t

Hall Ticket No Code No. ECD KFM 1102 01 23 1 R

@AMRITA
ffivlsHwA vTDYAPEETHAM
SECOND PROFESSIONAL MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION
JAN UARY/ FE B RUARY-20 23
Time: 3 hrs Max. Marks -10O
Date: 23lOL/2023

MICROBIOLOGY. PAPER ONE

Instructions: -
F Draw labeled diagrams/flow chart wherever necessary.

SECTION -A
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Separate question paper and answer sheet attached
[1O Marks]
II. A 1S-year-old male presents to casualty with breathlessness, edema of the tongue
and lips an hour after consumption of prawns from a restaurant.
A. What is the probable diagnosis?
B. Discuss the pathogenesis of this condition
C. How is it diagnosed?
D. Discuss the treatment of this condition
t1+6+1+2 = 1O Marksl
III. Short Notes On:
A. Tabulate the differences between exotoxins and endotoxin [5 Marksl
B. What are the methods of genetic transfer in bacteria. Discuss one in detail
[r+4 = 5]
C. Name two infections that are airborne. Write a short note on airborne
precautions [1+4= SMarks]
D. Draw the structure of immunoglobulin. Write a short note on IgM
t2*3 = 5 Marksl
E, Types of cell lines
[5 Marks]
ry. Answer in brief:
A. Name 4 systemic autoimmune disorders
B. Define a pandemic. Give 2 examples
C. What is pasteurization?
D. What is prozone phenomenon?
E. Name 4 items of biomedical waste that are discarded into red non-
chlorinated plastic bags [2 marks each = 1O Marks]

P.T.O
 SECTION -B
V. A 23-year-old male from Orissa presents with high grade fever, chills and sweating
of 7 days duration. A peripheral blood smear shows ring forms in the RBCs.
[Link]?
B. Describe the pathogenesis of this disease
C. Describe the laboratory diagnosis in detail
D. Write a short note on prevention of this infection Marksl
t2+2+4+2 = 1O
VI. Short Notes On:
A. Write a short note on active and. passive immunization against hepatitis B
B. Describe the epidemiology, pathogenesis and clinical features of cholera
C. Write ashort note on viral gastroenteritis
D. What are the non-suppurative complications of group A streptococcal
infections?
E' scrub typhus
[5 marks each = 25 Marks]
VII. Answer in brief:
A. What are the clinical features of histoplasmosis?
B. Name 4 fungal opportunistic infections that occur in HIV-AIDS
C. Write a short note on amoebic liver abscess
D. What is pseudomembranous colitis?
E. What is window period in HIV? [2 marks each = 1O Marks]
Hall Ticket No.. Code No. ECD KFM llOZ 02 23 1 R

@AMRITA
ffiVISHWA VIDYAPEETHAM

SECOND PROFESSIONAL MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION

JAN UARY/ FEBRUARY- 20 23

Time: 1O minutes Max. Marks -10

Date: 23lOt/2023
MICROBIOLOGY. PAPER ONE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 mark each)

Instructions: -

1. Selenite F broth is an example for

A. Simple media B. Enriched media
C. Enrichment media D. Indicator media

2. In which circumstance is hand washing better than hand rub?

A. After touching patient's case file B. Before performing physical examination
C. When there is visible soaking of gloves after handling a central line
D, All of the above

3. Penetration through skin is not the mode of infection in

A. Trichuris trichiura B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Schistosoma haematobium D' Ancylostoma duodenale

4. Tissue origin of He La cell line

A. Embryonic lung B. Carcinoma cervix
C, Connective tissue D. Monkey kidney

5. Which of the following is the first to appear in acute hepatitis B?

A. HBs Ag B. Anti HBs Ag

C. IgM anti HBc D. Anti HBe Ag
6. What type of fungal skin lesion would show only hyphae and possible arthroconidia in
a specimen?
A. Blastomycosis B. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
C. Dermatophytosis D. Coccidioidomycosis

P.T.O
7. Widal test is a examPle of
A. Agglutination test B. Precipitation test
C. Flocculation test D. Neutralisation test

B. Coagulase is Produced bY
A. StaphYlococcus aureus B. Streptococcus PYogenes
C. Gonococcus D. Meningococcus

9. Arthus reaction is
A. TyPe-I hYPersensitivitY B. Type-II hYPer sensitivitY
C. TyPe-III hYPersensitivitY D. Type-IV hYPersensitivitY

is present in cultures
10. L-Forms of bacteria are likely to occur if the following antibiotic
A. StrePtomYcin B. ErythromYcin
C. Penicillin D. ChloromYcetin
 Hall Ticket No. Code No. ECD KFM 1102 01 23 1 R

