1

PHYSICS HSSC-II
EXAM-ORIENTED OBJECTIVE
NOTES
According to the New SLOs Based Scheme of Studies

SLO’s BASED OBJECTIVE NOTES

 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
 SHORT QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS
 MODEL QUESTION PAPERS WITH
SOLUTIONS (FBISE SLO BASED)
 BOARD PAPER

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 ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
All praise to Almighty Allah who has blessed us with knowledge, courage, and strength to
work for the betterment of students in the subject of Chemistry.
We are highly thankful to the teachers, in particular, to whom we owe the concept of the
subject. We would like to thank all of my colleagues, and well-wishers who inspired and
particularly helped me to complete this prestigious work.
We are especially thankful to the CEO of roots international school and colleges Mr. Waleed
Mushtaq for providing invaluable economic assistance without which the completion of this
book would have been a dream.

Nationwide SSC & HSSC Coordinator Qualification Manager

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 Contents
Chapter No Chapter Name

11 Electrostatics

12 Current Electricity

13 Electromagnetism

14 Electromagnetic Induction

15 A.C Circuit

16 Physics of Solids

17 Electronics

18 Dawn of Modern Physics

19 Atomic Spectra

20 Nuclear Physics

4
 CHAPTER
Electrostatics
11
MCQ’S
Circle the correct option i.e. A / B / C / D. Each part carries one mark.

1. Coulomb’s law is only applicable for:

A. Big charges B. Small charges
C. Point charges D. Any charges

2. The force exerted by two charged bodies on one another, obeys Coulomb’s law
provided that:
A. The charges are not too small B. The charges are in vacuum
C. The charges are not too large D. The linear dimension of charges is
much smaller than distance
between them

3. 3. The constant K in Coulomb’s Law depends upon

A. Nature of medium B. System of units
C. Intensity of charge D. Both a & b

4. 4. A unit if elelctric charge is:

A. Volt B. Henry
C. Coulomb D. Weber

5. 5. Presence of dielectric always:

A. Increases the electrostatic force B. Decreases the electrostatic force
C. Does not effect the electrostatic D. Doubles the electrostatic force
force

6. 6. The S.I unit of permitivity is:

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 A. a) 𝑁𝑚2/𝐶2 B. 𝐶2/𝑁𝑚2
C. 𝑁𝑚/ 𝐶2 D. 𝑁𝑚2/𝐶

7. The lines which provide information about the electric force exerted on charged
particles are:
A. Magnetic field lines B. Electric field lines
C. Tangent lines D. Curved lines

8. 8. The electric field created by positive charge is:

A. Radially outward B. Zero
C. Circular D. Radially inward

9. The value of relative permitivity for all the dielectrics is always:

A. Less than unity B. Greater than unity
C. Equal to unity D. Zero

10. Photo-copier and inkjet printers are the applications of:

A. Electronics B. Magnetism
C. Electrostatics D. Thermodynamics

11. Selenium is a conductor material when exposed to ________

A. Light B. Dark
C. Mono chromatic light D. None of these

12. Selenium is an:

A. Insulator B. Conductor
C. Semiconductor D. Photoconductor

13. In an inkjet printer, the charged ink drops are diverted by the deflection plates:
A. Towards the charging electrodes B. Towards the gutter
C. Towards a blank paper on which the D. In inkjet printer ink cannot be
print is to be taken charged

14. The electric field produced due to negative charge is always:

A. Radially outward B. Radially inward
C. Circular D. Zero

15. The force experience by a unit positive charge placed at a point in an electric field is

6
 called:
A. Coulomb’s force B. Faraday’s force
C. Lorentz’s force D. Electric field intensity

16. Of the following quantities, the one that is vector in character is an:
A. Electric Charge B. Electric Field Intensity
C. Electric Energy D. Electric Potential Difference

17. Electric field intensity is also known as:

A. Electric potential B. Electric flux
C. Potential gradient D. None

18. The SI unit of E are:

A. 𝑛𝑒𝑤𝑡𝑜𝑛/ 𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 B. 𝑛𝑒𝑤𝑡𝑜𝑛 /𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑜𝑚𝑏
C. 𝑛𝑒𝑤𝑡𝑜𝑛 /𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒 D. 𝑛𝑒𝑤𝑡𝑜𝑛 × 𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟

19. The electric intensity is expressed in unit of N/C or:

A. Volts B. Walt
C. Joules D. V/m

20. Potential gradient is defined as:

A. ∆𝐸/ ∆𝑉 B. − ∆𝐸 /∆𝑉
C. ∆𝑟/ ∆𝑉 D. − ∆𝑉/ ∆𝑟

21. The unit 𝑉𝑚−1 is equivalent to:

A. 𝑁𝐶−1 B. 𝑁𝐶
C. 𝑁𝐶 𝑚−1 D. 𝑁𝑚𝐶−1

22. Electric flux is defined as:

A. 𝜙 = 𝐀. 𝐁 B. 𝜙=𝐄×𝐀
C. 𝜙 = 𝐄. 𝐀 D. 𝜙 = 𝐄/A

23. When vector area is held perpendicular to the field lines, then the magnitude of electric
flux is:
A. Negative B. Maximum
C. Minimum D. Zero

24. When vector area is held parallel to electric field lines, the magnitude of electric flux is:

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 A. Maximum B. Minimum
C. Either maximum or minimum D. Negative

25. The SI unit of electric flux is:

A. 𝑁𝑚𝐶−¹ B. 𝑁𝑚²𝐶−1
C. 𝑁𝑚𝐶−² D. 𝑁𝑚2𝐶−²

26. The magnitude of the electric field inside oppositely charged plates, having
uniform surface charge density 𝜎, is:
A. 𝜎 /𝜀0 B. 𝜎 /2𝜀0
C. 𝑞 /𝜀0𝑟 D. 𝜎 /2𝜀0𝑟

27. The electric intensity near an infinite plate of positive charge will be:
A. 𝑞/ 𝜀0 B. 𝜎 /2𝜀0
C. 𝑞 /𝐴 D. 𝜎 /𝜀0

28. If a charged body is moved against the electric field, it will gain:
A. Potential energy B. Kinetic energy
C. Mechanical energy D. None of these

29. One volt is

A. One joule per coulomb B. One dyne per coulomb
C. One Newton per coulomb D. One watt per second

30. Absolute potential difference, due of point charge of 1C at a distance of 1m is

given by:
A. 9 × 10¯6 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠 B. 9 × 10¯7 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠
C. 9 × 10¯8 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠 D. 9 × 10¯9 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠

31 A charge of 0.01 C accelerated through a p.d of 1000 V acquires K.E:

A. 10 J B. 100 J
C. 200 J D. 400 eV

32 1 joule =__________
A. 6.25 × 10¯18 𝑒𝑉 B. 6.25 × 10−18 𝑒𝑉
C. 1.6 × 10−19 𝑒𝑉 D. 9.1 × 10−31 𝑒𝑉

33 One electron volt is equal to:

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 A. 6.25 × 1018 𝐽 B. 6.25 × 10−18 𝐽
C. 1.6 × 10−19 𝐽 D. 9.1 × 10−31 𝐽

34 How many electron will have a charge of one coulomb?

A. 6.2 × 10¯18 B. 6.2 × 10¯19
C. 5.2 × 10¯18 D. 5.2 × 10¯19

35 Gravitational force between two objects does not depends on:

A. Force C. Masses
B. Distance D. Medium

36 The charge on the electron was calculated by

A. Faraday B. J.J. Thomson
C. Millikan D. Einstein

37 The equation for the stokes law is

A. 6𝜋𝜂𝑟 B. 6𝜋𝜂𝑟𝑣
C. 6𝑟𝑣 D. 8𝜋𝜂𝑟𝑣

38 The charge determined by the Millikan’s experiment is

A. q= qvd/m B. q= qvd/g
C. g=mgd/v D. None

39 Capacitors may be considered as a device for

A. Storing energy B. Increasing resistance
C. Decreasing resistance D. None

40 The medium used b/w the plates of capacitor is called

A. Polarization B. Dielectric
C. Insulators D. Medium

41 Capacity of a capacitor depends upon

A. Size of plate B. Distance b/w plates
C. Nature of dielectric b/w plates D. All of above

42 Farad is defined as:

A. 𝐶 /𝑉 B. 𝐴/ 𝑉
C. 𝐶 /𝐽 D. 𝐽/C

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43 The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is given by:
A. 𝐶 = 𝐴/𝜀0 𝑑 B. 𝐶 = 𝐴𝜀0/𝑑
C. 𝐶 = 𝜀0 𝑑/A D. 𝐶 = 𝑑 /𝜀0 𝐴

44 The expression of energy stored in a capacitor is given by:

A. 𝐸 = 𝐶𝑉² B. 𝐸 = 1/2 𝐶𝑉²
C. 𝐸 = 1 /2 𝐶²𝑉 D. 𝐸 = 1 /2 𝐶𝑉 ²

45 Unit of energy density of electric field is:

A. J C−1 B. J V−1
C. J m−3 D. J F−3

46 The term “RC” has same unit as that of:

A. Potential B. Capacitance
C. Energy D. Time

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 Short Questions Answers
1. Define coulombs law?

Ans. Forces are always directly Proportional to the Product of their Charges and Inversely
Proportional to the square of its distance is known as Coulombs law.
𝑞1 𝑞2
Fα 𝑟2

2. Can a Coulombs is applied on point charges?

Ans. Yes a Coulombs law is applied on Point Charges.

3. Calculate the net coulomb force of 3 similar and one dissimilar charges?

Ans. Coulomb force for three similar Charges

q1 q2
+ +

_
+ q4
q3 The

force between charge q1 qnd q2 is F12 and the force between charge q2 and q3 is F23, while
the force between charge q1 and q3 is F13, and the force between charge q2 and q4 is F24 ,
so net force is given by following formula
FT = F12 + F23 + F24 + F13
𝑞 𝑞
1 2 𝑞 𝑞
2 3 2 4𝑞 𝑞 𝑞 𝑞
1 3
FT = K𝑟122 + K 𝑟232 + K 𝑟24 2 + K 𝑟132

4. Why test charge is small in size?

Ans. Test charge is used to find out the nature of charge. And It has small in size because it
cannot distrub the field of biggest charge.

5. What is the origin of Electric field?

Ans. The main origin of electric field is naturally occurance of lightning in the sky. As we know
that clouds are neutral when different parts of cloud are applying frictional force to each
other. One part of cloud gets positive charge and other potion get negative charge. When
they attract each other they produce lightning.

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6. How Electric field is Vector Quantity?
Ans. Electricfield is define as Force per unit charge is known as Electricfield. And its formula is
given as
⃗𝑭
⃗ =
𝑬 𝒒
Force is a Vector Quantity, and due to this electricfield is a vector quantity.
7. What is a Photoconductor?
Ans. A Photoconductor is a conductor which convert into conductor in the presence of light.
Which are used in Photocopier machine. e.g. Selenium, it is an insulator insulator in the
dark and become conductor when expose to light.

8. Differentiate between Electric flux and Electric Flux Density ?

Ans. Electric flux is defined as number of electric field lines passing through a certain area.
It is denoted with φ.
∅𝑒 = E.A
Electric flux density is define as electric flux per unit area is known as Electric flux
density and its given by following formula
∅𝑒
E= 𝐴

9. How the strength of Electric field is decreases?

Ans. The strength of field is proportional to the magnitude of the charge. And its strength is
decreases as the test charge moves away from sources q.

10. How coulombs law obeys newton third law of motion?

Ans. In coulomb’s law the force exerted by the charge q1 on q2 is conventionaly denoted by
F21 and the force exerted by the charge q2 on q1 is conventionaly denoted by F12 . The
force F12 is equal in magnitude of F21 but opposite in direction. This prove that
coulomb’s law fit into Newton’s third law.
F21 = -F12
11. Define dielectric constant?
Ans. The quantity ε is called the permittivity of the medium. For a particular insulator the
permittivity of a material medium compared with the permittivity of vaccum is called
relative permittivity or dielectric constant ∈𝑟 . its ratio is given by
𝝐
𝝐𝒓 = 𝝐
𝒐

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12. What is Electric field Lines?

Ans. An electric field can be used in the pictorial form to describe the overall intensity of the
field around it. This pictorial representation is called the electric field lines. And it
originate from positive charge and terminates in negative charge.

13. What is “fringing field”?

Ans. Consider two infinitely large parallel plates separated by a very small distance. The
upper plate has a uniform positive charge while the lower plate has a negative one. If
the plate are not infinite length, the field lines at the end of plates will be little bulging
out, the field is not uniform at the ends. This field such as at the end of plate is called
“Fringing Field”.
14. Why Electric field is zero inside the conductor?
Ans. Electric field is zero inside a charged conductor. For a charged conductor, the charges
will lie on the surface of the conductor. So, there will not be any charges inside the
conductor. When there is no charge there will not be electric field.

15. Why it is safer for passenger to sit an aero plane in a heavy thunderstorm?
Ans. As there is no electric field, no potential difference inside a metal shell, so due to this
passenger remain same in an aero plane in heavy thunderstorm.

16. Can a gauss’s law is depends upon geometry or shape of closed surface?
Ans. According to definition of gauss’s law it depends upon the medium and the charge
enclosed by the surface. So according to that definition it does not depends upon the
shape and geometry of surface.

17. Is electric field is zero in a closed loop can its area be zero or not?
Ans. No if electric field is zero in a closed loop its area can’t be zero. e.g electric field due to
hallow charge sphere. Which are explain as following formula
𝑞
∅𝑒 = ∈
𝑜
𝑞=0
∅𝑒 = 0
E.A =0
E=0, A≠0

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18. What is the difference between line charge density, surface charge density and
Volume
charge density?
Ans. Charge per unit length is known as line charge density. It is denoted with λ and it is given
by following formula
𝑞
𝜆=𝐿
Charge per unit area is known as surface charge density. It is denoted with σ and it value
is given by following formula.
𝑞
σ= 𝐴
Charge per unit volume is known as volume charge density. it is denoted with ρ and its
value is given by following formula.
𝑞
ρ= 𝑉

19. Define Electric potential write down its formula also?

Ans. Electric potential at any point is equal to the work done in bringing a unit positive
charge from infinity to that point without producing at any acceleration.
𝑊
V= 𝑞
20. Define potential gradient and what is the reason behind the negative sign of potential
gradient?

Ans. The rate of change of electric potential with respect to displacement is known as
potential gradient. And its value is given as
∇𝑉
𝐸= −
∇𝑟
The negative sign indicates that the direction of the field is opposite to the direction.

21. Differentiate between equipotential line and equipotential surface?

Ans. As we know that electric field was presented by imaginary line around a source in
representation of electric field by lines, now similarly we can represent an electric
potentials pictorially by drawing imaginary lines is known as equipotential line. And a
surfaces which have equal electrostatic potential at each point are known as
equipotential surfaces.

22. How can we calculate the potential of more than two charges?

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Ans. if we have more than two charges are present, then the potential at any point is the
sum of potential due to to each charge.

23. Define Electron Volt (eV)?

Ans. The amount of energy acquired or lost by an electron when it is displaced across two
points between which potential difference is one volt, electron-volt is a unit of energy or
work.
1eV = 1.602×10-19 J

24. Define capacitor and capacitance of a capacitor and its unit?

Ans. A device which is used for storing electric charges is called capacitor. And the capability
of a capacitor to store charges is called it capacitance.
Q = CV
C= Q/V
Where C is the capacitance of a capacitor
The capacitance is defined as the ratio of magnitude of charge on either plate to the
potential difference produced between the plates.
The unit of capacitance is called farad.

25. Define dielectric?

Ans. The medium between the two plate is air or a sheet of some insulator, this medium is
known as dielectric. e.g, The medium(air, sheet) inserted between the parallel plate
capacitor is dielectric medium.

26. How can we charge the parallel plate capacitor?

Ans. The capacitor is commonly charged by connecting its plates for a while to the opposite
terminals of battery. In this way some electrons are transferred through the battery
from the positive plate to the negative plate. When a charge is transferred to one of the
plate say(A) due to electrostatic induction it would induce charge Q on the inner surface
of the other plate.

27. What happened when the dielectric medium is inserted between the parallel plate
capacitor?
Ans. When a dielectric medium is inserted between the plate of capacitor, then it is seen
that the charge storing capacity of a capacitor is enhanced by the dielectric which

15
 permit it to store 𝜀𝑟 times more charge for same potential difference. In case of a
parallel plate capacitor completely filled with a dielectric the capacitance is
ɛ𝑜 ɛ𝑟 𝐴
𝐶𝑚𝑒𝑑 = 𝑑

𝟐𝟖. Write down the dependent factors Capacitance?

ɛ𝑜 ɛ𝑟 𝐴
𝐀𝐧𝐬. 𝐶𝑚𝑒𝑑 = 𝑑
According to above formula the capacitance of a capacitor is depends upon the area of
the plates the separation between the plates and the medium between them.

29. Define Specific inductive capacity?

Ans. The ratio of the capacitance of a capacitor with a given material filling the space
between the plate to the capacitance of the same capacitor when the space is
evacuated is the relative permittivity 𝜀𝑟 of the material.

30. How axon membrane acts as a capacitor?

Ans. An axon membrane acts as a capacitor. Axon of a resting human nerve cell has a
potential difference of 65mV. Current enters the axon through ion channels in a region
of membrane, depolarizing that region. The intracellular positive charge is attracted to
adjacent negatively charged regions of membrane.

31. Differentiate between series and parallel combination of a capacitor?

Ans. In a series combination the potential is different at each capacitor while charges are
same on each part of capacitor. However, in parallel combination the value of potential
is same at full combination while the value of charge is different at each capacitor.

32. What is electric Polarization?

Ans. When a dielectric substance is placed between two parallel plates with an applied
electric field. The electric field distorts the negatively charged particles towards the
positive plate and the positive charge particles towards the negative plate. The slight
separation of charge make one side of the atom somewhat positive and the opposite
side somewhat negative. This phenomenon is known as electric polarization.

33. What is Electric dipole?

Ans. The system in which two charges of equal magnitude but of opposite sign separated by
the distance d, are present is termed as a dipole. Electric dipole moment is represented

16
 by P, which is equal to the product of the charge Q present in the dipole and the
distance d between the two charges of the dipole.
P = |𝑄𝑑|
Where P is a Vector Quantity.

34. What is energy density?

Ans. Energy density is define as energy stored in a capacitor per unit volume is known as
Energy density. It is denoted with u
𝐸𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦
u=
𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒
𝑈
u=𝑉
1
u = 2 𝜀𝑟 𝜀𝑜 𝐸 2 × Ad / Ad
1
u = 2 𝜀𝑟 𝜀𝑜 𝐸 2

35. According to principle can a capacitor be fully charged?

Ans. No according to principle a capacitor can never charge up fully, because the rate of
charging decreases as the charge increases. In practice after a finite time the charging
current becomes too small to measure, and the capacitor is effectively fully charged.

36. What is time constant?

Ans. The time taken to charge a capacitor in a given circuit is determined by the time
constant of the circuit. The factor RC is called “time constant”. Whereas R is the
resistance and C is the capacitor and its product is equal to t(Time constant).

37. Write down the Physical application of Charging and discharging of capacitor?
Ans. The charging and discharging of a capacitor has many applications. Capacitor discharge
ignition (CDI) is a type of automotive electronic ignition system which is widely used in
motorcycles, lawn mowers, chain saws, small engines, turbine powered aircrafts, and
some cars. It can enhance the capability of power supply and make the spark much
stronger.

38. Write down the working of Electronic flashguns in Camera?

Ans. Electronic flashguns for cameras to be left for short period of time between flashes.
There is a capacitor inside that stores energy, it needs to be charged up again by the
battery in the flashgun.

