Refrigeration and Air Conditioning

( Elements No. 1 )

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use black ball pen only.
1. A (n) ___________ wrench should be used on a valve stem.
a.) Allen Wrench b.) Miniature Pipe c.) Service Valve d.) Torx Key

2. When should you push and pull on a wrench?

a.) Push to loosen, pull to tighten c.) Always push
b.) Pull to loosen, push to tighten d.) Always pull

3. What tool should not be used on a slotted hexagon head bolt?

a.) Straight screw driver c.) Hex key wrench
b.) Nut pliers d.) Twelve-point wrench

4. Which of the following would not describe a box wrench?

a.) Straight b.) Offset c.) Double Offset d.) Open Ended

5. It is a branch of science that deals with the process of reducing and maintaining the temperature of a space or
a material below the temperature of the surroundings.
a.) Air Conditioning b.) Refrigeration c.) Heat Pumping d.) All of these

6. The high-pressure vapor heat exchanger in the refrigeration system.

a.) Evaporator b.) Condenser c.) Boiler d.) Heater

7. A refrigeration method of lowering and maintaining the temperature of a material or space by the use of literal
ice (water or other substance, say, dry ice).
a.) Ice Refrigeration c.) Vacuum Refrigeration
b.) Mechanical Refrigeration d.) Air Cycle Refrigeration

8. A method of refrigeration using air as refrigerant, and basically used for the air conditioning of aircraft.
a.) Ice Refrigeration c.) Vacuum Refrigeration
b.) Mechanical Refrigeration d.) Air Cycle Refrigeration

9. A method of refrigeration system using water as refrigerant; lowering and maintaining of system temperature
is attained by creation of vacuum condition through the action of steam jet. It is basically used in the air
condition system of a steam power plant.
a.) Ice Refrigeration c.) Vacuum Refrigeration
b.) Mechanical Refrigeration d.) Air Cycle Refrigeration

10. A method of refrigeration using mechanical components composing a system known as vapor-compression
refrigeration system.
a.) Ice Refrigeration c.) Vacuum Refrigeration
b.) Mechanical Refrigeration d.) Air Cycle Refrigeration

11. Standard vapor-compression refrigeration system has _____ evaporator temperature and _____ condenser
temperature.
a.) 5 ºF, 86 ºF b.) 0 ºF, 80 ºF c.) 5 ºF, 80 ºF d.) 32 ºF, 86 ºF

12. A component used to compress refrigerant vapor that causes the refrigerant to flow in the system.
a.) Evaporator b.) Compressor c.) Condenser d.) Expansion Valve

13. A component that reduces the pressure of the refrigerant in order to attain low temperature condition in the
evaporator.
a.) Evaporator b.) Compressor c.) Condenser d.) Expansion Valve

14. It is the component that condenses refrigerant vapor while rejecting heat to a cooling medium (either air or
water).
a.) Evaporator b.) Compressor c.) Condenser d.) Expansion Valve
15. What is a component used to evaporate liquid refrigerant while absorbing heat from the surrounding?
a.) Evaporator b.) Compressor c.) Condenser d.) Expansion Valve

16. These compressors increase the pressure of the refrigerant vapor by reducing the volume. Reciprocating
compressors are an example of these.
a.) Dynamic Compressors c.) Positive Displacement Compressors
b.) Centrifugal Compressors d.) Rotary Compressors

17. These compressors increase the pressure of refrigerant vapor by a continuous transfer of angular momentum
to the vapor from the rotating member followed by a conversion of this momentum into a pressure rise.
Centrifugal compressors are of this type.
a.) Dynamic Compressors c.) Positive Displacement Compressors
b.) Centrifugal Compressors d.) Rotary Compressors

18. It is a compressor that consists of one or more piston and cylinder combinations. The piston moves in
reciprocating motion to draw the suction gas into cylinder on one stroke and to compress and discharge it to
the condenser on the return stroke.
a.) Reciprocating Compressor c.) Centrifugal Compressor
b.) Rotary Compressor d.) Sliding Vane Compressor

19. It is a compressor that has a single or multi-stage high-speed impeller to set up enough centrifugal force
within a circular casing to raise the pressure of the refrigerant gas to condensing level.
a.) Reciprocating Compressor c.) Centrifugal Compressor
b.) Rotary Compressor d.) Sliding Vane Compressor

20. It is a positive displacement compressor that traps a given volume of gas, compresses it, and it ejects from
the machine. It usually has a rotor revolving off-center in a cylinder with sliding vanes forced against the
cylinder wall. Refrigerant gas is compressed by the sliding vanes around the cylinder from suction port to the
discharge port.
a.) Reciprocating Compressor c.) Centrifugal Compressor
b.) Rotary Compressor d.) Rotary Sliding Vane Compressor

21. This compressor is another positive displacement compressor, and was first used for refrigeration in the late
1950’[Link] compressor basically consists of two mating helically grooved rotors, a male (lobes) and female
(grooves). In a stationary housing with suction and discharge ports.
a.) Reciprocating Compressor c.) Centrifugal Compressor
b.) Rotary Screw Compressor d.) Rotary Sliding Vane Compressor

22. It is a compressor with crankshaft extended through the compressor housing in which the motor is externally
coupled to the shaft. Ammonia compressors are manufactured only in this type.
a.) Open-type Compressor c.) Semi-hermetic Compressor
b.) Hermetic Compressor d.) Welded-shell (sealed) Hermetic Compressor

23. This compressor is a single or two-cylinder reciprocating compressor usually directly connected to a steam
engine or slow-speed synchronous motor. The compressor is a very ragged type one.
a.) Horizontal Double-Acting Compressor c.) V or VW Compressors
b.) Vertical Single-Acting Compressor d.) Angle Compressor

24. This compressor is a reciprocating machine, most commonly built in two, three or four-cylinder combinations
with medium rotative speeds, from 600 rpm in the smaller sizes to 300 rpm in the larger sizes.
a.) Horizontal Double-Acting Compressor c.) V or VW Compressors
b.) Vertical Single-Acting Compressor d.) Angle Compressor

25. These compressors are types of single-acting reciprocating compressors with cylinders and pistons arranged
in V, W or VV patterns, and may have as many as 16 cylinders for single compressors. These are high-speed
compressors, often direct-connected to the shaft of the driving motor. Common speed of the compressor is
1750 rpm.
a.) Horizontal Double-Acting Compressor c.) V or VW Compressors
b.) Vertical Single-Acting Compressor d.) Angle Compressor
26. This compressor is using one or more cylinder, usually driven by an internal combustion engine whose
pistons and connecting rods are connected to the same crankshaft. One set of cylinders operates in a
horizontal plane and the other in a vertical plane.
a.) Horizontal Double-Acting Compressor c.) V or VW Compressors
b.) Vertical Single-Acting Compressor d.) Angle Compressor

27. It is a rotary-motion, positive-displacement compressor that uses two inter-fitting, spiral-shaped scroll
members to compress the refrigerant vapor.
a.) Scroll Compressor c.) Single-Screw Compressors
b.) Trochoidal Compressor d.) Angle Compressor

28. This machine is small, rotary, orbital, positive-displacement device that can run at speeds up to 9000 rpm.
These compressors are manufactured in a variety of configurations, including the Wankel design.
a.) Scroll Compressor c.) Single-Screw Compressors
b.) Trochoidal Compressor d.) Angle Compressor

29. These compressors are characterized by a continuous exchange of angular momentum between a rotating
mechanical element and a steadily flowing fluid.
a.) Centrifugal Compressors c.) Reciprocating Compressors
b.) Rotary Compressors d.) Hermetic Compressors

30. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a.) Expansion Valve b.) Evaporator c.) Suction Line d.) Compressor

31. This valve positions the valve spool to admit the refrigerant as required by evaporator load.
a.) Thermostatic Expansion Valve c.) Capillary Tube
b.) Electric Expansion Valve d.) Short Tube Restrictor

32. This is not a valve, but effectively replaces the expansion valve in many applications. It is a long thin tube
placed between the condenser and the evaporator. The small diameter and long length of the tube produce a
large pressure drop.
a.) Thermostatic Expansion Valve c.) Capillary Tube
b.) Electric Expansion Valve d.) Short Tube Restrictor

33. This is widely used in place of capillary tube in residential systems. It has high reliability, low cost, and easily
inspected and replaced.
a.) Thermostatic Expansion Valve c.) Capillary Tube
b.) Electric Expansion Valve d.) Short Tube Restrictor

34. It is used to maintain a relatively constant minimum pressure in the evaporator.

a.) Evaporator Pressure Regulator c.) Short Tube Restrictor
b.) Suction Pressure Regulator d.) Short Tube Restrictor

35. The main application of evaporator pressure regulator.

a.) To set a minimum evaporator temperature to permit the use of different
evaporators at different pressures on the same compressor.
b.) Used for limiting the maximum pressure at compressor suction
c.) It reduces the compressor load during the start-up period
d.) All of these

36. The main advantage of the capillary tube:

a.) It has high reliability, low cost, and easily inspected and replaced
b.) Its simplicity and low cost; and it is not subject to wear
c.) It is a load-limiting device
d.) All of these

37. The main advantage of Short Tube Restrictor:

a.) It has high reliability, low cost, and easily inspected and replaced
b.) Its simplicity and low cost; and it is not subject to wear
c.) It is a load-limiting device
d.) All of these
38. This is the component in the refrigeration circuit where heat is removed from the substance being cooled, air
or water in the case of air conditioning.
a.) Compressor b.) Condenser c.) Evaporator d.) Expansion Valve

39. This evaporator is used mostly for water chilling. It has liquid covering the whole of its heat transfer surfaces.
The evaporator is the cheaper and is in common use for larger duties and for centrifugal machines.
a.) Flooded shell-and-tube evaporator c.) Submerged Evaporator
b.) Dry shell-and-tube evaporator d.) Baudelot Cooler

40. This evaporator is used for both water chilling and for air conditioning. In this type, water flows in the shell
outside the tubes, turbulence and consequent good heat transfer being assisted by baffles, the refrigerant
evaporating within the tubes. It is preferred, because of its lower cost, for duties below 140 kW.
a.) Flooded shell-and-tube evaporator c.) Submerged Evaporator
b.) Dry shell-and-tube evaporator d.) Baudelot Cooler

41. In this evaporator, the water circuit is open and the water storage vessel constitutes its own feed and
expansion tank. Heat transfer from this coil is promoted by employing water agitator.
a.) Flooded shell-and-tube evaporator c.) Submerged Evaporator
b.) Dry shell-and-tube evaporator d.) Baudelot Cooler

42. The evaporator type is used for water chilling up to the temperature of 2 ºC or lower.
a.) Flooded shell-and-tube evaporator c.) Submerged Evaporator
b.) Dry shell-and-tube evaporator d.) Baudelot Cooler

43. These are the transport fluids that convey the heat energy from the low-temperature level to the high-
temperature level where it can in terms of heat transfer give up its heat.
a.) Refrigerants b.) Working Substance c.) Ammonia d.) Methane

44. It is the designation for other refrigerants that are chlofluorocarbons but cause little or no ozone destruction.
a.) HCFC or HFC b.) CFC c.) ODP d.) HFC

45. HCFC stands for _____________.

a.) Chlorofluorocarbon c.) Chlorofluorocarbon
b.) Hydrochlorofluorocarbon d.) None of these

46. HFC stands for ________________.

a.) Chlorofluorocarbon c.) Chlorofluorocarbon
b.) Hydrochlorofluorocarbon d.) Hydrochlorocarbon

47. It is an international agreement, that look effect in 1989, and the New Clean Air Act that was signed in 1990,
that limit the production and regulate the use and disposal of chlofluorocarbon (CFC) refrigerants.
a.) International Agreement c.) Tariff Standard
b.) Montreal Protocol d.) Refrigerant Code

48. It is the ozone-destroying power of a substance measured relative to refrigerant 11 (R-11 or CFC-11).
a.) Ozone Depletion Potential c.) Montreal Protocol
b.) Global Warming Potential d.) All of these

49. It is a relative measure of the ability of a substance to cause an increase in the temperature of the
atmosphere by absorbing solar and earth radiation that is relative to the effect of refrigerant 11.
a.) Ozone Depletion Potential c.) Montreal Protocol
b.) Global Warming Potential d.) All of these

50. This is a mode of heat transfer by electromagnetic waves, an entirely different phenomenon from conduction
and convection; it can occur in a perfect vacuum and is usually impeded by an intervening medium. What is
the mode of heat transfer ?
a.) Thermal Radiation c.) Thermal Conductivity
b.) Thermal Transmission d.) Thermal Convection

51. It is a form of thermal convection when the motion of the fluid is due entirely to buoyancy forces, usually
confined to a layer near the heated or cooled surface. How do you call this thermal convection mode of heat
transfer ?
 a.) Free Convection c.) Transient Convection
b.) Force Convection d.) Normal Convection

52. What are the refrigerants that are chlorofluorocarbons but cause a little ozone destruction ?
a.) CFC Refrigerants c.) HFC Refrigerants
b.) HCFC Refrigerants d.) Inorganic Refrigerants

53. What is the refrigerant commonly used in ice-plant refrigeration ?

a.) R-12 b.) R-22 c.) Ammonia d.) R-40

54. What do you call a refrigeration system in which the refrigerant gas evolved in the evaporator is taken up in
an absorber and released in a generator upon the application of heat ?
a.) Absorption Refrigeration System c.) Flooded Refrigeration System
b.) Cascade Refrigeration System d.) Steam Jet Refrigeration System
55. Which of the following is true for white ice ?
a.) A fast-cooled water c.) Due to dissolved air, gases and impurities
b.) A sub-cooled water d.) Formed by blowing air during freezing

56. In the detection of refrigerant leak, sulphur stick burning in the presence of ammonia will release of which of
the following colors of smoke ?
a.) Dense White b.) Dense Yellow c.) Dense Orange d.) Dense Red

57. As a general rule, the cooling water side of the condenser should be scheduled for inspection every which of
the following number of months ?
a.) Month b.) 3 Months c.) 6 Months d.) Year

58. When adding the refrigerant in a refrigeration system, it shall be charge into which of the following parts of the
system ?
a.) High Pressure Side c.) Low and High Pressure Side
b.) Low Pressure Side d.) Compressor Discharge Line

59. Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant ?

a.) Low Thermal Conductivity c.) Low Condensing Pressure
b.) Low Freezing Point d.) Low Viscosity

60. It is the process of treating air so as to control simultaneously its temperature, humidity, cleanliness and
distribution to meet the comfort requirements of the occupants of the conditioned room or space. What is this
?
a.) Comfort Air Conditioning c.) Industrial Air Conditioning
b.) Summer Air Conditioning d.) Commercial Air Conditioning

61. It is the ozone-destroying power of a substance measured relative to refrigerant 11 (R-11 or CFC-11)
a.) Ozone Depletion Potential (ODP) c.) Hydofluorocarbon (HFC)
b.) Hydrochloroflurocarbon (HCFC) d.) Global Warming Potential (GWP)

62. How do you classify a solenoid valve ?

a.) A thermal valve c.) A bellows valve
b.) A magnetic stop valve d.) A bi-metallic valve

63. What is a thermostat ?

a.) A temperature-operated switch c.) A superheat-operated switch
b.) A pressure-operated switch d.) A back pressure-operated switch

64. Which of the following ranges of humidity ratio is used for comfort air conditioning ?
a.) 50 to 55 % b.) 55 to 60 % c.) 60 to 65 % d.) 45 to 50 %
65. What is a body insulation that is usually described as a single equivalent uniform layer over the whole body ?
a.) Skin b.) Blood c.) Clothing d.) Water

66. The amount of heat required or needed to raise the temperature of one pound of the substance one degree
Fahrenheit.
a.) Specific Heat b.) Internal Energy c.) Latent Heat d.) All of the above
67. The amount of heat added to or removed from a substance that can be measured by a change in a
temperature of the substance.
a.) Specific Heat b.) Sensible Heat c.) Latent Heat d.) Internal Energy

68. The amount of heat added to or removed from a substance to cause a change of state without a change in
temperature.
a.) Specific Heat b.) Sensible Heat c.) Latent Heat d.) Internal Energy

69. The amount of heat needed to change a substance from solid to the liquid state.
a.) Specific Heat c.) Latent Heat of Vaporization
b.) Latent Heat of Fusion d.) Heat of Conduction

70. The amount of heat required to change a substance from the liquid to the vapor stated.
a.) Specific Heat c.) Latent Heat of Vaporization
b.) Latent Heat of Fusion d.) Heat of Conduction

71. The value of latent heat of vaporization for one lb of water at standard atmospheric pressure.
a.) 970 Btu b.) 2257 Btu c.) 144 Btu d.) 335 Btu

72. The amount of latent heat of fusion for one lb water at standard atmospheric pressure.
a.) 970 Btu b.) 2257 Btu c.) 144 Btu d.) 335 Btu/lb

73. The unit of heat in the English System of Units.

a.) Btu b.) ft-lb c.) Hp d.) ft-lb/min

74. What is the unit of work in the English System ?

a.) Btu b.) ft-lb c.) ft-lb/min d.) Btu/min

75. An instrument used to measure the DB-temperature and the wet-bulb temperature of moist air.
a.) Phsycrometer b.) Thermometer c.) Hydrometer d.) Hygrometer

76. How do you call the pressure, in psi, above a complete vacuum ?
a.) Gage Pressure c.) Vacuum Pressure
b.) Absolute Pressure d.) Atmospheric Pressure

77. A temperature in which moisture content of moist air starts to condense.

a.) Wet-bulb Temperature c.) Dew Point Temperature
b.) Dry-bulb Temperature d.) Saturation Temperature

78. For each gas there exists a temperature above which it cannot be liquefied, regardless of pressure. This
temperature is called as ____________.
a.) Wet-bulb Temperature c.) Critical Temperature
b.) Dry-bulb Temperature d.) Saturation Temperature

79. Thee co called _________ at substances used in laboratory methods of producing a drop in temperature.
a.) Brine Mixture c.) Frigorific Mixture
b.) Water-ammonia Mixture d.) Ice and Salt Mixture

80. Adding 10 % salt (NₐCl), by weight, to water lowers its freezing point from 32 ºF to ___________.
a.) 18.7 ºF b.) 0 ºF c.) 15.7 ºF d.) 32 ºF

81. It is the basis of all refrigeration calculations, whether for old storage, air conditioning, ice cream
manufacturing.
a.) Refrigerating Effect c.) Coefficient of Performance
b.) Ton of Refrigeration d.) Compressor Hp

82. Which of the following is the component of vapor-compression refrigeration not belonging to high pressure
side ?
a.) Condenser b.) Compressor c.) Expansion Valve d.) Liquid Line

83. Another term for suction pressure.

a.) Discharge Pressure c.) Back Pressure
 b.) Heat Pressure d.) Condenser Pressure

84. The amount of heat absorbed in the evaporator, which is the same as the amount of heat removed from the
space to be cooled.
a.) Tons of Refrigeration c.) Coefficient of Performance
b.) Refrigerating Effect d.) Compressor Hp

85. Too much oil in the compressor would _____________.

a.) Absorb too much refrigerant from the system
b.) Damage the expansion valve
c.) Cause leakage through the shaft seals
d.) Deposit oil on the condenser tube

86. Which of the following has the lowest boiling point or temperature ?
a.) NHᴈ b.) CO2 c.) F-22 d.) F-21

87. Which of the following would cause a high suction pressure ?

a.) Expansion valve not open wide enough
b.) Expansion valve open too wide
c.) King valve not open wide enough
d.) Dirty dehydrator

88. Which of the following would cause high head pressure or condenser pressure ?
a.) Dirty condenser c.) Pressure of air in the cooling water
b.) Insufficient cooling water d.) All of these

89. Which of the following would cause low head pressure ?

a.) Insufficient cooling water
b.) Too much cooling water
c.) Insufficient refrigerant gas
d.) Too much cooling water and or insufficient refrigerant gas

90. The dehydrator is located ____________.

a.) Between the receiver and king valve
b.) Between the receiver and expansion valve
c.) Between the condenser and king valve
d.) Between the condenser and accumulator

91. Which of the following is the purpose or function of the dehydrator ?

a.) To remove oil from the refrigerant
b.) Too add more refrigerant to the system
c.) To remove moisture from the refrigerant
d.) To remove moisture from the crank case oil

92. Which of the following would you apply if you got Freon in your yes ?
a.) Soapy water c.) Clean water
b.) Sterile mineral oil d.) Sodium bicarbonate

93. What is the heart of the refrigeration system ?

a.) Condenser b.) Evaporator c.) Compressor d.) Expansion valve

94. Water in the refrigerant is liable to ______________.

a.) Clog the oil trap
b.) Freeze in the king valve
c.) Emulsify the oil in the compressor
d.) To freeze on the expansion seat and cut the flow of liquid refrigerant

95. The purpose of the scale trap is _____________.

a.) To control the amount of scale going to the compressor
b.) To remove insoluble gases from the refrigerant
c.) To remove dirt, scale and metal chips from the refrigerant
d.) To dissolve scale and dirt in the system
96. What is the function of expansion valve ?
a.) To regulate the amount of liquid refrigerant to the expansion coils
b.) To change the high-pressure liquid to low-pressure liquid
c.) To change the gas refrigerant to liquid
d.) To shut off the flow of refrigerant to the condenser

97. The oil separator or oil trap is located between ______________

a.) Receiver and the king valve
b.) Condenser and the receiver
c.) Compressor discharge valve and the condenser
d.) Receiver and the king valve

98. The purpose of the oil trap or oil separator is _______________

a.) To remove oil from the refrigerant gas
b.) To remove oil from the charging tank
c.) To add oil to the compressor
d.) To remove oil from the evaporator

99. Which of the following is the boiling point of ammonia at standard atmospheric pressure ?
a.) - 28 ºC b.) - 28 ºF c.) 0 ºF d.) 32 ºF
 Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
( Elements No. 2 )

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil No. 1 only.