@AMRITA
HffiVISHWA VIDYAPEETHAM

SECOND PROFESSIONAL MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION

JANUARY/FEBRUARY- 2023

Time: 1O minutes Max. Marks -1O

Date: 25lO1/2023

MICROBIOLOGY- PAPER TWO

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 mark each)

Instructions: -

1. Positive CAMP test is produced by

A. Streptococcus pyogenes [Link] a ga lactiae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Viridans streptococci

X MDR tuberculosis is resistant to

A: Rifampicin,INH,Pyrazinamide and ethambutol B. Rifampicin,INH,Ethambutol
C" Rifampicin,pyrazinamide D. Rifampicin,INH
3. Chancroid is caused by
A. Treponema pallidum B. Chlamydia trachomatis L1-3
C. Hemophilus ducreyi D. Klebsiella granulomatis

4.: Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by

A. Chlamydia trachomatis A-C B. Chlamydia trachomatis D-K
C. Chlamydophila pneumoniae D. Chlamydophila psittaci

5r'The virus strain for varicella vaccine is

A. Edmonston Zagreb strain B. Oka strain
c. RA 27/3 D. Jery Lynn strain

6.,Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome is caused by-

A. Hembphilus influenzae B Streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Neisseria meningitidis D Streptococcus aga lactiae

P.T.O
7. Milk ring test is performed to detect the presence of which bacteria in milk?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Brucella species
C. Mycobacterium bovis D. Coxiella burnetti

B. Nasal polyps are Produced bY

A. Rhinosporidium seeberi B. Penicillium marneffei
C. PneumocYstis jirovecii D. Cryptococcus neoformans

9. Hard tick acts as a vector for the transmission of

A. Leishmaniasis B. Sleeping sickness
C, Babesiosis D. Filariasis

10. River blindness is caused bY

A. Loa loa B,D irofilaria repens

C. Onchocerca volvulus D.B rugia timori
 Hall Ticket No.... Code No. ECD KFM 1102 01 23 2 R

ffik AMRITA
@
VISHWA VIDYAPEETHAM
SECOND PROFESSIONAL MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION
JANUARY/ FEBRUARY. 2023
Time: 3 hrs Max. Marks -1O0
Date:25/Ol/2023

MICROBIOLOGY. PAPER TWO

Instructions: -
) Draw labeled diagrams/flow chart wherever necessary.

SECTION -A
L Multiple Choice Questions (Separate question paper and answer sheet attached
[1O Marks]
II; A.32 year old nurse working in COVID ward presents with fever, headache, myalgia,
dty cough, loss of taste and smell.
A. What is your diagnosis?
B. Discuss the specimen collection and laboratory diagnosis of the condition
C, Write a short note on the various types of vaccines available for the
condition
D. Name 4 other respiratory viruses
lL+4+3+2 = 1O Marksl
iII. Short Notes On:
A. Describe the clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of gas gangrene
[2+g = 5 Marks]
B. Write a short note on the laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis

c. Describe the clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of dermatophl?J"tn"'

infections
t5 Marksl
D. What are the skin and soft tissue infections caused by staphylococcus
aureus? Write a short note on MRSA
t3+2 = 5 Marksl
E. DPT vaccine
[5 Marks]
IV. Answer in brief:
A. What is cutaneous larva migrans?
B. What is herpes
L^-^^^
zoster
-^^!^-

C. Name 4 transfusion-transmitted infections

D. Name 4 parasites that cause opportunistic infections
E. What is satellitism?
[2 marks each = 1O Marks]
P.T.O
 SECTION -B
V. A2year old child is admitted with high-grade fever, headache, neck stiffness and
altered sensorium. Her CSF Gram stain shows plenty of neutrophils and gram
positive cocci in Pairs'
A. What is the probable clinical diagnosis and etiological agent?
B. How is this condition diagnosed in the laboratory?
C. Write a short note on treatment and prevention of this condition
D. What are the other agents that can cause this clinical condition?
U+4+3+2 = 1O Marksl
VI. Short Notes On:
A. Describe the clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of leptospirosis
[2+3 =5 Marksl
B. What is significant bacteriuria? Describe the specimen collection in cases of
urinary tract infection and name 4 aetiological agents of UTI.
It+2+2 = 5 Marks]
C. Name 2 arboviral infections found in India. Write a short note on any one
[1+4 5 Marks]
D. write a short note on cryptococcal infections
[5 Marks]
E. Name 4 agents of bioterrorism. write a short note on any one
[5 Marksl
VIL Answer in brief:
A. Name 4 congenital infections
B. What are the clinical features of trichomoniasis?
C. Name 4 oncogenic viruses
D. What are Negri bodies?
E. Write a short note on Weil Felix test
[2 marks each = 1O Marks]
Hall Ticket No... Code No. ECD KFM t7O2 07 23 1 S

