08-06-2025

1803CMD303001250008 MD

PHYSICS

1) In x-y plane, a force 10 N acts at an angle 30o to the positive direction of x axis. The force can be
written as :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

2)

Three forces are acting on a body to make resultant force zero. Which set can do it without any of
the angle between forces being 0° or 180°?

(1) 3N, 3N, 7N

(2) 10N, 8N, 2N
(3) 3N, 3N, 6N
(4) 6N, 7N, 8N

3) 12 students are pulling a tyre with the help of ropes. If each students apply a force of magnitude
10 N at an angle of 30° with each other. Each one is standing on the circumference of circle. Then

match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
If students A and E run away
(P) from the circle net force on (1) 20N
tyre is
If students A, E, and C run
(Q) away from the circle net (2) 10N
force on tyre is
If students A, E and I run
(R) away from the circle net (3) 0 N
force on tyre is
 If students A, and C run away
(S) from the circle net force on (4) N
tyre is
(1) P → 2;Q → 1;R → 3;S → 4
(2) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 4;S → 1
(3) P → 4;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 3
(4) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 3;S → 4

4) At what angle should the two force vectors 2F and act so that the resultant force is :-

(1) 37°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

5) If and , then find a vector whose magnitude is equal to component of

A along B and direction is along .

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Given and . Which of the following statements is INCORRECT ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A loaded grocery cart is rolling across a parking lot in a strong wind. You apply a constant force
to the cart as it undergoes a displacement . How much

work does the force you apply do on the grocery cart ?

(1) 150 J
(2) 390 J
(3) –150 J
(4) 270J

8) Find the dot product of two vectors :

(1) 4
(2) 16
(3) 10
(4) –4

9) A bird moves from point (1, –2) to (4, 2). If the speed of the bird is 20 m/s, then the velocity vector
of the bird is

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

10) Which of the following forces cannot be a resultant of 15 N force and 11 N force ?

(1) 2 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 14 N
(4) 5 N

11) For shown situation, what will be the magnitude of minimum force in newton that can be applied

in any direction so that the resultant force is along north direction?

(1) 15
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 8

12) Given that is a unit vector. What is the value of a ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
13) Volume is :-

(1) Scalar
(2) Vector
(3) Neither scalar nor vector
(4) Both scalar and vector

14) If and are parallel to each other then value of z and y will be :

(1) 10, 5
(2) 5, 10
(3) 5, 5
(4) 10, 10

15) A particle moves from (1, 1, 1) to (3, 4, 5). Then it's displacement vector will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) Unit vector along will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) and are always :-

(1) Parallel vectors

(2) Equal vectors
(3) Collinear vectors
(4) Coplanar vectors

18) If (Here K is constant) then :-

(1) is parallel to
(2) is antiparallel to
(3) is perpendicular to
(4) Both (1) and (2)

19) The vector makes 120° with the x-axis and the vector makes 30° with the y-axis. What is
their resultant ?

(1) P + Q
(2) P – Q

(3)

(4)

20) Of the vectors given below, the parallel vectors are :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) Find value of

(1) zero
(2) 6ABcosθ + 9A2 – 9B2
(3) 6A2 + 5ABcosθ – 6B2
(4) 5ABcosθ

22) Find a vector having magnitude double of and direction same as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

23) In the triangle shown in figure, the angle between vectors and is :-
(1) 60°
(2) 120°
(3) 150°
(4) 45°

24)

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 0

25) With respect to a rectangular cartesian co-ordinate system three vectors are expressed as
, , and where and are unit vectors along the x,y, z axes respectively.
The unit vector along the direction of sum of these vectors is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Which of following statements is/are correct :-

(1) angle between parallel vectors is zero

(2) angle between antiparallel vectors is 180°
(3) parallel vectors have same unit vector and antiparallel vectors have opposite unit vector
(4) All

27) Two forces, each of magnitude F have a resultant of the same magnitude F. The angle between
the two forces is :-

(1) 45°
(2) 120°
(3) 150°
(4) 60°
28) If magnitude of vector addition of two unit vectors is 2 units then magnitude of their vector
difference is :

(1)
(2) 1
(3) 0
(4) 2

29) If = 2 then equals :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3)
(4)

30) Correct statement, considering figure is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) If and .
Then which statement is incorrect ?

(1) Angle between & is 30°

(2) Angle between & is 150°
(3) Angle between & is 60°
(4) Angle between & is 90°

32) The area of the triangle whose vertices are A(1,–1,2), B(2, 1, –1) and C(3,–1,2) is :

(1) 26
(2)
(3)
(4) 8

33)

Two forces of magnitudes P and Q are inclined at an angle , the magnitude of their resultant is 3Q.
When the inclination is changed to (180 – ), the magnitude of the resultant force becomes Q. The

ratio of the forces is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The vector component of vector along vector is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) The resultant of two vectors and is if the magnitude of is doubled, the new resultant
becomes perpendicular to then the magnitude of is :-

(1) P + Q
(2) Q
(3) P

(4)

36) A vector which has a magnitude of 8 is added to the vector which lies along x-axis. The
resultant of two vectors lies along y-axis and has magnitude twice that of P. The magnitude of is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) The surface tension of a liquid is 70 dyne/cm. It can be expressed in MKS system by :-

(1) 70 Nm–1
(2) 7 × 10–2 Nm–1
(3) 7 × 102 Nm–1
(4) 7 × 103 Nm–1

38) The dimensions of in the equation , where P is pressure, x is distance and t is time,
are:-

(1) MT–2
(2) M2LT–3
(3) ML3T–1
(4) LT–3

39) If momentum (P), area (A) and time (T) are taken to be fundamental quantities, then energy has
the dimensional formula :-

(1) [P1 A–1 T1]

(2) [P2 A1 T1]
(3) [P1 A–1/2 T1]
(4) [P1 A1/2 T–1]

40) Young's modulus of steel is 1.9 × 1011 N/m2. When expressed in C.G.S. unit, it will be equal to :-

(1) 1.9 × 1010

(2) 1.9 × 1011
(3) 1.9 × 1012
(4) 1.9 × 1013

41) If K = find dimensional formula of K :–

(1) [LT–3]
(2) [L4T–4]
(3) [LT–4]
(4) [LT4]

42) If force (F), work (W) and velocity (V) are taken as fundamental quantities, then the dimensional
formula of time (t) is :-

(1) [WFV]
(2) [WFV –1]
(3) [W –1F –1V –1]
(4) [WF –1V –1]

43) Given where F is force, x is distance and t is time. The dimensions of is :-

(1) MLT–1
(2) ML–1T
(3) M–1LT
(4) ML2T–1

44) Determine the dimensional formula of “k” in 10kx (where ‘x’ is distance).