1. A refrigerating unit of one ton capacity can remove :

a.) 500 Btu per min. c.) 200 Btu per min.
b.) 288 Btu per min. d.) 100 Btu per min.

2. Too much oil in the compressor would :

a.) Absorb too much refrigerant from the system
b.) Damage the expansion valve
c.) Cause leakage through the shaft seals
d.) Deposit oil on the condenser tubes

3. The refrigerant with the lowest boiling point is:

a.) NH3 b.) CO2 c.) F-12 d.) F-22

4. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the removal of :

a.) 288,000 Btu per 24 hrs. c.) 28,800 Btu per 24 hrs.
b.) 28,000 Btu per 24 hrs. d.) 280,000 Btu per 24 hrs.

5. Which of the following would cause a high suction pressure ?

a.) Expansion valve not open wide enough
b.) Expansion valve open too wide
c.) King valve not open wide enough
d.) Dirty dehydrator

6. Which of the following would cause high head pressure ?

a.) Dirty condenser c.) Air in the cooling water
b.) Insufficient cooling water d.) All of the above

7. Which of the following would cause low head pressure ?

a.) Too much cooling water c.) Insufficient cooling water
b.) Insufficient refrigeration gas d.) A and B

8. The principle of the mechanical refrigeration is :

a.) The absorption of temperature under heat, pressure, compression and
expansion
b.) The compression of a liquid under temperature and expansion
c.) The absorption of heat under temperature, compression, pressure and
expansion
d.) The conversion of a liquid to a gas

9. The function of the expansion valve is to :

a.) Change the high-pressure liquid to low-pressure liquid
b.) Regulate the amount of liquid refrigerant to the expansion valve
c.) Change the gas refrigerants to a liquid
d.) Shut off the flow of refrigeration to the condenser

10. The oil separator (trap) is located between the :

a.) Compressor discharge valve and the condenser
b.) Condenser and the receiver
c.) Receiver and the king valve
d.) Receiver and the expansion valve

11. The purpose of oil trap is :

a.) To remove oil from the charging tank
b.) To add oil to the compressor
 c.) To remove oil from the refrigerant gas
d.) None of the above

12. The boiling point of ammonia at atmospheric pressure is:

a.) -28 ºC b.) 28 ºC c.) 28 ºC d.) -28 ºF

13. The boiling point of CO2 at atmospheric pressure is :

a.) 10 ºF b.) -110 ºC c.) 110 ºC d.) -110 ºF

14. The boiling point of Freon at atmospheric pressure is :

a.) -22 ºF b.) 22 ºF c.) 22 ºC d.) -22 ºC

15. The dehydrator is located between the :

a.) Receiver and the king valve c.) Condenser and king valve
b.) Receiver and the expansion valve d.) Condenser and the receiver

16. The purpose of the dehydrator is to :

a.) Remove oil from the refrigerant
b.) Add more refrigerant to the system
c.) Remove moisture from the refrigerant
d.) Remove moisture from the crankcase oil

17. Which of the following would you apply if a person got Freon on his eyes ?
a.) Soapy water c.) Clean water
b.) Sterile mineral oil d.) Sodium Bicarbonate

18. The heart of refrigeration system is :

a.) Condenser b.) Compressor c.) Evaporator d.) Expansion Valve

19. The thermal expansion valve :

a.) Controls the amount of gas coming from the dehydrator
b.) Maintains a constant superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator coil
c.) Controls the amount of gas going to the receiver
d.) Remove trap oil from the refrigerant

20. Water in the refrigerant is liable to :

a.) Freeze on the expansion seat and cut the flow of liquid refrigerant
b.) Emulsify the oil in the compressor
c.) Freeze in the king valve
d.) Clog the oil trap

21. The purpose of the scale trap is to :

a.) Control the amount of scale going to the compressor
b.) Remove insoluble gases form the refrigerant
c.) Remove dirt, scale and metal chips from the refrigerant
d.) Dissolve scale and dirt in the system

22. A double-seated valve allow the valve to be :

a.) Packed only in the closed position
b.) Packed in wide open or closed position
c.) Operated as a suction or discharge valve
d.) Removed for replacement without shutting down

23. Sensible heat :

a.) Can be measured with a thermometer
b.) Cannot be measure with a thermometer
c.) Changes in the receiver tank
d.) Increases with the cold

24. The latent heat of the fusion is the amount of heat required to convert :
 a.) Two lbs. of ice at 32 ºF to one lb. of ice at 32 ºF
b.) One lb. of ice at 32 ºF to one lb. of water at 32 ºF
c.) One lb. of ice at 32 ºF to one lb. of steam at 32 ºF
d.) Two lbs. of ice at 32 ºF to one lb. of water at 32 ºF

25. The latent heat of vaporization of water is :

a.) 144 Btu b.) 940 Btu c.) 970 Btu d.) 28 Btu

26. The latent heat of vaporization is the amount of heat required to convert :
a.) One lb. of water at 212 ºF to one lb. of steam at 212 ºF
b.) One lb. of water at 180 ºF to one lb. of steam at 180 ºF
c.) Two lbs. of water at 212 ºF to one lb. of steam at 212 ºF
d.) One lb. of ice at 32 ºF to one lb. of steam at 212 ºF

27. Too high suction pressure could be cause by :

a.) Expansion valve open too wide
b.) Leaky suction valves
c.) Expansion valve bulb not working properly
d.) Any of the above

28. How is an ammonia system purged so that the operator will not be overcome by the fumes ?
a.) Into that atmospheric line c.) Into a bucket of lube oil
b.) Into a bucket of water d.) Back into the compressor

29. How is a CO2 system purged ?

a.) When CO2 comes out frost will form on a piece of metal held near the
outlet
b.) Through the king valve
c.) The CO2 will come out in liquid form
d.) Pumped out with a suction pump

30. How is Freon system purged ?

a.) The same as the ammonia system c.) Back to the extra supply bottle
b.) The same as the CO2 system d.) With a reefer pump

31. Latent heat :

a.) Can be measured with a thermometer
b.) Can be measured with a pyrometer
c.) Cannot be measured with a thermometer
d.) Changes as the refrigerant cools

32. Absolute zero is :

a.) 970º below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
b.) 460º below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
c.) 144º below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
d.) The same as zero on the Centigrade scale

33. When the evaporator coils are located in the ice box, the system is known as a :
a.) Direct System c.) Indirect System
b.) Low-pressure System d.) High-pressure System

34. The amount of CO2 or Freon in a cylinder is measured by :

a.) Pressure b.) Volume c.) Weight d.) psi

35. If the compressor power increases while refrigeration load is constant, its COP will :
a.) Increase b.) Decrease c.) Constant d.) None of the above

36. The solenoid valve is controlled by :

a.) The amount of liquid in the system
b.) The amount of gas in the system
c.) The temperature in the condenser
d.) The thermal switch is operated by the icebox temperature
37. The purged valve is located :
a.) In the lowest part of the system c.) On the receiver discharge
b.) In the highest part of the system d.) On the evaporator coils

38. The system should be purged :

a.) While the system is operating
b.) While starting up the system
c.) After the system has been shut down for a few hours
d.) Once a week

39. The function of the compressor is to :

a.) Pull the refrigeration gas through the system
b.) Increase the pressure of the refrigeration
c.) Discharge the refrigerant to the condenser
d.) All of the above

40. The expansion valve is located between the :

a.) Receiver and evaporator c.) Compressor and condenser
b.) Evaporator and compressor d.) Condenser and receiver

41. If frost forms on the cylinders the cause would be :

a.) Expansion valve not open wide enough
b.) Charging valve left open
c.) Expansion valve open too wide
d.) Dehydrator not working properly

42. Which of the following would cause high head pressure ?

a.) Icebox door left open c.) Too much cooling water
b.) Insufficient cooling water d.) Suction valve not open enough

43. The high pressure side of the system is sometimes referred to as the :
a.) Suction Side b.) Cold Side c.) Hot Side d.) Filling Side

44. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the cooling effect of :

a.) 2000 lbs. of ice melting in 24 hrs.
b.) 2000 lbs. of ice melting in 12 hrs.
c.) 2000 lbs. of water being converted to ice
d.) 2240 lbs. of ice melting in 24 hrs.

45. The scale trap (liquid strainer) is located between the :

a.) Compressor and oil separator
b.) King (liquid) valve and expansion valve
c.) Expansion valve and evaporator coils
d.) Evaporator coils and compressor

46. When there is Freon leak, the halide torch will burn :
a.) Orange b.) Blue c.) White d.) Green

47. Which of the following could be used to check a leak in an ammonia system ?
a.) Litmus Paper b.) Halide Torch c.) Sulphur Stick d.) A and C

48. Valves and piping in an ammonia system are made of :

a.) Iron b.) Brass c.) Copper d.) Bronze

49. In an ammonia system, the oil gage must be kept :

a.) Closed except when checking oil level
b.) Open at all times
c.) Closed when machine is shut down
d.) Open when the machine is shut down

50. Freon is :
 a.) Colorless b.) Odorless c.) Non-poisonous d.) All of the above

51. Which of the following gasket materials should be used on a Freon system ?
a.) Metallic b.) Asbestos c.) Rubber d.) A and B

52. A double-pipe condenser has :

a.) Two piping system side by side, one with cooling water and one with
refrigerant
b.) A small pipe inside a larger pipe, the cooling water passing through the
small pipe and the refrigerant through the larger pipe
c.) Two pipe for cooling water and one for the refrigerant
d.) None of the above

53. Air can be prevented from getting into the system by :

a.) Keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the high-pressure side tight
b.) Keeping the dehydrator clean at all times
c.) Keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the low-pressure side tight
d.) Running the refrigerant through the aerator

54. The agent used in an indirect refer system is :

a.) Sodium Chloride c.) Calcium Chloride
b.) Potassium Chloride d.) A and C

55. An ammonia leak will turn litmus paper :

a.) Blue b.) Red c.) Green d.) Yellow

56. A sulphur stick burning in the presence of ammonia will give off a :
a.) Dense yellow smoke c.) Dense red smoke
b.) Dense white smoke d.) Dense green smoke

57. If the compressor where to run continuously without lowering the temperature, the trouble would probably be :
a.) Insufficient refrigerant in the system c.) Leaky discharge valves
b.) Leaks d.) Any of the above

58. Ammonia leaks in the condenser can be detected by :

a.) Smelling the discharge water
b.) Applying litmus paper to circulating water discharge
c.) Adding water to peppermint to the system and tracing the smell
d.) Applying a soapy mixture to the condenser heads and looking for bubbles

59. When purging an ammonia condenser into a bucket of water, one can tell when the air is out and ammonia
starts to come through by the :
a.) Smell of ammonia being liberated from the water
b.) Color of the water turning greed
c.) Color of the water turning bluish
d.) Change of the bubbling sound of air to the crackling sound of ammonia

60. Large leaks in a Freon system cannot always be detected with a halide torch because it changes color with
slight test amount of Freon present. A large leak can be detected easier by applying :
a.) Sheets of litmus paper to all joints and watch for color change
b.) A soupsuds solution, mixed with a little glycerin to hold the solution
together, and watch for bubbles.
c.) A thin layer of mineral oil to all joints and watch for bubbles
d.) A lightened candle at the joints and watching for leaky spots blowing candle flame

61. When the evaporator coils are located in a brine solution and brine is pump through the ice box. The system is
known as:
a.) A direct system c.) A low-pressure system
b.) An indirect system d.) A double-evaporator system
62. Obstruction of the expansion valve is usually caused by :
a.) Congealed oil in the system c.) Water in the system
b.) Scale d.) All of the above

63. Too low suction pressure could be caused by :

a.) Dirty scale traps c.) Too much oil in the system
b.) Shortage of refrigerant gas d.) Any of the above

64. If an electrically operated compressor failed to start, the cause might be :

a.) An open switch
b.) A blown fuse
c.) Burned-out holding coils in solenoid valve
d.) Any of the above

65. The oil separator is located between the :

a.) Evaporator and compressor
b.) Compressor and condenser
c.) Condenser and dehydrator
d.) Solenoid valve and the thermal expansion valve

66. To help person who have been exposed to ammonia gas, one would :
a.) Apply artificial respiration c.) Apply cold compress
b.) Wrap in warm blankets d.) Douse with cold water

67. If the compressor short cycles on the low-pressure cut-out, the trouble might be :
a.) Lack of refrigerant c.) Too much frost on coils
b.) Dirty trap and strainers d.) Any of the above

68. Ammonia will corrode :

a.) Copper b.) Bronze c.) Brass d.) Any of the above

69. The dehydrating agent in the Freon system is usually :

a.) Slaked Time c.) Activated Alumina
b.) Sodium Chloride d.) Calcium Chloride

70. If any of the electrically controlled devices in a Freon system malfunction, which of the following valves will
also automatically shut off ?
a.) King valve c.) Solenoid valve
b.) Expansion valve d.) Condenser cooling-water inlet valve

71. Many pressure gases on a Freon system gave two dials or graduations on one gage. The two dials represent
:
a.) Pressure and temperature
b.) Liquid pressure and gas pressure
c.) Suction and discharge pressure
d.) Cooling-water inlet and outlet temperatures

72. A leaky discharge valve can usually detected by :

a.) A fluctuating high-pressure gage
b.) A drop in icebox temperature
c.) A discharge pressure lower than normal
d.) Any of the above

73. The suction if a Freon system should be :

a.) The pressure which corresponds with the temperature about 20 ºF
below the temperature of the icebox
b.) The pressure which corresponds with the temperature equal to the
temperature of the icebox
c.) The pressure which corresponds with a temperature about 20 º above the
temperature of the icebox
d.) None of the above
74. The disadvantage of a CO2 system over an ammonia system is the fact that :
a.) The CO2 system requires a larger prime mover
b.) The CO2 system operated at a much higher temperature
c.) The piper and fittings of a CO2 system must be of the high pressure type
d.) All of the above

75. One disadvantage of a CO2 system is the fact that :

a.) It is different to condense the refrigerant if the circulating water
temperature is too high
b.) It is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the circulating water temperature is
low
c.) Due to high pressure it is difficult to keep oil from mixing with refrigerant
d.) It takes more refrigerant to keep the iceboxes cold

76. The crossover connection in an ammonia system can be used to :

a.) Reduce the pressure on the discharge side of the condenser
b.) Hot-gas defrost
c.) Pump air out of the system
d.) Add refrigerant to the system

77. Another name for the discharge pressure is :

a.) Suction Pressure c.) Head Pressure
b.) Absolute Pressure d.) Condenser Pressure

78. Oil used in the refrigerating system is :

a.) Lube Oil SAE 20 c.) Lube Oil SAE 10
b.) Straight Mineral Oil d.) Vegetable Oil

79. The discharge pressure on the compressor should be :

a.) The pressure which corresponds to a temperature from 5º to 15 ºF below that
of the condenser discharge
b.) The pressure which corresponds to a temperature from 5º to 15 ºF
higher than the condenser discharge
c.) The pressure which corresponds to a temperature equal of the condenser
discharge
d.) None of the above

80. A leaky suction valve can usually be detected by :

a.) A fluctuating suction-pressure gas
b.) A higher suction pressure
c.) Closing on the suction valve having no effect on the suction pressure
d.) Any of the above

81. The purpose of relief valve on refrigerating machines is to :

a.) Prevent overloading in the iceboxes
b.) Bypass the compressor when dehydrating
c.) Prevent excessive pressure in case of stopping on the discharge side of
the system
d.) A and B
82. The relief valve on an ammonia machine is located :
a.) On the discharge pipe from the condenser
b.) On the discharge pipe from the compressor
c.) In the compressor head
d.) A or B

83. The relief valve on a CO2 machine is located :

a.) On the discharge pipe from the condenser
b.) Next to the king valve
c.) On the discharge pipe between the compressor and the discharge valve
d.) In the compressor head
84. Excess frost on the evaporator coils :
a.) Keeps the icebox cooler
b.) Reduces the efficiency of the plant
c.) Takes the load off the compressor
d.) Does not affect the system

85. Air circulation in the icebox is accomplished by the used of :

a.) Louver Doors c.) Diffuser Fans
b.) Hollow Sidewalls d.) Air Vents to Deck

86. Before the securing a compressor to the maintenance on it, be sure to :

a.) Pump down system c.) Purge the system
b.) Have spare parts ready d.) A and B

87. Some causes of noisy compressor are :

a.) Worn bearings, pins, etc.
b.) Too oil in crankcase
c.) Slugging due to flooding back of refrigerant
d.) Any of the above

88. Slugging is usually cause by :

a.) Too much oil in the system
b.) Too much refrigerant in the system
c.) Expansion valve not operating properly
d.) Too much cooling water to condenser

89. Zinc rods are found in the :

a.) Evaporator coils c.) Compressor crankcase
b.) Salt-water side of condenser d.) Refrigerant side of crankcase

90. A double-trunk piston is used to :

a.) Prevent gas from getting to crankcase
b.) Absorb some of the side trust
c.) Prevent oil from mixing with the refrigerants
d.) All of the above

91. The purpose of the receiver is to :

a.) Cool the refrigerant gas c.) Store the refrigerant
b.) Separate the oil from the refrigerant d.) Condense the refrigerant

92. When a pressure gage reads zero, the absolute pressure is :

a.) 30 psi b.) 14.7 psi c.) 0 psi d.) 17.4 psi

93. The heat used to change a solid to a liquid is called :

a.) Latent heat of fusion c.) Latent heat of liquid
b.) Sensible heat fusion d.) Specific heat of fusion

94. The heat used to change a gas to a vapor is called :

a.) Latent heat of fusion c.) Specific heat of vaporization
b.) Latent heat of vaporization d.) Latent heat of the gas

95. Sweating of the crankcase is caused by :

a.) Too much superheat c.) Expansion valve hang up
b.) Insufficient superheat d.) Too much oil in the system

96. If an automatic Freon system will not start up, check the :
a.) High-pressure cutout c.) Reset mechanism
b.) Low-pressure cutout d.) All of the above

97. The cooling-water side of the condenser should be opened for inspection every :
a.) Six Months b.) Year c.) Two Years d.) Three Months
98. If the thermal expansion valve becomes imperative the iceboxes will have to be controlled by the :
a.) Solenoid Valve c.) King Valve
b.) Manual Expansion Valve d.) Manual Solenoid Valve

99. When should you push and pull on a wrench?

a.) Push to loosen, pull to tighten c.) Always push
b.) Pull to loosen, push to tighten d.) Always pull

100. What tool should not be used on a slotted hexagon head bolt?
a.) Straight screw driver c.) Hex key wrench
b.) Nut pliers d.) Twelve-point wrench
 Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
( Elements No. 3 )

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil No. 1 only.

