains 98. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces
(1) two sperms and a vegetative cell
92. Microsporangium develops into (2) single sperm and a vegetative cell
(1) pollens (2) microgametes (3) single sperm and two vegetative cell
(3) megagametes (4) pollen sac (4) three sperms

93. Centre of each microsporangium is occupied by 99. Identify the type of pistil in the diagram.
(1) sporogenous tissue
(2) tapetum
(3) central tissue
(4) microspore mother cell

94. The process of formation of microspores from

pollen mother cell through ..A… is called ... B... .
Microspores are arranged in .. C... . As the anthers (1) Multicarpellary, apocarpous
matures and dehydrate, microspores develop into (2) Multicarpellary, syncarpous
the ...D... . (3) Multicarpellary, pistillate
Fill in the blanks to . (4) Monocarpellary, apocarpous
(1) A-pollen grains, B-microspore tetrad, C-
microsporogenesis, D-meiosis 100. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically
(2) A-microspore tetrad, B-microsporogenesis, equivalent to
C-meiosis, D-pollen grains (1) megasporangium
(3) A-microsporogenesis, B-microspore tetrad, (2) megasporophyll
C-pollen grain, D-meiosis (3) megaspore mother cell
(4) A-meiosis, B-microsporogenesis, C- (4) megaspore
microspore tetrad, D-pollen grains
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101. A typical angiosperm anther is _________ and III. A dithecious anther consists of four
_________. microsporangia two in each lobe.
(1) Bilobed, tetrasporangiate IV. The anther wall has middle layer lieing
(2) Bilobed, monosporangiate between endothecium and tapetum.
(3) Bilobed, bisporangiate (1) I and II (2) II and III
(4) Tetralobed, monosporangiate (3) III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
102. The process of formation of microspores from a
pollen mother cell is called 109. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(1) Megasporogenesis (1) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine
(2) Microsporogenesis (2) Sporogenous tissue is haploid
(3) Megagametogenesis (3) Endothecium produces the microspores
(4) Microgametogenesis (4) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen
103. Choose the correct option w.r.t. the function of the
germ pore. 110. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
(1) It allows growth of pollen tube about Parthenium (carrot grass)?
(2) It allows water absorption in seed (1) Parthenium came into India as a contaminant
(3) It helps dehiscence of pollen grain with imported wheat
(4) More than one option is correct (2) It has became ubiquitous in occurrence
(3) It causes pollen allergy
104. The thin and continuous wall layer of pollen is (4) All of the above
(1) Exine (2) Intine
(3) Germ pore (4) Endothecium 111. Choose the odd one w.r.t. gynoecium.
(1) Gynoecium represents the female
105. Integumented megasporangium is reproductive part of flower
(1) Ovule (2) Pollen sac (2) The gynoecium may be syncarpous or
(3) Pollen grain (4) Embryo sac apocarpous
(3) The number of ovules in papaya and mango
106. The vegetative cell is is one
(1) Small, has large irregularly shaped nucleus (4) The ovules are attached to placenta
(2) Large, has large irregularly shaped nucleus
(3) Large with spindle shaped nucleus 112. What is the correct sequence of development of
(4) Small, spindle shaped nucleus microsporogenesis?
(1) Pollen grain → Sporogenous tissue →
107. Cryopreservation means storing of products in Microspore tetrad → PMC → Male
(1) Liquid nitrogen (2) Liquid oxygen gametes
(3) Liquid hydrogen (4) Liquid helium (2) Sporogenous tissue → Microspore tetrad
→ PMC → Male gametes
108. Read the following statements and choose the (3) Pollen grain → Male gametes → PMC →
correct ones. Microspore tetrad - Sporogenous tissue
I. Non-essential floral organs in a flower are
(4) Sporogenous tissue → PMC → Microspore
sepals and petals.
tetrad → Pollen grain → Male gametes
II. Stamens represent microsporophylls.

