11-05-2025

9610WMD801490250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) Find net force on charge Q placed on X-axis.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A charged metallic bob of mass m and charge Q is in equilibrium in presence of electric repulsion

by Q (fixed) as shown in fig. Find Q = ?

(1) (2π∈0mg) L
1/2

(2) (4π∈0mg) L
1/2

(3) (8π∈0mg) L
1/2

(4) None

3) Two small electric dioples, one of dipole moment at point A and the other of dipole moment
at point B, are as shown in the figure. The torque experienced by the dipole is :-
(1) Zero
(2) ∞
(3) Can't determined
(4) None of these

4) You are given two concentric charged conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 such that R1 > R2,
having charges Q1 and Q2 respectively and uniformly distributed over its surface. Calculate E and V

at point B whose distance from the centre is rB as shown in figure :-

(1)
E= ,V=

(2)
E= ,V=

(3)
E= ,V=
(4) E = 0, V = 0

5) A rod of length L has a total charge Q distributed uniformly along its length. It is bent in the
shape of a semicircle. Find the magnitude of the electric field at the centre of curvature of the
semicircle.

2
(1) Q/2∈0L
2
(2) Q/∈0L

(3)

(4) Zero

6) Eight equal charges q are placed at each corner of a cube of side a each. Work done in carrying a
charge –q from its centre to infinity is

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)
(4)

7) Regular hexagon with side length 'a' is shown in fig. Find EA ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Linear charge density of a half ring varies with θ as λ = λ0 cosθ. then find total charge of ring.

(1) λ0R
(2) Zero
(3) λ0R
(4) 2 λ0R

9) As one moves towards the centre from surface of a uniformly charged metallic sphere, the electric
field strength E,

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remains same as that of the surface
(4) is zero at all points

10) Which of the following systems of charges have zero electrostatic potential energy ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

11) 4 charges are placed each at a distance 'a' from origin. The dipole moment of configuration is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) none

12) Charge Q is spread uniformly over a circular ring of radius R, which gives electrical potential V1

at its centre. If an arc of length is removed from the ring (as shown in figure (ii)) keeping the net
charge Q on the remaining part constant. The relation between new potential V2 at the centre and V1
is

Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)

(1) V1 > V2
(2) V2 > V1
(3) V1 = V2
(4) can’t determine

13) Figure shows three circular arcs, each of radius R and total charge as indicated. The net electric

potential at the centre of curvature is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A dipole is placed in uniform electric field such that potential energy of dipole is maximum (U).
The work done in rotating a dipole by 180° is :-

(1) U
(2) 3U
(3) –2U
(4) –U

15) The figures shows electrostatic lines of force, which pattern is incorrect :-

(1) a,c
(2) b,c
(3) only d
(4) c,d

16) Find potential difference across 24 Ω :-

(1) 48 volt
(2) 2 volt
(3) 4 volt
(4) 1 volt

17) Figure represents a part of closed circuit. The potential difference (VA – VB) is :

(1) 24 V
(2) 0 V
(3) 6 V
(4) 18 V

18) A battery of internal resistance r having no load resistance has an emf E volt. What is the
observed voltage across the terminals of the battery when a load resistance R = r is connected to its
terminals:

(1) 2E volt
(2) E volt
(3) (E/2) volt
(4) (E/4) volt

19) A circuit consists of five identical conductors as shown in the figure. The two similar conductors
are added as indicated by the dotted lines. The ratio of resistances before and after addition will be
:-

(1) (7/5)
(2) (3/5)
(3) (5/3)
(4) (6/5)
20) The ammeter reading in the following circuit will be

(1)
A

(2)
A

(3)
A
(4) 2 A

21) The lengths of four conducting wires are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. All wires are of same material
and same radius. If they are connected in parallel with a battery, then the ratio of currents in these
wires will be:-

(1) 12 : 6 : 4 : 3
(2) 6 : 3 : 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4

22) A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected in series with an external resistance nr.
Then, the ratio of the terminal potential difference to emf is :-

(1) (1/n)
(2) 1/(n+1)
(3) n/(n+1)
(4) (n+1)/n

23) A simple circuit contains an ideal battery and a resistance R. If a second resistor is placed in
parallel with the first,

(1) the potential difference across R will decrease

(2) the current through R will decreased
(3) the current delivered by the battery will increase
(4) the power dissipated by R will increased.

