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Comprehensive Test 3

This document is a test booklet for a comprehensive examination on Ancient, Medieval, and Modern History, designed for candidates with a maximum score of 200 marks and a duration of two hours. It includes instructions for checking the booklet, filling out the answer sheet, and penalties for incorrect answers. The test consists of 100 multiple-choice questions covering various historical topics, with questions presented in both English and Hindi.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

156 views71 pages

Comprehensive Test 3

Uploaded by

rajarsee1999

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Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

LEVEL– 3/T3 TEST –32

COMPREHENSIV
TEST-3
Ancient,Medievaland Modern
History

2023
RS-40
PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C. : FIAS-KPTS23-Comp_T3 Test Booklet Series
Serial No.

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper – 1

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: Two Hours

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY
UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in
the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer
Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for
rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test
booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in
English & Hindi. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select
the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel
that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items
in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as
per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and
the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the
Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there
will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there
will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

Q.1) With reference to the administration under 2. The Babbar Akali Movement is a Gurdwara
the Maratha empire, consider the following Reform Movement against British by the
statements: Akali immigrants from Canada.
1. Shivaji’s system of administration was Which of the statements given above is/are
influenced largely by the administrative correct?
practices of the Deccan states. a) 1 only
2. Chauth and sardeshmukhi were the taxes b) 2 only
collected not in the Maratha kingdom but in c) Both 1 and 2
the neighbouring territories. d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. The post of Peshwa became hereditary
under Shivaji. Q.5) Project ELLORA, recently seen in news, is
Which of the statements given above are related to which of the following?
correct? a) Redevelopment of architectural heritage of
a) 1 and 2 only India
b) 2 and 3 only b) Preserving local languages for future
c) 1 and 3 only generations
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) Redesigning cultural education system of
the country
Q.2) Which of the following are the issues d) Geo-Mapping of major UNESCO World
associated with Permanent Settlement? Heritage sites of India
1. The system led to commercialization of
land. Q.6) Which of the following are the reasons
2. The zamindars generally did not invest behind the failure of the ‘Ghadar Movement’?
revenue in improvement of land 1. The movement was influenced by
3. The land revenue was revised from time to communal tendencies.
time to gain profits 2. The movement lacked organized and
Select the correct answer using the code given sustained leadership.
below: 3. The movement lacks a particular plan of
a) 1 and 2 only action.
b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
c) 1 and 3 only below.
d) 1, 2 and 3 a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
Q.3) Which of the following are the major c) 1 and 3 only
economic causes of the Revolt of 1857? d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Collapse of Indian Industry and Trade
2. Discontent among the Zamindars caused by Q.7) With reference to ‘Anushilan Samiti’,
new land revenue system consider the following statements:
3. Monopolization of the plantation industries 1. It was founded by Promothanath Mitter.
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. The Samiti was influenced by Bankim
below. Chandra Chatterjee’s ‘Anandamath’.
a) 1 only 3. The Samiti published a weekly Yugantar to
b) 2 and 3 only advocate revolutionary activities.
c) 2 only Which of the above-mentioned statements are
d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
Q.4) With reference to Sikh Reform Movements, b) 1 and 3 only
consider the following statements: c) 2 and 3 only
1. The Singh Sabha Movement established d) 1, 2 and 3
Khalsa schools for spreading revolutionary
activities against colonial rule in Punjab.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

Q.8) Consider the following pairs: Q.11) With reference to Ancient Indian History,
Reforms/Acts Description/Provisions consider the following events:
1. Indian Budget was allowed to 1. Kanishka’s Accession to the throne
Councils Act be discussed 2. ‘Milind Panho’ written by Nagasena
1861 3. Invasion of North-Western India by
2. Morley-Minto Right of separate Alexander
Reforms 1909 electorate to the 4. Junagarh Rock inscription under
Muslims Rudradaman I
3. Montague Abolition of Dyarchy in What is the correct chronological sequence of
Chelmsford Provinces the above given events?
Reforms 1919 a) 3-4-1-2
4. Government Bicameral legislature b) 4-2-3-1
Of India Act introduced in few c) 3-2-1-4
1935 provinces d) 4-3-2-1
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
matched? Q.12) With reference to ‘Ajivikas’, consider the
a) 1 and 2 only following statements:
b) 3 and 4 only 1. Ajivikas school was founded by Makkhali
c) 2 and 4 only Gosala in 5th century BC.
d) 1 and 3 only 2. They considered Karma and asceticism as
an integral part of human life.
Q.9) Which of the following characterizes the 3. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally
Pre-Mauryan Period in the cultural history of made for Ajivikas by Chandragupta Maurya.
India? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Northern Black Polished Ware correct?
2. Rock-Cut Cave Architecture a) 1 only
3. Greek influenced Buddhist Sculptures b) 1 and 2 only
4. Punch-marked coins c) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given d) 3 only
below:
a) 1 only Q.13) With reference to Chandragupta Maurya,
b) 2 and 3 only consider the following statements:
c) 1 and 4 only 1. He established the Mauryan Empire after
d) 3 and 4 only defeating Dhana Nanda.
2. His reign ended in just two years after he
Q.10) A Commission headed by Justice G. Rohini becoming first emperor of Mauryan Empire.
was recently heard in news. In relation to this Which of the statements given above is/are
commission, consider the following correct?
statements: a) 1 only
1. It was set up by the President under the b) 2 only
provisions of Article 340 of the Indian c) Both 1 and 2
Constitution. d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Commission is mandated to examine
the issues related to the sub-categorization Q.14) In the context of Ancient Indian History,
of Other Backward Classes (OBCs). the terms of ‘aham’ and ‘puram’ are related to-
Which of the statements given above is/are a) Polity of Vijayanagar empire
correct? b) Classification of trading Guilds
a) 1 only c) Sangam Poetry
b) 2 only d) Classical Dance Postures
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

Q.15) NASA’s Lucy mission is the first spacecraft Q.18) The post-Gupta period was characterised
launched to explore the Trojan asteroids. In this by certain changes in Indian economy. Which
context, which of the following is/are the of the following statements correctly describe
features of ‘Trojan Asteroids’? these changes?
1. They are the group of asteroids that do not 1. Land grants grew in number
share their orbit with any other celestial 2. Important cities like Taxila and Kausambi
body. emerged as centre of growth
2. They can provide valuable information 3. Minting and circulation of coins were
regarding the formation of our solar system. reduced to a limited scale
Select the correct answer using the codes given 4. There was a decline in towns but growth of
below: agrarian and rural areas.
a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the codes given
b) 2 only below:
c) Both 1 and 2 a) 1 and 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
Q.16) With reference to Major Rock Inscription, d) 2, 3 and 4 only
consider the following pairs:
Major Rock Associated with Q.19) Consider the following statements:
Inscription 1. The cultivation of Kharif crops like millet
1. Hathigumpha King Kharavela and rice was a dominant practice in
Inscription Harappan civilization.
2. Mehrauli Rudradaman I 2. Harappans were not aware of growing two
Inscription crops together in same field.
3. Kalsi Inscription Samudragupta 3. Animals such as buffalo, goat and camel
4. Aihole Pulakeshin II were domesticated during Harrapan period.
Inscription Which of the statements given above is/are
How many pairs given above are correctly correct?
matched? a) 1 only
a) Only one pair b) 1 and 3 only
b) Only two pairs c) 2 and 3 only
c) Only three pairs d) 3 only
d) All four pairs
Q.20) With reference to human body, which
Q.17) Consider the following statements one of the following statements correctly
regarding ‘Harrapan Seals’: explains the term ‘Immune Imprinting’?
1. Most of the seals used during Harrapans a) It is the process of artificially increasing the
period was in the shape of square. strength of the immune system by repeated
2. The seals found were engraved with exposure to pathogens.
inscription based on Brahmi script. b) It is the process by which the immune
3. They were primarily used for entertainment system loses its ability to recognize and
purposes in Harrapan society. respond to antigens over time.
Which of the statements given above is/are c) It is a tendency of the body to repeat its
correct? immune response based on the first variant
a) 1 only it encountered through infection or
b) 2 and 3 only vaccination.
c) 1 and 3 only d) It is a mechanism of selectively removing
d) 3 only specific immune cells from the body to
reduce the risk of disease.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

Q.21) With reference to Harappan culture, c) It is a practice of decreasing the intake of

consider the following statements: food gradually in order to end one's life.
1. Fired bricks were used in construction of d) It is a sacred practice of Santhal tribe in
the Great Bath of Mohenjo-Daro. worshipping nature and their supreme
2. Drainage system of Harappan towns were deity.
entirely uncovered.
3. Street and lanes of the cities intersected at Q.25) With reference to ‘Kelp forests’, consider
right angles to form rectangular blocks. the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. They are underwater ecosystems found in
correct? shallow water.
a) 1 only 2. They are only found in warm and nutrient-
b) 1 and 3 only deficient waters near equatorial region.
c) 2 and 3 only 3. They are characterized by the dense growth
d) 3 only of brown algae.
4. They provide shelter and food for many
Q.22) Consider the following statements marine species.
regarding Chalcolithic period: Which of the statements given above are
1. Black and red ware pottery were used correct?
during this period. a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
2. There was large scale use of iron for making
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
of tools and weapons. d) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Stone and Copper were used by agricultural
communities. Q.26) With reference to ancient India, consider
Which of the statements given above is/are the following statements:
correct? 1. Iron tipped weapons were used intensively
a) 1 only in agricultural activities of early Rig-Vedic
b) 1 and 2 only period.
c) 3 only 2. Rituals of Later-Vedic society became more
d) 1 and 3 only complicated than before.
3. In later Rig-Vedic period, deity Prajapati the
Q.23) Which of the following statements creator became important deity.
correctly explains the term ‘Karmaprabhrita Which of the statements given above is/are
and Kashayaprabhrita’? correct?
a) They are treasury head officers under a) 1 only
revenue department of Mauryan empire. b) 1 and 2 only
b) These are the holy texts of Digambar sect of c) 3 only
Jainism. d) 2 and 3 only
c) These are songs written for marriages by the
women in Maharashtra region. Q.27) Consider the following statements
d) These are inscriptions of Chola empire that regarding ‘Satavahana Empire’:
give detailed account of its village 1. Satavahana rulers rejected the belief in
administration. divine rights of a king.
2. The administrative system was based on the
Q.24) With reference to “Santhara Practice”, principle of feudal hierarchy.
3. ‘Uparakshita’ was a special official charged
which of the following statements correctly
with the duty of building caves for the
explains the meaning of it?
monks.
a) It is a religious practice to attain liberation
Which of the statements given above is/are
by discharging ritual and social obligations.
correct?
b) It is a spiritual practice of Buddhist monks to
a) 1 only
attain liberation through intensive b) 1 and 2 only
meditation. c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

Q.28) Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above is/are
regarding the ‘policies of Allaudin Khilji’: correct?
1. He introduced the system of Dagh and a) 1 only
Huliyah to strengthen his control over the b) 2 only
army. c) Both 1 and 2
2. The system of Iqtas and Muqtis was d) Neither 1 nor 2
abolished during the rule of Allaudin Khilji.
3. He launched a scheme of Takkavi loans to Q.32) “This empire occupied prominence
the farmers to extend cultivation. during 11th-14th centuries in South India with
Which of the statements given above is/are Belur as its capital city. They built the temples
correct? with multiple shrines around a central pillared
a) 1 only hall in the shape of an intricately designed star.
b) 1 and 2 only In this kingdom, ‘crowned queens’ occupied
c) 2 and 3 only special administrative authority”.
d) 1 and 3 only Which one of the following empires is being
described in the above given paragraph?
Q.29) Arrange the following dynasties in a) Kadamba Empire
chronological order that ruled the ‘Deccan b) Chola Empire
region’ in Ancient India: c) Hoysala Empire
1. Vakatakas d) Chalukyan Empire
2. Satavahana
3. Rashtrakutas Q.33) Consider the following statements
4. Chalukyas regarding the policies of Akbar:
Which of the option given below is correct? 1. He established the concept of separation of
a) 1-2-4-3 state and religion.
b) 2-3-4-1 2. The philosophy of Sulh-i-Kul was
c) 1-2-3-4 propagated under his rule.
d) 2-1-4-3 3. He adopted Sher Shah Suri’s idea of a
uniform tax rate for the entire country.
Q.30) Recently seen in news, the ‘Yellow Band Which of the statements given above is/are
Disease’ usually affects which one of the correct?
following? a) 1 and 2 only
a) Wheat crop b) 2 and 3 only
b) Coral reefs c) 3 only
c) Silkworms d) 1 and 3 only
d) Teak trees
Q.34) With reference to “Rashtrakutas’,
Q.31) Consider the following statements consider the following statements:
regarding Delhi Sultanate: 1. They were originally known to be the
1. The practice of the Purdah system became feudatories of Pallava dynasty.
widespread among the higher classes in 2. In the context of administrative divisions
society. Rashtra, visaya and bhukti were directly
2. The inheritance of the husband’s property administered under their rule.
to the widows was allowed during this 3. ‘Nad Gavundas’ was the village head man
period. responsible for law and order.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 only

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

Q.35) With reference to ‘Financial Services Q.38) With reference to the Responsivist
Institutions Bureau (FSIB)’, consider the section in Swaraj Party during 1920s, consider
following statements: the following statements:
1. It was established by replacing the Bank 1. Lala Lajpat Rai, Madan Mohan Malaviya and
Board’s Bureau of India. N.C. Kelkar were the Responsivists leaders.
2. It will be headed by the secretary of the 2. They were against any cooperation with the
Department of Financial Services. British government.
3. The chairperson of FSIB will be the de facto Which of the above statements is/are correct?
member of Monetary Policy Committee a) 1 only
under Reserve Bank of India. b) 2 only
4. It will ensure proper selection of talent for c) Both 1 and 2
senior positions at financial institutions in d) Neither 1 nor 2
the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are Q.39) With reference to the reign of Mughal
correct? emperor Akbar, consider the following pairs:
a) 1 and 4 only Administrative Function
b) 4 only posts
c) 2 and 3 only 1. Mir Bakshi Make recommendations
d) 1, 2 and 4 only regarding military
appointments.
Q.36) Which of the following statement is 2. Mir Saman Responsible for
incorrect regarding Bhakti movement in South maintaining the morality
India? of the general people
a) For Alvars, the relationship between the god 3. Muhtasib In charge of royal
and his devotee was analogous to that kharkhanas
between master and slave. 4. Barid Intelligence officers
b) The Bhakti saints were against the Which of the pairs given above are matched
austerities preached by the Jains and the correctly?
Buddhists. a) 1 and 2 only
c) Most of the male saints lived their lives as a b) 2 and 3 only
part of society and were married. c) 1 and 4 only
d) The Bhakti saints attracted tribals who were d) 3 and 4 only
assimilated into the mainstream society.
Q.40) With reference to ‘Online Gaming in
Q.37) With reference to the Delhi Sultanate India’, consider the following statements:
period, consider the following statements: 1. Presently, there is no specific central
1. The Diwan-i-risalat dealt with all the monitoring or regulatory body in India to
correspondence between the ruler and the control online gaming.
sovereigns of other states. 2. In India, 100 percent foreign direct
2. The Diwan-i-insha dealt with religious investment (FDI) is allowed under the
matter that was presided over by the Chief automatic route for online gaming.
Sadr. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? a) 1 only
a) 1 only b) 2 only
b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

Q.41) Why the Malwa region was considered as Select the correct answer using the code given
one of the most important regions during below:
medieval period? a) 1, 2 and 3 only
a) It provided the best sea ports for the trade b) 1, 3 and 4 only
and commerce. c) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) It was located on the ancient Silk route. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) It was located on the Grand Trunk road that
provided easy access to any invader from Q.45) Recently, ‘MAARG Platform’ was launched
Central Asia. by the Department for Promotion of Industry
d) Dominance over this region can provide the and Internal Trade under the Ministry of
opportunity to rule over whole north India. Commerce and Industry. The objective of this
platform is to-
Q.42) With reference to the Vijayanagar a) promote the manufacture and export of
kingdom, consider the following statements: high-quality capital goods from India.
1. During this time horses were imported from b) develop industrialization in the remote, hilly
Arabia, Syria, and Turkey. and inaccessible areas of the country.
2. The Tara coins were the standard gold coins c) provide sector-focused guidance and
during the Vijayanagar period. support to start-ups throughout their
3. Calicut, Cochin, Pulicat, and Mangalore lifecycle.
were the chief ports of the kingdom. d) strengthen the capabilities of the
Which of the statements given above are Intellectual Property Offices in India.
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only Q.46) Which of the following reforms were
b) 2 and 3 only carried out by the Sher Shah Sur?
c) 1 and 3 only 1. Issuance of silver currency known as
d) 1,2 and 3 Rupaiya.
2. Construction of Grand Trunk road
Q.43) With reference to medieval India, connecting Sonargaon with Takshila.
consider the following statements: 3. Abolition of custom duty that was levied at
1. Tanka was the term used for silver coins the time of sale of goods.
issued during the Delhi sultanate period. 4. Codification of the Islamic laws.
2. Muhammad bin Tughlaq introduced a token Select the correct answer from the code given
currency in form of bronze coins modelled below:
on the Chinese paper currency. a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are b) 2 and 4 only
correct? c) 1,3 and 4 only
a) 1 only d) 2,3 and 4 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q.47) With reference to the history of India,
d) Neither 1 nor 2 consider the following statements:
1. For land revenue assessment, the yield in
Q.44) Which of the following were functions last one year and the previous ten years
carried out by the village assembly during Chola were considered during Delhi Sultanate and
period? Mughal period respectively.
1. Maintenance of roads. 2. Like Mansabdari system of Mughals, the Iqta
2. Regulated public markets. system of Delhi Sultanate provided the rules
3. Dispensation of justice. with a military support.
4. Sending a fixed number of soldiers to the Which of the statements given above are
king. correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

Q.48) Consider the following statements about Q.51) Consider the following statements with
the Young Bengal movement: reference to the swadeshi movement:
1. It supported the efforts for the introduction 1. The Swadeshi Movement was started to
of western medical education in the oppose the British decision of partition of
country. Bengal.
2. It drew inspiration from the French 2. Jagdish Chandra Bose launched a national
revolution. shipbuilding enterprise during the Swadeshi
3. It failed to have a long-term impact as the movement.
social conditions were not ripe for their 3. Chidambaram Pillai opened a new business
radical ideas. called Bengal Chemical Swadeshi Stores
Which of the statements given above is/are during the Swadeshi movement.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
a) 1 and 2 only correct?
b) 2 and 3 only a) 1 only
c) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Q.49) With reference to the history of India,
consider the following pairs: Q.52) With reference to the modern history of
Term Description India, the downward filtration theory refers to
1. Gumashtas A British East India which of the following?
Company’s agent to a) Role of the rich class in spreading economic
supervise local prosperity to the poor people in India.
weavers b) Role of the educated class of India in spread
2. Karori who specialized in of nationalistic feeling amongst masses.
exchanging money c) Educating a section of upper and middle
for trade classes who would spread western
3. Hundi Bill of exchanges education to the masses.
4. Shroffs Revenue officials d) A planned approach for disseminating ideas
How many of the pairs given above is/are to lower authorities to inculcate a feeling of
matched correctly? loyalty.
a) Only One pair
b) Only Two pairs Q.53) Arrange the following Historical events in
c) Only Three pairs their chronological order after Gandhi's arrival
d) All the Four pairs in India:
1. Ahmedabad mill strike
Q.50) India has signed ‘Comprehensive 2. Passage of Rowlatt act
Migration and Mobility Partnership Agreement 3. Launch Home rule movement
with which of the following countries? 4. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
1. Austria Select the correct answer using the codes given
2. Germany below:
3. Sri Lanka a) 1-2-3-4
4. France b) 2-3-4-1
5. Bangladesh c) 3-1-2-4
Select the correct answer using the codes given d) 2-1-3-4
below:
a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

Q.54) Consider the following statements with Q.57) Consider the following statements with
reference to the Non-cooperation movement: reference to the women social reformers
1. The non-cooperation movement was during India’s freedom struggle:
endorsed at the Bombay session of the 1. Ramabai Ranade founded the Arya Mahila
Indian National Congress. Samaj for improvement in the educational
2. A non-cooperation programme included the syllabus of Indian women.
boycott of law courts and legislative 2. Bharat Stree Mahamandal founded by Sarla
assemblies. Devi Chaudhurani is considered as the first
3. The non-cooperation movement was major Indian women’s organization set up
withdrawn as Gandhi felt that people had by a woman.
not fully understood the method of non- 3. The All-India Women’s Conference founded
violence. by Margaret Cousins worked for a society
Which of the statements given above are based on principles of social justice.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
a) 1 and 2 only correct?
b) 2 and 3 only a) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only b) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.55) With reference to ‘Thullal’, consider the
following statements: Q.58) Which of the following pairs are correctly
1. It is a recite and dance art form of matched?
Meghalaya. List I List II
2. It follows the classical principles of Important Public Recommendations
Natyashastra, a treatise on art compiled in service commissions
the 2nd century B.C.E. and acts
3. It is famous for its humour and social satire 1. Aitchison It recommended
and is marked by its simplicity. Committee on raising the age limit of
Which of the statements given above is/are Public Services civil services
correct? (1886) recruitment to 23
a) 1 only 2. Lee Commission It recommended for
b) 1 and 2 only (1924) the Dropping of the
c) 2 and 3 only terms ‘covenanted’
d) 1 and 3 only and ‘uncovenanted’
from public services
Q.56) Consider the following statements with 3. Government of It recommended the
reference to the Khond uprising: India Act, 1935 establishment of
1. Khonds were the tribals of the hilly tracts Provincial Public
who revolted against the Company rule. Service Commission
2. Khonds were joined by the Ghumsar and Select the correct answer using the code given
Kalahandi tribals. below:
3. The revolt was against the decision of a) 1 and 2 only
colonial administration to stop the human b) 1 and 3 only
sacrifices. c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above are d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

