Deck, Operational, Container Vessel
101) Once a ship (equipped with self-stowing auto-tension winches) is moored alongside a
loading or discharging berth, it is recommended that:
A. All winches to be left with the manual brake on and out of gear.
B. The “spring” winches be left in the auto-tension mode and all other winches with the
manual brake on.
C. All mooring winches be left in “auto-tension” mode.
D. The “breastline” and “headline” winches be left in the auto-tension mode and spring
winches with manual brake on.
102) Who can contact the Designated Person with their safety concerns?
A. All crewmembers.
B. The company’s shore staff only.
C. Senior officer only.
D. The Master only.
103) The relieving watchkeeper arrives on the bridge and is not in a fit state to take over the
watch, what should the present watchkeeper do?
A. Not hand over the watch and inform the vessel master.
B. Hand over the watch as normal.
C. Hand over the watch as normal but ask the lookout to keep an eye on the relieving
watchkeeper.
D. Hand over the watch and then go down and tell the vessel master what has
happened.
104) Which fire-fighting equipment is most efficient and with least side effects in case of a
large fire in the engine room?
A. Central gas extinguishing system and/or waterfog.
B. Sprinkler system.
C. Powder extinguishing system.
D. Central foam-extinguishing system.
105) Which of the following two digits codes is used to obtain medical advice?
A. 32.
B. 38.
C. 26.
D. 42.
106) Which of the following two digits codes is used to obtain medical assistance?
A. 38.
B. 32.
C. 26.
D. 42.
107) Which of the following two digits codes is used to obtain maritime assistance?
A. 39.
B. 32.
C. 26.
D. 42.
108) Twist locks are preferred over cone-based lashings systems on container vessels
because:
A. Cone-based lashing systems are more prone to failure than twistlocks.
B. Cargo securing manuals do not allow for cone-based lashing systems.
C. Cone-based lashing systems are not type-approved by classification societies.
D. Twistlocks provide uplift resistance as well as horizontal restraint, helping to prevent
containers from falling overboard in heavy weather.
109) You wish to carry out a test transmission on your radio equipment. What precautions
should be taken if any?
A. All of the items in the other alternatives should be done.
B. Listen out to ensure that no safety/distress traffic is in progress.
C. Test transmission should be kept to a minimum.
D. Test transmission should be carried out on artificial aerials and/or reduced power.
110) Which option correctly completes the following statement? A position filter on a
navigational receiver or ECDIS system, protects the ECDIS from:
A. Showing a fluctuating position of the vessel.
B. Operating under conditions that are extreme e. g. cyclones.
C. Airborne dust in sandy areas of the world.
D. Incorrectly set up ECDIS system software.
111) What quantity of reserve fuel is to be available for diesel driven fire pumps outside of
the main machinery space? (SOLAS II-2/4.3.3.2.4).
A. Sufficient amount of 15 hours operation at full capacity.
B. Sufficient amount of 6 hours operation at full capacity.
C. 20 litres.
D. 40 litres.
112) After 2006, the IMDG Code labels for Class 5.2 (Organic Peroxides) are assigned
colours:
A. Yellow and red.
B. Yellow and purple.
C. Yellow and green.
D. Green and red.
113) The limitations of a Cargo Securing Manual of a container vessel may include the fact
that:
A. They are drafted whilst the ship is still under construction and need to be checked
against the ship’s “as completed” condition in order to be fully reliable.
B. Some Cargo Securing Manuals cover a full range of sister ships.
C. Cargo securing arrangements in the manuals may be unsuitable for heavy weather
conditions.
D. They are not always approved by a classification society.
114) What is the period of validity of the Safety Management Certificate?
A. 5 years.
B. 2 years.
C. 1 year.
D. 6 months.
115) What are the ideal conditions required to satisfactorily conduct an Inclining Experiment?
A. All of the suggested answers.
B. All derricks lowered and no moving items on deck and in store rooms.
C. Minimum ballast and bunkers on board and all tanks pressed up.
D. Moorings slack, head wind, minimum people on board.
116) Which among the following list is particularly required for a totally enclosed lifeboat?
A. Windows on both sides can be closed watertight and opened for ventilation.
B. Self-bailing arrangements.
C. Handrails inside for persons moving to their seats.
D. Hatches positioned so as to allow launching and recovery operations to be performed
without any occupant having to leave the enclosure.