HS# VI SHwA VI DYAPEETHAM

SECOND PROFESSIONAL MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION
J ULY/AUG UST- 2O23[SUPPLEM ENTARY]

Time: 10 minutes Max. Marks -1O

Datet 22/O7 /2023
MICROBIOLOGY- PAPER ONE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 mark each)

Instructions: -

1. Robertson cooked meat broth is an example:

A. Enriched media B' Enrichment media
C. Nutrient media D. Anaerobic media
2. Stool showing bacteria exhibiting darting motility is suggestive of:
A. Vibrio cholera B .[Link]
C. Salmonella Typhi D. Shigella
3. All the following are true about nosocomial infections except:
A. May manifest within 48 hours of admission
B. May develop after discharge of patient from the hospital
C. Denote a new condition which is unrelated to the patient's primary conditions
D. May already present at the time of admission
4. Food poisoning after eating fried rice and vanilla sauce is due to which bacteria
A. Clostridium perfringens B' Bacillus cereus
C. Staphylococcus aureus D' Clostridium botulinum
5. Which is not present in Gram negative bacteria:
A. Peptidoglycan B. Teichoic acid
C, Lipopolysaccharide D. Porin channels
6. Traveller's diarrhoea is caused by?
A. Enterohaemorrhagic [Link] B. Shigella dysentriae tyPel
C. Enterotoxigenic [Link] D. Enteroinvasive [Link]
7. Cerebral malaria is caused bY:
A. Plasmodium falciParum B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium malariae

P.T.O
B. Infection of hepatitis B virus is commonly diagnosed by:
A. HBeAg B. HBV DNA
C. HBsAg D. Anti HBsAg

9. Lyme's disease is caused bY:

A. Borrelia parkeri B, Borellia burgdorferi

C. Borrelia recurrentis D. Borrelia hermsii

[Link] most common organism amongst the following that causes meningitis in an AIDS
patient is:
A. Streptococcus Pneumoniae Streptococcus a ga lactiae
C. Cryptococcus neoformans Listeria monocytogenes
Hall Ticket No Code No. ECD KFM 1102 07 23 1 S

ffi#VISHWA VIDYAPEETHAM
SECOND PROFESSIONAL MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION
J U LYIAUGUST-2023 [SU PPLE M E NTARY]

Timer 3 hrs Max. Marks -1OO

Datet 22/07 /2023

MICROBIOLOGY. PAPER ONE

Instructions: -
F Draw labeled diagrams/flow chart wherever necessary.

SECTION .A
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Separate question paper and answer sheet attached
[1O Marks]
II. Structured Essay:
A. Define autoimmunity
B. Describe the pathogenesis and clinical features of systemic lupus
erythematosus
C. How is it diagnosed and treated?
[2+5+3 = 1O Marks]
III. Write short notes On:
A. Enrichment media and its uses

B. Five moments for hand hygiene

C. Autoclave
D. Live attenuated vaccines

E. Describe how bacteria become resistant to antibiotics

[5 marks each = 25 Marks]
IV. Write briefly on:

A. Continuous cell lines

B. IgM antibody
C. Cold sterilization
D. What is precipitation? Give 2 examples of precipitation tests
E. Define antimicrobial stewardship [2 marks each = 1o Marks]

P.T.O
 SECTION -B
V. A 15 year old student presented with history of fever spikes, abdominal pain and
diarrhea for the past 2 days. On examination the patient had a coated tongue and
hepatomegaly. The temperature chart showed a step ladder pattern and his
hemogram showed leucoPenia
A. What is the likelY diagnosis?
B. Describe the various tests for laboratory diagnosis of this disease
C, List the preventive measures against thls disease
D. Briefly describe the treatment
[1+5+2+2 = 1O Marks]
VL Write short notes on:
A. Etiology, pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever
B, Laboratory diagnosis of hepatitis B
C, Visceral leishmaniasis; Lab diagnosis and treatment
D. Clinical features and lab diagnosis of helicobacter pylori infection
E, Hydatid cyst of liver: Lab diagnosis and treatment
[5 marks each = 25 Marks]
VIL Answer in brief:
A. Name four parasites infecting the liver
B. What are the clinical features of hook worm infection?
C. List the clinical stages of HIV infection
D. Name 4 causative agents for viral hemorrhagic fever
E. Name bacterial agents causing dysentery
[2 marks each = 1O Marks]
Hall Ticket No... Code No. ECD KFM 1102 01 23 1 S

