MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

BACTERIAL AND VIRAL INFECTIONS: PRACTISE QUESTIONS

Made by: LJ M.
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1. The only antibiotic against S. aureus d. bullae-cellulitis-spreads to fascia, muscle, and
a. Penicillin c. methicillin fat-gangrene-systemic infection-multi organ
b. Erythromycin d. oxacillin failure-death
2. A less than 3 mm skin lesion thats present due to 13. The following is a correct description of a
bleeding into the skin standard precaution except?
a. Purpura c. ecchymosis a. PPE c. environmental hygiene
b. Petechiae d. urticaria B. Hand hygiene d. Using AIIR
3. Flat, elevated surface and greater than 5 mm 14. A bacilli that is resistant to most antibiotics and
a. nodules c. papules produce water-soluble pigments like pyocyanin
B. macules d. plaque a. Escherichia coli c. Clostridium perfringens
4. Skin lesion that's filled with exudates b. Candida Albicans d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
a. pustules c. papules 15. Severe external otitis in diabetics
B. nodules d. vesicles a. Tinnitus c. Vertigo
5. Which of the following descriptions of ulcer is B. Swimmer’s ear d. Presbycusis
correct? 16. g(+), bacilli, that grows in strict anaerobic
a. Ring-like papules/plaques, pink in color environments, rarely produce endospores but
b. Flat, change in color of affected skin produce alpha, beta, iota, and epsilon toxins
c.. necrotic ulcer covered in blacked scab a. Candida Albicans c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Crater like, involves deeper layers of epidermis b. Escherichia coli d. Clostridium perfringens
and dermis 17. The most lethal toxin that can lead to death
6. coalescence of furuncles; extends to a. A c. D
subcutaneous tissue, with multiple sinus tracts b. B d. E
a. Folliculitis c. impetigo 18. A type of E. coli group which causes outbreaks
b. Carbuncle d. Sty or hordeolum of diarrhea in nurseries
7. The displacement of skin when slight pressure is a. ETEC c. EIEC
applied b. EAEC d. EPEC
a. Brudzinski’s sign c. stimson sign 19. A type of E. coli group which causes bloody
b. Kernig’s sign d. Nikolsky’s sign diarrhea and abdominal pain with hemorrhagic
8. Linked to stitch abscess and endocarditis that colitis from ingestion of undercooked meat
causes infection in people using prosthetics a. EHEC c. EAEC
a. S. aureus c. S. epidermidis b. EPEC d. ETEC
b. S. pyogenes d. S. mutans 20. A type of E. coli group which causes infant and
9. A major virulence factor for anti-phagocytic travelers diarrhea, intense hypersecretion of water
organisms and production of enzymes and toxins and chloride and inhibits sodium reabsorption.
a. M protein c. B alpha-hemolytic a. EIEC c. EPEC
b. G protein d. A beta-hemolytic b. ETEC d. EAEC
10. Also known as st. anthony’s fire 21. A type of E. coli group which causes
a. Necrotizing Fasciitis c. Cellulitis acute/chronic diarrhea and food borne illnesses in
b. Impetigo d. Erysipelas industrialized countries
11. Causative agent of necrotizing fasciitis or also a. ETEC c. EIEC
known as “flesh eating” b. EAEC d. EPEC
a. Staphylococcus aureus 22. A type of E. coli group that causes invasion of
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa colonic mucosa. Causes UTI and meningitis in
c. Clostridium perfringens newborns.
d. Streptococcus pyogenes a. ETEC c. EIEC
12. Which of the following order of infection of b. EAEC d. EPEC
streptococcal gangrene is correct? 23. Vibrio cholerae (El tor) which grows in
a. cellulitis-bullae-gangrenous-spreads to fascia, anaerobic conditions has an incubation period of
muscle, and fat-systemic infection-multi organ a. 2hrs. - 8hrs c. 8 - 48 hrs.
failure-death b. 12 hrs. - 72hrs d. 24-48hrs
b. cellulitis-bullae-spreads to fascia, muscle, and 24. Salmonella spp. Is a gram (-) encapsulated
fat-gangrenous-systemic infection-multi organ motile rods which is transmitted through ingestion
failure-death of contaminated food with the incubation period of
C. bullae-cellulitis-gangrene-spreads to fascia, a. 2hrs. - 8hrs c. 8 - 48 hrs.
muscle, and fat-systemic infection-multi organ b. 12 hrs. - 72hrs d. 24-48hrs
failure-death 25. The most prominent sign of diphtheria:
a. Sudden fever, sore throat headache, nausea,
malaise, and tonsillopharyngeal erythema
 MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY
BACTERIAL AND VIRAL INFECTIONS: PRACTISE QUESTIONS
Made by: LJ M.