Q.59) Consider the following statements with Select the correct answer using the code given
reference to the contribution of different below:
personalities during Indian freedom a) 1 and 2 only
movement: b) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. Annie Besant laid the foundation of the c) 1, 2 and 3 only
Central Hindu College in Banaras. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. A.O. Hume organized the first session of the
Indian National Congress in Bombay in Q.62) Which of the following rights were
December 1885. included in the resolution on Fundamental
3. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan organized a rights of Karachi Session of the Congress?
volunteer brigade of Khudai Khidmatgars. 1. Right to form associations
Which of the statements given above are 2. Universal adult franchise
correct? 3. Free and compulsory primary education
a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given
b) 2 and 3 only below:
c) 1 and 3 only a) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
Q.60) With reference to ‘First Information d) 1, 2 and 3
Report (FIR) and Chargesheet’, consider the
following statements: Q.63) Consider the following statements about
1. While the chargesheet is the final report Mahatma Gandhi’s Harijan Campaign:
filed towards the end of an investigation, an 1. He set up both the All India Anti-
FIR is filed when police are informed of a Untouchability League and the Harijan
cognizable offense. Sevak Sangh.
2. The purpose of FIR is to initiate the 2. He emphasized on internal reform by
investigation of the offense committed, Harijans about removing untouchability
whereas chargesheet is used to provide among themselves.
evidence during the trial. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Both FIR and Chargesheet can be withdrawn correct?
by filing an affidavit in the court. a) 1 only
4. Chargesheet is a public document whereas b) 2 only
FIR cannot be treated as a public document. c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above are d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only Q.64) With reference to the Eka Movement,
b) 1, 2 and 3 only consider the following statements:
c) 1, 3 and 4 only 1. The movement formed a part of the series of
d) 2 and 4 only peasant revolts which broke out after the
Second World War.
Q.61) Gandhi presented eleven demands to the 2. The Movement was against the oppression
British Government before the launch of Civil of thikadars who were in-charge of revenue
Disobedience Movement. Which of the collection.
following were these demands? 3. The movement was led by low-caste leaders
1. Reduce expenditure on Army and civil Sidhu and Kanhu.
services by 50 per cent Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. Release political prisoners a) 1 and 2 only
3. Abolish salt tax b) 2 and 3 only
4. Provide Equal legal rights irrespective of c) 2 only
caste, creed and sex d) 1, 2 and 3

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

Q.65) Which one of the following organizations Q.69) With respect to Indian Freedom Struggle,
has launched ‘Green Urban Oases (GUO) which among the following were the
Programme’ that aims to turn dryland cities achievements of Swarajist – a group within the
into green urban oases? congress party?
a) World Economic Forum 1. Vithalbhai Patel was elected the speaker of
b) International Union for Conservation of Central Legislative Assembly
Nature 2. Their efforts led to the defeat of the Public
c) Food and Agriculture Organization Safety Bill in 1928
d) United Nations Human Settlements 3. They supported and facilitated the
Programme implementation of Montagau Chelmsford
reforms.
Q.66) In the course of the Quit India Movement, Which of the statements given above is/are
organisation of Nyayadan Mandals and Gandhi correct?
marriages was a significant feature of which of a) 1 only
the following parallel governments? b) 2 and 3 only
a) Jatiya Sarkar c) 3 only
b) Gandhi Sarkar d) 1 and 2 only
c) Harijan Sarkar
d) Prati Sarkar Q.70) With reference to ‘Monument Mitra
Scheme’, consider the following statements:
Q.67) With respect to the Indian National Army 1. Ministry of Tourism is the nodal ministry to
(INA), consider the following statements: manage and coordinate the scheme.
1. They defeated the British at Moirang in 2. It aims to ensure quality & inclusive
North Eastern part of India. provision of amenities and facilities across
2. Women’s regiment was formed in the INA heritage and tourist sites in India.
under the command of Captain Lakshmi 3. The scheme applies to all the centrally
Swaminathan. protected heritage properties of the
Which of the statements given above is/are country.
correct? 4. Only Public Sector Units (PSUs) are eligible
a) 1 only to adopt the monuments as part of their
b) 2 only Corporate Social Responsibility under this
c) Both 1 and 2 scheme.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above are
correct?
Q.68) Consider the following statements about a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
Chittagong Armoury Raid led by Surya Sen
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
during 1930s:
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. He successfully organised the attempt on
British Armoury with the assistance of
Q.71) Consider the following statements with
Indian National Army.
reference to the Child Marriage Restraint Act,
2. He proclaimed a provisional revolutionary
1929:
government after the incident.
1. The Act fixed the minimum marriageable
3. This incident triggered an increase in
age for girls and boys at 18 years.
revolutionary activity in Bengal.
2. Harbilas Sarda and M V Joshi Committee
Which of the above statements are correct?
played key roles in the legislation.
a) 1 and 2 only
3. The Act was applicable to all of British India.
b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
c) 1 and 3 only
correct?
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

Q.72) Consider the following statements with Q.75) The term ‘Vivore’, recently seen in news,
reference to economic exploitation by British in means
India during Pre Independence period: a) super-virus with ability to survive in space
1. India served as a field of Investment for b) Genetically modified in-activated virus
British Capital for the industrialization. c) organisms which eat viruses
2. Import duties in India were drastically d) Combination of Virus and bacterial spores
increased to prevent capital outflow.
3. The payment to the cost of British Q.76) Consider the following description:
administration was taken in the form of The Vernacular Press Act (1878) was enacted in
home charges. British India to limit the freedom of the Indian
Which of the statements given above is/are press and prevent the expression of criticism
correct? toward British policies. The Vernacular Press
a) 3 only Act (VPA) was enacted in order to "better
b) 2 only control" the vernacular press and effectively
c) 2 and 3 only punish and repress "seditious writing" in
d) 1 and 3 only "publications in oriental languages." As a result,
the British treated the (non-English language)
Q.73) Consider the following statements with Indian press with complete hostility. This
reference to Indian Freedom Struggle: particular newspaper escaped such censor as it
1. The Indian National Congress-led turned to English newspaper overnight.
nationalists viewed fascism as an organ of Which newspaper is being referred to in the
capitalism and thus lent support against it. above paragraph?
2. In 1939, the Japanese attack on China was a) Amrita Bazar Patrika
condemned by the nationalists of Congress. b) Samachar Darpan
Which of the above given statements is/are c) Som Prakash
correct? d) Bharat Mihir
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Q.77) Consider the following pairs of British
c) Both 1 and 2 initiatives on Education and their respective
d) Neither 1 nor 2 description during British rule in India:
Initiative Description
Q.74) Consider the following statements with 1. Macaulay’s Recommended pre-
reference to Narayan Meghaji Lokhande: Minute primary education for 3-6
1. He was the founder of the Madras Labour years age group children
Union. 2. Wood Recommendation of
2. He was member of the Factory Labour Dispatch establishing Universities
Commission whose work led to enactment 3. Hunter Greater Emphasis on
of the Factory Act of 1891. Commission Primary Education
3. He was conferred the title of 'Rao Bahadur' 4. Saddler Emphasized on promotion
for his activities in social reforms. Commission of European literature and
Select correct answer using the code given Science
below: Which of the above given pairs have been
a) 1 and 2 only matched correctly?
b) 2 and 3 only a) 1 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 4

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

Q.78) Consider the following statements with constitution. It also provided for freedom to
reference to instructions given by Mahatma any province unwilling to join the Union to have
Gandhi to different sections during Quit India a separate agreement with Britain.
Movement: Which among the following has been described
1. Government servants were asked to resign above?
and declare their allegiance to Congress. a) Cabinet Mission
2. Soldiers were asked not to leave their posts, b) Cripps Mission
but to refuse to fire on the people. c) August Offer
3. Students were asked to leave studies if they d) Wavell Plan
were confident.
Which of the statements given above is/are Q.82) Consider the following comparison
correct? between Jainism and Buddhism:
a) 1 only 1. Unlike Jainism, Buddhist monks believes in
b) 1 and 2 only the existence of the creator god.
c) 2 and 3 only 2. Both Jainism and Buddhism advocated
d) 1, 2 and 3 towards complete detachment from the
materialistic world.
Q.79) Consider the following statements with 3. Unlike Jainism, Buddhism allows only male
reference to the Cabinet Mission: member of the Sangha to achieve salvation.
1. It proposed grouping the existing provincial Which of the statements given above is/are
assemblies into three sections of section A, correct?
B, and C a) 1 and 2 only
2. A constituent assembly was to be elected by b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
provincial assemblies by proportional
d) None of the Above
representation with voting in three groups—
General, Muslims, and Sikhs.
Q.83) Which one of the following statements
3. Provinces were to have full autonomy and
regarding ‘Prayag Prashasti inscription’ is
residual powers.
incorrect?
Which of the statements given above is/are
a) It depicts the political structure of the
correct?
emerging Gupta Empire.
a) 1 and 2 only b) It contains inscription in Persian that traces
b) 2 and 3 only the ancestry of the Mughal emperor
c) 1 and 3 only Jahangir.
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) It provides the history of Kharavela as a
champion of Jainism and a patron of culture.
d) It describes various activities undertaken by
Q.80) Which one of the following statements is
Ashoka for the propagation of Dhamma.
incorrect regarding “Etikoppaka toys”?
a) They are traditional toys from the Q.84) With reference to the Bahamani kingdom,
Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh. consider the following statements:
b) They are made out of wood and are colored 1. The salary of the Tarafdar was paid by
with natural dyes. assigning a jagir only.
c) They are known for presence of sharp- 2. For administrative purposes, the kingdom
edged features in their structure. was divided into Atrafs, Sarkars and
d) They have received Geographical Indication Parganas.
(GI) tag. 3. The system of khalisa lands was abolished to
ensure more income for the Tarafdars.
Q.81) Consider the following description: Which of the statements given above is/are
It proposed to create an Indian Union with correct?
dominion status, with right to withdraw from a) 1 only
Commonwealth. Under this, after the World b) 2 only
War 2, a constituent assembly was to be elected c) 1 and 3 only
by provincial assemblies to frame the d) 2 and 3 only

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

Q.85) With reference to ‘Additional Tier-1 (AT- Viceroys Important Events during
1) Bonds’, consider the following statements: the viceroyship
1. They are unsecured bonds issued by the 1. Lord Transfer of capital from
banks. Hardinge Calcutta to Delhi
2. The maturity of these bonds is fixed by the 2. Lord Jallianwalla Bagh massacre
investors of the bond. Chelmsford
3. They were introduced by the Basel accord 3. Lord Minto Moplah rebellion in Kerala
after the global financial crisis of 2008. 4. Lord Irwin Visit of Simon Commission
Which of the statements given above is/are to India
correct? How many pairs given above are correctly
a) 1 and 2 only matched?
b) 2 only a) Only one pair
c) 2 and 3 only b) Only two pairs
d) 1 and 3 only c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs
Q.86) Which of the following were the members
of the committee that helped in drafting of Q.89) With reference to the kisan sabha
Nehru report? movement in U.P., consider the following
1. Tej Bahadur Sapru statements:
2. Subhash Chandra Bose 1. The Home Rule League activists in U.P.
3. Motilal Nehru played an important role in organizing
4. Mangal Singh peasants of the province on modem lines
into kisan sabhas.
5. Ali Imam
2. A marked feature of the Kisan Sabha
Select the correct answer using the codes given movement was the presence of kisans
below: belonging to the high as well as the low
a) 1, 2 and 4 only castes.
b) 2, 3 and 5 only 3. The enactment of the Oudh Rent
c) 3, 4 and 5 only (Amendment) Act was one of the most
d) All of the above important reasons that lead to the creation
of Kisab Sabha Movement in U.P.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Q.87) Consider the following statements with correct?
reference to the failure of the home rule league: a) 1 only
1. Talk of passive resistance by the Extremists b) 1 and 2 only
kept the Moderates away from activity c) 3 only
during the later phase of home rule d) 2 and 3 only
movement.
2. Gandhi’s approach of non-violence to the
Q.90) With reference to Indian export policies,
freedom struggle was catching the
which one of the following statements best
imagination of the people.
describes the “Advance Authorisation
3. Movement was left leaderless when the tilak
Scheme”?
went abroad and Annie Besant was unable to
a) It allows duty free import of inputs that are
give a positive lead to the home rule
physically incorporated in an export
movement.
product.
Which of the statements given above is/are
b) It provides a framework for reducing the
correct?
high cost of credit incurred by Indian
a) 1 and 2 only
exporters.
b) 2 and 3 only
c) It allows exporters to apply for export
c) 1 and 3 only
licenses, quotas and other registrations
d) 1, 2 and 3
which are issued to them.
d) It aims to promote brand recognition for
Q.88) Consider the following pairs: Indian agricultural products in the specified
overseas markets.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

Q.91) Consider the following statements with 2. One of its major recommendations was
reference to the Pabna Uprisings during the dominion status for India.
Indian Freedom Struggle: 3. It recommended for complete dissociation
1. It was directed mainly against the European of State from religion.
tea planters who forced peasants to work on Which of the statements given above are
unfair demands. correct?
2. The Peasants took a legal course of action a) 1 and 2 only
for the redressal of their grievances. b) 2 and 3 only
3. The Secret killings of Zamindars by Peasants c) 1 and 3 only
were made to induce fear among them. d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Q.95) With reference to ‘Indian star tortoise’,
a) 2 only consider the following statements:
b) 1 and 2 only 1. They are endemic to the wetland and
c) 2 and 3 only surrounding regions of Western Ghats of
d) 1 and 3 only India.
2. Their typical habitat includes scrub forests
Q.92) Consider the following statements with and rocky outcroppings.
reference to 'Indian colonial history’: 3. They are categorized as ‘Critically
1. 'Dadni' were the local merchants employed Endangered’ in IUCN Red list.
by East India Company to procure goods on 4. They are losing genetic diversity due to
its behalf. subsequent hybridization over the years.
2. Dadni system was later replaced by the Which of the statements given above are
gomastas. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are a) 1 and 3 only
correct? b) 2 and 4 only
a) 1 only c) 3 and 4 only
b) 2 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.96) Consider the following statements:
1. The first all India Backward Classes
Q.93) Which of the following statements is/are Commission was chaired by Kaka Kalelkar.
correct about the socio-religious reform 2. Dalit Panthers movement initially had
movements of the 19th Century India? militancy and revolutionary attitude.
1. The focus of the movements was on worldly Which of the statements given above is/are
existence and not on issues of salvation. correct?
2. The doctrine of individualism was raised by a) 1 only
the reformers for changing an inferior status b) 2 only
of women. c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the codes given d) Neither 1 or 2
below:
a) 1 only Q.97) ‘Wagon tragedy’ is associated with which
b) 2 only of the following event?
c) Both 1 and 2 a) Revolt of 1857
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) Poligars’ Revolt
c) Moplah rebellion
Q.94) In context to the Nehru Report in the d) Quit India Movement
history of India, consider the following
statements:
1. It was prepared in response to the Sir John
Simon’s challenge.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 |

Q.98) With reference to the Simon Commission Q.100) With reference to ‘Securities Market’,
on the Indian National Movement which of the which one of the following statements
following statements is/are correct? correctly explains the term ‘Short Selling’?
1. The Commission was boycotted by the a) It is a strategy of buying stocks and holding
Muslim League. them for long-term growth for profit
2. It gave an opportunity to young leaders with maximization.
Socialist outlook to come to the forefront in b) It is a technique of borrowing shares and
national movement. selling them in the hope of buying them back
3. It led to a formation of the committee under at a lower price.
chairmanship of Tej Bahadur Sapru to c) It is a trading mechanism that aims to invest
decide the constitutional framework of in commodities and currencies when they
India. are at lower value.
Select the correct answer using the code given d) It is a practice of buying stocks at a higher
below: price and selling them at a lower price to
a) 1 and 2 only make a profit.
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only

Q.99) Consider the following statements with

reference to development of Railways in British
India:
1. Lord Hardinge allowed private
entrepreneurs to set up a rail system in
India.
2. Lord Dalhousie recommended and
authorized the idea of railway construction
by the Government only.
3. Under the Old Guarantee System (OGS), the
lines constructed by private railway
companies, were from the beginning the
property of the Secretary of State.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Q.1)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Shivaji’s system of administration was largely borrowed from the
administrative practices of the Deccani states. Although he designated eight ministers, sometimes
called the Ashtapradhan, it was not in the nature of a council of ministers, each minister being directly
responsible to the ruler.
Statement 2 is correct: Chauth and sardeshmukhi were the taxes collected not in the Maratha
kingdom but in the neighbouring territories of the Mughal Empire or Deccan sultanates.
The right to assess and collect Sardeshmukhi was asserted first by Shivaji on grounds that his family
was hereditary tax collectors in Maharashtra. The sardeshmukhi was an additional 10% levy on top of
the chauth. Chauth was one fourth of the land revenue paid to the Marathas in order to avoid the
Maratha raids.
Statement 3 is incorrect: During Shivaji’s administration king was the pivot of the government, who
was assisted by a council of ministers called the Ashtapradhan. Each one was directly responsible to
Shivaji and headed a department. Under Shivaji, these offices were neither hereditary nor permanent
and were also frequently transferred.
Knowledge Base:
Shivaji preferred to give cash salaries to the regular soldiers, though sometimes the chiefs received
revenue grants (saranjam). Strict discipline was maintained in the army, no women or dancing girls
being allowed to accompany the army. The plunder taken by each soldier during campaigns was strictly
accounted for.
The revenue system seems to have been patterned on the system of Malik Ambar. A new revenue
assessment was completed by Annaji Datto in 1679.
Source: History of Medieval India by Satish Chandra - Chapter 19 - Climax and Disintegration of the
Mughal Empire—II.

Q.2)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Permanent Settlement, also known as the Permanent Settlement of Bengal, was concluded in 1793
by the Company administration headed by Charles, Earl Cornwallis was an agreement between the East
India Company and Bengali landlords to fix revenues to be raised from land that had far-reaching
consequences for both agricultural methods and productivity in the entire British Empire and the
political realities of the Indian countryside.
Statement 1 is correct. The Permanent Settlement led to commercialization of land in Bengal as the
Company opted to auction the land on which taxes were not paid. Many Indian official’s government of
the Company purchased the land sold through this system, thus creating a new class
of bureaucrats. This led to two negative trends in the system. While the persons interested in specific
lands tried to manipulate the system to have the lands, they wanted listed for sale, there were others
who bribed officials to get possession of certain lands
Statement 2 is correct. The zamindars did not invest any revenue in the improvement of land. As, by
the terms of permanent settlement the revenue was fixed and not to be increased. When the rates grew
the company officials suffered but the zamindars were happy and were not interested in improving land
as they were getting good rent.
Statement 3 is incorrect. It is in the Mahalwari System that the land revenue is revised from time to
time, not in the Permanent Settlement. Under the Mahalwari system, the land was first surveyed,
records of rights over land were prepared, and then land revenue demand in the mahals (fiscal unit)
was fixed, and finally collected through the village headman or lambardar. The system broke down due
to the excessive demand of the state and its rigidity in the collection of land revenue.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/hess203.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/20325/1/Unit-15.pdf

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Q.3)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
There were several Political, administrative, sociocultural, economic, religious, cultural and immediate
causes of the revolt.
Statement 1 is correct. The collapse of Indian Industry and commerce made several people
unemployed, and lack of alternate occupational avenues drove a large part of the urban population to
fall back on the village economy. As a result, millions of ruined artisans and craftsmen, spinners,
weavers, smelters, smiths and others from town and villages, had no alternative but to pursue
agricultural activity that led to a pressure on land. India was transformed from being a country of
agriculture into an agricultural colony of the British Empire.
Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of a new land revenue system in the newly acquired States
the English administrators had brought the peasants as well as the British government into direct
contact with one another, thus eliminating the intermediaries, the great Talukdars and Zamindars,
who used to collect land revenue before that, were left deprived of their income as well as their position
causing discontent among them.
Statement 3 is correct. Due to the Industrial revolution in England, they needed raw material which
could not be satisfied by the Industry of England. Therefore, the British settlers in India, monopolized
the plantation industries like indigo, jute, tea, coffee etc. In addition to it, they applied different land
revenue policies to gain the maximum profit thus exploiting them economically and making their lives
difficult.
Source: https://mu.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2014/04/FYBA-History-Paper-I-History-of-
Modern-India-Revised-Syllabus-2018-19.pdf

Q.4)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Sikhism started as a movement of social protest social evils such as discrimination in the name of caste,
ritualism taking precedence over the true spirit of religion and the domination of the priestly classes
through religion.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Singh Sabha Movement was started in 1873 A.D aiming at social and religious
reform through the spread of education and consciously refrained from discussing political questions
or in any way incurring the displeasure of the British rulers. The major contribution of the Singh Sabha
leadership lay in the creation of a network of Khalsa schools, colleges and other centres of learning.
Later with support and patronage from the Government of India and the British officials and the rulers
of the Sikh princely states, the Khalsa College was founded at Amritsar in 1892.
Statement 2 is correct. The Babbar Akali Movement is a Gurdwara Reform Movement which took place
during 1921 to 1925. Most of the Babbar Akali's were returned immigrants from Canada. Some of them
had actively participated in the Ghadar Movement. They were against the imperialist policies of the
British Government and Gandhi formula of non-violence and non-cooperation. They were upset
because of the tragedy of Nankana Sahib in which hundreds of innocent Sikhs were massacred. They
rejected the peaceful struggle for reformation in the Sikh shrines and decided to lead their movement
separately without the company and cooperation of the dominant Akali leadership.
Source: https://amritmahotsav.nic.in/freedom-movement-detail.htm?21
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/20003/1/Unit-19.pdf

Q.5)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Microsoft Research is helping preserve 'rare' Indian languages with its Project ELLORA in India.
Microsoft researchers under this project have been working toward creating digital ecosystems for
Indian languages that do not have enough presence online.
The main goal of the Project is to impact underserved communities through enabling language
technology by creating economic opportunities, building technological skills, enhancing education and
preserving local languages and cultures for future generations. Microsoft Research (MSR) has chosen
to focus on three languages namely; Gondi, Mundari and Idu Mishmi.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/how-microsofts-project-ellora-is-helping-
small-languages-like-gondi-mundari-become-eloquent-for-the-digital-world-8413587/ Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/how-microsofts-project-ellora-is-helping-small-
languages-like-gondi-mundari-become-eloquent-for-the-digital-world-8413587/

