UNIVERSITY OF PERPETUAL HELP SYSTEM LAGUNA-ISABELA CAMPUS

COLLEGE OF BUSINES AND ACCOUNTANCY

MINANTE UNO, CAUAYAN CITY, ISABELA

NAME: ________________________________________________________ SUBJECT:___________

YEAR/SECTION:______________________________________________ SCORE:_____________
CONCEPTUAL FRAMEWORK AND ACCOUNTING STANDARDS-MIDTERM EXAMINATION
General Instruction: You are only given Two (2) hours to finish the exam. Be honest
and do not cheat. God bless you!
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the correct/best answer among the given following choices and
write your answer beside the number.
1. Which statement characterizes defined contribution plan?
A. Defined contribution plans are more complex than defined benefit plans.
B. The employer’s obligation is satisfied by making the appropriate amount of periodic
contribution.
C. The investment risk is borne by the employer.
D. Contributions are made in equal amounts by employer and employees.

2. Which statement is true concerning the recognition and measurement of a defined

contribution plan?
A. The contribution shall be recognized as expense in the period it is payable.
B. Any unpaid contribution at the end of the period shall be recognized as accrued liability.
C. Any excess contribution shall be recognized as prepaid expense but only to the extent
that the prepayment will lead to a reduction in future payments or a cash refund.
D. All of these statements are true about a defined contribution plan.

3. Which statement is incorrect concerning the recognition and measurement of a defined

benefit plan?
A. Actuarial assumptions are required to measure the obligation and expense and there is a
possibility of actuarial gains and losses.
B. The obligation is measured on a discounted basis.
C. The defined benefit plan must be fully funded.
D. The expense recognized for a defined benefit plan is not necessarily the amount of
contribution due for the period.
___________4. In accounting for a defined benefit plan
A. An appropriate funding must be established to ensure that enough fund would be
available at retirement.
B. The employer responsibility is simply to make a contribution each year.
C. The expense recognized each period is equal to the cash contribution to the plan.
D. The liability is determined based upon variables that reflect current salary levels.
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 UNIVERSITY OF PERPETUAL HELP SYSTEM LAGUNA-ISABELA CAMPUS
COLLEGE OF BUSINES AND ACCOUNTANCY
MINANTE UNO, CAUAYAN CITY, ISABELA

5. When an entity amends a pension plan, past service cost should be

A. Treated as a prior period adjustment because no future periods are benefited.
B. Amortized over the remaining service period of employees.
C. Recorded in other comprehensive income.
D. Reported as an expense in the period the plan is amended.

6. A pension liability is reported when

A. The projected benefit obligation exceeds the fair value of plan assets.
B. The accumulated benefit obligation exceeds the fair value of plan assets.
C. The fair value of plan assets exceeds the projected benefit obligation.
D. The fair value of plan assets exceeds the accumulated benefit obligation.

7. What is the discount rate for pension plans?

A. The market yield at the end of the reporting period for high quality corporate
bonds.
B. The bank prime interest rate.
C. The weighted average interest rate.
D. The expected rate of return on plan assets.

8. Short-term employee benefits are described by all, except

A. No actuarial assumptions are required.
B. There is no possibility of any actuarial gain or loss.
C. Short-term employee benefits by definition are payable no later than twelve months
after year-end.
D. Short-term employee benefit obligations are measured on a discounted basis.

9. These are compensated or paid absences that are carried forward and can be used in
future periods and the employees are entitled to a cash payment for unused entitlement on
leaving the entity.
A. Accumulating and vesting
B. Accumulating and nonvesting
C. Nonaccumulating and vesting
D. Nonaccumulating and nonvesting

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 UNIVERSITY OF PERPETUAL HELP SYSTEM LAGUNA-ISABELA CAMPUS
COLLEGE OF BUSINES AND ACCOUNTANCY
MINANTE UNO, CAUAYAN CITY, ISABELA