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b. Smoker’s cough, wheezing, chest discomfort, 37. A CNS infection etiologic agent that is short,
copious amount of mucus motile, gram-positive bacilli appearing individually
c. abrupt fever, chills, purulent sputum, pleuritic in pairs or chains, psychrophile and halophile
chest pain a. Neisseria meningitis c. E. coli
d. Thick, gray, adherent pseudomembrane over b. H. influenzae type b d. Listeria monocytogenes
tonsils and throat 38. The order of infection of neisseria meningitidis
26. The following are types of typical pneumonia a. throat infection, Bacteremia, enters bloodstream,
except: pass BBB, meningitis
a. Lobar pneumonia c. Walking pneumonia b. throat infection, enters bloodstream, pass BBB,
b. Intestinal pneumonia d. Bronchopneumonia Bacteremia, meningitis
27. An aggregate and ulcerated lymph node c. throat infection, Bacteremia, enters bloodstream,
a. granulomatosis c. Scrofula pass BBB, meningitis
b. infantiseptica d. listeriosis d. throat infection, enters bloodstream, Bacteremia,
28. Petechial or purpuric skin lesions’s presumptive pass BBB, meningitis
sign that is caused by neisseria meningitidis is… 39. Lab diagnosis of neisseria meningitidis except
a. Trunk and lower extremities c. thrombosis of a. Blood test c. CSF analysis
blood vessels b. Multi organ involvement b. Culture d. Gram stain
d. Overwhelming sepsis 40. a severe form granuloma, abscess formation in
29. The overwhelming sepsis, life-threatening with several organs in newborns infected with listeriosis
or without meningitis, thrombosis of small blood a. Granuloma listeriosis c. meningal infantiseptica
vessels & multi-organ involvement manifests… b. Granulomatosis infantiseptica
a. Pertussis c. Meningococcemia D. granulomatous meningitis
b. Syphilis d. Infantecemia 41. Manifestation of listeria monocytogenes in
30. A CNS infection characterized by the formation newborns when acquired during or right after
of granuloma, chronic type, remissions and relapses delivery: meningitis or meningitis with encephalitis
a. granulomatous meningitis c. tuberculous with septicemia
meningitis b. Granuloma listeriosis a. Early-onset listeriosis c. late-onset listeriosis
d. Neisseria meningitidis b. Post-onset listeriosis d. Onse listeriosis
31. Etiologic agent of granulomatous meningitis 42. Chronic Bronchitis manifest…
a. Neisseria meningitis c. Mycobacterium a. Smoker’s cough c. Whooping cough
tuberculosis b. H. influenzae type b d. Listeria b. Dyspnea d. Bull neck
monocytogenes 43. The capsular swelling test of acute bacterial
32. Etiologic agent of granulomatous meningitis pneumonia is also known as….
a. Neisseria meningitis c. E. coli a. Macrolides c. Mantoux
b. Cryptococcus neoformans d. Listeria b. Quellung reaction d. Optochin sensitivity
monocytogenes 44. The infection of lung parenchyma..
33. A CNS infection most commonly affects a. Tuberculosis c. Pertussis
children younger than 6 years old but rarely in less b. Diphtheria d. Pneumonia
than 4 months that manifests unrelenting headache, 45. An upper respiratory tract infection that's
stiff neck, fever, fatigue, night sweats highly contagious in infants and children…
a. granulomatous meningitis c. tuberculous a. Tuberculosis c. Pertussis
meningitis b. Granuloma listeriosis b. Diphtheria d. Pneumonia
d. Neisseria meningitidis 46. In diphtheria, local edema may cause a visibly
34. gram-positive bacilli that are strict anaerobes; swollen neck or enlarged cervical LN called
capable of producing endospores; spore located at a. Smoker’s cough c. Whooping cough
the terminal end of bacillus “drumstick” or b. Dyspnea d. Bull neck
“tennis-racket” 47. A CNS infection that leads to flaccid paralysis
a. Mycobacterium leprae c. Clostridium botulinum or hypotonia
b. Clostridium tetani d. Proteus mirabilis a. Mycobacterium leprae c. Clostridium botulinum
35. Aka Hansen’s bacillus, acid-fast bacillus, b. Clostridium tetani d. Proteus mirabilis
preference to the cooler areas of the body 48. A CNS infection that's transmitted by ingestion
a. Mycobacterium leprae c. Clostridium botulinum of canned food that is improperly canned and
b. Clostridium tetani d. Proteus mirabilis cooked or improperly smoked fish
36. gram-positive, anaerobic bacillus , capable of a. Infant botulism c. Classical botulism
producing spores and toxin, collective name for 7 b. Wound botulism d. Adult botulism
toxins that prevents the release of acetylcholine 49. A CNS infection that's transmitted by ingestion
a. Mycobacterium leprae c. Clostridium botulinum of unpasteurized honey with botulinum spores from
b. Clostridium tetani d. Proteus mirabilis soil or dust
 MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY
BACTERIAL AND VIRAL INFECTIONS: PRACTISE QUESTIONS
Made by: LJ M.