Q.6)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The subsequent course of the Ghadar Movement was, however, determined by three major events in
1914: the arrest, jumping of bail and flight to Switzerland of Lala Har Dayal, the fateful voyage of the ship
Komagata Maru, and the beginning of the First World War.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ghadarites one of the most important achievements is that most of their
followers were recruited from amongst Punjabi Sikh immigrants, they never betrayed any communal
tendencies. On the contrary, strongly secular in their outlook. They freely accepted non-Sikhs and
non-Punjabis as leaders: Har Dayal was a Hindu, Barkatullah a Muslim, Rash Behari Bose a Hindu and
Bengali. Its early leaders also included two Sikhs and a Muslim, and the masthead of its publication
bore the names “Ram, Allah, and Nanak.” Hence, communalism is not the cause behind the failure of
the Ghadar movement.
Statement 2 is correct. With the arrest of Lala Hard Dayal in March 1914 by the British government to
remove him from the leadership of the Ghadar Movement and the active hostility of the loyalist
elements of the movement left movement disappointed, without any further proper organization and
centralized leadership which resulted in failure of November 1914 revolt by the Ghadarites.
Statement 3 is correct. The Gadarites never had a particular plan of action or a central revolutionary
party organising the movement. The movement was entirely centred on a magazine published in San
Francisco. While the articles that appeared in the magazine were high on rhetoric and passion, it never
offered any concrete plan of action for the imminent revolution. Lala Hardayal who was the intellectual
inspiration behind the magazine, was more inspired by Russian anarchist political thinkers than Marxist
literature. For him, revolution was spontaneous individualistic acts of bravery against an oppressive
regime.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/19950/1/Unit-15.pdf
https://scroll.in/article/877029/the-1915-ghadar-plan-to-free-india-from-the-british-was-a-
failure-but-it-sparked-a-revolution

Q.7)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Anushilan Samiti was founded by Promothanath Mitter in 1901.The Samiti
includes Jatindranath Banerjee; Barindra Kumar Ghosh; Bhupendra Nath Dutta; Aurobindo Ghosh,
C.R. Das and others.
Statement 2 is correct. The revolutionary movement in Bengal derived its inspiration from the
works of Bankim Chandra Chatterjee. The greeting Bande Mataram (Hail Mother) of Anand Math
became a war cry of the extremist party in Bengal. He gave a religious significance to the idea
of motherland by declaring that in the image of the benign goddess Durga could be seen the future

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

greatness of the Motherland. The new revolutionary gospel or cult of Shakti called upon the Bengalis
to shed the blood of their oppressors.
Statement 3 is correct. In April 1906, an inner circle within Anushilan (Barindra Kumar Ghosh,
Bhupendranath Dutta) started the weekly Yugantar. It started advocating revolutionary violence. For
instance, after severe police brutalities on participants of the Barisal Conference (April 1906), the
Yugantar wrote: “The remedy lies with the people. The 30 crore people inhabiting India must raise their
60 crore hands to stop this curse of oppression. Force must be stopped by force.”
Source: https://mu.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2014/04/FYBA-History-Paper-I-History-of-
Modern-India-
Revised-Syllabus-2018-19.pdf
SPECTRUM (CH-First Phase of Revolutionary Activities)
https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/44305/1/Unit-13.pdf

Q.8)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is incorrect. The Indian Councils Act 1861 included several non-official members in the
Executive Council of the Governor-General. The council strength was raised by six to twelve
nominated members for a two-year term. Half of these were to be non-officials, both European and
Indian not in the service of the Crown. It introduced a Portfolio system and provided the Viceroy with
powers to issue ordinances in case of emergency. Whereas it is in the Indian Councils Act of 1892 that
council is given the power to discuss budget and of addressing questions to the Executive.
Pair 2 is correct. The Morley-Minto Reforms 1909, increased the strength of legislative
councils -for the Imperial it was raised from 16 to 60 and for provincial it was raised to 50. The principle
of the election was functional representation. It introduced a system of ‘separate electorate’ for
Muslims. under which, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters.
Pair 3 is incorrect. The Montague Chelmsford Reforms 1919 introduced Dyarchy in the Provinces.
That is, the system of administration was divided into Central and Provinces. The central and provincial
legislatures were authorized to make laws on their respective list of subjects. It further divided the
provincial subjects into two parts-transferred and reserved. Whereas the Government of India Act of
1935 abolished the dyarchy in provinces and introduced it in the centre which divides the federal
subjects were divided into reserved subjects (Defence, External Affairs and administration of tribal
areas administered by governor general) and transferred subjects for which governor general was to
act on advice of Council of Ministers. However, this provision of the Act did not come into operation at
all.
Pair 4 is correct. The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced bicameral Legislature in six out of
eleven provinces. Thus, the legislatures of Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar, Assam and the United
Provinces were made bicameral consisting of a legislative council (upper house) and a legislative
assembly (lower house). However, many restrictions were placed on them like-
1) The Governor-General and Crown would still have to Veto Power.
2) The Governor-General could suspend proceedings regarding any Bill if he was satisfied it would
affect his special responsibilities.
3) Ordinance Power as well as concurrent power to make permanent Acts was provided.
4) No bill could be introduced without prior sanction on several matters.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/19084/1/Unit-3.pdf
https://www.constitutionofindia.net/historical_constitutions/government_of_india_act_1935_2n
d%20August%201935

Q.9)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Pre-Mauryan period is considered to be the period before 3rd Century B.C (the period before the
emergence of Mauryan Empire). The Mauryan Empire, which formed around 321 B.C.E. and ended in
185 B.C.E., was the first pan-Indian empire, an empire that covered most of the Indian region. In the
sixth century BCE, there was a rise in the development of a few kingdoms that became prominent and
earned the name Mahajanapada or great country.
Option 1 and 4 are correct:
1) In some parts of the country, evidences of red and black pottery can be found that has been dated
to 1500-300 BC. These were found in large parts of West Bengal. The type of ancient pottery was
the Northern Black Polished Ware, which was made in 700-400 BC. This was the period of
Mahajanapadas i.e., Pre-Mauryan Period.

Northern Black Polished Ware

(6th-3rd centuries BC)
2) Northern Black Polished Ware sites of Mahajanapadas period includes an early series of punch-
marked coins, which mark the beginning of the use of money in the subcontinent. Most of them are
made of silver. In the earliest levels of Bhir mound in Gandhara, silver punch-marked bar coins and
other coin types have been found. Around the sixth century BCE, Gandhara was being ruled by king
Pukkusati or Pushkarasarin, who successfully waged a war against Avanti.

Silver Punch Marked Coin of Avanti Mahajanapada c. 400 BCE-312 BCE

Option 2 and 3 are incorrect:
1) Mauryan period saw the emergence of rock-cut cave architectures. It was not prevalent in pre-
Mauryan times. During the Mauryan period, these caves were generally used as viharas, i.e. living
quarters, by the Jain and Buddhist monks. While the early caves were used by the ajivika sect, later,
they became popular as Buddhist monasteries.
2) The Gandhara School of Art developed in the western frontiers of Punjab from 50 BC to 500 AD
(Post Mauryan Period), near modern day Peshawar and Afghanistan. The Greek invaders brought
with them the traditions of the Greek and Roman sculptors, which influenced the local traditions
of the region.
Source: Nitin Singhania Chapter 1 INDIAN ARCHITECTURE, SCULPTURE AND POTTERY
BHIC-101E.xps (egyankosh.ac.in)

Q.10)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

The Justice G. Rohini-led commission for the sub-categorisation of other backward classes (OBCs) was
recently given another extension in its tenure by the President.
Statement 1 is correct: Justice G. Rohini-led commission was set up by the President under Article
340 of the Indian Constitution on October 2, 2017. It is headed by former Delhi High Court judge,
Justice G. Rohini (retd). The Article 340 reads, "The President may, by order, appoint a Commission
consisting of such persons as he thinks fit to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally
backward classes within the territory of India.”.
Statement 2 is correct: The Terms of References of the Commission are:
1) to examine the extent of inequitable distribution of benefits of reservation among the castes or
communities included in the broad category of Other Backward Classes, with reference to such
classes included in the Central List;
2) to work out the mechanism, criteria, norms and parameters in a scientific approach for sub-
categorisation within such Other Backward Classes;
3) to take up the exercise of identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or
synonyms in the Central List of Other Backward Classes and classifying them into their respective
sub-categories.
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/obc-sub-categorisation-panel-gets-14th-
extension/article66446865.ece Source:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/obc-sub-
categorisation-panel-gets-14th-extension/article66446865.ece
https://pib.gov.in/newsite/printrelease.aspx?relid=171331

Q.11)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
In the four centuries following the death of Emperor Asoka and the resulting decline of the Mauryan
Empire, parts of India were subject to the invasion of the Indo-Greeks, Sakas and Kushanas from West
and Central Asia. All of them established themselves as rulers over large parts of India.
The correct chronological sequence of the above given events are as follows:
1) Invasion of north-western India by Alexander (327–325 BCE): India’s interaction with the Greeks
began with the invasion of north-western India by Alexander (327–325 BCE) and his conquest of the
Punjab region. When he began his return march to the West, he left the conquered territories under
provincial governors.
2) ‘Milind Panho’ written by Nagasena: Menander (c.165/145 BCE) was the best known of the Indo-
Greek kings. He is said to have ruled a large kingdom in the north west India. Menander is mainly
remembered as the eponymous hero of the Buddhist text, Milinda-pinha (questions of Milinda), in
which he is engaged in a question-and-answer discussion on Buddhism with the teacher Nagasena.
He is believed to have become a Buddhist and promoted Buddhism.
3) Kanishka’s Accession to the throne (78 CE): The best known of the Kushana kings was Kanishka,
who is thought to have ruled from 78 CE till 101 or 102 CE. Ironically, 78 CE is held to be the beginning
of the “Saka era” in the Indian calendar. Kanishka was an ardent follower of Buddhism and hosted
the fourth Buddhist mahasangha or council (the third council had been held in Pataliputra during
Asoka’s reign). By now Mahayana Buddhism had become the dominant sect, and Kanishka supported
the missions sent to China to preach Buddhism
4) Junagarh Rock inscription under Rudradaman I: One of the most famous of the Saka kshatrapas
was Rudradaman (130–150 CE). His exploits are celebrated in the famous rock inscription of
Junagadh. He’s credited to have issued the 1st long inscription in chaste Sanskrit.
5) It mentions the repairs he undertook to improve the Sudershana Lake. Junagarh Rock also contains
inscriptions from Ashoka and Skandgupta (from the Gupta Period almost 800 years later).
Source: Tamil Nadu 11th Textbook Lesson 6 Polity and Society in Post-Mauryan Period

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Q.12)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Indian sub-continent has a wide range of religions that define the morality and ethics of the people
who follow it. Ajivikas was among one such sect that emerged in India about the same time as Buddhism
and Jainism and that lasted until the 14th century.
Statement 1 is correct: Ajivika is one of the nastika or "heterodox" schools of Indian philosophy.
Believed to be founded in the 5th century BCE by Makkhali Gosala. It was a Sramaṇa movement and a
major rival of Vedic religion, early Buddhism, and Jainism.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Ajivikas school revolves around the Niyati (Fate) doctrine of absolute
determinism. Ajivikas led a simple ascetic life, without clothes and any material possession. It
believes that there is no free will and whatever has happened, is happening or will happen is entirely
pre-ordained or pre-decided and is based on cosmic principles. Hence there was no use of Karma.
They did not believe in Karma doctrine unlike Jainism and Buddhism. They consider Karma a fallacy.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Barabar Hill Caves are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India, dating
from the Maurya Empire (322–185 BCE), some with Ashokan inscriptions, located in Bihar. The Barbara
caves date back to 3rd century BC and belong to the period of Ashoka and his grandson Dasharatha
(and not by Chandra Gupta). The caves were used by ascetics from the Ajivikas sect.
Source: Nitin Singhania Chapter 1 INDIAN ARCHITECTURE, SCULPTURE AND POTTERY

Q.13)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The foundation of the Mauryan empire was laid by Chandragupta Maurya, who overthrew the Nanda
dynasty in 321/324 BCE. According to Puranas, the Mauryan rule lasted for 137 years, i.e., the Maurya’s
probably ruled till 187/185 BCE.
Statement 1 is correct: With the help of Chanakya (Vishnu Gupta/ Kautilya), Chandragupta Maurya
defeated Dhana Nanda (322 BCE) and founded the Mauryan Dynasty. Chanakya encouraged
Chandragupta Maurya and his army to take over the throne of Magadha.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Chandragupta was obviously a great ruler who had to reinvent a strong
administrative apparatus to govern his extensive kingdom. Chandragupta’s reign is supposed to have
lasted nearly 24 years. Chandragupta was succeeded by his son Bindusara, who ruled between 297 and
273 BCE.
Source: BHIC-101E.xps (egyankosh.ac.in)
Tamil Nadu 11th Textbook Lesson 6 Polity and Society in Post-Mauryan Period

Q.14)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Aham and Puram are two genres of Classical Tamil poetry from Sangam Age. The concept of life style
of human beings falls in two categories: personal and public. The genre dealing with poems about love
affairs is called Akam (Aham) while the other genre, called puram, concerns many subjects such as
wars, kings, poets and personal virtues, besides others.
1) The genre of Puram concept speaks on the excellency of life-style of different people. As the kings
are famous, their life-styles of war and gifts are spoken in plenty. Unlike Puram, the personal name
of a person will never be identified in Akam concept of literature of poem, as it is common all.
Puram leads to consideration as a historical record by Tamil literary scholars as it has details such
as names of kings, poets, and places.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

2) Akam stands for the interior, the individual, the feminine, and the varied phases of love. Women
dominate the Akam. Puram stands for the exterior, the world, the masculine, violence and heroism.
It is male-dominated.
Source: D:\june\pandey\press BEGC-101 (egyankosh.ac.in)

Q.15)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
NASA’s Lucy mission is the first spacecraft launched to explore the Trojan asteroids, a population of
primitive asteroids orbiting in tandem with Jupiter. Lucy was successfully launched Oct. 16, 2021, and
will visit eight asteroids over 12 years — one asteroid in the main belt between Mars and Jupiter, and
seven Trojan asteroids leading and trailing Jupiter in its orbit.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Trojan asteroids share their orbit with a larger planet. The term "Trojan"
comes from the fact that many of the first discovered objects in these positions were named after
characters from the Trojan War in Greek mythology.
Statement 2 is correct: Trojan asteroids are believed to be some of the oldest remnants from the
formation of our Solar System, and their study can provide important information about the early
stages of planetary formation. These objects may have formed in the same region as their associated
planet, or they may have been captured by the planet's gravity later on. By studying the composition,
geology, and other properties of Trojan asteroids, scientists can learn more about the conditions and
processes that took place during the early stages of the Solar System, including the formation of the
planets.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/nasa-lucy-mission-new-asteroid-target-
8408132/

Q.16)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Hathigumpha Inscription also known as Elephant Cave Inscription
from Udayagiri-Khandagiri Caves in Odisha, were inscribed by King Kharavela during 2nd century BC.
The Hathigumpha Inscription consists of 17 lines in Prakrit language and in Brahmi script. Hathigumpha
Inscription at Udayagiri Caves is the main source of information about Kalinga ruler Kharavela. The
Hathigumpha Inscription is like the history of Kharavela as a king, a conqueror, a patron of culture and
a champion of Jainism.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Mehrauli Inscription / Garuda Pillar/ Mehrauli Iron Pillar was
originally placed on a hill near the Beas and was brought to Delhi by a King of Delhi. This pillar credits
Chandragupta with conquest of the Vanga Countries by his battling alone against the confederacy of
the enemies united against him. It also credits him for conquest of Vakatkas in a fight that ran across
seven mouths of Sindhu. This pillar was established by Chandragupta-II of Gupta dynasty
as Vishnupada in the honor of Lord Vishnu. Rudradaman, I reign (130–150 AD) was much before
Chandragupta (319-350 AD). Junagarh inscription is associated with Rudradaman I.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Kalsi town is known for its heritage importance. It is a small town located
in between Chakrata and Dehradun on the banks of Yamuna River. The site of Ashoka’s inscriptions at
Kalsi is singularly unique as it is the only place in North India where the great Mauryan emperor has
inscribed the set of the 14 rock edicts. The language of these edicts is Prakrit and the script is Brahmi.
The Rock edict was written around 450 BC and is made of quartz which is 8 ft broad and 10 ft long.
These rock edicts reflect Asoka’s human approach in his internal administration when he converted
himself to Buddhism. It also reflects the policies for the commitment to non-violence and restriction
of war. Samudragupta is associated with Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prayag Prasasti).
Pair 4 is correctly matched: Aihole Inscription- Aihole in Karnataka was the first capital of Chalukyas.
Many inscriptions were found at Aihole, but the inscription found at Meguti Temple popularly known

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

as Aihole inscription witnessed many historical events of Chalukyas. The inscription is written in
Sanskrit and it is in Kannada script. There is a mention about the defeat of Harshavardhana by
Pulakeshin II and the victory of Chalukyas over Pallavas. They were written by Ravikirti, the court poet
of Pulakeshin II who reigned from 610 to 642 AD.
Source: Nitin Singhania Chapter 1 INDIAN ARCHITECTURE, SCULPTURE AND POTTERY

Q.17)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Harappan sculptors were extremely adept at handling three-dimensional volumes. The most
commonly found were seals, bronze figures and potteries.
Statement 1 is correct: Most of the seals during Harrapans period are square. It was also found that
triangular, rectangular and circular seals were also being used. Steatite, a soft stone found in the river
beds, was although the most common material used to make seals, yet agate, chert, copper, faience and
terracotta seals have also been found. Some instances of gold and ivory seals have also been found.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Most of the seals have inscriptions in a pictographic script (not Brahmi
script) which is yet to be deciphered. The script was written mostly from right to left, but, bi-
directional writing style i.e., right to left on one line and left to right on another line has also been
found.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Seals were primarily used for commercial purposes and helped in
communication. Discovery of various seals in Mesopotamia and various sites such as Lothal indicate
that seals were extensively used for trade. Some seals with a hole on them have been found on dead
bodies indicating its use as amulets, carried on the persons of their owners, probably seen as some
form of identification. Mathematical images have also been found on some seals, which might have been
used for educational purposes as well. Seals with symbol similar to ‘Swastika’ design have also been
found.
Source: Nitin Singhania Chapter 1 INDIAN ARCHITECTURE, SCULPTURE AND POTTERY
Unit-6.pdf (egyankosh.ac.in)

Q.18)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option 1, 3 and 4 are correct & option 2 is incorrect: The post-Gupta period was characterised by
certain changes in Indian economy. They are as follows:
1) Land grants grew in number in the Gupta and especially post-Gupta times and became widespread
throughout the country. Land grants were made to brahmans and religious establishments like
temples and monasteries on a large scale by kings. chiefs, members of the royal family and their
feudatories. Earlier the Satavahanas in the Deccan had given away only revenue rights. From the
fifth century onwards not only were the revenues of the donated lands transferred to the donee but
the mines and minerals in the said area also transferred.
2) Many important cities (such as Taxila, Kausarnbi, Pataliputra) ceased to exist after the Gupta
period. This decline of urban settlements was not an isolated phenomenon; it seems to have been
quite widespread. Decline in trade, paucity of coins and absence of coin moulds and commercial
seals indicate economic decline and fall in demand for finished products. Towns which were active
centres of craft production in the post-Mauryan period experienced decay and desertion.
3) Minting and circulation of coins were on a much more limited scale than before: Decline of
commerce is demonstrated by the paucity of coins in the post-Gupta period. Gold coins which
were so abundant during the periods of the Kushanas and of the Guptas went out of circulation
after the sixth century. The absence of silver and copper coins also attracts attention. It may be
mentioned that the percentage of gold in the Gupta gold coins was constantly falling and that the
gold content of the later Gupta coins was only half of that of the Kushana coins.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

4) Agrarian growth and rural expansion, while towns declined: Agrarian growth and rural expansion
on an unprecedented scale. The patronage extended by kings, princes and chiefs to agriculture,
improvement in irrigational facilities, increasing knowledge of agricultural sciences etc. were some
of the causative factors which strengthened rural economy. Decline of towns may have led to the
migration of a number of skilled artisans into the countryside. Some of them even changed their
vocations. The dispersal of technical skill along with artisans and craftsmen into the countryside
stimulated agrarian growth.
Source: https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/61915/1/Unit-7.pdf

Q.19)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The cultivation of rabi or winter crops seems to be the dominant practice in
Harappan civilization. The main rabi crops were wheat, barley, pea, chickpea, sesame, mustard and
lentil. Though kharif crops like millet were prevalent but it was not a dominant practice.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Harrapan people had the idea of growing various crops in same field. A
ploughed field has been revealed at Kalibangan. Though it is of the Early Harappan, we can safely
surmise that the practice continued in later periods too. The Kalibangan field consisted of two sets of
furrows crossing each other at right angles, thus forming a grid pattern. It is likely that two crops were
raised in the same field. Today, mustard and horse gram are grown together in different set of furrows.
Statement 3 is correct: Domestic animals found at the sites include cattle, buffalo, sheep, goat, pig,
camel, elephant, dog, cat and others. Cattle meat was preferred. Cattle and buffaloes must have
supported agriculture and served as draught animals. The presence of horse is considered
controversial. Hunting of animals was an important activity. Animals hunted include wild buffalo,
deer, wild pig, ass, jackal, rodents and hare. The site of Harappa has given evidence of marine cat fish.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/64780/1/Unit6.pdf

Q.20)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Recent studies came out with the fact that Immune imprinting in the bodies, might be making new
boosters’ dose of COVID-19 far less effective than expected.
Option c is correct. Immune imprinting is a tendency of the body to repeat its immune response
based on the first variant it encountered — through infection or vaccination — when it comes across
a newer or slightly different variant of the same pathogen.
Imprinting acts as a database for the immune system, helping it put up a better response to repeat
infections. After the body is exposed to a virus for the first time, it produces memory B cells that
circulate in the bloodstream and quickly produce antibodies whenever the same strain of the virus
infects again.
The problem occurs when a similar, not identical, variant of the virus is encountered by the body. In
such cases, the immune system, rather than generating new B cells, activates memory B cells, which
produce cross-reactive antibodies that bind to features found in both the old and new strains. These
cross-reactive antibodies offer some protection but are not as effective as the ones produced by B cells
when the body first encountered the original virus.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/immune-imprinting-
boosters-effective-explained-8397721/

Q.21)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Indus Valley civilization is the oldest urban civilization discovered to date. It flourished in the basins
of the Indus River spreading across large parts of modern Pakistan, northwest and western India, and
Afghanistan. The civilization is noted for their urban planning, baked brick houses, elaborate drainage
systems, water supply systems, large and new techniques in handicraft.
Statement 1 is correct: Fired Bricks were used for foundation, and unfired bricks were used for walls
to build the Great Bath. The most important public place of Mohenjo-Daro seems to have been the
great bath, is a fine example of beautiful brickwork. The floor of the bath was made of burnt bricks.
They even had shower systems.

