PRE UNIVERSITY EXAMINATION
DEPARTMENT OF PATHOLOGY
GOVERNMENT MEDICAL COLLEGE, PALI
MBBS 2021 BATCH
PAPER I
(GENERAL PATHOLOGY, HAEMATOLOGY, TRANSFUSION MEDICINE)
Date - 02.01.24Time - 3 Hours Maximum marks - 100
Question paper has Section A and B.
AllQuestions are compulsory to attempt.
Maximum marks of each question are mentioned alongside.
In Question 4 attempt any five out of six given options.
In Question 5 and 7attempt any three out of four given options.
InQuestion 8 attempt any four out offive given options.
SECTION A
Q.1 Fillin the blanks: (6x 1=6)
a. Complementary leukocyte molecule for E-selectin is.
b. Most common inherited form of aplastic anemia is
[Link] Prostaglandin which has a role in vasoconstriction, bronchoconstriction and platelet aggregation
d. Shelf life of packed red cells in SAGM is...
e. Most common myeloproliferative disorder is
Q.2 Answer the following (Multiple Choice Questions) (4x1=4)
a. White infarct is seen in all except
1. Spleen 2. Heart
3. Kidney 4. Intestine
b. Neurofibromatosis is
1. AR 2. AD
3. X-Linked Recessive 4. All
c. CD 95 is a marker of
1. Cellular adaptation 2. Intrinsic Pathway of apoptosis
3. Reversible cell injury 4. Extrinsic Pathway of apoptosis
d. ABO blood system is the most important blood group system because
1. It has four different blood group A,B,AB,0
2. ABO antigens are present in most body tissues and fluids
3. It was the first blood group system to be discovered
4. ABO antibodies are invariably present in plasma in absence of corresponding antigen
e. The peripheral blood smear in megaloblastic anemia shows the following features except
1. Hypersegmented neutrophils 2. Increased reticulocytes
3. Macroovalocytes 4. Cabot ring
Q.3A 60 year old male presents to emergency department with complaints of cough, fever and
breadth. He was also experiencing night sweating, fatigue, weight loss for the past few weeks andshortness of
hemoptysis
Q.3 A 60 year old male presents to emergency department with complaints of cough, fever and shortness of
breadth. He was also experiencing night sweating, fatigue, weight loss for the past few weeks and hemoptysis
since 3 days. On examination he was febrile, respiratory rate 24/min, BP 150/84 mm Hg. Chest XRay shows
triangular consolidation of left upper lobe and small cavitary lesions.(3x5=15)
a. Give your diagnosis.
b. Write briefly about relevant laboratory investigations.
c. Differential diagnosis for this condition.
Q.4Write short notes on (any five) (5x2 = 10)
[Link] briefly on karyotype analysis.
[Link] are cytokines? Describe their role in inflammation.
. Discuss the mechanism of angiogenesis in tumours.
d Write briefly on Down's Syndrome.
e. Describe briefly etiopathogenesis of obesity.
f Sequence of cellular events in acute inflammation.
Q.5 Explain briefly (any three) (3x5 = 15)
aDifferences between arterial and venous thrombosis.
B Differences between metaplasia and dysplasia.
c. Discuss the terms Grading and Staging of tumours.
dDifferences between protooncogenes and tumour suppressor genes.
SECTION B
Q.6 A 65 year old male was brought to emergency room with acute respiratory distress. On examination he had
hypotension, tachycardia and fever of 103°[Link] was admitted in ICU. Next day he started having hematuria and
petechial rashes on skin with a deranged coagulation profile and positive D-Dimer test. (3x5=15)
a. What is your diagnosis
b. Explain the pathogenesis of this condition.
c. Discuss the laboratory findings.
Ø.7. Write short notes on (any three)
(3x5-15)
aDescribe the morphological variants of
B. Discuss hematological findings of [Link]-Stenberg cell.
c/Éxplain the etiopathogenesis of Sickle cellanemia.