0 0 0
(1) M L T
0 0
(2) M L1T
0 0
(3) M L–1T
0
(4) M–1L T–1

45) If force (F) depends on energy (E), length (L) and time (T) as F = Ep Lq Tr , then value of p, q & r
respectively will be :-

(1) 1, –1, 0
(2) 1, 1, –1
1,
(3)

(4) 1, 2, –1

CHEMISTRY

1) Lanthanide contraction will have influence when we compare size of :-

(1) Zr & Hf
(2) Li & Na
(3) Mg & Ca
(4) Si & Ge

2) Which of the following sequence represents atomic number of only representative elements?

(1) 55, 12, 42, 53

(2) 13, 33, 54, 83
(3) 3, 27, 53, 87
(4) 22, 33, 55, 66

3) Which of the following is not correctly matched

(1) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 → Transition element

(2) [Rn] 5f14 6d1 7s2 → Inner transition element
(3) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p6 7s2 → Representative element
(4) [Xe] 4f14 5d2 6s2 → d-block element

4) The ionic radii of N3–, O2– and F– are respectively given by :

(1) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71
(2) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40
(3) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36
(4) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40

5) Which of the following element have highest atomic size :

(1) He
(2) Xe
(3) Ne
(4) Ar

6) The correct values off ionisation energies (in kJ mol–1) of Be, Ne, He and N respectively are :

(1) 786, 1012, 999, 1256

(2) 1012, 786, 999, 1256
(3) 786, 1012, 1256, 999
(4) 786, 999, 1012, 1256

7) The size of the species, Pb, Pb2+, Pb4+ decreases as :

(1) Pb4+ > Pb2+ > Pb

(2) Pb > Pb2+ > Pb4+
(3) Pb > Pb4+ > Pb2+
(4) Pb4+ > Pb > Pb2+

8) Which of the following sets of atomic numbers corresponds to elements of group 16 ?

(1) 8, 16, 32, 54

(2) 16, 34, 54, 86
(3) 8, 16, 34, 52
(4) 10, 16, 32, 50

9) The atomic numbers of the metallic and non–metallic elements which are liquid at room
temperature respectively are:

(1) 55, 87
(2) 33, 87
(3) 35, 80
(4) 80, 35

10) If the aufbau principle had not been followed, Ca (Z = 20) would have been placed in the :

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) f-block

11) Select the pair in which the 1st ionization energy is greater for the 2nd element compared to 1st
element.

(1) Be, B
(2) C, B
(3) C, N
(4) N, O

12) The correct order of radii is

(1) K+ < Ca2+ < Cl– < S2–

(2) Cl– < K+ < Ca2+ < S2–
(3) Cl– < S2– < K+ < Ca2+
(4) Ca2+ < K+ < Cl– < S2–

13) The first five ionization energies of an element are 9.1, 16.2, 24.5, 35 and 205.7 eV respectively.
Then number of valence electron in the given atom is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

14) Atomic number 109 has IUPAC nomenclature

(1) Unnilhexium
(2) Unnilseptium
(3) Unnilnonium
(4) Unnilennium

15) Correct order of EA is :

(1) Ne < Be < B < C < O < F

(2) Ne < Be < N < F < O < C
(3) N < Be < Ne < B < C < O
(4) Ne < Be < N < C < O < B

16) Which will have the maximum value of electron affinity Ox, Oy, Oz [x , y and z respectively are
0, –1 and –2] ?

(1) Ox
(2) Oy
(3) Oz
(4) All have equal
17) Which is exothermic :-

(1) N + e– → N–
(2) Cl + e– → Cl–
(3) Cl → Cl+ + e–
(4) All of above

18) Which of the following process involves absorption of energy?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

19) Which of the following will have the most negative electron gain enthalpy and which the least
negative ?

(1) F, Cl
(2) Cl, F
(3) Cl, S
(4) Cl, P

20) The formation of the oxide ion O2–(g) requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step
as shown below :-
O(g) + e– → O–(g); ΔH° = –142 kJ mol–1
O–(g) + e– → O2–(g); ΔH° = +844 kJ mol–1
This is because:

(1) Oxygen is more electronegative

(2) Oxygen has high electron affinity
(3) O– ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom
(4) Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving the noble gas configuration

21) Find the correct order of EA.

(1) Cl > F > S > O

(2) S > O > P < N
(3) Si > C > P < N
(4) Si < C > P > N

22) Which one of the following oxides is neutral ?

(1) CO
(2) SnO2
(3) ZnO
(4) SiO2
23) Aqueous solution of two compound M1 –O–H & M2 –O–H are prepared in two different beakers. If
EN of M1 = 3.4, M2 = 1.2, O = 3.5 & H = 2.1. Then nature of solution will be respectively.

(1) Acidic, Basic

(2) Acidic, Acidic
(3) Basic, Acidic
(4) Basic, Basic

24) Which is the correct order of ionization energies?