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113. Embryo sac is to ovule as is to an anther. 120. Mark the incorrect statement
(1) stamen (2) filament (1) Outer three layers of anther wall are
(3) pollen grain (4) androecium protective in function
(2) Sporogenous tissue, occupies the centre of
114. The outermost and innermost wall layers of each microsporangium
microsporangium in an anther are respectively. (3) Cells of tapetum and endothecium show
(1) Endothecium and tapetum increase in DNA contents by endomitosis and
(2) Epidermis and endodermis polyteny
(3) Epidermis and middle layer (4) Ploidy level of microspore tetrad is haploid
(4) Epidermis and tapetum
121. Which statement is incorrect?
115. When does plant decides to flower? (1) Intine is the inner wall of pollen grain and
(1) In embryonic development exhibit fascinating array of patterns and
(2) During the appearance of flower buds designs
(3) Before the actual flower appear on plant (2) The mature pollen grains has two cells, the
(4) All the above bigger is vegetative cell and the smaller is
generative cell which floats in cytoplasm of
116. The initiation and development of floral vegetative cell
primordium takes place by (3) Carrot grass pollens cause pollen allergy
(1) Only by hormonal changes in plant (4) Pollen grains of pea and rose maintain
(2) Only structural changes in plant viability for months
(3) Changes in seasonal variation
(4) Both by hormonal and structural changes in 122. Examine the figure given below and select the
plant right option giving all the four parts a, b, c and d.
Correctly identify
117. Which one amongst the given perform the
function of protection in typical
microsporangium?
(A) Epidermis (B) Endothecium
(C) Tapetum (D) Middle layer
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(3) A and D (4) A, B and D

118. Diameter of pollen grain is

(1) 20 − 50 µ m (2) 25 − 50 µ m a b c d
(3) 30 − 50 µ m (4) 10 − 50 µ m (1) Endothecium Tapetum Microspore Middle
mother cell layer
(2) Tapetum Endothecium Microspore Middle
mother cell layer
119. More than one ovule is found in the ovary of
(1) Wheat (2) Paddy (3) Endothecium Middle layer Tapetum Microspore
mother cell
(3) Papaya (4) None of these (4) Endothecium Microspore Middle Tapetum
mother cell layer

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123. Assertion: Exine of pollen grain is discontinuous 129. Arrangement of four wall layers in
layer. microsporangium from inside to outside is as
Reason: Exine absent at germ pores. follows:
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true (1) Epidermis, endothecium, tapetum and middle
and the reason is a correct explanation of the layers
assertion. (2) Epidermis, middle layers, endothecium and
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but tapetum
the reason is not a correct explanation of the (3) Epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and
assertion. tapetum
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (4) Tapetum, middle layers, endothecium and
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false. epidermis

124. Which of the following has proved helpful in 130. The microspores, as they are formed, are arranged
preserving pollen as fossils? in a cluster of four cells-the microspore tetrad. As
(1) Pollenkitt (2) Cellulosic intine the anthers mature and dehydrate, the microspores
(3) Sporopollenin (4) Oil content dissociate from each other and develop into
(1) Pollen grains
125. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached (2) Female gametophyte
to the: (3) Male gametophyte
(1) Anther (2) Connective (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) Placenta (4) Thalamus or petal
131. An anther having four microsporocytes shall
126. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in produce how many pollen grains?
(1) Endothecium (1) 24 (2) 12
(2) Microspore mother cells (3) 8 (4) 16
(3) Microspore tetrads 132. What is the function of germ pore?
(4) Pollen grains (1) Emergence of radicle
(2) Absorption of water for seed germination
127. The hilum is a scar on the- (3) Initiation of pollen tube
(1) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel. (4) Release of male gametes
(2) Seed, where funicle was attached.
(3) Fruit, where style was present. 133. Tapetum present in the microsporangial wall
(4) Seed, where micropyle was present. occurs between
(1) Epidermis and endothecium
128. Flowers are: (2) Endothecium and middle layers
(1) Embryological marvels (3) Epidermis and middle layers
(2) Morphological marvels (4) Middle layers and sporogenous tissue
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above 134. The male gametophyte (microgametophyte) in
case of monocots is
(1) Stamen (2) Nucellus
(3) Megaspore (4) Pollen grain