Ld. Enumerate and describe the
procedure of component separation in blood banking.
Q8 Explain briefly (any four)
(4x5-20)
aDifferences between acute and chronic
8. Differences between Intravascular and ldiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura.
Extravascular
Differences between Acute lymphoblastic and Acute haemolysis.
KComparison between platelet disorders and coagulationmyelogenous
disorders.
leukemia.
eDifferentiating features of Hodgkin's and Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma,
PRE UNIVERSITY EXAMINATION
DEPARTMENT OF PATHOLOGY
GOVERNMENT MEDICAL COLLEGE, PALI
MBBS 2021 BATCH
PAPERII
(SYSTEMIC PATHOLOGY AND CLINICAL PATHOLoGY)
Date 03.01.24Time -3 Hours Maximum marks - 100
Question paper has Section A and B.
All Questions are compulsory to attempt.
Maximum marks of each question are mentioned alongside.
In Question 4 attempt any five out of six given options.
In Question 5 and 7attempt any three out of fourgiven options.
In Question 8 attempt any four out offive given options.
SECTION A
Q.I Fill in the blanks: (6x 1 =6)
a. Infraclavicular lesion of tuberculosis is known as
b. Orphan Annie Eye Nucleiappearance is characterstic of.
c. Shiller- Duval bodies are seen in.
d .is the most common site for carcinoma associated with chronic tobacco chewing
e. Knudson's two-hit hypothesis is associated with ..
f. Normal specific gravity of urine is
Q.2 Answer the following (Multiple Choice Questions) (4x1=4)
a. Sister Mary Joseph Nodule is seen in association with
1. Stomach Cancer 2. Colon Cancer
3. Ovarian Cancer 4. Pancreatic Cancer
b. Which of the following crystal may be found in acidic urine
[Link] phosphate 2. Calcium Carbonate
3. Calcium Oxalate [Link] phosphate
c. A 10day old infant has high grade fever, nuchal rigidity and photophobia. Alumbar puncture is performed to
obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis. Which of the following is most likely CSF finding
1. Decreased protein, increased glucose 2. Decreased protein, decreased glucose
3. Increased protein, increased glucose 4. Increased protein, decreased glucose
d. A 70- year old retired railroad worker with chronic shortness of breadth with exertion and a non productive
cough with history of pleuralplaques
1. Asbestosis 2. Silicosis
3. Anthracosis [Link]
function. (3x5 =15)
Q.3 A 52 year old diabetic patient presented with gradually deteriorating renal
a. Discuss the etiopathogenesis
b. Discuss the morphological findings in kidney
c. Clinical presentation of the spectrum of renal injury
Q.4 Write short notes on (any five) (5x2 = 10)
a. Morphological findings of Leiomyoma uterus
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Surface epithelial tumours of ovary
d. Thyroid function tests
e. Gross and microscopic findings in Chronic Glomerulonephritis
f. Enumerate the diagnostic criteria for Infective Endocarditis
Q.5 Explain briefly (any three) (3x5 = 15)
a. Differentiate between Obstructive and restrictive lung diseases.
b. Differentiate between benign and malignant ulcers of stomach.
c. Differentiate between transudate and exudate.
d. Differentiate between benign and malignant nephrosclerosis.
SECTION B
Q.6 A 50year old man presented to emergency with history of bouts of hematemesis since last night. His
medical records showed him to be suffering from portal hypertension secondary to alcoholic liver disease with
bleeding esophageal varices. (3x5 = 15)
a. What are the risk factors for alcoholic liver disease.
b. Describe the morphological changes in liver.
c. Write laboratory findings in this condition.
Q.7. Write short notes on (any three) (3x5=15)
a. Enumerate disease conditions associated with variation in urine colour.
c. Enumerate the microscopic findings of routine urine examination.
c. What does it mean to be a family member of sick patient?
d. Differentiate between nevus and malignant melanoma of skin
Q.8 Explain briefly (any four) (4x5-20)
a. Semen Analysis
b. Radiological and histopathological findings of Giant cell tumour of bone.
c. Differentiate between viral, bacterial and tubercular meningitis.
d. Fine needle aspiration cytology.