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a. Infant botulism c. Classical botulism b. Lower UTI d. None of the above
b. Wound botulism d. Adult botulism 62. The gold standard for laboratory diagnosis of
50. Produces neurotoxin that inhibits the release of acute bacterial pneumonia…
inhibitory GABA or glycine = spastic paralysis a. Gram stain c. Culture of blood or sputum
a. Mycobacterium leprae c. Clostridium botulinum b. ELISA test d. Microscopic exam
b. Clostridium tetani d. Proteus mirabilis 63. What color is the sputum of Acute pneumonia?
51. A CNS infection that leads to “floppy baby ”, a. Green or blue with grape odor c. thick gray
sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) or crib death b. Red or rusty brown d. Orange with slight red
a. Spastic paralysis c. Tetanus neonatorum 64. Active immunization for pneumonia…
b. Flaccid paralysis d. opisthotonus a. PPSV 22 c. PPSV 13
52. A CNS infection that leads to persistent spasms b. PPSV 23 d. PPSV 15
of the back and neck muscles 65. Passive immunization for pneumonia that lasts
a. Spastic paralysis c. Tetanus neonatorum for only 5 years…
b. Flaccid paralysis d. opisthotonus a. PPSV 22 c. PPSV 13
53. tetanus in the newborns = high mortality rate in b. PPSV 23 d. PPSV 15
underdeveloped and developing countries 66. The stage of pertussis infection that manifests
a. Spastic paralysis c. Tetanus neonatorum series of 5-20 forceful cough, with copious amount
b. Flaccid paralysis d. opisthotonus of mucus ending in high pitched in drawn breathe
54. A CNS infection that leads due to involvement making the “whooping cough”
of the masseter a. Prodromal stage c. paroxysmal stage
a. Flaccid paralysis c. umbilical stump b. Catarrhal stage d. Convalescent stage
b. Risus sardonicus d. Trismus or lockjaw 67. The stage of pertussis infection that manifests
55. A CNS infection that leads to sardonic smile reduction of symptoms leading to recovery and
due to sustained contraction of the facial muscles patient becoming non contagious …
a. Flaccid paralysis c. umbilical stump a. Prodromal stage c. paroxysmal stage
b. Risus sardonicus d. Trismus or lockjaw b. Catarrhal stage d. Convalescent stage
56. Prevention for tetanus is Tetanus toxoid which 68. The stage of pertussis infection that manifests
is… mild URTI with non-specific signs and symptoms
a. 3 doses and booster dose every 10 years. For and the most contagious stage lasting 1-3 weeks
pregnant women is given on the last trimester of where there's a great amount of organisms
pregnancy produced.
B. adequate sterilization of canned foods & boiling a. Prodromal stage c. paroxysmal stage
food for more than 20 minutes b. Catarrhal stage d. Convalescent stage
c. BCG vaccine 69. The stage of pertussis infection that manifests
d. None of the following cyanosis, protruding touch, eyes bulging and neck
57. The primary focus on tetanus neonatorum in veins engorged that lasts up to two weeks
infants a. Prodromal stage c. paroxysmal stage
a. Flaccid paralysis c. umbilical stump b. Catarrhal stage d. Convalescent stage
b. Risus sardonicus d. Trismus or lockjaw 70. Stage of tuberculosis that manifests a lesion
58. A lab diagnosis for botulism that tests for toxin called Ghon complex.
activity… a. Primary infection c. disseminated tuberculosis
a. Mouse bioassay c. Culture of patient’s feces b. secondary/reactivation TB d. None of the above
b. Culture of suspected food sample 71. Secondary/reactivation TB is caused by
59. Prevention for botulism… a. Tubercle bacilli c. mycobacterium bovis
a. 3 doses and booster dose every 10 years. For b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. S. aureus
pregnant women is given on the last trimester of 72. Scrofula, meningitis and osteomyelitis is a
pregnancy manifestation of what stage of TB?
B. adequate sterilization of canned foods & boiling a. Primary infection c. disseminated tuberculosis
food for more than 20 minutes b. secondary/reactivation TB d. None of the above
c. BCG vaccine 73. What's the proper procedure in collecting
d. None of the following sputum from a tuberculosis patient for an acid fast
60. A lab diagnosis for botulism that involves staining lab diagnosis?
injection of an antigen just under the skin… a. Using purified protein derivative
a. Acid-fast staining c. lepromin test b. Measuring the diameter of induration
b. wound exudates d. respiratory aerosol surrounding the skin test
61. Division of UTI involving urinary bladder, c. using the intradermal test (Mantoux)
urethra, prostate in men. d. Early morning with inoculum
a. Upper UTI c. Middle UTI
 MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY
BACTERIAL AND VIRAL INFECTIONS: PRACTISE QUESTIONS
Made by: LJ M.
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74. Induration of the patient with tuberculosis is ≥ 85. Which of the following Four F’s are correct?