(1) F– > F > Cl– > Cl

(2) F > Cl > Cl– > F–
(3) F– > Cl– > Cl > F
(4) F– > Cl– > F > Cl

25)

The correct order of electron negativity for O, O+ and O– is -

(1) O– > O > O+

(2) O > O+ > O–
(3) O+ > O– > O
(4) O+ > O > O–

26) Arrange the following prefixes in increasing order -

pico, micro, femto, atto

(1) atto < pico < femto < micro

(2) femto < atto < pico < micro
(3) atto < femto < pico < micro
(4) femto < pico < atto < micro

27) Convert 5L into cm3 :-

(1) 1000 cm3

(2) 500 cm3
(3) 50000 cm3
(4) 5000 cm3

28) Convert 1 pm into mm (millimetre) :-

(1) 109 mm
(2) 1010 mm
(3) 10–9 mm
(4) 10–15 mm
29) The number of moles of water present in 90 g of water is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

30) If mass of helium is 16 amu. How many atoms present in it?

(1) 4
(2) 4 × NA
(3) NA
(4) 2

31) What is the mass of molecule of hydrogen?

(1) 2g
(2) 1g
(3) 3.32 × 10–24 g
(4) none of these

32) The mass of 1 amu is approximately :-

(1) 1 g
(2) 3.2 × 10–23 g
(3) 0.5 g
(4) 1.66 × 10–24 g

33) The number of molecules in 4.25g of ammonia is approximately :-

(1) 3.5 × 1023

(2) 1.5 × 1023
(3) 0.5 × 1023
(4) 2.5 × 1023

34) Which of the following relation is correct

(1) 2μg = 2 × 106 g

(2) 2 kg = 1000 g
(3) 1m = 1000 cm
(4) 1 calorie ≈ 4.2 Joule

35) Gram atomic weight of Nitrogen is:-

(1) 14 amu
(2) 14 g
(3) 28 amu
(4) 28 g

36) Gram molecular weight of oxygen is :-

(1) 16 amu
(2) 16 g
(3) 32 amu
(4) 32 g

37) The weight of one atom of Uranium is 238 amu. Its actual weight is .... g.

(1) 1.43 × 1026

(2) 3.94 × 10–22
(3) 6.99 × 10–23
(4) None of these

38) Choose the wrong statement

(1) 1 mole means 6.022 × 1023 particles

(2) gram molar mass is the mass of one molecules
(3) gram molar mass is mass of one mole of a substance
(4) Gram molar mass is molar mass expressed in grams.

39)

4 amu is the mass of :-

(1) 1 atom of helium

(2) 1 gram atom of helium
(3) 1 mole of helium atoms
(4) None of these

40) 25 g of MCl4 contains 0.5 mol chlorine then its molar mass is :

(1) 100 g mol–1

(2) 200 g mol–1
(3) 150 g mol–1
(4) 400 g mol–1

41) What is the mass of 3.01 × 1022 molecules of ammonia?

(1) 8.5 g
(2) 0.85 g
(3) 0.425 g
(4) 4.25 g
42) Which of the following weight the most :-

(1) 1g atoms of nitrogen

(2) One mole of water
(3) One mole of sodium
(4) One molecule of H2SO4

43) Which contains least number of molecules

(1) 2g CO2
(2) 2g N2
(3) 2g O2
(4) 2g H2

44) Number of atoms in 560 g of Fe is

(atomic mass = 56 gm/mol) :-

(1) is twice that of 70g N atoms

(2) is half that of 20g H atoms
(3) is same as 8g oxygen atom
(4) Both (1) and (2)

45) One mole of P4 molecule contain :-

(1) 1 molecule
(2) 4 molecules

(3)
× NA atoms
(4) 24.08 × 1023 atoms

BIOLOGY

1) Aerobic respiration is performed by :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Ribosome
(4) Golgibody

2) A plant cell differs from animal cell in the absence of :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Ribosomes
(3) ER
(4) Centrioles
3) Which of the following has centrioles?

(1) Chromosomes
(2) Spindle fibres
(3) Centrosomes
(4) Centromeres

4) Which of the following is called structural unit of cilia and flagella ?

(1) Microfilament
(2) Microtubule
(3) Intermediate filament
(4) Lamine protein

5) According to fluid mosaic model, plasma membrane is composed of :

(1) Phospholipids and obligosaccharides

(2) Phospholipids and hemicellulose
(3) Phospholipids and integral proteins
(4) Phospholipids and extrinisic as well as intrinsic proteins

6)

The ribosomes are made up of-

(1) DNA + Protein

(2) rRNA + Protein
(3) mRNA + Protein
(4) Protein + Lipids

7) Cell membrane possess lipid, protein and carbohydrate. The ratio of protein and lipid varies
considerably in different cell types. In human beings, the membrane of the RBCs has approximately:-

(1) 40 percent lipids and 52 percent carbohydrates

(2) 40 percent protein and 52 percent lipids
(3) 40 percent lipids and 52 percent proteins
(4) 40 percent protein and 52 percent carbohydrates

8) From the following, select the statements that is true :-

(1) All cells have a cell wall

(2) Animal cells contain microtubules but plant cells do not have microtubules
(3) Golgi apparatus is found only in animal cells
(4) Chloroplasts are found in plant cells but not in prokaryotic or animal cells

9) Golgi apparatus :-
(1) modifies and packages proteins
(2) occur in animal only
(3) is found in prokaryotes
(4) a site for rapid ATP synthesis

10) Cell organelle connected with intracellular digestion of macromolecules is :-

(1) Lysosome
(2) Peroxisome
(3) Polysome
(4) Glyoxisome

11) A structure that connect the cytoplasm of neighbouring cells and which holds or glues the
different neighbouring cells together. These are :-

(1) Cell wall and middle lamella respectively

(2) Plasmodesmata and middle lamella respectively
(3) Middle lamella and desmosomes respectively
(4) Middle lamella and plasmodesmata respectively

12) Molecules which are transported across the membrane against their concentration gradient, i.e.
from the lower to higher concentration. Such a transport is called :-

(1) Active transport, e.g., diffusion

(2) Passive transport, e.g., diffusion
(3) Active transport, e.g., Na+/K+ pump
(4) Osmosis, a type of simple diffusion

13) Functions of cell wall is/are :-

(1) Provide shape of the cell and protects the cell from the mechanical damage and infection
(2) Helps in cell-to-cell interaction
(3) Provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules
(4) All of the above

14) Which one is not properly paired ?