10. Government grant shall be recognized when there is reasonable assurance that
A. The entity will comply with the conditions of the grant.
B. The grant will be received.
C. The entity will comply with the conditions of the grant and the grant will be
received.
D. The grant must have been received.
11. Government grant in recognition of specific costs is recognized as income
A. Over the same period as the relevant expense.
B. Immediately.
C. Over a maximum of 5 years using straight line.
D. Over a maximum of 5 years using sum of digits.
12. Government grant related to depreciable asset is usually recognized as income
A. Immediately.
B. Over the useful life of the asset using straight line.
C. Over the useful life of the asset using sum of years' digits.
D. Over the useful life of the asset and in proportion to the depreciation of the asset.
13. Government grant related to nondepreciable asset that requires fulfillment of certain
conditions
A. Should not be recognized as income.
B. Should be recognized as income immediately.
C. Should be recognized as income over 40 years.
D. Should be recognized as income over the periods which bear the cost of meeting
the conditions.
14. In the case of grant related to an asset, which of following accounting treatment is
prescribed?
A. Record the grant at a nominal value in the first year and write it off in the subsequent
year.
B. Either set up the grant as deferred income or deduct it in arriving at the carrying
amount of the asset.
C. Record the grant at fair value in the first year and take it to income in the subsequent
year.
D. Take it to the income statement and disclose it as an extraordinary gain.

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 UNIVERSITY OF PERPETUAL HELP SYSTEM LAGUNA-ISABELA CAMPUS
COLLEGE OF BUSINES AND ACCOUNTANCY
MINANTE UNO, CAUAYAN CITY, ISABELA

15. A foreign operation is

a. An entity that is a subsidiary, associate, joint venture or branch of a reporting
entity, the activities of which are based or conducted in a country or currency other
than those of the reporting entity.

b. An entity that is a subsidiary, associate, joint venture but not a branch of a reporting
entity, the activities of which are based or conducted in a country or currency other than
those of the reporting entity.

c. An entity that is not a subsidiary, associate, joint venture but a branch of a reporting
entity, the activities of which are based or conducted in a country or currency other than
those of the reporting entity.

d. An entity that is a subsidiary, associate, joint venture or branch of a reporting entity, the
activities of which are not based or conducted in a country or currency other than those of
the reporting entity.

16. The financial position and profit or loss of an entity may be affected by a related party
relationship even if related party transactions do not occur. The mere existence of the
relationship may be sufficient to affect the transactions of the entity with other parties.
a. True
b. False
c. Somewhat True
d. Somewhat False

17. Interest in another entity

a. Refers to involvement that exposes an entity to variability of returns from the
performance of another entity. It is evidenced by the holding of equity or debt
instruments or other form of involvement, such as the provision of funding, liquidity
support, credit enhancement and guarantees. It includes the means by which an
entity obtains control, joint control, or significant influence over another entity. An
entity does not necessarily have an interest in another entity solely because of a
typical customer supplier relationship.
b. Refers to significant judgments and assumptions in determining the existence of control,
joint control or significant influence over an investee or the type of a joint arrangement
c. Refers to the significant restrictions on the entity’s ability to access assets and settle
liabilities of the group.
d. Refers to any difference in reporting period with the subsidiary.

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 UNIVERSITY OF PERPETUAL HELP SYSTEM LAGUNA-ISABELA CAMPUS
COLLEGE OF BUSINES AND ACCOUNTANCY
MINANTE UNO, CAUAYAN CITY, ISABELA

18. PFRS 8 applies to the separate, individual and consolidated financial statements of an
entity which is publicly listed or in the process of enlisting publicly.
a. True
b. False
c. Somewhat True
d. Somewhat False
19. Joint control is
a. is a joint arrangement whereby the parties that have joint control of the arrangement
have rights to the assets and obligations for the liabilities, relating to the arrangement.
Those parties are called joint operators.
b. is a joint arrangement whereby the parties that have joint control of the arrangement
have rights to the net assets of the arrangement, those parties are called joint venturers.
c.“the contractually agreed sharing of control of an arrangement, which exists only
when decisions about the relevant activities require the unanimous consent of the
parties sharing control.”
d. Separate accounting records may or may not be required for the joint operation itself
and financial statements may or may not be prepared for the joint operation. However, the
joint operators may prepare management accounts so that they may assess the
performance of the joint operation.
20. Identify which of the following are financial instruments:
a) Inventories
b) A share option (an entity’s obligation to issue its own shares)
c) Prepayments for goods or services
d) Liability for income taxes
21. If an entity has reclassified financial assets, it shall disclose the date of reclassification,
an explanation of the change in business model, and the amount reclassified between
categories.
a. True
b. False
c. Somewhat True
d. Somewhat False
22. If an entity has offset financial assets and financial liabilities, it shall disclose the gross
amounts of those assets and liabilities, the amounts that were set-off, the net amounts
presented in the statement of financial position and a description of the related legal right
of set-off.
categories.
a. True
b. False