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135. Product of sexual reproduction generates
(1) longer viability of seeds
(2) prolonged dormancy
(3) large biomass
(4) new genetic combination leading to variation
SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
136. Pouch in which testes are suspended outside the 141. Testicular lobules contain
abdominal cavity, is (1) 3-5 seminiferous tubules
(1) tunica albuginea (2) inguinal canal (2) 2-6 seminiferous tubules
(3) epididymis (4) scrotum (3) 5-7 seminiferous tubules
(4) 1-3 seminiferous tubules
137. Function of scrotum is to maintain the
(1) temperature of testes 142. The seminiferous tubules of the testis is lined on
(2) body temperature its inside by
(3) level of growth hormone (1) spermatocytes (2) spermatogonia
(4) level of male hormone (3) cells of Sertoli (4) Both (2) and (3)

138. Approximate length and width of testis are 143. The outermost layer of seminiferous tubule is
respectively formed of -
(1) 2 – 3 cm and 4 – 5 cm (1) Tunica albuginea
(2) 4 − 5 cm and 2 − 3 cm (2) Tunica vasiculosa
(3) 5 − 6 cm and 3 − 4 cm (3) Tunica vaginalis
(4) 6 − 7 cm and 4 − 5 cm (4) Tunica propia

139. How many compartments (approximately) are 144. Which of the following cells present in the
there in each human testis? mammalian testes forms the sperms?
(1) 250 (2) 300 (1) Leydig cells (2) Spermatogonia
(3) 350 (4) 400 (3) Interstitial cells (4) Sertoli cells

140. Compartments in mammalian testes are called 145. Region outside the seminiferous tubules is called
(1) testicular lobules (1) interdigital space
(2) seminiferous tubules (2) interferous space
(3) Sertoli cells (3) interstitial space
(4) interstitial cell (4) blind space

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146. The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into
the vasa efferentia by
(1) vasa deferentia
(2) rete testis
(3) epididymis
(4) seminiferous tubules

147. Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm (1) A-Testis-possesses 3-4 testicular lobule
cells in male reproductive system. (2) B- Seminal vesicle-storage of sperm
(1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa (3) C-Vas deferens-helps in sperm transfer
efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens (4) D-Prostate gland-secretes anti mullerian
→ Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral hormone
meatus
(2) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → 150. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and
Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra urinary system in the human male is
(3) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → (1) urethra (2) ureter
Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → (3) vas deferens (4) vasa efferentia
Inguinal canal → Urethra → Urethral
meatus 151. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram.
(4) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia →
Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra

148. Choose the incorrect pair.

(1) Leydig cells - Secrete testicular hormone
(2) Vasa efferentia and epididymis - Accessory
ducts
(3) Vas deferens - Loops over the urinary
bladder (1) A-Urinary bladder, B-Bulbourethral gland,
(4) Ejaculatory duct - Vasa efferentia and C-Prostate gland, D-Seminal vesicles
seminal vesicle (2) A-Urinary bladder, B-Urethra, C-Vas
deferens, D-Bulbourethral gland
149. Choose the correct option. (3) A-Prostate gland, B-Seminal vesicles, C-
Urinary bladder, D-Bulbourethral gland
(4) A-Bulbourethral gland, B-Urinary bladder,
C-Seminal vesicles, D-Prostate gland

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152. Identify the accessory glands found in males. I. Caputepididymis
(1) Seminal vesicles II. Cauda epididymis
(2) Prostate gland III. Vas deferens
(3) Bulbourethral gland IV. Vasa efferentia
(4) All of these V. Corpus epididymis
VI. Seminiferous tubules
153. The given diagram refers to TS of testis showing VII. Tunica vaginalis
sectional view of a few seminiferous tubules. VIII. Tunica albuginea
Identify the parts labelled A–D and select the IX. Tunica vasculosa
correct option. X. Retetestis