Great Bath
Statement 2 is incorrect: There is the evidence of very sophisticated drainage systems in the cities of
the Indus valley civilisation. The drainage systems were so big that a human would have been able to
walk through the middle of one. This was really helpful because if the drain was blocked, the drain could
be easily accessed. The drainage system was very impressive. These drains were covered with bricks
and sometimes with stone slabs. Sewers were connected to the whole city.

Drainage system
Statement 3 is correct: The arrangement of the houses in the cities is followed by a grid system, with
roads at virtually right angles to each other thus dividing the city into several rectangular blocks.
Every house had a tiled bathroom and its own well. Evidence of the flush system has been found.
Source: BHIC-101E.xps (egyankosh.ac.in)

Q.22)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Chalcolithic period, which refers to the period when copper and stone were used, was designated
as the stone-copper phase. These civilizations have a specific regional identity that distinguishes them.
Statement 1 is correct: The feature of the pottery during Chalcolithic period is the black colour inside
and near the rim on outside, and red colour, over the rest of the body. The pottery is mostly wheel
turned, though some pots are also handmade. It is made of the clay and has a fine fabric with thin
walls. Black and Red Ware pottery with paintings has been found at sites in Rajasthan, Madhya

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal. But in the Black and red ware of the doab area there is absence of
paintings.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Use of iron at large scale had not been started in making of various tools
and weapons during Chalcolithic period. Though use of iron had been started but not in intensive way.
It is copper and stone tools and weapons that were used in intensively in the period of Chalcolithic
period.
Statement 3 is correct: Stone and Copper were used by agricultural communities which have been
reported from eastern India. The people of the Chalcolithic phase produced wheat and rice, they also
cultivated bajra. They also produced several pulses such as lentil (masur), black gram, green gram, and
grass pea.
Source: Unit-10.pdf (egyankosh.ac.in)

Q.23)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
‘Karmaprabhrita’ and ‘Kashayaprabhrita’ are the sacred Jain texts related to the Digambaras sect.
Karmaprabhrita (Chapters on Karma), also called Shatkhandagama (Scripture of Six Sections)
composed by Pushpadanta and Bhutabalin and based on the principles of karma, and the
Kashayaprabhrita (Chapters on the Kashayas) compiled by Gunadhara and it deals with the passions
(kashaya) that defile and bind the soul.
Option a is incorrect: ‘Sannidata’ were the treasury head officers in revenue department in Mauryan
empire.
1) Samaharta- Revenue collector under revenue department
2) Council of ministers- Mantriparishad (Purohita, Mahamantri, Senapati, Yuvaraja)
3) Amatyas- civil servants- looks day to day administration.
4) Adyakshas- regulate foreign trade and custom duties
Option c is incorrect: Ovi is a form of music is from Maharashtra and Goa. They are usually the songs
of women i.e.; they are sung by women during leisure time and when they are completing their
household work. They usually contain four small lines of poetry. These are usually songs written for
marriages, pregnancy and also lullabies for children.
Option d is incorrect: It is Uttaramerur inscription that speaks much about Chola administration
specially of its village administration made under reign of Parantaka-I. It mentions the qualifications,
mode of election, disqualification criteria and constitution of committee for local governance. It also
mentions village autonomy with assemblies (Sabha, Urs and Nagara) developed during this period.
Source: Jainism - Festivals | Britannica
Class 11 history NCERT- Mauryan administration

Q.24)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The ancient ritual of Santhara, also called Sallekhana, consists of voluntary starvation to embrace
death, related to Svetambara (white sect) community of Jainism. According to Jainism, it the ultimate
way to attain moksha (release from the cycle of rebirth), when one believes his or her life has served
its purpose. Practised mostly by elders nearing death or having no desire to live any more, this ritual
demands the practitioner to even give up drinking water. On average, 240 Jains practise Sallekhana
until death each year in India.
Option a is incorrect: Practice to attaining liberation by discharging ritual and social obligations is a
path to ‘Moksha’ by Karma-Marga given in the Bhagavat Gita. The three ways to salvation are –
1) The karma-marga (the path of duty)- dispassionate discharge of ritual and social obligations.
2) The jnana-marga (the path of knowledge) which is the use of meditation with concentration.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

3) The bhakti-marga (the path of devotion), adherence to a personal god.

Option b is incorrect: Buddhist meditation, the practice of mental concentration leading ultimately
through a succession of stages to the final goal of spiritual freedom, this practice is nirvana (not
Santhara). Buddhists pursue meditation as part of the path toward liberation from defilements and
clinging and craving also called awakening, which results in the attainment of Nirvana.
Option d is incorrect: Santhara practice is Jain practice and have not any relationship with practice
of Santhal tribe in worshipping nature and their supreme deity.
Source: Things to know about Santhara, Jains' ritual of death | Business Standard News (business-
standard.com) , The three paths of Hinduism- The New Indian Express,

Q.25)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
A recent study published in the journal Nature revealed that Kelp forests are declining because of
climate change.
Statement 1 is correct: Kelp Forests are underwater ecosystems formed in shallow water by the dense
growth of several different species known as kelps. Though they look very much like plants, kelps are
actually extremely large brown algae.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Kelps are not typically found in warm, nutrient-rich waters near the
equatorial region. They are found along the coasts of temperate and polar regions. Kelp thrives in
cold, nutrient-rich waters. They attach to the seafloor and eventually grow to the water’s surface and
rely on sunlight to generate food and energy, kelp forests are always coastal and require shallow,
relatively clear water.

Statement 3 is correct: They are characterized by the dense growth of large brown algae. These dense
canopies of algae generally occur in cold, nutrient-rich waters. Because of their dependency upon

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

light for photosynthesis, kelp forests form in shallow open waters and are rarely found deeper than 49-
131 feet.
Statement 4 is correct: Kelp provides shelter and food for many species of fish and invertebrates and
also provides a habitat for marine mammals. Kelps provide critical habitat and are an important food
source for a wide range of coastal organisms, including many fish and invertebrates. Kelps provide
critical habitat and are an important food source for a wide range of coastal organisms, including many
fish and invertebrates.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/kelp-forests-losing-unique-traits-
due-to-climate-change-says-study-87331
https://oceana.org/marine-life/kelp-forest/
https://oceanservice.noaa.gov/facts/kelp.html

Q.26)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Iron tipped weapons and horse chariots helped military activities which
were rampant in Later-Vedic period and also have been extensively documented in the Mahabharata.
A transition from pastoral society of Rig-Vedic was seen to a sedentary agrarian society of Later Vedic
period. The socketed axes made of iron were extensively used to clear the forests and the Gangetic
Doab for permanent cultivation.
1) Later Vedic period was neither purely agrarian, nor was it well advanced in iron technology.
2) The rich iron ore mines of Bihar were still not exploited and the technology of smelting iron was
primitive.
Statement 2 is correct: Rituals were much more complicated in Later-Vedic period and continued for
years. Thus, only the rich could perform them. In the Early Vedic society, rituals were performed to
bring about the welfare of the entire tribe. Gods were worshipped for ensuring victory over other
tribes, granting cattle and sons. In the Later Vedic society, the function of the rituals underwent a
subtle change. The spirit of collectivism was reduced. Sacrifices were performed to ensure control
over rest of the tribe.
1) The performer of sacrifices granted super-human status to the chiefs even superior to rest of the
tribe.
2) Chief passed on a large part of his wealth to the Brahman priest.
Statement 3 is correct: In early Rig Vedic periods, Gods such as Indra and Agni were important but in
Later-Vedic period, Indra and Agni lost their importance. Prajapati the creator became important
deity. Rudra, a minor deity in the Rigveda, became important now and Vishnu was conceived as the
creator and protector of the universe.
1) Pushan who protected cattle in the former period now became the god of the Sudras.
2) The changing status of the deities are in indication of the change in the character of the tribes from
pastoral groups to sedentary agriculturist groups.
Source: Unit-13.pdf (egyankosh.ac.in)

Q.27)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Satavahana, who came to the forefront in the Indian political scene sometime in the middle of the
first century BC, are one of the most prominent dynasties of ancient India. The Matsya Purana lists
thirty Satavahana kings who ruled in Deccan, though their geographical extent kept changing. The
Satavahana were probably of Andhra origin.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Statement 1 is correct: Satavahana rulers did not believe in divine rights of a king and they carried
administration in accordance with the directives of the Dharma Shastras and the social customs. The
king himself led his armies in the battle-field and was commander-in-chief of his forces.
Statement 2 is correct: The Satavahana administrative system was based on feudal system. They had
divided their empire among a number of feudal chiefs who managed the land revenue system and
looked after the administration. There were three grades of feudatories – the ‘Raja’, the ‘Mahabhoja’
and the ‘Maharathi or ‘Senapati”. The ‘Raja’ belonged to the highest grade. He had the right to impose
taxes and to strike coins. The kingdom was divided into provinces and ‘Janapadas’ for administrative
efficiency.
Statement 3 is correct: In Satavahana administration there was also a special official called
‘Uparakshita’ who was charged with the duty of building caves etc. for the monks. The ‘bhikshus’
(monks) and Brahmanas were held in high esteem and they too observed and preached high standards
of conduct. They were beyond the ordinary laws of the Government.
Knowledge base: The highest official in a province was ‘Amatya’ or minister. His office was not
hereditary. Men of proven ability were appointed to this official. Each unit had several villages. A village
was administered by a ‘Gramika’. There were several officials to help the king. Out of them, the most
important were ‘Senapati, ‘Mahabhoja’, ‘Koshadhyaksha’, ‘Rajadoof, ‘Amatya’ etc.
Source: Post Mauryan Polities - The Kushanas and the Satavahanas.pdf (drbrambedkarcollege.ac.in)
Unit-27.pdf (egyankosh.ac.in)
BHIC-103E-DK-2proof.xps (egyankosh.ac.in)

Q.28)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Allaudin Khilji (1296–1316 AD) was an emperor of the Khilji dynasty that ruled the Delhi Sultanate in
the Indian subcontinent. Allaudin instituted a number of significant administrative changes, related to
revenues, price controls, and society.
Statement 1 is correct: Allaudin Khilji introduced the system of Dagh (branding) and huliya
(description) and cash payment to the soldiers in order to strengthen his control over the army. He
introduced the system of branding of horses (dagh) and maintenance of detailed register of soldiers to
prevent false musters and corrupt practices.
Statement 2 is incorrect: After the establishment of the Sultanate, iqta system was introduced by the
Sultans. To begin with the army commanders and nobles were given territories to administer and
collect the revenue. The territories thus assigned were called iqta and their holders as iqtadar or muqti.
The system of Muqtis and Iqtas became more dominant during the rule of Allaudin Khilji.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It was Muhammad Bin Tuglaq who launched a scheme of takkavi loans
(loans for cultivation) that were given to the farmers to buy seed and to extend cultivation. Allaudin
Khilji attempt was to increase the revenue collection by enhancing the demand, introducing direct
collection and cutting down the leakages to the intermediaries.
Knowledge Base:
Other reforms taken by Allaudin Khilji:
1) Market Reforms: Ala-ud-din was the first Sultan to pay his soldiers in cash. As the soldiers were
paid less, the prices had to be monitored and controlled. Moreover, Ala-ud-din had to maintain a
huge standing army. In order to restrict prices of essential commodities, Ala-ud-din set up an
elaborate intelligence network to collect information on black-marketing and hoarding. Shahana-i-
mandi was the in charge of markets, who kept eye on prices of essential commodities.
2) Revenue Reforms: Alauddin created separate department for revenue as Diwan-i- Mustkharaj. He
introduced scientific method for land measurement for the assessment land revenue. Jaziya was
imposed on non-Muslims. He imposed heavy taxes on sardars, jagirdars and ulemas.
Source: 315_History_Eng_Lesson12.pdf (nios.ac.in)
Unit-19 (egyankosh.ac.in)

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Q.29)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Deccan peninsula is divided into the plateau region and the coastal plains by the hill ranges of the
Eastern and Western Ghats. The history of Deccan region was characterized by the rise and fall of a
series of powerful states in the region, the Satavahana, the Vakatakas, the Chalukya and the
Rashtrakutas.
The dynasties that ruled the ‘Deccan region’ in Ancient Indian history are as follows:
1) Satavahana Empire (200 BCE–2nd CE): Satavahana was the first large kingdom of central India. It
probably came to power at the end of the third or beginning of the second century BCE (it’s not
known exactly when), as one of the major successor states to the great Mauryan empire. It was
based in the great plateau of the Deccan. Thirty kings are mentioned in the Puranas, the main
textual source for the kingdom. Many of these kings also figure in the inscriptions and coins of the
period. The kings were Brahmin by religion, but at least some of them patronized Buddhism as well.
2) Vakatakas dynasty (250 - 510 CE): The Vakatakas dynasty was an ancient Indian dynasty that
originated from the Deccan in the mid-3rd century CE. Their state is believed to have extended
from the southern edges of Malwa and Gujarat in the north to the Tungabhadra River in the south
as well as from the Arabian Sea in the west to the edges of Chhattisgarh in the east. They were the
most important successors of the Satavahana in the Deccan and contemporaneous with the
Guptas in northern India.
3) Chalukya dynasty (543–753 CE): The Chalukya dynasty was a Classical Indian dynasty that ruled
large parts of southern and central India between the 6th and the 12th centuries. During this period,
they ruled as three related yet individual dynasties. The Badami Chalukyas began to assert their
independence at the decline of the Kadamba kingdom of Banavasi and rapidly rose to prominence
during the reign of Pulakeshin II. After the death of Pulakeshin II, the Eastern Chalukyas became
an independent kingdom in the eastern Deccan.
4) Rashtrakutas Dynasty (753 CE–982 CE): Rashtrakutas (was a royal Indian dynasty ruling large parts
of the Indian subcontinent between the sixth and 10th centuries. The earliest known Rashtrakutas
inscription is a 7th-century copper plate grant detailing their rule from Manapura, a city in Central
or West India including the Deccan region.
Source: Unit-27.pdf (egyankosh.ac.in)
The Deccan: History and Civilization of Central India | TimeMaps

Q.30)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Yellow Band Disease is a common and damaging condition that affects coral reefs, causing them to
become diseased and often leading to the death of affected corals. This disease is caused by a variety
of different factors, including environmental stress, bacterial infections, and other diseases. The yellow
band in the name refers to the yellow or brown discoloration that appears on affected corals.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Yellow-band disease—named for the colour it turns corals before destroying them—was first spotted
decades ago and has caused widespread damage to reefs. There is no known cure for this disease and
unlike coral, bleaching corals will not be restored once they get infected by this disease. Scientists
believe overfishing, pollution and rising water temperatures because of climate change may be making
the reefs more vulnerable to yellow-band disease.
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/watch-why-are-corals-in-
thailand-getting-destroyed/article66396891.ece

Q.31)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The conquest of Northern India by the Ghori’s and the establishment of the Delhi Sultanate not only
changed the existing political structure but also brought social-economic change. The new rulers
wanted luxuries and comforts according to their taste and habits. The slave labour was thus a great
help to provide these.
Statement 1 is correct: During Delhi Sultanate period, the practice of keeping women in seclusion and
asking them to veil their faces in the presence of outsiders, that is, the practice of purdah became
widespread among the upper-class women. The most important factor for the growth of purdah was
social—it became a symbol of the higher classes in society and all those who wanted to be considered
respectable tried to copy it. Also, religious justification was found for it. Whatever the reason, it
affected women adversely, and made them even more dependent on men
Statement 2 is correct: The old rules enjoining early marriage for girls, and the wife’s obligation of
service and devotion to the husband continued during this period. Annulment of the marriage was
allowed in special circumstances, such as desertion, loathsome disease, etc. One favourable thing was
that widows were allowed to inherit their husbands’ property. Regarding property, the commentators
uphold the widow’s right to the property of a sonless husband, provided the property was not joint, i.e.,
had been divided. The widow was not merely the guardian of this property, but had the full right to
dispose of it.
Source: Satish Chandra Chapter EIGHT Government, and Economic and Social Life under the Delhi
Sultanate
Theme-III.pdf (egyankosh.ac.in)

Q.32)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Hoysala Empire was a Kannadiga power originating from the Indian subcontinent that ruled most
of what is now Karnataka between the 11th and the 14th centuries. The capital of the Hoysala was
initially located at Belur, but was later moved to Halebidu.
The Hoysala era was an important period in the development of South Indian art, architecture, and
religion. The empire is remembered today primarily for Hoysala architecture; 100 surviving temples are
scattered across Karnataka. Some of the features of the architecture are:
1) Multiple shrines were built around a central pillared hall.
2) Unlike the crucified ground plan of the Panchayatan style, the shrines led out in the shape of an
intricately designed star. This was known as the Stellate plan.
3) Soft soapstone (Chorite schist) was the main building material.
4) Massive emphasis was laid on the decoration of the temple through sculptures. Both the interior
and exterior walls, even the jewelleries worn by the deities were intricately carved
In the Hoysala kingdom ‘crowned queens’ occupied special administrative authority. They had
separate ministers and stewards even at times lead military campaigns. However, there were
‘uncrowned queens’ as well who hardly enjoyed any powers of such nature. Yuvaraja was the
heirapparent, second in command and often appointed as governor.
Source: BHIC-132E.xps (egyankosh.ac.in)
Nitin Singhania Chapter 1 INDIAN ARCHITECTURE, SCULPTURE AND POTTERY

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Q.33)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Abu-Ul-Fath Jalal-Ud-Din-Muhammad Akbar was the grandson of Babur and the son of Humayun.
Throughout his reign Akbar expanded the Mughal empire, using a combination of diplomacy, marriage
alliances and military conquest.
Statement 1 is correct: Akbar established separation of state and religion and opened government
positions to members of all religions. He abolished the poll tax (jizya) on non-Muslims and the forced
conversion of prisoners of war to Islam. He converted the meetings of Muslim clerics into open
discussions between Islam, Hindu, Parsi and Christian scholars and in 1579 issued an edict that made
him the highest authority in religious matters.
Statement 2 is correct: Akbar began his life as an orthodox Muslim but adopted an accommodative
approach under the influence of Sufism. Akbar was interested to learn about the doctrines of all
religions, and propagated a philosophy of Sulh-i-Kul (peace to all). Akbar had established an Ibadat
Khana, a hall of worship in which initially Muslim clerics gathered to discuss spiritual issues. Later he
invited Christians, Zoroastrians, Hindus, Jains and even atheists to discussions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Many of Akbar's reforms had already been initiated during the brief Afghan
occupation of Sher Sha Sur. But Akbar understood the requirements for stable government and how it
depended on a stable economy. He abandoned Sher Sha Sur's idea of a uniform tax rate for the entire
country. He continued the development of the national road system as a prerequisite for economic
expansion.
Source: Science, civilization and society (incois.gov.in)

Q.34)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Rashtrakuta (753-982 CE) was a royal Indian dynasty ruling large parts of the Indian
subcontinent between the sixth and 10th centuries. The sources for Rashtrakutas history include
medieval inscriptions, ancient literature in the Pali language, contemporaneous literature in Sanskrit
and Kannada and the notes of the Arab travellers.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Rashtrakutas were originally known to be the feudatories of the Western
Chalukyas of Vatapi. They ruled from Manyakheta in Karnataka. Dhantidurga was the founder of
Rashtrakuta dynasty, he defeated Chalukyas of Badami. Dhantidurga was succeeded by Krishna 1. He
constructed Kailasa temple in Ellora.
Statement 2 is correct: In the Rashtrakutas kingdom, the directly administered areas were divided
into rashtra (provinces), visaya and bhukti. The head of rashtra was called rashtrapati, and he
performed the same functions as the uparika did in the Pala and Pratihara empires. The visaya was like
a modern district, and the bhukti was a smaller unit to it.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Nad Gavundas was the hereditary revenue officers and not the headmen of
village. They appear to have discharged the same functions as the Deshmukh’s and Deshpande’s of later
times in Maharashtra.
The village was the basic unit of administration. The village administration was carried on by the village
headman and the village accountant whose posts were generally hereditary. They were paid by grants
of rent-free lands.
Source: Satish Chandra Chapter TWO Northern India: Age of the Three Empires (800–1000)
BHIC-105 English.pmd (egyankosh.ac.in)

Q.35)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

The Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB), the headhunter for directors of state-owned banks
and financial institutions, recently recommended names for the posts of managing directors of Bank of
Baroda and Bank of India.
Statement 1 is correct: Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) is a government body set up under
the Department of Financial Services. It replaced the Bank Board’s Bureau (BBB) in 2022.
Statement 2 is incorrect: FSIB would be headed by a chairman, a central government nominee.
The board would comprise the Secretaries of the Department of Financial Services, the chairman of
IRDAI, and a deputy governor of the RBI. Additionally, it will have three part-time members who are
experts in banking and three more from the insurance sector.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The chairperson of FSIB is not the member of Monetary Policy Committee.
MPC comprises six members - three officials of the Reserve Bank of India and three external members
nominated by the government of India. The role of FSIB is to recommend names for the posts of for
directors of state-owned banks and financial institutions.
Statement 4 is correct: The Primary role of FSIB:
1) To identify manpower capabilities and ensure proper selection of talent for senior positions at
financial institutions owned by the government.
2) It is entrusted with making recommendations for the appointment of full-time directors and non-
executive chairman of state-run financial services institutions.
3) The final decision on the FSIB recommendation would be taken by the Appointments Committee of
the Cabinet headed by the Prime Minister.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/fsib-recommends-names-for-md-posts-of-bank-of-
baroda-bank-of-india/article66378959.ece

Q.36)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
In South India, the Vaishnavite movement was very strong and it reigned till the end of 13th century.
Alvars were the devotees of Vishnu and they sang songs which were collected and made into
prabhandas. Nayanars were the Shaivites who worshipped Shiva.
Option a is incorrect: In Shaiva bhakti (not Alvars), the relationship between the god and his devotee
was often expressed as analogous to that between master and slave. The poems of Manikkavachakar
frequently refer to the experience of ‘melting’ before the lord. There is a deprecation of the body and
the corporeal state.
In Alvar bhakti, the relationship between the devotee and Mayon or Mal (Krishna) was often expressed
in terms of the lover–beloved relationship. In some instances, the mother–child relationship was also
invoked. The focus was entirely and exclusively on love for the god.
Option b is correct: The Saiva nayanars and the Vaishnavite alvars disregarded the austerities
preached by the Jains and the Buddhists and preached personal devotion to God as a means of salvation.
They disregarded the rigidities of the caste system and carried their message of love and personal
devotion to God to various parts of south India by using the local languages.
Option c is correct: In South India Bhakti movement, the male saints were not recluses or ascetics.
They lived their lives as a part of society and most of them were married. The case with the female
saints was different. The relationship of women and salvation is problematic in all religious traditions.
Youth and beauty were a burden, and the bhaktin could not combine marriage and family with
devotion. .
Option d is correct: The path of bhakti advocated by these saints was open to all, irrespective of caste.
The bhakti movement not only won to the fold of Hinduism many adherents of Buddhism and Jainism,
they also won over many tribals. Many of the tribals from hilly areas became settled agriculturists in
river valleys. These were the areas often held by Brahmans who introduced new agricultural techniques,
or by temples where tribal gods were assimilated as supporters of Vishnu or Shiv.
Knowledge Base:

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Alvar means ‘those who dive deep’ or ‘those who are absorbed in the divine’. The hymns of the 12 Alvars
were collected in the 10th century by Nathamuni in the Nalayira Divya Prabandham.
The bhakti saints came from varied social backgrounds. Most were Brahmanas. But there were also
people from other social backgrounds— a cowherd, washerman, weaver, potter, toddy fermenter,
hunter, fisherman, and highway robber. Two saints—the Shaiva saint Nandanar and the Vaishnava saint
Tiruppan Alvar—are described as ‘untouchables’.
Source: History of Medieval India by Satish Chandra - Chapter 4 - Economic and Social Life,
Education and Religious Beliefs (800-1200).
https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/22299/5/Unit-22.pdf

Q.37)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Delhi Sultanate government was a centralized entity having democratic nature of an Islamic State.
The Sultan used to appoint numerous ministers.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Diwan-i-risalat dealt with religious matters, pious foundations and
stipends to deserving scholars and men of piety. It was presided over by the chief sadr, who was
generally a leading qazi. He was generally also the chief qazi. The chief qazi was the head of the
department of justice.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Diwan-i-insha dealt with state correspondence. All the correspondence,
formal or confidential, between the ruler and the sovereigns of other states, and with his subordinate
officials was dealt with by this department.
Source: History of Medieval India by Satish Chandra - Chapter 8 - Government, and Economic and
Social Life under the Delhi Sultanate.