@AMR'X&
MVISHWA VIDYAPEETHAM

SECOND PROFESSIONAL MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION

J U LYIAUG UST- 2023[SU PPLE M ENTARY]

Time: 1O minutes Max. Marks -1O

Date: 24/07 /2023

MICROBIOLOGY- PAPER TWO

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 mark each)

Instructions: -

1. Selective media for shigella

A. Wilson Blair [Link]
C. DCA D. Blood agar

2. Antigen antibody reaction is seen maximum if?

A. Excess antibody B. Antigen and antibody are equal
C. Excess antigen D. Antigen and antibody are low

3. Which of the following is disposed in red bag?

waste
A, Plastic B. CYtotoxic waste
C. Sharps D. Radioactive waste generate from lab

4. Which of the following immunoglobulins can cross placenta?

A. IgA ' B. IgM
C. IgD D. IgG

5. In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by
A. Blood culture B. Widal
C. Stool culture D. Urine culture

6. Which type of malaria is associated with nephrotic syndrome and renal failure?
A. [Link] B. [Link]
C. [Link] D. [Link]

P.T.O
7. Weil's disease is caused bY?
A. LeptosPira B, Plague
C. Yersinia D. Rickettsial fever

B. Which is the hepatitis virus that spreads by feco-oral route?

A.H epatitis D B, Hepatitis B
C.H epatitis C D. Hepatitis A

g, which of the following is most resistant to sterilization?

A. Cysts B' Prions
C. Spores D' Viruses

10. HIV infects which of the following cells?

A. T-helper cells B. NK cells
C, T suppressor cells D. Plasma cells
 Hall Ticket No. Code No, ECD KFM tl}2 A7 23 2 S

V
@)AAARIT&
MVISHWA VIDYAPETTHAM
SECOND PROFESSIONAL MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION
JU LylAUGUST- 2023[SU PPLEM ENTARY]
Time: 3 hrs Max. Marks -1OO
Date: 24/07 /2023

MICROBIOLOGY- PAPER TWO

Instructions: -
> Draw labeled diagrams/flow chart wherever necessary.

SECTION -A
L Multiple Choice Questions (Separate question paper and answer sheet attached
[10 Marks]
II. A 23 year old boy complains of fever, body ache, nasal stuffiness and loss of taste
and smell for the past three days
A. What is the most likely diagnosis?
B. How is it diagnosed in the laboratory?
C, Describe in brief treatment and prevention of the infection
D. List three causes of seasonal flu
[1+3+3+3 = 1O Marks]
III. Short notes on:
A. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome and toxic shock syndrome

B. Streptococcus pneumonia: Laboratory identification and vaccines

C, Aspergillosis: Etiology, risk factors and lab diagnosis

D. Gas gangrene: Etiology, clinical features and lab diagnosis

E.
Rubella: clinical features, congenital anomalies and prevention
[5 marks each = 25 Marks]
IV. Answer in brief:
A. Name 2 agents of cutaneous larva migrans
B. Culture of mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia
D, Chromoblastomycosis
E. Measles vaccine
[2 marks each = 1O Marks]
P.T,O
I

SECTION -B
V. A 13 year old girl complains of fever, burning micturition, dysuria and increase in
frequency for the past three days, Urine routine examination showed plenty of pus
cells and nitrate PositivitY.
A. What is the likelY diagnosis?
B. Describe the pathogenesis of this disease
C. How is it diagnosed in the laboratory? Which is the most common etiological
agent?
D. Describe in brief treatment and prevention of the condition
12+2+4+2 = 1O Marksl
VI. Write short notes on:
A. Monkey pox: Etiology, clinical features and lab diagnosis

B. Gonorrhea: Etiology, clinical features and lab diagnosis

C, Describe prion disease with two examples

D. Brucellosis: Etiology, clinical features and lab diagnosis

E. Polio vaccines
[5 marks each = 25 Marks]
VIL Answer in brief:
A. Name 4 features of congenital syphilis
B. National tuberculosis elimination program
C. Name 4 etiological agents of viral encephalitis
D. Name 4 parasitic infections of the brain
E. Role of informed consent in patient care
[2 marks each = 1O Marks]
Hall Ticket No Code No, ECD KFM 7702 02 24 L R

-fft-

W* ef&re&K&
{'t,\
iffiffiI
V,DY V Ig
&,M H \,V,4 A{3 F.{.T T4

SECOND PROFESSIONAL MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION FEBRUARY-ZOZ4.