117) What actions should the Officer of the Watch take when the ship’s steering gear fails?
A. All of the suggested answers.
B. Request the engine room to check the steering gear.
C. Call the Master and advise him of the situation.
D. Display the NUC signal and consider stopping the engines.
118) When forces on a container stow are being calculated, the motion that is not accounted
for is:
A. Surging.
B. Rolling.
C. Pitching.
D. Heaving.
119) Which muscle is the most persevering one in the body?
A. The heart.
B. The liver.
C. The lungs.
D. None of the mentioned.
120) Is the location of a vessel’s standard compass binnacle critical?
A. Yes, for the reasons stated in all of the suggested answers.
B. Yes, it should be on the fore and aft centreline of the ship.
C. Yes, it should be sited on a non-metallic base if possible.
D. Yes, it should be away from major electrical power cables.
121) How often must inspection of proper working of the EPIRB’s and SART’s take place on
board? Once per:
A. Month.
B. Week.
C. Every day.
D. 14 days.
122) What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an oil-spill on the water?
A. The chemicals make it difficult to remove the oil from the water.
B. It is difficult to apply the chemicals if the oil drifts away from the ship’s side.
C. It is difficult to apply chemicals if there is any wind.
D. The water gets a white colour, which makes it easy to detect the oil-spill.
123) What could be the reason for the magnetic compass to swing through large angles
when the ship is rolling in a seaway?
A. The heeling error magnets are upside down and/or not in the correct position.
B. The error due to deviation is large for that ships heading.
C. The Coefficient B determined by the Compass Corrector at the last dry-dock was not
correctly calculated.
D. The induced magnetism from the earth’s magnetic field is very strong in that area.
124) Onboard the following message is received on the DSC controller: DOO: 245329000
CH16; S distress ack 244123000. What station sent the distress acknowledgement?
A. 245329000.
B. 244123000.
C. 002453290.
D. None of the given.
125) What sound signal can be made when nearing a bend in a river, with the view around
the bend obscured by an intervening obstruction?
A. Two prolonged blasts.
B. Two short blasts.
C. One prolonged blast.
D. One short blast.
126) One can check the functioning of the SART by:
A. Activating the SART and checking the effect on the radar screen.
B. Removing it from the holder and turning the SART upside down.
C. Activating it by extracting the antenna.
D. Lowering SART in to the sea.
127) What is the meaning of this symbol?
A. Line-throwing appliance.
B. Survival craft pyrotechnic distress signals.
C. Rocket parachute flares.
D. Radar transponder.
128) Give the meaning of the following symbol:
A. Release gripes.
B. Davit launched lifeboat.
C. Davit launched rescue boat.
D. Release falls.
129) Give the meaning of the following symbol:
A. Secure hatches.
B. Close rescue boat ventilation aperture.
C. Open hatches.
D. Secure doors in the ship’s side plating.
130) Give the meaning of the following symbol:
A. EPIRB.
B. Rocket parachute flare.
C. Survival craft portable radio.
D. Survival craft distress pyrotechnic signals.
131) What is the meaning of this symbol?
A. Lifejacket.
B. Child’s lifejacket.
C. Lifebuoy.
D. Immersion suit.
132) Identify this symbol:
A. Emergency generator.
B. Inert gas installation.
C. Escape gate.
D. Fire glass door.
133) A hand flare must have a burning period of at least:
A. 1 min.
B. 30 sec.
C. 10 min.
D. 5 min.
134) What is “UNDER KEEL CLEARANCE”, in the figure?
A. Under Keel Clearance is indicated by C, in the figure.
B. Under Keel Clearance is indicated by A, in the figure.
C. Under Keel Clearance is indicated by B, in the figure.
D. Under Keel Clearance is indicated by D, in the figure.
135) The Officer in charge of the bridge watch, is often referred to as the OOW. What does
OOW actually stand for?