Q.38)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The Responsivists among Swarajists were Lala Lajpat Rai, Madan Mohan
Malaviya and N.C. Kelkar. The communal elements accused leaders like Motilal Nehru, who did not
favour joining the council, of being anti-Hindu even as Muslim communalists called the Swarajists anti-
Muslim.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Responsivists advocated cooperation with the government and holding
of office wherever possible. Besides they also wanted to protect the so-called Hindu interests.
Source: A Brief History of Modern India by Rajiv Ahir - Chapter 17 - Emergence of Swarajists, Socialist
Ideas, Revolutionary Activities and Other New Forces – Page 343.

Q.39)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Akbar paid great attention to the organisation of the central and provincial governments. His system of
central government was based on the structure of government which had evolved under the Delhi
Sultanate.
Pair 1 is correct: The head of the military department was called the Mir Bakhshi. Recommendations
for appointment to mansabs or for promotions etc., were made to the emperor through the mir
bakhshi. Once the emperor had accepted a recommendation, it was sent to the diwan for confirmation
and for assigning a jagir to the appointee. The same procedure was followed in case of promotions.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Mir Saman was in charge of royal kharkhanas where all kinds of manufacturing
would take place.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Muhtasib was an inspector of public places and behavior in towns. He was
responsible for maintaining the morality of the general people.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Pair 4 is correct: The mir bakhshi was also the head of the intelligence and information agencies of the
empire. Intelligence officers who were called barids and news reporters (waqia-navis) were posted to
all parts of the empire. Their reports were presented to the emperor at the court through the mir
bakhshi.
Knowledge Base:
Other offices during the Mughal empire:
1) Wazir - looked after revenue and finance.
2) Diwan - Managing all income and expenditure of the kingdom. The diwan was responsible for all
income and expenditure, and held control over khalisa, jagir and inam lands.
3) Diwan-i-Bayutat - Maintaining roads, government buildings etc.
4) Mir Manshi - Royal correspondence
5) Sadr-us-Sadr - Head of religious donations and contributions
6) Qazi-ul-Quzat - Supreme authority for justice after the emperor.
7) Mushrif-i-Mumalik - Accountant
8) Mustauf-i-Mumalik - Auditor
9) Mir-i-arz was in charge of petitions
Source: History of Medieval India by Satish Chandra - Chapter 13 - Consolidation of the Mughal Empire
Age of Akbar.

Q.40)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Covid Pandemic gave a boost to the online gaming market in India and people are now more
willing to pay to play. According to analysts, over 24 million Indians are added to the payment-linked
gaming market. Recently, Union government has proposed measures for regulating online gaming in a
draft amendment to the Information Technology (Intermediary Liability and Digital Media Ethics Code)
Rules, 2021.
Statement 1 is correct: The regulation of the online gaming industry in India is a complex issue and
has been the subject of much debate in recent years. There are currently no specific laws or
regulations in place that govern the industry, and the industry is largely self- regulated. However,
certain laws such as the Information Technology Act, the Indian Contract Act, and the Public Gambling
Act have been used to regulate the industry.
Statement 2 is correct: In India, 100% foreign direct investment is allowed under the automatic route
for online gaming which falls under electronic system, IT and BPM sectors. This means that approval
from the appropriate ministries is not required for such investments.
Source:https://www.indiatimes.com/explainers/news/how-rapidly-is-the-gaming-industry-
growing-in-india-589059.html
https://www.investindia.gov.in/sector/media/gaming#:~:text=The%20gaming%20industry%20is%
20at,INR%20380%20bn%20by%202026.&text=India%27s%20percentage%20of%20new%20payi
ng,)%20reaching%2050%25%20in%202021
https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/online-gaming-regulation-gst-8373955/
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/gaming-and-gambling-the-hindu-editorial-on-the-
centres-move-to-regulate-online-gaming/article66338985.ece

Q.41)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect: Malwa region does not lie on coast. So, it does not have any ports.
Option b is incorrect: Malwa region does not lie on old Silk route.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Option c is incorrect: Panipat is located on way from Delhi towards the Hindu Kush pass that was the
major entry for any ruler trying to enter India. It was located on the Grand Trunk Road and could be
easily accessed by any invader from Punjab and Afghanistan.
Option d is correct: The state of Malwa was situated on the high plateau between the rivers Narmada
and Tapti. It commanded the trunk routes between Gujarat and northern India, as also between north
and south India. As long as Malwa continued to be strong, it acted as a barrier to the ambitions of
Gujarat, Mewar, the Bahmanis and the Lodi sultans of Delhi. The geopolitical situation in northern India
was such that if any of the powerful state of the region could extend its control over Malwa, it would
be well on its way to make a bid for the domination of the entire north India.

Source: History of Medieval India by Satish Chandra - Chapter 10 - Struggle for Empire in North India—
I (Circa 1400–1525).

Q.42)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Internal trade within the Vijayanagar kingdom was conducted by the well-organized merchant and craft
guilds, while external trade was carried on by the Arab and Portuguese traders.
Statement 1 is correct: During Vijayanagar period, Indians played a minor role in the overseas carrying
trade. Muslim merchants completely controlled Indian overseas trade. The Arabs, and later the
Portuguese, dominated over the horse trade. Horses were brought to the west coast ports from

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Arabia, Syria, and Turkey. Horse importation was crucial for the southern states because good horses
were not bred in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The standard unit of coin issued by the Vijayanagara Empire was the gold
Pagoda or Varaha. The Varaha was also called the Hon, Gadyana or a Pon. Other coins issued were:
Tara silver coins and copper Jital coins. Several gold coins featuring the scene of God Vishnu's
incoronation were also issued in the Vijayanagara Empire.
Statement 3 is correct: The Vijayanagara empire had commercial relations with the islands in the Indian
Ocean, the Malaya Archipelago, Burma, China, Arabia, Persia, South Africa, Abyssinia and Portugal.
Calicut, Cochin, Pulicat, Bhaktal, and Mangalore were the chief ports of the Vijayanagara kingdom.
Knowledge Base:
Pearls from the Persian Gulf and Ceylon were brought, as were precious stones from Pegu. Satin, silk,
damask, and brocade were imported from China, as was velvet from Mecca.
The main industries of the Vijayanagara empire were cloth, perfumes and utensils of various kinds. The
main import items were horses, elephants, pearls, copper, coral, mercury, China silk and velvet. The
main export items were cloth, rice, iron, salt petre, sugar and spices.
According to Nuniz, Vijaynagar diamond mines were the richest in the world. The main mines were
located on the banks of the Krishna River, as well as in Kurnool and Anantapur. This resulted in the
development of a large industry in Vijaynagar and Malabar for cutting and polishing precious stones
such as diamonds, sapphires, and rubies.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/44425/1/Unit-20.pdf
http://coinindia.com/galleries-vijayanagar.html

Q.43)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Once the Delhi sultanate was firmly established in the 13th century, Indian coinage underwent a
major change. The ancient pictorial tradition of coinage gave way to the so-called Islamic type of
coins which were sans any pictorial motif. Islamic type of coins had inscription written in
Arabic script on both the sides.
Statement 1 is correct: Tanka was the term was used for silver coins of Mameluk and Khaljis of Delhi
sultanates.
Statement 2 is correct: There was a shortage of silver in the world in the fourteenth century.
Muhammad Tughlaq decided to introduce a bronze coin which was to have the same value as the silver
tanka. In 1329, Muhammad bin Tughlaq introduced a token currency that was modelled based on the
Chinese paper currency issued by the Kublai Khan.
This was unsuccessful as he was not able to prevent people from forging new coins. The new coins
began to be greatly devalued in the markets. Finally, Muhammad Tughlaq decided to withdraw the
token currency.
Knowledge Base:
Sikander-us-sani was the title first used by Alauddin Muhammad Shah Khalji on his gold and silver
coins.
The term Nasir amir almomenin was used by many sultans of Delhi sultanate on their gold and silver
coins.
The Tanka and Jital were introduced by the Delhi Sultan Iltutmish. Jital was a coin made up of billon
(mixed metal of silver and copper). It was a popular coin during the Delhi sultanate period.
Sher Shah (1538-1540CE) has given the term rupiya to his silver coins. He re-introduced Devanagari
legend, inscribing his name as Sri Ser Sahi on his silver coins. Sher Shah discarded billon coins and
introduced heavy copper coins.
Source:
http://epgp.inflibnet.ac.in/epgpdata/uploads/epgp_content/S000829IC/P001738/M023986/LM/
1507699489P09-M24-CoinsofDelhiSultanate-LM.pdf

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Q.44)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The responsibility of the village administration was entrusted to the village assembly called Grama
Sabha, the lowest unit of the Chola administration.
Statement 1,2 and 3 are correct: The village assemblies possessed absolute authority over the affairs of
villages. Some common functions include:
1) Maintenance of roads, tanks, temples and public ponds.
2) In charge of payment of taxes due from the villages to the King’s treasure.
3) Regulated public markets
4) Helped people at times of famine and flood.
5) Assemblies provided provisions for education.
6) They maintained law and order in every village. The justice was administered by Niyaya variyam.
7) Tank committee looked after the distribution of water to the fields.
8) The mahasabha could distribute new lands, and exercise ownership rights over them. It could also
raise loans for the village and levy taxes.
9) Temples were looked after by the Dharma variyan.
10) The control of the finance was given to the pon variyam.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Cholas maintained a large army consisting of elephants, cavalry and
infantry which were called the three limbs of the army. The Cholas also had a strong navy which
dominated the Malabar and Coromandel coast and, for some time, the entire Bay of Bengal.
But the village assembly did not provide the king with the fixed number of soldiers.
Knowledge Base:
The Chola Empire was divided into mandalams and each mandalam into valanadus and nadus.
In Chola period, we hear of two assemblies, called the ur, and the sabha or mahasabha. The ur was a
general assembly of the village. Mahasabha was a gathering of the adult men in the Brahman villages
which were called agraharams. These were villages with Brahman settlements in which most of the land
were rent-free.
Two inscriptions belonging to the period of Parantaka I found at Uttiramerur provide details of the
formation and functions of village councils.
The qualifications to become a ward member were:
1) Ownership of at least one fourth veli of land.
2) Own residence.
3) Above thirty years and below seventy years of age.
4) Knowledge of Vedas.
However, certain norms of disqualification were also mentioned in the inscriptions. They were:
(a) Those who had been members of the committees for the past three years.
(b) Those who had failed to submit accounts as committee members.
(c) Those who had committed sins.
(d) Those who had stolen the property of others.
Village Assemblies carried on village administration effectively with the help of Variyams. Male
members of the society were the members of these variyams.
Source: History of Medieval India by Satish Chandra - Chapter 4 - Economic and Social Life, Education
and Religious Beliefs (800-1200).

Q.45)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Union Commerce and industry minister has launched the mentorship, advisory, assistance,
resilience and growth (MAARG) platform on 16th January 2023 in New Delhi.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

MAARG Platform is the National Mentorship Platform by Start-up India to help and guide new start-
ups to grow and flourish. It is a one-stop platform to facilitate mentorship for start-ups across diverse
sectors, functions, stages, geographies, and backgrounds.
It is launched by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the
Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The objectives are
1) To provide sector-focused guidance, handholding, and support to start-ups throughout their
lifecycle.
2) To establish a formalized and structured platform that facilitates intelligent matchmaking between
the mentors and their respective mentees
3) To facilitate efficient and expert mentorship for start-ups and build an outcome-oriented
mechanism that allows timely tracking of mentor-mentee engagements.
Source:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/tech/startups/piyush-goyal-to-launch-maarg-
platform-to-aid-startup-entrepreneur-mentorship/articleshow/96971383.cms

Q.46)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: At the time of Sher Shah Suri to the throne of Delhi. Different types of mixed
currencies were in circulation. Sher Shah Suri abolished all these currencies and issued two new
currencies made up of silver & copper. Silver currency issued by him is known as Rupaiya.
The currency reforms of Sher Shah were so lasting i.e. rupaiya continued throughout the Mughal period
as well as East India Company for a long time (till 1883).
Statement 2 is correct: Sher Shah constructed several roads to connect various parts of India. The
most important road built by Sher Shah connected Sonar Gaon in Bengal with Takshila. At present, it
is known as the Grand Trunk (GT) road.
One road was built to connect Agra with Burhanpur & other road connected Agra with Jodhpur. The
4th road built by Sher Shah connected Lahore to Multan. Rest houses (Sarai) were constructed for
benefit of travelers.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Sher Shah also introduced other reforms to promote the growth of trade and
commerce. In his entire empire, customs duty for goods were paid only at two places: goods produced
in Bengal or imported from outside paid customs duty at the border of Bengal and Bihar at Sikrigali,
and goods coming from West and Central Asia paid customs duty at the Indus. No one was allowed to
levy customs at roads, ferries or towns anywhere else. Duty was paid a second time at the time of sale
of goods.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Sher Shah’s son and successor, Islam Shah. codified the laws, thus doing
away with the necessity of depending on a special set of people who could interpret the Islamic law.
Islam Shah also tried to curb the powers and privileges of the nobles, and to pay cash salaries to soldiers.
Knowledge Base:
1) Sher Shah Suri initiated various welfare measures for benefit of the people. Land grants were issued
by him to the man of learning and religion belonging to the communities of Hindus as well as
Muslims. Free kitchens were established by him to feed the poor & hungry.
2) Sher Shah set up a strong army in order to administer his vast empire. He dispensed with tribal
levies under tribal chiefs, and recruited soldiers directly, after verifying their character.
3) Every soldier had his descriptive roll (chehra) recorded, and his horse branded with the imperial sign
so that horses of inferior quality may not be substituted. Sher Shah seems to have borrowed this
system, known as the dagh (branding) system, from the military reforms of Alauddin Khalji.
4) Sher Shah introduced a new system of land revenue known as the Zabti system.
5) Sher Shah reformed the postal system as well. The Sarai was used as Dak Chauki (PO). A relay system
was used for the transportation of posts. The in-charge of the post office was known as Daroga-i-
Dag Chauki.
6) For communication of secret information, spies were appointed by Sher Shah.
Source: History of Medieval India by Satish Chandra - Chapter 12 - Struggle for Empire in North India—
II Mughals and Afghans (1525–1555).

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Q.47)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: In 1580, Akbar instituted a new system called the Dahsala or the Bandobast
Arazi or the Zabti system. Under this, the average produce of different crops as well as the average
prices prevailing over the last ten years was calculated.
The Delhi Sultanate rulers focused on annual assessment of the crop yields.
Statement 2 is correct: The iqta system was popular under the Delhi Sultanate in which officials were
allotted a piece of land as iqta from which they could collect the land revenues and taxes due to the
state. In return, they had to maintain a body of troops for the service of the ruler. The grant was not
hereditary, and was held at the pleasure of the sultan who could transfer him to any place.
Mansabdari system was introduced by Akbar for effecting proper administration and to bring stability
in his kingdom. In addition to meeting his personal expenses, the mansabdar had to maintain out of his”
salary a stipulated quota of horses, elephants, camels and mules and carts. A mansabdar could be asked
to perform any civil or military service.
Knowledge Base:
The Delhi sultan drew revenues directly from pieces of land Which were called khalisa. This enabled
him to maintain a large standing army.
Following were the chief sources of their revenue:
1) Zakat was a tax on property realized from the Muslims.
2) Kham was one-fifth of the booty captured, a tax on mines, treasure troves and a share on war booty.
3) Jaziya was levied on the non-Muslim subjects, particularly the Hindus. Women and children were,
however, exempted from the taxes. It was realized at the rate of 10 to 40 takas depending on the
payer’s income.
4) The Octroi Duty was realized on the exchange and transportation of commercial goods. Import tax
was levied on goods imported from other countries. It was between 2 ½ % to 10%.
Mughal Period:
For the measurement of land, bigha was adopted as standard unit of area which was 60 x 60 yards. A
new gaz or yard, gaz-i-llahi was introduced 41 digits (anguls) or 33 inches in length (Sher Shah’s I gaz
32 digit was discarded).
Types of lands:
1) Land which was continually under cultivation was called polaj.
2) Lands which were fallow (parauti) for a year, paid full (polaj) rates when they were brought under
cultivation.
3) Chachar was land which had been fallow for 3-4 years. It paid a progressive rate, the full-rate being
charged in the third year.
4) Banjar was cultivable waste land. To encourage its cultivation, it paid full rates only in the 5th year.
Systems of assessment followed under Akbar:
1) The most common was called batai or ghallabakshi (crop-sharing) where the crops were reaped and
stacked, and divided in the presence of the parties.
2) In Kankut, the whole land was measured, either by using the jarib or pacing it, and the standing
crops estimated by inspection.
3) Nasaq system of assessment was widely used in Akbar’s time. It meant a rough calculation of the
amount payable by the peasant on the basis of past experience.
Source: https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/68918/3/Unit-10.pdf

Q.48)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Young Bengal was a group of Bengali free thinkers from Hindu College, Calcutta, who were also
known as Derozians. These Bengali young people were inspired by free though to revolt against all

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

social and religious structures and stigmas of the Hindu society. In their later lives, the Derozians were
also attracted to the Brahmo Samaj movement.
Statement 1 is correct. Young Bengal movement were connected with the efforts made for the
introduction of western medical education in the country, which ultimately led to the foundation of
the Calcutta Medical College in 1835. They also encouraged the students of the Medical College to
overcome the prevailing prejudice against dissecting dead bodies and soon the prejudice was removed.
Statement 2 is correct. The movement was inspired by French revolution and disseminate French
Revolutionary ideas such as liberty, fraternity, and equality. They desired to foster value-based and
rational thinking rather than rote memorization.
Statement 3 is correct. Young Bengal movement failed to have a long-term impact. The main reason
for their limited success was social conditions prevailing at that time which were not ripe for adoption
of radical ideas. Further they lacked a link to masses with issues like peasant cause.
Source: Spectrum chapter-9 page- 212

Q.49)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct: The Gomasthas were the British East India Company’s Indian agents, who signed
agreements with the artisans and local weavers to supply goods to the firm. They set the cost of the
products. The government appointed the Gomasthas. The weavers were controlled by them. They
gathered the supplies and the standard of the fabric was evaluated.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Akbar reverted to a system of annual assessment. The qanungos, who were
hereditary holders of land as well as local officials conversant with local conditions, were ordered to
report on the actual produce, state of cultivation, local prices, etc. But in many areas the qanungos were
dishonest and concealed the real produce. Officials called karoris were appointed all over north India
who was responsible for the collection of revenues.
Pair 3 is correct: Movement of goods was also facilitated by the growth of a financial system which
permitted easy transmission of money from one part of the country to another. This was done
through the use of hundis. The hundi was a bill of exchange payable after a period of time at a discount.
Pair 4 is incorrect: The sarrafs (shroffs) who specialized in changing money, also specialized in dealing
with hundis. In the process, they also acted as private banks: they kept money in deposit from the
nobles, and lent it. By means of hundis, they created credit which supplemented the money in
circulation, since the merchant could cash his hundi after he had sold his goods at the point of his
destination.
Knowledge Base:
The hundis often included insurance which was charged at different rates on the basis of value of the
goods, destination, means of transport (land, river or sea), etc.
The Indian trading classes were well organized and highly professional. Some specialized in long
distance, inter-regional trade, and some in local, retail trade. The former were called seth, bohra or
modi, while the latter was called beoparis or banik.
There was a special class of traders, the banjaras, who specialized in carrying bulk goods. The banjaras
used to move over long distances, sometimes with thousands of oxen carrying foodgrains, pulses, ghee,
salt, etc.
Source: History of Medieval India by Satish Chandra - Chapter 16 - Economic and Social Life under
the Mughals.