15mm from the skin test result indicates… a. Food, Face, Fingers, Faucet
a. High risk factors c. re-do the test B. Fingers, Face, Fascia, Fomites
b. Deficient cell immunity d. No risk factors C. Fomites, Fan, Fuel, Flies
75. Induration of the patient with tuberculosis is ≥ d. Food, Fingers, Flies, Fomites
10mm from the skin test result indicates… 86. The perforation of the colon and hemolytic
a. High risk factors c. re-do the test caused by Shigella spp.
b. Deficient cell immunity d. No risk factors a. Uremic Syndrome c. Cholera
76. Induration of the patient with tuberculosis is ≥ b. Enteric fever d. gastroenteritis
5mm from the skin test result indicates… 87. What stage of pertussis infection do you get
a. High risk factors c. re-do the test swab samples from the patient?
b. Deficient cell immunity d. No risk factors a. Prodromal stage c. paroxysmal stage
77. High risk factors of tuberculosis are in the b. Catarrhal stage d. Convalescent stage
following except 88. An etiologic agent of URTI where acid cell wall
a. Homeless c. nursing home residents contains mycolic acid, acid-fast obligate aerobic
b. Drug IV uses d. Infants with infected mother bacillus
78. Food poisoning etiologic agent with the shortest a. Corynebacterium diphtheria
incubation period: b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a. Bacillus cereus c. staphylococcus aureus c. bordetella pertussis
b. E. coli d. Clostridium perfringens d. Haemophilus influenzae
79. the shortest incubation period of a food 89. Predisposing factors to UTI where increased
poisoning etiologic agent is: sugar content of urine due to diabetes is conducive
a. Less than 6 hours c. 1hr. To 8 hrs. Avg. of 3 hrs for bacterial growth
b. 8-24hrs. d. 30 min. to 8 hrs. Avg of 2hrs. a. Ascending infection c. Metabolic disorders
80. What temperature kills bacteria in food and b. Bloodstream d. Anatomic abnormalities of
water? Urinary tract
a. 100°C and above c. 4°C 90. Predisposing factors to UTI where it can lead to
b. Below 100°C d. 60°C obstruction or incomplete voiding of urine or reflux
81. Incubation period of clostridium perfringens of urine
a. Less than 6 hours c. 1hr. To 8 hrs. Avg. of 3 hrs a. Ascending infection c. Metabolic disorders
b. 8-24hrs. d. 30 min. to 8 hrs. Avg of 2hrs. b. Bloodstream d. Anatomic abnormalities of
82. Which of the following descriptions of vibrio Urinary tract
parahaemolyticus is incorrect? 91. Symptoms of cystitis except…
a. Culture in 8% NaCl solution for growth a. Suprapubic pain and tenderness c. Frequency
b. Common cause of gastroenteritis with seafoods b. occasional hematuria d. Dysuria
c. ingestion of raw/undercooked meat 92. Symptoms of urethritis except…
d. Curved gram (-) marine organism a. Dysuria c. Frequency
83. Which of the following order of infection of b. Urgency d. Abdominal pain
non-invasive gastroenteritis bacteria is correct? 93. A UTI that is asymptomatic, malodorous urine
a. Enterotoxins production-fluid in women, and incontinence
secretion-cytotoxin-watery diarrhea-tissue a. prostatitis c. pyelonephritis
damage-inflammation-blood loss B. urethrocystitis d. ureteritis
b. Enterotoxins production-fluid secretion-watery 94. A UTI that manifests Flank pain, fever, and
diarrhea-cytotoxin-inflammation-tissue chills, Hematuria, and kidney punch
damage-blood loss a. prostatitis c. pyelonephritis
c. Enterotoxins production-fluid secretion-tissue B. urethrocystitis d. ureteritis
damage-cytotoxin-watery 95. A UTI that can complicate into Bacteremia and
diarrhea-inflammation-blood loss septic shock, severe renal damage leading to Renal
d. Enterotoxins production-fluid secretion-watery failure
diarrhea-cytotoxin-tissue a. prostatitis c. pyelonephritis
damage-inflammation-blood loss B. urethrocystitis d. ureteritis
84. An upper respiratory tract infection etiologic 96. Choose the correct ways to collect urine for
agent that causes difficulty of breathing, heart urinalysis.
failure, paralysis and death with an incubation I.​ Clean voided midstream technique
period of 2-5 days. II.​ Suprapubic aspiration
a.Streptococcus pneumoniae c.Bordetella pertussis III.​ Diagnostic catheterization
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Corynebacterium IV.​ From an in-dwelling catheter
diptheria
 MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY
BACTERIAL AND VIRAL INFECTIONS: PRACTISE QUESTIONS
Made by: LJ M.