A. Officer of the Watch.
B. On official watch.
C. Operator of the watch.
D. On official watchkeeping.
136) Warning signs that require a specific mandatory action e. g. wearing of a safety
harness during a particular work task, must have their background colour as:
A. Blue.
B. Green.
C. Red.
D. Yellow.
137) Declaring a dangerous cargo as Class 3 (Sub risk Class 6) would indicate that:
A. The main hazard is flammability and the secondary hazard toxicity.
B. The secondary hazards are flammability and toxicity.
C. The main hazard is toxicity and the secondary hazard flammability.
D. The main hazards are flammability and toxicity.
138) When steel reinforcing rods are loaded in open-top containers, claims against the
vessel would most likely arise due to:
A. Cargo staining by rust, hydraulic oil or grease.
B. Physical damages to the cargo.
C. Cargo being loaded less than the full height of the container.
D. Container damages.
139) What facility exists under the ISM Code for the provision of individual control measures
for specific work-related tasks?
A. The Permit to Work system.
B. The definition of supervisory responsibilities.
C. The due diligence clause.
D. The documentation of individual job descriptions.
140) In the Beaufort Scale of Wind Force, what is the Beaufort number associated with the
wind force known as a “Gale”? This should not be confused with a “Near Gale” or “Strong
Gale”?
A. Eight (8).
B. Nine (9).
C. Seven (7).
D. Ten (10).
141) What sound signal shall be used on ship’s whistle when there is a man overboard?
A. 3 long blasts repeatedly.
B. 6 long blasts repeatedly.
C. 5 long blasts repeatedly.
D. 4 long blasts repeatedly.
142) The main movements experienced by a container ship, which will create the largest
forces exerted on the container frames and lashings, are:
A. Rolling, Pitching and Heaving.
B. Rolling, Swaying and Yawing.
C. Surging, Yawing and Rolling.
D. Rolling, Heaving and Swaying.
143) What is the ideal humidity in a working environment?
A. 40-60 %.
B. 10-30 %.
C. 103-119 %.
D. 70-85 %.
144) Of what use to the coastal navigator is a predictive vector seen on the chart display of
an ECDIS?
A. It is used to assess the relative approach of target vessels.
B. To protect the vessel from grounding.
C. To see how the vessel can be stopped in an emergency.
D. It is used to assess an anti-collision manoeuvre.
145) The accuracy of an Inmarsat-E positioning-system is:
A. 200 meters.
B. 20 meters.
C. 5 miles.
D. 20 miles.
146) When passage planning with ECDIS what level of detail should be displayed?
A. It is best to set “All” level of detail to assist with planning.
B. A “Standard” display is acceptable as this is required by IMO.
C. A “Base” display is acceptable as all chart objects are visible.
D. If the chart compilation scale is set correctly then all detail will be seen.
147) You are starting to get low on water in the lifeboat. What should you do?
A. Collect rain water.
B. Mix sea water with 50 % fresh water.
C. Drink urine.
D. Use sea water.
148) How can an azimuth or bearing be indicated by signal flags?
A. The letter A + three numerals.
B. The letter N + three numerals.
C. The letter B + three numerals.
D. The letter A + three numerals + the letter R or T.
149) A satellite receives the transmissions of the 406 MHz Cospas-Sarsat EPIRB. The
transmissions of the EPIRB will be:
A. Always passed on to a LUT.
B. Exclusively passed on to a LUT if the satellite sees both the EPIRB and the LUT.
C. Exclusively passed on to a LUT only between 70° N and 70° S.
D. Passed when the satellite in passing the equator.
150) A ship moving through heavy seas is affected by the water pressure at the bows
causing an effect known as “Panting”. What structure in the forward region of the ship
combats the effects of Panting?
A. Panting beams and stringers.
B. Double bottom tanks and floors.
C. Centreline bulkhead.
D. Collision bulkhead and deck.
151) Which of these actions should crew take if a suspicious object that may be a bomb is
located during a search?
A. Confirm with their search partner that the object found is suspicious.
B. Place the object in a desk drawer or file cabinet.
C. Throw the object overboard.
D. Cover the suspicious object with a box or blanket.
152) Operator connected R/T calls are charged:
A. On the basis of a three minute minimum charge with one minute incremental steps.
B. On the basis of a six second minimum charge with one second incremental steps.
C. On the basis of a six second minimum charge with six second incremental steps.
D. On the basis of a one minute minimum charge with one minute incremental steps.
153) With a relative motion radar display, what would an echo of a target with no trail
indicate? Note that this is a target trail, not a vector?
A. The target is on the same course and speed as own ship.
B. The target is on a constant bearing and getting closer to own ship.
C. The target is on a collision course with own ship.
D. The target is stopped and making no way through the water.
154) What would be understood by the message “A yacht has capsized in heavy seas”?