17
39. Proof that RC = τ?
Ans. As we know that V = IR ……. (1)
𝑞
I = 𝑡 …….. (2).
Put Value eq(2) in eq(1)
𝑞
V = 𝑡 R ….. (3)
As we know that q = cv …. (4)
𝐶𝑉
V= R
𝑡
Vt = Cv R
Cancel of v on both sides
t = RC
RC = τ

40. Calculate the charging and discharging time constant?

Ans. Charging:
q = qo ( 1 – e-t/RC) ….. (1)
As we know that RC = t …. (2)
Put value of eq(2) in eq(1)
q = qo (1 – e –RC/RC)
q = qo ( 1 – e-1)
q = qo ( 1 – 0.368)
q = qo 0.632
𝑞
= 0.632 × 100/100
𝑞𝑜
𝑞
= 63.2%
𝑞𝑜
Discharging:
q = qo e-t/RC
As we know that RC = t
q= qo e-RC/RC
q = qo e-1
q= qo (0.368)
𝑞
= 36.8 %
𝑞𝑜

41. The electric Potential is constant through a given region of space. Is the electric field
zero or non-zero in this region?
−∆𝑉
Ans. 𝐸⃗ = ……….. (1)
∆𝑟

18
 since the potential is constant in given region for example inside hollow charged sphere
i.e, V = Constant
i.e ∆𝑉 = 0
and eq(1) becomes

∆𝑉 0
E= ∆𝑟 = ∆𝑟 = 0
E=0
At the surrounding region of a point charge the potential is constant at equal distance
from the charge but electric field is not zero at those points.

42. If a point charge q of mass m is released in non-uniform electric field with field lines
pointing in the same direction, will it make a rectilinear motion?
Ans. Yes, the charged particle will make a rectilinear motion.
A non uniform electric field means that either its magnitude varies or its direction varies
or both vary.
We also know that the direction of the electric field is represented by electric field lines.
Now, in the question, it is made clear that field lines are in the same direction. i.e. they
are not changing.
The field is non-uniform in this case because its magnitude varies so the change of mass
will make a rectilinear motion because it is experiencing force in the same direction i.e.
in the direction of field lines F= qE.
If the magnitude of field is varying, only force experienced by change will vary in
magnitude.

43. What is the relationship between potential difference and electric potential energy?
Ans. Both of them are closely related with each other. Let two plates A and B are oppositely
charged. A positive test charge of very small magnitude and dimension is displaced from
A to B. So, the work is done in bringing it from A to B and it increase the electric
potential energy of the charge. This work done per uunit charge is called potential
difference.
𝑊𝐴𝐵
So ∇𝑉 = 𝑞𝑜
𝑊𝐴𝐵 = ∆𝑈
∇𝑈
∇𝑉 = 𝑞𝑜

19
 Hence change in potential energy per unit test charge is called potential difference.
Electric Potential energy is possessed by the charge whereas the potential difference is
the property associated with electric field.

44. How are units of volts and electron volts related? How do they differ?

Ans. Volt is the unit of potential difference whereas electron volt is the unit of energy
Volt:
If 1J work is done in moving unit positive charge from one point to another, keeping
electrostatic equilibrium then potential difference between points is one Volt (1V)
1 Joule 𝑊
1 Volt = ( ∇𝑉 = )
1 Coulomb 𝑞𝑜
Electron Volt:
The energy acquired or lost by an electron as it moves between two points having a
potential difference of one volt is called one electron volt energy.
1eV = (1e)(1V)
1eV = (1.6×10-19 C)(1V)
1eV = 1.6×10-19 J
Difference:
Electron volt is the unit of energy, whereas volt is the unit of change in electric potential
energy per unit test charge i.e. potential difference (P.D).

45. How can electric potential be high when the electric potential energy is relatively low?
Ans. If a negative charge –q is released in electric field of two oppositely charged parallel
plates, it will move from low potential towards high potential.
The negative charge –q will gain kinetic energy and its Electric potential energy is lost.
In this case the negative charge –q is moving towards high potential but its Electric
potential energy is decreasing.
Therefore when negative charge –q will reach near a plate of high electric potential then
its electric potential energy near the plate of low electric potential.

46. Can the potential of a non-uniformly charged sphere be same as that of a point
charge?
Ans. No electric potential around non uniformly charged sphere will not be equal at same
distance from it throughout.

20
 As the sphere is not uniformly charged throughout so it will not behave like point charge
near it surface because electric field and hence electric potential will be strong on sides
where charge concentration is greater and vice versa.
So, we can say that potential of the charge at distance r on one side of sphere will not
be same as the potential on the other side of sphere at same distance due to different
charge concentrations.
But in case of point charge, it has same potential at same distance around it according
to formula
𝑞
V=K
𝑟
If we far enough from sphere that we can treat it as point charge then its potential may
behave like that of point charge but not close to this sphere.

47. Will energy stored in three capacitors be greater when they are connected in series or
in parallel?
Ans. The energy storing formula of a capacitor is.
U = ½ CV2
Parallel:
If three identical capacitors are connected in parallel equivalent capacitance is
Cp =3C
Energy stored in parallel combination of three identical capacitors
Uparallel = ½ CpV2
Uparallel = ½ (3C)V2
Uparallel = 3/2 CV2 ……… (1)
Series:
If three identical capacitor are connected in series then equivalent capacitance is
CS = C/3
Energy stored in series combination of three identical capacitors
Useries = ½ CV2
Useries = ½(C/3)V2
Useries = 1/6 CV2 ……….. (2).
Dividing eq(1) with eq(2)
3𝐶𝑉 2
UParallel / Useries = 12
𝐶𝑉 2
6
UParallel = 9 Useries

48. Can different equipotential lines cross each other?

21
Ans. No, different equipotential lines never cross each other.
The equipotential lines has fixed value of potential at every point on it.
Two different equipotential lines have different potential from each other.
If two different equipotential lines cross each other it would create two different values
of potential at a single point which is meaningless.
Therefore it is not possible for two different equipotential lines to cross each other.

49. Water gas a large dielectric constant, but it is rarely used in capacitors why?
Ans. Water has very high value of dielectric constant 78.5. it is rarely used in capacitors as a
dielectric. This is because of the following reasons.
Water molecules have dipole moments, so it can be easily polarized under a given
electric field. This decreasing the effect of the electric field between a capacitor’s plates.
Water can conduct electricity because it contains H+ and OH- ions which are mobile that
may leak charge between the plates of a capacitor and will discharge the capacitor.
The value of dielectric constant of water varies with temperature.

50. How can you increase the capacitance of a capacitor?

Ans. Capacitance of parallel plate capacitor with dielectric of permittivity ɛ as the medium
between two plates is given by
𝐴𝜖𝑜 𝜖𝑟
Cmed = 𝑑
Capacitance of parallel plate capacitor can be increased depends upon:
By increasing the area of plates of capacitor.
By decreasing the distance between two plates of capacitor.
By using dielectric off greater permittivity between two plates of capacitor.

22
 CHAPTER Current Electricity
12
MCQ’S
Circle the correct option i.e. A / B / C / D. Each part carries one mark.

01. One coulomb per second is equal to:

A. Joule B. Volt
C. Ampere D. Watt

02. In the metallic conductor the current is due to flow of charge

A. Positive B. Negative
C. Proton D. None

03. Conventional current flow from:

A. Point of higher potential to B. Point of lower potential to point
point of lower potential of higher potential
C. Point of lower potential to point D. None
of lower potential

04. The heating effect of current utilized in:

A. Iron B. Tube light
C. Fan D. Motor

05. Through an electrolyte, electric current is passed due to drift of

A. Free electrons B. Positive and negative ions
C. Free electrons and holes D. Protons

06. Current can be measured by using:

A. Heating effect B. Magnetic effect
C. Chemical effect D. None of these

07. In liquids and gases, the current is due to:

A. Negative charges B. Positive charges
C. Neutral particles D. Both negative and positive charges

23
08. When electricity passes through the liquid, then process is called:
A. Electro late B. Electrolysis
C. Electro-conductor D. None

09. Magnetic effect of current is utilized in__.

A. Iron B. Thermocouple
C. Measurement of current D. None of these

10. The VI-graph of Ohm’s law is:

A. Hyperbola B. Ellipse
C. Parabola D. Straight

11. Mathematical form of ohm’s law is:

A. I = VR B. I = V/R
C. I = R/V D. R = IV

12. Ohm’s law is valid for only current flowing in:

A. Conductors B. Transistors
C. Diodes D. Electric Areas

13. In series circuit the net resistance is:

A. Algebraic Sum of all resistance B. Sum of reciprocals of all resistances
in circuit
C. Remain constant D. None

14. Heat sensitive resistors are called:

A. Resistors B. Capacitors
C. Thermisters D. Inductors

15. When temperature increases, the resistance of conductor:

A. Increases B. Decreases
C. Remains constant D. Vanishes

16. A wire of resistance R is cut into two equal parts, its resistance becomes R/2. What
happens to resistivity?
A. Double B. Same
C. Half D. One forth

24
17. The unit of conductivity is:
A. Ω. m B. (Ω.m)-1
C. Ω.m-1 D. None

18. The reciprocal of resistivity is called:

A. Resistance B. Conduction
C. Conductivity D. None

19. Thermistor can be used for the accurate measurement of:

A. Voltage B. Resistance
C. Temperature D. Heat

20. If the length and diameter of conductor is double, the resistance is:
A. Remain same B. Double
C. Half D. Four times

21. A wire of uniform cross-section A and length L is cut into two equal parts. The
resistance of each part becomes:
A. Double B. Half
C. 4 times D. ¼ times

22. The fractional change in resistivity per Kelvin:

A. Co-efficient in resistance B. Co-efficient of resistivity
C. Resistance D. None

23. A rheostat can be used as a:

A. Variable resistor B. Potential divider
C. Both a and b D. None of these

24. The wire used in Rheostat is made from:

A. Constantan B. Nichrome
C. Manganin D. Tungston

25. The S.I unit of emf is same as:

A. Work B. Energy
C. Power D. Potential Difference

26. Which electric bulb has the least resistance?

25
 A. 60 watts B. 200 watts
C. 500 watts D. 100 watts

27. Kirchhoff’s first rule is based on conservation of:

A. Energy B. Voltage
C. Charge D. Mass

28. An ideal voltmeter would have an infinite

A. Current B. Voltage
C. Resistance D. None of these

29. An accurate measurement of emf of a cell is made by

A. A voltmeter B. An ammeter
C. A potentiometer D. All of them

30. The emf of two cells can be compared by

A. AVO meter B. Voltmeter
C. Potentiometer D. Galvanometer

31. The algebraic sum of voltages changes around a closed circuit or loop is zero, is
Kirchhoff’s
A. 1st law B. 2nd law
C. 3rd law D. 4th law

32. The algebraic sum of all the current at junction is zero, is Kirchhoff’s
A. 1st law B. 2nd law
C. 3rd law D. 4th law
Short Questions Answers
1. Discuss drift velocity of electrons in a metallic conductor?
Ans. The average velocity acquired by free electrons in a conductor subjected to an electric field
is called drift velocity.
The direction of drift velocity is opposite to the direction of electric field. The drift velocity is
of order of 10-4 ms-1 to 10-3 ms-1.

2. If electrons drift so slowly, how room light turns on quickly when switch is closed?
Ans.

26
 No doubt drift velocity of electrons is very small but rate of flow of electrons is very small
but rate of flow of electrons is nearly equal to speed of light under the effect of potential
difference or electric field that’s why bulb is turned on instantly.
3. What is EEG (electroencephalogram) test and also discuss its function?
Ans. An EEG is a test that uses metal discs (called electrodes) to evaluated the electrical activity in
the brain. The brain constantly generates minute electrical currents even during sleep and in
coma. The electrodes with thin wires are attached to your scalp which detects tiny electrical
charges that result from the activity of your brain cells.
The computer records your brain electrical activity on the screen or on a paper as wavy line.
These lines allow neurologists to quickly access whether there are abnormal patterns. An
EEG is one of the main diagnostic tests for ellipse, brain tumors, stroke etc.
4. State ohm law? Also write the limitation of ohm law?
Ans. The current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to potential difference
applied across its ends provided the temperature of the conductor is kept constant.
IαV
I =1/R V
V=IR
Limitation of ohm law
If temperature changes, ohm law cannot be applicable.
Not applicable for non-metallic conductors.
Not applicable for nonlinear device.
5. Define temperature coefficient of resistivity?
Ans.
The fractional change in resistivity of a material per kelvin change in temperature is called
temperature coefficient of resistivity.
𝜌𝑇= 𝜌𝑂 (1+ 𝛼𝑇)
6. SI unit of temperature coefficient of resistivity is K-1.
Ans. Prove that 1 kwh= 3.6 MJ
1 Kwh = 1000W ×3600s

27
 1 Kwh = 3600000Ws
1 Kwh = 3.6×106 J
7. 1 Kwh = 3.6 MJ
Ans. What is the difference between simple and complex circuit?
A simple electrical circuit which has more than one resistor but it has single voltage source.
A simple circuit is solved by ohm law. Rules of series and parallel combination are used.
When electrical circuit consist of number of resistance and a number of emf sources then
8.
such circuit is called complex circuit. A complex circuit can be solved by using Kirchhoff rule.
Ans.
Why a thin region of light bulb filament has more possibility to burn than the thicker?
The thin region of the filament has smaller area than thicker one. Therefore, the region has
more resistance than thicker one. Since heat produced per second is I2R. As current is
constant through the whole filament, heat produced is greater where resistance is greater.
The resistance is greater in the thin region, temperature of the thin region rises more and
thin region has more possibility to burn than the quicker region.

Exercise Questions Answers

1. A heavy-duty battery of a truck maintains a current of 3A for 24hours. How much charge
flows from the battery during this time?
Ans.
I = 3A

t = 24 hours

t = 24×60×60

28
 t = 86400 s

Q =?

I = Q/t

3 = Q/86400

Q= 3×86400

Q= 259200C

2. While analyzing a circuit the internal resistance of emf sources ignore. Why?
Ans.
Internal resistance of source is usually ignored due to its small value. Internal resistance of
the cell is the resistance offered by electrolyte of the cell.

When it is connected to an external resistor then its emf and terminal potential difference
can be related as

E = Vt + Ir

E = IR + Ir

As internal resistance is very small so Ir = 0 therefore E = Vt, that is why the internal
resistance source is usually ignored.

3. Why rise in temperature a conductor is accompanied by a rise in the resistance?

Ans.
Reason

 ► When the temperature of the conductor rises then

the kinetic energy of the free electrons increases

 the amplitude of vibration of atoms in the lattice increases

 the probability of collision of free electrons with lattice atoms increases
 the atom will offer the bigger target
 the collision cross-section of the atoms increases
So, the collision of free electrons and the atoms in the lattice become more
frequent

and hence the resistance of the conductor increases.

29
4. Does the direction of emf provided by a battery, depend on the direction of current
flow through the battery?
Ans.
Explanation

► Direction or sides of positive and negative polarities of emf of a battery is decided

at the time of as construction, it does not depend upon the direction of the current

flow.

► In fact direction of the current floss depends upon the direction of end.

► within the battery, chemical reaction occurs which moves the positive ions from

negative to the positive terminal.

► The Conventional current flows from the positive towards negative terminal in the

outer load resistance of circuit

► However direction of the voltage drop in the component of circuit depends upon

the direction of the current.

5. Voltages are always measured between two points. Why?

Ans.
► Voltage is always measured between two points because it is a relative quantity.
Explanation:

► As we can define the potential difference between two points as the work done in

bringing a unit positive charge from one point to another point against the direction

of electric field by keeping electrostatic equilibrium.

► Thus, work done is stored in form of potential energy. Which is a relative quantity

► Voltage is a difference in potential between two points, called potential diffe rence.

So this change in potential energy per unit test charge is where one point is at

higher potential and the other is at lower potential.

So potential difference between two points is given as V B — VA = W AB / qo

ΔV=ΔU/qo

30
6. (a) Is every emf a potential difference? (b) Is every potential difference an emf?
Ans.
(a)► Yes, every emf may be a potential difference.

Explanation

► Yes, magnitude of every emf can be a potential difference of battery when current is

not being drawn from it.

e = V + Ir

► Also, magnitude of cmf can be equal to potential difference if internal resistance of

battery is zero. (r=0)

e = V + Ir

E = V + I (0)

e = V I,

(b)► No, every potential difference is not an emf.

7. How much charge flow in pocket calculator each minute when the current in
0.0001A?
Ans. Given Current = I = 0.0001 A

Time= t= 1 mint= 60s

To find Charge= Q=?

I = Q/t

Q= It

Q = 0.0001 x 60 = 6x10-3 coulomb

Q = 6 mC

8. When Wheatstone bridge is balanced, then no current flows through the galvanometer,
why?
Ans.  The circuit arrangement of a Wheatstone bridge is shown in Fig.

31
  When the bridge is balanced, no current flows through the galvanometer because
potential of point B is exactly equal to the potential of point D. Two terminals of
Galvanometer are at same potential.
VB = VD

 Potential difference between points B and D is zero. VB —VD = 0

 Current flowing through galvanometer of resistance I29 is given by Vg-VD = RA
I g = VB —VD/ R g
Ig = 0/R g = 0

9. If aluminum and copper wires of the same lengths have the same resistance, which has
the larger diameter? Why?
Ans.
The resistance R of wire of length L of cross section A is given by

R = 𝜌𝐿/𝐴

R = 𝜌𝐿/𝜋𝑟 2

r = D/2

R = 𝜌𝐿/𝜋(𝐷/2)2

R = 4𝜌𝐿/𝜋𝐷2

According to given condition

RAl = RCu

4𝜌𝐴𝑙 𝐿/𝜋𝐷2 Al = 4𝜌𝐶𝑢 𝐿/𝜋𝐷2 Cu

𝐷2 Cu /𝐷2 Al = 𝜌𝐶𝑢 /𝜌𝐴𝑙

Dcu cu

DAl  Al

As resistivity of aluminum is greater than resistivity of copper therefore diameter of

aluminum wire is greater than diameter of copper wire.

Under what circumstances can be terminal P.D. of a battery exceed the e.m.f?
10.

32
Ans. Terminal potential difference of the battery is greater than its emf when battery is being
charged.

When another battery with higher emf is connected in opposite direction with the previous
battery then new battery produces a current in opposite direction.

Vt = E-(-Ir)

Vt = E + Ir

This equation shows that during the charging of an emf source, its terminal potential
difference is (Ir) factor greater than the emf E.

What is the difference between an emf and terminal P.D.?

EMF
Emf is the energy supplied to the unit charge by the cell.
E = W/Q
It is the cause.
It is always present even though no current is flowing through the circuit.
11. Emf is greater than terminal P.D.
Ans. It remains constant.
It does not depend on circuit resistance.
Terminal P.D.
It is the work done in bringing the unit positive from positive to negative terminal with in the
circuit.
V = W/Q
It is the effect.
It becomes zero when no current is flowing through the circuit.
Terminal P.D. is less than the emf of the source.
It does not remain constant.
It directly depends on the resistance between two points of measurement.

CHAPTER Electromagnetism
13
MCQ’S
Circle the correct option i.e. A / B / C / D. Each part carries one mark.

33
12. Often, you might have noticed birds sitting safely on high tension wires. Why are they not
Ans. electrocuted even when sitting on a part of wire where insulation has worn off?
For electrocution, the current should pass through the body. The current passes only if there
is a potential difference between different parts of the body. When bird is sitting on high
tension wire without insulation, the potential difference between its two fect is zero as both
feet are on the same potential.

∆V = 0

I = ∆V/R

I = 0/R

I=0
13.
Three arms of a Wheatstone bridge are of 75Ω each. What is the resistance of the fourth
Ans.
arm when bridge is balanced?

P=Q=R= 75Ω

X =?