[Link] between lobar and bronchopneumonia.
Second M.B.B.S. Main Examination, Batch 2021
Microbiology - Paper First Dated 4.1.2024
(General Microbiology, Immunology, Blood stream & CVS, HIC
Miscellaneous Infective syndromes, Zoonotic Diseases)
Attempt all the questions
Use Separate Answer books for both sections
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 100
Section A
Max. Marks 50
Q.1 Fillin the blanks (6x1=6)
(a) The- formulated Koch's postulates.
(b) The- microscope is used to detect viruses in clinical samples.
(c) The continuous cell line is derived from ---cells .
(d) The ------ antigen can activates Tcell directly without being processed by
antigen presenting cells
(e) The type of hypersensitivity reaction in Myasthenia gravis is
(f) The endoscope is sterilized-
Q.2 Answer the following (4x1=4)
a. In Widal test, rise of TO and AH indicates infection with
Å. S. Typhi B. S. Paratyphi A
C. S ParatyphiB . S. Paratyphi C
b. Which of the following statement is true about hapten ?
A. It induces brisk immune response
B. It needs carrier to induce immune response
C. It is a T dependent antigen
D. It has no association with MHC
c. The most common transmission of Brucella is:
A. Direct contact B. Ingestion of raw milk
C. Air borne D. Bite of mosquito
d. The gene coding for the core of HIV is :
A. gag B. pol
C. env D. tat
Q.3 A65 year patient came to emergency department with complain of fever, chills,
mild myalgia and occasional sweating. As a part of routine evaluation, complete
blood count, rapid screening of blood for dengue and PBF examination were
ordered. The peripheral blood smear revealed crescent shaped gametocytes and
multiple ring forms of RBCs (2+6+7=15)
A. What is the etiological agent in the above case.
B. Write pathogenesis and clinicalmanifestation of disease.
[Link] laboratory diagnosis of disease
[Link] short note on - Any five (5x2=10)
(A) Mention the names of two live attenuated and two killed vaccines
(B) Plasma sterilization
(C) Types of opportunistic infection in HIV Patients
(D)Write major functions of T&Bcells in brief
(E) Write differences between handwash and hand rub
(F) Examples of Rodent borne zoonosis
Q.5 Explain briefly (any three) (3x5=15)
1. Morphology of Microfilaria.
2. Describe the NACO strategies for diagnosis of HIV infection
3. Immunoglobulin M
4. Write laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis C.
Section B
Max. Marks 50
Q.6 A28 year old female came to casualty with complaints of high grade fever,
severe joint pain, back pain and myalgia. Gradually she developed petechial
rashes over the body. On examination she have jaundice, hepatomegaly and
piateiet count is 30,000/mi (4+8+8-20)
(a) Whatis your clinical diagnosis and how the disease is transmitted ?
(b) Describe the various clinical manifestations and pathogenesis of disease.
(c) How you will confirm the diagnosis
Q.7 Explain in short, any five (5x2=10)
(a) Laboratory diagnosis of Scrub typhus.
(b) Importance of window period in HIV infection
(c) Drug resistance in Typhoidal Salmonellae.
(d) Differences between viruses and bacteria
(e) Surgical site infection
(f) Respect for patient sample.
Q,8 Explain briefly any four
(4x5=20)
(a) Agglutination Reaction.
(b)Graft versus host reaction.