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V.​ During cystoscopy, urethral 107. ___ is a painless, wart-like lesion that is
catheterization or retrograde pyelography highly contagious present in ____ syphilis.
a. I, II, III c. III, IV, V a. gummas, tertiary
c. I and V only d. All of the above b. condyloma latum, secondary
97. Urine culture report with bacteriuria as the c. snuffles, early congenital
result d. Chancre, primary
a. 100.000 / ml or more c.Between 1,000 and 108. ____ syphilis is characterized by
100,000 /ml. b. less than 1,000 colonies/ ml. d. granulomatous skin lesions (____) that are found in
None of the above bones and other tissues
98. Urine culture report with possible infection and a. tertiary, gummas
culture should be repeated as the result b. secondary, condyloma latum
a. 100.000 / ml or more c.Between 1,000 and c. early congenital, snuffles
100,000 /ml. b. less than 1,000 colonies/ ml. d. d. primary, chancre
None of the above 109. ___ stage is highly infectious with abundant
99. Urine culture report represents contamination organisms which start with a hard painless papule
as the result (___), later becomes an ulcer with smooth or well
a. 100.000 / ml or more c.Between 1,000 and delineated borders
100,000 /ml. b. less than 1,000 colonies/ ml. d. a.tertiary, gummas
None of the above b. secondary, condyloma latum
100. Causative agent of Syphilis c. early congenital, snuffles
a. Haemophilus ducreyi c.Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. primary, chancre
b. Lymphogranuloma venereum d.Treponema 110. ___ stage is characterized by no present
pallidum clinical manifestation after birth by the newborn
101. An STI gram negative diplococci, a kidney but later may manifest ___
bean-shaped when single, and coffee bean-shaped a. tertiary, gummas
when in pairs b. secondary, condyloma latum
a. Haemophilus ducreyi c.Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. early congenital, snuffles
b. Lymphogranuloma venereum d.Treponema d. primary, chancre
pallidum 111. What adult Syphilis stage where the patient is
102. An STI bacteria characterized by primary clinically inactive or asymptomatic?
lesion appears at the site of infection (papule or a. Primary c. latent
ulcer) and Secondary stage – enlarged and painful b. Secondary d. tertiary
lymph nodes and ruptures 112. What adult Syphilis stage with flu-like
a. Haemophilus ducreyi c.Neisseria gonorrhoeae symptoms, lymphadenopathy and generalized
b. Lymphogranuloma venereum d.Treponema mucocutaneous rash (palms and soles) can be
pallidum macular, popular, or pustular?
103. The gross observation and assessment of a. Primary c. latent
general appearance of urine, dipstick analysis, b. Secondary d. tertiary
microscopic examination of formed elements in 113. What adult syphilis stage is it where the
urine. ulcers heal within 2 months without treatment but
a. Fecalysis c. Urinalysis will continue to disseminate through the blood and
B. blood analysis d. CBC lymphatics?
104. a spirochete with fine regular coils with a. Primary c. latent
tapered ends. • sensitive to oxygen • strict human b. Secondary d. tertiary
pathogens • cannot be grown in cell-free culture 114. Treatment and prevention for bacillus cereus
medium except
a. Haemophilus ducreyi c.Neisseria gonorrhoeae a. No antibiotic required c. dont let warm rice kept
b. Lymphogranuloma venereum d.Treponema warm for a long time
pallidum b. Cook food properly d. Administer penicillin
105. Blood loving and must be grown in culture 115. Incubation period of emetic type of bacillus
medium containing blood STI bacteria cereus
a. Haemophilus ducreyi c.Neisseria gonorrhoeae a. < 6 hours c. 7 hours
b. Lymphogranuloma venereum d.Treponema b. > 6 hours d. < 8 hours
pallidum 116. Neisseria gonorrhea can be prevented by using
106. A lab diagnosis for LVG where stained ____ which is also called ____.
specimens obtained from scrapings from the lesion. a. 0.5% erythromycin, Crede’s Prophylaxis
a. Culture c. Rapid plasma Reagin b. 1% silver nitrate, Crede’s Prophylaxis
b. Thayer-Martin medium d. Giemsa c. 1% tetracycline, Ophthalmic Prophylaxis
 MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY
BACTERIAL AND VIRAL INFECTIONS: PRACTISE QUESTIONS
Made by: LJ M.
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d. 2% silver nitrate, Ophthalmic Prophylaxis 128. Single-stranded RNA virus; “naked”, no
117. A conjunctivitis causing mucopurulent eye envelope but it’s outer covering, capsid is resistant
discharge after swimming to a non/poor chlorinated to adverse environmental conditions
pool water a. Flavivirus c. Arbovirus
a. Inclusion conjtvitis c. swimming pool conjtvitis b. picornavirus d. Rabies virus
b. Trachoma conjtvitis d. Pink-eye conjtvitis 129. The correct order of chicken pox infection:
118. The following are etiologic agents of pink-eye a. macules- papules- successive crops of vesicles-
conjunctivitis except? occasionally by pustules- spread throughout the
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae body in 6 hours -ends as granular crusts/scabs
b. Chlamydia trachomatis b. macules-papules- occasionally by pustules
c. Haemophilus Influenzae biogroup Aegyptius -successive crops of vesicles -spread throughout the
d. Chlamydia keratoconjunctivitis body in 6 hours-ends as granular crusts/scabs
119. Also known as Koch-Weeks Bacillus that's c. papules -macules- successive crops of vesicles-
associated with purulent conjunctivitis common in occasionally by pustules- spread throughout the
summer months body in 6 hours- ends as granular crusts/scabs
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. papules-macules-successive crops of vesicles -
b. Chlamydia trachomatis spread throughout the body in 6 hours -
c. Haemophilus Influenzae biogroup Aegyptius occasionally by pustules- ends as granular
d. Chlamydia keratoconjunctivitis crusty/scabs
120. Also called Gas gangrene where a massive 130. Ways to treat and prevent tuberculosis are the
tissue necrosis with gas formation can lead to death following except?