Q.50)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
India has recently signed Comprehensive Migration and Mobility Partnership Agreement (MMPA)
with Austria during the Indian External Affairs Minister’s visit to Vienna.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Option 1, 2 and 4 are correct: India and Austria have signed Comprehensive Migration and Mobility
Partnership Agreement in January 2023. It will regulate illegal migration, as it enables the swift return
of illegal migrants and Multiple entry visas for professionals and student exchange programme, which
will be reviewed regularly by a Joint Working Group (JWG). This follows similar agreements signed with
other European countries such as France, the United Kingdom, Germany, and Finland.
Option 3 and 5 are incorrect: India has not signed Comprehensive Migration and Mobility
Partnership Agreement with Bangladesh and Sri Lanka. The migration issues between India and Sri
Lanka and Bangladesh are much complex in nature. Any agreement on this issue will require
comprehensive dialogue and consensus between various stakeholders.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/jaishankar-meets-austrian-counterpart-
schallenberg/article66327012.ece

Q.51)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The Swadeshi Movement had its genesis in the anti-partition movement
which was started to oppose the British decision to partition Bengal. The British government’s
decision to partition Bengal had been made public in December 1903. The idea of British government
was to have two provinces which were Bengal comprising Western Bengal as well as the provinces of
Bihar and Orissa, and Eastern Bengal and Assam. Bengal retained Calcutta as its capital, while Dacca
became the capital of Eastern Bengal.
Statement 2 is incorrect: V.O. Chidambaram Pillai’s (and not Jagdish Chandra Bose ) venture into a
national shipbuilding enterprise which was Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company at Tuticorin gave
a challenge to the British Indian Steam Navigation Company. The Swadeshi spirit found its expression
in the establishment of swadeshi textile mills, soap and match factories, tanneries, banks, insurance
companies, shops, etc. These enterprises during the Swadeshi movement were based more on patriotic
zeal than on business acumen.
Statement 3 is incorrect: In science, Jagdish Chandra Bose and Prafulla Chandra Roy organized
pioneered original research which was praised the world over during the Swadeshi movement.
During Swadeshi movement the importance was placed on self-reliance or Atma shakti. Due to the
Swadeshi movement, Prafulla Chandra Roy (and not Chidambaram Pillai) opened a new business
called Bengal Chemical Swadeshi Stores.
Source: Brief history of modern India. Spectrum. Chapter name- Era of Militant Nationalism. Page no-
261,266 and 267.

Q.52)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The ‘downward filtration theory’ was planned policy of British to educate a small section of upper and
middle classes who would enrich the vernaculars and spread the western education in masses. It was
started with the famous Lord Macaulay’s Minute which settled the row in favour of Anglicists who held
the view that the “Indian learning was inferior to European learning”. Therefore, the limited government
resources were to be devoted to teaching of Western sciences and literature. In pursuance of the Lord
Macaule’s minute, the government soon made English as the medium of instruction in its schools and
colleges and opened a few English schools and colleges instead of a large number of elementary schools,
thus neglecting mass education. It was aimed to educate a small section of upper and middle classes,
thus creating a class “Indian in blood and colour but English in tastes, in opinions, in morals and in
intellect”. This class would act as interpreters between the government and masses. They would enrich
the vernaculars by which knowledge of Western sciences and literature would reach the masses.
Source: Spectrum, Rajiv Ahir’s Brief History of India, Chapter Development of Modern, page 565

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Q.53)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Home rule movement, 1916:
Tilak launched the Indian Home Rule League in April 1916 at Belgaum. Annie Besant launched the Home
Rule League in September 1916 at Madras. They had the common objective of achieving self-
government in India.
The home rule movement was the Indian response to the First World War. With people already feeling
the burden of war time miseries caused by high taxation and a rise in prices, Tilak and Annie Besant
ready to assume the leadership the movement started with great vigour.
Ahmedabad Mill Strike (1918):
1) In March 1918, Gandhi intervened in a dispute between cotton mill owners of Ahmedabad and the
workers over the issue of discontinuation of the plague bonus. The mill owners wanted to
withdraw the bonus but the workers were demanding a rise of 50 per cent in their wages so that
they could manage in the times of wartime inflation (which doubled the prices of food-grains, cloth,
and other necessities) caused by Britain’s involvement in World War I. The mill owners were ready
to give only a 20 per cent wage hike. The workers went on strike. The relations between the workers
and the mill owners worsened with the striking workers being arbitrarily dismissed and the mill
owners deciding to bring in weavers from Bombay.
The Rowlatt Act, March 1919.:
1) Just six months before the Montford Reforms were to be put into effect, two bills were introduced
in the British Imperial Legislative Council. One of them was dropped, but the other was passed in
March 1919. It was what was officially called the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, but it
was popularly known as the Rowlatt Act. It was based on the recommendations made in the
previous year to the Imperial Legislative Council by the Rowlatt Commission, headed by the British
judge, Sir Sidney Rowlatt, to investigate the ‘seditious conspiracy’ of the Indian people.
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (April 13, 1919):
1) A large crowd of people, mostly from neighboring villages, who were unaware of the prohibitory
orders in the city, gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh, a popular place for public events, to celebrate
the Baisakhi festival. Local leaders had also called for a protest meeting at the venue. The meeting
had gone on peacefully, and two resolutions, one calling for repeal of the Rowlatt Act and the other
condemning the firing on April 10, had been passed. It was then that Brigadier- General Dyer arrived
on the scene with his men. The troops surrounded the gathering under orders from General Dyer
and blocked the only exit point and opened fire on the unarmed crowd. No warning was issued; no
instruction to disperse was given. An unarmed gathering of men, women and children was fired
upon as they tried to flee.
Source: Brief history of modern India. Spectrum. Page no- 308, 320,317 and 318,322

Q.54)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The non-cooperation movement was endorsed at the Nagpur session (and
not Bombay session) of the Indian National Congress. An important change was made in the Congress
constitution that was, instead of having the attainment of self-government through constitutional
means as its goal, the Congress decided to have the attainment of swaraj through peaceful and
legitimate means, thus committing itself to an extra constitutional mass struggle.
Statement 2 is correct: Congress approved a non-cooperation programme at a special session in
Calcutta till the Punjab and Khilafat wrongs were removed and swaraj was established. The non-
cooperation included the following programmes:
1) Boycott of government schools and colleges;
2) Boycott of law courts and dispensation of justice through panchayats instead;

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

3) Boycott of legislative councils; (there were some differences over this as some leaders like C.R. Das
were not willing to include a boycott of councils, but bowed to Congress discipline; these leaders
boycotted elections held in November 1920 and the majority of the voters too stayed away);
4) Boycott of foreign cloth and use of khadi instead; also practice of hand-spinning to be done;
5) Renunciation of government honours and titles.
Statement 3 is correct: The non-cooperation movement was withdrawn because Gandhi felt that
people had not fully understood the method of non-violence. Incidents like Chauri-Chaura could lead
to the kind of excitement and fervor that would turn the movement to become generally violent. A
violent movement could be easily suppressed by the colonial regime that would make the incidents of
violence an excuse for using the armed might of the State against the protestors.
Source: Brief history of modern India. Spectrum. Chapter name- Non-Cooperation Movement and
Khilafat movement. Page no- 332,337 and 338.

Q.55)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Recently, a traditional art Ottanthullal of Kerala which has a history of over 300 years was performed
in Kerala School Kalolsavam 2023.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Thullal is a recite-and-dance art form of Kerala, which was introduced in the
18th century by the famous Malayalam poet Kunchan Nambiar (1705 - 1770).
Statement 2 is correct: Thullal follows the classical principles of Natyashastra (a treatise on art
compiled in the 2nd century B.C.E). The Thullal performer is supported by a singer who repeats the
verses and is accompanied by an orchestra of mridangam or thoppimaddalam (percussions) and
cymbals.
Statement 3 is correct: Thullal is famous for its humor and social satire and is marked by its simplicity.
It has spawned into three separate versions which include- Ottanthullal, Seethankan thullal and
Parayan thullal. Each has become a strong platform for reform and social consciousness in our
community over the course of the last few centuries
Why This Question?
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/kerala-school-kalolsavam-2023-the-need-to-
take-ottanthullal-forward/article66343344.ece

Q.56)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: From the year 1837 to 1856 the Khonds, who were the tribals of the hilly tracts
extending from Odisha to the Srikakulam and Visakhapatnam districts of Andhra Pradesh revolted
against Company rule.
Statement 2 is correct: Chakra Bisoi was a young raja who led the Khonds who were joined by the
Ghumsar, Kalahandi and other tribals to oppose the suppression of human sacrifice, new taxes, and
the entry of zamindars into their areas. With Chakra Bisoi’s disappearance, the uprising came to an
end.
Statement 3 is correct: The specific problem among the Khonds centered on the determination of
the colonial administration to stop the human sacrifices associated with the 'meriah' sacrifice. The
new pressures and uncertainties forced the Khonds to appease their gods for good harvests of turmeric,
but the colonial administration tried to stop this practice. Some colonial officials hoped that the
improvement of material conditions of the Khonds would serve to liquidate the 'meriah' sacrifice
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/19939/1/Unit-7.pdf
Brief history of modern India. Spectrum. Chapter name- People’s Resistance Against British Before
1857. Page no – 157

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Q.57)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Pandita Ramabai Saraswati (and not Ramabai Ranade) founded the Arya
Mahila Samaj to serve the cause of women. She pleaded for improvement in the educational syllabus
of Indian women before the English Education Commission which was referred to Queen Victoria.
This resulted in medical education for women which started in Lady Dufferin College. Later Ramabai
Ranade established a branch of Arya Mahila Samaj in Bombay.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1910, Sarla Devi Chaudhurani convened the first meeting of the Bharat
Stree Mahamandal in Allahabad. It was considered as the first major Indian women’s organisation set
up by a woman. Its objectives included promotion of education for women, abolition of the purdah
system and improvement in the socio-economic and political status of woman all over India. Sarla Devi
believed that the man working for women’s upliftment lived ‘under the shade of Manu’.
Statement 3 is correct: The All-India Women’s Conference (AIWC), founded by Margaret Cousins in
1927 was the first women’s organisation with an egalitarian approach. Its first conference was held at
Ferguson College in Pune. It's Important founding members included Maharani Chimnabai Gaekwad,
Rani Sahiba
of Sangli, Sarojini Naidu, Kamla Devi Chattopadhyaya and Lady Dorab Tata. Its objectives were to work
for a society based on principles of social justice, integrity, equal rights and opportunities it also
worked to secure for every human being, the essentials of life, not determined by accident of birth or
sex but by planned social distribution. For this purpose, the AIWC worked towards various legislative
reforms before and after India’s independence.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/24577/1/Unit-26.pdf

Q.58)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct: The Aitchison Committee on Public Services (1886) was set up by Dufferin,
recommended for,
1) It recommended for the Dropping of the terms ‘covenanted’ and ‘uncovenanted’ from the public
services.
2) It classified the civil service into Imperial Indian Civil Service (examination in England), Provincial
Civil Service (examination in India) and Subordinate Civil Service (examination in India).
3) It recommended raising the age limit of civil services recruitment to 23.
In 1893, the House of Commons in England passed a resolution supporting holding of simultaneous
examination in India and England; but the resolution was never implemented.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Lee Commission was set up in 1924. The Lee Commission had recommended that:
1) The secretary of state should continue to recruit the Imperial Indian Civil Services, the Irrigation
branch of the Service of Engineers, the Indian Forest Service, etc.
2) The recruitments for the transferred fields like education and civil medical service be made by
provincial governments
3) Direct recruitment to Imperial Indian Civil Services on basis of 50:50 parity between the Europeans
and the Indians be reached in 15 years
4) A Public Service Commission should be immediately established (as laid down in the Government
of India Act, 1919).
Pair 3 is correct: Government of India act 1935 recommended the establishment of a Federal Public
Service Commission and Provincial Public Service Commission under their spheres. But the positions
of control and authority remained in British hands and the process of Indianisation of the civil service
did not put effective political power in Indian hands since the Indian bureaucrats acted as the agents
of colonial rule.
Source: Brief history of modern India. Spectrum. Chapter name- Constitutional,
Administrative and Judicial Developments. Page no-515 and 516.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Q.59)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: In India, the Theosophical movement became somewhat popular with the
election of Annie Besant (1847-1933) as its president after the death of Olcott in 1907. Annie Besant
had come to India in 1893. She laid the foundation of the Central Hindu College in Benaras in 1898.
Where both Hindu religion and Western scientific subjects were taught. The college became the
nucleus for the formation of Benaras Hindu University in 1916. Annie Besant also did much for the cause
of the education of women.
Statement 2 is correct: In the later 1870s and early 1880, a solid ground had been prepared for the
establishment of an all-India organization. The final shape to this idea was given by a retired English
civil servant, A.O. Hume, who mobilized leading intellectuals of the time and, with their cooperation,
organized the first session of the Indian National Congress at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in
Bombay in December 1885. As a prelude to this, two sessions of the Indian National Conference had
been held in 1883 and 1885, which had representatives drawn from all major towns of India.
Surendranath Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose were the main architects of the Indian National
Conference.
Statement 3 is correct: Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan’s educational and social reform work among the
Pathans had politicised them. Gaffar Khan who was also called Badshah Khan and Frontier Gandhi, had
started the first Pushto political monthly Pukhtoon and had organised a volunteer brigade ‘Khudai
Khidmatgars’, popularly known as the ‘Red-Shirts’, who were pledged to the freedom struggle and
non-violence.
Source: Brief history of modern India. Spectrum. Page no -234,247 and 375.

Q.60)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Recently, Supreme Court held that the public cannot be given free access to a charge sheet or a final
investigation report as it is not a public document.
Statement 1 is correct: An FIR is the first document that is filed when police are informed of a
cognizable offense. It sets the process of investigation in motion. On the other hand, the chargesheet
is the final report that is filed after the investigation is complete and the evidence has been collected.
Statement 2 is correct: The purpose of an FIR is to initiate the investigation into the commission of
an offense, while the purpose of a chargesheet is to provide evidence to support the allegations
against the accused and to prosecute the accused in a court of law.
Statement 3 is incorrect: FIR and Chargesheet cannot be withdrawn. There is no such provision to
withdraw FIR or chargesheet under The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. However, Delhi High Court
has observed that the FIR and chargesheet can be quashed if the allegations made in the FIR or
complaint or the evidence collected, though remaining uncontroverted, do not disclose the commission
of an offence.
Statement 4 is incorrect: FIR is a public document prepared u/s-154 of Cr. P.C. A certified copy of an
FIR can be given in evidence. A copy of the FIR can be given to the accused only under the order of the
court after the court has taken cognizance of the case and not before. However, Supreme Court (SC)
recently, has ruled that chargesheets are not 'public documents' and enabling their free public access
violates the provisions of the Criminal Code of Procedure (CrPC) as it compromises the rights of the
accused, victim, and the investigation agencies.
https://tripakshalitigation.com/difference-between-fir-and-charge-sheet/
https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-1338-what-is-fir-and-chargesheet-.html

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Q.61)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
To carry forward the mandate given by the Lahore Congress, Gandhi presented eleven demands to the
government and gave an ultimatum of January 31, 1930 to accept or reject these demands.
The historic march, marking the launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement, began on March 12, and
Gandhi broke the salt law by picking up a lump of salt at Dandi on April 6. The violation of the salt tax
law was seen as a symbol of the Indian people’s resolve not to live under British-made laws and
therefore under British rule.
Gandhi’s Eleven demands were as follows:
Issues of General Interest
1) Reduce expenditure on Army and civil services by 50 per cent. (Hence, Option 1 is correct)
2) Introduce total prohibition.
3) Change Arms Act allowing popular control of issue of firearms licences.
4) Release political prisoners. (Hence, Option 2 is correct)
5) Accept Postal Reservation Bill.
6) Carry out reforms in Criminal Investigation Department (CID).
Specific Bourgeois Demands
7) Reduce rupee-sterling exchange ratio to 1s 4d
8) Introduce textile protection.
9) Reserve coastal shipping for Indians.
Specific Peasant Demands
10) Reduce land revenue by 50 per cent.
11) Abolish salt tax and government’s salt monopoly. (Hence, Option 3 is correct)
Note: There was no demand made by Gandhi about Equal legal rights irrespective of caste, creed and
sex. (Hence, Option 4 is incorrect)
Knowledge Base: With no positive response forthcoming from the government on these demands, the
Congress Working Committee invested Gandhi with full powers to launch the Civil Disobedience
Movement at a time and place of his choice.
Source: Spectrum Modern India 2019-20 Edition

Q.62)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
In March 1931, a special session of the Congress was held at Karachi to endorse the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
Two resolutions were adopted at the Karachi Session—one on Fundamental
Rights and the other on National Economic Programme— which made the session particularly
memorable.
The Resolution on Fundamental Rights guaranteed—
1) free speech and free press
2) right to form associations (Hence, Option 1 is correct)
3) right to assemble
4) universal adult franchise (Hence, Option 2 is correct)
5) equal legal rights irrespective of caste, creed and sex
6) neutrality of state in religious matters
7) free and compulsory primary education (Hence, Option 3 is correct)
8) protection to culture, language, script of minorities and linguistic groups
Knowledge Base:
Six days before the session (which was held on March 29) Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were
executed. Throughout Gandhi’s route to Karachi, he was greeted with black flag demonstrations by the

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha, in protest against his failure to secure commutation of the death
sentence for Bhagat and his comrades.
Source: Spectrum Modern India 2019-20 Edition

Q.63)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Gandhi gave up all his other preoccupations and launched campaign against untouchability—first from
jail and then, after his release in August 1933, from outside jail.
Statement 1 is correct: While in jail, he set up the All India Anti-Untouchability League in September
1932 and started the weekly Harijan in January 1933. Starting from Wardha, he conducted a Harijan tour
of the country in the period from November 1933 to July 1934, covering 20,000 km, collecting money
for his newly set up Harijan Sevak Sangh, and propagating removal of untouchability in all its forms.
Statement 2 is correct: Gandhi’s Harijan campaign included a programme of internal reform by
Harijans covering education, cleanliness, hygiene, giving up eating of beef and carrion and
consumption of liquor, and removing untouchability among themselves.
Source: pg 395-397
Spectrum Modern India 2019-20 Edition

Q.64)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Eka Movement or Unity Movement is a peasant movement which surfaced in Hardoi, Bahraich and
Sitapur during the end of 1921.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Eka movement formed a part of the series of peasant revolts which broke
out in colonial India after the First World War. In UP, the revolt began under the leadership of the Fiji-
returned indentured laborer Baba Ramachandra, who operated independently but against the backdrop
of the Non-Cooperation and the Khilafat Movement.
Statement 2 is correct. The issues that led to the rise of the Eka Movement were:
1) High rents—50 per cent higher than the recorded rates.
2) Oppression of thikadars in charge of revenue collection.
3) Practice of share-rents.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The grassroot leadership of the Eka Movement came from Madari Pasi and
other low-caste leaders, and many small zamindars.
Sidhu and Kanhu were brothers and the leaders of the Santhal rebellion, which started in 1855, in
present-day Jharkhand and Bengal.
Knowledge Base: The most innovative aspect of the Eka Movement was its method of mobilization and
the manner in which it forged unity among peasants cutting across the lines of caste and religion. The
Eka movement did not reject or brush over the religious identity of the peasants. Instead, it used the
ethics and morality of religion to forge a form of class-based unity amongst the exploited poor peasants,
middle peasants and petty landlords against the Big Landlord-Taluqdar-British Raj combine
Source: A Brief History of Modern India by Rajiv Ahir; Revised Edition 2020: Page: 615
https://thewire.in/history/madari-pasi-peasant-leader-eka-movement-british-colonial-rule

Q.65)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Recently, Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations launched report on Urban
forestry and urban greening in drylands under the framework of FAO’s Green Urban Oases
Programme.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Green Urban Oases (GUO) Programme was launched in 2021 by FAO. It contributes to the FAO Green
Cities initiative, which was launched in 2020. It aims to improve the resilience of dryland cities by
tackling climate, health, food and economic challenges.
The objectives of the program are:
1) To transform dryland cities into ‘green urban oases’ by strengthening their overall resilience to
climatic, health, food and economic crises for the improved health and well-being of urban
communities.
2) It focuses on developing policy, technical capacity and outlines several pathways for transforming
urban spaces by planting trees.
Source: https://www.fao.org/documents/card/en/c/cb5783en/

Q.66)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
A significant feature of the Quit India Movement was the emergence of what came to be known as
parallel governments in some parts of the country.
The first one was proclaimed in Ballia, in East U P, in August 1942 under the leadership of Chittu Pande,
who called himself a Gandhian. Though it succeeded in getting the Collector to hand over power and
release all the arrested Congress leaders, it could not survive for long and when the soldiers marched
in, a week after the parallel government was formed, they found that the leaders had fled.’
In Tamluk in the Midnapur district of Bengal, the Jatiya Sarkar came into existence on 17 December,
1942 and lasted till September 1944. Tamluk was an area where Gandhian constructive work had made
considerable headway and it was also the scene of earlier mass struggles. The Jatiya Sarkar undertook
cyclone relief work, gave grants to schools and organized an armed Vidyut Vahini. organization.
Option d is correct: A parallel government or Prati Sarkar was set up in Satara, Maharashtra and Nani
Patil was its most important leader. This phase was marked by attacks on Government collaborators,
informers and talatis or lower-level officials and Robin Hood-style robberies. Nyayadan Mandals or
people’s courts were set up and justice dispensed. Prohibition was enforced, and ‘Gandhi marriages’
celebrated to which untouchables were invited and at which no ostentation was allowed. Village
libraries were set up and education encouraged.
Source: Bipin Chandra, 472

Q.67)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The first pahse of INA was formed under Mohan Singh, a former officer of the British Indian Army
captured during the Malay campaign. Conditions in the prisoner of war camps, as well as resentment
against the British in general, saw many prisoners of war volunteer join the Indian National Army.
Subhash Bose takes over from Rashbehari Bose in second phase of INA and became Supreme
Commander of the INA on August 25, 1944.
Statement 1 is incorrect: In early 1944, For three months the INA carried out military administration
duties at Moirang. The INA got defeated like the Japanese, and all brigades began their withdrawal on
July 18, 1944.
The steady Japanese retreat thereafter quashed any hopes of the INA liberating the nation. The retreat
continued till mid-1945.
Statement 2 is correct: Later, in 1943, Bose called on women to serve as soldiers in the Indian National
Army. This was a most radical view. He formed a women’s regiment in the INA in 1943, named the Rani
of Jhansi Regiment. Many women were enthused to join the regiment commanded by Captain Lakshmi
Swaminathan (Sahgal after marriage). While those less suited to combat duties were employed as
nurses and in other support roles, the majority were trained as soldiers. They were given the same
treatment as the men and received no special privileges.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Knowledge Base:
On April 14,1944 Colonel Malik of the Bahadur Group hoisted the INA flag for the first time on the Indian
mainland at Moirang, in Manipur (where the INA Memorial Complex stands today) to enthusiastic cries
of “Jai Hind” and “Netaji Zindabad”.
Source: pg 459-460 Spectrum Modern India 2019-20 Edition