P/Q=R/X

X= QP/R

X = 75

1.
The units of magnetic field B, in system international is:
A. Weber B. Tesla
C. Gauss D. Newton

2. One Tesla is also equal to

A. wb.m2 B. Wb.m-2
C. wb.m D. None

34
3. One tesla (T) is:
A. 1T= 1NAm-1 B. 1T= 1N A-1 m-1
C. 1T= 1NAm D. 1T= 1N A-1 m

4.
The magnetic flux “∅” through an area “A” is:
A. ∅=𝐁×𝐀 B. ∅ = 𝐁. 𝐀
C. ∅= 𝐀×𝑩 D. None of these

5.
Torque on a current carrying coil is:
A. BINA 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝜶 B. BINA sin 𝛼
C. BIL cos 𝛼 D. BIL sin 𝛼

6.
The magnetic force is simply a:
A. Reflecting force B. Deflecting force
C. Restoring force D. Gravitational force

7.
The galvanometer can be made sensitive if the value of the factor C/BNA is:
A. Made large B. Made small
Remains constant
C. D. Infinite

8. When a small resistance is connected parallel to the galvanometer, the

resulting circuit behaves as:
A. Voltmeter B. Wheatstone bridge
C. Ammeter D. Potentiometer

9.
The anode in the CRO is:

35
 A. B. Control the brightness of spot
Control number of electrons
formed
At negative potential with respect to
C. Accelerates and focus the D.
beam cathode

10.
The galvanometer constant in a moving coil galvanometer is given by:
A. K=NB/CA B. K= C/NBA
C. K = NBA/C D. K= CA/NB

11.
∑𝑵𝒓=𝟏 𝐁. 𝚫𝐋 = 𝜇0𝐼 is the relation for:
A. Milikan’s law B. Gauss’s law
C. Ampere’s aw D. Lenz’s law

12.
The brightness of spot on CRO screen is controlled by:
A. Anodes B. Cathodes
C. Grid D. Plates

13. To measure the current in a circuit, ammeter is always connected in:

A. Parallel B. Series
Sometimes parallel sometimes
C. D. Neither series nor parallel
series

14. If the angle b/w vand B is zero then magnetic force will be
A. Max B. Min
C. Zero D. None

A charged particles is projected at an angle into a uniform magnetic field. Which of

15.
the following parameter of the charged particle will be affected by magnetic field:

36
 A. Energy B. Momentum
C. Speed D. Velocity

16. Force on a moving charge in a uniform magnetic field will be maximum, when angle
between v and B is:
A. 00 B. 300
C. 600 D. 900

17. The S.I. unit of magnetic flux is

A. Tesla B. Weber
C. Joule D. Newton

18. Beam of electrons are also called:

A. Positive rays B. x-rays
C. cathode rays D. cosmic rays

19. Tesla is the unit of

A. Electric field B. Magnetic field
C. Magnetic field intensity D. Electric field intensity

20.
It is possible to set a charge at rest into motion with magnetic field
A. Yes B. No
C. Some Time D. None

21.
The grid in CRO
A. Controls the brightness of the B. Controls the number of
spot fall on the screen electrons accelerated by anode
C. Both a and b D. Deflects the beam of electrons

37
22. To convert a Weston-type galvanometer into voltmeter, the series
resistance is given by
𝑽
A. 𝑅ℎ = 𝑉/𝐼𝑔 B. 𝑹𝒉 = − 𝑹𝒈
𝑰𝒈
𝑉
C. 𝑅ℎ = − 𝐼𝑔 D. None of these
𝑅𝑔

The shape of magnetic field around a long straight current carrying wire
23. is

A. Electrical B. Square
C. Varies with current D. Circular

24. The electrons of mass “m” and charge “e” is moving in a circle of radius
“r” with speed “v” in a uniform magnetic field of strength “B”. then
A. 𝒓∝𝒎 B. 𝑟∝𝐵
C. 𝑟 ∝ 1/𝑣 D. 𝑟 ∝ 1/𝑚

The toque in the coil can be increased by increasing

25.

A. Number of turns B. Current and magnetic field

C. Area of coil D. All of above

26. A current carrying loop, when placed in a uniform magnetic field will
experience
A. Electric flux B. Torque

C. D. Force
Magnetic flux

38
27. The magnetic flux will be maximum if the angle between magnetic field
strength and vector area is:
A. 0o B. 60o

C. 90o D. 180o

28.
One weber is equal to
A. N.A2/A B. N.m2/A
C. N.A/m D. N.m/A

29. The waveform of sinusoidal voltage, its frequency and phase can be found by
A. CRO B. Diode
C. Transistor D. Radio

30.
The force on a charge particle moving parallel to magnetic field is
A. Maximum B. Minimum
C. Zero D. None

31. The unit of permeability of free space is

A. T.m/A B. T.m2/A

C. T.m/A2 D. None

32. F = Fe + Fm is

A. Electric force B. Magnetic force

C. Lorentz force D. None

33. The material used in fluorescent screen is

A. Electric B. Magnetic

39
 C. Phosphors D. None

34. In the galvanometer the current is proportional to

A. Magnetic field B. Electric field

C. Angle D. None

Electromagnetism
Section B/Short questions
Section B/Short questions
1. A plane conducting loop is located in a uniform magnetic field that is directed along the x-
axis. For what orientation of the loop is the flux a maximum? For what orientation is the
flux a minimum?
Answer:
Case 1 When vector area of the conducting loop is in the direction of magnetic field
strength ɵ=0° then the magnetic flux will maximum:
At ɵ=0° ɸ=BAcos0°=EA= maximum
Case 2 When vector area of the conducting loop is perpendicular to magnetic field strength
then the magnetic flux will minimum:
At ɵ=90°, ɸ=BAcos90°=0= minimum

2. A current in a conductor produces a magnetic field, which can be calculated using Ampere’s
law. Since current is defined as the rate of flow of charge, what can you conclude about the
magnetic field due to stationary charges? What about moving charges?
Ans:
a. Magnetic field due to stationary charges is zero: because in this case the value of current
is zero so field will be zero.

40
 b. Moving charge produce magnetic field: because moving charge produce current which
produces magnetic field.

3. If a charged particle moves in a straight line through some region of space, can you say
that the magnetic field in the region is zero?
Ans:
No, it may or may not be zero: Because the magnetic force acting on a charge particle
F = q(v*B) =qvBsinɵ,
Force will be zero in the following cases
i. If field is zero
ii. Charge particle move parallel to field ɵ=0°
iii. Charge particle movie anti parallel/opposite to field ɵ=180°

4. At a given instant, a proton moves in the positive x direction in a region where there is
magnetic field in the negative z direction. What is the direction of the magnetic force? Will
the proton continue to move in the positive x direction? Explain.
Ans:
a. Magnetic force is directed along positive y-axis: Because magnetic force on proton is F =
q(v x B), according to right hand rule F is perpendicular to v and B along y axis
b. No, the proton will not continue to move in the positive x-direction. Since the magnetic
force is acting at the right angle to motion of conductor, therefore it will move along a circular
path in xy-plane.

5. Two charged particles are projected into a region where there is a magnetic
field perpendicular to their velocities. If the chargers are deflected in opposite directions,
what can you say about them?
Ans:
The two particles are oppositely charged: Because the magnetic force acting on charged
particle is F = q( v X B)for positive charge and F = -e ( v X B) for negative charge and force is
deflecting so if q is positive it is deflected in one direction and q is negative then it will be
deflected in other direction.
6. Suppose that a charge q is moving in a uniform magnetic field with a velocity v. Why is
there no work done by the magnetic force that acts on the charge q?
Ans:
As we know that magnetic force acting on charge particle F =q(v*B) is always perpendicular
to velocity so angle
b/w F and d is 90°, W=Fdcos90°=0 so no work is done by magnetic force.

7 Why does the picture on a TV screen become distorted when a magnet is brought near the
screen?
Ans:

41
 As the picture on TV screen is formed due to the beam of electrons. When a magnet is
brought near the screen the path of electrons is disturbed due to magnetic force so the
picture on TV screen is distorted.

8. Is it possible to orient a current loop in a uniform magnetic field such that the loop will not
tend to rotate? Explain.
Ans:
Yes it is possible: we know that torque acting on current loop in uniform magnetic field is
torque = NIBAcosθ. It is clear from expression that when plane of the coil makes an angle of
90° with magnetic field, the torque on the coil will be zero. In this condition, the coil will not
tend to rotate.

9. How can a current loop be used to determine the presence of a magnetic field in a given
region of space?
Ans:
We know that torque acting on current carrying loop is torque = NIBAcosθ so, if current
loop is deflected in given region
of space then it shows the presence of magnetic field otherwise not.
10. How can you use a magnetic field to separate isotopes of chemical element? What should
be the orientation of a current carrying coil in a magnetic field so that torque acting upon
the coil is (a) maximum (b) minimum?
Ans:
As we know that torque = NIBAcosθ
When plane of the coil is parallel to magnetic field, the torque acting on the coil will be
maximum given by:
Torque = NIBAcos0=NIBA= maximum
When plane of the coil is perpendicular to magnetic field, and the torque acting on the coil
will be minimum,
Torque = NIBAcos90=0= minimum.
11. A loop of wire is suspended between the poles of a magnet with its plane parallel to the
pole faces. What happened if a direct current is put through the coil? What happens if an
alternating current is used instead?
Ans:
As the plane of the coil is parallel to the pole faces, therefore, it is perpendicular to the
magnetic field,
i.e. α = 90°. Torque ac NIBAcos90=0. Therefore, for both A.C. and D.C., the coil
will not rotate.

Extra Short Questions

42
12. Why the resistance of an ammeter should be very low?
Ans:
An ammeter is connected in series with a circuit to measure the current. It is connected in
series so that total current passing through the circuit should pass through it. If the resistance
of the ammeter will be large, it will decrease the current of the circuit that’s why resistance
of ammeter should be very low so maximum and accurate current measured by it.
13. Why the voltmeter should have a very high resistance?
Ans:
A voltmeter is connected in parallel with circuit to measure potential difference across it. It
should have very high resistance so that practically, a very little current should pass through
it and the current of the circuit should almost remain constant, so that it might measure the
potential difference across a circuit accurately.
14. Define Electromagnetism.
Ans:
The branch of Physics which deals with observation and laws relating to electricity and
magnetism is called electromagnetism.
15. Define magnetic field.
Ans:
The space or region around a magnet where the effect of its magnetism can be detected is
called magnetic field. Its SI unit is tesla.
16. Define Tesla.
Ans:
A magnetic field is said to be one tesla if it exert one newton force on conductor of length
one meter placed at right angle to the field, when one ampere current passes through it.
B=F/IL= 1 tesla= 1 NA-1m-1, 1 tesla=104 gauss.
What is dead beat galvanometer and unstable galvanometer?
Ans:
Stable or dead beat galvanometer: A galvanometer in which the coil comes to rest quickly
after passage of current through it is called stable or deadbeat galvanometer.
unstable galvanometer: Such a galvanometer in which the coil of galvanometer is not come
to rest and keep on oscillating about its mean position or shoot beyond its fixed position if
current is suddenly passed through it is called unstable galvanometer.
17. What is Magnetic Flux and Flux Density?
Ans:
Magnetic flux: Total number of magnetic field lines passing through certain area is called
magnetic flux.
OR scalar product of magnetic field and vector area is called magnetic flux
Formula: ɸm=BAcosɵ, Unit of magnetic flux is weber, 1 weber= Nm/A= NmA-1
At ɵ=0° ɸ=BAcos0°=EA= maximum
angle is b/vector area and field

43
 At ɵ=90°, ɸ=BAcos90°=0= minimum
Magnetic flux density: The magnetic flux per unit area of a surface perpendicular to magnetic
field is called magnetic flux density. B=ɸm/A its SI unit is NA-1m-1=webm-2= tesla.

18. What is Lorentz force.

Ans:
When a charge particle q is moving with velocity v in region having electric field E and field
B,
Sum of electric force q𝐸 and magnetic force q(𝑣 𝑥𝐵 ) is called Lorentz force.
Only electric force work, magnetic force is simply deflecting force.

19. What is voltmeter? How galvanometer is converted into voltmeter?

Ans:
Voltmeter: An electrical device which is used to measure the potential difference b/w two
points is called voltmeter.
It is high resistance galvanometer. An ideal voltmeter has infinite resistance.
Conversion of Galvanometer: Galvanometer is converted into voltmeter by connecting high
resistance Rh in series with coil of galvanometer which give a full scale deflection when
connected across P.D.
20. How can we Measure of angle of deflection?
Ans:
There are two methods for measuring angle of deflection
i. Lamp and scale arrangement: In this method a beam of light from the lamp is directed
towards the mirror M attached to the coil of galvanometer. After reflecting from the mirror,
it produce a sport on transparent scale placed at 1m distance from galvanometer. When
the coil rotates the attached to the coil also rotates and spot of light on scale is
proportional to angle of deflection.
ii. Pivoted type galvanometer: In this type of galvanometer coil is rotated b/w two jeweled
bearings. The restoring torque is provided by two hair springs which also act as current
lead. An aluminum pointer is attached to the coil which moves over a scale such
galvanometer is called Weston type galvanometer.

21. What can you conclude about the magnetic field due to current in a long wire?
Ans:
i. Magnetic field is setup only in the region around the current carrying wire
ii. Magnetic lines of force are circular and direction depends on current
iii. Magnetic field exists as long as the current is passing through wire
iv. Strength of field is larger near the wire.

22. When is force On A Current Carrying Conductor In A Uniform Magnetic Field max and min?
Ans:

44
 Case 01: If α=0° or 180° i.e. rod is parallel or anti parallel to field then force acting on it
zero, F=0
Case 02: If α=90° i.e. when rod is perpendicular to field then force will maximum. F=ILB

23. Define Magnetic induction.

Ans:
The magnetic force on one meter length of a conductor carrying one meter length of a
conductor, carrying one ampere current placed at right angle to the magnetic field is called
magnetic induction. Its SI unit is tesla.
If I=1A, L=1m and α=90°, then F=B

24. What is ammeter? How galvanometer is converted into ammeter?

Ans:
Ammeter: An electrical device which is used to measure the current in amperes is called
ammeter. It is low resistance galvanometer.
Meter movement: The portion of galvanometer whose motion cause the needle to move
across the scale is called meter movement.
Conversion: A galvanometer is converted into ammeter by connecting a low resistance Rs
shunt in parallel with galvanometer.
Shunt/bypass resistor:
Small value of resistance connected in parallel with galvanometer to convert into ammeter
is called shunt.
25. Define galvanometer and its working principle.
Ans:
Galvanometer: Such an electrical instrument which is used to detect the passage of current
through circuit is called galvanometer.
Working Principle of galvanometer: It works on “torque acts on a current coil when placed
in uniform magnetic field.
26. How to increase sensitivity of galvanometer.
Ans:
i. Increasing number of turns and area of coil
ii. Increasing flux density B
iii. Decreasing C by using wire of large length and small radius

45
 CHAPTER Electromagnetic Induction
14
MCQ’S
Circle the correct option i.e. A / B / C / D. Each part carries one mark.

1. The induced e.m.f. is produce due to

A. Motion of coil B. Motion of magnet
C. The rate of change of flux D. None

2. The direction of induced current is always so as to oppose the change which causes the
current is called:
A. Faraday’s law B. Lenz’s law
C. Ohm’s law D. Kirchhoff’s 1st rule

3. The energy stored per unit volume inside a solenoid is calculated by:
1 𝐵2 (𝐴𝑙) 1 𝐵2
A. B.
2𝜇0 2𝜇0
1 𝜇0 (𝐴𝑙)
C. D. 1 𝜇02𝐵
2𝐵

4. The SI units of induced emf is

A. Ohm B. Tesla
C. Henry D. Volt

5. The principle of an alternating current generator is based on:

A. Coulomb’s law B. Ampere’s law
C. Faraday’s law D. Lenz’s law

6. If velocity of a conductor moving through a magnetic field B is made zero, then motional emf
is:
A. −𝑣𝐵𝐿 B. − vIL
C. +vBL D. Zero

7. If we make the magnetic field stronger, the value of induced current is:
A. Decreased B. Increased

46
 C. Vanished D. Kept constant

8. The inductance is more in self induction in:

A. Air cored coil B. Iron cored coil
C. Tungsten cored coil D. None of these

9. One henry is equal to:

A. 1 𝑜ℎ𝑚 × 1 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑 1 𝑜ℎ𝑚 × 1 meter
C. 1 𝑜ℎ𝑚 × 1 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑜𝑚𝑏 𝑁𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑠𝑒

10. A device which converts electrical energyinto mechanical energy is called:

A. Transformer DC motor
C. AC generator DC generator

11. When constant current flows in primary of transformer, then the emf induced across
secondary of transformer is:
A. Zero B. Constant
C. Alternating D. Irregular

12. 1 henry
A. 𝑉 𝐴 𝑠−1 B. 1 𝑉 𝑚 𝐴−1
C. 1 𝑉 𝑠 𝐴−1 D. 1 𝑉 𝐴 𝑚−1

13. A generator converts mechanical energy into

A. Chemical energy B. Heat energy
C. Light energy D. Electrical energy

14. When a loop of wire is moved across a magnetic field, the current is produced in it is called
A. Eddy current B. Photo electric current
C. Direct current D. Induced current

15. Energy stored in an inductor is:

1 𝐿𝐼2
A. B. 1 𝐿2𝐼2
2
1 𝐿𝐼 1 𝐿𝐼
C. D.
2 2

16. If fingers of right hand show the direction of magnetic field and palm shows the direction of

47
 force, then thumb points for:
A. Torque B. Voltage
C. Current D Current

17. Induced electric current can be explainedusing which law

A. Gauss’s law B. Faraday’s law
C. Ohm’s law D. Ampere law

18. Lenz’s law is consistent with law of conservation of

A. Mass Energy
C. Charge D. None

19. An inductor is a circuit element that can store energy in the form of
A. Magnetic field B. Electric flux
C. Electric field D. None

20. The negative sign with induced e.m.f. is due to

A. Faraday’s law B. Lenz’s law
C. Ampere law D. None

21. The relation of motional e.m.f. , when a conductor is move in perpendicular magnetic field,
is:
A. E=BLV B. E=qBl
C. E=Blq D. E=qVB

22. If we increase the resistance of the circuit containing a coil, the induced e.m.f. will be
A. Increase B. Decrease
C. Remain same D. None of these

23. Inductance are measured by

A. Coulombs B. Amperes
C. Volt D. Henry

24. An over loaded motor draws

A. Max. current B. Minimum current
C. Half D. None

25. The co-efficient of mutual inductance isequal to:

48
 𝜀 (∆𝐼𝑃 ) 𝜀 ( ∆𝑡 )
A. B.
∆𝑡 ∆𝐼𝑃
C. 𝜀∆𝐼𝑃∆𝑡 D. None

26. Alternating current changes

A. Its magnitude as well as direction B. Only direction but not magnitude
C. Only magnitude but not direction D. None

27. Inductance is measured in:

A. Volt B. Ampere
C. Henry D. Ohm

28. The instantaneous value of A.C. voltage is

A. V = Vo sin 2 π ft B. V = Vo sin 2 ft
C. V = Vo sin 2 θ wt D. None

29. The back motor effect exist in the

A. VBL sin θ B. NESN sin θ
C. NAB sin θ D. NIAB sin θ

30. The force on a charge particle moving parallel to magnetic field is

A. Generator B. Mater
C. A.C. Meter D. None

31. The coil used in the generators is called

A. Commutaters B. Slip rings
C. Generator D. Mater

32. The back ward generator is called

A. Electric motor B. A.C. generator
C. Reverse generator D. None

33. The principle of transformer is

A. Amperes law B. Mutual induction
C. Motional e.m.f D. None

34. Maximum emf generated in a generator is:

A. 𝜀 = 𝜀0 sin 𝜃 B. 𝜀 = 𝑁𝜔𝐴𝐵 sin 𝜃

49
 C. 𝜀 = 𝑁𝜔𝐴𝐵 D. None of these

35. Induced e.m.f is

A. Directly proportional to B Directly proportional to rate of change
change influx . of flux
C. Inversely proportional to D None of these
change offlux .