Time: 3 hrs Max. Marks -1OO

Date: O5lO2/2024

MICROBIOLOGY- PAPER ONE

Instructions: -
> Answer Section A and Section B in separate answer sheets
'/> Draw labeled diaqrams/flow chart wherever necessary.
Do not write anything on the question paper other than your tlall Ticket No on Top ieft.

SECTION -A
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Separate question paper and answer sheet attached
[10 Marks]
IL Structured Essay:
A. Define hospital acquired tnfection
B. Describe in brief the different types of hospital acquired infection
C. List measures to prevent hospital acquired infection
[2+5+3 = 1O Marks]
iII. Short Notes On:

A. Enriched medra and its uses

B. Blood culture: indications and sample collection

C. Define disinfection and its different levels

D. What are the differences between innate and acquired immunity?

E.
What are the methods of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria? Describe one
[5 marks each= 25 Marks]
IV. Answer in brief:

A. Name 4 viruses causing cancer

B. IgG antibody
C. Principle of inspissation
D. What is agglutination? Give 2 examples
E. What is atopy? [2 marks each = 1o Marks]

P.T,O
 SECTION -B
A 45 year old male from Cherthala, Kerala, presented with swelling in bo:h ihe lower
limbs for the past five months. He gave history of episodes of acute nfia'r'ratron of
lymphatic vessels along with high temperatures, shaking chills, body acl'es arc
swollen lymph nodes. On examination the limbs exhibited non-pitting eceoa i,1i tr
hardening of the surrounding tissues. His hemogram showed eos noph e.
A. What is the likely diagnosis?
B. Describe the various tests for laboratory diagnosis of this disease
C. List the preventive measures against this disease
D. Briefly describe the treatment
[1+5+2*2 = 10 Marks]
VI. Short Notes On:
A. Life cycle and laboratory diagnosis of falciparum Malaria
B. Transmission, clinical manifestations and lab diagnosis of hepatitis C

C. Food poisoning: Etiology and lab diagnosis

D. Clinical features and lab diagnosis of histoplasmosis
E. Cysticercosis: etiology, clinical features and treatment
[5 marks each = 25 Marks]
VIL Answer in brief:
A. Name four intestinal nematodes
B. What are the clinical features of entamoeba histolytica infection?
C. List 4 AIDS-defining illnesses
D. What are arboviruses? Name 2 arboviral infections found in India
E. Types of diarrheagenic Escherichia coli
[2 marks each = 10 Marks]
Hall Ticket No..... Code No. ECD KFM 7LO2 0224 L R

M
@AMRITA
VI SHWA VI DYAPHET}*AAA

SECOND PROFESSIONAL MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION FEBRUARY- 2024

Time: 1O minutes Max. Marks -1O

Date: O5lO2/2024
MICROBIOLOGY. PAPER ONE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 mark each)

Instructions: -
> Mark your answers in the answer sheet provided separately

1. Which of the following is used to demonstrate capsule?

A. Negative sLaining
B. Acid-fast staining
C. AIbert's stain
D. Warthin starry stain
2. Which of the following is not a mould?
A. Aspergillus
B. Mucor
C. Cryptococcus
D. Penicillium
3. Novy, Mc Neal and Nicolle(NNN)medium is used to culture
A. Plasmodium
B. Leishmania
C. Giardia
D. Entamoeba
4. Which of the following is a property of endotoxin?
A. Protein in nature
B. Highly antigenic
C. Heat stable
D. Can be toxoided
5, Widal test is an example of
A. Precipitation test
B. Flocculation test
C. Agglutination test
D. Neutralization test

P.T.O
6. Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?
A. BCG
B. DPT
C. Covaxin
D. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
7. Which of the following has an incubation period of 2-6 hours?
A. Cholera
B. Rotaviral diarrhea
C. Staphylococcal food poisoning
D. Amoebiasis
B. Puncture, aspiration, injection and reaspiration(PAIR) is used to treat
A. Amoebic liver abscess
B. Cysticercosis
C. Schistosomiasis
D. Hydatid disease
9. Zoonotic diseases are all except:
A. Typhoid
B. Anthrax
C. Rabies
D. Q fever
10. All are mosquito borne viral fevers except:
A. Dengue
B. Kysanur forest disease
C. Yellow fever
D. Japanese encephalitis
Hall Ticket No........ Code No. ECD KFM 1102 01 24 2 R

.@A^^RITA
ffivtsHwA vIDYAPTFTHAIn
SECOND PROFESSIONAL MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION FEBRUARY' 2024
Time: 3 hrs Max. Marks -1OO
Date: O8/O2/2024

MICROBIOLOGY. PAPER TWO

Instructions: -
r Answer Section A and Section B in separate answer sheets
'ii Draw labeled diagrams/flow chart wherever necessary.
Do not write anything on the question paper other than your Hall Ticket No on Top left.