a. Necrotizing Fasciitis c. Necrotizing cellulitis a. Rifampin for carriers c. DOTS program
b. Necrotic Hepatitis d. Clostridial Myonecrosis b. BCG vaccine d. Multi drug anti-koch’s therapy
121. Occurs in patient with underlying disease like 131. Inflammation of the leptomeninges (pia mater
sickle cell disease and arachnoid mater)
a. Enterocolitis c. typhoid fever a. Encephalitis c. Meningitis
b. Septicemia d. UTI b. Myelitis d. meningoencephalitis
122. Causes slow onset fever, bradycardia, and 132. Inflammation of the brain parenchyma
constipation that may lead to complications of a. Encephalitis c. Meningitis
intestinal hemorrhage, perforation, high fever, b. Myelitis d. meningoencephalitis
delirium, rose spots, macules on abdomen or chest, 133. Specific S/Sx of CNS infection are the
and splenomegaly. following except?
a. Rheumatic fever c. typhoid fever a. Seizure c. altered consciousness
b. Dengue fever d. Influenza b. Local signs d. headache
123. a small fluid-filled bladder, sac, cyst or 134. The common cause of acute bacterial
vacuole within the body meningitis in newborns is?
a. plaques c. vestibules a. Neisseria meningitis c. E. coli
a. Bulla d. pustules b. H. influenzae type b d. Listeria monocytogenes
124. An extremely contagious exanthematous 135. The common cause of acute bacterial
childhood disease; breastfed babies of mothers who meningitis in elderly and immunocompromised is?
possess this disease has a relative immunity for the a. Neisseria meningitis c. E. coli
first 3 months of life b. H. influenzae type b d. Listeria monocytogenes
a. German measles c. herpes zoster 136. The common cause of acute bacterial
b. Measles d. Chicken pox meningitis in older infants and children is?
125. Below are the ways to prevent Japanese B a. Neisseria meningitis c. E. coli
encephalitis except: b. H. influenzae type b d. Listeria monocytogenes
A.Using mosquito nets c. fluid replacement 137. The common cause of acute bacterial
B. applying insect repellent d. Vaccination meningitis in adults and over 1 month infants is?
126. Neurological manifestations (2-10 days later) a. H. influenzae typeB c.Streptococcus pneumoniae
of Rabies except: b. GroupB streptococcus d. Listeria monocytogenes
a. Anorexia c. Hydrophobia 138. Intensive phase of tuberculosis treatment lasts
b. Hallucinations d. Seizures for how many months? Maintenance phase?
127. 90% of cases of poliomyelitis with infection in a. 2, 4 c. 4, 6
oropharynx and GIT is? b. 1, 3 d. 6, 12
a. Inapparent, asymptomatic infection 139. inability to flex the neck forward and rigidity
b. Post-poliomyelitis syndrome of neck muscles (also called stiff neck)
C. paralytic poliomyelitis a. Nuchal rigidity c. kernig’s sign
d. Non-paralytic poliomyelitis b. Brudzinski’s sign d. None of the above
 MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY
BACTERIAL AND VIRAL INFECTIONS: PRACTISE QUESTIONS
Made by: LJ M.
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140. flexion at hip with leg extension and wrists, knees, and ankles, pustules with
meningeal inflammation erythematous base over the extremities Adults –
a. Nuchal rigidity c. kernig’s sign perihepatitis, purulent conjunctivitis
b. Brudzinski’s sign d. None of the above a. Infections in males c. Disseminated infection
141. patient in supine, examiner’s hand on chest b. Infections in females d. Early stage of infection
and neck flexion causes hip flexion 153. Gonorrhea infection characterized by Cervix
a. Nuchal rigidity c. kernig’s sign as primary site of infection with purulent vaginal
b. Brudzinski’s sign d. None of the above discharges, dysuria, abdominal pain
142. Choose the correct clinical manifestations of a. Infections in males c. Disseminated infection
arterial meningitis in infants b. Infections in females d. Early stage of infection
I.​ irritability 154. Gonorrhea infection characterized by
II.​ restlessness Salpingitis, PID may develop (stricture of fallopian
III.​ Photophobia tubes may lead to sterility); Rectal and pharyngeal
IV.​ lethargic infections are commonly asymptomatic than genital
V.​ poor feeding infections
VI.​ bulging fontanelle a. Infections in males c. Disseminated infection
a. I, II, III VI c. IV, V, III, I b. Infections in females d. Early stage of infection
b. I, II, III, IV d. All of the above 155. Gonorrhea infection characterized by
143. What's the normal result for CSF pressure in Opthalmia neonatorum acquired upon passage
CSF examination? through infected birth canal
a. >30 c. normal to slightly increased a. Infections in males c. Disseminated infection
B. normal to mild increase d. 5-20 b. Infections in females d. Early stage of infection
144. What's the normal result for CSF appearance 156. Gonorrhea infection characterized by often
in CSF examination? asymptomatic during the early stage of Infection,
a. Turbid c. watery and clear Purulent urethral discharges, and dysuria