36. To minimize the heating effect in thetransmission lines

A. High current, low voltage in used B. High voltage, low current in used

C. Same voltage and current in used D. None

50
 Short Questions Answers
1. What is electromagnetic induction?
Ans. Electromagnetic induction is the creation of an electro-motive force (EMF) by way of a moving
magnetic field around an electric conductor and, conversely, the creation of current by moving
an electric conductor through a static magnetic field.

2. Define magnetic flux.

Ans. Magnetic flux is defined as the number of magnetic field lines passing through a given closed
surface. It provides the measurement of the total magnetic field that passes through a given
surface area.

3. State Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction.

Ans. Lenz's law of electromagnetic induction states that the direction of the current induced in a
conductor by a changing magnetic field (as per Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction) is
such that the magnetic field created by the induced current opposes the initial changing magnetic
field which produced it.

4. The transformer is a device based on the principle of electromagnetic induction. Name two
devices that use transformers.
Ans. Power stations and renewable energy applications.
 Automation and industrial processing controls.
 Lighting systems.
 Small appliances (such as computers, televisions, toasters, microwaves)

5. Name a device based on principle of electromagnetic induction.

Ans. A transformer is a device based on the principle of electromagnetic induction.

6. Define the tesla.

Ans. The SI unit for magnetic field is the Tesla, which can be seen from the magnetic part of the
Lorentz force law Fmagnetic = qvB to be composed of (Newton x second)/(Coulomb x meter). A
smaller magnetic field unit is the Gauss (1 Tesla = 10,000 Gauss).

7. Name a device which is used to detect current. Can a galvanometer measure current?
Ans. A galvanometer is a device which detects the current. It can only measure very small amount of
current.

51
8. Name a device which is used to measure large amount of current.
Ans. An ammeter is a device which can measure large amount of current.

9. On what factors does the magnitude and direction of magnetic force depend?
Ans. The magnitude of the magnetic force between them depends on how much charge is in how
much motion in each of the two objects and how far apart they are. The direction of the force
depends on the relative directions of motion of the charge in each case.

10. State Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction.

Ans. Faraday’s law states that a changing magnetic flux induces an emf in the coil. And this emf
depends on magnitude of change in flux and number of turns of the coil.

11. State Ampere’s law.

Ans. Ampere's law states that “The magnetic field created by an electric current is proportional to
the size of that electric current with a constant of proportionality equal to the permeability of
free space.”

12. Explain a rule in electricity.

Ans. A rule in electricity: if the thumb, the forefinger, and the middle finger of the right hand are
bent at right angles to one another with the thumb pointed in the direction of motion of a
conductor relative to a magnetic field and the forefinger in the direction of the field, then
the middle finger will point in the direction of the induced electromotive force.

13. How is the current through the coil related to the emf in the coil?
Ans. As emf is changed then according to Lenz’s law current will be induced in the coil which is called
as induced current.

14. How is the emf induced in the coil related to the change in the magnetic flux through the coil?
Ans. According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, change in magnetic flux will induce an
emf in the coil.

52
 Exercise Conceptual Questions

15. When is magnetic flux minimum and maximum?

Ans. Magnetic flux will be maximum when the surface of the loop is perpendicular to the direction
of magnetic field, the flux will be:
φ=B•A
φ = BAcosθ
φ = BAcos0
φ = BA (maximum)
Flux will be minimum when the surface of the loop is parallel to the direction of magnetic field
and it is given by:
φ=B•A
φ = BAcosθ
φ = BAcos90
φ = 0 (minimum)
which is the minimum value of flux.

16. What will be magnetic field for stationary charges?

Ans. As we know that:
(N∑ i=1) (B.ΔL)i = μo I
According to Ampere's law we can write.
(N∑ i=1) (B.ΔL)i = μo I
For stationary charges I = 0
(N∑ i=1) (B.ΔL)i = 0
If closed path is circular
(N∑ i=1) B.ΔL =0
B (N∑ i=1) ΔL = 0
as (N∑ i=1) ΔL = 2πr ≠ 0
so B=0
Hence magnetic field will not surround stationary charges.
For moving charges I ≠ 0.
B(2πr) ≠ 0

17. Determine the direction of force on proton when field is along negative z-axis while it is
directed along x-axis.

53
Ans. The force on the proton is given by:
FB = +e (v x B)
Where v=vi
and B = B (-k)
FB = +e (v i x B (-k))
FB = -Bev (i x k)
FB = -Bev ( -j )
FB = Bev j
Therefore force on the proton is along positive Y axis. The proton will be deflected in
the circular path.

18. Determine the field induction in solenoid when length is doubled and when number of turns
are doubled.
Ans. Magnetic induction inside the solenoid is given by:
B = μo nI
Where n=N/l
B = (μo NI) / l
(a) as length is doubled
B' = (μo NI) / 2l
B' = ½ (μo NI ) / l
B' = ½ B
by making the length double field reduced to one half
(b) as number of turns are doubled.
B' = (μo 2NI) / l
B' = 2 (μo NI ) / l
B' = 2 B
on doubling the number of turns magnetic field will be doubled.

19. Justify the statement, “If two charged particles are projected into a region, where
magnetic field is perpendicular to their velocities the charges are deflected in opposite
Ans. directions.”
If two charged particles are projected into a region, where magnetic field is perpendicular to
their velocities the charges are deflected in opposite directions. It means that particles
are oppositely charged i.e. one is positively charged and other is negatively charged. If one is
proton then other is electron.

54
20. What will happen to the work done on a charged particle moving in circular path?
Ans. The force on charge particle is always at perpendicular to its direction of motion. Thus force will
deflect the charge particle in circular path. The work done by the force.
W = F.d
The angle between centripetal force and the displacement is 90 therefore the work done is
given by:
W = F.d Cos90
W=0

21. Why picture on T.V screen become distorted when a magnet is brought near its screen
Ans. The picture on T.V screen is formed by the electron beam. When a magnet is placed near the
screen then the presence of the magnetic field of bar magnet the motion of charged particles
is effected and their target on the screen of T.V is disturbed. Therefore, the image produced
will be deformed.

22. How do we differentiate the isotopes by using magnetic field?

Ans. When Isotopes of the chemical element after ionization projected perpendicular to uniform
magnetic field. they are deflected in circular path. The radius of circular path is given by:
r = (mv) / (Bq)
r∝m
Therefore the heavier isotopes are deflected into circular path of larger radius as compared to
lighter isotopes. Thus isotopes are differentiated on the basis of their radii in the magnetic field
with the help of Mass spectrometer.

23. What will happen to the torque on a current carrying loop such that its plane is perpendicular
to magnetic field?
Ans. The current carrying loop experience a torque when it is placed in the magnetic field. Which is
given by: τ = IBAcosα
On orienting the loop, such that its plane is perpendicular to the magnetic field i.e. α = 90, then
τ = IBAcos90
τ=0
Hence loop will not rotate when its plane is perpendicular to the magnetic field.

24. When is torque maximum and when is it minimum?

Ans. We know that the torque experience by the current coil in magnetic field is given by:
τ = IBAcosα

55
 For maximum torque the plane of the coil is held parallel to the magnetic field i.e. α = 0
τ = IBAcos0 = BIA
For minimum torque the plane of the coil is held perpendicular to the magnetic field i.e. α = 90
τ = IBAcos90 = 0

25. Why an ammeter always connected in series?

Ans. As ammeter is always connected in series to measure the current, therefore it should have very
small resistance. If an ammeter has high resistance then it will alter the current of the circuit.

26. Why the resistance of voltmeter should be very large?

Ans. The resistance of voltmeter should be very large so that it should not draw
an appreciable amount of current on connecting it across a resistance to measure potential
difference accurately.

56
 CHAPTER Alternating Current
15 Circuits
MCQ’S
Circle the correct option i.e. A / B / C / D. Each part carries one mark.

1. The mean value of A.C. over a complete cycle in:

A. Maximum B. Zero
C. Minimum D. None

2. Which of the following requires a material medium for their propagation:

A. Heat waves B. Sound waves
C. X-rays D. Ultraviolet rays

3. At high frequency, the current through a capacitor of AC circuit will be:

A. Large B. Infinite
C. Small D. Zero

4. The mutual induction between two coils depends upon:

A. Area of the coils B. Distance between the coils
C. Number of turns D. All of these

5. The highest value reached by the voltage or current in one cycle is called:
A. Peak to peak value B. Peak value
C. Instantaneous value D. Root mean square value

6. Pure choke consumes:

A. Minimum power B. No power
C. Maximum power D. Average power

7. If the motor is overloaded, then the magnitude of “back emf”:

A. Increases B. Decreases
C. Constant D. Becomes zero

8. The practical application of phenomenon of mutual induction is:

A. Electrical motor B. Transformer

57
 C. Ac generator D. DC generator

9. At resonance RLC series circuit shows the behavior of:

A. Pure resistive circuit B. Pure inductive circuit
C. Pure capacitive circuit D. Pure RLC circuit

10. The phase difference between each pair of coils of a three phase AC generator is:
A. 0° B. 120°
C. 90° D. 180°

11. The waves which can also pass through the vacuum are:
A. Matter wave B. Mechanical wave
C. Mechanical wave D. Electromagnetic wave

12. The unit used for capacitive reactance is:

A. Volt B. Joule
C. Ampere D. Ohm

13. Power dissipated in pure inductor is:

A. Large B. Infinite
C. Small D. Zero

14. In case of phasor diagram the vector rotates:

A. Clockwise B. Remain stationary
C. Anti-clockwise D. None

15. If the frequency of A.C in large the reactance of capacitor is:

A. large B. zero
C. small D. none

16. In case of capacitor, the voltage lag behind the current by:
A. 90o B. 30o
C. 60o D. 180o

17. The combine opposition of resistor, capacitor and inductor is called:

A. Reactance B. Impedance
C. Resistor D. None

18. The S.I unit of impedance is called:

58
 A. Joule B. ohm
C. Weber D. Ampere

19. The reactance of inductor is represented by:

A. Xc B. RL
C. XL D. None

20. By increasing the frequency of A.C. through an inductor the reactance will be:
A. Increases B. Remain same
C. Decreases D. None

21. The behavior of resistance is frequency:

A. Dependent B. Independent

C. No, response D. None of these

22. The process of combing the low frequency signal with high frequency radio-wave is
called:
A. Modulation B. Amplification
C. Rectification D. None

23. At resonance frequency the power factor is:

A. one B. Two
C. zero D. three

24. A capacitor is perfect insulator for:

A. Alternating current B. Both a and b
C. Direct current D. none

25. The frequency at which XL is equal to XC in called:

A. Resonance frequency B. Non-frequency
C. Threshold frequency D. none

26. During each cycle A.C voltage reaches its peak value:
A. One time B. Four time
C. Two times D. None of these

27. At resonance frequency the impedance of A.C series circuit is:

59
 A. Maximum B. Cannot explain by give data
C. Minimum D. none

28. In modulation, high frequency radio wave is called:

A. Fluctuated wave B. Carrier wave
C. Matter wave D. Energetic wave

29. The electrical oscillators are used in:

A. Metal detectors B. Diode
C. Amplifier D. none

30. The condition of resonance reached when:

A. XC > XL B. XL = XC
C. XL < XC D. None of these

60
 Short Questions Answers
1. Two identical loops, one of copper and another of aluminum are rotated with the same
speed in the same magnetic field. In which case, the induced
a. emf.
b. current will be more and why?
Ans. 1. The induced EMF is known to be dependent on the magnetic field and on the angular
frequency of rotation. Since, the magnetic field and the angular speed are same for both the
loops, the induced EMF is assumed to be same for both the copper and aluminum loops.
2. Copper is known to be more resistant that aluminum towards an induced current.
Therefore, the induced current will be more in the copper loop when compared to the aluminum
loop.

2. Why the transformer cannot be used to step up d.c. voltage?

Ans. This is because d.c. voltage cannot produce a changing magnetic flux required in the working of
a transformer.

3. why does the self-induction of a coil change when

a. The number of turns in a coil is decreased?
b. An iron rod is introduced into it? Justify.

Ans. (a) Self-inductance of a coil ∝ N2. When number of turns in coil is decreased, the self-
inductance will decrease. (b) When an iron rod is introduced in the coil, the self-
inductance of coil increases.

4. Obtain the resonant frequency ω of a series LCR circuit with L=2.0H, C=32μF and R=10Ω
What is the ϕ-value of this current?
Ans. Given: The inductance in the circuit is 2.0H.
The capacitance in the circuit is 32μF.
The resistance in the circuit is 10Ω.
To find: The resonant frequency and ϕ - value of the circuit.
The resonant frequency is given by
ω = 1/√𝐋𝐂 = 1/√𝟐 × 𝟑𝟐 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟔 = 125 rad/s
The ϕ value of the circuit is given by:
𝟏 𝐋 𝟏 𝟐
ϕ = 𝐑 √𝐂 = 𝟏𝟎 √𝟑𝟐×𝟏𝟎−𝟔 = 25

61
5. What is the root mean square value of alternating current?
Ans. Root mean square or R.M.S. value of Alternating voltage is defined as that value of steady
Potential Difference, which would generate the same amount of heat in a given resistance is given
time, as is done by A.C. voltage , when maintained across the same resistance for the same time
IO
IRMS =
√2

6. Define phase of A.C.

Ans. In electronic signaling, phase is a definition of the position of a point in time (instant) on
a waveform cycle. A complete cycle is defined as 360 degrees of phase. Phase can also be an
expression of relative displacement between or among waves having the same frequency.

7 Define phase lag and phase head.

Ans. Leading phase refers to a wave that occurs "ahead" of another wave of the same frequency.
Lagging phase refers to a wave that occurs "behind" another wave of the same frequency.

8. Describe A.C through a resistor.

Ans. The current flowing through the resistor is directly proportional to the voltage across it with this
linear relationship in an AC circuit being called Impedance.
The change in direction of current in AC supply does not affect resistors behavior. So the current
in the resistor will rise and fall according to the voltage as it rises and falls. The voltage and
current in AC resistive circuit reach maximum, then fall to zero and reach minimum at the same
time.

9. Describe A.C. through a capacitor.

62
Ans. In the case of an AC source, we have an alternating voltage which continuously charges and then
discharges the capacitor. While charging the capacitor the voltage across the plates of the capacitor
rises and the charge also builds up, and when the voltage across the plates decreases the charge
will also decrease.
Then when the voltage increases in opposite direction (i.e when voltage reverses) the capacitor
gets charged in the reverse order. Hence the plate which was positively charged will become
negative and vice versa. Therefore once again the voltage decreases and comes back to zero and
the charge on the plates of the capacitor also becomes zero.

10. Define impedance. Find its value for R.C series circuit and explain with phase or diagram.
Ans. Impedance, denoted Z, is an expression of the opposition that an electronic component, circuit,
or system offers to alternating and/or direct electric current.

In R-C series circuit

V 2 = VR2 + VC2

V 2 = √VR2 + VC2 = √(IR)2 + (IXC )2 = I√R2 + XC2

V
= √R2 + XC2
I
Z = √R2 + XC2

VC XC
θ = tan−1 − = tan−1
VR R

11. Explain series resonance circuit also discuss its properties.

Ans. In RLC series circuit, when the circuit current is in phase with the voltage, the circuit is said to
be in Series Resonance. The resonance condition in the circuit arises when the inductive
reactance is equal to the capacitive reactance. The series resonant circuit has the ability to
absorb heavy current and power from the mains.

63
 In a series resonant circuit,
At resonance
XL-XC = 0 or XL = XC
The impedance is given by the equation,
Putting the value of XL; XC as 0, we get
Zr = R
From this, it is clear that at resonance, the opposition to the flow of current is only provided by
resistance. At this condition, the circuit draws the maximum current.

12. What is parallel resonance circuit? Describe its properties. Also find the resonance
frequency for the circuit.
13. Describe the principle of metal detectors.
Ans. Explanation:

 A metal detector produces a magnetic field from an internal conducting coil.

 When the detector moves near a metallic object an electrical current is induced in the
metallic object.
 This minute induced current in the metallic object produces another magnetic field
resulting from the variable induced current which is detected by the detector unit.

14. An A.C. voltmeter reads 250 V. What is its peak and instantaneous values if the frequency
of alternating voltage is 50 Hz?

Ans. Peak value of ac voltage (sinusoidal) of 250 volt

RMS value would be
IRMS = IO x √2 = 250 x √2 =353.55 volt.

15. When 10 V are applied to an A.C. circuit, the current flowing in it is 100 mA. Find its
impedance.
Ans. Z = V/I = 10 / 0.1 = 100Ω

16. At what frequency will an inductor of 1.0 H have a reactance of 500 ?

Ans. XL = 2πfL
XL 500
f= = = 79.5 Hz
2πL 2 × π × 1

17. Find the capacitance required to construct a resonance circuit of frequency 1000 kHz with
an inductor of 5 mH.

64
Ans. 1
f=
2π√LC
1 1
C= 2 2= = 5pF
4π Lf 4 × π × 5 × 10 × (1000 × 103 )2
2 −3

18. Why is the use of A.C. voltage preferred over D.C. voltage? Give two reasons.
Ans. AC voltage is preferred over DC voltage because it is economical and less complicated. AC
voltage is more efficient than DC since minimum energy loss happens during transmission.

19. Derive an expression for the impedance of an a.c. circuit consisting of an inductor
and a resistor.
Ans. V 2 = VR2 + VL2

V 2 = √VR2 + VL2 = √(IR)2 + (IXL )2 = I√R2 + XL2

V
= √R2 + XL2
I
Z = √R2 + XL2

20. State the underlying principle of transformer. How is the large scale transmission of
electric energy over long distance done with the use of transformers?
Ans. The principle of transformer is based upon the principle of mutual induction which states that due
to continuous change in the current in the primary coil an emf gets induced across the secondary
coil.
Transformer are devices used in electrical circuits to change the voltage of electricity flowing in
the circuit. Transformer can be used either to increase the voltage (called "stepping up") or
decrease the voltage ("step down").
Electric power is transmitted over long distances at high voltage. So, step up transformers are used at
power stations to increase the voltage of power whereas a series step-down transformers are used to
decrease the voltage up to 220 V.

65
 Exercise Questions
1. Sketch the graph of emf induced in the coil against the rate of change of current. What is the significance

of the gradient?

Ans. The emf induced in the coil is given by

∆𝐼
𝜀=𝐿
∆𝑡
∆𝐼
𝜀∝
∆𝑡
The induced emf is directly proportional to the rate of change of current so the graph between emf and
rate of change of current is a straight line. Also
𝜀
𝐿=
∆𝐼
∆𝑡
∆𝐼
The Gradient (slope) of the graph that is ratio of induced emf ε and rate of change current ∆𝑡 gives us the
inductance L of the coil.

slope

∆𝐼
∆𝑡

2. Explain why it is difficult to measure the rate of change of current?

Ans. As we know that

∆𝐼
𝜀=𝐿
∆𝑡
This equation show that when the current through the coil changes, emf induced in the coil. According to
Lenz's law this emf opposes the change in the current due to which it becomes difficult to measure the
rate of change of current.

3. How do graphs of emf against time and current against time make it possible to measure

66
 self-inductance?

Ans. As we know that

𝜀
𝐿=
∆𝐼
∆𝑡
The graphs of emf against the time and current against the time are shown in the figure. From the graph
of voltage we can find the value of emf in a certain interval of time and from the graph of current we can
find the change in the current in the given interval of time, then by putting the values in the above
equation we can calculate the inductance of the coil.

4. Current and voltage provided by AC generator is some time negative and sometime positive. Explain
why for, an AC generator connected to a resistor, power can never be negative?

b) Explain, using sketch graphs, why the frequency of variation of power in an AC generator is twice as
that of the current and voltage.