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 UNIVERSITY OF PERPETUAL HELP SYSTEM LAGUNA-ISABELA CAMPUS
COLLEGE OF BUSINES AND ACCOUNTANCY
MINANTE UNO, CAUAYAN CITY, ISABELA

c. Somewhat True
d. Somewhat False
23. An entity is required to disclose separately
a. the income and expense only, except gains or losses arising from the different
classifications of financial instruments under PFRS 9.
b. the income, expense, gains or losses arising from the different classifications of
financial instruments under PFRS 9.
c. the gains or losses arising from the different classifications of financial instruments
under PFRS 9.
d. the income, expense, gains but not losses arising from the different classifications of
financial instruments under PFRS 9.
24. The entity shall disclose the fair value of each class of financial assets and financial
liabilities in a way that the fair value can be compared with the carrying amount.
a. True
b. False
c. Somewhat True
d. Somewhat False
25. Credit risk
a. Refers to the risk that one party to a financial instrument will cause a financial loss
for the other party by failing to discharge an obligation.
b. Refers to the risk that an entity will encounter difficulty in meeting obligations
associated with financial liabilities.
c. Refers to the risk that the fair value or future cash flows of a financial instrument will
fluctuate because of changes in market prices.
d. Refers to the risk associated with fluctuations in foreign exchange rates.
26. Necessary disclosures, therefore, should be provided to draw users’ attention to the
possible effects of such relationships and transactions on the financial statements
presented.
a. True
b. False
c. Somewhat True
d. Somewhat False
27. Examples of related parties:
a. Investor and investee relationship where control, joint control or significant influence
exists.
b. Key management personnel
c. Close family member

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 UNIVERSITY OF PERPETUAL HELP SYSTEM LAGUNA-ISABELA CAMPUS
COLLEGE OF BUSINES AND ACCOUNTANCY
MINANTE UNO, CAUAYAN CITY, ISABELA

d. All of the above

28. Control
a. an investor controls an investee when the investor is exposed, or has rights, to variable
returns from its involvement with the investee but don’t have the ability to affect those
returns.
b. an investor controls an investee when the investor is exposed, or has rights, to fixed
returns from its involvement with the investee and has the ability to affect those returns
through its power over the investee.
c. an investor controls an investee when the investor is not exposed, or has rights, to
variable returns from its involvement with the investee and has the ability to affect those
returns through its power over the investee.

d. an investor controls an investee when the investor is exposed, or has rights, to

variable returns from its involvement with the investee and has the ability to affect
those returns through its power over the investee.

29. Significant influence is

a. the power to participate in the operating policy decisions only of an entity, but is not
control over those policies. Significant influence may be gained by share ownership, statute
or agreement.
b. the power to participate in the financial policy decisions of an entity, but is not control
over those policies. Significant influence may be gained by share ownership, statute or
agreement.
c. the power to participate in the financial and operating policy decisions of an entity,
but is not control over those policies. Significant influence may be gained by share
ownership, statute or agreement.
d. the power to participate in the financial and operating policy decisions of an entity, and
has a control over those policies. Significant influence may be gained by share ownership,
statute or agreement.
30. Key management personnel are
a. those persons having authority and responsibility for planning, directing and controlling
the activities of the entity, directly, including any director (whether executive or otherwise)
of that entity.
b. those persons having authority and responsibility for planning, directing and
controlling the activities of the entity, directly or indirectly, including any director
(whether executive or otherwise) of that entity.
c. those persons having authority and responsibility for planning, directing and controlling
the activities of the entity, indirectly, including any director (whether executive or
otherwise) of that entity.

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 UNIVERSITY OF PERPETUAL HELP SYSTEM LAGUNA-ISABELA CAMPUS
COLLEGE OF BUSINES AND ACCOUNTANCY
MINANTE UNO, CAUAYAN CITY, ISABELA

d. those persons having authority and responsibility for planning, directing and controlling
the activities of the entity, directly or indirectly, but not including any director (whether
executive or otherwise) of that entity.