A B C D E F G
(1) II III IV X VI I IX
(2) V IV III VI I X VII
(3) I IV X III II VII VIII
(4) I VI IV III V X IX

(1) A-Sertoli cells, B-Spermatozoa, C-Interstitial 155. The ovaries are located one on each side of
cells, D-Sperms the...A... Each ovary is about 2-4 cm in length
(2) A-Sertoli cells, B-Immunocompetent, C- connected to the ...B… wall by …C… Each ovary
Interstitial cells, D-Spermatozoa is covered by a thin epithelium which encloses the
(3) A-Interstitial cells, B-Spermatogonia, C - ovarian stroma. Stroma is divided into two zones
Sertoli cells, D-Sperms …D… and …E… Fill the suitable choices for A–
(4) A-Sertoli cells, B-Spermatogonia, C- E.
Interstitial cells, D-Spermatozoa (1) A-inner medulla, B-peripheral cortex, C -
ligaments, D-pelvic wall, E-lower abdomen
154. The given digaram shows LS of testis showing (2) A-lower abdomen B-pelvic, C-ligaments, D-
various parts. Identify the parts labelled (A – G) peripheral cortex, E-inner medulla
from the list given below. (3) A-pelvic wall, B-lower abdomen, C-
ligaments, D-inner medulla, E-peripheral
cortex
(4) A-inner medulla, B-peripheral cortex, C-
lower abdomen, D-pelvic wall, E-ligaments

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156. The following diagram refers to female 162. Choose the incorrect pair.
reproductive system of human. Identify A to E. (1) Finger-like projections - Fimbriae
(2) Narrow part of oviduct - Ampulla
(3) Part of oviduct joining the uterus - Isthmus
(4) None of the above

163. The following diagram refers to the female

reproductive system of humans. Identify A − F .
(1) A-Urethra, B-Urinary bladder, C-Uterus, D-
Cervix, E-Vagina
(2) A-Urethra, B-Urinary bladder, C-Uterus, D-
Vagina, E-Cervix
(3) A-Urethra, B-Urinary bladder, C-Uterus, D-
Cervix, E-Vagina
(4) A-Uterus, B-Urinary bladder, C-Urethra, D- (1) A-Ampulla, B-Isthmus, C-Infundibulum, D-
Cervix, E-Vagina Fallopian tube, E-Ovary, F-Uterine fundus
(2) A-Isthmus, B-Infundibulum, C-Ampulla, D-
157. Oviducts are also called Fallopian tube, E-Ovary, F-Uterine fundus
(1) Fallopian tubes (2) uterus (3) A-Isthmus, B-Ampulla, C-Infundibulum, D-
(3) vagina (4) ovary Fallopian tube, E-Ovary, F-Uterine fundus
(4) A-Ampulla, B-Infundibulum, C-Isthmus, D-
158. Human Fallopian tube is about Fallopian tube, E-Ovary, F-Uterine fundus
(1) 8 − 9 cm long (2) 9-10 cm long
(3) 10 − 12 cm long (4) 12-17 cm long 164. Choose the incorrect pair.
(1) Cushion of fatty tissue covered by pubic hair
159. Funnel-shaped part of oviduct closer to the ovary -Mons pubis
is called (2) Membrane covering opening of vagina-
(1) fimbriae (2) infundibulum Hymen
(3) ampulla (4) isthmus (3) Finger-like structure above the urethral
opening -Clitoris
160. Fimbriae are associated with which organ? (4) Uterine layer exhibiting strong contraction
(1) Fallopian tube (2) Uterus during delivery-Endometrium
(3) Vagina (4) Ovary
161. The main function of fimbriae of Fallopian tube is 165. The main tissue present in breast is ………..
(1) help in development of ovary tissue.
(2) help in collection of the ovum after ovulation (1) glandular (2) squamous
(3) help in development of ova (3) ciliated (4) epithelium
(4) help in fertilisation
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166. Given the diagrammatic sectional view of I II III IV
mammary gland. Identify A, B, C and D. (1) Vas Vagina Cervix Cowper's
deferens gland
(2) Rete Ovary Graafian Prostate
testis follicle
(3) Scrotum Uterus Corpus Seminal
luteum vesicles
(4) Fallopian Ejaculatory Acrosome Testis
tube duct