A. The message means the yacht has been overturned in heavy seas.
B. The message means the vessel is taking in water.
C. The message means the vessel is experiencing heavy seas and may need
assistance.
D. The message means the yacht has lost its Captain in heavy seas.
155) On a Container vessel, with regard to the IMDG Code what do Calcium Oxide (UN No.
1910), Magnetized Material (UN No. 2807), Sodium Aluminate (UN No. 2812) and Battery
Powered Equipment (UN No. 3171) have in common?
A. They are not subject to the provisions of the IMDG Code but may be subject to
provisions governing the transport of dangerous goods by other modes.
B. Required to be shipped in open top containers, due to their special characteristics.
C. Listed as Corrosive Substances – IMDG Class 8.
D. Not listed in the IMDG Code.
156) “RECEIVED MAYDAY” is used in a:
A. Receipt of a distress alert.
B. When received a weather report.
C. Supplementary receipt on a distress alert.
D. Distress alert.
157) When you join a new ship, how are you informed about safety rules, alarm instructions
and your own duties in case of an emergency?
A. By muster lists exhibited in conspicuous places.
B. By alarm instructions in all crew cabins.
C. By oral instructions by the Captain.
D. By folder distributed to each crewmember.
158) What is the weather associated with being in the centre of an Anticyclone (a region of
High Pressure)?
A. Light winds and fair weather, sometimes fog.
B. Strong winds but with very little rain.
C. Persistent rain and very humid weather.
D. Strong winds and heavy rain.
159) What are class “C” bulkheads?
A. Bulkheads constructed of approved non-combustible materials but do not meet any
of the requirements relative to smoke and flame nor limitations relative to
temperature rise.
B. Bulkheads constructed of approved non-combustible materials that can withstand the
standard fire test for 45 minutes.
C. Bulkheads constructed of approved non-combustible materials that can withstand the
standard fire test for 15 minutes.
D. Bulkheads constructed of approved non-combustible materials that can withstand the
standard fire test for 30 minutes.
160) Is it safe to carry a bag of tools in your hand, up a vertical ladder? Select the best
option:
A. No it is not – two hands should always be used to climb the ladder.
B. Yes it is – provided three points of contact are maintained.
C. Yes it is – provided the ship is not rolling too badly.
D. Yes it is – provided that the carrying hand is wrapped around the ladder.
161) The relay of a distress-call by an RCC for coast-station begins with:
A. MAYDAY RELAY (3x).
B. PAN-PAN (3x).
C. MAYDAY (3x).
D. DISTRESS (3x).
162) Which of the following is a Accounting Authority Identification Code?
A. FR01.
B. 227990850.
C. 2 187,5.
D. F1B.
163) The proper operation of an Inmarsat-C terminal can be tested by:
A. Doing a “link test”.
B. Sending a message to MF DSC.
C. Doing a “recommissioning test”.
D. Requesting a “self test”.
164) What are the main advantages to the Navstar, Glonas and Galileo satellite navigation
systems?
A. These satellite systems give world-wide coverage 24 hours a day.
B. They are all made specifically for ships and marine operations.
C. If a vessel uses any one of them, there is no need to practice other forms of
navigation.
D. Satellite navigation systems also give information about weather and wave
conditions.
165) Why shall a duly qualified officer supervise any potential polluting operation?
A. To avoid pollution.
B. To relieve the master.
C. To inform the authorities.
D. To restrict pollution.
166) During carriage in containers, if cashew nut shell liquid has been noted to spill out, the
ships staff should:
A. Avoid skin contact and inhalation of toxic fumes.
B. Approach the container wearing a chemical protection suit.
C. Cool the container with water spray from as far away as possible.
D. Clean up the spillage wearing rubber boots and safety gloves.
167) EGC is short for:
A. Enhanced Group Call.
B. Emergency General Ship Call.
C. Exchange Geographic Call.
D. Exchange Group Call.
168) Which option correctly identifies the meaning of the abbreviation ZOC, in relation to
ECDIS?
A. Zone of Confidence.
B. Zone of Confusion.
C. Zone of Communications.
D. Zero on Carbon.
169) What name is given to the inspection and measurements at the end of a bulk carrier’s
loading operation, that determines the weight of cargo lifted based on the observed
draughts, any list, hog or sag, the dock water density and the calculation of ballast and
consumables on the vessel?