Ans. The power delivered by AC generator to the Resistor of resistance R is given by

P = i2R

From this equation it is clear that power is directly proportional to the square of current, as the square of
a negative number is always positive, therefore the power delivered by AC generator is always positive.
For the pure inductor the voltage, current and power are given by

V = Vm cos ωt

I = Im sin ωt

The power of AC generator is

P = VI

P = (Vm cos ωt )( Im sin ωt )

P = Vmlm cos ωt sin ωt

67
 Dividing & multiplying by 2
𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚
𝑃= 2 cos 𝜔𝑡 sin 𝜔𝑡
2
𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚
𝑃= sin 2𝜔𝑡
√2√2
𝑃 = 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝐼𝑟𝑚𝑠 sin 2𝜔𝑡
This equation Show that the frequency of the power is twice as that of current.

V I
I

P
P
5. What determine the gradient of a graph of inductive reactance against frequency?
I

Ans. The inductive reactance is given by

𝑋𝐿 = 2𝜋𝑓𝐿
𝑋𝐿 ∝ 𝑓

The inductive reactance is directly proportional to the frequency so the graph of inductive reactance
against frequency is a straight line. The gradient of the graph is
𝑋𝐿
𝐺𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑡 = ......... (1)
𝑓

𝑋𝐿 = 2𝜋𝑓𝐿
𝑋𝐿
𝐿= ......... (2)
2𝜋𝑓

Comparing equation (1) & (2)

Gradient = L

Hence the graph of inductive reactance against frequency determine the inductance of coil.

68
 XL

Slope = L

6. How does doubling the frequency affect the reactance of (a) an inductor (b) a capacitor

Ans. The inductive reactance at frequency f is

𝑋𝐿 = 2𝜋𝑓𝐿
If we double the frequency that is f’ = 2f then

𝑋𝐿 ′ = 2𝜋𝑓′𝐿
𝑋𝐿 ′ = 2𝜋2𝑓𝐿
𝑋𝐿 ′ = 2(2𝜋𝑓𝐿)

𝑋𝐿 ′ = 2𝑋𝐿
Hence by doubling the frequency the inductive reactance also become double.

The capacitive reactance at frequency f is

1
𝑋𝐶 =
2𝜋𝑓𝐶
If we double the frequency that is f’ = 2f then
1
𝑋𝐶 ′ =
2𝜋𝑓′𝐶
1
𝑋𝐶 ′ =
2𝜋2𝑓𝐶
1
𝑋𝐶 ′ =
2𝑋𝐶
Hence by doubling the frequency the capacitive reactance becomes half.

69
7. If the peak value of a sine wave is 1000 volts, what is the effective value?

Ans. Maximum value = Vm = 1000 V

Effect (rms) value = Vrms =?

vrms = 0.707 x Vm

vrms = 0.707 x 1000

vrms = 707 V

8. Show that the reactance is measured in ohms for both inductors and capacitors.

Ans.

Inductor Capacitor
1
𝑋𝐶 =
𝑋𝐿 = 2𝜋𝑓𝐿 2𝜋𝑓𝐶

𝜀∆𝑡 𝑞
𝐿= 𝐶=
∆𝐼 𝑉

𝜀∆𝑡 1
𝑋𝐿 = 2𝜋𝑓 𝑋𝐶 = 𝑞
∆𝐼 2𝜋𝑓
𝑉
𝑉𝑠 𝑉
𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑋𝐿 = 𝑠 −1 𝑋𝐶 =
𝐴 2𝜋𝑓𝑞
𝑉
𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑋𝐿 = 𝑉
𝐴 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑋𝐶 =
𝑠 −1 𝐶
𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑋𝐿 = Ω 𝑉
𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑋𝐶 =
𝐴
𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑋𝐶 = Ω

9. Describe the principle of E.C.G.

Ans. "Electrocardiogram is a recording of the small electric waves generated during heart activity"

A small electric pulse initiates the normal heart beat. This electric pulse spread rapidly in the heart which
makes the heart muscle to contract. When heart beats it produce time-varying voltages which produce a
small potential difference on the skin, which is recorded and measured electronically to diagnose the
condition of heart.

70
 CHAPTER Physics of Solids
16 MCQ’S
Circle the correct option i.e. A / B / C / D. Each part carries one mark.
1. The applied force which the solid can withstand without breaking in called
A. Stiffness of solid B. Strength of solid
C. ductility D. Toughness of solid

2. It diamagnetic substances is brought near north or South Pole of a bar magnet

it is
Attracted by the poles Attracted by the north pole and
A. B.
repel by south pole
Attracted by South Pole and
C. D. Repelled by the poles
repelled by North Pole

3. The reciprocal of bulk modulus is called

A. Plasticity B. Conductivity
C. Compressibility D. ductility

4. The substances which undergo deformation with small force are called
A. Elastic substances B. inelastic Substances
C. diamagnetic substances D. Ductile substances

5. The substances which undergo plastic deformation until it breaks is

A. Ductile substance B. Brittle substances
C. Plastic Substances D. All

71
 The temperature at which the resistance of the conductor approaches to zero
6. is called

A. Curie temperature B. Critical temperature

C. Normal temperature D. Absolute temperature

The temperature at which the domains of the ferromagnetic substances

7. disorient is

A. Curie temperature B. Critical temperature

C. Normal temperature D. Absolute temperature

8. Choose the region of the spectrum which would be used to determine the
structure of the crystal solid
A. Visible B. Infrared

C. X-rays D. ultraviolet

9. The ratio of volumetric strain to volumetric stress is called

A. Compressibility B. Bulk modulus

C. Young's modulus D. shear modulus

10. The substances which break just after the elastic limit is reached is
A. Plastic Substance B. ordinary substances
C. brittle substances D. ductile substances

11. The applied force at which solid can be deformed

A. Strength B. Ductility
C. Stiffness D. toughness

72
12. Hooks law correlate the
A. Stress & strain B. Force & compression
C. Force & displacement D. Force & extension

13. What is the ultimate tensile strength of the material

Stress at which the material Stress at which the material
A. B.
becomes ductile deforms ductile
Stress at which the material Stress at which the material
C. D.
reaches the elastic limit breaks

14. Which of the following is the most elastic one

A. Rubber B. Wood
C. Sponge D. Steel

15. The solids in which the molecules or ions are arranged in regular repetitive
manner are called
A. Amorphous solids B. Glassy solids
C. Crystals D. polymers

16. In which of the following pairs are both substances normally crystalline
A. Copper & diamond B. copper & rubber
C. copper & glass D. Diamond & glass

17. Which of the following is not a ferromagnetic substance

A. Iron B. Cobalt
C. Nickel D. Barium

18. Select the statement about the amorphous solids

73
 The amorphous substances The amorphous Substances do
A. B.
have a sharp melting point not have a fixed melting point
The amorphous substances The particle in amorphous
C. have proper geometrical D. substances are arranged in an
shape orderly manner

19. When a permanent magnet is strength heated

A. It becomes induced magnet B. It bones its magnetism
C. Its magnetism increase D. Its polarity reverses

20. According to band theory of solids in the conductors, the conduction band and
valance bands are
A. Separated by large space B. Overlapped
separately by forbidden
C. D. None
energy gap

21. Stiff material is characterized by

A. High ultimate tensile Straight B. High proportional limit
C. High young's modulus D. High breaking length

22. What is the % elongation when 1m long copper wire is stretched by 20 cm due
to a stress?
A. 10 B. 20
C. 30 D. 0.2

23. What are the minority charge carriers in an N-type substance?

A. Protons B. positron
C. holes D. electrons

74
24. Which of the following bands may be either completely filled or partially filled
by electrons but can never be empty?
A. Conduction B. valance
C. forbidden D. none of these

25. The substances in which magnetic fields produced by orbital and spin
molecules of the electron add up to zero are called:
A. Ferromagnetic B. diamagnetic
C. paramagnetic D. none of these

26. A trivalent impurity is usually called:

A. Acceptor B. donor
C. rectifier D. transistor

27. If the stress is increased beyond the elastic limit of the material, it becomes
permanently changed, what is this behavior called?
A. Elastic deformation B. elasticity
C. plasticity D. none of these

28. The temperature below which the resistivity of a superconductor falls to zero
is called:
A. Critical temperature B. limiting temperature
C. Minimum temperature D. none of these

29. The smallest part of a crystal lattice is called:

A. An ion B. a molecule
C. an atom D. a unit cell

30. Electric conduction in semi-conductors take place due to

A. Diffusion B. drift

75
 C. both A and B D. None of these
31. Materials having zero resistance are called:
A. Semiconductors B. conductors
C. insulators D. superconductors
32. What is the formula for finding shear modulus "G"
∆𝐴 𝐹𝑙
A. B.
𝐴 𝐴∆𝑙
𝑭𝒍𝑨
C. D. none of these
𝒕𝒂𝒏𝜽

33. Domains exist in substances that are

A. Non-magnetic B. diamagnetic
C. paramagnetic D. ferromagnetic
34. Temperature at which magnetic substances loose their orderliness is called
A. Critical temperature B. zero Kelvin
C. curie temperature D. room temperature

35. N-type germanium is obtained by doping intrinsic germanium with impurity

atom
A. Tetravalent B. trivalent
C. pentavalent D. hexavalent
36. Which of the following is NOT a semiconductor?
A. Silicon B. germanium
C. gallium arsenide D. copper
37. The Curie temperature is that at which
Semiconductor becomes ferromagnetic becomes
A. B.
conductor paramagnetic
Paramagnetic becomes
C. D. metals become superconductors
diamagnetic

76
 Section B/Short questions
1. Evaluate the importance of strength and stiffness in a design context.

When an engineer designs a project, such as a multi-storey building, bridge or road, he keeps in
mind the load. Then he uses material strong enough to support that load. For example in the case
of a road, he takes care of the expected traffic load on it. Therefore, he select material which are
suitable for bearing that load. Thus if the appropriate level of the strength and stiffness is not taken
care of, the road will not be sustainable and will damage soon. Thus the strength and stiffness
considerations are important in the context of engineering design.

2. Discuss the superconductivity of a conductor with the help of a curve.

3. Distinguish between crystalline and polymeric solids.

The main difference between amorphous and crystalline polymers is that amorphous polymers do
not have uniformly packed molecules whereas crystalline polymers have uniformly packed
molecules.

4. Distinguish between amorphous and polymeric solids.

The main difference between amorphous and crystalline polymers is their molecular
arrangement. Amorphous polymers have no particular arrangement or a pattern whereas
crystalline polymers are well arranged molecular structures.

5. Distinguish between crystalline and amorphous solids.

77
6. Define unit cell, basis and space lattice.

a) A unit cell is the smallest building block of crystal structure, repetition of the unit cell forms a solid
crystal. Example- Cubic unit cell, Hexagonal unit cell etc.
b) A space lattice is an array of points showing how particles (atoms, ions or molecules) are arranged
at different sites in three dimensional spaces.

7. Differentiate between paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials with suitable examples.

Paramagnetic Material
A material aligning itself with the applied field is called paramagnetic material. Paramagnetic
materials such as aluminum and air have permeability’s slightly greater than that of free space (for
air μr =1.0000004). The effects of diamagnetic and paramagnetic are negligibly small so that
materials possessing these weak phenomena are said to be non-magnetic.
Ferromagnetic Material
Within the paramagnetic class of materials, is a special classification of materials called
ferromagnetic material. These materials are strongly attracted to magnets and exhibit
Paramagnetism to a phenomenal degree. Ferromagnetic materials such as iron, steel, cobalt and
their alloys have relative permeability’s extending into the hundreds and thousands, are said to be
magnetic.

8. Differentiate between paramagnetic and diamagnetic materials with suitable examples.

78
 Diamagnetic Material
A material that turns at a right angle to the field by producing a magnetic response opposite to the
applied field is called diamagnetic material such as silver, copper, and carbon have permeability’s
slightly less than free space (for copper, μr= 0.9999980).
Paramagnetic Material
A material aligning itself with the applied field is called paramagnetic material. Paramagnetic
materials such as aluminum and air have permeability’s slightly greater than that of free space (for
air μr =1.0000004). The effects of diamagnetic and paramagnetic are negligibly small so that
materials possessing these weak phenomena are said to be non-magnetic.

9. Distinguish between soft and hard Substances.

10. Explain Hook’s law and modulus of elasticity.

Hooke’s law states that the extension produced in the wire is directly proportional to the load
applied within elastic limit.
According to Hooke’s law, within elastic limit,
stress ∝ strain
or, stress = E × strain
Stress / Strain=E=Constant
Where E is known as the coefficient of elasticity or, the modulus of elasticity of a body.
It depends upon the nature of material of the body and the manner in which the body is
deformed.

79
11. Steel reinforcing is used in concrete beams to prevent cracking. Explain where the steel reinforcing
should be placed in concrete beam?

Concrete is brittle (inelastic) and cannot be stretched. In other words, force (stress) may break it
easily as it cannot be stretched. On the other hand, steel has a greater modulus of elasticity, i-e, it
is more elastic. Therefore, when steel is used in concrete beams, the risk of cracking is reduced.
For this purpose, a steel frame of 3, 4 or 5 steel rods is prepared with the help of steel rings. The
concrete structure is then developed by filling the frame and its outside with the concrete
material. The steel frame thus comes inside the beam near the outer surfaces. It keeps the beam
safe.
Steel rods are better to be near the surfaces of the beam.

12. What is meant by elastic limit of a material (b) in what way does a material behave if it obeys
Hook’s law?

Elastic limit, maximum stress or force per unit area within a solid material that can arise before
the onset of permanent deformation. When stresses up to the elastic limit are removed, the
material resumes its original size and shape. Stresses beyond the elastic limit cause a material to
yield or flow. For such materials the elastic limit marks the end of elastic behavior and the
beginning of plastic behavior. For most brittle materials, stresses beyond the elastic limit result in
fracture with almost no plastic deformation.

13. Cast-iron beam are used in bridge and building construction. The lower part of the beam is thicker
than the upper part. Why is it better for the lower part of the beam to be thicker than the upper
part? Give reasons for your answer including references to the tensile and compressive strength.

Not steel. Iron.

Forming steel was very expensive at the dawn of the industrial age. Iron was used as cast so
included impurities and was prone to fractures,

Cast iron is weak in tension so it makes sense for the tensile element to be bigger to reduce the
stresses.

80
14. Define stress and strain. What are their SI units? Differentiate between tensile, compressive and
shear modes of stress and strain.

The main difference between shear stress and tensile stress is that tensile stress refers to cases
where a deforming force is applied at right angles to a surface, whereas shear stress refers to cases
where a deforming force is applied parallel to a surface.

15. Define modulus of elasticity. Show that the units of modulus of elasticity and stress are the same.
Also discuss its three kinds.

The units of modulus of elasticity are pressure units, as it is defined as stress (pressure units) divided
by strain (dimensionless) which are same as modulus of elasticity.

16. Draw a stress-strain curve for a ductile material, and then define the terms: Elastic limit, Yield
point and Ultimate tensile stress.

17. What is meant by strain energy? How can it be determined from force-extension graph?
Strain energy is a type of potential energy that is stored in a structural member as a result of elastic
deformation. The external work done on such a member when it is deformed from its unstressed state
is transformed into (and considered equal to the strain energy stored in it. If, for instance, a beam that
is supported at two ends is subjected to a bending moment by a load suspended in the canter, then the
beam is said to be deflected from its unstressed state, and strain energy is stored in it.

81
18. What is meant by hysteresis loss? How is it used in the construction of a transformer?

Hysteresis loss is caused by the magnetization and demagnetization of the core as current flows in
the forward and reverse directions. As the magnetizing force (current) increases, the magnetic flux
increases. But when the magnetizing force (current) is decreased, the magnetic flux doesn’t
decrease at the same rate, but less gradually. Therefore, when the magnetizing force reaches zero,
the flux density still has a positive value. In order for the flux density to reach zero, the magnetizing
force must be applied in the negative direction.

19. A 1.50 cm length of pianos wire with diameter of 0.25 cm is stretched by attaching a 10 kg mass
to one end. How far is the wire stretched?

82
 Exercise questions

20. Explain the differences between tensile and compressive forces and how they affect equilibrium
within a structure.

When an external force is applied on an object, it changes its shape or size. Hence there are three
types of deformations and corresponding three elastic moduli. The tensile stress produces a tensile
strain and their ratio is called Young’s Modulus. Shear stress produces shear strain and the ratio is
called shear modulus. (Shear here means to force sideways. Bulk or volume stress produces volume
strain and their ratio is called Bulk modulus. (Bulk means total volume).

21. Draw and describe a stress/strain graph and identify the elastic region, plastic flow region, yield
stress and ultimate tensile stress.

83
22. Describe the valence band, conduction band and forbidden energy gap with the help of energy
level diagram.

Valence band: See the figure above showing energy levels of atoms in solid structure. The lower
band is called valence band. In valence band the electrons are tightly bound to the nucleus of the
respective atom and cannot move around in the body of the solid. This band may never be empty.
However, in some cases, they may be partially filled. The bands below valence band are completely
filled with electrons and do not take part in any electrical activity.
Conduction band: This is the upper band; see figure. In this band, the electrons are freely moving
about, causing the electric current when a potential difference is applied across the solid
(conductor). This band may be empty, or partially filled. When energy is supplied to the electrons in
the valence band, they jump to the conduction band and are accommodated there.

84
 Forbidden energy gap: Forbidden energy gaps are situated between valence and conduction bands.
The electrons cannot stay in this region. Forbidden energy gap is much larger in case of insulator
material.

23. Discuss the superconductivity of a conductor with the help of a curve

24. Describe the mechanical properties of solids?

Mechanical properties of solids elaborates the characteristics such as the resistance to

deformation and their strength. Strength is the ability of an object to withstand the applied stress,
to what extent can it bear the stress. Resistance to deformation is how resistant any object is to
the change of shape. If the resistance to deformation is less, the object can easily change its shape
and vice versa.
Therefore, some of the mechanical properties of solids include:
1. Elasticity: When we stretch an object, it changes its shape and when we leave, it regains its
shape. Or we can say it is the property to regain the original shape once the external force is
removed. Example: Spring
2. Plasticity: When an object changes its shape and never comes back to its original shape
even when external force is removed. It is the property of permanent deformation.
Example: Plastic materials.
3. Ductility: When an object can be pulled in thin sheets, wires or plates, it has the ductile
properties. It is the property of being drawn into thin wires/sheets/plates. Example: Gold
or Silver
4. Strength: The ability to withstand applied stress without failure. Many categories of
objects have higher strength than others.

25. Describe Hysteresis loop a ferromagnetic material.

85
86
 CHAPTER Electronics
17 MCQ’S

Circle the correct option i.e. A / B / C / D. Each part carries one mark.