24) Current in the 3 Ω resistance is :-

(1) 1 A
(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Find the current in 2Ω resistor

(1) 6A from b to a
(2) 6A from a to b
(3) 3A from to b to a
(4) zero

26) In the circuit shown, potential difference between X and Y will be :-

(1) Zero
(2) 20 V
(3) 60 V
(4) 120 V

27) The potential difference across 8 ohm resistance is 48 volt as shown in the figure. The value of

potential difference across X and Y points will be:-

(1) 160 volt

(2) 128 volt
(3) 80 volt
(4) 62 volt
28)
If I1 = 0. 3A and I = 0.8A then find value of R :-

(1) 10 Ω
(2) 60 Ω
(3) 100 Ω
(4) 140 Ω

29) Consider the circuit shown in the figure. The current i3 is equal to

(1) 5 amp
(2) 3 amp
(3) – 3 amp
(4) – 5/6 amp

30) In the given circuit ammeter and voltmeter are ideal and battery of 6V has internal resistance
1Ω. The reading of voltmeter and ammeter is

Zero,
(1)

(2)
Zero
(3) 6 A, 0.1 A
(4) 3.6 V, 0.6 A

31)

Current i as shown in the circuit will be :-

(1) 10 A

(2)

(3) Zero
(4) Infinite

32) If the ammeter in the given circuit reads (1/3)A, the resistance R is :-

(1) 8 Ω
(2) 10 Ω
(3) 16 Ω
(4) 20 Ω

33) In the circuit shown in figure, each battery is 5 V and has an internal resistance of 0.2Ω. The

reading of the voltmeter is V. Then V equals:-

(1) 5 V

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

34) An infinite sequence of resistance is shown in the figure. The resultant resistance between A and

B will be, when R1 = 1 ohm and R2 = 2 ohm :-

(1) Infinity
(2) 1Ω
(3) 2Ω
(4) 1.5 Ω

35) Calculate effective resistance between L and N (it each resistance has value R) :-

(1) R

(2)
R

(3)
R

(4)

36) Find the value of x for which bridge is balanced

(1) 80 Ω
(2) 20 Ω
(3) 160 Ω
(4) 16 Ω

37) For the given part of circuit calculate potential VP of centre point P.

(1) 10 V
(2) 11 V
(3) 8 V
(4) 12 V

38) The effective resistance in the adjoining figure between points X and Y will be -

(1) 4Ω
(2) 2Ω
(3) 8Ω
(4) 16Ω

39) A capacitor is connected to battery if distance between two plates increases then :

(1) Charge on plates remains same.

(2) Potential difference increases.
(3) Stored energy decreases.
(4) Electric field remains same.

40) The resultant capacitance between A and B in the figure is :

(1) 1µF
(2) 10 µF
(3) 50 µF
(4) 1.5

41) The force between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C and distance of
separation of the plates d with a potential difference V between the plates, is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

42) Find potential at A and B in the given circuit

(1) 40 V, 0 V
(2) 50 V, 0 V
(3) 60 V, –40 V
(4) 40 V, –10 V

43) Two parallel metal plates carry charges +Q and –Q. A test charge placed between the plates
experiences a force F. The plates are then moved apart so that the separation between them is
doubled. The force on the test charge will now be :-

(1) F/2
(2) F
(3) F/4
(4) 2F

44) A parallel plate capacitor with air between plates has a capacitance of 8μF what will be
capacitance if distance between plates is reduced by half, and the space between them is filled with
a substance of dielectric constant 6 ?

(1) 96 μF
(2) 24μF
(3) 50 μF
(4) 10 μF

45) A capacitor is charged by using a battery which is then disconnected. A dielectric slab is then
slipped between the plates, which results in :-

(1) Reduction of charge on the plates and increase of potential difference across the plates.
Increase in the potential difference across the plates, reduction in stored energy, but no change
(2)
in the charge on the plates.
Decrease in the potential difference across the plates, reduction in stored energy, but no change
(3)
in the charge on the plates
(4) None of the above

CHEMISTRY
1) Oxidation number of O in H2O2 will be :

(1) –2
(2) –1
(3) +1
(4) +2

2) Which of the following species has highest oxidation number of 'Cl' ?