(c) Cancerimmunotherapy
(d) Hospital Acquired Urinary tract infection
(e) Categories of Biomedical waste
Second M.B.B.S. Main Examination, (Batch 2021)
Microbiology - Paper Second Dated: 5.1.2024
(GIT& Hepatobiliary, Musculoskeletal, Skin &Soft tissue infections
CNS, Respiratory, Genitourinary& Sexually transmitted infections)
Attempt all the questions
Use Separate Answer books for both sections
Time: 3 hours Max, Marks: 100
Section A
Max. Marks: 50
Q.1 Fill in the blanks (6x1=6)
(a) The type of genome in Rota virus is
(b) Bile stained, barrel shaped egg with bipolar mucous plugs is a feature of--------.
(c) Mycetoma like condition caused by certain pyogenic bacteria like Staph. aureus is
known as
(d) The- NTM is photochromogen.
(e ) Aweb based solution for monitoring TB patient is--
() The hepatitis spread by fecal -oral route is
Q.2 Answer the following (4x1=4)
A. Traveller's diarrhoea is caused by
a. ETEC b. EHEC
c. EPEC d. EIEC
B. Which of the following statement is false about Cryptosporidium Species?
a. Developmental stages of parasite occur inside a parasitophorous vacuole.
b. High infective dose
c. Large number of animal reservoirs
d. It causes diarrhoea in AIDS patients
C. Alveolar hydatid disease is caused by:
å. E. granulosus b. E. vogeli
c. E. oligarthus d. E. multilocularis
D. Wool-sorter disease is caused by:
a. B. anthracis b. S. aureus
c. S. pyogenes d. B. cereus
Q.3 Aeight year boy brought to emergency with history of fever, throat pain. O\E
the child was toxic and revealed white membrane over the tonsils which bleed
on touch. The mother of child was not about giving proper information
regarding
vaccination of child.
A. What is the clinical diagnosis in the above case. Name the aetiological agent
causing this condition.
B. What is the key virulence factor, its role and clinical manifestation of disease.
C. Write laboratory diagnosis of disease
(2+6+7=15)
P.T.O
[Link] short note on - Any five (5x2=10)
(A)Pneumococcal vaccine
(B) Clostridioides difficile infection
(C) Scalded skin syndrome
(D) Lepra Reactions
(E) Koplik's spot
(F) Signs of meningism
Q.5 Explain briefly (any three) (3x5=15)
1. Gonococcal ureth ritis
2. Antigenic variation seen in Influenza virus
3. Satellitism
4. Write laboratory diagnosis of Cryptococcal meningitis.
Section B
Max marks: 50
Q.6 A 23 year old male was admitted 5 days after a crushed injury to his right leg
following a road side accident. On examination, the gauze of wound was
contaminated with soil, local muscles found to be crushed. There was oedema
and pain and crepitation was observed on palpation.
(a) What is your clinical diagnosis and List aetiological agents for this condition.
(b) Write the pathogenesis of disease.
(c) Describe (he iaboratory díagnosis in detail.
(4+6+8=20)
Q.7 Explain in short, any five
(a) Importance of Tzanck smear
(5x2=10)
(D) Name the Covid -19 variants currently isolated from the
O) India Ink preparation community.
(d) Name five DNA viruses
(e) MRSA
() P24 antigen.
Q.8 Explain any four
a) Differences between Classical and Eltor vibrio. (4x5=20)
(b) Actinomycetes Infections.
(c) Larva migrans
(d) Rhinosporodiosis
(e) VDRL Test
Pre university exam (January-2024|
Pharmacology |Batch -2021|
Paper-I
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum marks: 100
Instructions:
1. Attempt All the questions fromeach section.
2. Ouestions of related Section should be attempted in that section only.
3. Any questions having parts should be answered as a whole at one place.
4. Answer the question specific and to- the -point.
Section-A
Q.1 Fillin the blanks (6x1 =6 marks)
1. Cytochrome P450 has many and is responsible for the first steps of inactivation of many
drugs by the liver.
2. ....Clinical trials are often used to determine the effective dose to treat a condition.
3. Alcohol and barbiturates have synergistic effect of. .depression
4. is a serotonin blocker (in the CTZ), which can be prescribed to treat nausea from
5
chemotherapy.