A. Draught Survey.
B. Load Survey.
C. Port Measurement.
D. Departure Survey.
170) A rocket parachute flare reaches an altitude of:
A. Not less than 180 m.
B. Not less than 450 m.
C. Not less than 300 m.
D. Not less than 40 m.
171) Which equipment will detect a signal from a SART transponder?
A. X band radar.
B. Radio Direction Finder.
C. S band radar.
D. DSC receiver.
172) The ship is navigating in dense fog where the visibility is less than one mile. The Arpa
radar is set on a range 12 miles on a course of 314° and own ship has a vector as shown.
What is the vector mode selected on the Arpa?
A. True vectors.
B. Relative vectors.
C. Relative vectors, sea stabilised.
D. Relative vectors, ground stabilised.
173) When should operational checks on navigation equipment be done?
A. When preparing for sea and entering port and at regular intervals during the voyage.
B. When there is an opportunity and time allows.
C. When there is any sucpicion of a fault with the equipment.
D. As often as possible.
174) Inmarsat Telex Service code “31” can be used:
A. To ask for maritime inquiries.
B. To ask for medical assistance.
C. When technical problems are experienced with the Inmarsat terminal.
D. When the coast-station is disfunctional.
175) When a fire breaks out in the engine room, who is in charge of the fire-fighting
operations?
A. The Chief Engineer.
B. The Captain.
C. The engineer on duty.
D. The first person to arrive at the scene.
176) Which type of call will be sent by a ship adrift and needing the assistance of a tug? The
weather is not bad and the ship will be aground 24 hours later.
A. Urgent call.
B. Distress relay call.
C. Safety call.
D. Distress call.
177) What is “FREEBOARD”, in the figure?
A. Freeboard is indicated by B, in the figure.
B. Freeboard is indicated by A, in the figure.
C. Freeboard is indicated by C, in the figure.
D. Freeboard is indicated by D, in the figure.
178) A cargo of explosives carried in containers needs maximum protection against:
A. Lightning strikes.
B. Toxic gases.
C. Corrosives.
D. Other explosives in the vicinity.
179) What is the main theme of modern safety practice?
A. Making use of Risk Assessment as a means to improving safety.
B. Health & Safety at Work Act.
C. Consult the chief officer before commencing work.
D. Use the same practice that has been in place for some time.
180) How can an approximate value of the initial transverse Metacentric Height (GM) be
found from the Curve of Statical Stability (GZ curve)?
A. Drawing a tangent to the curve thought the origin and erecting a perpendicular
through the angle of heel of 57,3 degrees.
B. Drawing a tangent from the highest point of the curve to the X axis and measuring it
in metres.
C. The value in metres from the X of the point where the curve changes from concave to
convex shape.
D. It is impossible to establish the GM value from the curve of righting levers (GM).
181) How can an approximate value of the initial transverse Metacentric Height (GM) be
found from the Curve of Statical Stability (GZ curve)?
A. Drawing a tangent to the curve thought the origin and erecting a perpendicular
through the angle of heel of 57,3 degrees.
B. Drawing a tangent from the highest point of the curve to the X axis and measuring it
in metres.
C. The value in metres from the X of the point where the curve changes from concave to
convex shape.
D. It is impossible to establish the GM value from the curve of righting levers (GM).
182) What can be a cause of error observed on a gyro compass reading?
A. Fluctuations in the magnetism around the compass.
B. Incorrectly set latitude and speed values.
C. Incorrectly set heading and speed values.
D. Large values of variation caused by the gyro pole.
183)You wish to send a DSC-message because of a m. o. b. situation and assistance by
other ships is required. You have to choose the category:
A. Distress.
B. Urgency.
C. Individual.
D. Safety.
184) What are the required data inputs into most gyro compasses to reduce any possible
compass error?
A. Latitude and Speed.
B. All of the data in the suggested answers.
C. Maximum helm angle and rolling period.
D. Deviation and Variation.
185) Under ISM, what is a “non-conformity”?
A. An observed situation where objective evidence indicates the non-fulfilment of a
specified requirement.
B. Official log book entries not being completed correctly.
C. The wearing of non-standard Personal protective equipment.
D. A safety officer not being nominated for the vessel.
186) If a distress signal is received on board your ship, what should be the first action that
should be taken?