(1) Cl2
(2) HClO3
(3) HClO4
(4) HCl

3) When H2 reacts with Na, H2 acts as, H2 + 2Na → 2NaH

(1) Oxidising agent

(2) Reducing agent
(3) Both
(4) None

4) Oxidation number of sodium in sodium amalgam :-

(1) +1
(2) –1
(3) 0
(4) 2

5) The number of mole of oxalate ions oxidised by one mole of MnO4– is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 5

6) HNO2 acts as an oxidant with which one of the following reagent:-

(1) KMnO4
(2) H2S
(3) K2Cr2O7
(4) Br2

7) In the balanced equation

MnO4– + H+ + C2O42– → Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O, the moles of CO2 formed are :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 10

8) What is the value of n in the balanced reaction ?

Cr(OH)4– + OH– → CrO42– + H2O + ne–

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 2

9) Which one of the following is not a redox reaction?

(1) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

(2) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

(3)
Na + H2O → NaOH + H2

(4)
MnCl3 → MnCl2 + Cl2

10) Equivalent weight of FeC2O4 in the change : FeC2O4 → Fe3+ + CO2 is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11)

The oxidation potential of hydrogen electrode at pH = 10, 1 atm and 25°C is :-

(1) 0.591 volt

(2) 0.059 volt
(3) –0.059 volt
(4) None

12) The standard reduction potential values of three metallic cations, X,Y,Z are 0.52, –3.03 and –1.18
V respectively. The order of reducing power of the corresponding metals is :-
(1) Y > Z > X
(2) X > Y > Z
(3) Z > Y > X
(4) Z > X > Y

13) The value of Λ∞ for NH4Cl, NaOH and NaCl are respectively 150, 250 and 130 ohm–1cm2eq–1. The
value of Λ∞ of NH4OH is :-

(1) 270
(2) 280
(3) 400
(4) 380

14) The relationship between standard potential of cell and equilibrium constant is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The molar conductance at infinte dilution for AgNO3, AgCl, NaCl are 116.5, 121.6, 110.3 Ω–1 cm2
mol–1. Find Molar conductance of NaNO3 at infinite dilution :- (in Ω–1 cm2 mol–1)

(1) 111.4
(2) 105.2
(3) 130.6
(4) 150.2

16) The conductivity of 0.01 M solution is 10–4 Ω–1 cm–1. Find its molar conductance (in terms of Ω–1
cm2 mol–1) :-

(1) 10
(2) 10–2
(3) 102
(4) 10–1

17) For the given Nernst equation

Which of the following representation is correct?

(1) Ag+ | Ag || Mg2+ | Mg

(2) Mg2+ | Mg || Ag | Ag+
(3) Mg | Mg2+ || Ag+ | Ag
(4) Mg | Mg2+ || Ag | Ag+

18) The specific conductance of a 0.1 N KCl solution at 23°C is 0.012 ohm–1 cm–1. The resistance of
cell containing the solution at the same temperature was found to be 55 ohm. The cell constant will
be

(1) 0.142 cm–1

(2) 0.66 cm–1
(3) 0.918 cm–1
(4) 1.12 cm–1

19) The ionization constant of a weak electrolyte is 25 × 10–6 while the equivalent conductance of its
0.01 M solution is 19.6 S cm2 eq–1. The equivalent conductance of the electrolyte at infinite dilution
(in S cm2 eq–1 ) will be

(1) 39.2
(2) 78.4
(3) 392
(4) 196

20) E° for the cell,

Zn | Zn2+ (aq) || Cu+2(aq) | Cu is 1.10 V at 25°C. The equilibrium constant for the cell reaction

is of the order of

(1) 10–37
(2) 1037
(3) 10–17
(4) 1017

21) 2Ce4+ + Co → 2Ce3+ + Co2+; = 1.89V,

. Hence, is :

(1) 0.805 V
(2) 1.613 V
(3) –0.805 V
(4) –1.613 V

22) Equivalent conductance of NaCl, HCl and C2H5COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and
91Ω–1 equiv–1 cm2, respectively. The equivalent conductance of C2H5COOH is :

(1) 201.28 Ω–1 equiv–1 cm2

(2) 390.71 Ω–1 equiv–1 cm2
(3) 698.28 Ω–1 equiv–1 cm2
(4) 540.48 Ω–1 equiv–1 cm2

23) At infinite dilution, the aqueous solution of BaCl2, molar conductivity of Ba2+ and Cl– ions are
127.32 S cm2/mol and, 76.34 S cm2/mol respectively. What is for BaCl2 at same dilution ?