(1) Golgi apparatus - Breaking of complex macromolecules

(2) Endoplasmic reticulum - Protein synthesis
(3) Cell membrane:- Transport of molecules
(4) Chloroplasts - Photosynthesis

15) In terms of shape and size of mitochondria considerable degree of variability is observed. The
number of mitochondria per cell is variable depending on the :-

(1) Morphology of the cells

(2) Shape of the cells
(3) Physiological activity of the cells
(4) All of the above

16)

Read the following statements and find out the correct statement :-
a. Mitochondria is typically sausage shaped or cylindrical
b. The inner compartment of the mitochondria is called stroma and of chloroplast is called matrix
c. Mitochondria and bacteria both divide by fission
d. Chromoplasts have fat insoluble carotenoid pigments like carotene and xanthophylls

e. Plastids are found in all plant cell and euglenoids

(1) b,c,e
(2) a,b,d
(3) c,d,e
(4) a,c,e

17) Cilium and flagellum emerge from centriole like structure called :-

(1) Centrosome
(2) Kinetochore
(3) Basal body
(4) Centromere

18) Organelle important in spindle formation during nuclear division is :-

(1) Centriole
(2) Golgi body
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Mitochondrion

19) Which option is correct about lysosomes ?

(1) Called power house of the cell

(2) Contain hydrolases which active at the acidic pH
(3) Formation of glycoprotein and glycolipid
(4) All the above

20) Microtubules are the constituents of :-

(1) Cilia, flagella and peroxisomes

(2) Spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia
(3) Centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin
(4) Centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles

21) A previously unknown organism that lacks nuclear membrane and mitochondria has just been
discovered which of the following would this organism most likely possess ?

(1) Lysosomes
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Chloroplast

22)

Which of the following statement is not related with the above figure?

(1) Major site for systhesis of lipids and proteins

(2) Divide the intracellular space into two distinct compartments
(3) It is a part of endomembrane system
(4) Continuous with the membranes of mitochondria and chloroplasts

23) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence.

(2) Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living.
Matthias Schleiden, a German zoologist, proposed that body of animals are composed of cells
(3)
and products of cells.
(4) Schleiden and Schwann together formulated the cell theory.

24) Read the following statements :-

(i) The shape of cell may vary with the function they perform
(ii) Nerve cells are some of the longest cells
(iii) The largest isolated single cell is the egg of an ostrich
(iv) Blue-green algae (BGA) is a eukaryote
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?
(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) One

25) Cell wall :-

(1) Is a living structure in fungi and plants

(2) Provides a free passage for undesirable macromolecules
(3) Of algal cell is made of cellulose, galactans mannans and calcium carbonate
(4) Has middle lamella, mainly made of calcium carbonate

26) The 'Power house' of cell :-

(1) Is bound by a single membrane

(2) Possess cristae which are inflodings of its outer membrane
(3) Are sites of formation of 'energy currency' [ATP] of the cell
(4) Is found in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells

27) Select the odd one out w.r.t. endo-membrane system :-

(1) Vacuole
(2) Golgi and ER
(3) Mitochondria and chloroplast
(4) Lysosome

28)

Mitochondria and chloroplast are :-

(a) semi-autonomous organelles
(b) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing
machinery

Which one of the following options is correct ?

(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(2) (b) is true but (a) is false
(3) (a) is true but (b) is false
(4) Both (a) and (b) are false

29) Smallest cell organelle called cell engine is

(1) Ribosome
(2) Lysosome
(3) Vacuoles
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum

30) True statement for golgi body is all except :-

(1) Convex surface of cisternae is towards nucleus.
(2) Concave surface of cisternae is towards plasma membrane
(3) Golgibody are filled with digestive enzyme
(4) Carbohydrate form in golgi body.

31) In plants, the __A__ facilitates the transport of a number of ions and other materials against
concentration gradient into the __B__ .

(1) A-Tonoplast, B-Vacuole

(2) A-Outer membrane, B-Mitochondria
(3) A-Outer membrane, B-Chloroplast
(4) A-Tonoplast, B-Mitochondria

32) Secondary cell wall is formed on :-

(1) The inner side of primary cell wall

(2) The outer side of primary cell wall
(3) Middle side of cell
(4) Intercellular space

33) Which of the following is not true for a eukaryotic cell ?

(1) Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycans

(2) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the cytoplasm
(3) Compartmentalisation are present
(4) Membrane bound organelles are present

34) Chloroplast differ from mitochondria on the basis of which of the following feature ?

(1) Presence of two layers of membrane

(2) Presence of ribsome
(3) Presence of thylakoids
(4) Presence of double stranded circular DNA

35) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-II
(Organelle) (Size)

a. Cisternae of Golgi body K. 2-4 µm

b. Length of mitochondria L. 0.2-1.0 µm

c. Diameter of mitochondria M. 5-10 µm

d. Length of chloroplast N. 0.5-1.0 µm

e. Width of chloroplast Q. 1.0-4.1 µm

(1) a-L, b-M, c-N, d-Q, e-K
(2) a-N, b-Q, c-K, d-M, e-L
(3) a-L, b-Q, c-N, d-M, e-K
(4) a-N, b-Q, c-L, d-M, e-K

36) The ribosomes of eukaryotic cytoplasm, mitochondria and plastids are respectively :-

(1) 80S, 70S and 70S

(2) 70S, 70S and 80S
(3) 50S, 30S and 70S
(4) 70S, 80S and 70S

37) Read the following statements :-

(A) Presence of DNA
(B) Presence of cristae
(C) Presence of ribosomes
(D) Enzymes for carbohydrate synthesis
(E) Site for oxidative phosphorylation
How many of the above statements are correct for mitochondria ?