31. All of the following are characteristics of short-term employee benefits, except:
a. No actuarial assumptions are required to measure the benefit obligation.
b. There is no possibility of any actuarial gain or loss.
c. Short-term employee benefits by definition are payable no later than twelve months
after year-end.
d. Short-term employee benefit obligations are measured on a discounted basis.
32. Short-term employee benefit include all, except:
a. Non-monetary benefits, such as medical care, housing, car and free subsidized
goods.
b. Wages and salaries
c. Profit-sharing and bonuses payable in more than twelve months after the end of the
reporting period.
33. Employee benefits that are payable as a result of an entity’s decision to terminate an
employee’s employment before the normal retirement date, or an employee’s decision to
accept an offer of benefits in exchange for termination of employment are referred to as:
a. Post-employment employee benefits
b. Short-term employee benefits
c. Other Long-term employee benefits
d. Termination benefits
34. An enterprise announced publicly commitment to a voluntary redundancy plan. The
enterprise has an obligation to pay employees that choose voluntary redundancy a lump
sum equal to three times their gross annual salary. What is the obligation to pay employees
that choose voluntary redundancy?
a. Post-employment employee benefits
b. Short-term employee benefits
c. Other Long-term employee benefits
d. Termination benefits
35. Which of the following entities are required to report on business segments?
a. Nonpublic entities
b. Joint ventures
c. Not for profit entities
d. Publicly traded entities
36. Entity-wide disclosures are required for publicly-held entities with
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 UNIVERSITY OF PERPETUAL HELP SYSTEM LAGUNA-ISABELA CAMPUS
COLLEGE OF BUSINES AND ACCOUNTANCY
MINANTE UNO, CAUAYAN CITY, ISABELA

a. One reportable segment

b. At least ten segments
c. More than one reportable segment
d. One reportable segment and more than one reportable segment.
37. Which of the following is a required enterprise-wide disclosure regarding external
customers?
a. The fact that transactions with a particular external customer constitute at least
10% of the total entity revenue.
b. Information on major customers is not required in segment reporting.
c. The entity of any external customer providing 10% or more of a particular operating
segment revenue.
d. The identity of any external customer considered to be “major” by management.
38. An entity must disclose all of the following about each reportable segment if the
amounts are used by the chief operating decision maker, except:
a. Income tax expense
b. Depreciation expense
c. Allocated expense
d. Interest expense
39. For segment reporting purposes, which tests must be applied to determine if a
component is a reportable operating segment?
a. Revenue test, asset test and cash flow test
b. Revenue test, asset test and expense test
c. Revenue test, asset test and profit or loss test
d. . Revenue test, and asset test
40. The approach in segment reporting is known as:
a. Management approach
b. Segment approach
c. Enterprise approach
d. Revenue approach
41. An entity must disclose all of the following about each reportable segment if the
amounts are used by the chief operating decision maker, except:
a. Intersegment revenue
b. Income tax expense
c. Unusual items
d. Cost of Goods Sold

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 UNIVERSITY OF PERPETUAL HELP SYSTEM LAGUNA-ISABELA CAMPUS
COLLEGE OF BUSINES AND ACCOUNTANCY
MINANTE UNO, CAUAYAN CITY, ISABELA

42. Which statement is incorrect regarding identification of associates?

a. A holding of 20% or more of the voting power (directly or through subsidiaries ) will
indicate significant influence unless it can be clearly demonstrated otherwise.
b. If the holding is less than 20%, the investor will be presumed not to have significant
influence unless such influence can be clearly demonstrated.
c. Potential voting rights are a factor to be considered in deciding whether significant
influence exists.
d. A substantial or majority ownership by another investor precludes an investor
from having a significant influence.
43. An entity over which the investor has significant influence is called a (an):
a. Associate
b. Subsidiary
c. Joint Venture
d. Joint Operation
44. Which of the following is correct regarding the classification of investment in debt
instruments as financial asset at Fair Value through OCI?
a. This classification is not allowed for investment in debt securities.
b. This classification is same as “available-for-sale”
c. This classification is generally an unrestricted option.
d. In order to be classified at fair value through OCI, a debt instrument need to both
have simple principal and interest cash flows and be held in a business model in
which both holding and selling financial assets are integral to meeting management’s
objectives.
45. Which of the following are reported at fair value?
a. Debt Investments
b. Equity Investments
c. Both debt and equity investments
d. None of these
46. If the combined market value of trading securities at the end of the year is less than the
market value of the same portfolio of trading securities at the beginning of the year, the
difference should be accounted for by:
a. Reporting an unrealized loss in security investments in the stockholders’ equity section
of the balance sheet.
b. Reporting an unrealized loss in security investments in the income statement.
c. A footnote to the financial statements
d. A credit to the Investment in Trading Securities