(1) 280 S cm2 mol–1

(2) 330.98 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 90.93 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 203.6 S cm2 mol–1

24) In a galvanic cell

(1) Chemical reaction produces electrical energy

(2) Electrical energy produces chemical reaction
(3) Reduction occurs at anode
(4) Oxidation occurs at cathode

25) Which of the following is/ are function(s) of salt-bridge?

It completes the electrical circuit with electrons flowing from one electrode to the other through
(1)
external wires and a flow of ions between the two compartments through salt-bridge.
(2) It minimizes the liquid-liquid junction potential
(3) Both are correct
(4) None of the above

26) Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make salt-bridge because :

(1) Velocity of K+ is greater than that of

(2) Velocity of is greater than that of K
+

(3) Velocity of both K+ and are nearly the same

(4) KNO3 is high soluble in water

27) E.M.F. of the cell

2Ag+ + Cu → Cu+2 + 2Ag

[Given: = –0.8 V ; = 0.3 V]

(1) –0.5 V
(2) 0.5 V
(3) –1.1 V
(4) 1.1 V

28) Given : E° (Cu2+/Cu) = 0.337 V and E° (Sn2+ /Sn) = –0.136 V. Which of the following statements is
correct ?

2+
(1) Cu ions can be reduced by H2(g)
(2) Cu can be oxidized by H+
2+
(3) Sn ions can be reduced by H2(g)
(4) Cu can reduce Sn+

29) Consider the cell potential = –2.37 V and = –0.04 V. The best reducing agent
would be :

(1) Mg2+
(2) Fe3+
(3) Mg
(4) Fe

30) Al3+ (aq) + 3e– → Al (s) E° = – 1.66V

2+ –
Cu (aq) + 2e → Cu(s) E°= + 0.34 V
What voltage is produced under standard conditions by combining the half-reactions with these
Standard Electrode Potentials?

(1) 1.32 V
(2) 2.00 V
(3) 2.30 V
(4) 4.34 V

31) The standard electrode potential for the reactions,

At 25°C are 0.80 volt and – 0.14 V, respectively.

The emf of the cell Sn | Sn2+(1M) || Ag+ (1M)| Ag is :

(1) 0.66 volt

(2) 0.80 volt
(3) 1.08 volt
(4) 0.94 volt

32) Strong electrolytes are those which :

(1) dissolve readily in water

(2) conduct electricity
(3) dissociate into ions even at high concentration
(4) dissociate into ions at high dilution.

33) The specific conductance of a 0.01M solution of KCl is 0.0014 ohm–1cm–1at 25°C. Its equivalent
conductance (cm2ohm–1eq–1) is :

(1) 140
(2) 14
(3) 1.4
(4) 0.14

34) The molar conductivities and at infinite dilution in water at 25°C are 91.0
2 –1
and 426.2 S cm mol respectively. To calculate the additional value required is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

35) Which of the following solutions of KCl has the lowest value of equivalent conductance ?

(1) 1 M
(2) 0.1 M
(3) 0.01 M
(4) 0.001 M

36) The osmotic pressure of equimolar solution of BaCl2, NaCl and glucose will be in the order :

(1) glucose > NaCl > BaCl2

(2) BaCl2 > NaCl > glucose
(3) NaCl > BaCl2 > glucose
(4) NaCl > glucose > BaCl2

37) Which one of the following aqueous solutions exhibit highest boiling point?

(1) 0.01 M Na2SO4

(2) 0.01 M KNO3
(3) 0.015 M urea
(4) 0.015 M glucose

38) Which of the following solutions can· have boiling point less than that of both the individual
components?

(1) n-Hexane and n-Heptane

(2) CHCl3 and CH3COCH3
(3) HNO3 and H2O
(4) C2H5OH and H2O

39) On mixing 10mL of acetone with 40mL of chloroform, the total volume of the solution is:

(1) < 50 mL
(2) > 50 mL
(3) = 50 mL
(4) cannot be predicted

40) Statement-I: The observed molar mass of acetic acid in benzene is more than the normal molar
mass of acetic acid.
Statement-2: Molecules of acetic acid dimerise in benzene due to hydrogen bonding.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

41) Molarity of 720 g of pure water -

(1) 40 M
(2) 4 M
(3) 55.5 M
(4) Can't be determined

42) Osmotic pressure of 30% solution of glucose is 1.20 atm and that of 3.42% solution of cane-sugar
is 2.5 atm. The osmotic pressure of the mixture containing equal volumes of the two solutions will be
:

(1) 2.5 atm

(2) 3.7 atm
(3) 1.85 atm
(4) 1.3 atm

43) Which of the following is independent of temperature :

(1) Molarity
(2) % W/V
(3) Molality
(4) Both (1) and (2)

44) Molarity represents number of moles of solute present in :

(1) One litre solvent

(2) One kg of solvent
(3) One litre of solution
(4) None of these

45) Which of the following is not a colligative property ?