1. The central region of a transistor is called:

A. Base B. Emitter
C. Collector D. Neutral

2. The SI unit of current gain is:

A. Ampere B. Ohm-meter
C. Volt D. It has no units

3. At high frequency, the current through a capacitor of AC circuit will be:

A. Large B. Infinite
C. Small D. Zero

4. A NAND gate with two inputs A & B has anoutput 0 if:

A. A is 0 B. B is zero
C. Both A and B are 0 D. Both A and B are 1

5. In n-type materials, the minority carriers are:

A. Holes B. mesons
C. protons D. Free electrons

6. An expression for current gain of a transistor is given by :

A. 𝛽 = 𝐼𝐵 B. 𝛽 = 𝐼𝐵 + 𝐼𝐶
C. 𝛽 = 𝐼𝐶 − 𝐼𝐵 D. 𝛽 = 𝐼𝐶

7. The condition of resonance reached when:

A. XC > XL B. XL = XC
C. XL < XC D. None of these

8. If the motor is overloaded, then the magnitude of “back emf”:

A. Increases B. Decreases
C. Constant D. Becomes zero

87
9. The practical application of phenomenon of mutual induction is:
A. Electrical motor B. Transformer
C. Ac generator D. DC generator

10. When a PN junction is reverse biased, the depletion region is:

A. Widened B. Narrowed
C. Normal D. No change

11. The phase difference between each pair of coils of a three phase AC generator is:
A. 0° B. 120°
C. 90° D. 180°

12. The waves which can also pass through the vacuum are:
A. Matter wave B. Mechanical wave
C. Mechanical wave D. Electromagnetic wave

13. The unit used for capacitive reactance is

A. Volt B. Joule
C. Ampere D. Ohm

14. Power dissipated in pure inductor is:

A. Large B. Infinite
C. Small D. Zero

15. In case of phasor diagram the vector rotates:

A. Clockwise B. Remain stationary
C. Anti-clockwise D. None

16. If the frequency of A.C in large the reactance of capacitor is:

A. large B. zero
C. small D. none

17. In case of capacitor, the voltage lag behind the current by:
A. 90o B. 30o
C. 60o D. 180o

18. The combine opposition of resistor, capacitor and inductor is called:

A. Reactance B. Impedance
C. Resistor D. None

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19. The S.I unit of impedance is called:
A. Joule B. ohm
C. Weber D. Ampere

20. The reactance of inductor is represented by:

A. Xc B. RL
C. XL D. None

21. By increasing the frequency of A.C. through an inductor the reactance will be:
A. Increases B. Remain same
C. Decreases D. None

22. The behavior of resistance is frequency:

A. Dependent B. Independent
C. No, response D. None of these

23. The process of combing the low frequency signal with high frequency radio-wave is
Called:
A. Modulation B. Amplification
C. Rectification D. None

24. At resonance frequency the power factor is:

A. one B. Two
C. zero D. three

25. A capacitor is perfect insulator for:

A. Alternating current B. Both a and b
C. Direct current D. none

26. The frequency at which XL is equal to XC in called:

A. Resonance frequency B. Non-frequency
C. Threshold frequency D. none

27. During each cycle A.C voltage reaches its peak value:
A. One time B. Four time
C. Two times D. None of these

28. At resonance frequency the impedance of A.C series circuit is:

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 A. Maximum B. Cannot explain by give data
C. Minimum D. none

29. In modulation, high frequency radio wave is called:

A. Fluctuated wave B. Carrier wave
C. Matter wave D. Energetic wave

30. The electrical oscillators are used in:

A. Metal detectors B. Diode
C. Amplifier D. none

90
 Short Questions Answers
1. How does the motion of an electron in a n-type substance differ from the motion of holes in a p-type
substance?
Ans. The majority carriers in n-type substance are the free electrons and majority carriers in p-type substances
are holes. The electrons move from lower to higher potential where-as hole moves from higher to lower
potential. The motion of electrons in n-type substance is much rapid than the motion of holes in p-type
substance.

2. What is the net charge on a n-type or p-type substance?

Ans. p-type and n-type substances are electrically neutral. Since they are made as a result of combination of atoms
of intrinsic semi-conductors and atoms of impurity which are neutral

3. The anode of a diode is 0.2 V positive with respect to its cathode. Is it forward biased.
Ans. The anode of diode (p-type) is at higher potential (.2 volt) with respect to cathode (n-type). Hence the p-side
of diode is positive respect to n side. Therefore p-n junction is forward biased.

4. Why charge carriers are not present in the depletion region?

Ans. When p-n junction is formed, some of the electron of n-type diffuse into p-type substance to neutralize the
holes. As a result the flow of electron stops due to the formation of potential barrier. The region on both
sides of junction is called depletion region because all the mobile carriers are depleted off from this region.

5. What is the effect of forward and reverse biasing of a diode on the width of depletion region?
Ans. When p-n junction is forward biased, the width of the depletion region decreases. However on reverse
biasing the junction, width of depletion region is increased.

6. Why ordinary silicon diodes do not emit light?

Ans. In case of silicon energy gap between is 1ev between valence and conduction band. Therefore when electron
jump from conduction band to valence band it will give off photon of energy 1ev. This photon of energy

91
 approximately 1ev will not lie in visible range of electromagnetic radiation. Hence light is not emitted by
using diode made up of silicon.

7. Why a photo diode is operated in reverse biased state?

Ans. Photodiode is basically the device for detecting light. That is why the photodiode is operated in reverse biased
state. In reverse biasing, the current due to voltage is almost zero, so when light is allowed to fall on depletion
region electron hole pairs are created which give rise to size-able current and this current is the detection of
light. The reverse current is directly proportional to the intensity of light.

8. Why is the current in a transistor very small?

Ans. As base of the transistor is thin and is lightly dopes, therefore very few of the charge carriers coming from
emitter get neutralized in base. This will give rise to very small base current. Due to reverse biasing of
collector-base junction, almost all the electrons enter into collector. A few charge carriers pass through the
base circuit and a negligible current flow into through it.

9. What is the biasing requirement of the junctions of a transistor for its normal operation? Explain how
these requirements are met in a common emitter
amplifier?
Ans. For normal operation of transistor, the emitter to base
junction is forward biased and collector to base junction is
reversed biased. In common emitter amplifier, both the
requirements can be met by connecting the two batteries
VBB and VCC to be connected forward biased for emitter-
base junction and collector-base junction is reverse biased.

10. What is the principle of virtual ground? Apply it to find the gain of an inverting amplifier.
Ans. For an op. amplifier AOL is open loop gain which is very high of the order 10(5). Thus for given Vo, (V+ - V-) =
0

V+ = V-

If V+ is grounded then V- becomes almost zero that is V- = 0. Hence inverting input will be virtually grounded.
From the fig

I1 = I2

(V- -- Vi) / R1 = (V- --Vo)/ R2

(0-Vi )/ R1 = (0- Vo)/R2

Vo/Vi = -R2 / R1

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 G = - R2 /R1

11. The inputs of a gate are 1 and 0, Identify the gate if its output is (a) 0, (b) 1.
Ans. a. Inputs of given gate 1 and 0, output is 0 so in first case the gates may be And, NOR, XNOR Gate.
b. Inputs of given gate 1 and 0, output is 1 so the Gates may be OR, NAND, XOR Gates.

12. What is parallel resonance circuit? Describe its properties. Also find the resonance frequency for the
circuit.
We have seen that Parallel Resonance circuits are similar to series resonance circuits. Resonance occurs in a
Ans. parallel RLC circuit when the total circuit current is “in-phase” with the supply voltage as the two reactive
components cancel each other out.
At resonance the admittance of the circuit is at its minimum and is equal to the conductance of the circuit.
Also at resonance the current drawn from the supply is also at its minimum and is determined by the value
of the parallel resistance

13. What do you mean by forward biasing?.

Ans. When p-type substance is connected to the positive terminal and -type substance is connected to the
negative terminal of a battery, then p-n junction is said to be forward biased.

14. What is n-p-n transistor?

Ans. A p-type substance sandwiched by two n-type substances produces n-p-n transistor. The thin central p-
region is called the base, one n-region is called the emitter and the other is called collector.

15. What are essential components required for rectification?

Ans. Following components are required for rectification.
 Input AC source
 Diodes
 Transformer
 Load

16. Why a photo diode is operated in reverse biased state?

Ans. A photo diode is operated in reverse biased because in forward bias it acts like very low resistance and there
is no need of extra energy to conduct the current which is supped by incident light.

17. Why is the base current in a transistor very low?

Ans. The base current is very low during the action of a transistor. It is due to the reason that while passing
through base, the emitter current and the collector current are in opposite direction and these try to cancel
each other.

18. What is the difference between full wave and half wave rectifier?
Ans. A Half-Wave rectifier is an electronic circuit which converts only one-half of the AC cycle into pulsating DC.
It utilizes only half of AC cycle for the conversion process. On the other hand, Full wave rectifier is an
electronic circuit which converts entire cycle of AC into Pulsating DC.

93
 CHAPTER Dawn of modern Physics
18 MCQ’S

Circle the correct option i.e. A / B / C / D. Each part carries one mark.

01. 1. The Einstein mass-energy relationship is

A. 𝐸 = 𝑚𝑐 B. 𝐸 = 𝑚𝑐3
C. 𝐸 = 𝑚𝑐2 D. 𝐸 = 𝑚2 𝑐2

02. When an electron combines with a positron, we get

A. One photon B. Two photons
C. Three photons D. Four photons

03. Production of X-rays can be regarded as the reverse phenomenon of

A. Pair production B. Photoelectric effect
C. Compton effect D. Annihilation of matter

04. The radius of atom is the order of

A. 1010 𝑚 B. 10−10 𝑚
C. 10−14 𝑚 D. 1014 𝑚
05. In 1905, the special theory of relativity was proposed by
A. Maxwell B. De Broglie
C. Bohr D. Einstein

06. Neutron was discovered in 1932 by

A. Bohr B. Chadwick
C. Dirac D. Fermi

07. The rest mass of photon is

A. Infinity B. Zero
C. h𝑓 D. 𝑚𝑐2

08. A maximum Compton shift in the wavelength of scattered photon will be occur at
A. 𝜃 = 0° B. 𝜃 = 45°
C. 𝜃 = 90° D. 𝜃 = 180°

94
09. The Davisson and Germer experiment indicates:
A. Interference B. Polarization
C. Electron diffraction D. Refraction

10. A positron is a particle having

A. Mass equal to electron B. Charge equal to electron
C. Equal mass but opposite charge to D. Mass equal to proton
electron

11. In Compton scattering, the Compton shift ∆𝜆 will be equal to Compton wavelength
if the scattering angle is
A. 0° B. 45°
C. 60° D. 90°

12. Unit of plank’s constant is

A. volt B. Js
C. J s−1 D. 𝑒𝑉

13. . Which one is most energetic?

A. 𝛾 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠 B. 𝑋 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠
C. 𝑈𝑙𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑣𝑖𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑡 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠 D. 𝑉𝑖𝑠𝑖𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑙𝑖𝑔ht

14. The total amount of energy radiated per unit orifice area of cavity radiator per unit time is
directly proportional to
A. 𝑇 B. 𝑇2
C. 𝑇3 D. 𝑇4

15. Plank’s constant h has the same units as that of

A. Linear momentum B. Angular momentum
C. Torque D. Power

16. Photoelectric effect was explained by

A. Hertz B. Einstein
C. Rutherford D. Bohr

17. All motions are

A. Absolute B. Uniform

95
 C. Relative D. Variable

18. The rest mass energy of an electron in MeV is equal to

A. 0.511 B. 0.611
C. 0.902 D. 1.02

19. An observer shoots parallel to a meter stick at very high speed (relativistic) and finds that
the length of meter stick is __________
A. Greater than one meter B. Less than one meter
C. One meter D. None of these

20. Linear momentum of a photon is

A. Zero B. hf/c2
C. hf/c D. c2/hf

21. Photon with energy greater than 1.02 MeV can interact with matter as
A. Photoelectric effect B. Compton effect
C. Pair production D. Pair annihilation

22. Stopping potential for a metal surface in case of photo electric emission depends on:
A. The threshold frequency for the B. The intensity of incident light
metal surface
C. The frequency of incident light and D. None of these
the work function for metal surface

23. As the temperature of black body is raised, the wavelength corresponding to maximum
intensity
A. Shifts towards longer wavelength B. Shifts towards shorter wavelength
C. Remains the same D. Shifts towards shorter as well as
longer wavelength

24. The name of photon for quantum of light was proposed by

A. Ampere B. Planck’s
C. Thomson D. Einstein

25. A photon is a ____________

A. Unit of energy B. Positively charged particle
C. Packet of electromagnetic radiations D. Unit of wavelength

96
26. The light of suitable frequency falling on matel surface ejects electrons, this
phenomenon is called
A. X-ray emission B. Compton effect
C. Photoelectric effect D. Nuclear fission

27. The minimum energy needed for a photon to create an electron-positron pair is
A. 1.02 KeV B. 0.51 KeV
C. 0.51 MeV D. 1.02 MeV

28. Davisson and Germer indicates _____________ in their experiment

A. Electron refraction B. Electron polarization
C. Electron reflection D. Electron diffraction

29. In Davison – Germer experiment, the diffracted proton from crystal shows____________
A. Particle property B. Wave property
C. Light property D. Quantum property

30. In electron microscope, electric and magnetic field are used as _______
A. Electromagnetic gun B. Source of electromagnetic waves
C. Deflected charged particle D. Converging source of electrons

31. The uncertainty in momentum and position is due to its ___________

A. Property of matter and radiation B. Two dimensional motions
C. Emotion of certain wave length D. Very high velocity

32. The energy radiated is directly proportional to fourth power of Kelvin’s temperature is __
A. Karl-wein’s laws B. Raleigh jeans law
C. Stephens law D. Planck’s

33. The anti-particle of electron is

A. Proton B. Positron
C. Meson D. Neutron

34. The reverse process of pair-production is

A. Annihilation B. Materialization
C. Fission D. Fusion

97
35. The decrease in length with speed was explained by
A. Einstein B. Lorentz
C. Bohr D. None

36. 36. All the motion in this universe are

A. Absolute B. Uniform
C. Variable D. Relative

37. Pair production cannot possible in

A. Air B. Water
C. Glass D. Vacuum

38. The minimum energy required for pair production is

A. 10.2 Mev B. 1.02 Mev
C. 102 Mev D. None

39. The relation Max  Contt. is

A. Wein’s Law B. Plank’s Law
C. Stephen Law D. None

40. A quantity √𝟏 − 𝒗²/𝒄² is always

A. Greater than one B. Less than one
C. Equal to one D. None of these

41. Who gave the idea of matter wave?

A. De-Broglie B. Planck
C. Einstein D. Huygen

42. The Stefen-Boltzmann’s constant has the value

A. 5.67 × 10-5Wm-2K-4 B. 5.67 × 10-6Wm-1K-4
C. 5.67 × 10-6Wm-2K-4 D. 5.67 × 10-8Wm-2K-4

43. The energy of photon of radio waves is only about

A. 10-6eV B. 10-4eV
C. 10-10eV D. 10-12eV

44. The idea of quantization of energy was proposed by

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 A. Einstein B. Max Planck
C. Compton D. None of these

45. Application of photoelectric effect is

A. Photo diode B. Photo transistor
C. Photocell D. None of these

46. In Compton effect, the law/laws are conserved

A. Energy B. Momentum
C. Both D. None of these

47. The equations of pair production is

A. hf = 2moc2 – KE(e-) + K.E (e+) B. hf = 2moc2 + KE(e-) + K.E (e+)
C. hf = 2mo2c2 + KE(e-) + K.E (e+) D. hf = 2mo2c + KE(e-) + K.E (e+)

48. Which of the following has the same dimension as h/moc?

A. Length B. Time
C. Mass D. None

49. Photon ‘A’ has twice the energy of photon ‘B’. What is the ratio of the momentum of ‘A’ to
that of ‘B’?
A. 4:1 B. 2:1
C. 1:2 D. None

50. Electron is an antiparticle of

A. Proton B. Photon
C. Positron D. Deuteron

99
 Short Questions Answers
2. What is the origin of Modern Physics?
Ans. Modern physics is a branch of physics that developed in the early 20th century and onwards or
branches greatly influenced by early 20th century physics.

3. Why newton Physics Failed?

Ans. Newton theory failed because under certain limitations it is not applicable.
1- At very small scales
2- Very high speeds
3- Very strong gravitational field
4. Why GPS gain importance in the special theory of Relativity?
Ans. GPS accounts for relativity by electronically adjusting the rates of the satellite clocks, and by
building mathematical corrections into the computer chips which solve for the user's location.
Without the proper application of relativity, GPS would fail in its navigational functions within
about 2 minutes.

5. What is the function of GPS in Relativistic motion?

Ans. GPS accounts for relativity by electronically adjusting the rates of the satellite clocks, and by
building mathematical corrections into the computer chips which solve for the user's location.

6. What is twins Paradox Reaction?

Ans. In physics, the twin paradox is a though experiment in special relativity involving identical
twins, one of whom makes a journey into space in a high-speed rocket and returns home to
find that the twin who remained on Earth has aged more.

7. How we cannot find out the accurate time in relativistic motion?

Ans. By time dilation we can find accurate time in relativistic motion.

8. Why we cannot move an object with speed of light?

Ans. According to the laws of physics, as we approach light speed, we have to provide more and
more energy to make an object move. In order to reach the speed of light, you'd need an
infinite amount of energy, and that's impossible.

9. How fast must a meter stick be moving if its length is observed to shrink to one-half of a
meter?

100
Ans. It must move with a speed of 2.6*10^8ms.

10. How black body gain attention in Modern Physics?

Ans. Blackbody radiation is a theoretical concept in quantum mechanics in which a material or
substance completely absorbs all frequencies of light. Because of the laws of thermodynamics,
this ideal body must also re-emit as much light as it absorbs. Although there is no material that
can truly be a blackbody, some have come close. Carbon in its graphite form is about 96%
efficient in its absorption of light.

11. How black body failed Newtonian Physics?

Ans. According to classical physics, energy is continuous and there is equal distribution of energy
among the various degrees of freedom of a particular system, known as the equi-partition of
energy. This was exactly the idea used in Rayleigh -Jeans’ Equation of Blackbody Radiation. But
it was seen that this equation predicts that the energy of the black body radiation would
become infinite at very high frequency of the radiation, which does not agree with realistic
experimental results. Thus classical physics is incorrect. Later on, Max Planck showed that if we
avoid classical equi-partition and consider energy to be discrete, then the results obtained
agree beautifully with the experimental results. Hence quantum physics was born.

12. How Raleigh-Jeans is differ from Wien’s displacement law?

Ans. Wien's displacement law states that the blackbody radiation curve for different temperatures
peaks at a wavelength inversely proportional to the temperature. The shift of that peak is a
direct consequence of the Planck radiation law which describes the spectral brightness of black
body radiation as a function of wavelength at any given temperature. However it had been
discovered by Wilhelm Wien several years before Max Planck developed that more general
equation, and describes the entire shift of the spectrum of black body radiation toward shorter
wavelengths as temperature increases.

13. Discuss the graphical behavior of Wein’s and Raleigh Jeans Law?
Ans. In physics, the Rayleigh–Jeans law is an approximation to the spectral radiance
of electromagnetic radiation as a function of wavelength from a black body at a given
temperature through classical arguments.

14. What is Quanta?

Ans. A discrete quantity of energy proportional in magnitude to the frequency of the radiation it
represents.

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15. What is the main features of Plank’s theory?
Ans. Radiant energy is not emitted or absorbed continuously but discontinuously in the form of
small packets of energy called quanta. Each such quantum is associated with a definite amount
of energy.

16. The temperature of the human skin is approximately 350 C. What is the Wavelength at which
Ans. the peak occurs in the radiation emitted from skin?
Wavelength(max)=0.2898*10^-2

17. How solar cell is an application of Photoelectric effect?

Ans. The photoelectric effect occurs when electrons are ejected from the surface of a solid material
like metal when exposed to sunlight. Any material that reacts to this sunlight exposure is
considered a photoemissive material and the electrons that get ejected are called
photoelectron.

18. What is Compton Scattering?

Ans. Compton effect also called Compton scattering, increase in wavelength of rays and other
energetic electromagnetic radiations that have been elastically scattered by electrons; it is a
principal way in which radiant energy is absorbed in matter. The effect has proved to be one
of the cornerstones of quantum mechanics, which accounts for both wave and particle
properties of radiation as well as of matter.

19. Calculate maximum Compton wavelength?

Ans. Δλ = h/mc(1 − cos θ) where θ is the scattering angle.
Δλ will be maximum for θ = 180◦ in which case
Δλ(max) = 2h/mc = 4c/mc2 = 4π × 197.3 MeV-fermi/0.511 MeV = 0.0485Å

20. How Pair Production Obeys law of conservation of energy?

Ans. Pair production often refers specifically to a photon creating an electron positron pair near a
nucleus. As energy must be conserved, for pair production to occur the energy of the photon
must be above a threshold of at least the total rest mass energy of the two particle created.