1. The low pressure cutout switch is operated by :

a.) A magnet b.) A bellows c.) Spring Tension d.) Water Pressure

2. A good refrigeration should be :

a.) Non-poisonous c.) Non-inflammable
b.) Non-explosive d.) All of the above

3. If a refrigeration system extracted 48,800 Btu per hour, the tonnage of the machine would be :
a.) 5 tons b.) ½ tons c.) 2 tons d.) 4 tons

4. The purpose of the low-pressure cutout switch is to :

a.) Maintain liquid refrigeration at the suction of the compressor
b.) Maintain a present suction pressure to the compressor
c.) Cut out the compressor at a set pressure
d.) Cut compressor in and out a present pressure

5. The most likely cause of high superheat would be :

a.) Too much refrigerant
b.) Expansion valve open too wide
c.) Expansion valve closed too much
d.) Back pressure valve set too high

6. The purpose of the evaporator is to :

a.) Absorb latent heat of vaporization
b.) Absorb latent heat of fusion
c.) Transfer latent heat of vaporization
d.) Transfer latent heat of fusion

7. Air is removed from the system by :

a.) Increasing the amount of cooling water
b.) Opening the purge valve
c.) Running the refrigeration through an aerator
d.) Running the refrigerant through a daerator

8. The suction pressure switch is operated by :

a.) Electric Current c.) Pressure on bellows
b.) Thermocouple d.) A relay cutout

9. A hot suction line might be caused by :

a.) Insufficient refrigerant c.) Expansion valve closed too much
b.) Insufficient lubrication d.) Too much refrigeration

10. The device used for low-pressure control and high-pressure cutout on a compressor is called a :
a.) Cutout c.) Controller Switch
b.) Pressure Controller d.) Cutout Switch

11. Thermal expansion valves are usually of the :

a.) Bellow Type c.) Diaphragm Type
b.) Magnetic Type d.) A or C

12. Liquid reaching the compressor through suction line is called:

a.) Flooding back b.) Superheating c.) Overflowing d.) Recycling

13. Pressure controllers are usually of the :

 a.) Diaphragm-type construction
b.) Bellows-type construction
c.) Magnetic-type construction
d.) Pilot-valve type construction

14. If the cooling water to the condenser should suddenly fail:

a.) The solenoid valve will close
b.) The expansion valve will close
c.) The compressor will shut down
d.) An alarm will ring to notify the engineer

15. If the solenoid valve closed by accident , the compressor would be stopped by:
a.) Low-pressure cut out switch
b.) High-pressure cut out switch
c.) Low-water cut out switch
d.) Automatic trip

16. The solenoid valve controls the :

a.) Amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator coils
b.) Amount of refrigerant going to the expansion valve
c.) Amount of refrigerant going to the compressor
d.) Pressure of the refrigerant going to the evaporators coils
17. As Freon passes through the expansion valve.
a.) The volume decreases and the pressure increases
b.) The volume increases and the pressure increases
c.) The pressure decreases and the volume increases
d.) The volume decreases and the pressure decreases

18. When checking zinc plates in a condenser, one should :

a.) Paint the plates with red lead
b.) Install all new plates
c.) Clean the plates and renew worn-out ones
d.) Ground each plate to the shell

19. If the compressor short cycles on high pressure cutout, which of the following would you check ?
a.) Be user system is getting coiling water
b.) If plenty of cooling water is running through but it is not picking up heat, the
condense tubes need cleaning
c.) Check for too much refrigerant in the system
d.) All of the above

20. In a refrigerant system the temperature is at its between the :

a.) Condenser and receiver
b.) Compressor and condenser
c.) Receiver and evaporator
d.) Evaporator and compressor

21. A Freon unit will tend to short cycle when operating under :
a.) Heavy loads b.) Normal conditions c.) Light loads d.) All of the above

22. Short-cycling means that the machine :

a.) Grounds out frequently c.) Runs too fast
b.) Stops and starts frequently d.) Runs too slow

23. Freon is :
a.) Non-corrosive b.) Flammable c.) Non-toxic d.) A and C

24. A refrigerant should have a :

a.) High latent heat c.) Low latent heat
b.) High sensible heat d.) Low sensible heat

25. A method of reducing capacity without reducing compressor speed is called :

 a.) Low-pressure by passing c.) Hot-gas by passing
b.) High-pressure by passing d.) Short-cycling
26. The thermal expansion valve responds to the :
a.) The amount of superheat in the vapor leaving the coil
b.) Amount of superheat in the liquid
c.) Temperature in the evaporator coils
d.) Pressure in the evaporator coils

27. The bulbs for the thermal expansion valve is located :

a.) In the middle of evaporator coils
b.) Near the evaporator coil outlet
c.) Near the evaporator coil inlet
d.) On the bottom row of evaporator coils

28. A thermostat is a :
a.) Temperature-operated switch c.) Superheat-operated switch
b.) Pressure-oriented switch d.) Back-pressure-operated switch

29. The elements of thermostat switch are usually of the :

a.) Diaphragm Type c.) Valve Type
b.) Bimetal Type d.) Pilot-valve Type

30. When heavy electrical currents are involved, the thermostat will be operated by a :
a.) Small Circuit Breaker c.) Fusetron
b.) Pressure Pipe d.) Relay

31. If the compressor runs continually, the cause might be the :

a.) High-pressure cutout switch is jammed open
b.) Low-pressure switch is jammed about
c.) Thermal bulb is not operating properly
d.) scale trap is clogged

32. The solenoid valve can be types as a :

a.) Thermal Valve c.) Bellow Valve
b.) Magnetic Stop Valve d.) Bimetallic Valve

33. If the compressor had been running satisfactory, for a long period of time but the coil level was rising slowly,
the thing to do would be to :
a.) Drain out sufficient oil to bring it down to the proper running level
b.) Shut down the compressor and check the oil level with the machine
stopped
c.) Check the dehydrator cartridge
d.) Check to see if there is too much refrigerant in the system

34. If the compressor had been running satisfactory for a long period of time but suddenly the compartment
temperature started to rise, the trouble might be :
a.) Solenoid valve is jammed shut
b.) The expansion valve may have water frozen in it
c.) A refrigerant leak has developed
d.) Any of the above

35. When charging a Freon system, all the valves should be in their normal position except the :
a.) Expansion Valve c.) King Valve (liquid)
b.) Purge Valve d.) Solenoid Valve

36. Abnormal discharge temperatures would be caused by :

a.) Leaky suction valves c.) Fault piston ring
b.) Leaky discharge valves d.) Any of the above

37. A device for holding open the suction valve and drawing gas from the suction manifold and returning it top the
suction line without compressing it is called :
a.) Discharge Line Bypass c.) Suction Line Bypass
 b.) Cylinder Unloader d.) Relief Valve

38. As heat is removed open the suction valve and drawing gas from the suction manifold and returning it to the
suction manifold and returning it to the suction line without compressing it is called :
a.) Perfect Zero c.) Absolute Zero
b.) Double Zero d.) Cold Zero

39. The boiling point of water in an open container at sea level is 212 ºF, if the pressure on the open container is
decreased, such as going up to the top of the mountain, the boiling point will be :
a.) Increased b.) Decreased c.) The same d.) None of the above

40. Another name for the liquid valve is the :

a.) Master valve b.) King valve c.) Freon same d.) Shutoff valve

41. If the temperature in the icebox is too high, the trouble could be :
a.) A clogged scale trap
b.) Air in the system
c.) Automatic controls not functioning properly
d.) Insufficient cooling water to the condenser

42. Oil is added to Freon compressor by :

a.) Pouring through oil hole in base
b.) Pumping in with a hand pump
c.) Pumping in with an electric-drive pump
d.) Shutting down the machine and pouring in through the crankcase inspection
plate operating

43. If no gaskets are used in the piping joints of a Freon system, the joints must be :
a.) Finished joints c.) Ground joints
b.) Welded joints d.) Soldered joints

44. When adding oil a Freon system one must be sure that :
a.) All air is removed from the pump and fitting
b.) There is too high a suction pressure
c.) The discharge pressure is too high
d.) The condenser is shut down

45. If the head pressure is too high :

a.) The relief valve should open before the high-pressured cutout
b.) The relief valve should open and let excess refrigerant to receiver
c.) The high-pressure cutout switch should operate before relief valve
opens
d.) Closed in on three suction valve

46. If the compressor-discharge temperature is higher than the receiver temperature:

a.) Increase the amount of cooling water to the condenser
b.) Decrease the amount of cooling water to the condenser
c.) Add more refrigerant to the system
d.) Remover some of the refrigeration from the system

47. The dehydrator is used:

a.) To remove moisture from the system
b.) To remove moisture from the system
c.) When adding refrigerant to the system
d.) A and C

48. If the discharge side of the thermal expansion valve is warmer than the inlet side,
the :
a.) Expansion valve is working normally
b.) Expansion valve is not working normally
c.) Solenoid is not working normally
d.) Scale trip is dirty

49. The oil in the compressor should be checked :

a.) While the compressor is in operation
b.) Just before starting the compressor
 c.) After a long period of operation
d.) B and C

50. The relief valve is located on the :

a.) Discharge side of condenser
b.) Discharge side of compressor
c.) Outlet of the evaporator
d.) Receive tank

51. The expansion valve on Freon system controls the :

a.) Superheat of the gas leaving the compressor
b.) Back pressure in the evaporator
c.) Temperature of the icebox
d.) Superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator

52. The scale trap is located between the :

a.) King valve and the expansion valve c.) Evaporator valve and receiver
b.) Solenoid and expansion valve d.) Compressor and evaporator
53. If the high-pressure switch on the compressor opens and stops the compressor,
a possible cause should be :
a.) Too much cooling water going through the condenser
b.) Not enough refrigerant in the system
c.) A leak in the evaporating cells
d.) Not enough cooling water going through the condenser

54. The capacity of a refrigerant unit can be regulated by :

a.) Changing the speed of the compressor
b.) Changing the amount of cooling water to the condenser
c.) Changing the amount of refrigerant in the system
d.) Any of the above

55. Which of the following would not cause high suction pressure ?
a.) Insufficient refrigeration c.) Expansion valve open
b.) Leaky suction valves d.) Suction valve not adjusted property

56. All of the followi8ng are alloys of nickel except :

a.) K-monel c.) Chromium, molybdenum steel
b.) Inconel-K d.) Nichrome

57. If the compressor runs continuously the cause might be a :

a.) Defective thermal bulb c.) Stuck high pressure switch
b.) Clogged scale trap d.) Stuck low-pressure-switch

58. Dairy products should be kept at temperature of :

a.) 100 to 200 b.) 200 to 300 c.) 350 to 450 d.) 150 to 250

59. The purpose of the expansion valve bypass it to :

a.) Increase the efficiency of the plant
b.) Increase and the condenser
c.) Control the refrigerant to the evaporator in case of the automatic valve
fail
d.) Bypass the compressor

60. Frost on the outside of the thermal expansion valve may be cause by :
a.) King valve and the expansion valve
b.) Receiver and the condenser
c.) Compressor and the receiver
d.) Evaporator coils and the compressor

61. The charging valve is locate between the :

a.) King valve and the expansion valve
b.) Receiver and the condenser
c.) Compressor and the receiver
d.) Evaporator coils and the compressor
62. A high suction pressure and a cold crankcase indicate :
a.) Air in the system c.) Expansion valve open too wide
b.) Leaky suction d.) B and C

63. A high temperature in the icebox could not caused by :

a.) Insufficient refrigeration
b.) air in the system
c.) expansion valve open too wide
d.) too much refrigeration in the system

64. When occurring a Freon system to repairs :

a.) Pump down to 1 or 2 lbs. pressure
b.) Pump down to a slight vacuum
c.) Pump down to 10 to 15 lbs. pressure
d.) Remover all refrigeration in the system

65. The solenoid valve is located between the :

a.) Scale trap the thermal expansion valve
b.) Thermal expansion valve and the evaporator
c.) King valve and the scale trap
d.) Automatic and manual expansion valves

66. When starting a refrigerating system, always :

a.) Vent the condenser c.) Bypass the condenser
b.) Vent the evaporator d.) None of the above

67. Before securing a compressor to do maintenance work on it, be sure to :

a.) Have gas mask handy
b.) Notify the captain
c.) Make arrangements to have perishables take care of
d.) A and C

68. 212 0F is equal to :

a) 1060C b) 1100C c) 1000F d) 1000C

69. A good refrigerant should :

a.) Have a low boiling point
b.) Have a high latent heat
c.) Be able to be liquefied at normal seawater temperature
d.) All of the above

70. 140 0F is equivalent to :

a) 50 0C b) 60 0C c) 40 0C d) 50 0C

71. 700C is equivalent to:

a) 150 0F b) 160 0F c) 155 0F d) 156 0F

72. Low suction pressure is caused by :

a.) Air in the system
b.) Leaky compressor suction valves
c.) Solenoid valve not functioning properly
d.) Expansion valve causing flooding back

73. The charging connection is a refrigerating system is located :

a.) Before the receiver
b.) Between the condenser and the receiver
c.) Between the receiver and the king valve
d.) Between the king valve and solenoid valve

74. Water tube boilers have :

a.) One fusible plug c.) Two fusible lugs
b.) No fusible plugs d.) None of the above

75. The valve that prevents water from backing out of the boiler in the feed line is
 the :
a.) Bottom-blow valve c.) Feed-check valve
b.) Skin valve d.) Feed-stop valve

76. The fuel oil heater is located :

a.) On the discharge side of the service pump
b.) On the suction side of the service pump
c.) On the discharge side of the transfer
d.) Between the settling tank and the service pump

77. Boilers pulsation are caused by :

a.) Too high fuel pressure c.) Forcing the boiler beyond capacity b.)
Insufficient air d.) All of the above

78. In the forced drop system :

a.) Each furnace has its own fan
b.) One fan supplies air to all furnace
c.) The fan is located in the uptake
d.) None of the above

79.) In the close fire room system :

a.) Each boiler has its own fan
b.) Each furnace has its own fan
c.) The fan is located in the uptake
d.) The fire room is supplied with air from one fan

80. The air cock on a boiler is located at the :

a.) End of the superheater
b.) Highest point of the steam and the water drum
c.) Superheater inlet
d.) Top of the return headers

81. Soot blowers must be used in proper sequence so that :

a.) Excess stress will not set up in the boiler
b.) The docks will not cover the soot
c.) The soot will be swept toward the uptakes
d.) There will be a loss of steam pressure

82. What is the first thing you would check on taking over a watch ?
a.) The bilges
b.) The periscope
c.) The water level
d.) The oil pressure

83. The boiler with its fan (blower) located in the uptake is operating on :
a.) Induced draft
b.) Forced draft
c.) Natural draft
d.) None of the above

84. A fire room that is completely isolated (closed) operation :

a.) Induced draft
b.) Forced draft
c.) Natural draft
d.) None of the above

85. How many feedwater lines are connected to the boiler ?

a.) One
b.) Two
c.) Three
d.) Four
86. If the water in the gage glass has not been blown down for a period time, the level
of the water in the glass will be :
a.) The same as that in the steam and the water drum
b.) Less than that in the steam and water drum
c.) More than that in the steam and water drum
d.) None of the above

87. On taking over a watch, the fireman would check :

a.) The water level in the boilers
b.) The bilges
c.) The periscope
d.) All of the above

88. When you are cleaning fuel-oil burner tips, use a :

a.) Steel scraper
b.) Wire brush
c.) Brass knife
d.) Pocket knife

89. What is the amount of liquid in a tank if you get an ullage sounding of 11'24" and
the empty ullage sounding of the tank is 32'2" ?
a.) 20'8"
b.) 20'10"
c.) 21'8"
d.) 21'10"

90. The amount of the steam generated by a boiler is dependent upon :

a.) The size of the sprayer plate
b.) The oil pressure
c.) The air pressure
d.) All of the above
91. When installing a new gage glass in a water gage you should secure the bolts
from :
a.) Top of bottom
b.) Bottom of top
c.) Center, alternately, toward each end
d.) Top of bottom or bottom of top

92. One of the main purposes of refractories in a boiler furnace is to :

a.) Help preheat the air for the furnaces
b.) Help preheat the feedwater
c.) Protect the economizer from excessive heat
d.) Prevent excessive furnace that losses

93. All fuel-oil service pump steam valves are fitted with :
a.) Safety locks
b.) Automatic controls
c.) Reach rods leading to a location outside the fire room
d.) Reached rods leading to the engine room

94. All fuel-oil tanks are vented through :

a.) Check vent to the setting tanks
b.) Gooseneck vent located on the main deck
c.) Check valve to the transfer pump
d.) Gooseneck vent which discharges to the settlers

95.) Which of the following fire extinguishers would not be found in the fireroom ?
a.) Foam type
b.) Sand
c.) CO2
d.) SO2
96. What is the average fuel-oil temperature range of the oil in the discharge line to
the burners ?
a.) 180-200 degree Celcius
b.) 150-180 degree Celcius
c.) 200-220 degree Celcius
d.) 150-200 degree Celcius

97. Which of the following is a common type of oil burners ?

a.) Bethlehem
b.) Todd
c.) B & W
d.) All of the above
98. The boiler gage glasses should be blown down :
a.) Once a day
b.) At the beginning of every watch
c.) Every 12 hours
d.) Every 8 hours

99. Gage pressure of 200 lbs per square inch is equivalent to what absolute
pressure ?
a.) 215
b.) 200
c.) 185
d.) 300

100. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the removal of :

a.) 288,000 BTU per 24 hrs
b.) 28,000 BTU per 24 hrs
c.) 28,800 BTU per 24 hrs
d.) 280,000 BTU per 24 hrs
 Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
( Elements No. 4 )

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil No. 1 only.

1. The components that absorbs heat into the refrigerant is the :

a.) Meeting device
b.) Condenser
c.) Compressor
d.) Evaporation

2. The high side of the system includes :

a.) A metering devices
b.) An evaporator
c.) A suction line
d.) A receiver

3. Superheat is added :
a.) With the aid of the automatic expansion valve
b.) After all liquid has been changed to vapor
c.) For the vaporization of the evaporator
d.) To increase the heat of a substance

4. The low side of the system include :

a.) Receiver
b.) A compressor
c.) A discharge
d.) An evaporator

5. The heat used to change liquid to a gas or vapor is called latent heat of:
a.) Vaporization
b.) Fusion
c.) Condensation
d.) Superheat

6. A thermometer is said to detect :

a.) Heat of vaporization
b.) Sensible heat
c.) Potential energy
d.) Hidden heat

7. Hidden heat in refrigeration work is called :

a.) Superheat
b.) Kinetic heat
c.) Sensible heat
d.) Latent heat

8. What is another word for latent heat ?

a.) Hidden heat
b.) Absolute heat
c.) Sensible heat
d.) Specific heat

9. Heat added to a gas above the saturation temperature is called :

a.) Specific heat
b.) Potential energy
c.) Superheat
d.) All of the above
10. The latent heat used to change a liquid to a gas or vapor is called the latent heat of :
a.) Condensation
b.) Fusion
c.) Vaporization
d.) Temperature

11. Convection is the process by which :

a.) Heat moves through gases and liquids
b.) Transfer of heat occurs by direct contact
c.) Heat gives off the surrounding air
d.) Heat changes state

12. Conduction is the transfer of :

a.) Heat by means of movement
b.) Heat by direct contact between two objects
c.) Heat by means of radiation of the sun
d.) Molecules in motion around a substance

13. Saturated vapor is :

a.) Heat that can be sensed
b.) The number of BTU required to change state of an object
c.) A substance that has just turned into a vapor
d.) All of the above

14. The evaporator absorbs heat from the air or brine because the liquid refrigerant entering the evaporator :
a.) Has a lower temperature than the air or brine
b.) Has a higher temperature than the air or brine
c.) Boils to a low-pressure gas
d.) Boils to high-pressure gas

15. The evaporator :

a.) Removes heat from the refrigerant
b.) Absorbs heat from the refrigerant
c.) Stores heat into refrigerant
d.) Keeps the compressor busy

16. As the load on an evaporator decreases :

a.) The discharge pressure increases
b.) The oil pressure increases
c.) The suction pressure increases
d.) The suction pressure decreases

17. The heat picked up in the evaporator must equal :

a.) The gained by condenser
b.) The heat lost by the condenser
c.) The heat of compression
d.) The heat lost by the medium being cooled

18. The disadvantages of a flooded system is :

a.) It cannot be used on multiple systems
b.) It needs a large charge of refrigerant
c.) It cannot be used with a low pressure motor
d.) It can be used only with ammonia

19. Flooded feeds are different from direct expansion feeds because they :
a.) Allow regurgitation of liquid refrigerant
b.) Use bigger and evaporators for this purpose
c.) Are not as effective in operation
d.) Allow for re-circulation of liquid refrigerant

20. The suction pressure of any refrigeration system is adjust :

a.) To a corresponding evaporator temperature below the material being
 cooled
b.) To a corresponding evaporator temperature equal to the material being
cooled
c.) To a pressure above atmospheric at all times
d.) None of the above

21. A direct expansion evaporator has frost on the upper and lower coils but not on a center coils. This indicates :
a.) The evaporator is flooded
b.) The evaporator is starved
c.) The evaporator is short
d.) There is coil logging in the evaporator

22. When the evaporator load increases, what happens to the suction pressure ?
a.) It decreases c.) It stays the same
b.) It increases d.) None of the above

23. Baffles in gravity coil evaporator are used :

a.) For condensation
b.) For proper air flow
c.) To prevent moisture carry-over
d.) All of the above

24. The temperature of the medium being cooled must be :

a.) Below the freezing point of the areas to be cooled
b.) Above the evaporator temperature
c.) Equal to the evaporator temperature
d.) Below the evaporator temperature