(1) Elevation in boiling point

(2) Osmotic pressure
(3) Depression in freezing point
(4) Boiling point

BIOLOGY

1) Industrial melanism is an example of

(1) Drug resistance.

(2) Darkening of skin due to smoke from industries.
(3) Protective resemblance with the surroundings.
(4) Natural selection.

2) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

A Saltation I Darwin

B Formation of life II Ernst Heckel

C Reproductive fitness III de Vries

D Embryological support for evolution IV Oparin and haldane

(1) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(2) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(3) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV
(4) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – I

3) The first non-cellular forms of life could have originated

(1) 4.5 bya

(2) 4.0 bya
(3) 3.0 bya
(4) 2.0 bya

4) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

(A) Evolution by natural selection would have started when multicellular forms of life with
differences in metabolic capability originated on earth.
(B) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature.
(C) Work of Thomas Malthus on populations influenced Lamarck.
(D) Theoretically, population size will grow exponentially if everybody reproduced maximally.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) T T F F

(2) F T T F

(3) T F T T

(4) F T F T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Read the following statements and choose the correct option -

Statement A: In the first decade of twentieth century, Hugo deVries based on his work on evening
primrose brought forth the idea of mutations.
Statement B: For the origin of new species in a fish or fowl would take millions of years as life
spans of these animals are in years.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

6) Find the odd one out w.r.t. Homo erectus

(1) Their fossils were discovered in Java

(2) Cranial capacity was 900cc
(3) They probably did not eat meat
(4) Their fossils were discovered in 1891

7) When more individuals acquire value other than the mean character value, it is called

(1) Stabilizing selection

(2) Directional selection
(3) Disruptive selection
(4) Balanced selection

8) In ________, a fish caught in South Africa happened to be a _________ which was thought to be
extinct.

(1) 1958, Coelacanth

(2) 1938, Coelacanth
(3) 1938, Jawless fish
(4) 1958, Jawless fish

9) According to Darwin, which of the following results in variable fitness in a population?

(1) Similarities in a population

(2) Natural selection in population
(3) Limited resources in population
(4) Variations in a population

10) Which type of evolution is shown by given structures?

(1) Parallel evolution
(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Retrogressive evolution

11) Which structure is homologous to the wings of bat ?

(1) Wings of butterfly

(2) Pelvic fins of fish
(3) Hind limbs of cheetah
(4) Flippers of whale

12) Choose the incorrect statement.

(1) Mutations are random and directional which cause evolution.

(2) Evolution for Darwin was gradual based on small variations.
(3) Single step large mutation is called saltation by Hugo de Vries.
Mendel had talked of inheritable ‘factors’ influencing phenotype but Darwin either ignored
(4)
these observations or kept silence.

13) Assertion : Continental drift caused survival of pouched mammals of Australia.

Reason : It was due to lack of competition from any other mammal.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

14) Select the correct statement :

(1) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature
(2) Natural selection and genetic variation are two main key point of Darwinism theory of evoluton
(3) Adaptive ability is always inherited
(4) Placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf are example of homology

15) Assertion :- Primitive atmosphere was of reducing type.

Reason :- The first hydrogen atoms were combined with oxygen.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

16) Statement-I : Homology is based on divergent evolution.

Statement-II : The thorn of boganvalia and tendril of cucurbita represent homology.

(1) Both statement are true

(2) Both statement are false
(3) Statement-I is true but the Statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false but the Statement-II is true.

17) The creature was called first human like being the hominid and was called :-

(1) Dryopithecus
(2) Ramapithecus
(3) Homo habilis
(4) Australopithecus

18) Key concept of Darwinian theory of Evolution is -

(1) Branching descent

(2) Natural selection
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Mutation

19) Viviparity is considered to be more evolved because:

(1) The young ones are left on their own

(2) The young ones are protected by a thick shell
The young ones are protected inside the mother's body and are looked after they are born
(3)
leading to more chances of survival
(4) The embryo takes a long time to develop

20) The skull of which two organisms shown below is most alike?
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) A, B and C

21) The majority of baculoviruses used as biological control agents are in the genus ___________.