b. Clear d. Slightly turbid a. Infections in males c. Disseminated infection
145. What's the viral result for CSF protein in CSF b. Infections in females d. Early stage of infection
examination? 157. caused by the same virus that causes
a. 0.18-0.45 c. 0.1-0.5 chickenpox. A dormant type of chickenpox, more
b. 10 x d. 2.3x often attacks adults rather than children
146. What's the bacterial result for CSF glucose in a. German measles c. herpes zoster
CSF examination? b. Measles d. Chicken pox
a. 1.5-3.5 mmol/L c. Increase 158. Viral Skin Infection which is most highly
b. decrease d. normal contagious childhood disease, affects adults more
147. Meningococcus is also known as severely than children, one attack confers lifelong
a. Neisseria meningitis c. E. coli immunity, not all viruses may leave the body; they
b. H. influenzae type b d. Listeria monocytogenes just become dormant and live in the nerves which,
148. The following are manifestations of Late when weakened by low resistance, may lead to
congenital Syphilis except… Herpes Zoster
a. saddle nose c. Hutchinson’s teeth a. German measles c. herpes zoster
b. Mulberry or Moon’s molars d. Chancre b. Measles d. Chicken pox
149. second most common STI, occurs only in 159. Viral Skin Infection which manifest
humans and Females are asymptomatic carriers maculopapular rashes, reddish in color and blotchy
a. Syphilis c. Chancroid in appearance, first appearing around the 3rd day,
b. Gonorrhea d. LGV Cephalocaudal appearance, and photosensitivity
150. STI with a soft, painful papule with a. German measles c. herpes zoster
erythematous base that develops into an ulcer with b. Measles d. Chicken pox
ragged edges associated with inguinal 160. Viral Skin Infection which manifest F\fever
lymphadenopathy for 3-4 days, Headache, sore throat/colds, body
a. Syphilis c. Chancroid malaise, Excessive mucopurulent lacrimal
b. Gonorrhea d. LGV discharge, Stimson sign, and Koplik’s spots
151. Obligate intracellular bacteria that do not have a. German measles c. herpes zoster
a cell wall. Associated with non-gonococcal b. Measles d. Chicken pox
urethritis, cervicitis, and PID 161. This stage in measles manifests cephalocaudal
a. Syphilis c. Chancroid disappearance of the rashes and fine, branny
b. Gonorrhea d. LGV desquamation of the skin
152. Gonorrhea infection characterized by Fever, a. Pre eruptive c. eruptive
migratory arthralgia, suppurative arthritis of the b. early d. Post eruptive
 MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY
BACTERIAL AND VIRAL INFECTIONS: PRACTISE QUESTIONS
Made by: LJ M.
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162. This stage in german measles manifests headache, mild sore throat, loss of appetite, runny
Forcheimer’s spots with or without slight fever, nose, and Leukopenia during febrile stage
a. Pre eruptive c. eruptive 179. Which of the following characterizations of
b. early d. Post eruptive mumps is incorrect?
163. Manifestation of rubeola characterized by a. a generalized systemic infection involving the
pathognomonic enanthem of measles located at the parotid glands
buccal mucosa and fine red spots with bluish white b. usually occurs in epidemic form
spots on the center c. a single attack causes permanent immunity if
a. Stimson sign c. forcheimer’s spots both glands were affected.
b. Koplik’s sign d. None of the above d. Transmitted by feces of patient
164. This stage in german measles manifests Rash 180. Hepatitis with incubation period of 2-7 weeks
– cardinal sign; a. Oval, rose-red papules about the I.​ Hepatitis A
size of a pinhead; b. Begins on the face, covers the II.​ B
entire body in 24 hours (cephalocaudal) III.​ C
a. Pre eruptive c. eruptive IV.​ D
b. early d. Post eruptive V.​ E
165. This stage in chicken pox manifests a. I, II, III, IV, V c. V
Exanthem, appears one at a time and disappears in b. I and V d. II, III, IV
the same manner (unifocular appearance) 181. Hepatitis with incubation period of 2 weeks -
a. Pre eruptive c. eruptive 6 months
b. early d. Post eruptive a. I, II, III, IV, V c. V
166. This stage in chicken pox manifests with or b. I and V d. II, III, IV
without low-grade fever, Malaise, and muscle 182. Hepatitis transmitted by blood and other body
pains fluids; percutaneous/inoculation, Use of
a. Pre eruptive c. eruptive contaminated needles, Blood transfusion, Oral-oral
b. early d. Post eruptive transmission, Sexual transmission,
167. Helps prevent herpes zoster except Vertical/transplacental transmission
a. Zovirax c. Recombinant Zoster Vaccine I.​ A
b. Varivax d. Potassium Permanganate compress II.​ B
168. Condylomata Acuminata Causative agent? III.​ C
a. AIDS c . Genital Herpes IV.​ D
b. HIV d. HPV Human Papillomavirus V.​ E
169. Lab diagnosis of Genital herpes except a. I only c. II and IV
a. Acyclovir c. PCR test or immunofluorescence b. I and V d. II, III, IV
b. Histopathologic examination d. Tzanck smear 183. Hepatitis transmitted by Percutaneous (blood