SECTION -A
i. Multiple Choice Questions (Separate question paper and answer sheet attached
[1O Marks]
IL A 40 year old patient with HIV-AIDS presents with headache, low-grade fever,
altered sensorium and neck stiffness. CSF sent for microscopy and culture shows
round capsulated budding yeast cells
A. What is the Probable diagnosis?
B. What are the virulence factors of the causative organism?
C. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of this condition
D. Name 4 other opportunistic fungi
ll+2+5+2 = 1O Marksl
IiI. Short Notes On:
A. Mycetoma: Etiology, risk factors and lab diagnosis
B. Atypical pneumonia: etiology, risk factors and lab diagnosis
C. Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus: Laboratory identification and
treatment oPtions
D. Sporotrichosis: Risk factors, clinical features and lab diagnosis
E. Lab diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis
[5 marks each = 25 Marks]
IV. Answer in brief:
A, Lung fluke
B. Complications of recurrent group A streptococcal throat infection
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Name four dermatophYtes
E. Clinical features of herpes zoster infection(shingles)
[2 marks each = 1O Marks]

P.T.O
 SECTION -B
V. A 45-year old female was admitted with weakness, fever and headache which
progressed to anxiety, confusion, agitation, photophobia and hydrophobia, The
patient gave a history of being scratched by a stray cat one month ago for which no
treatment was sought.
A. What is the likely diagnosis?
B. Describe the pathogenesis of this disease
C. How is it diagnosed in the laboratory?
D. Write a short note on treatment and prevention of the condition
f2+2+3+3 = 10 Marksl
VL Short Notes on:
R. Clinical features of anthrax

B. Tetanus:Etiology, clinical features, risk factors and treatment

C. Trichomonas vaginalis: Clinical features, lab diagnosis and treatment

D. Rhinocerebral mucormycosis: Etiology, clinical features lab diagnosis and risk

factors

E. Lab diagnosis of bacterial meningitis

[5 marks each = 25 Marks]
VII. Answer in brief:
A. Clinical types of plague
B. Etiology and clinical features of primary amoebic meningoencephalitis
C. Name 4 etiological agents causing urinary tract infection
D. Name 4 agents causing transfusion transmitted infections
E. Describe the role of non-maleficence as a principle in patient care
[2 marks each = 1O Marks]
 Hall Ticket No Code No. ECD KFM 7102 02 24 7 R

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TX\i &
.fA JB,
t;rutl-J fq&, I AE
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tr&, W %www&"
;ffi; VI SHWA V' [}YAPT{I YX&M

SECOND PROFESSIONAL MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION FEBRUARY- 2024

Timer 1O minutes Max. Marks -1O

Date: O8/O2/2024

MICROBIOLOGY- PAPER TWO

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 mark each)

Instructions: -
'r Write your Hall Ticket Number in this question paper on top left
.r Mark your answers in the answer sheet provided separately

1. Clue cell is seen in:

A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Bacterial vaginosis
C. Candidiasis
D. Herpes
2, Sterile pyuria is present in
A. Renal tuberculosis
B. Chronic hydronephrosis
C. Wilm's tumor
D. Neuroblastoma
3. A child presents with sepsis. Bacteria isolated showed p hemolysis on blood agar,
resistant to bacitracin and a positive CAMP test. The most probable organism is:
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B, Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Enterococcus
D. Pneumococcus

4. Chancroid is caused by:

A. HSV
B. Treponama pallidum
C. Gonococcus
D. Haemophilus ducreyi

5. Most common opportunistic infection in HIV positive patient in India is

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B, Cryptococcus
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Cryptosporidiosis

P.T.O
6. In Japanese Encephalitis, pigs acts as:
A. Intermediate host
B. Definitive host
C. Amplifier host
D. Reservoir host
7. Metachromatic granules seen in:
A. [Link]
B. Mycoplasma
C. Gardnerella
D. Chlamydia

B. Parotitis and orchitis are common manifestations of :

A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D, Diphtheria
9. A 16 year old male patient presents with headache, fever and neck stiffness for the
past 24 hours. CSF analysis shows WBC count-400/ml, with 90% neutrophils. Gram
staining shows gram negative intracellular diplococci. What could be the most
pro ba b le orga n ism :

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. H influenza
C. [Link]
D, [Link]
10. Neonatal meningitis acquired during passage through birth canal is due to
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Streptococcus equisimilis
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Hail Tlcket No Code No. ECD KFM LLOZ 04 24 L S

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SECOND PROFESSIONAL MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION
APRrL/ MAY-2024 [SUPPLEM ENTARY]

Time: 3 hrs Max. Marks -1OO

Datet 27 /O4/2O24

MICROBIOLOGY- PAPER ONE

Instructions: -
> Answer Section A and Section B in separate answer sheets
> Draw labeled diagrams/flow chart wherever necessary.
r Do not write anything on the question paper other than your llall Ticket No on Top left.