(1) Glomus
(2) Trichoderma
(3) Monascus
(4) Nucleopolyhedrovirus

22) Which of the following statement is incorrect for mycorrhiza :-

(1) Many members of genus glomus form mycorrhiza

(2) It provides resistance to root-borne pathogens
(3) It provides tolerance to drought and salinity
(4) It helps Pinus to fix atmospheric nitrogen

23) Which of the following bioactive molecule, that is used as an immunosuppressive agent in organ
transplant patients ?

(1) Statins
(2) Cyclosporin A
(3) Streptokinase
(4) Lipase

24) Which one of following is not a biofertilizer ?

(1) Mycorrhiza
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Rhizobium
(4) Nostoc

25) Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular species of :-

(1) Aspergillus
(2) Saccharomyces
(3) Clostridium
(4) Trichoderma

26) Digestion of milk protein is carried out by :-

(1) Alkali produced by LAB.

(2) Acid produced by LAB.
(3) Alcohol produced by LAB.
(4) Alcoholic compound produced by LAB

27) Which industrial products are synthesized from microbes.

(A) Antibiotic
(B) Fermented beverages
(C) Enzyme and chemicals
(D) Bioactive molecule

(1) (A), (C), (D) only

(2) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(3) (A), (C) only
(4) (A), (B), (C) only

28) Study the following flow chart of biogas production and select the correct option for A,B and C.

(1) A-Methanogenic bacteria, B-fermentative microbes, C-CO2 and hydrogen (biogas)

(2) A-Anaerobic microorganisms,B-Methanococcus, C-CO2 and nitrogen (biogas)
(3) A-Fermentative microbes, B-Methanogenic bacteria, C-CO2, H2 and methane (biogas)
(4) A-Aerobic microorganism, B-Methanobacter, C-CO2 and methane (biogas)

29) The below diagram represent a typical biogas plant. Select the correct option for A, B and C
respectively.

(1) A-Sludge, B-Slurry, C-CH4 + CO2

(2) A-Slurry, B-Sludge, C-CH4+ CO2
(3) A-Sludge, B-CH4+ CO2, C-Slurry
(4) A-CH4 + CO2, B-Slurry, C-Sludge

30) Microbes are not -

(1) Used to produce industrial products

(2) Useful in biocontrol
(3) Always pathogenic
(4) Useful to human beings

31) Large hole in swiss cheese are due to production of large amount of CO2 by a :-

(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungi
(3) Yeast
(4) Lactobacillus

32) Which of the following bacteria was associated with discovery of penicillin :-

(1) Propionibacterium
(2) Trichoderma
(3) Staphylococcus
(4) Streptococcus

33) Statins are

a) Commercial blood-cholesterol lowering agents.
b) Produced by yeast.
c) Competetive inhibitors of enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis.
Choose the correct one(s).

(1) a & b only

(2) b & c only
(3) a & c only
(4) All a, b & c
34) Match list-I and II & select the correct option.

List-I List-II

(a) LAB (i) Statins

(b) Monascus purpureus (ii) Ethanol

(c) Acetobacter aceti (iii) Curd

(d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (iv) Acetic acid

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii

35) Microorganism which is responsible for producing blood cholesterol lowering agent - "Statins"
is:-

(1) Trichoderma polysporum

(2) Aspergillus niger
(3) Monascus purpureus
(4) Propionibacterium sharmanii

36) Which of the following antibiotics was discovered first ? (Replica of Q.176)

(1) Streptomycin
(2) Neomycin
(3) Erythromycin
(4) Penicillin

37) Select the wrong statement :

(1) Lactic acid bacteria produce acid that coagulate and partially digest the milk protein
(2) Curd is more nutritious than milk as it contain vitamin B12
(3) Lactic acid bacteria at very high temperature convert milk to curd
(4) A small amount of curd added to the fresh milk as inoculum or starter contain millions of LAB

38) Biofertilizer is used in :-

(1) Organic farming

(2) Energy plantation
(3) Inorganic forming
(4) Chemical farming

39) Dragonflies are used as biocontrol agent for :

(1) Jassids
(2) Aphids
(3) Beetles
(4) Mosquito

40) Free living fungus trichoderma can be used for :-

(1) Killing insects

(2) Biological control of plant disease.
(3) Controlling butterfly caterpillars
(4) Producing antibiotics

41) Rheumatoid arthritis which affects many people in our society is :-

(1) An age-related degeneration

(2) A genetic disorder
(3) An auto-immune disorder
(4) A bacterial disease

42) The well known plants with hallucinogenic property are given below which plant or drug do not
shows hallucinogenic property-

(1) Cocaine
(2) Datura
(3) Atropa belladona
(4) Heroine

43) Select incorrect statement only.