169. A sectional view of mammary gland shows

(1) A-Alveolus, B-Mammary duct, C- I. nipple and areola.
Lactiferous duct, D-Areola II. mammary lobes (alveolus) and duct.
(2) A-Alveolus, B-Lactiferous duct, C- III. ribs.
Mammary duct, D-Areola IV. ampulla and lactiferous duct.
(3) A-Alveolus, B-Mammary duct, C- Choose the correct option from the above.
Lactiferous duct, D-Lactogenic spot (1) I, II, III and IV
(4) A-Fat, B-Mammary duct, C-Lactiferous duct, (2) I, II and III
D-Areola (3) III, IV and II
(4) I, IV and III
167. Several mammary ducts join to form a wider
mammary ampulla, which is connected to 170. Humans are …… and ……… organisms.
(1) lactiferous duct (1) Sexually reproducing, oviparous
(2) seminiferous duct (2) Asexually reproducing, ovoviviparous
(3) seminiferous tubules (3) Asexually reproducing, viviparous
(4) nipple (4) Sexually reproducing, viviparous

168. Pick the odd one out from each series given below 171. Seminiferous tubules contain ……… cells for
and select the correct option. providing nutrition to sperm cells.
I. Scrotum, rete testis, Fallopian tube, vas (1) Leydig cells
deferens. (2) Interstitial cell
II. Ovary, uterus, vagina, ejaculatory duct. (3) Sertoli cells
III. Acrosome, Graafian follicle, corpus luteum, (4) Germ cells
cervix.
IV. Prostate, testis, seminal vesicles, Cowper's 172. The cells which secrete androgens are
gland. (1) Spermatozoa (2) Interstitial cells
(3) Sertoli cells (4) Germ cells

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173. Match the following correctly. 176. Innermost layer of seminiferous tubule is
Column-I Column-II composed of which epithelium-
1. Gestation A. Fusion of male and (1) Ciliated columnar epithelium
female gametes (2) Simple columnar epithelium
2. Parturition B. Formation of gametes (3) Simple squamous epithelium
3. C. Attachment to the uterine (4) Cuboidal epithelium
Gametogenesis wall
4. Implantation D. Delivery of the baby 177. Which one of the following is not an accessory
E. Embryonic development male duct in context of male reproductive system?
(1) 1: A, 2 : C,3: B, 4 : D (1) Rete testis (2) Testes
(2) 1: E, 2 : D,3: A, 4 : C (3) Epididymis (4) Vas deferens
(3) 1: E, 2 : D,3: B, 4 : C
178. Birth canal is formed by
(4) 1:C, 2:D, 3:A, 4:C
(1) Cervical canal + Uterus
(2) Cervical canal + Vagina
174. If A stands for seminal vesicles, B stands for
(3) Cervical canal + Isthmus
bulbourethral glands, C stands for prostate gland,
(4) Cervical canal + Fallopian tube
then which of the following is true?
(1) A and C occurs in pair, B is unpaired
179. External thin membranous layer of uterus is
(2) B and C occur in pair, A is unpaired
known as
(3) A and B occur in pair, C is unpaired
(1) Pleura (2) Pericardium
(4) A, B, C are all paired
(3) Perimetrium (4) Periosteum

175. Seminal plasma is rich in which sugar?

180. Thick muscular layer of ………… muscle
(1) Sucrose (2) Glucose
constitutes middle layer of uterus.
(3) Fructose (4) Maltose
(1) Smooth (2) Striated
(3) Intercalated (4) Voluntary

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