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

38) Depending on the ease of extraction, membrane proteins can be classified as :-

(1) Saturated and unsaturated

(2) Hydrophilic and hydrophobic
(3) Integral and Peripheral
(4) Acidic, basic and neutral

39) Which one of the following statement is/are not correct for 80s ribosome?
(a) Present in prokaryote and eukaryote
(b) Not surrounded by any membrane
(c) "S" is indirectly a measurement of size and density
(d) Composed of two subunit 50s and 30s

(1) Only a
(2) Only b & c
(3) Only a and d
(4) Only a & c

40) Which organism is most appropriately represented by following characters ?

(i) Absence of Nucleus
(ii) Presence of plasmid and mesosome
(iii) DNA Replication observed
(1) Bacterium
(2) Animal
(3) Plant
(4) Virus

41) How many cell structures in the list given below are not surrounded by any membrane ?
Basal body, Mitochondria, chloroplast, Golgi body, Lysosome, centrosome, vacuole, Ribosome,
endoplasmic reticulum.

(1) Nine
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

42) Match column I with Column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

A. Mitochondria i Without membrane

B. Lysosomes ii Single membrane

C. Ribosomes iii Double membrane

D. Nucleus iv Power house

A B C D

1. i ii iii iii

2. iii i i ii

3. iii ii i iii

4. ii iii i iii

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) The lipid component of the membrane mainly consist of :-

(1) Phospholipid
(2) Glycolipid
(3) Sulpho glycerides
(4) Steroides

44) Which of the following statements is incorrect for centrioles ?

(1) Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie perpendicular to each other
(2) Central proteinaceous hub is missing in a centriole
(3) Each centriole has an organization like that of a cart wheel
(4) Centrosome usually contains 2 cylindrical centrioles

45) Chromoplasts are formed from chloroplast during:

(1) Ripening of Tomato.

(2) Ripening of chili.
(3) Development of carrot.
(4) Both (1) and (2)

46) The unique characteristic feature of sponges:

(1) Presence of water vascular system

(2) Presence of cnidoblast cells
(3) Presence of choanocyte cells
(4) Presence of diploblastic body

47) Identify the correct match for locomotory structure of animals :

(1) Insects – Paired jointed legs

(2) Annelids – Muscular foot
(3) Echinodermata – Parapodia
(4) Cnidarians – Comb plates

48) Psuedocoelom is found in :-

(1) Ctenophore
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Both (2) and (3)

49) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Radial symmetry – Coelenterates

(2) Coelomates – Aschelminthes
(3) Metamerism – Molluscs
(4) Triploblastic – Sponges

50) Which of the following are examples of Arthropoda ?

(1) Silver fish, Star fish and Prawn

(2) Earthworm, Apple snail and Honey bee
(3) Sea hare, Tongue worm and Scorpion
(4) Cockroach, Scorpion and Prawn
51) All are hermaphrodites animals in which of the following sets of animals ?

(1) Pheretima, Taenia, Sycon, Ascaris

(2) Euspongia, Ctenoplana, Ascaris, Nereis
(3) Sycon, Wuchereria, Pleurobrachia, Ancylostoma
(4) Spongilla, Pleurobrachia, Fasciola, Hirudinaria

52) Select the correct option for Balanoglossus :-

(1) Fresh water animal

(2) True notochord is present
(3) Excretion by proboscis gland
(4) Triploblastic and circulatory system is close type

53) Diploblastic and triploblastic are terms that describe

(1) The number of invaginations during embryonic development

(2) The number of heads during embryonic development
(3) The number of germinal layers during embryonic development
(4) The number of cell types during development

54) Metagenesis means :-

(1) Polyp produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyp sexually
(2) Polyp produce medusae sexually and medusae produce polyp sexually
(3) Polyp produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyp asexually.
(4) Both (1) & (2)

55) The connecting link between non chordates and chordates is:

(1) Neopilina
(2) Peripatus
(3) Balanoglossus
(4) Archaeopteryx

56) Body is externally and internally divided into segments with serial repetition of atleast some
organs, this is called :-

(1) Metamorphosis
(2) Metagenesis
(3) Metamerism
(4) Metachrosis
57) The structure given below is present in which animal ?

(1) Scypha
(2) Ctenoplana
(3) Physalia
(4) Taenia

58) The property of a living organism to emit light is found in :

(1) Sycon
(2) Pleurobrachia
(3) Hydra
(4) Taenia

59) Muscular pharynx is a characteristic feature of :

(1) Taenia
(2) Hydra
(3) Ascaris
(4) Sycon

60) Sexual dimorphism is found in :-

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Porifera
(4) Ctenophora
61) Following diagram represent which animal ?

(1) Pheretima
(2) Hirudinaria
(3) Nereis
(4) Ascaris

62) The animals of which phylum are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, segmented and coelomate
?

(1) Coelenterata
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Arthropoda

63) Book lungs are respiratory structures of :

(1) Cockroach
(2) Limulus
(3) Scorpion
(4) Prawn

64) Parapodia are locomotary structures found in :

(1) Terrestrial annelida

(2) Aquatic annelida
(3) Parasitic annelida
(4) Aquatic arthropoda

65) Locomotion by 8 ciliary comb plates found in :

(1) Aurelia
(2) Ctenoplana
(3) Taenia
(4) Nereis

66) Out of following which is an example of organ system level ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

67) Which of the following animal is correctly matched with its phylum and characters ?

Animal Phylum Character

 (1) Planaria Aschelminthes Regeneration

(2) Pleurobrachia Ctenophora Comb plate

(3) Adamsia Annelida Cnidoblast

(4) Pheretima Aschelminthes Flame cell

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

68)

How many of the following phyla exhibit both extracellular and intracellular digestion ?

Porifera, Aschelminthes, Annelida, Hemichordata, Protozoa, Ctenophora, Cnidaria.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

69) Assertion: The water vascular system of echinoderms helps in locomotion, capture, and
transport of food and respiration..
Reason: Echinoderms are spiny bodies animals in which development is indirect with free-
swimming larva.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

70) Identify the organism given in the figure :-

(1) Scorpion
(2) Praying Mantis
(3) Beetle
(4) Locust.