25. Assuming all the other condition are constant :

a.) As low-side pressure falls, compressor capacity increases
b.) As load decrease, the low-side pressure decrease
c.) As head pressure increase, plant capacity increases
d.) As low-side pressure decreases, there is no change

26. The two basic types of evaporators are :

a.) Prime surface and finned b.) Finned and plate
c.) Direct expansion feed and plate d.) Flooded and direct expansion feed
27. A decrease in load on an evaporator cause :
a.) More refrigerant to be required b.) Pressure drop in the evaporator
c.) Increase in evaporator capacity d.) More heat to be absorbed

28. Prime surface evaporators operating below 32⁰F must frequently be :

a.) Purged b.) Cleared c.) Defrosted d.) Painted

29. Which of the following would not cause a starved evaporator ?

a.) Improper bulb location
b.) Clogged distributor line
c.) Shortage of refrigerant
d.) Metering device stuck in open position
30. A Freon-12 refrigerating in an air conditioning plant is equipped with a finned-tube evaporator. In operation,
the outer surface of this evaporator is wet. Thus the evaporator is :
a.) No operating at highest efficiency
b.) No receiving enough efficiency
c.) Operating efficiency
d.) Operating with an over-sized expansion valve

31. The fastest way to remove frost from a direct expansion finned-tube evaporator is:
a.) Shut it down and let the frost melt b.) Run a hot gas line to the coil
c.) Wash frost off with warm water d.) Escape frost off

32. A predetermined amount of refrigerant is used in what type of evaporator ?

a.) Flooded evaporator b.) Direct-expansion evaporator c.) Indirect-type
chiller d.) Plate-type evaporator

33. The selection of the proper evaporator depends mainly on :

a.) Price b.) Size c.) Color d.) Application
34. What happens in evaporator ?
a.) High-pressure liquid converts to low-pressure liquid
b.) Refrigerants in the gas state is saturated
c.) Low-pressure gas converts to low-pressure liquid
d.) High-pressure gas converts to low-pressure liquid

35. Is the temperature outside the evaporator higher or lower than the inside temperature ?
a.) Higher b.) Stay the same c.) Lower d.) 10 degrees lower

36. Secondary refrigerants are usually :

a.) Azerotrope b.) Halocarbons
c.) Water or brine d.) Triflouromethane

37. In a refrigerant system, where would you find super heat ?

a.) After the metering device as the refrigerant enters the evaporator
b.) In the middle of the evaporator coil, with no saturation
c.) After the evaporator, so that no saturated vapor enters the compressor
d.) Superheat is a metering device calculation

38. The direct expansion system, compared to the flooded system, has this advantages :
a.) Requires a large refrigerant charge
b.) Frost up much more quickly
c.) Passes flash gas through the evaporator
d.) Requires a large compressor
39. The flow of refrigerant into a flooded evaporator is controlled so it has :
a.) Most liquid refrigerant at the inlet but gas near the outlet
b.) All its tube wetted by liquid refrigerant from beginning to end
c.) Most liquid refrigerant as its outlet but gas at its inlet
d.) A mixture of liquid and vapor refrigerant in its tube from beginning to end

40. As flash gas increases, evaporator capacity :

a.) Increases b.) Decreases
c.) Stay the same d.) Increases or decreases depending on the evaporator

41. An evaporator that fails to provide superheat at is outlet places which compressor in the most serious danger
?
a.) Rotary b.) Centrifugal c.) Reciprocating d.) Screw

42. Not connected to high pressure side of the refrigeration system is :

a.) Condenser b.) Horsepower
c.) Evaporator d.) Expansion valve

43. Thermostatic expansion valves are rated in :

a.) Superheated settings b.) Horsepower
c.) Tons of refrigeration d.) All of the above

44. An external equalizer is use on an evaporator with a pressure drop of :

a.) Less than 20 lbs. b.) More than 2 lbs.
c.) Less than 10 lbs. d.) More than 10 lbs.

45. A thermostatic expansion valve with a static setting of 7 superheat would have a field setting of :
a.) 7 superheat b.) 0 superheat
c.) 4 superheat d.) 11 F superheat

46. A thermostatic expansion valve was factory set at 0 superheat. How much was the field setting ?
a.) 0-3 b.) 3-5 c.) 4-8 d.) 10-15

47. Superheat is heat added :

a.) In changing liquid to vapor
b.) In raising temperature
c.) After all liquid has been changed to vapor
d.) To increase pressure

48. An automatic expansion valves system on a variable loads causes :

a.) Flooded evaporator on high loads
 b.) No apparent change in operation
c.) On overloading of the compressor motor
d.) A starved evaporator high loads
49. One main disadvantage of an automatic expansion vale is that it :
a.) Requires a critical charge of refrigerant
b.) It is only used on domestic refrigerators
c.) Cannot adopt to variable loads
d.) All of the above

50. A high load affects the operation of a constant pressure expansion valve by :
a.) Causing overload b.) Requiring an external equalizer
c.) Starving the evaporator d.) All of the above

51. Of the following, which component is found in direct expansion valve system ?
a.) Float valve b.) Needle valve c.) Globe valve d.) Gate valve

52. An expansion valve is built most nearly like :

a.) A shut-off valve b.) A pressure-reducing valve
c.) A blow-off valve d.) A double-seated globe valve

53. The sub-cooling effect of a liquid refrigerant just before the expansion valve would result in :
a.) Increased refrigerant effect b.) Increased refrigerant density
c.) Increased miscibility of the oil d.) None of the above

54. The automatic expansion valve maintains constant pressure at :

a.) The condenser inlet b.) The evaporator inlet
c.) The liquid line d.) The condenser outlet

55. Which of the following is also referred to as a backward operating valve ?

a.) Thermal expansion valve b.) Hand expansion valve
c.) Low side float d.) Automatic expansion valve

56. What controls the operation of a high-side float ?

a.) Accumulator b.) Evaporator
c.) Condenser and receiver d.) Evaporator and condenser

57. In a high-side float, frost on the suction line indicated :

a.) Recharging the refrigerant is necessary
b.) An excessive amount of refrigerant is in the system
c.) Non-condensibles are in the system
d.) There is a leak in the system

58. On a refrigeration system with a high-side float metering device, what happens of the float fills with liquid
refrigerant and sinks ?
a.) The evaporator starves b.) The evaporator flood
c.) The compressor stalls d.) The condenser starves

59. In a flooded evaporator using a accumulator and float valve, flash gas :
a.) Passes directly into the evaporator b.) Passes directly into the suction line
c.) Does not occur d.) Stays in the receiver

60. A flooded system with a low-side float uses a thermostat, which controls the liquid line solenoid valve. The
thermometer is satisfied and the room continues to cool down due to :
a.) A drop in head pressure b.) The pumping out of low side
c.) All of the above d.) None of the above

61. One advantage of a low-side float system is that it :

a.) Requires a large amount of refrigerant
b.) Can be used with a water cooled condenser
c.) Eliminated flash gas in the evaporator
d.) Can be used with a low torque motor

62. One disadvantage of a low-side float valve is that it :

a.) Is non-adjustable b.) Requires a large amount of refrigerant
 c.) Is very expensive d.) Cannot be used on multiple system

63. In a flooded system, a low-side float is used as a metering devices. If the float fills with liquid refrigerant and
sinks, this :
a.) Starves the evaporator b.) Floods the evaporator
c.) Stalls the compressor d.) Raises the evaporator temperature

64. Flash gas form in the :

a.) Compressor b.) Condenser
c.) Evaporator d.) Heat exchanger

65. The flash gas loss at the expansion valve is approximately :

a.) 2% b.) 5%
c.) 22% d.) 12%

66. What does a high superheat mean ?

a.) Flooded evaporator b.) starved evaporator
c.) Pressure evaporator d.) motor speed too high

67. What does a low superheat indicate ?

a.) flooded evaporator b.) Starved evaporator
c.) pressure evaporator d.) Motor speed to low

68. Which of the following distributor are not used with an external equalizer thermostatic expansion valve ?
a.) Manifold type b.) Veturi type
c.) Centrifugal type d.) Pressure-drop type

69. Thermal expansion valves are generally rated at stated suction temperature in :
a.) Tons of refrigeration effect
b.) Pounds per minute of refrigerant pumped
c.) Pounds per hour of refrigerant effect
d.) Cubic feet per minute of refrigerant pumped

70. On an operating electric expansion valve, if the thermistor senses superheat on the suction line, the result is
:
a.) It modules to the closed position
b.) It throttles to the open position
c.) Insulation at the thermistor stabilizer the valve
d.) It increases the resistance to the heater motor

71. The purpose of a condenser is to :

a.) On the floor under the roof
b.) Add heat to the refrigeration system
c.) Always mounted above the compressor
d.) Always mounted below the compressor

72. An atmospheric condenser is generally :

a.) On the floor under the roof
b.) In the refrigeration room
c.) On the roof
d.) Always mounted below the compressor

73. A condenser is ;
a.) A good cost-save accessory to a refrigeration system
b.) The exit for heat in a refrigeration system
c.) Always mounted above the compressor
d.) Always mounted below the compressor

74. In a NH, shell and saving accessory to a refrigeration system :

a.) Black iron b.) Galvanized steel
c.) Muntz or admirally metal d.) Copper
75. The temperature at which moisture in the air starts to condense is known as :
a.) Relative humidity b.) Dew point
c.) Eutectic point d.) Wet-bulb temperature

76. Condensing mediums must be :

a.) A liquid b.) A gas
c.) Non-corrosive d.) In the right temperature

77. The capacity of an evaporative condenser will :

a.) Increase as the entering air wet-bulb temperature decreases
b.) Increase as the entering air wet-bulb temperature increases
c.) Not change with changes in the line/entering air wet-bulb temperature
d.) Decrease as the entering air wet-bulb temperature decreases

78. Gas condenses in the anal or inner of a(n) :

a.) Atmospheric condenser b.) Double-pipe condenser
c.) Shell-and-tube condenser d.) Evaporative condenser

79. Natural draft condensers are most frequently in :

a.) Residential cooling b.) Room air conditioners
c.) Household refrigerators d.) Large industrial plants

80. The capacity of an evaporative condenser is greatest on a :

a.) Warm day b.) Low-humidity day c.) Cool day d.) Rainy day

81. The capacity of an evaporative condenser depends on :

a.) Fan horsepower
b.) Entering air wet-bulb temperature
c.) The temperature of the entering air
d.) The amount of heat leaving air is capable of absorbing

82. The following does not increase the capacity of a water cooled condenser :
a.) Increasing the water flow
b.) Reducing the water temperature
c.) Decreasing the ambient temperature
d.) None of the above

83. Open shell-and-tube condensers are mainly used with :

a.) A cooling tower of spray pond b.) A dirty water
c.) Chemically treated water d.) Hard water

84. If a shell-and-tube condenser were removed and an evaporative condenser were installed, city water
consumption would:
a.) Decrease 40 to 50% b.) Increase 40 to 50%
c.) Increase 85 to 90% d.) Decrease to 85 to 90%

85. A cooling water :

a.) Is always used if water is scarce
b.) Is an accessory to a condenser
c.) Helps the operator maintain pressures
d.) Must be in allocation where the prevailing wind blows

86. Of the many ways to control condensing pressure, one method not an evaporative condenser is :
a.) Cycling spray pump motor b.) Coil flooding
c.) Air-bypass duct and damper d.) Air-throttling damped

87. If a system operated with suction stop valve closed and the discharge stop valve open, what would happen ?
a.) The head would blow off
b.) High head pressure would occur
c.) Non-condensible gases would enter
 d.) All of the above

88. At a given temperature, the relation of the actual pressure of a vapor in the atmosphere to the saturation
pressure is called :
a.) Relative humidity b.) Partial pressure
c.) Humidifying effect d.) Refrigeration effect

89. The capacity of a water-cooled condenser is least effected by :

a.) The amount of water circulated b.) The temperature of the water
c.) The amount of gas circulated d.) The ambient temperature

90. What effect would a refrigeration overcharge have on the system ?

a.) Head pressure would increase
b.) Head pressure would be decrease
c.) Suction pressure would decrease
d.) At the dry-bulb temperature

91. The leaving water temperature of an induced-draft cooling tower that is operating efficiently is :
a.) 10 ºF higher than entering water temperature
b.) Some temperature between dry and wet-bulb temperature
c.) At the dew-point temperature
d.) At the dry-bulb temperature

92. The wet-bulb reading is higher than the dry-bulb reading when :
a.) Relative humidity is 100% and temperature is above 32 ºF
b.) Relative humidity is above 100% and temperature is below 32 ºF
c.) Relative humidity is above 100%
d.) This can never happen

93. An evaporative condenser is constructed so that :

a.) Refrigeration is sprayed over tubes
b.) Refrigeration is in the tubes and air is over the tubes
c.) Refrigeration is in the tubes while air and water are over the tubes
d.) Non-condensable are easily removed

94. Which statement concerning the evaporative condenser is correct ?

a.) An evaporative condenser and spray pond most nearly alike
b.) Evaporative condenser depends on re-circulation of bay water or ocean water
c.) A closed induce-draft evaporative condenser utilizes stack effect
d.) Evaporative condensers depend on evaporation effect for economical
operation

95. Cooling tower should be maintained at a pH near :

a.) 4 b.) 6
c.) 8 d.) 10

96. One effect of non-condensable gas in a system is :

a.) High suction pressure b.) Low suction pressure
c.) High condenser pressure d.) Low condenser

97. Which would not cause high discharge pressure ?

a.) An undersized condenser b.) Insufficient condenser water
c.) Refrigerant undercharge d.) None of the above

98. In vertical open shell-and-tube condenser, where are the water boxes located ?
a.) At the top b.) At the bottom
c.) At the top and bottom d.) There are none

99. In a refrigeration system using a reciprocating compressor and a water-cooled condenser a cooling tower, a
decrease amount of cooling water will generally results in :
a.) High head pressure b.) Low suction pressure
 c.) No cooling d.) Decrease in head pressure

100. Air is removed from the system by :

a.) Increasing the amount of cooling water
b.) Opening the purge valve
c.) Running the refrigeration through an aerator
d.) Running the refrigerant through a daerator

101. If the cooling water to the condenser should suddenly fail :

a.) The solenoid valve will close
b.) The expansion valve will close
c.) The compressor will shut down
d.) An alarm will ring to notify the engineer

102. The solenoid valve can be types as a :

a.) Thermal valve b.) Magnetic stop valve
c.) Bellow valve d.) Bimetallic valve

103. If the compressor had been running satisfactory, for a long period of time but
the coil level was rising slowly, the thing to do would be to :
a.) Drain out sufficient oil to bring it down to the proper running level
b.) Shut down the compressor and check the oil level with the machine
stopped
c.) Check the dehydrator cartridge
d.) Check to see if there is too much refrigerant in the system

104. The high-pressure vapor heat exchanger in the refrigeration system.

a.) Evaporator b.) Condenser c.) Boiler d.) Heater

105. A refrigeration method of lowering and maintaining the temperature of a

material or space by the use of a literal ice (water or other substance, say, dry
ice ).
a.) Ice Refrigeration b.) Mechanical Refrigeration
c.) Vacuum Refrigeration d.) Air cycle Refrigeration

106. These cooling towers have the fans are located at the top and draw the air
upward through the tower. How do you call this cooling tower ?
a) Natural Draft Cooling Tower b) Mechanical Draft Cooling Tower
c) Forced Draft-fan Cooling Tower d) Induced Draft-fan Cooling Tower

107. It is the term referring to any glazed aperture in a building envelope; the
components of which include the following: glazing material, either glass or
plastic; framing, mullions, muntins, and dividers; external shading devices; and
integral-shading systems (between glass). What is this ?
a.) Infiltration b.) Radiation c.) Fenestration d.) Transmission

108. The most common instrument used to determine the mean radiant temperature;
it consists of a hollow sphere 6 inches in diameter, flat black paint coating, and
a thermocouple or thermometer bulb at its center.
a) Psychrometer b) Thermocouple
c) Kelvin thermometer d) Vernon’s globe thermometer

109. This is a refrigeration system having two or more refrigerant circuits, each with a
condenser, evaporator and a pressure-imposing element, where the evaporator
of one circuit cools the condenser of the other circuit. How do you call this
refrigeration system ?
a.) Absorption Refrigeration b.) Split-type Refrigeration
c.) Vacuum Refrigeration d.) Cascade Refrigeration

110. What kind of a heat exchanger where water is heated to a point that dissolved
gases is liberated ?
a) Evaporator b) Condenser c) Intercooler d) Deaerator
111. This is a circular, square or rectangular air distribution outlet, generally located
in the ceiling and comprised of deflecting members discharging supply air in
various directions and planes, and arranged to promote mixing of primary air
with secondary room air. What is this component ?
a.) Air nozzle b.) Air diffuser c.) Air conduit d.) Air duct

112. It is a space or several rooms, or units of space having some sort of coincident
loads or similar operating characteristics. It may or may not be an enclosed
space, or it may consist of many partitioned rooms. How do you call this ?
a.) Zone b.) Room c.) Space d.) Plenum

113. In air conditioning, it indicates either a volume or a site without a partition or

partitioned room or group of rooms. How do you call this ?
a.) Zone b.) Room c.) Space d.) Plenum

114. It is an enclosed or partitioned space that is usually treated as a single load. If

conditioned, it often has an individual control system. What is this ?
a.) Zone b.) Room c.) Space d.) Plenum

115. Which of the following parameters has the greatest limiting effect on the thermal
performance of an open, evaporative cooling tower ?
a.) Wet-Bulb temperature b.) Dry-Bulb temperature
c.) Range d.) Approach
 Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
( Elements No. 5 )

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil No. 1 only.

1. An evaporative condenser operation most efficient when :

a.) The dry-bulb temperature of the air is high
b.) The wet-bulb temperature of the air is low
c.) Wet and dry temperature are high
d.) The wet-bulb temperature is high

2. The horizontal shell-and-tube condenser is more efficient than the vertical shell-and-tube condenser because :
a.) It is mounted in a horizontal position
b.) It is easier to clean
c.) Water passes through it more than once
d.) It takes advantage of more air cooling

3. Why have a receiver in a refrigeration system ?

a.) It’s necessary component
b.) It aids an expansion device
c.) It’s needed on the low side of the system
d.) It’s used as a storage tank

4. In an air-cooled condenser :
a.) A fan is used b.) Ambient air is the condensing medium
c.) No water is used d.) All of the above

5. In the condenser :
a.) Heat is absorbed b.) Heat is pressurized
c.) Heat is given up d.) All of the above

6. A compressor seal is a mean of closing off the :

a.) Suction from the discharge side
b.) Condenser from the receiver leakage
c.) Crankcase, to prevent leakage from the compressor
d.) Crankcase, to prevent leakage from the evaporator

7. As suction pressure in a reciprocating compressor increase and the horsepower decreases, compressor
capacity:
a.) Decrease b.) Increases c.) Falls d.) Stays the same

8. When heads pressure decreases in an ammonia compressor, horsepower :

a.) Capacity of compressor increases b.) Decreases
c.) Increases d.) Doesn’t change

9. When suction pressure decrease, compressor capacity :

a.) Increases b.) Decreases c.) Rises d.) Slightly increases

10. On a wet-compression system, the discharge gas from the compressor is :

a.) Saturated b.) Sub-cooled c.) Superheated d.) Supersaturated

11. Which compressor gives the least side thrust when operating ?
a.) Horizontal open b.) Radial c.) Vertical d.) Y compressor

12. What causes oil to foam in the compressor crankcase?

a.) Pressure change b.) Load change
c.) Temperature change d.) All of the above
13. Foaming is the compressor crankcase is caused by :
a.) Refrigerant overcharge b.) Rise in discharge pressure
c.) Refrigerant undercharge d.) Sudden drop in crankcase pressure

14. Which of the following is not a design factor affecting compressor capacity ?
a.) Compressor speed
b.) Clearance space
c.) Piston displacement
d.) Suction drop and discharge valve design

15. If the cut-in and cut-off settings are too close on an R-12 compressor :
a.) The compressor will not cycle off long enough to allow oil to return to
the crankcase
b.) The compressor will not start
c.) The compressor will run continuously
d.) The compressor will cut-out on high head-pressure

16. A reciprocating compressor is operating with a matched set of five belts. One of the belts is worn out. What
should you do ?
a.) Replace the worn belt with a new once
b.) Replace all five belts
c.) Remove the worn belt and operate on four belts
d.) Replace the worn belt and add two belts

17. Which of the following would not help determine compressor displacement ?
a.) Length of piston b.) Revolutions per minute
c.) Diameter of piston d.) Number of cylinders

18. A compressor may lose oil if :

a.) There is air in the system
b.) The velocity of refrigerant in the risers is too low
c.) There are medium pressure drops in the evaporator
d.) There are small load variations in the system

19. During the re-expansion portions of the compressor cycle :

a.) The suction valve is open
b.) The suction valve is closed
c.) The discharge valve is open
d.) None of the above

20. A liquid line cooler is sometimes installed in a Freon compression system. The net result is generally :
a.) A decrease in liquid-line friction
b.) A decrease in suction gas temperature
c.) An increase in compressor displacement
d.) An increase effect per round pumped

21. Liquid slugging is :

a.) Liquid in compressor clearance space
b.) Excessive liquid refrigerant in the receiver
c.) The pounding of liquid refrigerant in the suction line at a point of refrigerant
restriction
d.) Liquid in the condenser causing excessive

22. In a single-acting compressor :

a.) Piston speed can be automatically controlled same.5
b.) Refrigerant gas is compressed alternately on one side, then the other side of the same piston.
c.) Piston speed can be manually controlled.
d.) Refrigerant gas is compressed on only one side of the piston.
23. A refrigerating compressor is driven by a squirrel-cage induction motor. The operator can run this compressor
at :
 a.) One speed b.) Two speed c.) Three speed d.) Four speed

24. In a well-lubricated refrigeration compressor, the percentage of lubrication oil circulating with the refrigerant
generally should not exceed :
a.) 5% b.) 10% c.) 25% d.) 33%

25. On a compressor-type refrigerant plant, a synchronous motor :

a.) Can be used as a multi-speed compressor drive.
b.) Can be as a variable compressor drive
c.) Can be used as a constant-speed compressor drive
d.) Cannot be used as a compressor valve.