SECTION -A
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Separate question paper and answer sheet attached
[10 Marks]
II. Structured Essay:
A. Define an antigen
B. Describe the factors influencing Immunogenicity
C. Define heterophile antigens and its diagnostic application^
[2+5+3 = 1o Marks]
III. Short Notes On:

A. Bacterral growth curve

B. Five moments for hand hygiene

C. Hot air oven

D. Live attenuated vaccines

E. Antibiotic susceptibility testing methods

[5 marks each= 25 Marks]
IV. Answer in brief:
A. Continuous cell lines
B. Monoclonal antibody
C. Inclusion bodies
D. What is precipitation? Give 2 examples of precipitation tests
E. Define antimicrobial stewardship [2 marks each = 1o Marks]

P.T.O
 SECTION -B
V. A 15- year old student presented with history of fever spikes, abdominal pain and
dysentery for the past 2 days. Stool cultures were sent to the Iaboratory. On the 5Yo
sheep blood agar plate, non-hemolytic colonies appeared. On MacConkey agar the .
colonies were noted to be non-lactose fermenting. Gram negative bacilli, catalase
positive and oxidase negative.
A. What is the likely diagnosis?
B. Describe the pathogenesis of this disease
C. Describe the lab diagnosis
D. List the preventive measures against this disease
[1+5+2+2 = 1O Marks]
VI. Short Notes On:
A. Etiology, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of acute infective
endocard itis
B. Laboratory diagnosis of hepatitis B

C. Filariasis: Lab diagnosis and treatment

pylori infection
D. Clinical features and lab diagnosis of helicobacter
E. Amoebic liver abscess: Lab diagnosis and treatment
[5 marks each = 25 Marks]
VII. Answer in brief:
A. Name four intestinal helminthic infections
B. List four types of hospital associated infections.
C. Opportunistic Infections in AIDS patient
D. Complications of falciparum malaria
E. Name 4 causative agents for traveler's diarrhea
[2 marks each = 1O Marks]
Hall Ticket No.... Code No. ECD KFM L1O2 04 24 7 S

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SECOND PROFESSIONAL MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION
APRrL/M AY- 2024 [SUPPLEMENTARY]
Time: 1O minutes Max. Marks -1O
Date: 27 /O4/2024
MICROBIOLOGY- PAPER ONE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 mark each)

Instructions: -
> Write your Hall Ticket Number in this question paper on top left
i Mark your answers in the answer sheet provided separately

1, Robertson cooked meat broth is an example:

A. Enriched media
B. Enrichment media
C. Nutrient media
D. Anaerobic media
2. Antigen antibody reaction is seen maximum in?
A. Excess antibody
B. Antigen and antibody are equal
C. Excess antigen
D. Antigen and antibody are low
3. Which of the following is disposed in red bag?
A. Plastic waste
B. Cytotoxic waste
C. Sharps
D. Radioactive waste generate from lab
4. Which of the following immunoglobulins can cross placenta?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgG
5. In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis in the second week of onset of fever is best done
by:
A. Blood culture
B. Widal
C, Stool culture
D. Urine culture

P.T.O
 !

6. Which type of malaria is associated with syndrome and renal failure?

A. [Link]
B. [Link]
C. P, malariae
D. [Link]
7. Lyme's disease is caused by
A. Borrelia parkeri
B. Borellia burgdorferi
C. Borrelia recurrentis
D. Borrelia hermsii
B. All the following are true about nosocomial infections except:
A. May manifest within 48 hours of admission
B. May develop after discharge of patient from the hospital
C. Denote a new condition which is unrelated to the patient's primary condltions
D. May already present at the time of admission
9. Which is not present in gram negative bacteria:
A. Peptidoglycan
B. Teichoic acid
C. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Porin channels
[Link] most common organism amongst the following that causes meningitis in an AIDS
patient is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Listeria monocytogenes
Hall Ticket No Code No. ECD KFM LL02 04 24 2 S

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SECOND PROFESSIONAL MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION

APRrL/ M AY - 2024[SU PPLE M E NTARY]
Time: 3 hrs Max' Marks -1OO
Date: 3OlO4/2(J24

MICROBIOLOGY- PAPER TWO

Instructions: -
'/ Answer Section A and Section B in separate answer sheets
> Draw Iabeled diagrams/flow chart wherever necessary.