.is a benzodiazepine that is commonly used to treat absence seizures, and has off-label use for
schizophrenia, neuralgias, and depression.
6. Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the found in the kidney.
Q.2 Answer the following MCQs (4x1 = 4 marks)
7. Whieh ef thefotewing antiseizure drugs is-else-effeetive intreatig trigeminat neuralgia? Which of
the following is the antidote for the toxiin Benzodiazepines?
a) Flumazenil
b) Methy lene blue
c) Deferoxamine
d) Alkalinize urine.
8. Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Atenolol?
a) CHF
b) Tachycardia
c) AVblock
d) Sedative appearance
9. Lansoprazole is not used in which of the following cases?
a) Gastritis
b) Peptic Ulcers
c) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
d) Thalamus hypertrophy
10. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of
Cinchonism?
a) Valproic acid
b) Quinidine
c) Isoniazid
d) Ethosuximide
Q.4 ClinicalCase
A 35-year-old female patient came to your clinic for evaluation. Her chief (2+3+5+5=15 marks)
headache, Narrow or tubular vision, watery eyes. On examination complaints are severe
some optic disc changes are there. Her Episodes of are more than her Intra ocular tension is raised, and
nausea and vomiting. She is a nonsmoker and non-alcoholic. Her thrice in a month and associated with
Blood test reports are normal.
Page 1 of 2
a. What is the provisional diagnosis.
b. Write down the classical picture of this condition (classify)
C. Write down the management of this patient.
d. What are the drugs to prevent further attacks?
0.5 Write short note on (Any five) (5X2 = 10 marks)
a0, What is Teratogenicity explain with suitable example.
Management of Organophosphate poisoning
X Diference between Depolarising and non-depolarising block
d), Management of Rheumatoid arthritis
Pharmacological basis of use of Adrenalin with Lignocaine for infiltration anaesthesia
f) Classify Drugs for Inflammatory bowel Disease.
Q. 6 Explain why: Pharmacological basis of use of the following (Any three) (3x5 = 15 marks)
at Why 1 generation antihistaminic are preferred over 2nd generation for motion sickness.
b Role of anticholinergics in COPD
c.) Ondansetron is preferred in chemotherapy induced vomiting.
d Role of propranolol in Hyperthyroidism
Section-B
Q:7 Structured essay type question with clinical interpretation (5+5+5+5 = 20 marks)
A patient on the trauma-burn unit receives a drug to case the pain of debridement and dressing changes.
The patient experiences good, prompt analgesia, but despite the absence of pain sensation during the
procedure
her heart rate and blood pressure rise considerably, consistent with the concept that the sympathetic
nervous system was activated by the pain and not affected by the analgesic drug. As the effects of the
drug develop, the patient's skeletal muscle tone progressively increases. The patient appears awake at
times because the eyes periodically open. As drug effects wear off, the patient hallucinates and behaves
in a very agitated fashion.
a) What can be the causative drug and what is this response called as.
b) What are the alternative drugs to manage pain can be given in this situation?
c) Write the step ladder pattern management of pain.
d) What is balanced analgesia?
Q: 8 Write short notes on (Any five) (5x2=10marks)
a) Benzodiazepines as diverse roles in pharmacology
bY Management of Epilepsy in pregnarncy
Drug induced parkinsonism.
/as Nasal decongestants
), Typical versus atypical antipsychotics
D Classify drugs for constipation.
Q:9 Explain briefly Why: (Any four) (4x5= 20 marks)
A),Why Sevoflurane is preferred anaesthesia for children.
Pharmacological basis of use of Lithium in Bipolar disorders
Propranolol is preferred over benzodiazepines for performance anxiety.
a Pharmacological basis of counting Dibucaine number
e) Role of Opioids in Left ventricular failure.
Page 2 of 2
Pre university eyam (January-2024]
Pharmacology (Batch -2021]
Time allowed: 3 hours
Paper-ll Maximum marks: 100
Instructions:
1 Attempt All the questions from each section
2.