26. The suction line back to the compressor is insulated to :

a.) Prevent condensation on the line
b.) Help efficiency
c.) Provide motor cooling
d.) All of the above

27. To lubricate the line back to the compressor is insulated to :

a.) On the shaft and bearing end
b.) End bearing of shaft and motor
c.) End bearing of the shaft and rotor and stage separator
d.) End bearing of the shaft and stage separator

28. If the piston is atop dead center of the stroke, in what position are the valves ?
a.) Suction valve open, discharge valve closed
b.) Suction valve closed, discharge valve open
c.) Suction and discharge valves open
d.) Suction and discharged valves closed

29. A reed valve normally has :

a.) Four springs
b.) Two springs
c.) No springs
d.) The number of springs is determined by the valve size.

30. An atmospheric line on an indicator card from the head of double-acting, single-storage horizontal ammonia
compressor lead :
a.) To record piston stroke
b.) To record volumetric efficiency
c.) To record compressor superheat
d.) As a reference or standard

31. The engine indicator diagram would not likely indicate :

a.) Purity of refrigerant coming back to compressor
b.) Need for more refrigerant
c.) Condition of the valves
d.) The compressor’s need to change speed

32. All refrigeration compressor valves are :

a.) Opened and closed by a camshaft
b.) Opened and closed by inherent spring tension
c.) Opened and closed by external spring
d.) Opened and closed by pressure difference

33. The opening and closing suction and discharge valves on a reciprocating compressor is shown by :
a.) Bailey meter
b.) An indicator card
c.) A mercury manometer
d.) Discharged and suction difference

34. Clearance volume :

 a.) Affects compressor capacity
b.) Does not affect compressor capacity
c.) Varies depending on compressor speed
d.) Is the same on all compressors

35. The most accurate about an R-12 reciprocating compressors that has been shut down is that oil is :
a.) Pumped into a service valve in the high-pressure liquid line
b.) Pumped into a service valve on the compressor crankcase
c.) Sucked into suction service valve on the compressor
d.) Pumped into the compressor discharge serviced valve

36. As the horsepower of a compressor decreases :

a.) A head pressure increases
b.) Compressor capacity decreases
c.) Compressor ratio increases
d.) Volumetric efficiency increases

37. When the throttling the discharge in a centrifugal brine pump :

a.) Pressure goes up and horsepower goes down
b.) Pressure goes down and horsepower goes up
c.) Pressure and horsepower go up
d.) Pressure and horsepower go down

38. What would happen if you ran a reciprocating compressor with the valve closed and the discharge valve open
?
a.) The plant capacity would increase
b.) The compressor head would blow off
c.) Non-condensable gases would enter the compressor
d.) Head pressure would rise

39. The item that should be engaged first when starting a centrifugal water chiller system is the :
a.) Centrifugal compressor
b.) Condenser water pump
c.) Cooling tower fan(s)
d.) Chilled water pump

40. A mechanical shaft seal is necessary in a :

a.) Hermetic reciprocating compressor
b.) Semi-hermetic compressor
c.) Open-typed compressor
d.) Hermetic rotary compressor

41. The compressor uses a set of valves to compress refrigerant gas. These valves are :
a.) Read valves
b.) Flapper valves
c.) A and B
d.) Rex and hex valves

42. The compressor produces heat in the gas it discharges. This work energy is known as :
a.) Heat of convection
b.) Heat of conduction
c.) A and B
d.) Heat of compression

43. Flapper valves in the compressor operate :

a.) On a pressure difference
b.) On a temperature difference
c.) A and B
d.) None of the above

44. Which of the following is not a refrigeration compressor seal ?

 a.) Mechanical seal
b.) Packing gland
c.) Stationary bellows
d.) Rotary seal

45. The atmospheric line on the indicated card of a horizontal double-acting compressor is for :
a.) Pressure standard
b.) Compressor temperature
c.) Oil level
d.) Refrigerant charge

46. An indicator card on a horizontal compressor indicates the :

a.) Control of water
b.) Tonnage capacity
c.) Valve efficiency
d.) None of the above

47. An engine indicator diagram for a reciprocating compressor would most likely show the :
a.) Purity of the refrigerant returning to the compressor
b.) Need for additional refrigerant
c.) Action of the compressor refrigerant
d.) Need to change the compressor speed

48. Of the following, which is not a possible cause of noisy compressor ?

a.) Flash gas in the line after expansion valve
b.) Lack of oil
c.) Loose compressor-drive coupling
d.) Dry or scored seal

49. What is the purpose of a stuffing box seal ?

a.) It makes the unit start easily after lying idle overnight
b.) It prevents air from entering the crankcase
c.) It lubricates from entering the crankcase
d.) It prevents refrigerant leaks from crankcase

50. Packing in the stuffing box is :

a.) Made of metal with oil passing through
b.) Made of metal with oil passing through but not at each end
c.) Made of rubber with oil passing through
d.) Packed to prevent spreading

51. As a capacity decreases in a reciprocating compressor :

a.) Suction pressure increases
b.) Suction pressure decreases
c.) Volumetric efficiency increases
d.) Head pressure decreases

52. A superheated refrigerant, such as R-12, enters a reciprocating compressor. After being compressed it
leaves as a :
a.) Superheated gas
b.) 100% dry saturated gas
c.) Supercooled gas
d.) Supersaturated gas

53. The main reason for insulating the suction piping of a compressor-type refrigerating system is to :
a.) Absorb moisture condensation
b.) Prevent loss of refrigerating capacity
c.) Reduce compressor vibration
d.) Increase circulation of the lubricating oil

54. The high-pressure relief valve is usually piped to :

a.) The lower-pressure side and the atmosphere
 b.) The mixer only
c.) Atmosphere and a water tank
d.) Fire department box and water

55. Gauge glass connection on a horizontal liquid receiver should be :

a.) Top and bottom with ball check valve
b.) Top and slightly off bottom with ball check valve and tight packing
c.) Top and slightly off bottom with ball check valve and free packing
d.) Slightly off bottom with ball check valve and free packing

56. The pressure connection of an automatic water-regulating valve is connected to:

a.) Discharge pressure
b.) City water pressure
c.) Suction pressure
d.) The suction service valve

57. Which of the following is not on the high side ?

a.) Oil trap
b.) Liquid seal
c.) Scale trap
d.) King valve

58. A side-outlet drier is generally mounted :

a.) Just after the expansion valve
b.) Between the evaporator and the compressor
c.) Liquid line, horizontally or vertically with the flange on bottom
d.) Suction line, with the flange on top

59. A drier is generally installed with other essential equipment. The recommended location is on the :
a.) A high pressure line between the condenser and the receiver
b.) Suction line between the evaporator and the compressor
c.) Discharge the between the compressor and the condenser
d.) Liquid line between the receiver and the expansion valve

60. What is driers are used in R-12 ?

a.) Calcium chloride
b.) Activated alumina
c.) Sodium chloride
d.) Soda lime

61. Of the following, which will not remove acid from refrigerant ?
a.) Calcium oxide
b.) Calcium chloride
c.) Activated alumina
d.) Silica gel

62. The purpose of using activated alumina on high side a Freon refrigerating system :
a.) Regenerated
b.) Remove non-condesable
c.) Dry the refrigerant
d.) Remove the excess oil

63. Which of the following is a drying agent ?

a.) Sulfur dioxide
b.) Ethyl chloride
c.) Hydrocarbons
d.) Calcium sulfate

64. An air conditioning system with clogged filters will have one of the following conditions :
a.) Low suction-pressure
b.) High suction-pressure to the compressor
c.) High head-pressure to the compressor
 d.) Increases suction pressure

65. Which dessicant changes chemically or physically in a refrigeration system ?

a.) Activated alumina
b.) Silica gel
c.) Calcium chloride
d.) Bauxite

66. If silica gel contained water before being installed in the system, at what temperature could you free the
moisture ?
a.) 200 ºF
b.) 500 ºF
c.) 450 ºF
d.) 850 ºF

67. The following dessicant cannot be used with an R-40 system :

a.) Drierite
b.) Activated lumina
c.) Calcium chloride
d.) Silica gel

68. A two-way pilot solenoid valve is not used for :

a.) Unloading a compressor for start-up
b.) Opening a spring-loaded metering device
c.) A four-way heat-pump valve
d.) A pressure-relief valve

69. A vavle that will not restrict the flow is the :

a.) Automatic-expansion valve
b.) Low-sided float valve
c.) Solenoid valve
d.) Thermostatic valve

70. If you energize a solenoid valve and it closes, what kind of valve is it ?
a.) Normally open
b.) Normally closed
c.) Direct-acting
d.) Pilot operated

71. Which device automatically resets itself ?

a.) Fusetron
b.) Circuit breaker
c.) Fusetat
d.) Thermal protector

72. The most valid statement about a two-way solenoid valve in the liquid line between the receiver and the
expansion valve is :
a.) It is used as a liquid stop valve
b.) It is closed when energized
c.) It modulated the flow of refrigerant
d.) It controls refrigerant vapor

73. An oil separator with a float valve in a Freon 12 system is used to :

a.) Meter the amount of Freon
b.) Drain oil to the crankcase
c.) Keep a liquid level
d.) Keep the oil separator lubricated at all times

74. The three types of water valves are :

a.) Electric, pressure and thermostatic
 b.) Pneumatic, electric and pressure
c.) Hydraulic, pneumatic and electric
d.) Automatic, pneumatic and electric

75. Which type of water valve will not vary water flow as the refrigeration load changes ?
a.) Hydraulic
b.) Pneumatics
c.) Electric
d.) Pressure

76. The material in a strainer-drier is called :

a.) Designate
b.) Filling
c.) Dessicant
d.) Desecrate
77. Foaming in a compressor crankcase can :
a.) Indicated thickening in the oil
b.) Create liquid slugs
c.) Indicate excess oil in the refrigerant
d.) Indicated that the crankcases heater is not shutting off

78. A sight glass in a full liquid line will be :

a.) Full of bubbles
b.) Cloudy
c.) Light green
d.) Clear

79. A moisture indicator must :

a.) Bubble when filled with liquid
b.) Be yellow
c.) Change color when exposed to any moisture
d.) Be right-side-up

80. A receiver :
a.) Is part of the condenser
b.) Stores liquid refrigerant
c.) Is an essential part of the system
d.) Stores refrigerant gas

81. The check valve :

a.) Allows the flow liquid and gas in both directions
b.) Is always spring-loaded
c.) Is always in horizontal lines
d.) Has a pressure drop

82. An evaporator pressure regulator maintains constant pressure or temperature in the evaporator :
a.) Regardless of how high compressor suction pressure goes
b.) Regardless of how high condenser pressure goes
c.) Regardless of how low the compressor suction pressure goes
d.) Regardless of how low condenser pressure goes

83. The oil separator is always installed :

a.) To prevent oil clogging
b.) In a cool spot
c.) Where it can be easily serviced
d.) In the discharge line

84. A suction accumulator always has :

a.) An oil return line
b.) An inlet and outlet
c.) A coil of liquid line around it
d.) A complex control system
85. A refrigeration accessory is a device that :
a.) Adds to the convenience of a system
b.) Comes in many forms
c.) Is not essential in a refrigeration system
d.) All of the above

86. Undesirable refrigerant characteristics are :

a.) Non-flammable and nontoxic
b.) High latent heat and low boiling point
c.) High critical temperature and low freezing point
d.) Low critical temperature and high freezing point

87. A desired chemical refrigerant characteristics is :

a.) It mixes readily with oil
b.) Stability
c.) It can easily change from a liquid to vapor and back
d.) All of the above

88. What refrigerant breaks down and forms phosgene in the presence of a carbon flame ?
a.) R-718
b.) R-717
c.) R-764
d.) R-11

89. When heated, R-12 changes to :

a.) Hydrochloride
b.) Phosgene
c.) Carbon acid
d.) Chloride gas

90. Which choice would not help eliminated odors in vapors ?

a.) Ozone lamps
b.) Charcoal fibers
c.) Water sprays
d.) Neutralization

91. Anhydrous ammonia is :

a.) A moisture if ammonia and water
b.) 29% aqua ammonia
c.) Ammonia without any water
d.) None of the above

92. Refrigerant is subcooled to :

a.) Increase the refrigerant effect
b.) Increases density
c.) Increases miscibility in oil
d.) None of the above

93. Aluminum cannot be used with :

a.) R-12
b.) R-22
c.) R-718
d.) R-40

94. Any water in the refrigerant effect of a Freon system would cause :
a.) A clogged oil trap
b.) A clogged scale trap
c.) A frozen discharge valve
d.) A frozen expansion valve

95. Of the following refrigerants, which is the least flammable and the least toxic ?
 a.) Methyl alcohol
b.) Ammonia
c.) Propane
d.) Freon-11

96. Calcium chloride freezes at :

a.) -14 ºF
b.) -32 ºF
c.) 32 ºF
d.) 20 ºF

97. How do you know whether you have enough refrigerant charge in an ammonia system ?
a.) By the head pressure
b.) By the suction pressure
c.) By the gauge glass on the receiver
d.) By the evaporator temperature

98. In a R-12 system with too much refrigerant, what will happen ?
a.) High head pressure
b.) Low and pressure
c.) Low suction pressure
d.) Low motor current

99. Sodium chloride is not recommended for use temperature below :

a.) 20 ºF
b.) 5 ºF
c.) 10 ºF
d.) 0 ºF

100. The instrument that measures the specific gravity of a brine is :

a.) A manometer
b.) A mercury barometer
c.) An anemometer
d.) A hydrometer

101. Its is a compressor that has a single or multi-stage high-speed impeller to set up
enough centrifugal force within a circular casing to raise the pressure of the
refrigerant gas to condensing level.
a.) Reciprocating compressor b.) Rotary compressor
c.) Centrifugal compressor d.) Sliding vane compressor

102. It is a positive displacement compressor that traps a given volume of gas,

compresses it, and ejects from the machine. It usually has a rotor revolving off-
center in a cylinder with sliding vanes forced against the cylinder wall.
Refrigerant gas is compressed by the sliding vane around the cylinder from
suction port to the discharge port.
a.) Reciprocating compressor b.) Rotary compressor
c.) Centrifugal compressor d.) Rotary sliding vane compressor

103. This compressor is another positive displacement compressor, and was first
used for refrigeration in the late 1950s. The compressor basically consist of two
mating helically grooved rotors, a mate (lobes) and female (grooves), in a
stationary housing with suction and discharge ports.
a.) Reciprocating compressor b.) Rotary screw compressor
c.) Centrifugal compressor d.) Rotary sliding vane compressor

104. It is a compressor with crankshaft extended through the compressor housing in

which the motor is externally coupled to the shaft. Ammonia compressors are
 manufactured only in this type.
a.) Open-type Compressor
b.) Hermetic Compressor
c.) Semi-hermetic Compressors
d.) Welded-shell (sealed) Hermetic compressor

105. This compressor is a single- or two-cylinder reciprocating compressor usually

directly connected to a steam engine or slow - speed synchronous motor. The
compressor is a very ragged type one.
a.) Horizontal Double-Acting Compressor
b.) Vertical Single-Acting Compressor
c.) V or VW Compressors
d.) Angle Compressor

106. This compressor is a reciprocating machine, most commonly build in two-,

three-, or four cylinder combinations with medium rotative speeds, from 600 rpm
in the smaller sizes to 300 rpm in the larger sizes.
a.) Horizontal Double-Acting Compressor
b.) Vertical Single-Acting Compressor
c.) V or VW Compressors
d.) Angle Compressor

107. These compressors are type of single-acting reciprocating compressors with

cylinders and pistons arranged in V, W, or VV patterns; and may have as many
as 16 cylinders for single compressors. These are high-speed compressors.
often direct-connected to the shaft of the driving motor. Common speed of the
compressor is 1750 rpm.
a.) Horizontal Double-Acting Compressor
b.) Vertical Single-Acting Compressor
c.) V or VW Compressors
d.) Angle Compressor

108. This compressor is using one or more cylinder, usually driven by an internal
combustion engine whose pistons and connecting rods are connected to the
same crankshaft. One set of cylinders operates in a horizontal plane and the
other in a vertical plane.
a.) Horizontal Double-Acting Compressor
b.) Vertical Single-Acting Compressor
c.) V or VW Compressors
d.) Angle Compressor

109. It is a rotary-motion, positive-displacement compressor that uses two inter-fitting.

spiral-shaped scroll members to compress the refrigerant vapor.
a.) Scroll compressor b.) Trochoidal Compressor
c.) Single-Screw Compressors d.) Angle Compressor

110. This machine is small, rotary, orbital, positive-displacement device that can run
at speeds up to 9000 rom. These compressor are manufactured in a variety of
configurations, including the Wankel design.
a.) Scroll compressor b.) Trochoidal Compressor
c.) Single-Screw Compressors d.) Angle Compressor

111. These compressors are characterized by a continuous exchange of angular

momentum between a rotating mechanical element and a steady flowing fluid.
a.) Centrifugal compressors b.) Rotary compressors
c.) Reciprocating compressors d.) Hermetic compressors

112. This valve position the valve spool to admit the refrigerant as required by
evaporator load.
a.) Thermostatic Expansion Valve b.) Electric Expansion Valve
c.) Capillary tube d.) Short Tube Restrictor
 113. This is not a valve, but effectively replaces the expansion valve in many
application. It is a long thin tube placed between the condenser and the
evaporator. The small diameter and long length of the tube produce a large
pressure drop.
a.) Thermostatic Expansion Valve b.) Electric Expansion Valve
c.) Capillary tube d.) Short Tube Restrictor

114. This is widely used in place of capillary tube in residential system. It has high
reliability, low cost, and easily inspected and replaced.
a.) Thermostatic Expansion Valve b.) Electric Expansion Valve
c.) Capillary tube d.) Short Tube Restrictor

115. It is used to maintain a relatively constant minimum pressure in the evaporator.

a.) Evaporator Pressure Regulator
b.) Suction Pressure Regulator
c.) Short Tube Restrictor
d.) Short tube restrictor

116. It is the designation for other refrigerants that are chlofluorocarbons but cause
little or no ozone destruction.
a.) HCFC or HFC b.) CFC c.) ODP d.) HFC

117. HCFC stands for ______________.

a.) Chlofluorocarbon b.) Hydrochlorofluorocarbon
c.) Chlorofluorocarbon d.) None of these

118. HFC stands for ______________.

a.) Chlorofluorocarbon b.) Hydrochlorofluorocarbon
c.) Chlorofluorocarbon d.) Hydrochlorocarbon

119. Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant ?

a.) Low thermal conductivity b.) Low freezing point
c.) Low condensing pressure d.) Low viscosity

120. It is the process of treating air so as to control simultaneously its temperature,

humidity, cleanliness and distribution to meet the comfort requirements the
occupants of the conditioned room or space. What is this?
a.) Comfort Air Conditioning b.) Summer Air Conditioning
c.) Industrial Air Conditioning d.) Commercial Air Conditioning
 Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
( Elements No. 6 )

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil No. 1 only.

1. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the removal of:

a.) 288,000 BTU per 24 hrs. b.) 28.000 BTU per 24 hrs.
c.) 28,800 BTU per 24 hrs. d.) 280,000 BTU per 24 hrs.