Health, for a long time, was considered as a state of body and mind where there was balance of
(1)
cartein 'humors'
(2) It was thought that persons with 'black bile' belonged to hot personality and would have cancer.
(3) William Harvey disproved the 'good humor' Hypothesis
Biology stated that mind influences, through neural system and endocrine system, our immune
(4)
system and that our immune system maintains our health.

44) Which of the following factors are responsible to maintain good health ?

(1) Balance diet

(2) Personal Hygiene
(3) Yoga and Regular exercise
(4) All of the above

45) Which of the following scientist experimentally disproved the "good humor" hypothesis ?

(1) William Harvey

(2) Edward-Jenner
(3) Von-Behring
(4) Louis Pasteur

46) Statement-I : In common cold alveoli of lungs get filled with fluid.
Statement-II : Common cold is caused by Haemophilus influenzae.

(1) Both statements are true

(2) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Only statement-I is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

47) Read the following statement and select True (T) or False (F) statements
A. Widal test used for treatment of typhoid
B. Primary and secondary immune response are function of all leucocytes.
C. Only two heavy chains present in IgG antibody.

A B C

(1) T T F

(2) F T F

(3) F F T

(4) F T T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) Which of the following cell in tissues can phagocytose and destroy microbes?

(1) Macrophage
(2) NK Cells
(3) PMNL
(4) All of these

49) The B-lymphocytes produce an army of proteins in response to pathogens into our blood to fight
with them. These proteins are called :-

(1) Albumins
(2) Antibodies
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) Interferons

50) A patient reported to emergency hospital with the complaint of snake bite. The injection given to
the patient contains :

(1) Preformed antigens

(2) Preformed toxoids
(3) Antibiotic
(4) Preformed antibodies

51) In which of the following disease, body attacks self-cells?

(1) Typhoid
(2) SCID
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) Asthma

52) The symptoms of the common cold usually last for

(1) 2-3 days

(2) 3-7 days
(3) 10-14 days
(4) 7-14 days

53) Ringworm infection is generally acquired

(1) From soil

(2) By using towel of infected individual
(3) By using comb of infected individual
(4) All of these

54) _________ gene is activated under certain conditions, could lead to oncogenic transformation of
the cells.

(1) c-Onc
(2) Proto-oncogene
(3) SRY
(4) Both 1 and 2

55) Cocaine interferes with the transport of the neuro-transmitter :

(1) Serotonin
(2) Glycine
(3) Dopamine
(4) Acetyl choline

56) The side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in males include :

(1) Deepening of voice

(2) Masculinisation
(3) Excessive hair growth on the face and body
(4) Breast enlargement
57) Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified immune response
which is called

(1) Primary immune response

(2) Amnestic response
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Anamnestic response

58) Which of the following organ provide the sites for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen?

(1) Spleen
(2) Lymph nodes
(3) Thymus
(4) Both (1) and (2)

59) Some individuals are advised to avoid exposure to tobacco smoke if they are susceptible to

(1) Rectal cancer

(2) Lung cancer
(3) Gastric cancer
(4) Blood cancer

60) Which of the following is chemically diacetylmorphine which is a white, odourless, bitter
crystalline compound?

(1) Smack
(2) Morphine
(3) Charas
(4) Coca alkaloid

61) Which of the following is not a symptom of withdrawal syndrome?

(1) Perspiration
(2) Cirrhosis
(3) Nausea
(4) Anxiety

62) Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement A: Mind influences our immune system, through neural system and endocrine system.
Statement B: Among non-infectious diseases, AIDS is the major cause of death.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

63) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A): Grafts from just any source cannot be made since the grafts would be rejected
sooner or later.
Reason (R): The immune system of our body is able to differentiate between ‘self’ and ‘nonself’
antigens.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

64) Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option

Column I Column II
(A) Skin (i) Prevents entry of the micro-organisms
(B) Acid in stomach (ii) Protect non-infected cells
(C) Natural killer cells (iii) Prevents the microbial growth
(D) Interferons (iv) Phagocytose and destroy microbes
(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii),(D)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i),(D)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i),(D)-(iii)
(4) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv),(D)-(ii)

65) Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option

Column I Column II
(A) Vaccine (i) Genetic reasons
(B) Allergy (ii) Antigenic proteins
(C) Autoimmune disease (iii) IgE
(D) Tetanus (iv) Preformed antibodies
(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii),(D)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i),(D)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i),(D)-(iii)
(4) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv),(D)-(ii)

66) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Metastasis is the most feared property of malignant tumors.