21. Why a Photon cannot create a single electron?

Ans. A single electron sitting motionless in space cannot give off a photon and recoil otherwise we
get energy for nothing. In another frame this electron is moving with momentum and energy

102
 even so it still cannot shoot off a single photon because the physics of the original center of
mass frame.

22. Calculate the energy of Pair Production?

Ans. The mass m of a single electron is equivalent to 0.51 million electron volts (MeV) of energy E as
calculated from the equation formulate E = mc2, in which c is a constant equal to the velocity
of light. To produce two electrons, therefore, the photon energy must be at least 1.02 MeV.

23. How Pair Annihilation is differ from Pair Production?

Ans. The conversion of a photon into an electron-positron pair on its interaction with the strong
electric field surrounding a nucleus is known as pair production. Annihilation of matter is the
converse of pair production in which an electron and positron combine to produce two
photons.

24. How davisson and germer experiment explains the wave nature of light?
Ans. The Davisson and Germer experiment showed that electron beams can undergo diffraction when
passed through the atomic crystals. This shows that the wave nature of electrons as waves can
exhibit interference and diffraction.

25. Determine the wavelength of electron that has been accelerated through a Potential
difference of (a). 50V (b). 200V
Ans. We know that, 21mv2=K.E.=ev
Charge on electron: 1.6×10−19 coulombs
Mass of electron=9.1×10−31 kg
21×9.1×10−31×v2=1.6×10−19×100
v2=2×1.6×10−9×9.1×10−31100
v2=0.0150
v=1.88×106m/s
Now, λ=mvh
∴λ=0.1226nm

26. What is electron Microscope?

Ans. An electron microscope is a microscope that uses a beam accelerated electrons as a source of
illumination.

27. Why don’t we observe compton’s effect with visible light?

103
Ans. For Compton effect to take place, the incident photon must have enough energy to knock off
an electron from its shell i.e. more than the binding energy of the electron and then have
surplus energy left after that. But energy of a photon in visible spectrum due to its large
wavelength is not high enough to cause a Compton shift instead it shows photoelectric effect.

28. Why ultraviolet radiation is harmful to skin while visible light is not?
Ans. UV waves are shorter than visible light waves, so UV possesses more energy than regular
[Link] photons have the right energies to cause chemical changes. When UV light hits your
skin, the DNA in your skin cells can undergo chemical change. These DNA lesions are called
thymine dimers.

29. Why we cannot find the exact location of Position and momentum simultaneously?
Ans. Specifically, the exact momentum (energy) and the exact position can't be known
simultaneously. Because something in motion will tend to remain in motion, you can
determine the direction by knowing the momentum. (For example, if a car has forward
momentum, you know it's moving in the forward direction.)

30. What is Uncertainty Principle?

Ans. The principle that the momentum and position of a particle cannot both be precisely
determined at the same time.

104
 CHAPTER ATOMIC SPECTRA
19
MCQ’S
Circle the correct option i.e. A / B / C / D. Each part carries one mark.

01. A laser beam can be sharply focused because it is:

A.  Intense B.  Highly coherent
C. Highly Directional D.  Circularly polarized

02. An X-ray tube operating at 30kV, will emit X-ray of minimum wavelength____________.
A.  2.14 Å B.  1.78 Å
C.  2840 Å D.  0.413 Å

03. LASER action can’t be achieved without:

A. Induced Emission B. Population Inversion
C. Spontaneous emission D.  All of them

04. Photon of highest frequency will be absorbed when transition takes place from_______.
A.  3rd to 5th orbit B.  2nd to 5th orbit
C.  4th to 5th orbit D.  1st to 5th orbit

05. Excited atoms return to their ground state in:

A.  10^-6s B.  10^-8s
C.  10^-9s D.  10^-10s

06. In He-Ne laser, the lasing action is produced by:

 A.  He-Ne both B. Ne only
C.  Electrons of Ne D.  Electrons of He

07. Normal human body temperature 98.6oF corresponds to:

A. 37oC B. 42oC
C. 55oC D. 410oC

08. Reverse process of photoelectric effect is:

A.  Compton effect B.  Annihilation of matter

105
 C. X-rays production D. Pair production

09. Radiation with wavelength longer than red lights:

A.  X-rays B.  Visible radiation
C.  UV-rays D.  Infrarsd radiation

10. The energy required to remove an electron in a hydrogen atom from n=10 state is:
A.  13.6 eV B.  0.0136 eV
C.  0.136 eV D.  1.36 eV

11. UV radiation can be produced by:

A.  Ionization of atoms B. Heating the filament
C. Electron excitation in the gas D.  All
directions

12. Quality of X-rays depends upon:

A.  Accelerating voltage B.  Filament current
C.  Material of the target D.  Both first and third

13. X-rays exhibit the phenomenon of:

A.  Diffraction B.  Interference
C.  Polarization D. All are correct

14. The transition of inner shell electrons in heavy atoms give rise to the emission of:
A.  High energy photon or x-rays B.  High energy γ rays
C.  Low energy photons or x-rays D.  High energy β rays

15. The duration of a laser pulse is 10(-8) sec. The uncertainty in its energy will be:
A.  ΔE = h/Δt B.  ΔE = hΔt
C.  ΔE = Δt/h D.  None of the these

16. Characteristic of x-rays are produced from:

A.  Heavy element B.  Light element
C.  Inner shell D.  Both first and third

17. In the production of laser beam for each incident photon, we will have two photons going:
A.  In the same direction B.  In opposite direction
C.  At right angle to each other D.  In arbitrary direction

106
18. Reflecting mirrors in laser is used to:
A.  For producing more energetic B.  Further stimulation
lasers
C.  Both first and second D.  None of these

19. In He-Ne laser, the laser action is produced by:

A.  Ne only B.  He-Ne both
C.  Electrons of He D.  Electrons Ne

20. The excited atoms returns to their ground state in:

A.  10(-6) sec B.  10(-8) sec
C.  10(-5) sec D.  10(-11) sec

21. Life time of meta-stable states is:

A.  10(-6) sec or more B.  10(-3) sec or more
C.  10(-5) sec or more D.  None of these

22. Helium-Neon laser discharge tube contains neon:

A.  82 % B.  15 %
C.  25 % D.  85 %

23. Laser can be made by creating:

A.  Population inversion B.  Metastable state
C.  Assembly D.  All of the above

24. The size of the atom is approximately equal to:

A.  10(-4) cm or 10(-6) meter B.  10(-6) cm or 10(-8) meter
C.  10(-8) cm or 10(-10) meter D.  10(-12) cm or 10(-14) meter

25. According to Bohr's postulates which of the following quantities takes discrete values?
A.  Kinetic energy B.  Potential energy
C.  Angular momentum D.  Momentum

26. According to Bohr principle, the relation between main quantum number (n) and radius of
orbit (r) is:
A.  r ∝ 1/n B.  r ∝ n
C.  r ∝ n(2) D.  r ∝ 1/n(2)

107
27. The radius of electron's second stationary orbit in Bohr's atom is R. The radius of the third
orbit will be:
A.  3 R B.  2.25 R
C.  9 R D.  R/3

28. Of the various series of the hydrogen spectrum, the one which lies wholly in the ultraviolet
region is:
A.  Lyman series B.  Balmer series
C.  Paschen series D.  Brackett series

29. Hydrogen atoms are excited from ground state to the state of principal quantum number
Then the number of spectral lines observed will be:
A. 3 B. 6
C. 5 D. 2

30. The required energy to detach one electron from Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum is:
A.  13.6 eV B.  10.2 eV
C.  3.4 eV D.  -1.5 eV

31. Which of the following electromagnetic waves have the smallest wavelength?
A. γ-rays B. UV-rays
C. X-rays D. Infrared rays

32. The shortest wavelength of X-rays emitted from an X-ray tube depends on the:
A. Current in the tube B. Voltage applied to the tube
C. Nature of the gas in the tube D. Atomic number of the target

33. The characteristic of the target element that determines the frequency of characteristic X-
rays, is:
A. its mass number B. its atomic number
C. its melting point D. its conductivity

34. The voltage applied across an X-ray tube is nearly:

A. 10 volt B. 100 volt
C. 10000 volt D. 10(6) volt

35. Which of the following lies wholly in the ultraviolet region?

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 A. Lyman series B. Paschen series
C. Brackett series D. Balmer series

36. What is the ratio of the velocity of electron in third Bohr's orbit to the velocity in 2nd orbit?

A. 9/4 B. 2/3
C. 3/2 D. 4/9

37. Dimension of Rydberg constant is:

A. LT(-1) B. L(-1)T
C. L(-1) D. None of these

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 Short Questions Answers

1. What is the colorful example of fluorescence?

Ans. Objects glow in the visible spectrum when illuminated by an ultraviolet light. Emissions are
characteristics of the mineral involved, since they are related to its energy levels. In the case of
scorpions, proteins near the surface of their skin give off the characteristics blue glow. This is a
colorful example of fluorescence in which excitation is induced by UV radiation while de-
excitation occurs in the form of visible light.

2. Define Atomic Spectra?

Ans. The spectrum of frequencies of electromagnetic radiation emitted or absorbed during transition
of electrons between energy levels with an atom is called atomic spectra.

3. Differentiate between Line Emission and Line Absorption Spectrum?

Ans. If the Potential difference is applied to the electrodes, the tube will emit light. If emitted light is
passed through aligning slits and then through a spectroscope a series of discrete line is
observed, each line corresponds to different wavelength, termed as line emission spectrum. If
a beam of white light passes through a sample of the substance. Photons absorbed by the atoms
are missing from the transmitted light, causing dark lines to appear in the continuous spectrum
called line absorption spectrum.

4. Which element has simplest line spectrum?

Ans. The simplest line spectrum is that of atomic hydrogen and much effort has been devoted to
understanding the pattern of wavelength that it contains.

5. Who was calculated the Visible region of Atomic spectra?

Ans. In 1885 balmer was the first person who calculated the wave length of atomic spectra in visible
region. The wavelength of predicted accurately calculated by empirical formula. The formula of
wavelength is shown as

110
 1 1 1
= RH (𝑝2 − )
𝜆𝑛 𝑛2
Whereas RH is Rydberg constant and it’s value is equal to RH = 1.0974×107 m-1. And his
formulation predicted that series of other lines might also exist. With in few years spectra from
other regions beyond visible were obtained, which is divided into different groups each named
after their discoverer.

6. What is the draw back of Rutherford’s atomic model?

Ans. According to Classical Physics requires that an accelerated electric charge, such as orbiting
electron must continuously radiate electromagnetic energy. As it radiates this energy, its total
energy would decreases the electron would spiral toward the nucleus and the atom would
collapse.

7. What is Quantization of Angular Momentum?

Ans. In stationary states the angular momentum “L” of the electron takes values that are integral
multiple of “h”. in these states the angular momentum of the electron may have magnitude only
of h,2h,3h,…. But never values as 2.5h, 3.7h e.t.c. This is called the quantization of angular
momentum.

8. What is Radii of Quantized orbits?

Ans. Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom states that electrons can orbit the nucleus only at certain
specific distance from the nucleus. These distance are multiples of the radius of the smallest
permitted orbit. Thus, the radius of these orbits are radii of quantized orbits.

9. Calculate the radius of ground shell by using bohr’s model?

Ans. The radius of bohr’s atomic model is given as following formula.

ℎ2
𝑟𝑛 = n2 4𝜋2 𝑚𝑘𝑒 2

Hence h = 6.63×10-34 JS, 𝜋 = 3.14, me = 9.1 × 10-31 kg, K = 9 ×109 Nm2 / c2, and e = 1.602 × 10-19 C
are all constant collectively termed as ro and can be calculated as

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 ℎ2
ro = 4𝜋2𝑚𝑘𝑒 2
ro = 0.53 × 10-10 m
where as r n = n 2 ro
so the radius so ground shell is calculated as when we put n=1, so radius becomes
r1 = (1)2× 0.53×10-10 m
r1 = 0.53×10-10 m
10. Who is Neils Henrik David?

Ans. Neil Henrik David bohr received 1992 nobel prize in physics for the investigation of the structure
of atoms and of the radiation emanating from them.

11. Calculate the energy difference between two consecutive shells?

Ans. The energy difference between two energy level is given as

ΔE = E2 – E1

ΔE = -3.4eV – (-13.6eV)

ΔE = 10.2eV

12. Write down the limitations of bohr’s theory?

Ans. Bohr’s theory successfully explains the spectra of simpler atom or ions which contain only one
electron e.g. hydrogen, singled ionized helium doubly ionized lithium etc. but it cannot explain
the spectra of many electrons atom. And it cannot explain the energy of electrons in sub-shell
of an atom. Moreover bohr’s theory does not explained the zeeman and stark effect.

13. Differentiate between zeeman and stark effect?

Ans. In the presence of a magnetic field each spectral line get split into closely spaced lines. This
phenomena is known as zeeman effect. The splitting of spectra line under the effect of electric
field is known as stark effect.

14. The lyman series for hydrogen atom corresponds to electric transition that terminate in the
state of quantum number n=1, Find the shortest wavelength of photon emitted in the
layman’s series of hydrogen atom?

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Ans. For shortest wavelength high energy level n = infinity

Lower energy level P = 1

Shortest Wavelength = λS = ?
1 1 1
= RH (𝑃2 − )
𝜆𝑆 𝑛2

1 1 1
= 1.0974×107 m-1 (12 − )
𝜆𝑆 infinity2

λs = 91 nm

15. What is the wavelength of the second line of Paschen series?

Ans. For Paschen series = P=3

For the second line of paschen series= n= 5

Wavelength of the second line of paschen series = λ= ?

1 1 1
= RH (𝑃2 − )
𝜆 𝑛2

1 1 1
= 1.0974×107 (32 - 52 )
𝜆

𝜆 = 1281.45 nm.

𝟏𝟔. Differentiate between Ground state and Excited state?

Ans. When the electron is in its lowest energy state (i.e. n=1) of an atom it is said to be in its ground
state. When energy is supplied to atom and the electron jumps to the higher orbit it is said to
be in excited state. The allowed energies are given by a relation of the form.
−𝐸𝑂
En = , n= 1,2,3,…..
𝑛2

The state n=1 is called ground state, while state with n= 2,3,4 …… are called exited states.

17. What is Excitation energy and Excitation Potential?

Ans. The energy required to move electron from its ground state to an excited state is known as
excitation energy.

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 e.g. The first and second excitation energies of hydrogen atom are calculated to be
−𝐸𝑜
E2 – E1 = – (-Eo)= 3/4 (13.6eV) = 10.2 eV
22

−𝐸𝑜
E3 – E1 = – (-Eo ) = 8/9 (13.6 eV) = 12.1 eV
32

The potential difference required to move an electron from its ground state(n=1) to the excited
state (n= 2,3,4…..) is called excitation potential.

18. Differentiate between ionization energy ionization potential?

Ans. The minimum energy required to remove an electron from the atom in its ground state (n=1) is
called ionization energy. And the minimum potential difference required to move an electron
from the atom in its ground state (n=1) is called ionization potential. The ionization energy
required to remove an electron from an atom must be equal to the ionization potential.
Ionization potential for hydrogen atom is 13.6eV

19. How dark lines indicate the wavelengths removed by the absorption process?

Ans. Electrons can also make transitions in the reverse direction, from lower to higher levels. In this
case, an atom absorbs s photon that has precisely the energy needed to produce the transition.
Thus, if photon with a continuous range of wavelength pass through a gas and then are analyzed
with a grating spectroscope, a series of dark absorption lines appears in the continuous
spectrum. Thus the dark lines indicate the wavelength removed by absorption process.

20. Define X-rays and write down its production also?

Ans. X-rays are electromagnetic waves with wavelength in the region of an angstrom (10 -10m). An x-
ray tube is a vaccum tube that produce x-rays. It consists of filament heated by current supplied
from battery, which emits electrons . These electrons are accelerated towards rotating anode,
anode is rotated to reduce overheating. A high Voltage power source for example 30 to 150 Kv,
is connected across cathode and anode to accelerate the electrons. When such high energy
electrons are suddenly stopped by target an intense beam of x-rays are produced.

21. Who is Wilhelm conrad Rontegn?

Ans. Wilhelm conrad Rontegn is a german scientist. In a recognition of the extraordinary services he
has rendered by the discovery of x-rays he was awarded with nobel prize for physics in 1901.

22. what is the scientific application of X-rays?.

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Ans. The diffraction pattern of x-rays by different crystals give information about internal structure
of crystals. The spacing and dispositions of the atoms of crystals can be determined.

23. How X-rays are used in industries?

Ans. X-rays penetrating ability can be used to detect defects in rail roads, bridges and large
machinery. The structure of rubber and plastic can be analyzed. It is also used at airports to
check customers and baggage and by art historians to see if a picture has been painted on top
of an older one.

24. Write down the medical application of X-rays?

Ans. Since bore is more opaque to x-rays than flesh, therefore if x-rays are allowed to pass through
the human body shadow of bone can be obtained on photographic film. The X-ray film reveal
the fracture of bones and presence of foreign bodies.

25. What is inner shell transition?

Ans. When the transition of electron take place in hydrogen or some other lighter atom it results in
the emission of spectral lines in the infrared, visible or ultraviolet region of electromagnetic
spectrum due to small energy difference in transition levels is inner shell transition.

26. Differentiate between Kα and Kʙ X-rays?

Ans. In heavy atom, the electron are assumed to be arranged in concentric shells labeled as K,L,M,N,O
etc. Then an electron from either L,M, or N- shell will quickly jump down to fill the vacancy in
the K-shell emitting the excess energy as x-rays photon. These x-rays consist of series of specific
wavelength or frequencies and hence are called characteristics x-rays. An x-ray photon due to
transition from L-shell to the vacancy in the k-shell is called Kα characteristic x-rays. While, the
transition from M and N shell to the k-shell gives rise to Kʙ and Kɣ characteristics x-rays
respectively.

27. What is the difference between hard and soft x-rays?

Ans. The X-rays have larger penetrating capacity and high frequency are called hard X-rays, While X-
rays of small penetrating power low frequency are called soft X-rays.

28. Write down few Properties of X-rays?

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Ans.

X-rays are invisible electromagnetic waves

X-rays can be diffracted by crystals

X-rays blackened the photographic plates.

29. Electron in an x-rays tube are accelerated through a potential difference of 3000 V. if these
electron were slowed down in a target, what will be the minimum wavelength of X-rays
produced?

Ans. Potential difference = V= 3000 volts

Minimum wavelength of x-rays = ʎmin = ?
Loss of K.E of electron appears as energy of x-rays photon Ve = hc/ ʎmin
ʎmin = hc/eV
ʎmin = 6.63×10-34 × 3×108 / 1.6×10-19 × 3000
ʎmin = 0.414 nm

30. What is CT Scanner? Write down its function also?

Ans. Computerized axial tomography is known as CAT scanner. It consist of large number of x-ray
detectors. The source and detector are arranged on a large ring shape structure. In this
technique a number of x-ray beam pass simultaneously through the patient. The source and
detector are rotated to get views from different directions. Large number of images are
obtained and are combined by a computer to get detailed 3D images of the patient. In effect the
CAT scanning technique makes it possible to take an x-ray picture of a cross-sectional slice that
is perpendicular to the body’s long axis.

31. What is the difference between LASER and MASER?

Ans. The term laser is the abbreviation of light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation. Light
denotes electromagnetic radiation of any frequency, not only visible light. Therefore, LASER
operating at microwaves and radio-frequency is called MASER.

32. Differentiate between laser light and ordinary light?

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Ans. Ordinary light is a mixture of electromagnetic waves of different wavelength. Laser light is
monochromatic. Ordinary light is non-directional and inconsistent, while laser light shows
directional and highly consistent distribution. This is the main difference between ordinary light
and laser light.

33. Define holography?

Ans. It is a scheme for recording the intensity and phase of the waves from objects. This type of image
formation called holography from Greek word meaning entire picture and the image is called
hologram.