2. Which of the following would cause a high suction pressure?

a.) expansion valve not open wide enough
b.) expansion valve open too wide
c.) king valve not open wide enough
d.) dirty dehydrator

3. Which of the following would cause high head pressure?

a.) dirty condenser b.) insufficient cooling water
c.) air in the cooling water d.) all of the above

4. Which of the following would cause low head pressure?

a.) too much cooling water b.) insufficient refrigeration gas
c.) insufficient cooling water d.) A and B

5. The principle if the mechanical refrigeration is:

a.) the absorption of temperature under heat, pressure, compression and expansion
b.) the compression of a liquid under temperature and expansion
c.) the absorption of heat under temperature, compression, pressure and
expansion
d.) the conversion of a liquid to a gas

6. The function of the expansion valve is to:

a.) valve the high-pressure liquid to low-pressure liquid
b.) regulate the amount of liquid refrigerant to the expansion valve
c.) change the gas refrigerants to a liquid
d.) shut off the flow of refrigeration to the condenser

7. The oil separator (trap) is located between the:

a.) compressor discharge valve and the condenser
b.) condenser and the receiver
c.) receiver and the king valve
d.) none of the above

8. The purpose of the oil trap is:

a.) to remover oil from the charging tank
b.) to add oil to the compressor
c.) to remover oil from the refrigerant gas
d.) none of the above

9. The boiling point of ammonia at atmospheric pressure is:

a.) -28°C b.) +28°C c.) +28°C d.) -28°F

10. The boiling point of CO2 at atmospheric pressure is:

a.) +10oF b.) -100oC c.) +110oC d.) -110oF

11. The boiling point of Freon at atmospheric pressure is:

a.) -22oF b.) +22oF c.) +22oC d.) -22oC

12. Too high suction pressure could be cause by:

 a.) expansion valve open too wide b.) leaky suction valves
c.) expansion valve bulb not working properly d.) any of the above

13. How is an ammonia system purged so that the operator will not be overcome by the fumes?
a.) into that atmospheric line b.) into a bucket of water
c.) into a bucket of lube oil d.) back into the compressor

14. How is a CO2 system purged?

a.) when CO2 comes out frost will form on a piece of metal held near the
outlet
b.) through the king valve
c.) the CO2 will come out in liquid form
d.) pumped out with a suction pump

15. How is Freon system purged?

a.) the same as the ammonia system b.) the same as the CO2 system
c.) back to the extra supply bottle d.) with a reefer pump

16. Latent heat:

a.) can be measured with a thermometer
b.) can be measured with a pyrometer
c.) cannot be measured with a thermometer
d.) changes as the refrigerant cools

17. Absolute zero is:

a.) 970º below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
b.) 460º below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
c.) 144º below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
d.) The same as zero on the Centigrade scale

18. When the evaporator coils are located in the icebox , the system is known as a:
a.) direct system b.) low-pressure system
c.) indirect system d.) high-pressure system

19. The amount of CO2 or Freon in a cylinder is measured by:

a.) pressure b.) volume c.) weight d.) psi

20. If the compressor power increase while refrigeration load is constant, its COP will:
a.) Increase b.) decrease c.) constant d.) none of the above

21. The solenoid valve is controlled by:

a.) The amount of liquid in the system
b.) the amount of gas in the system
c.) The temperature in the condenser
d.) the thermal switch is operated by the icebox temp.

22. The purged valve is located:

a.) In the lowest part of the system b.) in the highest part of the system
c.) On the receiver discharge d.) on the evaporator coils

23. A (n) _______ wrench should be used on a valve stem.

a.) allen wrench b.) miniature pipe
c.) Service valve d.) torx key

24. When should you push and pull on a wrench?

a.) Push to loosen, pull to tighten b.) pull to loosen, push to tighten
c.) Always push d.) always pull

25. What tool should not to be used on a slotted hexagon head bolt?
a.) Straight screw driver b.) nut pliers
c.) hex key wrench d.) twelve-point wrench
26. Which of the following would not describe a box wrench?
a.) Straight b.) offset c.) double offset d.) open end

27. It is a branch of science that deals with the process of reducing and maintaining the temperature of a space
or material below the temperature of the surroundings.
a.) Air conditioning b.) refrigeration
c.) heat pump d.) all of these

28. The high-pressure vapor heat exchanger in the refrigeration system.

a) Evaporator b) condenser c) boiler d) heater

29. A refrigeration method of lowering and maintaining the temperature of a material or space by use of a literal
ice (water or other substance, say, dry ice)
a.) Ice refrigerator b.) mechanical refrigerator
c.) vacuum refrigeration d.) air cycle refrigeration

30. A method of refrigeration using air as, and basically used for air conditioning or air craft.
a.) ice refrigeration b.) mechanical refrigeration
c.) vacuum refrigeration d.) air cycle refrigeration

31. A method of refrigeration system using water as refrigerant; lowering and

maintaining of system temperature is attained by creation of vacuum condition
through the action steam jet. It is basically used in the air condition system of a
steam power plant.
a.) ice refrigeration b.) mechanical refrigeration
c.) vacuum refrigeration d.) air cycle refrigeration

32. A method of refrigeration using mechanical components composing a system known

as vapour-compression refrigeration system
a.) ice refrigeration b.) mechanical refrigeration
c.) vacuum refrigeration d.) air cycle refrigeration

33. Standard vapour-compression refrigeration system has ____ evaporator

temperature _____ condenser temperature.
a.) 5ᵒF, 86ᵒF b.) 0ᵒF, 80ᵒF c.) 5ᵒF, 80ᵒF d.) 32ᵒF, 86ᵒF

34. The unit of heat in the English system of units

a.) Btu b.) ft-lb c.) Hp d.) ft-lb/min

35. What unit the work in the English system of units ?

a.) Btu b.) ft-lb c.) Hp d.) ft-lb/min

36. An instrument used to measure the DB-temperature and the wet-bulb temperature of moist air.
a.) Phsycrometer b.) thermometer c.) hydrometer d.) hygrometer

37. How do you call the pressure, in psi, above a complete vacuum?
a.) gage pressure b.) absolute pressure
c.) vacuum pressure d.) atmospheric pressure

38. A temperature in which moisture content of moist air starts to condense.

a.) wet-bulb temperature b.) dry-bulb temperature
c.) dew point temperature d.) saturation temperature

39. For each gas there exists a temperature above which it cannot be liquefied,
regardless of pressure. This temperature is called as ______?
a.) wet-bulb temperature b.) dry-bulb temperature
c.) critical temperature d.) saturation temperature

40. Thee co called _______ at substances used in laboratory methods of producing a drop in temperature.
a.) Brine mixture b.) water-ammonia mixture
c.) frigorfic mixture d.) ice and salt mixture

41. Adding 10% salt (NaCl), by weight, to water lowers its freezing point from 32ᵒF to?
 a) 18.7ᵒF b) 0ᵒF c) 15.7ᵒF d) 32ᵒF

42. It is the basis of all refrigeration calculation, whether for old storage, air conditioning, ice cream
manufacturing.
a.) refrigeration effect b.) tons of refrigeration
c.) coefficient of performance d.) compressor Hp

43. Which of the following is the component of vapour-compressing refrigeration not

belonging to high pressure side?
a.) condenser b.) compressor c.) expansion valve d.) liquid line

44. Another term for suction pressure.

a.) discharge pressure b.) heat pressure
c.) back pressure d.) condenser pressure

45. The amount of heat absorbed in the vapour, which is the same as the amount of
heat removed from the space to be cooled.
a.) tons of refrigeration b.) refrigerating effect
c.) coefficient of performance d.) compressor Hp

46. Too much oil in the compressor would _____?

a.) absorb too much refrigerant from the system
b.) damage the expansion valve
c.) cause leakage through the shaft seals
d.) deposit oil on the condenser tube

47. Which of the following has the lowest boiling point or temperature?
a.) NH3 b.) CO2 c.) F-22 d.) F-21

48. The device used for low-pressure control and high-pressure cutout on a compressor is called a:
a.) cutout b.) pressure controller
c.) controller switch d.) cutout switch

49. Thermal expansion valve are usually of the:

a.) bellow type b.) magnetic type c.) diaphragm type d.) A or C

50. Liquid reaching the compressor through the suction line is called:
a.) flooding back b.) superheating c.) overflowing d.) recycling

51. Pressure controllers are usually of the:

a.) diaphragm-type construction b.) bellow-type construction
c.) magnetic-type construction d.) pilot-type construction

52. If the cooling water to the condenser should suddenly fall:

a.) the solenoid valve will close
b.) the expansion valve will close
c.) the compressor cutout switch
d.) an alarm will ring to notify the engineer

53. If the solenoid valve closed by accident, the compressor would be stopped by:
a.) low-pressure cutout switch b.) high-pressure cutout switch
c.) low-water cutout switch d.) automatic trip

54. The solenoid valve controls the:

a.) amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator coils
b.) amount of refrigerant going to the expansion valve
c.) amount of refrigerant going to the compressor
d.) pressure of the refrigerants going to the evaporator

55. As Freon passes through the expansion vavle:

a) the volume decreases and the pressure increases
b) the volume increases and the pressure increases
c) the pressure decreases and the pressure increases
d) the volume decreases and the pressure decreases
56. A thermostat is a:
a.) temperature-operated switch
b.) pressure-oriented switch
c.) super-heated operated switch
d.) back-pressure-operated switch

57. The elements of thermostat switch are usually of the:

a.) diaphragm type b.) bimetal type c.) valve type d.) pilot-valve type

58. When heavy electrical current are involved, the thermostat will be operated by a:
a.) small circuit breaker
b.) pressure pipe
c.) fusetron
d.) relay

59. If the compressor runs continually, the cause might be the:

a.) high-pressure cutout switch is jammed open
b.) low-pressure switch is jammed about
c.) thermal bulb is not operating properly
d.) scale trap is clogged

60. The solenoid valve can be types as a:

a.) thermal valve
b.) magnetic stop valve
c.) bellow valve
d.) bimetallic valve

61. .If the compressor had been running satisfactory, for along period of time but the coil level was rising slowly,
the thing to do would be to:
a.) drain out sufficient oil to bring it down to the proper running level
b.) shut down the compressor and check the oil level with the machine stopped
c.) check the dehydrator cartridge
d.) check to see if there is too much refrigerant in the system

62. If the compressor had been running satisfactory for a long period of time but
suddenly the compartment temperature started to rise, the trouble might be:
a.) solenoid valve is jammed shut
b.) the expansion valve may have water frozen in it
c.) a refrigerant leak has develop
d.) any of the above

63. Abnormal discharge temperatures would be caused by:

a.) expansion valve
b.) purge valve
c.) king valve(liquid)
d.) solenoid valve

64. Abnormal discharge temperatures would cause by:

a.) leaky suction valve
b.) leaky discharge valve
c.) fault piston ring
d.) any of the above

65. A device for holding open the suction valve and drawing gas form the suction
manifold and returning it to top the suction line without compressing it is called:
a.) discharge line bypass
b.) cylinder unloader
c.) suction line bypass
d.) relief valve

66. The component that absorbs heat into the refrigerant is the:
a.) meeting device
b.) condenser
c.) compressor
d.) evaporator
67. The high side of the system includes
a.) a metering device
b.) an evaporator
c.) a suction line
d.) a receiver

68. Superheat is added:

a.) with the aid of the automatic expansion valve
b.) after all liquid has been changed to vapor
c.) for the vaporization of the evaporator
d.) to increase the heat of a substance

69. The low side of the system include:

a.) a receiver
b.) a compressor
c.) a discharge
d.) an evaporator

70. The heat used to change a liquid to a gas or vapor is called latent heat of:
a.) vaporization
b.) fusion
c.) condensation
d.) superheat

71. A thermometer is said to detect:

a.) heat of vaporization
b.) sensible heat
c.) potential energy
d.) hidden heat

72. Hidden heat in refrigeration work is called:

a.) superheat
b.) kinetic heat
c.) sensible heat
d.) latent heat

73. What is another term for latent heat:

a.) hidden heat
b.) absolute heat
c.) sensible heat
d.) specific heat

74. Which of the following would cause low head pressure:

a.) insufficient cooling water
b.) too much cooling water
c.) insufficient refrigerant gas
d.) too much cooling water and or insufficient refrigerant gas

75. The dehydrator is locate ______________. .

a.) between the receiver and the king valve
b.) between the receiver and the expansion valve
c.) between the condenser and the king valve
d.) between the condenser and accumulator

76. Which of the following is the purpose or function of the dehydrator?

a.) to remove oil from the refrigerant
b.) to add more refrigerant to the system
c.) to remove moisture from the refrigerant
d.) to remove moisture from the crank case oil

77. Which of the following would you apply if you got Freon in your eyes?
a.) Soapy water
b.) Sterile mineral oil
c.) Clean water
 d.) Sodium bicarbonate

78. What is the heart of the refrigeration system?

a.) Condenser
b.) Evaporator
c.) Compressor
d.) Expansion valve

79. Water in the refrigerant is liable to ____________. .

a.) Clog the oil trap
b.) Freeze in the king valve
c.) Emulsify the oil in the compressor
d.) To freeze on the expansion seat and cut the flow of liquid refrigerant

80. The purpose of the scale trap is _____________. .

a.) To control the amount of scale going to the compressor
b.) To remove insoluble gases from the refrigerant
c.) To remove dirt, scale and metal chip from the refrigerant
d.) To dissolve scale and dirt in the system

81. What is the function of expansion valve?

a.) To regulate the amount of liquid refrigerant to the expansion coils
b.) To change the high pressure liquid to low pressure liquid
c.) To change the gas refrigerant to gas
d.) To shut off the flow of refrigerant to the condenser

82. The oil separator or oil trap is located between ______________.

a.) Receiver and king valve
b.) Condenser and the receiver
c.) Compressor discharge valve and condenser
d.) Receiver and the king valve

83. The purpose of oil trap or oil separator is _______________. .

a.) To remove oil from the refrigerant gas
b.) To remove oil from the charging tank
c.) To add oil to the compressor
d.) To remove oil from the evaporator

84. Which of the following is the boiling point of ammonia at standard atmospheric
pressure?
a.) -28 °C
b.) -28 °F
c.) 0 °F
d.) 32 °F

85. How do you call the pressure, in psi, above a complete vacuum?
a.) Gage pressure
b.) Absolute pressure
c.) Vacuum pressure
d.) Atmospheric pressure

86. A temperature in which moisture content of moist air starts to condense.

a) Wet-bulb temperature
b) Dry-bulb temperature
c) Dew point temperature
d) Saturation temperature

87. For each gas there exists a temperature above which it cannot be liquefied,
regardless of pressure. This temperature is called as ____________.
a.) Wet-bulb temperature
b.) Dry-bulb temperature
c.) Critical temperature
d.) Saturation temperature

88. Thee co called _____________ at substances used in laboratory methods of

producing a drop in temperature.
 a.) Brine mixture
b.) Water-ammonia mixture
c.) Frigorific mixture
d.) Ice and salt mixture

89. Adding 10 percent salt (Sodium Chloride), by weight to water lowers freezing point to ______________.
.
a.) 18.7 °F
b.) 0 °F
c.) 15.7 °F
d.) 32 °F

90. It is the basis of all refrigeration calculations, whether for old storage, air
conditioning, ice cream manufacturing.
a.) Refrigerating effect
b.) Ton of refrigeration
c.) Coefficient of performance
d.) Compressor Hp

91. Which of the following is the component of vapor-compression refrigeration not

belonging to high pressure side.
a.) Condenser
b.) Compressor
c.) Expansion valve
d.) Liquid line

92. Another term for suction pressure.

a.) Discharge pressure
b.) Heat pressure
c.) Back pressure
d.) Condenser pressure
93. The amount of heat absorbed in evaporator, which is the same as the amount of
heat removed from the space to be cooled.
a.) Tons of refrigeration
b.) Refrigerating effect
c.) Coefficient of performance
d.) Compressor Hp

94. Which of the following is true for white ice?

a.) A fast-cooled water
b.) A sub-cooled water
c.) Due to dissolved air, gases and impurities
d.) Formed by blowing air during freezing

95. In the detection of refrigerant leak, sulphur stick burning in the presence of
ammonia will release of which color of smoke?
a.) Dense white
b.) Dense yellow
c.) Dense orange
d.) Dense red

96. As a general rule, the cooling water side of the condenser should be schedule for inspection every which of
the following number of months?
a.) Month
b.) 3 Months
c.) 6 Months
d.) Year

97. When adding the refrigerant in a refrigeration system, it shall be charge into which of the following parts of the
system?
a.) High pressure side
b.) Low pressure side
c.) Low and high pressure side
d.) Compressor discharge side

98. Which of the following is not a desirable for property of a refrigerant

 a.) Low thermal conductivity
b.) Low freezing point
c.) Low condensing pressure
d.) Low viscosity

99. It is the process of treating air so as to control simultaneously its temperature,

humidity, cleanliness and distribution to meet the comfort requirements of the
occupants of the condition room or space. What is this?
a.) Comfort Air Conditioning
b.) Summer Air Conditioning
c.) Industrial Air Conditioning
d.) Summer Air Conditioning

100. It is the ozone-destroying power of a substance measured relative to refrigerant

11 (R – 11 or CFC – 11)
a.) Ozone Depletion Potential (ODO)
b.) Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)
c.) Hydrofluorocarbon (HFC)
d.) Global Warming Potential (GWP)

101. How do you classified a solenoid valve?

a.) A thermal valve
b.) A magnetic stop valve
c.) A bellows valve
d.) A bi-metallic valve

102. What is thermostat?

a.) A temperature - operated switch
b.) A pressure - operated switch
c.) A superheated - operated switch
d.) A back pressure - operated switch

103. Which of the following ranges of humidity ratio is used for comport air
conditioning?
a.) 50 to 55 %
b.) 55 to 60 %
c.) 60 to 65 %
d.) 45 to 50 %

104. What is a body insulation that is usually described as a single equivalent uniform
layer over the whole body?
a.) Skin
b.) Blood
c.) Clothing
d.) Water

105. This evaporator type is used for water chilling up to the temperature of 2 °C or
lower.
a.) Flooded shell-and-tube evaporator
b.) Dry shell-and tube-evaporator
c.) Submerged evaporator
d.) Baudelot Cooler
 Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
( Elements No. 7 )

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil No. 1 only.