71) In which of the following phylum larvae are bilaterally symmetrical and adult are radically
symmetrical ?

(1) Mollusca
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Annelida
(4) Arthropoda

72) Circulatory system in Locusta as :-

(1) Open
(2) Closed
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Absent

73) Which is the correct order with respect to evolutionary sequence :

(1) Leucosolenia – Hydra – Amoeba – Ascaris

(2) Ascaris – Amoeba – Leucosolenia – Hydra
(3) Amoeba – Leucosolenia –Hydra –Ascaris
(4) None of these

74) '___A___' is largest phylum of animal Kingdom and 'A' have exoskeleton made of ____B____ ?
Identify 'A' and 'B'.

(1) A-Mollusca, B-CaCO3

(2) A-Arthropoda, B-Keratin
(3) A-Annelida, B-Silica
(4) A-Arthropoda, B-Chitin

75) Statement-I :- The body cavity which is lined by mesoderm is called coelom.
Statement-II :- In platyhelminthes, mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between the
ectoderm and endoderm.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Statement-I and II both are correct.
(4) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

76) Select the correct statements for animal kingdom

(a) Sponges are generally marine and mostly asymmetrical.
(b) Polyps produce medusae sexually and medusa form the polyp asexually
(c) Flatworms are mostly ectoparasites.
(d) Flame cells help in osmoregulation in liver flukes.

(1) (c) (d)

(2) (a) (b)
(3) (a) (b) (c)
(4) (a) (d)

77) Assertion (A): In Planaria digestive system has only a single opening to the outside of the body.
Reason (R): Planaria possess high regeneration capacity.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

78) Statement-1 :- When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the
organism into two identical halves. it is called radial symmetry. Statement-2 :- Annelida,
arthropoda exhibit radial symmetry.

(1) Statement (1) and (2) both are correct

(2) Statement (1) and (2) both are incorrect
(3) Only statement (1) is correct
(4) Only statement (2) is correct

79) Mantle cavity is found between :-

(1) Mantle and shell

(2) Hump and mantle
(3) head and muscular foot
(4) Radula and muscular foot

80) Select the correct match :-

Phylum Character Animal

(1) Porifera Nephridia Spongilla

(2) Cnidaria Metagenesis Obelia

(3) Platyhelminthes Collar cells Filarial worm

(4) Annelida Radula Hirudinaria

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Select the correct match :-

Phylum Feature

(1) Mollusca Parapodia

(2) Arthropoda Radula

(3) Annelida Visceral hump

(4) Echinodermata Spiny body

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) Gastro-vascular cavity with a single opening is found in :-

(1) Tapeworms
(2) Liver fluke
(3) Brain coral
(4) Bath sponge

83) Body divides into anterior proboscis, a collar and a long trunk. This is the feature of :

(1) Balanoglosus
(2) Amphioxus
(3) Megascolex
(4) Doliolum

84) Choose incorrect statement only from the figure given below :-

(1) Member of phylum hemichordata

The body is cylindrical, unsegmented and divided into three parts an anterior proboscis, a collar
(2)
and a long trunk.
(3) Circulatory system is closed type.
(4) Fertilisation is external and development is indirect.

85) Match the list-I with list-II.

List-I List-II

A Saccoglossus (i) Mollusca

B Anopheles (ii) Hemichordata

C Aplysia (iii) Echinodermata

D Ophiura (iv) Arthropoda

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(3) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)

86) Which one of the following features is not present in phylum arthropoda?

(1) Metameric segmentation

(2) Jointed appendages
(3) Chitenous exoskeleton
(4) Mostly monoecious

87) Which of the following is not a character of phylum Hemichordata?

(1) Presence of Notochord

(2) Excretory organ is proboscis gland
(3) Circulatory system is open
(4) Respiration takes place through gills

88) Body cavity is the cavity present between body wall and gut wall. In some animals the body
cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called

(1) Acoelomate
(2) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Coelomate
(4) Haemocoelomate

89) The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the correct answer with respect to a
common characteristics of two of these animals.

(a) (b)
(c) (d)

(1) (a) & (d) have cnidoblasts for self-defence

(2) (c) & (d) have a true coelom
(3) (a) & (d) respire mainly through body wall
(4) (b) & (c) show radial symmetry

90) One of the following can’t be taken as the character of non-chordates

(1) Absence of notochord

(2) Heart is ventral
(3) Gill slits are absent
(4) Chitinous exoskeleton may present
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 1 3 4 4 2 1 4 1 4 3 1 2 4 1 4 4 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 3 3 1 4 2 3 1 3 2 3 2 2 2 2 2 1 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 4 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 1 3 2 3 2 3 4 3 3 4 3 4 1 1 2 2 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 1 2 4 3 4 3 4 1 3 4 2 4 2 4 2 2 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 1 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 4 3 2 4 2 3 4 1 1 2 3 4 1 3 4 3 1 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 3 4 3 3 3 3 1 3 1 1 1 3 4 1 2 3 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 1 2 4 3 1 3 1 4 4 3 3 1 3 3 3 2 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 3 2 2 4 2 3 2 4 2 1 3 4 1 4 1 3 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 1 3 2 4 1 2 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Let

Now F =
(i)

(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii)

y = 5 N, x = 5

2)

For and , equilibrium is possible when

A+B>C>A–B

3) (P) N
(Q) Fnet = N
(R) Fnet = 0 as all three are at 120° from each other
(S) N

4)

R2 = A2 + B2 + 2ABcosθ

5)

required vector =

(θ = angle b/w A & B)

6)
= 18 + 32 = 50

7)
W = 30 × 9 + 40 × 3
= 270 + 120
= 390

8)
= 2 × 5 + 3 (–2) = 4

9)

10)
Rmax = A + B
Rmin = |A – B|

11)

so

12)

13)
Volume is scalar

14)
z = 5 y = 10

15) Question Explanation: To find displacement vector.