Questions of related Section should be attempted in that section only
3. Any questions having parts should be answered as a whole at one place
4 Answer the question specific and to- the -point
Section-A
Q.1 Fillin the blanks (6x1 = 6 marks)
1. Combinations of lipid-lowering drugs are likely to be.....fthey work at different steps in the
same pathway
2.
is considered First line agent for Type 2 Diabetes unless contraindicated.
3. s.....nd are the example of antitumor antibiotics drug?
.is also known as 'Emergency Hormone'.
5. Aside from -is the other principal use of estrogens and progestins.
6.
contraception,
---iS used for treatment of CHF because it increases the contractility of the heart, which is
Sometimes referred to as a positive inotropic effect
Q.2 Answer the following MCQS (4x1= 4 marks)
1. All of the following antiviral drugs are antiretroviral agents, EXCEPT:
a) Acyclovir
b) Zidovudine
c) Zalcitabine
d) Didanosine
2. The group of antibiotics having an antimalarial effect:
a) Aminoglycosides
b) Tetracycline
c) Carbapenems
d) Penicillin
3. These agents must be given parenterally because they are not absorbed when given orally:
a) Osmotic diuretics
b) Loop diuretics
c) Thiazide diuretics
d) Potassium-sparing diuretics
4. Tamoxifen is:
a) Antiprogestin
b) Antiandrogen
c) Antiestrogen
d) Androgen
Q.3 Clinical Case
We have a patient with newly diagnosed essential hypertension, and start them (2+3+5+5=15 marks)
on a commonly used
antihypertensive drug at a dose that is therapeutic for most patients. Soon after starting therapy the
patient experiences crushing chest discomfort. EKG changes show myocardial ischemia. Studies in the
cardiac cath lab show episodes of coronary vasospasm, and it is likely the antihypertensive drug
provoked the vasoconstriction.
Page 1 of 2
What is Essential hypertension?
A Mention the guidelines to start antihypertensive treatment.
3Write
Antihypertensive drugs or drug class most likely caused the ischemia and the angina? and why?
down the treatment of Hypertension.
Q.4Write short note on (Any five) (5x2 = 10 marks)
a Warfarin
by Adverse effects of ACE Inhibitors
c Management of osteoporosis
d) Management of Acute Heart Failure
e Classification of Oral antidiabeticdrugs
Y Desferrioxamine
a.5 Explain why: Pharmacological basis of use of the following (Any three) (3x5 = 15 marks)
a Beta blockers in
b) Digitalis in PSVT hyperthyroidism
cY lvabradine as one of drug for
Angina
Y Raloxifene is preferred over tamoxifen to treat
Postmenopausal Osteoporosis
Section-B
6Structured essay type question with clinical
interpretation aebses= 20 marks)
A 27-year-old woman having Coughing with
hemoptysis since last 4
temperature. He has lost almost 5 to 6 kg weight in a month. His sputum isweeks and evening rise of
positive for acid fast
and cavities on chest X-ray. Diagnose the case and bacilli
of drugs used for this infection. What is the role of
categorize the Disease. Write down the Classification
Corticosteroids in this condition. Write down the side
effects of two important drugs used for this infection.
Q:7Write short notes on (Any five)
MRSA (5x2 = 10 marks)
/bY Cotrimoxazole
cY HPylori treatment
d) Principles of ethics
e HAART
Folate antagonists as anticancer agents
Q8Explain briefly Why: (Any four)
a)
Mazzotti reaction occurs within few hours of giving (4×5 = 20 marks)
Diethylcarbamazine
b Ritonavir is added with other Protease inhibitors in the
c Amphotericin Bis contraindicated in Renal disease treatment of HIV
YArtemisinin based combination therapy is
Patients
not used for prophylaxis of acute atta ck of malaria
e) Chloramphenicol is contraindicated in neonates
Page 2 of 2