1. It refers to the control of temperature, moisture content, cleanliness, air quality, and air circulation as required
by occupants, a process, or a product in the space.
a) Refrigeration
b) Air conditioning
c) Humidifying
d) Cooling

2. What is the study of the properties of air and water vapor or moist air?
a) Air receiver
b) Refrigerating
c) Evaporator
d) Sensible heating

3. It is a closed vessel in which a liquid is heated or vaporized.

a) Air Receiver
b) Boiler
c) Evaporator
d) Condenser

4. The equivalent evaporation of 34.5 lb of water per hour from and at 212 °F. This is equal to a heat output of
970.3 x 34.5 = 33 475 Btu/hr.
a) Boiler Capacity
b) Boiler Horsepower
c) Electric power
d) Mechanical power

5. It is an aspirator or vacuum pump that creates a negative pressure on the filtrate side of the filter to hasten the
process of filtering.
a) Fire Pump
b) Filter Pump
c) Reciprocating Pump
d) Centrifugal Pump

6. One of the most popular pumps because of their simplicity, low cost and ability to operate under a wide variety
of conditions.
a) Rotary Pump
b) Centrifugal Pump
c) Reciprocating Pump
d) Screw Pump

7. A type of centrifugal pump with specific speed ranging from 1500 to 4500 rpm.
a) Radial type
b) Francis type
c) Mixed-flow type
d) Propeller pump

8. A type of centrifugal pump with specific speed ranging from 500 to 3000 rpm
a) Radial type
b) Francis type
c) Mixed-flow type
d) Propeller pump

9. A type of centrifugal pump with specific speed ranging from 4500 to 8000 rpm
 a) Radial type
b) Francis type
c) Mixed-flow type
d) Propeller pump

10. A type of centrifugal pump with specific speed above 8000 rpm
a) Radial type
b) Francis type
c) Mixed-flow type
d) Propeller pump

11. This pump is known as piston pump and is a pump in which motion and pressure are applied to the fluid by a
reciprocating piston in a cylinder.
a) Reciprocating pump
b) Centrifugal pump
c) Diaphragm pump
d) Piston pump

12. This is a displacement-reciprocating pump in which the steam or power piston is connected to the pump
piston by means of a rod without crank motion or flywheel.
a) Double-acting pump
b) Single-acting pump
c) Direct-acting pump
d) Indirect-acting pump

13. This is the pump that develops its action through the alternate filling and emptying of an enclosed volume,
say, in a piston-cylinder system.
a) Displacement pump
b) Dynamic pump
c) Rotary pump
d) Centrifugal pump

14. This is rotary pump in which two meshing gear wheels rotates in opposite directions so that the liquid is
entrained on one side and discharged on the other side.
a) Gear pump
b) Screw-type pump
c) Submersible pump
d) Jet pump

15. These are pumps in which energy is continuously added to increase the fluid velocities within the machine to
values greater than those occurring at the discharge so subsequent velocity reduction within or beyond the
pump produces a pump pressure increase.
a) Dynamic pumps
b) Displacement pumps
c) Rotary pumps
d) Reciprocating pumps

16. These are displacement pump that deliver a steady flow by the action of two members in rotational contact.
a) Rotary pumps
b) Centrifugal pumps
c) Screw-type pumps
d) Duplex pumps

17. It is a displacement pump that raises liquid by means of helical impellers in the pump casing.
a) Screw-type pump
b) Gear pump
c) Vane-type pump
d) Submersible pump

18. It is a pump in which the pump itself and its electric driving motor are together in a protective housing that
permits the unit to operate underwater.
 a) Screw-type pump
b) Gear pump
c) Vane-type pump
d) Submersible pump

19. It is a pump with a rotating-vane device that uses a combination of mechanical impulse and centrifugal force
to produce high liquid heads at low discharge. This pump is also known as turbine pump.
a) Screw-type pump
b) Gear pump
c) Vane-type pump
d) Regenerative pump

20. This is a multistage centrifugal pump used for lifting water from deep and small diameter wells; and a surface
electric motor operates the shaft. It is also known as deep well pump.
a) Vertical turbine pump
b) Gear pump
c) Vane-type pump
d) Regenerative pump

21. This a pump in which an accelerating jet entrains s second fluid to deliver it at elevated pressure.
a) Vertical turbine pump
b) Gear pump
c) Jet pump
d) Regenerative pump

22. It is a machine used for forcing running water to a higher level by using kinetic energy of flow; the flow of
water in the supply pipeline is periodically stop so that small portion of water is lifted by the velocity head of
larger portion. This pump is also known as hydraulic ram.
a) Vertical turbine pump
b) Hydraulic pump
c) Jet pump
d) Regenerative pump

23. A reciprocating pump where the packing is on the stationary casing instead of the moving piston.
a) Vertical turbine pump
b) Hydraulic pump
c) Diaphragm pump
d) Plunger-type pump

24. A reciprocating pump that is using as a diaphragm to isolate the operating parts from pumped liquid in a
mechanically actuated diaphragm.
a) Vertical turbine pump
b) Hydraulic pump
c) Diaphragm pump
d) Plunger-type pump

25. These are another design of reciprocating pumps used for handling thick pulps, sewage sludge, acids, or
alkaline solutions, mixture of water and gritty solids that wear out metal pumps, and for handling liquid
solutions or pulps where a constant flow volume is required.
a) Vertical turbine pump
b) Hydraulic pump
c) Diaphragm pump
d) Plunger-type pump

26. This machine is used to convert the potential energy behind a dam into shaft work, ordinarily used to drive an
electric generator.
a) Water turbine
b) Steam turbine
c) Gas turbine
d) Air turbine
27. A special type of propeller turbine featuring variable-angle blades that can be change with water flow to
maintain high efficiency.
a) Water turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis-type turbine
d) Pelton turbine

28. It is a type of hydro-electric power plant with a reservoir of sufficient size to permit carry-over storage from the
wet season to dry season and thus, to develop a firm flow substantially more than minimum natural flow.
a) Storage-type plant
b) Run-of-river plant
c) Pumped-storage plant
d) All of these

29. This plant is one with very limited storage capacity and can be used only as water comes.
a) Storage-type plant
b) Run-of-river plant
c) Pumped-storage plant
d) All of these

30. This hydro-power plant is suitable only for streams that have sustained flow during the dry season or where
other reservoirs upstream provide the necessary storage.
a) Storage-type plant
b) Run-of-river plant
c) Pumped-storage plant
d) All of these

31. A machine in the pumping action is accomplished by imparting kinetic energy to the fluid by the high speed
revolving impeller with vanes and subsequently converting this kinetic energy into pressure energy either
passing the fluid thru a volute casing or thru diffuser vanes.
a) Centrifugal pumps
b) Displacement pump
c) Rotary pump
d) Reciprocating pump

32. This pump is motivated by the force of steam in the steam piston. The steam and water pistons are connected
by a piston rod and any force applied on the steam piston is transmitted to the water piston. Steam and water
pistons are normally double-acting which means that every stroke of the water piston is the delivery stroke.
a) Direct-acting reciprocating pump
b) Indirect-acting pump
c) Displacement pump
d) Centrifugal pump

33. This water pump is driven by, either an electric motor, internal combustion engine, gas turbine. Is also called
power pump. It has high efficiency and constant speed because of the type of drive.
a. direct acting reciprocating pump b. indirect- acting pump
c. Displacement pump d. centrifugal pump

34. A reciprocating pump with one cylinder

a. simplex pump b. duplex pump
c. Triplex pump d. All of these
35. A reciprocating pump with two cylinder
a. simplex pump b. duplex pump
c. Triplex pump d. All of these

36. A reciprocating pump with three cylinder

a. simplex pump b. duplex pump
c. Triplex pump d. All of these

37. The effluent coming from the geothermal well as produced after drilling. This can be purely steam or water or
mixture of both.
 a. Well- bore product b. Brine water
c. Dissolved solids d. condensed water

38. It refers to geothermal plant with its well producing all steam as well bore- product
a. Steam dominated geothermal field b. liquid geothermal field
c. Ground subsidence d, Flash water system

39. The well bore products for this type of field is practically hot water vaporized
a. Steam dominated geothermal field b. liquid geothermal field
c. Ground subsidence d, Flash water system

40. A heat saving equipment made of a bundle of tubes where the feed water, before introduced to the boiler is
heated by outgoing flue gas.
a. Economizer b. Attemperator
c. Desuperheater d. Deaerator

41. An equipment used to control steam temperature by removing energy from the steam. It can on the contact
type or shell or tube kind, using boiler as cooling medium.
a. Economizer b. Attemperator
c. Desuperheater d. Deaerator

42. A contact type desuperheater using boiler as the cooling medium sprayed directly into the superheated steam
inside a mixing chamber or nozzle.
a. Economizer b. Attemperator
c. Desuperheater d. Deaerator

43. An open type of feed heater equip with internal accessories such as air- separating trays in the feed water,
especially oxygen. Excessive oxygen dissolved in feedwater causes corrosion in boiler drums and tubes.
a. Economizer b. Attemperator
c. Desuperheater d. Deaerator
44. A water softening material of complex chemical structure contained in cylindrical tank where raw water is
made to pass through. The system removes various ions from the water replacing them with other ions like
charge.
a. Zeolite Softener b. Attemperator
c. Desuperheater d. Deaerator

45. An apparatus consisting of glass burretes and graduated cylinder containing the proper chemical reagents,
used to analyze the volumetric composition of an exhaust gas or similar gases by absorption process
a. Orsat apparatus b. Bomb Calorimeter
c. Gas Calorimeter d. Steam Calorimeter

46. A device used to determine the heating value of fluid

a. Orsat apparatus b. Bomb Calorimeter
c. Gas Calorimeter d. Steam Calorimeter

47. It takes place in boiler tubes due to dissolved solids or salts in the feed water. Essentially it takes place when
the water in the boiler reaches chemical saturation and precipitation whit sedimentation flows, forming a layer
of scale on the heating surface and loose precipitates in drums.
a. Scaling b. corrosion
c. Foam and priming d. Caustic Embritlement

48. The destruction conversion of metals into oxides and salts. This is due to acid condition of water or too much
oxygen or carbon. The most serious factor is the oxygen dissolved in the feed water.
a. Scaling b. corrosion
c. Foam and priming d. Caustic Embritlement

49. The condition of boiler operation where stable foams is produced which may be not accompanied with
priming. Wet steam is destructive to turbine blades, and engine because of metal corrosion.
a. Scaling b. corrosion
c. Foam and priming d. Caustic Embritlement
50. The condition in which the steel tubes or drums loose their toughness and crack appears along the seams
below the water line. This is essentially due to pre precense of sodium hydroxide in the absence of inhibit
agents.
a. Embrittlement b. corrosion
c. Foam and priming d. Caustic Embritlement

51. The presence of impurity bearing droplets of water in the steam flow. This is primarily cause by foaming
a. Scaling b. Carryover
c. Foam and priming d. Caustic Embritlement

52. The condition that will occur when the superheated steam expands suddenly to the most regions with little to
condensate partially, and there are no nuclei to promote condensation. This result in steam temperature at a
given pressure, and lower specific volume.
a. Supersaturation b. Carryover
c. Foam and priming d. Caustic Embritlement

53. A device used to measure the linear distance traversed.

a. Odometer b. Bourdon Gauge
c. Pilot tube d. Westphal Balances

54. A pressure measuring device

a. Odometer b. Bourdon Gauge
c. Pilot tube d. Westphal Balances

55. It measure the total pressure

a. Odometer b. Bourdon Gauge
c. Pilot tube d. Westphal Balances

56. It measure the specific gravity of the fluid

a. Odometer b. Bourdon Gauge
c. Pilot tube d. Westphal Balances

57. Measure the specific gravity of the fluid

a. Hydrometer b. radiation Pyrometer
c. Optical Pyrometer d. Bomb calorimeter

58. Measure the high extremely temperature

a. Hydrometer b. radiation Pyrometer
c. Optical Pyrometer d. Bomb calorimeter

59. Measure the temperature thru varying resistance

a. Hydrometer b. radiation Pyrometer
c. Optical Pyrometer d. Bomb calorimeter

60. A measuring device used to measure the Higher Heating Value of coal.
a. Hydrometer b. Radiation Pyrometer
c. Optical Pyrometer d. Bomb Calorimeter
61. It is used to determine quality of high quality of steam by a throttle valve.
a. Throttling Calorimeter b. Anemometer
c. Psychrometer d. Velometer

62. Use to measure the air speed (wind)

a. Throttling Calorimeter b. Anemometer
c. Psychrometer d. Velometer

63. Use to measure the relative humidity of air.

a. Throttling Calorimeter b. Anemometer
c. Psychrometer d. Velometer

64. Use to measure all velocity

a. Throttling Calorimeter b. Anemometer
 c. Psychrometer d. Velometer

65. Measure the presence of radio activity

a. Geiger-Muller Counter b. Separating Calorimeter
c. Vibrating Rod d. Anemometer

66. It is used to measure sound intensity

a. Geiger-Muller Counter b. Separating Calorimeter
c. Vibrating Rod d. Anemometer

67. It measure the frequency of an element

a. Geiger-Muller Counter b. Separating Calorimeter
c. Vibrating Rod d. Anemometer

68. A device used in analyzing the dry products of combustion

a. Geiger-Muller Counter b. Separating Calorimeter
c. Vibrating Rod d. Orsat Apparatus

69. A term used in pulverizing coal. It is the measure of the relative hardness or easiness of grinding of pulverized
coal.
a. Geiger-Muller Counter b. Separating Calorimeter
c. Grindability Index d. Orsat Apparatus

70. A pollution control device is used to control very small or minute particulates which not be dispersed by
mechanical collector. This uses electrostatic charges on two electrodes which ionize the particulates as they
pass thru.
a. Geiger-Muller Counter b. Electrostatic Precipitator
c. Grindability Index d. Orsat Apparatus
71. A maintenance method with periodic time schedule inspection to detect wear and tear in advance of actual
equipment breakdown with subsequent replacement of worn out parts before they fall in order to minimized
interference in operation.
a. Preventive Maintenance b. Maintenance Chart
c. Corrective Maintenance d. Routine Maintenance

72. A typical time schedule chart indicating the equipment and the maintenance activity to accomplish such as
lubrication or replacement of parts.
a. Preventive Maintenance b. Maintenance Chart
c. Corrective Maintenance d. Routine Maintenance

73. A maintenance method for improvements or minor changes in design and substitution of more suitable
components or improve materials of construction to eliminate a problem.
a.) Preventive Maintenance c.) Corrective Maintenance
b.) Maintenance Chart d.) Routine Maintenance

74. A maintenance method consists of the regular maintenance activities like lubrication, recharging of batteries
and replacement of certain parts.
a.) Preventive Maintenance c.) Corrective Maintenance
b.) Maintenance Chart d.) Routine Maintenance

75. A typical weekly schedule of servicing an equipment to detect possible defect.

a.) Preventive Maintenance c.) Corrective Maintenance
b.) Inspection Schedule d.) Routine Maintenance

76. It provides effectives atmospheric dispersion of gaseous and particulate pollutants with acceptable ground
level concentration. These are high enough to produce draft.
a.) Chimney c.) Spray Scrubber-tower type
b.) Cyclone Dust Collector d.) Electrostatic Precipitator

77. In this type of industrial dust collector, the gas passed tangentially into a vertical cylinder with a conical
bottom. The gas follows a spiral path with the most of the separation taking place in the smaller section.
 a.) Chimney c.) Spray Scrubber-tower type
b.) Cyclone Dust Collector d.) Electrostatic Precipitator

78. In this type of industrial dust collector, the gas passing upward concurrently as the descending liquid. Set of
spray are place in the top with the various materials used in the layers to channel and mix the gas and water.
a.) Chimney c.) Spray Scrubber-tower type
b.) Cyclone Dust Collector d.) Electrostatic Precipitator

79. In this type of industrial dust collector, charged dust particles are attracted to the electric field of the
electrostatic precipitator
a.) Chimney c.) Spray Scrubber-tower type
b.) Cyclone Dust Collector d.) Electrostatic Precipitator

80. A type of boiler in which the water is inside the tubes while the hot gasses are outside.
a.) Fire-tube Boiler c.) Straight tube boiler
b.) Water-tube Boiler d.) Box header type boiler

81. These boilers are those in which the product of combustion passes through the tubes and the water lies
around the outside of them.
a.) Fire-tube boilers c.) Straight tube boilers
b.) Water-tube boilers d.) Box header type boilers

82. A water tube boiler having a parallel group of straight equal-length tubes arrange in a uniform pattern and
joined at either ends to headers.
a.) Bent-tube boilers c.) Straight tube boilers
b.) Water-tube boilers d.) Box header type boilers

83. Boilers in which heating evaporation and superheating are accomplished in one pass, usually of the forced
circulation type, and does not need separation tanks
a.) Bent-tube boiler c.) Straight tube boilers
b.) Once-through-boilers d.) Box header type boilers

84. A device used to removed soot, cinder and fly ash that have accumulated at the surface of the boiler tubes
utilizing steam jets or compressed air.
a.) Soot Blower c.) Economizer
b.) Steam purities d.) Safety valve

85. A device that removes solid or dissolved matter in steam which can become a source of operating difficulties
in superheater and turbine.
a.) Soot blower c.) Economizer
b.) Steam purities d.) Safety valve
86. A feed water heater deriving from gaseous products of combustion.
a.) Soot blower c.) Economizer
b.) Steam purities d.) Safety valve

87. A device that prevents rise of steam pressure above a predetermined limit.
a.) Soot blower c.) Economizer
b.) Steam purities d.) Safety valve

88. A device that gives information on the water level in the boiler.
a.) Water column c.) Steam vent
b.) Blow-off-valve d.) Water wall

89. A valve that is used to remove some of the water to reduce its concentration.
a.) Water column c.) Steam vent
b.) Blow-off-valve d.) Water wall
90. A small outlet on the top drum normally closed by a valve, which may be opened when it is desired to hold
atmospheric pressure in the boiler, as during initial boiling out.
a.) Water column c.) Steam vent
b.) Blow-off-valve d.) Water wall

91. A system of furnace cooling tubes which can extend the evaporative capacity of a water tube boiler and at the
same time protect the furnaces walls against high temperature.
a.) Water column c.) Steam vent
b.) Blow-off-valve d.) Water wall

92. It is the process of machining flat, curved, or irregular surfaces by feeding the work piece against a rotating
horizontal cutter containing a number of cutting edges.
a.) Drilling c.) Shaping
b.) Milling d.) Grinding

93. A type of milling machine that has the cutting tool mounted on an arbor or in the spindle and the table cannot
be adjusted to all positions.
a.) Plain horizontal milling machine
b.) Vertical milling machine
c.) Universal milling machine
d.) Manufacturing milling machine
94. A type of milling machine that has a table that can swivel any required angle horizontally. Spirals, helices,
and cans are usually performed in this machine.
a.) Plain horizontal milling machine
b.) Vertical milling machine
c.) Universal milling machine
d.) Manufacturing milling machine

95. The simplest operation that can be performed in milling machine by having a cutter which length is greater
than the diameter.
a.) Plain or slab milling c.) Side milling
b.) Face milling d.) End milling

96. A milling machine operation which is machining large surfaces at right angle and parallel to the axis of the
cutter.
a.) Plain or slab milling c.) Side milling
b.) Face milling d.) End milling

97. A milling machine operation which machining a vertical surface on the side of the work piece using a side
milling center.
a.) Plain or slab milling c.) Side milling
b.) Face milling d.) End milling

98. A milling machine operation which is the removing of excess material by using an end milling center. This
kind of cutter has teeth sometimes in the end face or in the periphery of the cutter which are either solid or
two-lipped.
a.) Plain or slab milling c.) Side milling
b.) Face milling d.) End milling

99. A milling machine operation which is machining two opposite sides of the material at the same time.
a.) Straddle milling c.) Side milling
b.) Face milling d.) End milling

100. A type of pliers which is used for cutting medium or fine wires and bending small pieces of soft
metals.
a.) Long-nose pliers c.) Diagonal pliers
b.) Side-cutting pliers d.) All of the above
101. A hand tool which is classified as a driving tool. It is either adjustable or non-adjustable and is used
for turning units, bolts, pipes, etc.
a.) Hammer c.) File
b.) Wrench d.) All of the above

102. A type of wrench where there is an opening at the end to fit the standard size of bolts and nuts.
a.) Open-end wrench c.) Box wrench
b.) Adjustable wrench d.) All of the above

103. A type of wrench has two types of jaw. One jaw is fixed an integral part of the wrench body; the other
may be adjusted.
a.) Box wrench c.) Open-end wrench
b.) Adjustable wrench d.) None of the above

104. The operation of pushing off, rather than peeling off, a small chip with a very hard tool having no rake.
a.) Filing c.) Scraping
b.) Chipping d.) None of the above

105. A tool used to remove the high spots on the surface of a machine part or work piece.
a.) File c.) scraper
b.) Chisel d.) all of the above
 INSDUSTRIAL AND POWER PLANT
( Elements No. 8 )

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil No. 1 only.

1. What is a device use to determine the specific gravity of liquid?

a.) Manometer c.) Psychrometer
b.) Hydrometer d.) Pitot tube

2. It is a device used to measure fluid velocity. How do you call this device?
a.) Manometer c.) Psychrometer
b.) Hydrometer d.) Pitot tube

3. Which of the following is an instrument that can be used to measure the flow of water in a pipe of diameter up
to 3 m?
a.) Pitot tube c.) Nozzle
b.) Manometer d.) Piezometer

4. A vertical turbine pump with the pump and motor closed coupled and designed to be installed underground,
as in the case of deep well pump, is known as:
a.) Deep well pump c.) Submersible pump
b.) Shallow pump d.) Turbine pump

5. A pump that takes suction from a public service main or private-use water system for the purpose of
increasing the effective water pressure is said to be:
a.) Supply pump c.) Feed pump
b.) Booster pump d.) Horizontal pump

6. A centrifugal pump with one or more impellers discharging into one or more bowls and vertical educator or
column pipe used to connect the bowls to the discharge head on which the pump driver is mounted.
a.) Vertical shaft turbine pump
b.) Horizontal pump
c.) In-line pump
d.) Ground water pump

7. How do you call a space that is entirely devoid of gases, liquids, or solids?
a.) Empty space c.) Perfect vacuum
b.) Evacuated space d.) Perfect square
8. It is a centrifugal pump in which the driving unit is supported by the pump having its suction and discharge
flanges on approximately the same center. What is this pump?
a.) Horizontal pump c.) Horizontal Split-cage pump
b.) In-line pump d.) Ground water pump

9. How do you call a centrifugal pump characterized by a housing that split parallel to the shaft?
a.) horizontal pump
b.) In-line pump
c.) Horizontal split-cage pump
d.) Ground water pump

10. A water that is available from a well, driven into water-bearing subsurface strata. How do you call this?
a.) ground water
b.) mineral water
c.) surface water
d.) hard water

11. The level, with respect to the pump, of the body of water from which it takes suction when the pump is in
operation.
a.) ground water level
 b.) pumping water level
c.) draw down level
d.) static water level

12. What is the rate of flow of liquid measures per unit of time, usually gpm or lps?
a.) discharge
b.) capacity
c.) volume flow rate
d.) mass flow rate

13. How do you call a device set in a pipe enable Bourdon gauge or a manometer to show the net or normal
pressure?
a.) pressure gauge
b.) manometer
c.) piezometer
d.) pilot tube

14. It is a centrifugal pump basic part that imparts velocity to the liquid, resulting from centrifugal force as the
impeller is rotated.
a.) casing
b.) impeller
c.) vanes
d.) blade

15. It is the a basic centrifugal part that gives direction to the flow from the impeller and converts this velocity
energy into pressure energy that is usually measured in meter of head.
a.) casing
b.) Impeller
c.) vanes
d.) blade

16. One of the most popular pumps because of their simplicity, low cost, and ability to operate under a wide
variety of conditions.
a.) reciprocating pumps
b.) diaphragm pumps
c.) centrifugal pumps
d.) Rotary pumps

17. Which of the following is not true for centrifugal pumps?

a.) the discharge of centrifugal pumps can be throttled without the building up an
excessive pressure or overloading its driving unit.
b.) the runner of the diffuser type pump is surrounded by gradually expanding
passages formed by stationary guide vanes.
c.) casing is a basic centrifugal part that gives direction to the flow from the
impeller and converts this velocity energy into pressure energy that is usually
measured in meter of head
d.) the discharge of centrifugal pumps cannot be throttled because there
will be a building up of an excessive pressure; thus, overloading the
driving unit.