Concept: Subtraction of vector.
Formula: Displacement
Solution: A (1, 1, 1) & B (3, 4, 5)
Then displacement =
=
​

16)

17) Question explanation: to find out the types of given two vectors.
Concept: Types of vector
Solution: As two vector may lie in a single plane so two vectors are always copanar.

18)
If K +ve
If K –ve

19)
Angle between & is 0°

20)
so

21) Question Explain :

We need to compute the dot product of two given vector expressions:
. The dot product follows distributive and commutative properties.

Concept Based :
Dot product and addition of vectors.

Solution :
The dot product of two vectors and is given by = |X| |Y|cosθ. It follows the is
distributive law

Formula Used :

Calculation :
Expanding the given expression:

= 6A2 – 4ABcosθ + 9ABcosθ – 6B2

= 6A2 + 5ABcosθ – 6B2

Answer : The correct answer is option 3.

22)

Magnitude of

Direction of

Required vector =

23)

Angle between and

180° – 30° = 150°

24)
 25)

26)

Theory Based
All options are correct.

27) R = 2a cos , F = 2F cos ,

∴ θ = 120°

28)
⇒ cosθ = 0 ⇒ θ = 0°

so
=0

29) θ = 0°

30) (1) Asking About:

Using the triangle law of vector addition, find the correct relationship between the given
vectors.
(2) Concept:
The triangle law of vector addition states that if two vectors are represented by two sides of
a triangle taken in the same order, their resultant is given by the third side in the reverse
order.
For the given triangle:

A. and are in the same order

B. is in the reverse order.

(3) Formula:
The triangle law of vector addition can be expressed as:

(4) Solution/Explanation:

A. In the given triangle, vectors and are aligned in the same cyclic order.
B. According to the triangle law, the sum of and equals in the reverse direction.
C. Mathematically:

A. Comparing this with the options, Option 3 is correct.

(5) Final Answer:
Option 3:

31) b = = = =2c
Now

32)

33) 9Q2 = P2 + Q2 + 2PQ cos .....(1)

Q2 = P2 + Q2 – 2P Q cos .....(2)
(1) + (2)
10 Q2 = 2P2 + 2Q2
8Q2 = 2P2

34) Vector component of along is

35)

When Q is doubled,
resultant is perpendicular to
∴ R2 = P2 + Q2 + 2PQ cosθ

From right angled triangle ADC

Substituting in (ii) and solving we get
P2 + 2PQ cosθ = 0
Substituting (iii) in (i), we get, R = Q

36)

According to question

P2 + (2P)2 = 82
5P2 = 64

P= =

37)

= 70 × 10–5 × 102
= 70 × 10–3
= 7 × 10–2 Nm–1

38) and =
⇒

So

39)

[ML2T–2] = [MLT–1]X[L2]Y[T]Z
X=1
–X+Z=–2⇒Z=–1

X + 2Y = 2 ⇒ Y =

40) 1. Question Explanation:

We are given Young's modulus of steel in Sl units (1.9 × 1011 N / m2) and we need to express it
in CGS units (dynes per square centimeter, dyne/cm2).

2. Concept Based:
This is a unit conversion problem, where we need to convert Young's modulus from the Sl unit
of pressure (N / m 2) to the CGS unit of pressure (dyne/ cm2)

3. Formula Used:
1 Newton (N) = 105 dynes (dyne)
1 meter (m) = 100 centimeters (cm)
Since Young's modulus is expressed as force per unit area, we need to adjust both the force
and the area units for the conversion.

4. Calculation (in brief):

The given value of Young's modulus is 1.9 × 10 11 N / m2
Convert N to dyne: 1N = 105 dyne.
Convert m2 cm2 : 1 m2 = 104 cm2
Now, converting the units:

1.9 × 10 N/m2 = 1.9 × 1011 ×

= 1.9 × 10 × 10 dyne/cm2
= 1.9 × 1012 dyne/cm2

5. Answer:
The correct value of Young's modulus in CGS units is:
1.9 × 1012 dyne/cm2

Thus, the correct answer is: Option 3

1.9 × 1012

41) = [LT–4]

42) [T1] = k[M1 L1 T –2]a [ML2 T –2]b [L1 T –1]c

comparing
a + b = 0 ; a + 2b + c = 0, –2a –2b – c = 1

43)

44) [kx] = [1]

k = [L–1]

45) Using dimensional analysis

[MLT–2] = [ML2T–2]p [L]q [T]r
Comparing coefficients of M, L and T
1=p p=1
 1 = 2p + q q = –1
–2 = –2p + r r=0

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

48)

49)

50)

51)

52)

53)

54)

55)
56)

57)

58)

59)

60)

61)

62)

63)

64)

65)

66)

67)
68)

69)

70) O+, O, O– ⇒ Z same but different Zeff

Zeff ∝ positive charge ∝

Zeff ∝ electronegativity
So, order :- O+ > O > O–

71)

72)

73)

74)

75)

76)

77)
78)

79)

80)

81) Explanation:- For O2, Gram molecular weight is to be found.

Concept:-
Gram molecular mass = mass of 1 gram molecule
= mass of 1 mole molecule
= mass of NA molecules
= mass of 6.023x1023 molecules.
Calculation:-
Gram molecular mass of O2 = mass of 1 gram molecule of O2
= mass of 1 mole molecule of O2
= mass of NA molecules of O2

=
Gram molecular mass of O2 = 32g
Final Answer:- 32 g
Correct option:- 4

82)

83)

84)

85)

1 mol of MCl4 contains 4 mol of chlorine

0.5 mol chlorine is present in 25 g of MCl4

∴ 4 mol chlorine will be present in × 4, i.e., 200 g of MCl4

 86)

87)

88)

89) No. of atoms of Fe = × NA = 10 NA

No of N atoms = × NA = 5 NA

No. of H atoms = × NA = 20 NA

No. of O atoms = × NA = 0.5 NA

90) No. of atoms = 4 × 6.02 × 1023

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT, Pg. # 126

92) NCERT Pg.# 129

93)