Q.68)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Surya Sen’s Chittagong Revolt Group carried out a raid on two armouries and declared the
establishment of a provisional government. He issued a manifesto in the name of Indian Republican
Army and called on the Indians to revolt against the British rule.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The raid was conducted in April 1930 and involved 65 activists led by Surya
Sen under the banner of Indian Republican Army—Chittagong Branch. The raid was quite successful.
Statement 2 is correct: Sen hoisted the national flag, took salute and proclaimed a provisional
revolutionary government in Chittagong. Later, they dispersed into neighbouring villages and raided
government targets. Surya Sen was arrested in February 1933 and hanged in January 1934, but the
Chittagong raid fired the imagination of the revolutionary-minded youth and recruits poured into the
revolutionary groups in a steady stream.
Statement 3 is correct. The Chittagong Armoury Raid had an immense impact on the people of Bengal.
As an official publication remarked, it ‘fired the imagination of revolutionary-minded youth’ and
‘recruits poured into the various extremist groups in a steady stream.’ The year 1930 witnessed a major
revival of revolutionary activity, and its momentum carried over to 1931 and 1932. There were
numerous instances of death-defying heroism. In Midnapore district alone, three British magistrates
were assassinated. Attempts were made on the lives of two Governors; two Inspectors- General of
Police were killed. During this three-year period, twenty-two officials and twenty non-officials were
killed.
Source: pg 352-353 Spectrum Modern India 2019-20 Edition

Q.69)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
After Gandhi’s arrest (March 1922) and withdrawal of Non- Cooperation Movement, the Swarajists
advocated council entry with an aim to end or mend the councils. No-changers advocated constructive
work during transition period. The Swarajists were allowed to contest elections as a group within the
Congress. The Swarajists were led by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru
Achievements of the Swarajists are as under:
1) With coalition partners, they out-voted the government several times, even on matters relating to
budgetary grants, and passed adjournment motions.
2) They agitated through powerful speeches on self- government, civil liberties and industrialisation.
3) Vithalbhai Patel was elected speaker of Central Legislative Assembly in 1925. (Hence, statement 1
is correct)
4) A noteworthy achievement was the defeat of the Public Safety Bill in 1928 which was aimed at
empowering the Government to deport undesirable and subversive foreigners (because the
Government was alarmed by the spread of socialist and communist ideas and believed that a crucial
role was being played by the British and other foreign activists being sent by the Commintern).
(Hence, statement 2 is correct)
5) By their activities, they filled the political vacuum at a time when the national movement was
recouping its strength.
6) Swarajist exposed the hollowness of the Montford scheme and never facilitated these reforms.
Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms came into force in 1921. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)
Source: pg 343-344 Spectrum Modern India 2019-20 Edition

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Q.70)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Monument Mitra scheme that entails adopting a heritage site and maintaining it, will be revamped for
private firms to partner for the upkeep of 1,000 ASI monuments.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Monument Mitra scheme was launched under the Ministry of Tourism earlier
and then transferred to the Ministry of Culture. At present, Ministry of Culture is the nodal ministry
to manage and coordinates the scheme.
Statement 2 is correct: The objective of the scheme is to ensure quality & inclusive provision of
amenities and facilities across heritage, natural, & tourist sites through the active participation of
private and public sector organizations and individuals.
Statement 3 is correct: Monument Mitra Scheme applies to all centrally protected heritage
properties. The government has set the target to hand over 500 sites under the revamped Monument
Mitra Scheme by the end of Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav on 15 August 2023.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Corporate entities including both private and public units will adopt these
monuments as part of their Corporate Social Responsibility. These organizations would be known as
“Monument Mitras” for their collaboration initiative.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/monument-mitra-scheme-to-be-
revamped/article66432240.ece
https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2023/jan/26/revised-version-of-monument-mitra-
scheme-to-be-launched-by-culture-min-next-month-2541577.html

Q.71)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
The Child Marriage Restraint Act, of 1929 was key legalization to restrain child marriages during the
pre-independence era of social reforms.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929, passed on 28 September 1929, in the
Imperial Legislative Council of India, fixed the minimum age of marriage for girls at 14 years and boys
at 18 years.
Statement 2 is correct: The Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929, is also popularly known as the Sarda
Act, after its sponsor Harbilas Sarda. Rai Sahib Harbilas Sharda introduced his Hindu Child Marriage
Bill in the Central Legislative Assembly. A Select Committee named as the Age of Consent Committee
headed by Sir M V Joshi examined the legislative bill related to age of consent for marriage. Many
Women Associations presented their views to the Joshi Committee in favour of raising the age limit of
marriage. The Joshi Committee presented its report on 20 June 1929 and was passed by the Imperial
Legislative Council on 28 September 1929 and became a law.
Statement 3 is correct: The Act came into effect six months later on 1 April 1930 after its passing and
applied to all of British India. It was a result of social reform movement in India. Despite strong
opposition from the British authorities, the legislation was passed by the British Indian Government
which had a majority of Indians.
Knowledge Base:
The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, presently sets the marriageable age to be 18 and 21 for boys
and girls respectively. This has been under debate recently to make the age same for both boys and
girls.
Source: A Brief History of Modern India, 2020 Edition Page no. 205
https://wcd.nic.in/child-marriage-restraint-act-1929-19-1929

Q.72)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

The British rulers thoroughly exploited the Indian economy through the economic drain and various
exploitative policies.
Statement 1 is correct: After 1857, the inflow of British capital and enterprise into India rose to an
appreciable extent. Bulk of the imperialist capital was mainly invested in the externally oriented sectors
like plantations, jute and coal, and the trading and banking infrastructure established to service this
sector. This ultimately led to the perpetuation of the subordination of Indian capital to British capital
with the ulterior motive of feeding Britain.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India’s colonial economy was integrated with the British and the world
capitalist economy. This was made possible with the introduction of free trade. All import duties in
India were either totally removed or drastically reduced (not increased) to nominal rates.
Statement 3 is correct: Exploitation of India which was started initially in the form of trade, later on
other forms of exploitation were made through investment income in the form of dividends and
profits and through payment of costs of British administration in the form of home charges. These
included salaries of British army and civil officers, payment of pensions, furloughs and other benefits
Source: A Brief History of Modern India, 2020 Edition Page no. 582-586
https://www.jstor.org/stable/44158840

Q.73)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
The 1930s saw the rise of Fascism in Europe and the struggle against it. Indian nationalists were against
it.
Statement 1 is correct: The nationalists saw imperialism and fascism as organs of capitalism. They
lend support to the struggle against fascism in other parts of the world in Ethiopia, Spain, China, and
Czechoslovakia. In 1939, at the Tripuri session, the Congress dissociated itself from the British policy
which supported fascism in Europe.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1939, the Japanese attack on China was condemned by the nationalists.
The Congress also sent a medical mission under Dr Atal to China. The Quit India Resolution was ratified
at the Congress meeting at Gowalia Tank, Bombay, on August 8, 1942. The resolution also declared
commitment of free India to defend itself against all types of Fascism and imperialism.
Source: A Brief History of Modern India, 2020 Edition Page no. 659

Q.74)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Shri Narayan Meghaji Lokhande was one of the pioneers of Indian labour reforms and labour movement.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Shri Narayan Meghaji Lokhande is hailed as the Father of the Trade Union
Movement in India due to establishment of the Mill Hand Association in 1884 by him which marked
the institutionalization of the labour movement in India. However, Kalyanasundaram Mudaliar Wadia
founded the Madras Labour Union which was one of India's first organised labour unions.
Statement 2 is correct: N M Lokhande’s struggle resulted in the constitution of the Factory Labour
Commission, of which he was made a Member. The work of this Commission led to the enactment of
the Factory Act of 1891, which regulated working conditions and gave some special rights to child and
female labour. Lokhandeji‘s wider social commitment was reflected in the passion with which he edited
the newspaper, Deenbandhu‘.
Statement 3 is correct: N M Lokhande was also deeply committed to communal harmony, having
played a role in forging unity between the Hindu and Muslim Communities during the communal riots
of 1893. He was an active participant in the strove hard struggle for social reform including through his
involvement with the Satya shodhak Samaj established by Mahatma Jyotiba Phule. For these activities
he was conferred the title of RaoBahadur.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Source: https://www.jstor.org/stable/4405089
https://www.epw.in/journal/1997/7/commentary/narayan-meghaji-lokhande-father-trade-union-
movement-india.html
https://dbpedia.org/page/Narayan_Meghaji_Lokhande

Q.75)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Recently, a microbiologist from the University of Nebraska-Lincoln in the United States found the first
known organism that eats viruses.
1) The organisms which eat viruses are called virovore. It has been identified as an actual species of
protist that feasts on viruses. These virus-eating species of protists which are their kingdom on
the tree of life and are not an animal, plants, or fungi are now classified as Virovores.
2) It is a species of Halteria; microscopic ciliates that populate freshwater worldwide. The microbe
Halteria is a common genus of protists known to flit about as its hair-like cilia propel it through the
water. They're made up of nucleic acids, nitrogen, and phosphorus. It can eat huge numbers of
infectious chloroviruses that share their aquatic habitat.
3) These organisms can sustain themselves with viruses, consuming many and growing in size.
4) The new findings may change our understanding of the role viruses play in the food chain at a
microscopic level.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/virovore-breakthrough-what-is-virovore-
an-organism-that-eats-viruses-discovered-101672747643136.html

Q.76)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
The Vernacular Press Act (1878) was enacted in British India to limit the freedom of the Indian press
and prevent the expression of criticism toward British policies, particularly the opposition that had
grown since the start of the Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–80). Lytton, then Viceroy of India,
proposed the Act, which was unanimously approved by the Viceroy's Council on March 14, 1878. The
Vernacular Press Act (VPA) was enacted in order to "better control" the vernacular press and effectively
punish and repress "seditious writing" in "publications in oriental languages." As a result, the British
treated the (non-English language) Indian press with complete hostility.
There were cases against Som Prakash, Bharat Mihir, Dhaka Prakash, and Samachar Darpan, which
were some of the other vernacular newspapers that were used to criticize and convey an anti-
government opinion. However, most significant was Amrit Bazar Patrika, against which no action
was taken as it turned into an English newspaper overnight. This step was taken by the vernacular
newspaper to escape the liabilities under the Vernacular Press Act.
Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/vernacular-press-act/
A Brief History of Modern India, 2020 Edition Page no. 590

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Q.77)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
During the reign of British rulers, initially education was ignored, however later on several initiatives
were made to promote the education for their own benefits.
Pair 1 is incorrect: Not much focus was given on the pre-primary education in Macaulay’s Minute.
Under this, the government soon made English as the medium of instruction in its schools and colleges
and opened a few English schools and colleges instead of a large number of elementary schools, thus
neglecting mass education. The British planned to educate a small section of upper and middle classes,
thus creating a class “Indian in blood and colour but English in tastes, in opinions, in morals and in
intellect”. It focused on promotion of European literature and Science in India.
Pair 2 is correct: In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a despatch on an educational system for India.
Considered the “Magna Carta of English Education in India”, this document was the first
comprehensive plan for the spread of education in India. It recommended establishing Universities.
It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at bottom, followed by Anglo-
Vernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities in the
presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras.
Pair 3 is correct: The Hunter Commission mostly confined its recommendations to primary and
secondary education as earlier Commissions had largely neglected that part. When education was
shifted to provinces in 1870, primary and secondary education further suffered because the
provinces already had limited resources at their disposal. In 1882, the government appointed a
commission under the chairmanship of W.W. Hunter to review the progress of education in the country
since the Dispatch of 1854.
Pair 4 is incorrect: Sadler Commission, also known as Calcutta University Commission was appointed
in 1917 after its chairman Michael Sadler. The goal was to investigate the conditions and prospects of
Calcutta University.
Source: A Brief History of Modern India, 2020 Edition Page no. 607-09

Q.78)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Gandhiji's speech at the All-India Congress Committee meeting at Gowalia Tank in Bombay during
Quit India Movement contained specific instructions for different sections of the people.
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the instructions of Mahatma Gandhi, the Government servants would
not yet be asked to resign, but they were asked to declare their allegiance to Congress. Princes were
asked to support the masses and accept sovereignty of their people.
Statement 2 and 3 are correct: Soldiers were also not to leave their posts, but they were to ‘refuse to
fire on our own people. Students were asked to leave studies if they were confident. Peasants were
asked if zamindars are anti-government, and then need to pay mutually agreed rent, and if zamindars
are pro-government, were asked not to pay rent.
Source: A Brief History of Modern India, 2020 Edition Page no. 468

Q.79)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
The Cabinet Mission reached Delhi on March 24, 1946. It had prolonged discussions with Indian leaders
of all parties and groups on the issues of interim government; and principles and procedures for framing
a new constitution giving freedom to India.
Statement 1 is correct: The mission proposed grouping of existing provincial assemblies into three
sections: Section-A: Madras, Bombay, Central Provinces, United Provinces, Bihar, and Orissa (Hindu-

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

majority provinces); Section-B: Punjab, North-West Frontier Province, and Sindh (Muslim-majority
provinces) and Section-C: Bengal and Assam (Muslim-majority provinces).
Statement 2 is correct: As per the Mission, a constituent assembly was to be elected by provincial
assemblies by proportional representation (voting in three groups—General, Muslims, Sikhs). This
constituent assembly would be a 389-member body with provincial assemblies sending 292, chief
commissioner’s provinces sending 4, and princely states sending 93 members.
Statement 3 is correct: The Cabinet Mission proposed that Provinces were to have full autonomy and
residual powers. Also, after the first general elections, a province was to be free to come out of a group
and after 10 years, a province was to be free to call for a reconsideration of the group or the union
constitution. Princely states were no longer to be under paramountcy of the British government. They
would be free to enter into an arrangement with successor governments or the British government.
Source: A Brief History of Modern India, 2020 Edition Page no. 492-93

Q.80)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Shri C V Raju from Etikoppaka village, Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh has been conferred with Padma
Shri for preserving the traditional method of making Etikoppaka toys.
Option a is correct: Etikoppaka toys are traditional toys made by artisans of Etikoppaka village
located on the banks of Varaha River in Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh.
Option b is correct: Etikoppaka toys are made out of wood and are colored with natural dyes derived
from seeds, lacquer, bark, roots and leaves. The artisans mainly use the wood from trees known as
'ankudu' (Wrightia Tinctoria) that is soft in nature.
Option c is incorrect: Etikoppaka toys have no sharp edges. They are rounded on all sides and hence
present little chance of injury to children.

Etikoppaka toys
Option d is correct: Etikoppaka Toys have obtained their GI tag under Handicrafts category in the
state of Andhra Pradesh in 2017.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/padma-award-is-an-honour-
for-the-etikoppaka-toy-craft-says-cv-raju/article66436816.ece
https://vikaspedia.in/aspirational-districts/andhra-pradesh/vishakhapatnam/know-your-
district/etikoppaka-toys

Q.81)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals
to seek Indian support for the war. Stafford Cripps was a left-wing Labourite, the leader of the House
of Commons, and a member of the British War Cabinet who had actively supported the Indian national
movement. The main proposals of the mission were as follows:

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

1) An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up; it would be free to decide its relations
with the Commonwealth and free to participate in the United Nations and other international
bodies.
2) After the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution.
Members of this assembly would be partly elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional
representation and partly nominated by the princes.
3) The British government would accept the new constitution subject to two conditions: (i) any
province not willing to join the Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate
Union, and (ii) the new constitution- making body and the British government would negotiate a
treaty to effect the transfer of power and to safeguard racial and religious minorities.
4) In the meantime, defence of India would remain in British hands and the governor general’s powers
would remain intact.
Cabinet Mission:
1) Rejection of Pakistan
2) Grouping of existing assemblies into three sections A, B, C Three-tier executive and legislature at
province, princely, states and union level
3) Provincial assemblies to elect a constituent assembly Common centre for defence, communications,
external affairs
4) Provinces to have autonomy and residual powers Princely states free to have an arrangement with
the successor government or the British Government
5) In future, a province free to come out of the section or the union
August Offer:
1) Dominion status to be the long-term objective
2) After the war, constituent assembly to be formed comprising mainly Indians
3) Minorities’ consent is essential for any future settlement.
4) Congress rejects the offer
Wavell Plan:
1) An all-Indian executive council except the governor general and commander-in-chief
2) Equal representation for caste Hindus and Muslims
3) Muslim League wanted all Muslims to be its nominees and claimed a communal veto in the executive
council
4) Congress objected to it being painted purely as a caste Hindu party
Source: A Brief History of Modern India, 2020 Edition Page no. 461-62

Q.82)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Jainism and Buddhism were the most dominant reform movements. The primary cause for the rise of
Jainism and Buddhism was the religious unrest in India in the 6th century B.C. The complex rituals
and sacrifices advocated in the Later Vedic period were not acceptable to the common people.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Jainism and Buddhism both do not believe in a creator God. Jainism does not
support belief in a creator deity. Jainism only gives supreme power to ‘Jin’. All the constituents and
actions are governed by universal natural laws. Buddhism also rejected the existence of deity god and
believes in cause-effect relationship to understand the nature. It teaches that everything depends on
everything else: present events are caused by past events and become the cause of future events.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Jainism teachings mainly focuses on complete detachment from the
materialistic world to attain purification and liberation from endless cycle of rebirth. Whereas,
Buddhism follows middle path in attaining liberation. The middle path is the core of Buddha’s teaching
and can be adopted in all walks of life. It essentially implies avoiding extremes.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Both Buddhists and Jain had orders of nuns, Buddhist Pali texts record the
Buddha saying that a woman has the ability to obtain nirvana in the dharma and Vinaya. The Digambar

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

sect of Jainism believes that women must be reborn as men in order to achieve liberation. Women are
capable of spiritual progress but must be reborn as a man in order to attain final spiritual liberation.
The religious texts of the Svetambara mention that liberation is attainable by both men and women.
Source: BBC - Religions - Buddhism: The Buddhist universe
Women in the Jain tradition - Jainpedia
NCERT 11 History- Jainism and Buddhism

Q.83)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Prayag-Prashasti is the name given to the Allahabad Pillar. “Prayag” means a meeting place for
something or someone. Prayag is an ancient name of Allahabad as it is the meeting place or ‘Sangam’ of
rivers Ganga, Yamuna and the mythical Saraswati. It is an Ashokan Stambh but has four different
inscriptions i.e.,
1) The usual Ashokan inscriptions in Brahmi script as in all pillars.
2) The Queen’s edict regaling the charitable deeds of Ashoka’s wife Kaurwaki.
3) Samudra Gupta’s (335 – 375 AD) inscriptions written by Harisena in Sanskrit language and Brahmi
script. It mentions about the conquests of Samudra Gupta and boundaries of the Gupta Empire.
4) Jahangir’s inscriptions in Persian.

Allahabad Pillar
Option a is correct: The famous Allahabad pillar inscription is the most important historical document
of the classical Gupta age. Its detailed list of conquered and allied dynasties and kingdoms. It also
depicts the political structure of the emerging Gupta Empire with its dynastic core area, extended by
annexed neighbouring kingdoms and surrounded by a circle of tributary vassals and by powerful allies
at the periphery the Gupta mandala. It also provides the list of twelve rulers captured by Samudra
Gupta. The inscription is written in excellent Sanskrit and its author was Harisena.
Option b is correct: Allahabad Pillar contains later Persian inscription that traces the ancestry of
Jehangir. It was carved by Mir Abdullah Mushkin Qalam shortly before the accession of Jehangir.
Jehangir’s inscription partly overwrites Ashokan inscriptions. Inscription partly overwrites the older
Ashokan inscriptions. The Allahabad pillar also records the visit of Birbal as part of a pilgrim trip in the
city in the year 1575.
Option c is incorrect: The Hathigumpha Inscription also known as Elephant Cave Inscription from
Udayagiri-Khandagiri Caves in Odisha, were inscribed by King Kharavela during 2nd century BC. The
Hathigumpha Inscription consists of 17 lines in Prakrit language and in Brahmi script. Hathigumpha
Inscription at Udayagiri Caves is the main source of information about Kalinga ruler Kharavela. The
Hathigumpha Inscription is like the history of Kharavela as a king, a conqueror, a patron of culture
and a champion of Jainism

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Option d is correct: Prayag Prashasti inscriptions are engraved in continuous lines around the column
in Brahmi Script and Prakrit language. The column carries Major Pillar Edicts messages one to first six
of Ashoka which is also seen elsewhere in other Ashokan Pillars. These inscriptions describe among
other things about what is Dhamma and various activities undertaken by Ashoka for the propagation
of Dhamma. This pillar also carries two other edicts; the Schism edict and the Queens edict. The schism
edict was aimed to address internal dissensions among the monks and nuns of the Buddhist order.
Source: prj-p394.pdf (pramanaresearch.org)
Nitin Singhania Chapter 1 INDIAN ARCHITECTURE, SCULPTURE AND POTTERY

Q.84)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Bahamani Sultans followed a Feudal type of administration. The Sultan was the ruler of the state,
with complete administrative, legislative, and judicial powers.
Statement 1 is incorrect: In each of these provinces, Tarafdars were appointed as governors with
substantial administrative and military authority. Each taraf was governed by a tarafdar. The salaries
and obligations of each noble were fixed. The salary could be paid in cash or by assigning a jagir. Those
who were paid by means of a jagir were allowed expenses for the collection of land revenue. Tarfdar
gathered income in his province, organized the provincial army, and appointed all of his province's civil
and military authorities.
Statement 2 is correct: For administrative purposes, the kingdom was divided into Atrafs, Sarkars and
Parganas. The provinces were called Atrafs that were further divided into Sarkars. Sarkars were divided
into Parganas. The village was the lowest level of government.
Statement 3 is incorrect: In every province, a tract of land (khalisa) was set apart for the expenses of
the sultan. Efforts were made to measure the land and to fix the amount to be paid by the cultivator to
the state.
Knowledge Base:
Vakil-us-Sultanat was the prime minister, Amir-i-Jumla was the finance minister, and Vazir-i-Asraf was
the foreign minister.
After the Sultan, the chief judicial officer was known as the Sadr-i-Jahar. In addition to being a judge,
he was in charge of the state's religious affairs and philanthropic efforts.
After the Sultan, the army's commander was known as the Amir-ul-umra.
The Sultan had his own bodyguards, known as the Khas-i-Khel.
In addition to cavalry, infantry, and war-elephants, the bahmani kingdom had artillery.
In the army, Shihabuddin Ahmad instituted the Mansabdari system, in which military leaders were
assigned jagirs based on their mansabs or ranks in order to pay for the armies they raised.
Mansabs were frequently assigned to civilian officials in order to raise their pay.
Jagirdars, on the other hand, were compelled to present a revenue and expenditure statement to the
central government.
Kiledars were the commanders in control of forts who were directly accountable to the central
authority.
Source: History of Medieval India by Satish Chandra - Chapter 9 - The Age of Vijayanagara and the
Bahmanids, and the Coming of the Portuguese (Circa 1350–1565).