34. What is compact disks (CDs)?

Ans. Compact disk have digital information (Vedio, music) stored on them, which is read inside the
CD players, thus enabling you to hear music. All CD players contain a tiny laser, the job of which
is to read the digital codes of information and translate them into music.

35. How laser is used to prevent the spread of diseases?

Ans. The heat of the laser seals off capillaries and lymph vessels to prevent the spread of disease.

Exercise Questions
1. Why does the spectrum of hydrogen consist of many lines even a hydrogen atom has only a
single electron?

Ans. A hydrogen atom has only a single electron, it contains many energies levels. Because when
energy is supplied to hydrogen atom it is excited i.e. its electron in ground state jumps up to
some higher energy state. When H-atom de-excite the electrons jumps from higher energy level
to a lower energy level, it will emit a photon of energy equal to energy difference of two energy
levels. As electron does not come to ground state directly but jumps to lower energy states in
multiple steps. So several spectral lines are obtained. That is why the spectrum of hydrogen
consists of so many lines.

2. Why do solids give rise to continuous spectrum while hot gases give rise to line spectrum?

117
Ans. In solids, atoms and molecules are very closed to each other and their energy levels overlap to
form energy band. All transitions are possible in these energy bands. Each transition
corresponds to emission of photon of particular wavelength hence due to transition, all
wavelength are emitted and continuous spectrum is obtained. The atoms in gases are at larger
distance than solids and have well defined discrete energy levels. When de-excitation of gas
atom take place, the discrete energies are released whose value are equal to the energy
difference of two energy levels. That is why the discrete line spectrum is obtained.

3. Can the electron in the ground state of hydrogen absorb a photon of energy (a) less than
13.6eV (b). Greater than 13.6 eV?

Ans. Hydrogen atom in ground state can absorb a photon of energy 13.6 eV and greater than 13.6
eV. Because ionization energy of hydrogen atom in ground state is 13.6 eV. If energy of incident
photon is exactly equal to 13.6 eV then it just remove the electron from atom. If hydrogen
absorbs a photon of energy greater 13.6 eV then 13.6 eV energy is consumed to remove the
electron from H-atom and the surplus energy of photon is taken-up by electron as kinetic
energy. If energy of incident photon is less than 13.6eV then it cannot remove the electron
from ground state but it can excite the atom if energy of incident photon is exactly equal the
energy difference between two orbits of H-atom.

4. Why do the spectral lines in the hydrogen atom become closer together farther away from
the nucleus?

Ans. The energy difference between two orbits close to nucleus is greater than the energy difference
between two orbits farther away from to the nucleus. That is why the spectral lines in the
hydrogen atom become closer together from the nucleus due to smaller difference of energy

5. Why it was necessary to quantize angular momentum in Bohr’s model of the atom?

Ans. According to bohr’s atomic model, the angular momentum of electron orbiting around the
nucleus of quantized. He further added that electron move only in those orbits where the
angular momentum of an electron is an integral multiple of h/2π.
Ln = n (h/2π)
Bohr himself did not know the explanation or reason of taking quantization of angular
momentum of electrons in bohr’s atomic model, but this quantization helped him to calculate
the energies of electrons in different orbits of atoms. Also, he successfully explained spectrum

118
 of hydrogen atom. But the quantization of angular momentum of an electron was later
explained by Louis de Broglie. According to him a moving electron in its circular orbit behave
like a particle-wave. They form stationary waves and so, do not dissipate energy while revolving
in an orbit.

6. Why X-rays have different properties from light even through both originate from orbits
transition of electron in excited atoms?

Ans. Although x-rays are of similar nature as that of other electromagnetic waves, but due to their
high energy they have some different properties than light.
 X-rays can produce Compton’s scattering but light cannot do so.
 X-rays cannot be diffracted from ordinary grating but suffers diffraction from crystals
 As they are more energies so their penetrating power is more than light
 X-ray spectrum consists of both characteristics and continuous spectrum
 Ionization power of x-rays is greater than visible light.

7. If the potential difference in an x-ray tube is increased how does this effect the wavelength
of (a). bremsstrahlung x-rays and (b). Characteristics x-rays?

Ans. X-rays are produced by the interactions of the accelerated electrons with electrons of tungsten
atoms within the tube anode. There are two types of x-rays generated: bremsstrahlung or
continuous x-rays and characteristics x-rays.

Bremsstrahlung/ Braking X-ray generation:

This is also known as continuous x-rays. In this case wavelength of a x-rays produced depends
on accelerating potential and independent of target atom. But it should be heavier atom like
cobalt, tungsten. Wave length of continuous x-rays
ʎ = hc/Ve
From above equation when accelerating potential differences V increases then wavelength
decreases.

Characteristics X-ray generation:

If accelerating potential is sufficient remove the innermost orbital electron the electron from
higher shell will jump to lower shell to fill the vacancy of electron in it and x-rays photon are
radiated

119
8. Crystal lattices can be examined with x-rays but not UV. Why?

Ans. X-rays diffraction is used to study the crystalline arrangement of the atom inside a crystal and
it is only possible if the wavelength of the radiation is comparable with the inter planar spacing
of crystals.

Wavelength of the X-rays is of the order of 10-10 m and separation between two layers of crystal
(inter planar spacing of crystal) are also of the order of 10-10 m. Therefore crystal lattices can
be examined with x-rays by using Bragg’s equation 2dsinƟ = mʎ
Where d is the inter planar spacing of crystal such as nickel and sodium chloride crystals. Since
the sine of an angle can never be greater than one, the wavelength of the radiation has to be
less then twice the interplanar spacing of the crystal being studied.

120
 CHAPTER Nuclear Physics
20
MCQ’S
Circle the correct option i.e. A / B / C / D. Each part carries one mark.

01 The energy released by fusion of two deuterons into a He nucleus is about

A. 24 MeV B. 200 MeV
C. 1.02 MeV D. 7.7 MeV

02 Dr. Abdus Salam unified electromagnetic force and ______________

A. Weak nuclear force B. Strong nuclear force
C. Magnetic force D. Gravitational force

03 Which of the following have no charge

A. 𝛼 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠 B. 𝛽 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠
C. 𝛾 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠 D. 𝑐𝑎𝑡ℎ𝑜𝑑𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠

04 In Wilson cloud chamber, we use:

A. Alcohol vapors B. Neon gas
C. Bromine gas D. Water vapors

05 A high potential difference of _________ is used in GM counter

A. 400 volts B. 1000 volts
C. 5000 volts D. 4000 volts

05 One Curie is equal to:

A. 3.70 × 10−10 𝐵𝑞 B. 3.70 × 1010 𝐵𝑞
C. 105𝐵𝑞 D. 103𝐵𝑞

06 The most useful tracer isotope for the treatment of thyroid gland is
A. Cobalt-60 B. Carbon-14
C. Iodine-131 D. Strontium-90

07 The chemical properties of any element depend on its:

A. Number of isotopes B. Number of isobars

121
 C. Atomic number D. Mass number

08 The number of protons in any atom are always equal to the number of:
A. Electrons B. Neutrons
C. Positrons D. Mesons

09 Types of quarks are:

A. 4 B. 6
C. 8 D. 10

10 𝛽 −particles in Wilson cloud chamber have:

A. Zigzag or erratic path B. Curved path
C. Circular path D. Elliptical path

11 Nuclear fission chain reaction is controlled by using:

A. Steel rods B. Graphite rods
C. Cadmium rods D. Platinum rods

12 Extremely penetrating particles are

A. Neutrons B. 𝛼 −particles
C. 𝛽 −particles D. 𝛾 −particles

13 The nuclear reaction taking place in sun is:

A. Fission B. Fusion
C. Chain D. Alpha decay

14 An 𝛼 −particle contains
A. 1 proton and 1 neutron B. 2 protons and 2 neutrons
C. 3 protons and 3 neutrons D. 4 protons and 4 neutrons

15 Which of the following belong to hadrons group:

A. Protons B. Electrons
C. Muons D. Neutrinos

16 Number of isotopes of Helium is:

A. 2 B. 4
C. 3 D. 5

17 One joule of energy absorbed in a body per kilogram is equal to:

122
 A. 1 rad B. One rem
C. One gray D. One sievert

18 Half life of Radium is 1590 years. In how many years shall the earth loss all his radium due to
radioactive decay?
A. 1590 x 106 years B. 1590 x 1012 years
C. 1590 x 1025 years D. Never

19 One a.m.u is equal to _________

A. 1.66 x 10-27 kg B. 1.66 x 10-25 kg
C. 1.66 x 10-20 kg D. All of above

20 According to which one of following law, the density of nucleus is uniform ?

A. J.J. Thomson B. Rutherford‟s Model
C. Bohr‟s Model D. All of above laws

21 For chain reaction to buildup, the size of the radio active target should be ______
A. 90 B. Greater than the critical size
C. Less than the critical size D. Equal to critical size

22 After two half lives, the number of decayed nuclei of an element are:
A. 𝑁 B. 𝑁2
C. 𝑁4 D. 3𝑁4

23 The examples of antimatter are:

A. Antiproton B. Antineutron
C. Positron D. All of above

24 Neutron and proton are commonly known as____________

A. Nucleons B. Meson
C. Boson D. Quartz

25 Pair production takes place in the vicinity of heavy nucleus so that __________
A. Net energy is conserved B. Net charge is conserved
C. Net momentum is conserved D. All of the above

26 During an encounter with an atom α - particle knocks out _______

123
 A. Protons B. Electrons
C. Neutrons D. Nothing

27 Which one of the following radiations are suitable for the treatment of an
infection in the interior body?
A. 𝛼 − rays B. 𝛽 − rays

C. 𝛾 − rays D. 𝑋 − rays

28 Various types of cancer are treated by ___________

A. Cobalt 60 B. Strontium – 90

C. Carbon 14 D. Nickel – 63

29 Sterilizations of surgical instrument, medical supplies and bandages can be done

by exposing them to a beam of _________
A. α - rays B. β - rays
C. γ- rays D. „b‟ & „c‟ have equal antiseptic
properties

30 The - particle ionizes the particles in its way and adopt the path which is
A. Curved B. Straight
C. Zig – Zag D. None of these

31 Charge on α - particle is _________

A. +1 B. +2
C. -2 D. -1

32 B-particle ionizes an atom ________

A. Through direct collision B. Through electrostatic attraction
C. Through electrostatic repulsion D. All of above

33 T.V. sets and microwave oven emit ______

A. X - rays B. α - rays
C. β – rays D. γ - rays

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34 A β - particle in a single encounter _______
A. Loses a small fraction of its B. Loses most of its energy
energy
C. Loses no energy at all D. Loses energy at all

35 Strontium -90 is used as _________

A. β - particle source B. α - particle source
C. γ - particle source D. Neutrons source

36 The penetration power of β - particle as compared to a-particle is_______

A. 10 times more B. 100 times more
C. 100 times less D. 10 times less

37 Geiger counter is suitable for ______

A. Fast counting B. Extremely fast counting
C. Slow counting D. All situations

38 An α - particle can produce fluorescence in ___________

A. ZnS B. Barium Palatino cyanide
C. Calcium tunzstate D. All of above

39 Pair production cannot take place in vacuum as ______ is not conserved:

A. Energy B. Charge
C. Mass D. Momentum

40 Average distance covered by α - particle in air before its ionizing power ceases is called its
__________
A. Trajectory B. Range
C. Firing level D. Limit

41 𝛾 - rays are electromagnetic waves like ____________

A. Normal light B. Heat waves
C. Micro waves D. X - rays

42 𝛽 −particle ionizes an atom ________

125
 A. Due to electrostatic force of B. Due to electrostatic force of repulsion
attraction
C. Due to direct collision D. Due to gravitational force

43 𝛽 −particles possess greater penetration power then that of a-particle due to its
___________
A. Smaller ionization power B. Energy is not conserved

C. Neither greater nor smaller D. Same ionization power

ionization power

44 Pair production can take places only with ______________

A. X-rays B. γ - rays

C. UV-rays D. IR-rays

45 A device for producing high velocity nuclei is ___________

A. Cloud chamber B. Linear acceleration
C. A mass spectrograph D. Wilson cloud

46 The maximum safe limit does for persons working in nuclear power station are __________
A. 1 rem per week B. 5 rem per week

C. 4 rem per week D. 3 rem per week

47 Which one of the following will be better shield against γ - rays?

A. Ordinary water B. Heavy water
C. Lead D. Aluminum

48 Radiations are used for the treatment of skin of a patient is __________

A. 𝛼 − rays B. 𝛽 − rays
C. 𝑋 − rays D. 𝛾 – rays

49 The half of uranium – 238 is

A. 1.67 × 108 years B. 3.3 × 109 years
C. 4.5 × 108 years D. 4.5 × 109 years

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 Short questions Answers

01. What is Nucleons?

Ans. In physics or chemistry the term nucleons referred to the species that are present inside of the
atomic nucleus e.g. protons and neutron as they are responsible of making the elements atomic
mass number.

02. What is atomic number?

Ans. Atomic number represents the total numbers of protons present inside the nucleus. For
example: carbon have 6 protons , no matter how many neutrons are in nucleus the proton
number will always remain the same.
𝑿𝑨𝒁
Here,
A = atomic mass number = number of protons = numbers of neutrons
Z = atomic number = number of protons = numbers of electrons

03. How can we separated out the isotopes of different elements?

Ans. Following methods are used for separation
 Mass spectrometry
 Distillation
 Chemical exchange reaction
 Gaseous diffusion
 Gas centrifugation
 Photochemical enrichment method

04. Proof that 1u = 931.5 MeV

Ans. Using Einstein mass-energy equivalence.
E = mc^2
We know that 1 amu = 1/12th mass of an atom of carbon-12.
1 amu = 1.67 x 10^-27 Kg
Now substitute this in mass-energy equivalence equation.
E = 1.67 x 10^-27 Kg x (3 x 10^8)^2 J
E = 1.67 x 10^-27 Kg x (3 x 10^8)^2 / 1.6 x 10^-19
E = 931 Mev

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 1 eV = 1.6 x 10^-19 j
Hence proved that 1 amu=931.5 MeV

05. What is the function of Packing fraction in the Stability of nucleus?

Ans. The negative value of the packing fraction indicates that the actual isotopic mass is less the
mass number. Thus, some mass has been transformed into energy (binding energy) during
formation of nucleus. This leads to the stability of the nucleus. Hence, the more negative the
packing fraction of an element, higher is the binding energy and more stable will be the
nucleus.

06. What is the Half life?

Ans. A time period in which the amount of an element reduces to its one-half of its actual amount.
For example:
The half-life of carbon (C-14) is 5730 years. It means if we are having a 1 kg of (C-14), it will
reduce to 500 grams after 5730 years and when another 5730 years passed only 250 grams of
(C-14) will remain.
07. Calculate the formula of Half-life?
Ans. Derivation:
𝑁𝑡 = 𝑁0 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡
𝑁𝑡 = quantity after time t
𝑁0 = initial quantity
λ = decay constant
t = time period
Hence,
𝑁0
𝑁𝑡 =
2

𝑡 = 𝑡1/2
𝑁0
= 𝑁0 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡
2

1
= 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡
2

1/2
Log 𝑒 = −𝜆𝑡1/2

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 Log 2𝑒
𝑡1 =
2 𝜆

0.693
𝑡1 =
2 𝜆

08. What is the unit of Activity?

Ans. The term nuclear activity means the exposure of radioactive rays from a radioactive element.
In terms of SI units it is calculated in Becquerel.
1 Bq is equal to disintegration of one nucleus per second.
Other units of activity are
 Gray (Gy)
 Sievert (Sv)

09 The half-life for radioactive decay of 14C is 5730 years. An archaeological artifact containing wood
had only 80% of the 14C found in a living tree. Estimate the age of the sample.
Ans. Decay constant k=t1/20.693=5730year0.693=1.209×10−4/years

The rate of counts is proportional to the number of C-14 atoms in the sample.
N0=100,N=80

The age of the sample t=k2.303log(NN0)

t=1.209×10−42.303×log(80100)=1846years

10. How Photon interact with Radiations?

Ans. The behavior of photons in matter is completely different from that of charged particles. In
particular, the photon’s lack of an electric charge makes impossible the many inelastic
collision with atomic electrons so characteristic of charged particles. For this kind of radiation
the most important mechanism of interaction are:
a) Photoelectric effect
b) Compton and Rayleigh scattering
c) Pair production

11. What is Critical mass?

Ans.

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 The minimum amount of a given fissile material necessary to achieve a self-sustaining fission
chain reaction is called critical mass. Here the term fissile means isotope of an element.

12. What is the Function of Control Rods in the Nuclear Reactor?

Ans. A control rod is a device that is used to absorb neutrons so that the nuclear chain
reaction taking place within the reactor core can be slowed down or stopped completely by
inserting the rods further, or accelerated by removing them slightly.[2] Essentially, control rods
provide real-time control of the fission process, ensuring that it remains active while
preventing it from accelerating out of control.

13. What is the function of Somatic and Genetic effects?

Ans. Somatic effects are those suffered by the exposed person. Hereditary effects are those
suffered by the offspring of the individual exposed. Cancer risk is usually mentioned as the
main stochastic effect of ionizing radiation, but also hereditary disorders are stochastic effects

14. What is the use of Radioisotopes in Medical diagnostics?

Ans. Americum-241 Used in many smoke detectors for homes and businesses… to measure levels
of toxic lead in dried paint samples…to ensure uniform thickness in rolling processes like steel
and paper production…and to help determine where oil wells should be drilled. Cadmium-109
Used to analyze metal alloys for checking stock, scrap sorting. Carbon-14 Major research tool.
Helps in research to ensure that potential new drugs are metabolized without forming harmful
by-products. Used in biological research, agriculture, pollution control, and archeology.

15. What is weak nuclear forces?

Ans. Weak force, also called weak interaction or weak nuclear force , a fundamental force that
exists in nature, present inside of an atom between electrons and the nucleus. This force is
comparatively easy to overcome as of strong nuclear force which is present inside of the
nucleus between proton and proton.

16. Differentiate between Bosons and Hadrons?

Ans. Bosons Hadrons

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 Boson is a subatomic particle whose spin It is composite subatomic particle made of
quantum number is zero or an integral value. two or more quarks held together by the
strong interaction
Bosons include gluons and photons.
Bayrons and mesons are examples of
Higgs boson is also its type. hadrons.c

17. What is Colour Changes?

Ans. Quarks and gluons are color-charged particles. Just as electrically-charged particles interact by
exchanging photons in electromagnetic interactions, color-charged particles exchange gluons
in strong interactions. When two quarks are close to one another, they exchange gluons and
create a very strong color force field that binds the quarks together. The force field gets
stronger as the quarks get further apart. Quarks constantly change their color charges as they
exchange gluons with other quarks

18. Find the mass defect and binding energy of helium nucleus?
Ans. Mass defect,
Δm=ZmH+(A−Z)mn−maΔm=ZmH+(A-Z)mn-ma
[(2)(1.007825)+(4−2)(1.008665)−4.00260]u[(2)(1.007825)+(4-2)(1.008665)-4.00260]u
=(2×1.007825+2×1.008665−4.00260)u=(2×1.007825+2×1.008665-4.00260)u
Mass defect, Δm=0.03038Δm=0.03038 u
∴∴ Binding energy of the nucleus =(Δm)C2=(Δm)C2
=(0.03038)u×C2=(0.03038)u×C2
=0.03038×931.5MeV(∴1u×C2=931.5MeV)=0.03038×931.5MeV(∴1u×C2=931.5MeV)
= 28 . 3 MeV
Binding Energy per nucleon =28.34=28.34 MeV
Biding energy per nucleon = 7.075 MeV

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 Long Questions

1. What is solid state Reactor?

2. Explain Fission Chain Reaction?

3. Explain Building Blocks of Matter?

4. The Half life of 14 N nucleus is 13.999234u, Calculate binding energy.

5. The half life of radioactive nucleus 226 86Ra is 1.6 ×103 Years. Determine the decay constant?

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