A. Attempt to establish contact with the distressed vessel.
B. Contact SAR Authorities via nearest coastal Radio station.
C. Determine how close your vessel is to the distressed vessel.
D. Determine if anyone else has heard the distress signal and if your vessel is near the
distress.
187) If a DSC distress alert is received on board your ship, what is the first action that should
be taken?
A. Listen for a distress message on the appropriate radio frequency for 5 minutes.
B. Contact SAR Authorities via nearest coast Radio station.
C. Determine how close your vessel is to the distressed vessel.
D. Immediately answer the distress message on the correct radio frequency.
188) If a twist lock is found cracked at the base, it should be:
A. Removed from service.
B. Use only in the lowest tier on deck.
C. Repaired on board and put back into service.
D. Use only to lock under-deck container stows.
189) The fire integrity of any bulkhead shall be maintained:
A. At the openings and penetrations.
B. Up to 5 meters above the deck level.
C. Up to 5 meters below the deck level.
D. Only at the continuous/solid part of the bulkhead.
190) “Parametric Rollin” on a container ship results in:
A. The sudden unexpected occurrence of large rolling angles in beam seas.
B. The gradual build up of rolling angle in a head sea.
C. The unexpected roll to a large angle of heel due to a beam sea.
D. A large unstable roll motion suddenly occurring in head or stern seas.
191) How is the activation of any detector or manually operated call point of fixed fire-
detection and fire-alarm systems to be indicated? (SOLAS II-2/13.1.4).
A. By visual and audible signal at the control panel and indicating units.
B. By alarm signals at the bridge and engine room control panels.
C. By sounding the ship’s fire alarm signal in crew accommodation and service spaces.
D. By all the indication methods listed.
192) Where is the theoretical position of the hydrodynamic pivot point located on a vessel
proceeding ahead with a small turn rate?
A. At about 1/3 of the vessel’s length from the stern.
B. At about 1/3 of the vessel’s length from the bow.
C. At a position near the stern of the vessel.
D. At amidships.
193) When steel reinforcing rods are loaded in open-top containers, claims against the
vessel would most likely arise due to:
A. Cargo staining by rust, hydraulic oil or grease.
B. Cargo being loaded less than the full height of the container.
C. Physical damages to the cargo.
D. Container damages.
194) The receipt of a distress alert is to be pronounced as followed:
A. Mayday (1x), call-sign of ship in distress (3x) / this is / own call-sign (3x) / received
mayday.
B. Mayday (3x) / this is / own call-sign (1x) / received mayday / call-sign of ship in
distress (1x).
C. Mayday (1x) / this is / own call-sign (3x) received mayday.
D. Mayday (1x) / distress alert / own ship call sign.
195) That the 406 MHz Cospas-Sarsat EPIRB is in proper working order can be tested with:
A. The testing function of the device.
B. Regulation monthly test transmissions from RCC’s.
C. Test transmissions from Cospas-Sarsat satellites.
D. Requesting RCC for the test.
196) Notification logging procedures (OPA-90):
A. Every report or message must be logged including time and date.
B. Only verbal reports for documentation.
C. Only communication with USCG.
D. Only initial reports to be logged.
197) At what minimum height above sea level a SART transponder must be mounted?
A. 1 metre.
B. 2 metres.
C. 0,5 metre.
D. The good working of a SART transponder doesn’t depend on the height above sea
level.
198) It is considered essential that container ships should have a large ballast capacity and
high powered ballast pumps, because:
A. These are required for trimming the ships and offsetting longitudinal bending
moments.
B. These are required to load ballast during discharge.
C. These are necessary to keep the vessel upright during the loaded passage.
D. These are essential to retain the vessel within the International loadline
requirements.
199) If your vessel is fitted with wires on self-stowing “split drum” winches, the advantage of
having these split drum winches is:
A. All the listed alternatives.
B. Increased brake holding capacity due to the ability to keep the paid out wire in a
single layer on the drum.
C. Less chance of the wire being jammed in the reel.
D. No crushing of the wire.
200) Shock is a manifestation of changes in which the circulation fails because either
pressure or volume of circulating blood has fallen to a dangerous level. What is the skin
colour of a pasient in shock?
A. Pale or grey.
B. Green or purple.
C. Dark blue.
D. Light blue.