18. The specific speed of a radial-type impeller centrifugal pump is:

a.) Ranging from 500 to 3000 rpm
b.) ranging from 1500 to 4500 rpm
c.) ranging from 4500 to 8000 rpm
d.) greater than 8000 rpm

19. The specific speed of a mixed-flow-type impeller centrifugal pump is:

a.) Ranging from 500 to 3000 rpm
b.) ranging from 1500 to 4500 rpm
c.) ranging from 4500 to 8000 rpm
d.) greater than 8000 rpm

20. The specific speed of a propeller-type impeller centrifugal pump is:

a.) Ranging from 500 to 3000 rpm
b.) ranging from 1500 to 4500 rpm
c.) ranging from 4500 to 8000 rpm
 d.) above than 8000 rpm

21. A centrifugal pump that is used for low heads (from 3 to 40 ft.), low speed (2000 to 1800 rpm), and large
capacities.
a.) radial type pump
b.) francis type
c.) mixed flow type
d.) propeller type

22. When a pump is operating at speeds other than that it is tested, the capacity is:
a.) Proportional to the speed
b.) proportional to the square of speed
c.) proportional to the impeller diameter
d.) proportional to the square the impeller diameter

23. A pump in which motion and pressure are applied to the fluid by a reciprocating piston in a cylinder.
a.) reciprocating pump
b.) displacement pump
c.) dynamic pump
d.) centrifugal pump

24. Reciprocating pump is also known as:

a.) gear pump
b.) screw pump
c.) piston pump
d.) vane pump

25. A displacement reciprocating pump in which the steam or power piston is connected to the pump piston by
means of a rod, without crank motor or flywheel, is known as:
a.) Double-acting pump
b.) direct acting pump
c.) indirect-acting pimp
d.) power pump

26. A pump that develops its action through the alternate filling and emptying of an enclosed volume, say, in a
piston cylinder.
a.) displacement pump
b.) reciprocating pump
c.) diaphragm pump
d.) dynamic pump

27. A pump in which a measured quantity of liquid in entrapped in a space, its pressure is raised, and then it is
delivered. Say, a reciprocating piston cylinder, rotary vane, gear, or lobe pumps.
a.) displacement pump
b.) positive displacement pump
c.) dynamic pump
d.) rotary pump

28. It is a rotary pump in which two meshing gear wheels rotate in opposite directions so that the fluid is
entrained on one side and discharge on the other side.
a.) gear pump
b.) rotary pump
c.) screw pump
d.) vane pump

29. These are displacement pumps that deliver a steady flow by the action of two members in rotational contact
a.) gear pump
b.) rotary pump
c.) displacement pump
d.) dynamic pump

30. A displacement pump that raises liquid by means of helical impellers in the pump casing, is known as:
a.) gear pump
b.) screw-type pump
c.) vane-type pump
d.) piston-type pump
 31. It is a reciprocating pump with two parallel cylinders.
a.) simple pump
b.) duplex pump
c.) triplex pimp
d.) multi-cylinder pump

32. A pump in which the pump itself and its electric driving motor are together in a protective housing that permits
the unit to operate under water, is known as:
a.) direct-acting pump
b.) deep well pump
c.) submersible pump
d.) turbine pump

33. Submersible pumps are:

a.) either rotary, centrifugal, or reciprocating pumps
b.) positive pumps
c.) dynamic pumps
d.) direct-acting pump

34. A pump with a rotating-vane device that uses a combination of mechanical impulse and centrifugal force to
produce high liquid heads at low discharge is called as:
a.) vertical turbine pump
b.) hydraulic pump
c.) regenerative pump
d.) reciprocating pump

35. Regenerative pump is also called as:

a.) turbine pump
b.) hydraulic pump
c.) regenerative pump
d.) reciprocating pump

36. These are three cylindered pumps used to produced overlapping deliveries and minimize pulsation
a.) simple pump
b.) duplex pump
c.) triplex pump
d.) multi-cylinder pump

37. It is a reciprocating pump in which the steam piston connects directly to the liquid piston or plunger.
a.) power pump
b.) indirect pump
c.) direct acting pump
d.) steam pump

38. Machine that convert the potential energy in water behind a dam into shaft work, ordinarily used to drive an
electric generator.
a.) hydraulic machines
b.) water turbines
c.) steam turbines
d.) water pumps

39. A special type of propeller turbine featuring variable-angle blades that can be change with water flow to
maintain high efficiency is known as:
a.) impulse turbine
‘ b.) reaction turbine
c.) Kaplan turbine
d.) pelton turbine

40. Turbine that are used for an intermediate range of heads

a.) francis, or radial-and mixed-flow, turbines
b.) propeller turbines
c.) pelton turbines
d.) Kaplan turbines

41. Water turbines that are built with fixed blades and variable-pitch blades.
 a.) propeller turbines
b.) francis turbines
c.) pelton turbines
d.) Kaplan turbines

42. The difference in the total head for the water entering the turbine casing and total head leaving the draft tube.
a.) net effective head
b.) gross head
c.) utilized head
d.) total dynamic head

43. The speed of a hypothetical model turbine having the same configuration as the actual turbine, when the
model would be of the proper size to develop 1 Hp at a head of 1ft.
a.) specific speed
b.) water runner speed
c.) turbine speed
d.) water speed

44. Impulse turbine efficiencies:

a.) vary from about 82 to 90 %
b.) ranging from 90 to 95 %
c.) vary from 85 to 90 %
d.) vary from 95 to 98 %

45. A head measured at the bottom of the pitch circle of the runner with no consideration given to the water level
at the tailrace (because there is no draft tube).
a.) Effective head of an impulse turbine
b.) effective head of reaction turbine
c.) gross head of an impulse turbine
d.) gross head of a reaction turbine

46. Which of the following is an instrument used to analyze flues gases?

a.) draft gage
b.) viscometer
c.) Orsat apparatus
d.) thermocouple

47. It reduces the pressure of the refrigerant to obtain a lower temperature and regulates the flow of refrigerant
going to the evaporator. What is this?
a.) expansion valve
b.) compressor
c.) condenser
d.) aftercooler

48. What occurs when pumps are connected in parallel?

a.) increase head, same discharge
b.) no change
c.) increase discharge, same head
d.) increase discharge, increase head

49. It produces the necessary draft required for the flow of gases. What is the component?
a.) Chimney b.) exhaust fan c.) blower d.)absorption

50. It indicates the water level inside the boiler. What is the component?
a.) Water column b.) water walls
c.) baffles d.) fusible plug

51. What is the ratio of the maximum demand of the system to the rated capacity of the system?
a.) Operation factor b.) utilization factor
c.) annual capacity factor d.) use factor

52. Which of the following is the source of geothermal energy?

a.) Hot spring b.) steam vent c.) geyser d.) all of these
53. Which of the following is a type of natural-draft cooling tower?
a.) Forced-draft cooling tower
b.) Induced-draft cooling tower
c.) Hyperbolic cooling tower
d.) All of the above

54. Which of the following is the most commonly-used pyrometer?

a.) Optical Pyrometer
b.) Radiation Pyrometer
c.) Thermoelectric Pyrometer
d.) Bimetallic Pyrometer

55. It is a pipe attached to the penstock to be able to let the water be at atmospheric pressure. What is this?
a.) Draft tube
b.) Surge chamber
c.) Spillway
d.) Silt sluice

56. Which of the following is not considered as gaseous fuel?

a.) Acetylene c.) Bunker
b.) Liquefied petroleum gas d.) Propane

57. What is the ratio of the density of a liquid to the density of water?
a.) Specific humidity c.) Relative Humidity
b.) Specific gravity d.) Relative Gravity

58. In a steam generator, what do you call the duck that connects the boiler to the chimney?
a.) Breeching c.) Gage glass
b.) Blowndown valve d.) Baffles

59. In relation to brake power, what is the instrument used to measure the torque?
a.) Tachometer c.) Anemometer
b.) Engine indicator d.) Dynamometer

60. Which of the following refrigerants is the one used in ice-plant refrigeration?
a.) R-12 c.) Ammonia
b.) R-22 d.) R-40

61. It is an instrument that indicates the percentage of carbon dioxide in flue gases in a power plant.
a.) Hydrometer c.) Ranarex Indicator
b.) Odometer d.) Dial indicator

62. In the steam generators, what is the ratio of the developed boiler Hp to the rated boiler Hp?
a.) Actual specific evaporation c.) net boiler efficiency
b.) Percent rating d.) Thermal efficiency

63. The low thermal head plant is also known as:

a.) Geothermal thermal plant
b.) Ocean hydro plant
c.) Ocean-thermal energy conversion
d.) Ocean geothermal conversion
64. Which of the following converts the chemical energy to electrical energy?
a.) Turbine c.) Chemical converter
b.) Generator d.) Fuel cell

65. It converts solar energy to electrical energy. How do you call this device.
a.) Photovoltaic cell c.) Flat plate
b.) Solar cell d.) Fuel cell
 66. Which of the following is not an instrument used to measure flow rates?
a.) Rotameter c.) Anemometer
b.) Velometer d.) Flowmeter

67. The refrigeration system follows which of the following cycles?

a.) Rankine cycle c.) Reversed Carnot cycle
b.) Reversed Rankine cycle d.) Carnot cycle

68. It is closed vessel intended for use in heating water or for application of heat to generate steam. What is this?
a.) Water heater c.) Aftercooler
b.) Intercooler d.) Boiler

69. The achievement of temperature below that of the surrounding temperature. How
do you call that?
a.) Air-conditioning c.) Cooling and humidifying
b.) Refrigeration d.) ventilation

70. How do you call an evaporator constructed of pipe or tubing?

a.) Stop valve c.) Expansion coil
b.) Brazed joint d.) Expansion valve

71. Which of the following is the minimum factor of safety for reinstalled or second
hand boilers?
a.) 5 c.) 7
b.) 6 d.) 8

72. It has the same equipment as the refrigerating system but it operates for the
purpose of delivering heat at a higher temperature level. How do call this?
a.) Steam generator c.) Steam-jet vacuum
b.) Heat pump d.) Heat engine

73. It is the one having two or more refrigerants circuits, each with a condenser,
evaporator, and a pressure imposing element, where the evaporator of one
circuits cools the condenser of the other circuit. How do you call this system?
a.) Absorption c.) Multiple
b.) Brine spray d.) Cascade

74. The temperature of air to be used for comfort cooling shall be in the range of:
a.) 19℃- 23℃ c.) 21℃- 22℃
b.) 20℃- 23.3℃ d.) 21℃- 23.3℃

75. It is a valve held closed by spring or other means and designed to automatically
relieve pressure in excess of its setting. What is this valve?
a.) Pressure-limiting device c.) Pressure-relief device
b.) Spring-relief device d.) Safety-relief device

76. It is part of centrifugal pump which imparts velocity to the liquid, resulting from
centrifugal forces it produces as it rotates. What is this pump part?
a.) Shaft c.) Wearing rings
b.) impeller d.) Bearings

77. How do you call a steal pipe coated with zinc-to resist corrosion?
a.) Anti-rust pipe c.) Black pipe
b.) Wrought pipe d.) Galvanized pipe

78. What is a pipe fitting with a number of branches in line connecting the smaller
pipes?
a.) Cross-over c.) manifold
b.) saddle flange d.) header
79. Which of the following is not requirement in designing pipe installation?
a.) all piping should be run parallel to building walls
b.) minimum factor of safety of 4 for working pressure applied
c.) galvanized pipe should be used for steam
d.) all piping to header shall come back rack

80. How do you call the part of valve used to guide and support the valve steam?
a.) Spigot joint c.) Bull head tee
b.) Saddle flange d.) Bonnet

81. In the piping installation, what is the color of the pipe to be used for water?
a.) Blue c.) White
b.) Silver-gray d.) Green

82. What is the color of the pipe used in communications?

a.) Light blue c.) light orange
b.) safety yellow d.) white

83. Which of the following is a method of classifying coal?

a.) by rank c.) by type
b.) by grade d.) all of these

84. It is a branch of which is larger than the run. How do you call this?
a.) compression joint c.) bull head tee
b.) saddle flange d.) butt weld joint

85. How do you call the large pipe or drum into which each group of boilers is
connected?
a.) header c.) baffles
b.) spigot d.) stack

86. In pipe identification, what is the color of pipe used for electricity?
a.) White c.) Violet
b.) Light orange d.) Brown

87. It is the most widely-used industrial pressure gage applied to both pressure and
vacuum?
a.) Bourdon tube gage c.) Philips vacuum gage
b.) Bell-type gage d.) Helical-type gage

88. Refined petroleum naptha by its composition is suitable for use as a carburetant in
internal-combustion engines.
a. Alcohol
b. Alcohol &Kerosene
c. Kerosene
d. Gasoline

89. Hydrocarbons found in liquefied Petroleum Gases.

a. Propane
b. Propylene
c. Iso-butane
d. All of these

90. Which of the following is not a solid fuel?

a. Peat
b. Briquettes
c. Tar
d. Coke

91. How do you call the fans use force air under pressure?
a. Blowers
 b. Dehumidifiers
c. Fans
d. Exhausters

92. It measures temperature by electromotive force.

a. Thermocouple
b. Mercury thermometer
c. Radiation Pyrometer
d. Optical Pyrometer

93. A refrigeration system using the direct method in which refrigerant to two or more
evaporators in separate rooms or in refrigerators.
a. Multiple-pressure
b. Direct expansion
c. Mechanical
d. Flooded

94. The carbon dioxide concentration of air in all rooms, when measured 910mm
above the floor shall not exceed:
a. 90 ppm
b. 100 ppm
c. 110 ppm
d. 120 ppm

95. A small fitting with a double offset, or shape like the letter U with the ends turned
out.
a. Elbow toe
b. Expansion loop
c. Spigot joint
d. Cross-over

96. Color of pipes used for acids and alkalis.

a. Violet
b. Safety red
c. Beige
d. Green

97. Determine the amount of non-combustible impurities, which come principally from
the natural slats in the crude oil.
a. Ash
b. Sulfur
c. Sodium
d. Fixed carbon

98. Relative humidity of air to be used or comfort cooling.

a. 50% to 55%
b. 55% to 60%
c. 60% to 65%
d. 65% to 70%

99. Refrigerating system in which the pressure-imposing element is mechanically-

operated.
a. Central point
b. Absorption
c. Chilled water
d. Compression

100. What is the cushioning device at the of a trolley, bridge or other moving parts of a
crane operating on rails to minimize shock in the event of collision?
a. Bumper
 b. Bridge
c. Buffer
d. Cover

101. How do you call a boom-type mobile crane mounted on endless tracks or thread
belts?
a. Crawler crane
b. Hammerhead crane
c. Gantry crane
d. Jib crane

102. An apparatus for raising or lowering a load by application of a pulling force, but
does not include a car or platform siding in guides.
a. Crane
b. Hoist
c. Elevator
d. None of these

103. In boiler, what is the minimum distance of any smokestack from any woodwork or
framing?
a. 305 mm
b. 350 mm
c. 400 mm
d. 450 mm

104. The temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the absolute
external pressure at the liquid-vapor interface.
a. Freezing point
b. Boiling point
c. Critical point
d. Triple point

105. The equivalent evaporation of 34.5lb of water per hour from and at 212 °F. This is
equal to a heat output of 970.3 x 34.5 = 33 475 Btu/h.
a. Mechanical power
b. Horsepower
c. Boiler Hp
d. Equivalent evaporation

106. All of the surface of the heat-transfer apparatus in contact on one side with the
water or wet steam being heated and on the other side with the gas or refractory
being cooled, in which the fluid being heated forms a part of the circulating
system, this surface to be measured on the side receiving heat.
a. Boiler heating surface
b. Direct heating surface
c. Indirect heating surface
d. Heating surface

107. It is generally understood to be the boiler heating surface subject to direct

radiation from the surface of the grate, or from the surfaces of oil or gas burners.
a. Boiler heating surface
b. Direct heating surface
c. Indirect heating surface
d. Heating surface

108. The boiler heating surface within the flues is called as:
a. Boiler heating surface
b. Direct heating surface
c. Indirect heating surface
d. Heating surface
109. A closed vessel in which a liquid is heated or vaporized.
a. Boiler
b. Hot vessel
c. Heater
d. Heating vessel

110. A fan used to force air under pressure is known as:

a. Centrifugal fan
b. Rotary fan
c. Blower
d. Axial fan

111. In air distribution, the distance an air stream travels from an outlet to a position at
which air motion along the axis reduces to velocity of 50 fpm is called as:
a. Distance
b. Blow
c. Flow
d. Drag

112. A pipe attached, as to a condenser, to lead off liquid refrigerant, parallel to main
flow.
a. Baffle
b. Aspirator
c. Bleeder
d. Agitator

113. In this type of industrial dust collector, the gas passed tangentially into vertical
cylinder with a conical bottom. The gas follows a spiral path with most of
separation taking place in the smaller section. How do you call this type of dust
collector?
a. Cyclone dust collector
b. Spray scrubber
c. Electrostatic precipitator
d. Dust filter

114. This is a prime mover actuated by the gases resulted from the combustion of
liquid or pulverized fuel, injected in a fine state of subdivision into the engine
cylinder at or about the conclusion of the compression stroke. How do you call
this prime mover?
a. Diesel engine
b. Gas engine
c. Steam engine
d. Heat engine

115. This type of condenser is used to reject heat from a refrigeration system into
water. What is this condenser?
a. Water-cooled condenser
b. Air-cooled condenser
c. Flooded type condenser
d. Fins type condenser

116. This instrument is used to measure electrical potential. What is this instrument
commonly called?
a. Wattmeter
b. Voltmeter
c. Ammeter
d. All of these

117. How do you call the potential electrical difference for electron flow from one line to
another in an electrical circuit?
a. Voltage
 b. Current
c. Resistance
d. Resonance

118. It is hydro power plant with a reservoir of sufficient size to permit carry-over
storage from the wet season and, thus, to develop a firm flow substantially more
than the minimum natural flow.
a. Storage-type plant
b. Run-of-river plant
c. A pump-storage plant
d. All of these

119. It is a hydro plant that generates power for peak load but at off-peak, water is
pumped from tail water pool for future use.
a. Storage-type plant
b. Run-of-river plant
c. A pump-storage plant
d. All of these

120. This hydro plant is the one with a very limited storage capacity and can be used
only as water comes. How do you call this hydro plant?
a. Storage-type plant
b. Run-of-river plant
c. A pump-storage plant
d. All of these

121. It is the channel into which the water is discharged after passing through the
water turbine. How do call this channel?
a. Water tailrace
b. Head water
c. Penstock
d. Water nozzle

122. It is a component in a hydro plant that absorbs water hammer during load
fluctuations and serves an auxiliary reservoir during high load demands. What is
this component?
a. Spillway
b. Dam
c. Surge tank
d. Penstock

123. Which of the following is a class of fire involving flammable liquids and gases?
a. Class A fire
b. Class B fire
c. Class C fire
d. Class D fire

124. Class A fire is a class of fire involving which of the following?

a. Ordinary combustible materials such as wood, cloth, paper, rubber and
plastic
b. Combustible metals, such magnesium, sodium, potassium and other similar
materials
c. Flammable liquids and gases
d. Energized electrical equipment

125. What is this class fire involving energized electrical equipment?

a. Class A fire
b. Class B fire
c. Class C fire
d. Class D fire

126. Class D fire is a class of fire involving which of the following?

a. Ordinary combustible materials such as wood, cloth, paper, rubber and plastic
b. Combustible metals, such magnesium, sodium, potassium and other
similar materials
c. Flammable liquids and gases
d. Energized electrical equipment