Q.85)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Recently, the Bombay High Court quashed the write-off of Additional Tier-1 (AT1) bonds worth Rs 8,400
crore issued by Yes Bank Ltd, bringing relief to investors.
Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect: AT1 bonds are unsecured bonds that have
perpetual tenor. In other words, these bonds, issued by banks, have no maturity date. They have a call

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

option, which can be used by the banks to buy these bonds back from investors. But banks are not
obliged to use this call option and can opt to pay only interest on these bonds for eternity.
Statement 3 is correct: AT1 bonds were introduced by the Basel accord after the global financial crisis
to protect depositors. These bonds are typically used by banks to bolster their core or tier-1 capital to
meet the Basel-III norms. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the regulator of AT-1 bonds.
If the RBI feels that a bank is tottering on the brink and needs a rescue, it can simply ask the bank to
cancel its outstanding AT-1 bonds without consulting its investors.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/yes-bank-at1-bonds-
bombay-high-court-8395311/
https://www.outlookindia.com/business/explainer-what-are-at1-bonds-what-investors-must-
know-about-bombay-hc-order-on-yes-bank-at1-bond-case-news-255539

Q.86)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
1) According to the Lord Birkenhead’s challenge, an All-Parties Conference met in February 1928 and
appointed a subcommittee under the chairmanship of Motilal Nehru to draft a constitution. This
was the first major attempt by the Indians to draft a constitutional framework for the country. The
committee included Tej Bahadur Sapru, Subhash Bose, M.S. Aney, Mangal Singh, Ali Imam, Shuab
Qureshi and G.R. Pradhan as its members. The report was finalized by August 1928.
2) The recommendations of the Nehru Committee were unanimous except in one respect, the majority
of members favoured the “dominion status” as the basis of the Constitution, a section of it wanted
“complete independence” as the basis, with the majority section giving the latter section liberty of
action.
The main recommendations of the Nehru Report confined itself to British India, as it envisaged the
future link-up of British India with the princely states on a federal basis. For the dominion it
recommended:
1) Dominion status on lines of self-governing dominions as the form of government desired by Indians
(much to the chagrin of younger, militant section—Nehru being prominent among them).
2) Rejection of separate electorates which had been the basis of constitutional reforms so far; instead,
a demand for joint electorates with reservation of seats for Muslims at the Centre and in provinces
where they were in minority (and not in those where Muslims were in majority, such as Punjab and
Bengal) in proportion to the Muslim population there with right to contest additional seats.
3) Linguistic provinces.
4) Nineteen fundamental rights including equal rights for women, right to form unions, and universal
adult suffrage.
5) Responsible government at the Centre and in provinces
6) Full protection to cultural and religious interests of Muslims.
7) Complete dissociation of State from religion.
Source: Brief history of modern India. Spectrum. Chapter name- Simon Commission and the Nehru
Report. Page no- 361 and 362.

Q.87)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The Home Rule agitation proved to be short-lived. By the year the movement
declined. The reasons for the decline were as follows:
1) There was a lack of effective organisation.
2) Communal riots were witnessed during 1917-18.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

3) The Moderates who had joined the Congress after Annie Besant’s arrest were pacified by talk of
reforms (contained in Montagu’s statement of August 1917 which held self-government as the long-
term goal of the British rule in India) and Besant’s release.
4) Talks of passive resistance by the Extremists kept the Moderates away from activity from
September 1918 onwards.
Statement 2 is correct: Gandhi’s had given the fresh approach of non-violence to the struggle for
freedom was slowly catching the imagination of the people, and the mass movement that was
gathering momentum pushed the home rule movement onto the side lines till it petered out.
Statement 3 is correct: The home rule league movement was left leaderless when tilak had to go
abroad (September 1918) in connection with a libel case against Valentine Chirol whose book, Indian
Unrest, had featured Tilak as responsible for the agitational politics that had developed in India. And
Annie Besant was unable to give a positive lead to the home rule league movement so it declined.
Source: Brief history of modern India. Spectrum. Chapter name- First World War and Nationalist
Response. Page no -298 and 299.

Q.88)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
After the revolt of 1857 the Government of India Act 1858 was passed and the post of the Governor
General of India was replaced by Viceroy of India. Viceroy was directly appointed by the British
Government. Lord Canning was the first viceroy of India.
Important events under some Viceroys:
Pair 1 is correctly matched.
Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi was done under Lord Hardinge.
Lord Hardinge II 1910-1916
1) Creation of Bengal Presidency (like Bombay and Madras) in 1911.
2) Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi (1911).
The British government believed that ruling India from Delhi was easier and more convenient than
from Calcutta. The foundation of Delhi was laid at the Coronation Durbar of 1911 by King George V as
the Capital of British India. Prior to this Calcutta served as the capital. Shifting of the Capital from
Calcutta to Delhi was led by two major factors namely Indian Councils Act of 1909 and the ongoing
crisis caused by the Bengal partition.
3) Establishment of the Hindu Mahasabha (1915) by Madan Mohan Malaviya.
4) Coronation durbar of King George V held in Delhi (1911) etc.
Pair 2 is correctly matched.
Jallianwalla Bagh massacre occurred during the reign of Lord Chelmsford.
Lord Chelmsford 1916-1921
1) Formation of Home Rule Leagues by Annie Besant and Tilak (1916).
2) Lucknow session of the Congress (1916).
3) The Rowlatt Act (1919).
4) Jallianwalla Bagh massacre (1919)
On 13 April 1919, people gathered at Jallianwala Bagh (Amritsar) to protest against the arrest of the
two nationalist leaders, Satya Pal and Dr Saifuddin Kitchlew. British troops open fired on a large
crowd of unarmed Indians.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched
Moplah rebellion in Kerala took place during the reign of Lord Reading, not Lord Minto.
1) Chauri Chaura incident (February 5, 1922) and the
2) subsequent withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement.
3) Moplah rebellion in Kerala (1921).
The Moplah (Malabar) rebellion of 1921 started as a resistance against the British colonial rule in
Malabar region of Kerala.

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Pair 4 is correctly matched

Simon Commission visited India during the reign of Lord Irwin.
Lord Irwin 1926-1931
1) Visit of Simon Commission to India (1928) and the boycott of the commission by the Indians.
2) An All-Parties Conference held at Lucknow (1928) for suggestions for the (future) Constitution of
India, the report of which was called the Nehru Report or the Nehru Constitution.
3) The Indian Statutory Commission also known as Simon Commison’, was a group of seven Members
of Parliament under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon (later, 1st Viscount Simon). The commission
arrived in British India in 1928 to study constitutional reform in India.
4) Appointment of the Harcourt Butler Indian States Commission (1927).
5) Bomb blast in the Assembly Hall of Delhi (1929) etc.
Source: Modern India by Rajiv Ahir, Pages 821-823

Q.89)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The second half of the nineteenth century had seen the strengthening of the hold of the taluqdars or
big landlords over the agrarian society of the province. This had led to a situation in which exorbitant
rents, illegal levies, renewal fees or nazrana, and arbitrary ejectments or bedakhli had made life
miserable for the majority of the cultivators. The high price of food and other necessities that
accompanied and followed World War I made the oppression all the more difficult to bear.
Statement 1 is correct: The more active members of the Home Rule League in U.P. initiated the
process of the organization of the peasants of the province on modem lines into kisan sabhas. The
U.P. Kisan Sabha was set up in February 1918 through the efforts of Gauri Shankar Misra and lndra
Narain Dwivedi, and with the support of Madan Mohan Malaviya.
Meanwhile, the Congress had chosen the path of Non-cooperation and many nationalists of U.P. had
committed themselves to the new political path. But there were others, including Madan Mohan
Malaviya, who preferred to stick to constitutional agitation. These differences were reflected in the U.P.
Kisan Sabha as well, and soon the Non-cooperators set up an alternative Oudh Kisan Sabha at
Pratapgarh in October 1920.
Statement 2 is correct: A marked feature of the Kisan Sabha movement was that kisans belonging to
the high as well as the low castes were to be found in its ranks. In January 1921, however, the nature of
the peasant activity underwent a marked change. The pattern of activity changed to the looting of
bazaars, houses, granaries, and clashes with the police.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Government, however, had little difficulty in suppressing these outbreaks
of violence. The Government, meanwhile, pushed through the Oudh Rent (Amendment) Act, and
though it brought little relief to the tenants, it helped to rouse hopes and in its own way assisted in
the decline of the movement.
Source: Bipin Chandra, 205-207

Q.90)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option a is correct: Recently, the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) simplified the
composition fee for export obligation extension under the advance authorisation scheme.
An Advance Authorisation scheme allows duty-free import of inputs, which have to be mandatorily
used in products that are required to be exported within a specified time. They are not allowed to
sell the products in the domestic market. Advance Authorization is valid for 12 months from the date of
issue of such Authorization. In addition to any inputs, packaging material, fuel, oil, and catalyst which
is consumed / utilized in the process of production of export products, is also allowed. The quantity

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

of inputs allowed for a given product is based on specific norms defined for that export product,
which considers the waste generated in the manufacturing process.
Advance Authorization can be issued either to a manufacturer exporter or merchant exporter tied to
supporting manufacturer(s) for:
1) Physical exports (including exports to SEZ); and / or
2) Intermediate supplies; and /or
3) supply of ‘stores’ on board of foreign going vessel / aircraft subject to condition that there is specific
SION in respect of item(s) supplied.
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/foreign-trade/dgft-simplifies-
composition-fee-for-export-obligation-extension-under-advance-authorisation-
scheme/articleshow/97094374.cms
https://www.dgft.gov.in/CP/?opt=export-management-system

Q.91)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
The Pabna Uprisings were witnessed during the 1870s and 1880s, large parts of Eastern Bengal
witnessed agrarian unrest caused by oppressive practices of the zamindars.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Pabna revolt was against the Zamindars and not against the European
tea planters. The zamindars resorted to enhanced rents beyond legal limits and prevented the tenants
from acquiring occupancy rights under Act X of 1859. To achieve their ends, the zamindars resorted to
forcible evictions, seizure of cattle and crops and prolonged, costly litigation in courts where the poor
peasant found himself at a disadvantage.
Statement 2 is correct: The peasants of Pabna formed an agrarian league or combination to resist the
demands of the zamindars. The agrarian leagues kept within the bounds of the law, used the legal
machinery to fight Zamindars, and raised no anti-British demands.
Statement 3 is incorrect: There was very little violence in Pabna Uprisings. It only occurred when
the zamindars tried to compel the ryots to submit to their terms by force. There were only a few cases
of looting of the houses of the zamindars. A few attacks on police stations took place and the peasants
also resisted attempts to execute court decrees. But such cases were rather rare. Hardly any zamindar
or zamindar‘s agent was killed or seriously injured.
Source: A Brief History of Modern India, 2020 Edition Page no. 611
https://www.govtgirlsekbalpur.com/Study_Materials/History/PAPER1_DSE-A1_SEM-
5_MOD6_Note-3.pdf

Q.92)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Company’s investment or public trade referred to goods purchased with ‘ready money’ and
procured by means of a contract made with dadni merchants (brokers).
Statement 1 is correct. Dadni were the broker merchants employed by East India Company (EIC) to
procure goods on its behalf. The Dadni system was a phase of business management of used by EIC in
Bengal in the 18th century. These dadni-merchants received advances from the company for delivering
goods under stipulated terms. Money was advanced to them so that they could go into the local market
and transfer the advance, if necessary, to the actual manufacturers for delivery of goods according to
a stipulated time and specifications.
Statement 2 is correct. The dadni system was abandoned in 1753 after which dadni merchants were
replaced by gomastas, paid Indian agents of the Company, (and not vice-versa). These agents made
their purchases under the direct supervision of the Company’s European servants.
Source: A History of Modern India, Ishita Banerjee-Dube, Chapter-2, Pg. 43
https://en.banglapedia.org/index.php/Dadni_System

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

Q.93)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Indian society in the nineteenth century was caught in a vicious web created by religious superstitions
and social obscurantism. Hinduism had become steeped in magic and superstition. The priests
exercised an overwhelming and, indeed, unhealthy influence on the minds of the people. Idolatry and
polytheism helped to reinforce their position, and their monopoly of scriptural knowledge imparted a
deceptive character to all religious systems.
Statement 1 is correct. Religious reformation was an important but not the exclusive concern of these
movements. Attention was focussed on worldly existence and not on issues of salvation or other
worldliness. Because of the strong religious element in social practices and the fact that religion was
the dominant ideology of the times, it was not possible to undertake any social action without coming
to grips with it.
Statement 2 is correct. The socio-religious reformers basically appealed to the doctrines of
individualism and equality, and argued, to bolster their appeal, that true religion did not sanction an
inferior status to women. They raised their voice against degrading customs such as polygamy, purdah,
child marriage, restrictions on widow marriage, and worked relentlessly to establish educational
facilities for women, to persuade the government to enact favourable legislations for women and in
general to propagate the uselessness of medieval, feudal attitudes which required to be given up.
Source: Brief History of Modern India Pg no 196

Q.94)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
An All-Parties Conference met in February 1928 and appointed a subcommittee under the chairmanship
of Motilal Nehru to draft a constitution. This was the first major attempt by the Indians to draft a
constitutional framework for the country. The committee included Tej Bahadur Sapru, Subhash Bose,
M.S. Aney, Mangal Singh, Ali Imam, Shuab Qureshi and G.R. Pradhan as its members. The report was
finalized by August 1928.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Conservative Secretary of State for India, Lord Birkenhead, who had
constantly talked of the inability of Indians to formulate a concrete scheme of constitutional reforms
which had the support of wide sections of Indian political opinion, was responsible for the appointment
of the Simon Commission. The Nehru Report was prepared as an answer to Lord Birkenhead’s
challenge.
Statement 2 and 3 are correct. The Nehru Report recommended:
1) Dominion status on lines of self-governing dominions as the form of government desired by
Indians.
2) Rejection of separate electorates which had been the basis of constitutional reforms so far; instead,
a demand for joint electorates with reservation of seats for Muslims at the Centre and in provinces
where they were in minority.
3) Linguistic provinces.
4) Nineteen fundamental rights including equal rights for women, right to form unions, and universal
adult suffrage.
5) Responsible government at the Centre and in provinces.
6) Full protection to cultural and religious interests of Muslims.
7) Complete dissociation of State from religion.
In the course of the deliberations of the All-Parties Conference, the Muslim League dissociated itself
and stuck to its demand for reservation of seats for Muslims, especially in the central legislature and
in Muslim majority provinces. Thus, Motilal Nehru and other leaders drafting the report found
themselves in a dilemma: if the demands of the Muslim communal opinion were accepted, the Hindu

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

communalists would withdraw their support, if the latter were satisfied, the Muslim leaders would get
estranged.
Source: A Brief History of Modern India by Rajiv Ahir – Chapter 18 - Simon Commission and the
Nehru Report – Page – 361 - 363.

Q.95)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
A new study on the Indian Star Tortoise (Geochelone elegans) has found that illegal trade and
unscientific translocations are causing major losses to the species' genetic diversity and habitat.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian star tortoises are found across the Indian subcontinent, more
specifically, in the Central and Southern parts of India, in West Pakistan and in Sri Lanka.
Statement 2 is correct: Indian star tortoises is typically found in dry, open habitats such as scrub
forests, grasslands, and rocky outcroppings.
Statement 3 is incorrect: They are categorized as ‘Vulnerable’ in IUCN Red list. Wild Life Protection
Act 1972: Schedule IV. This list is for species that are not endangered. It includes protected species but
the penalty for any violation is less compared to the Schedules I and II.
Convention on International Trade in Species (CITES): Appendix I
Statement 4 is correct: The species is facing twin challenges of a threat to its habitat at one level and
loss of its genetic diversity at the other. Their highly fragmented habitat of the species is greatly
influenced by an increased level of urbanization and agricultural practices. Due to subsequent
hybridization of these species over the years, Indian star tortoises have lost genetic diversity. Also,
according to the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau, 90% of the trade of Star Tortoise occurs as part of the
international pet market.
Why This Question?
A new study on the Indian Star Tortoise (Geochelone elegans) has found that illegal trade and
unscientific translocations are causing major losses to the species' genetic diversity and habitat.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/indian-star-tortoise-faces-twin-
challenges-of-habitat-loss-and-genetic-diversity-finds-study/article66397486.ece

Q.96)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The first all India Backward Classes Commission was appointed by the
president of India on 29th January which was formally inaugurated on the 18th March 1953. It was
chaired by Kaka Saheb Kalelkar. It prepared a list, containing as many as 2399 communities which
were treated as Socially and Educationally Backward.
Statement 2 is correct. In the early 1970s, a new trend identified as the Dalit Panthers, emerged in
Maharashtra. It was first reflected in creative literature and then in politics. Established as a political
organization in 1972, the Dalit Panthers leaned ideologically on Ambedkar’s thought, and had their base
mainly among youth and students in urban centres. Namdeo Dhasal was one of its leaders. Dalit
Panthers movement initially had militancy and revolutionary attitude.
Source: https://shodhganga.inflibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/34466/7/07_chapter%2002.pdf
https://erenow.net/exams/indiasinceindependence/39.php
https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/67776/1/Unit-9.pdf

Q.97)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
‘Wagon tragedy’ is related to the Moplah rebellion. The Wagon Tragedy victims were taken into
custody in connection with the Malabar rebellion of 1921 against the combination of the British colonial

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

authorities and the exploitative Jenmis. They were transported to Podanur Central Prison, near
Coimbatore, from Tirur, in an almost air-tight railway goods wagon on 19 November 1921.
70 farmers were suffocated to death. This horrific incident came to be called the Jalian Wallabagh of
the South. In 1972, the Kerala Government called it the Wagon Tragedy.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/wagon-tragedy-victims-too-to-go-
out-of-dictionary-of-freedom-struggle/article36120339.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Coimbatore/the-wagon-tragedy-of-
1921/article7904715.ece

Q.98)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Simon Commission was appointed in November 1927 by the British government to report on the
working of the Indian constitution established by the Government of India Act of 1919.
Statement 1 is correct. The constitution of an all-white Simon Commission was detested. The
Commission was boycotted by almost all major political parties including Congress, Muslim League
and liberals of Hindu Mahasabha who thought it took away the right of self-determination of Indians.
There were widespread protests and the youth got involved who then started playing a big role in
subsequent mass movements.
Statement 2 is correct. The appointment of the Simon Commission gave opportunity to young leaders
with Socialist leanings like Jawaharlal Nehru and Subash Chandra Bose to come to the forefront. They
demanded not just constitutional reforms but also socio-economic reforms on socialist lines.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Appointment of the Commission came along with the challenge thrown by
Lord Birkenhead who doubted the ability of Indians to formulate a constitution by consensus. This led
to an All Party Meet which formed a committee under Motilal Nehru (and not under Tej Bahadur
Sapru) to decide the constitutional framework of India. The prospect for Indian unity therefore seemed
bright at the time.
Source: A Brief History of Modern India by Rajiv Ahir; Revised Edition 2020

Q.99)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The idea of introducing railways to India had been mooted as early as the 1830s. In May 1845, the East
India Company's Court of Directors finally and formally approved the project of establishing the
railways in India.
Statement 1 is correct. Further railway development in the country was witnessed in 1844 when the
then the Governor-General of India Lord Hardinge allowed private entrepreneurs to set up rail system
in the country.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The railway construction received “the first decisive stimulus” during
Dalhousie’s administration. When Lord Dalhousie anchored in India in 1847, he recommended the policy
of constructing trunk lines connecting the interior of each of the three Presidencies instead of the
previous policy of constructing experimental lines.
He also recommended that railway construction should be entrusted to private companies “under the
supervision and control of the Government”. He flatly rejected the idea of Government constructing
the railways.
Statement 3 is incorrect. New Guarantee System (NGS) (1882-1900) — was based on a sort of
partnership between the Government and the private railway companies. Under the NGS, the lines
constructed by private railway companies, such as the Bengal Central Railway, the Bengal Nagpur
Railway, the Southern Maratha Railway, etc., were from the beginning the property of the Secretary of
State. But, under the Old Guarantee System (OGS)(1844-69), the State exercised the power to purchase

PTS 2023 | Comprehensive Test 3 - Solutions |

lines from the companies after 25 or 50 years. Railways would become the property of the State after
the expiry of 99-year lease.
Source:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/north/story/india-celebrates-160th-anniversary-of-its-
first-passenger-train-158912-2013-04-16
https://www.historydiscussion.net/history-of-india/history-of-railway-development-in-
india/5974
https://indiancc.mygov.in/wp-content/uploads/2021/09/mygov-10000000001611777574.pdf

Q.100)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Recently, Hindenburg Research has accused the Adani Group of fraud of short selling.
Short selling is a trading strategy where an investor borrows shares of a stock they believe will
decline in value, sells the stock, and then buys the stock back at a lower price to make a profit. In
other words, the investor is "betting against" the stock, as they are making money when the price of the
stock goes down. While fundamentally it is based on the “buy low, sell high” approach, the sequence of
transactions is reversed in short selling — to sell high first and buy low later. Also, in short selling, the
trader usually does not own the securities he sells, but merely borrows them.
1) To engage in short selling, an investor must first find a lender that is willing to lend the shares. The
lender will usually require collateral from the investor to cover any potential losses if the price of
the stock goes up instead of down.
2) If the price of the stock does decline as the investor expects, they can buy the shares back at the
lower price, return the borrowed shares to the lender, and pocket the difference as profit.
Why This Question?
Hindenburg Research has accused the Adani Group of fraud of short seller
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/hindenburg-research-accused-
the-adani-fraud-short-seller-8406285/

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