94)

95) NCERT Pg. # 131

96)
97)

98)

99)

100)

101) Explanation:
Plasmodesmata: These are channels that connect the cytoplasm of neighboring plant cells,
allowing communication and transport between them.
Middle lamella: This is a pectin-rich layer that glues the adjacent plant cells together,
helping to hold them in place.
The correct answer is: (2) Plasmodesmata and middle lamella respectively

102)

103)

104)

105)

106) Explanation:
a. Mitochondria are typically sausage-shaped or cylindrical. Correct, mitochondria have
a rod-like or cylindrical shape.
c. Mitochondria and bacteria both divide by fission: Correct, both mitochondria and
bacteria replicate through binary fission.
e. Plastids are found in all plant cells and euglenoids: Correct, plastids are present in
plant cells and euglenoids (like euglena), which are protists.
 The correct answer is:
(4). a, c, e

107)

108)

109)

Explanation: Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles that contain hydrolytic enzymes

(hydrolases) which function best at an acidic pH, aiding in the breakdown of various
macromolecules. The other options refer to mitochondria (powerhouse of the cell) and the
Golgi apparatus (involved in glycoprotein and glycolipid formation).

The correct answer is: (2) Contain hydrolases which are active at the acidic pH

110)

111)

112)

E.R. is continuous with membrane of nucleus

113) NCERT Pg. # 125 & 126

114) Explanation:

A. Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

B. (iv) is incorrect because Blue-green algae (BGA) are prokaryotes, not eukaryotes.

So, only one statement is incorrect.

Final Answer : option (4). One

115)

NCERT, Page No. # 94

116) NCERT Pg. # 135

117)

NCERT Page no 95, 96

118)

Both have DNA & protein synthesis machinery

119)

Ribosomes are smallest in size & highest in number

120)

NCERT, Page No. # 95,96

121) Explanation: The tonoplast is the membrane surrounding the vacuole in plant cells. It
facilitates the transport of ions and other materials against their concentration gradient into
the vacuole, which is important for maintaining the cell's internal environment and storage of
nutrients and waste products.

Final Answer : option (1). A-Tonoplast, B-Vacuole

122) Explanation: The secondary cell wall is formed on the inner side of the primary cell
wall in plant cells. It provides additional strength and support and is typically formed after the
cell has stopped growing.

Final Answer : option (1). The inner side of primary cell wall

123)

Peptidoglycam are found in cell wall of prokaryotes.

124)

NCERT, Page No. # 98

125)

NCERT, Page No. # 95,96, 98

126)

Mitochondria & chloroplast ribosomes are 70S while 80S are found in cytoplasm & ER

127)

NCERT, Page No. # 97

128)

NCERT, Page No. # 93

129)

NCERT, Page No. # 98

130)

Bacterium has plasmid, mesosome but lack true nucleus.

131)

Mixed

132)

Mixed question

133)

NCERT, Page No. # 93

134)

NCERT, Page No. # 99, 100

135) XI NCERT Pg. # 97, 98

136) NCERT (XI) Pg# 40

 137)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44

138) NCERT Pg. # 48

139) NCERT XI Pg. # 41

140) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 53

141) Explanation:

A. Hermaphrodites have both male and female reproductive organs.

B. Spongilla (Sponge), Pleurobrachia (Ctenophore), Fasciola (Liver Fluke), and
Hirudinaria (Leech) are all hermaphrodites.
C. Other options contain Ascaris, Nereis, Wuchereria, or Ancylostoma, which are dioecious
(separate sexes) and incorrect.

Correct Answer:
Option (4) Spongilla, Pleurobrachia, Fasciola, Hirudinaria

142) Explanation:
Balanoglossus (a marine acorn worm) belongs to the phylum Hemichordata, which shares
characteristics with both chordates and non-chordates.

A. Balanoglossus is a marine animal, not freshwater.

B. Balanoglossus has a buccal diverticulum, which was once mistaken for a notochord but is not a
true notochord.
C. Excretion occurs through a proboscis gland, which functions similarly to a kidney.
D. Balanoglossus is triploblastic, but its circulatory system is open, not closed.

Correct Answer:
Option 3. Excretion by proboscis gland

143)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 50

144)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 50

145)

NCERT (XI) Page 54

146) NCERT Pg. # 48

147) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 41

148) NCERT Pg. # 42

149) NCERT Pg. # 43

150) NCERT Pg. # 52

151) NCERT Pg. # 43

152) NCERT Pg. # 42

153) NCERT Pg. # 53

154) NCERT Pg. # 52

155) [RATIONALISED NCERT BOOK 2024-2025]

NCERT Pg. # 42

156) NCERT Pg. # 52

157) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 51

158)

Cnidaria and cternophora show both types of digestion.

159)

NCERT XI, Page No. # 43

160)

NCERT, Pg No. # 44

161) NCERT XI Pg. # 54

162)

NCERT, Pg No. # 44
163)

NCERT, Pg No. # 40, 41, 43

164) NCERT Page No. # 53, 4.2.7

165) NCERT XI Pg. # 39

166) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 49, 51

167) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 51

168) NCERT Pg. No. # 47

169) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 53

170) NCERT Pg. No. # 50

171) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 53

172) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 50

173)

NCERT XI (E) Pg. # 54

174) NCERT(XI) Pg # 54, Para-4.2.10 fig. 4.15

175) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44,45

176)

NCERT, Pg No. # 44

177)

NCERT, Pg No. # 45

178) Ncert page 39.

179) (a) is tapeworm, belong to phylum platyhelminthes, are acoelomate

(b) is jelly fish (Aurelia), belonging to phylum cnidaria/coelentrata. These are also acoelomate
(c) is octopus belonging to phylum mollusca, they are schizocoelomate
(d) is scorpion belonging to phylum arthropoda, they are also schizocoelomate
Both (c) & (d) i.e. Octopus and scorpion have true coelom i.e. schizocoelomate.

180)

NCERT, Pg No. # 46
Table 4.1