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 UNIVERSITY OF PERPETUAL HELP SYSTEM LAGUNA-ISABELA CAMPUS
COLLEGE OF BUSINES AND ACCOUNTANCY
MINANTE UNO, CAUAYAN CITY, ISABELA

47. Significant influence as defined in PAS 28 is

a. The power to participate in the financial and operating policy decisions of the
investee but is not control or joint control over those policies.
b. Deemed to exist when the investor is exposed, or has rights, to variable returns from its
involvement with the investee and has the ability to affect those returns through its power
over the investee.
c. The contractually agreed-sharing of control of an agreement, which exists only when
decisions about the relevant activities require the unanimous consent of the parties sharing
control.
d. The power to govern the financial and operating policies of an entity so as to obtain
benefits from its activities.
48. The interest rate written in the terms of the bond indenture is known as the
a. Coupon Rate
b. Nominal Rate
c. Stated Rate
d. Coupon Rate, Nominal rate, or Stated rate
49. Segment revenue includes
a. Sales to unaffiliated customers
b. Sales to unaffiliated customers and intersegment sales
c. Sales to unaffiliated customers and interest revenue
d. Sales to unaffiliated customers and other income
50. In financial reporting for operating segments, an entity shall disclose all of the
following, except:
a. Type of product from which each reportable segment derives revenue
b. The title of the chief operating decision maker.
c. Factors used to identify the reportable segments.
d. Segment profit or loss.
51. The term chief operating decision- maker
a. refers to a manager with specific title.
b. must be disclosed by title
c. Must be described in the disclosures for segments.
d. Refers to a function of allocating resources to the operating segments and
assessing their performance.
52. Which is true about major customer disclosure?
a. A major customer is defined as one providing revenue which amounts to 10% or more of
the combined external revenue of all operating segments.

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 UNIVERSITY OF PERPETUAL HELP SYSTEM LAGUNA-ISABELA CAMPUS
COLLEGE OF BUSINES AND ACCOUNTANCY
MINANTE UNO, CAUAYAN CITY, ISABELA

b. The identities of major customers need not be disclosed.

c. The entity shall disclose the total amount of revenue from all major customers.
d. All of these statements are true about major customer disclosure.
53. Debt investment not held for collection of contractual cash flows are reported at:
a. Amortized cost
b. Fair Value
c. The lower of cost and fair value
d. Net Realizable Value
54. Debt investments reported at amortized cost are
a. Managed and evaluated based on a documented risk management strategy
b. Trading debt investments
c. Held for collection debt investments
d. All of these are correct.
55. Debt investment held for collection of contractual cash flows are reported at:
a. Amortized cost
b. Fair Value
c. The lower of cost and fair value
d. Net Realizable Value
56. Under IFRS, the presumption is that equity investments are
a. Held for trading
b. Held to profit from price changes
c. Held for trading and held to profit from price changes
d. Held as financial assets at fair value through other comprehensive income.
57. Which of the following is a characteristic of a financial asset held for trading?
a. It is acquired principally for the purpose of selling or repurchasing it in the near
term.
b. It is measured at FVOCI.
c. Any unrealized gain or loss is recognized as a component of OCI.
d. Any gain or loss on disposal is directly recognized retained earnings.
58. Which describes a “principal market” for an asset?
a. The market that has the greatest volume and level of activity for the asset
b. Any broker or dealer market
c. The most observable market

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 UNIVERSITY OF PERPETUAL HELP SYSTEM LAGUNA-ISABELA CAMPUS
COLLEGE OF BUSINES AND ACCOUNTANCY
MINANTE UNO, CAUAYAN CITY, ISABELA

d. The market that maximizes the amount received.