170. Acquired ImmunoDeficiency Syndrome transfusion) only
causative agent? I.​ A
a. AIDS c . Genital Herpes II.​ B
b. HIV d. Condylomata Acuminata III.​ C
171. A viral STI that manifests genital warts occur IV.​ D
in genital or perianal areas V.​ E
a. HPV Human Papillomavirus c. Herpes a. I only c. III only
Simplex Virus (HSV) b. HIV b. IV only d. V only
d. None of the above 184. If this hepatitis recurs at age 20-30, it can lead
172. Causative agent: Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) to cancer of the liver.
a. AIDS c . Genital Herpes a. A c.
b. HIV d. Condylomata Acuminata 185
173. Medical term for Mumps 186
a. Infectious parotitis c. Catarrhal parotitis 187
b. Epidemic parotitis d. Industrial parotitis 188
174. Causative agent of mumps 189
a. Vibrio cholerae c. paramyxovirus 190
b. Clostridium difficile d. myxovirus 191
175. 192
176. 193
177 194. Manifestation of rubeola characterized by
178 puffiness of the eyelids with red linear congestion
of the lower conjunctiva
 MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY
BACTERIAL AND VIRAL INFECTIONS: PRACTISE QUESTIONS
Made by: LJ M.
__________________________________________________________________________________________
a. Stimson sign c. forcheimer’s spots b. Rabies d. Poliomyelitis
b. Koplik’s sign d. None of the above 198. What CNS viral infection has an incubation
195. Used as a pharmacotherapeutics to treat period of 6 days – 6 months?
chicken pox that may lessen the severity of the a. Dengue c. Arboviral Encephalitis
symptoms, but will not give immunity b. Rabies d. Poliomyelitis
a. Zovirax c. Recombinant Zoster Vaccine 199. a rash on the mucous membranes
b. Varivax d. Potassium Permanganate compress a. Exanthema c. rubella
196. The involvement of medulla oblongata, the b.Erythema d. Enanthema
respiratory center and may involve muscles of the 200. a widespread rash occurring on the outside of
vocal cords, pharynx and respiratory muscles the body
a. bulbar poliomyelitis c. Paralytic poliomyelitis a.​ Exanthema c. rubella
b. spinal paralysis d. Flaccid paralysis b.​ Erythema d. Enanthema
197. Human diploid cell vaccine (HDCV) as a
prophylaxis is used to prevent what disease?
a. Dengue c. Arboviral Encephalitis

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ANSWER KEY
1d 32 b 63 b
2a 33 c 64 c
3c 34 b 65 a
4a 35 a 66 c
5d 36 c 67 d
6b 37 d 68 b
7d 38 d 69 c
8c 39 d 70 a
9a 40 c 71 a
10 d 41 c 72 c
11 d 42 a 73 d
12 a 43 b 74 d
13 d 44 d 75 a
14 d 45 c 76 b
15 b 46 d 77 d
16 d 47 c 78 a
17 a 48 c 79 d
18 d 49 a 80 a
19 a 50 b 81 b
20 b 51 b 82 c
21 b 52 d 83 d
22 c 53 c 84 d
23 c 54 d 85 d
24 b 55 b 86 a
25 d 56 a 87 c
26 c 57 c 88 b
27 c 58 a 89 c
28 a 59 b 90 d
29 c 60 c 91 d
30 a 61 b 92 d
31 c 62 c 93 b
 MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY
BACTERIAL AND VIRAL INFECTIONS: PRACTISE QUESTIONS
Made by: LJ M.
__________________________________________________________________________________________
94 c 130 a 166 a
95 c 131 c 167 b
96 d 132 a 168 d
97 a 133 d 169 a
98 c 134 c 170 b
99 b 135 d 171 a
100 d 136 b 172 c
101 c 137 c 173 a
102 b 138 a 174 c
103 c 139 a 175
104 d 140 c 176
105 a 141 b 177
106 d 142 d 178
107 b 143 d 179 a
108 a 144 c 180 b
109 d 145 d 181 d
110 c 146 b 182 c
111 c 147 a 183 c
112 b 148 d 184
113 a 149 b 185
114 d 150 d 186
115 a 151 d 187
116 b 152 c 188
117 c 153 b 189
118 d 154 b 190
119 c 155 c 191
120 d 156 a 192
121 b 157 c 193
122 c 158 d 194 a
123 c 159 b 195 a
124 b 160 b 196 a
125 c 161 d 197 b
126 a 162 a 198 b
127 a 163 b 199 d
128 b 164 c 200 a
129 a 165 c