SECTION -A
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Separate question paper and answer sheet attached
[ 1O Marks]
IL A 16 -year old girl presented with symptoms of conjunctival suffusion, photophobia,
non-bloody, watery stools and dark tea colored urine. The patient also noticed
yellowing of his eyes and face and onset of abdominal pain. The patient reported
walking in muddy water in a nearby rat infested rice field 2 weeks prior to
admission. An abrasion was noticed on her Ieft leg'
A. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis and give reasons thereof?
B. Describe the pathogenesis of this disease
C. How is the condition diagnosed in the laboratory?
D. Describe in brief treatment and prevention of the infection
[1+2+5+2 = 1O Marks]
III. Short Notes On:
A. Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus
B. Pneumocystis pneumonia: risk factors, Iab diagnosis and treatment
C. Cryptococcal meningitis: risk factors, lab diagnosrs and treatment
D. Anthrax: etiology, clinical types and lab diagnosis
E. Gonorrhea: Etiology, clinical features, complications and treatment
[5 marks each = 25 Marks]
IV. Answer in brief :

A. Name 4 agents causing viral exanthems

B. Culture of mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Etiology of atypical Pneumonia
D. Dermatophytosis
E. Varrcella vaccine
[2 marks each = 1O Marks]

P.T,O
 SECTION -B
A 10 year old male child with unknown immunization history, llving away from his
parents presented with high-grade fever, cough with expectoration, and mild
swelling of the neck. On examination the tonsils were congested, partially covered
with a grayish-white membrane and severely tender.
A. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis and give reasons thereof?
B. Describe the pathogenesis of this disease
C. How is the condition diagnosed in the Iaboratory?
D. Describe in brief treatment and prevention of the infection
12+2+4+2 = 1O Marksl
VI Short Notes on:
A. Plague: etiology, clinical types and lab diagnosis

B, Syphilis: etiology, clinical features and lab diagnosis

C. Describe prron disease with two examples

D. Nipah virus disease: transmission, clinical features and lab diagnosis

E. Oncogenic viruses
[5 marks each = 25 Marks]
Vll. Answer in brief:

A. Name 4 etiological agents of non gonococcal urethritis

B. Mass drug administration for lymphatic filariasis elimination
C. Name 4 etiological agents of zoonotic infections
D. Discuss the role of patient autonomy in healthcare
E. Role of confidentiality in patient care
[2 marks each = 1O Marks]
 Hall Ticket No...... Code No. ECD KFM 1LO2 04 24 I S

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SECOND PROFESSIONAL MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION

APRrL/ M AY - 2024[ SU PPLEM E NTARY]
Time: 1O minutes Max. Marks -1O
Date: 3OlO4/2024

MICROBIOLOGY- PAPER TWO

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 mark each)

Instructions: -
> Write your Hall Ticket Number in this question paper on top teft

1. In a splenectomised patient there is increase of infection by:

A. [Link]
B. Enterococcus spp
C. Proteus spp
D. Salmonella Typhi
2. Wool sorters disease is caused by:
A. [Link]
B. [Link]
C. S,aureus
D. Coxiella burnetii
3. Fish tank granuloma is caused by:
A. Mycobacterium kansasii
B. Mycobacterium gordonae
C. Mycobacterium xenopi
D. Mycobacterium mari num

4. A patient presented with trismus and opisthotonus posture, What is the probable
cause?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Rabies virus
D. Nisseria meningitidis

5. Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is caused by?

A. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Wuchereria bancrofti
D. Paragonimus westermani

P.T.O
 /

6. The capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans in a CSF sample is best seen by

A. Gram stain
B. India ink preParation
C. Giemsa stain
D. Methanamine-silver stain
7. Vector for Leishmaniasis:
A. Anopheles mosquitoe
B, Reduviid bugs
C, Testse flY
D. Sand fly

B. A 25-year old female presented to the hospital on the third day of menstruation with
complaints of high fever, vomiting and rash on her trunk and extremities. On
investigation she had Ieucocytosis and a negative blood culture. She is diagnosed as:
A. Staphylococcal food Poisoning
B. Scalded skin sYndrome
C. Toxic shock syndrome
D. Varicella zoster infection
9. Chancre is a feature of
A. Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syPhilis
C. Neuro syphilis
D. Tertiary syPhilis
10. Mycobacteria tuberculosis is considered as multi drug resistant if it is resistant to?
A. Isoniazid +Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid+ Ethambutol+rtfampicin
C. Isoniazid+rifamPicin
D. isoniazid+ Ethambutol+levofloxacin