59. Which is not included in key management personnel compensation?
a. Short- term benefit
b. Social Security Contributions
c. Termination Benefit
d. Reimbursement of out-of-pocket costs.
60. A related party transaction is a transfer
a. Between related parties when a price is charged
b. Between related parties, regardless of whether a price is charged.
c. Between unrelated parties when a price is charged
d. Between unrelated parties, regardless of whether a price is charged
61. Which should be disclosed as related party transaction in the consolidated financial
statements?
a. Key management personnel compensation
b. Sales to affiliated entities
c. Key management personnel compensation and sales to affiliated entities.
d. Neither the key management personnel compensation nor sales to affiliated entities.
62. Which of the following is the core principle under PAS 23?
a. Borrowing costs incurred in the acquisition, construction or production of a qualifying
asset is expensed. Alternatively, such borrowing costs may be capitalized.
b. Borrowing costs that are directly attributable to the acquisition, construction or
production of a qualifying asset form part of the cost of that asset. Other borrowing
costs are recognized as an expense.
c. Borrowing costs that are directly attributable to the acquisition, construction or
production of a qualifying asset form part of the cost of that asset. Alternatively, such
borrowing costs are recognized as an expense.
d. Borrowing costs that are directly attributable to the acquisition, construction or
production of any long-lived asset form part of the cost of that asset. Alternatively, such
borrowing costs are recognized as an expense.
63. These refer to interest and other costs incurred by an entity in connection with the
borrowing of funds.
a. borrowed costs c. borrowing costs
b. interest income d. cost of qualifying asset
64. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. According to PAS 28 Investments in Associates, a partnership cannot be an associate.
b. Goodwill included in the carrying amount of an investment in an associate is tested for

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 UNIVERSITY OF PERPETUAL HELP SYSTEM LAGUNA-ISABELA CAMPUS
COLLEGE OF BUSINES AND ACCOUNTANCY
MINANTE UNO, CAUAYAN CITY, ISABELA

impairment separately.
c. Only investments in ordinary shares can be classified as Investment in Associate.
d. Only investments which give the investor voting rights can be classified as
Investment in
Associate.
65.Larry has pledged financial assets as security for a loan from Lobster. Which of the
following statements concerning disclosure of the pledged assets is correct?
a. Larry is not required to separately disclose the assets pledged as security.
b. Larry must disclose the assets pledged as security on the face of its Balance Sheet.
c. Larry must disclose the assets pledged as security in the notes to its financial statements.
d. Larry may disclose the assets pledged as security either on the face of its Balance
Sheet or in the notes to its financial statements.
66. In which of the following circumstances is derecognition of a financial asset not
appropriate?
a. The contractual rights to the cash flows of the financial assets have expired.
b. The financial asset has been transferred and substantially all the risks and rewards of
ownership of the transferred asset have also been transferred.
c. The financial asset has been transferred and the entity has retained substantially
all the risks and rewards of ownership of the transferred asset.
d. The financial asset has been transferred and the entity has neither retained nor
transferred substantially all the risks and rewards of ownership of the transferred asset. In
addition,the entity has lost control of the transferred asset.

67. An entity transfers a financial asset if, and only if, it

a. transfers the contractual rights to receive the cash flows of the financial asset
b. retains the contractual rights to receive the cash flows of the financial asset, but assumes
a contractual obligation to pay the cash flows to one or more recipients in an arrangement
that meets all the conditions required under PFRS 9 Financial Instruments
c. a or b
d. a and b
68. The process whereby financial assets are transformed into securities
a. equity set-off c. instrument modification
b. securitization d. instrument transformation
69. Offsetting financial assets and liabilities is permitted only when the entity
I. Has a legally enforceable right to set off the recognized amounts
II. Intends to settle the asset and liability on a net basis, or to realize the asset and settle the

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 UNIVERSITY OF PERPETUAL HELP SYSTEM LAGUNA-ISABELA CAMPUS
COLLEGE OF BUSINES AND ACCOUNTANCY
MINANTE UNO, CAUAYAN CITY, ISABELA

liability simultaneously
a. I b. II c. I or II d. I and II
70. Significant influence may be lost in any of the following, except
a. The investor loses its right to appoint board of directors in the associate
b. The investor purchases additional 31% interest in the associate
c. The associate is operating under severe long-term restrictions that significantly impair
its ability to transfer funds to the investor.
d. The investor retains its 20% interest in the associate but grants its voting rights to an
unrelated party.

“You did your best. Let God do the rest.”

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