Cancer cells show a property called contact inhibition by virtue of which contact with other cells
(2)
inhibits their uncontrolled growth.
Computed tomography uses X-rays to generate a three-dimensional image of the internals of an
(3)
object.
(4) Most cancers are treated by combination of surgery, radiotherapy and chemotherapy.

67) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A): To prevent pneumonia and common cold, close contact with the infected persons
should be avoided.
Reason (R): The infectious agents of pneumonia and common cold are transmitted through
contaminated food and water.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

68) How many of the following diseases are caused by virus?

Common cold, malaria, typhoid, dengue, amoebiasis, chikungunya, ascariasis, ringworm

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Four

69) Which technique is not used to diagnose cancer.

(1) X-Ray
(2) Widal test
(3) Blood test
(4) MRI

70) Given below are the pairs of pathogens and the diseases caused by them. Which out of these is
not a matching pair

(1) Virus - Common cold

(2) Salmonella - Typhoid

(3) Microsporum - Filariasis

(4) Plasmodium - Malaria

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

71) Assertion: Mast cells in the human body release excessive amounts of inflammatory chemicals
which cause allergic reactions.
Reason: Allergens in the environment on reaching human body stimulate mast cells in certain
individuals.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
(4) Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
72) Which of the following statements regarding drugs are correct?
(i) Heroin, commonly called smack, is obtained by acetylation of morphine.
(ii) Cocaine is obtained from the latex of Papaver somniferum.
(iii) Marijuana interferes with the transmission of dopamine.
(iv) Morphine is an effective painkiller.

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

73) Haemozoin is a:

(1) Precursor of hemoglobin

(2) Toxin released from Streptococcus infected cells
(3) Toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells
(4) Toxin released from Haemophilus infected cells

74) Which protect non infected cells from further viral infection ?

(1) Physical barrier

(2) Cellular barrier
(3) Antibodies
(4) Cytokine barrier

75) Which of the following is correct matching.

(1) Cellular barrier - Epidermal cells

(2) Physical barrier - Fever, Acid in stomach saliva

(3) Cytokine barrier - Interferons

Physiological barrier - Natural killer cells macrophages PMNL-

(4)
Neutrophils
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

76) ___(A)___ response which is of low intensity subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicit
a highly intensified___(B)___ response.

(A) (B)

(1) Anamnestic Secondary

(2) Primary Allergic

(3) Primary Anamnestic

 (4) Secondary Booster
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) Statement A: Spleen is a large bean shaped organ

Statement B: Spleen mainly contain lymphocytes and phagocytes.

(1) Statement A is wrong and statement B is correct

(2) Statement A is correct and statement B is wrong
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

78) Widal test is diagnosis of –

(1) Dengue
(2) Diphtheria
(3) Typhoid
(4) Pneumonia

79) 50% Lymphoid tissue present in form of –

(1) MALT
(2) Tonsil
(3) Spleen
(4) Bone marrow

80) Plasmodium enters in human in form of –

(1) Gametocyte
(2) Sporozoite
(3) Gametes
(4) Zygote

81) Elephantiasis caused by –

(1) Ascaris
(2) Tenia
(3) Wuchereria
(4) Entamoeba

82) Natural canabinoids obtained from –

(1) Inflorescence of Papaver sominiferum

(2) Inflorescence of Canabis sativa
(3) Inflorescence of Erythroxylum coca
(4) Leaves of Datura

83) Given diagram shows flowering branch of

(1) Datura
(2) Cannabis Sativa
(3) Opium poppy
(4) Atropa Belladona

84) Which of the following statement is false for the structure given here.

(1) These are secreted by T-cells

(2) They have four peptide chains
(3) They are represented by H2L2
(4) These are found in blood so the response is termed as humoral immune response.

85) Which of the following graphs is correct representation for primary & secondary immune
response?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

86) Which of the following option match the drug with the impact they have on body function :

X Y Z

(1) Cardiovascular activity Depressant CNS

(2) CNS Cardiovascular activity Depressant

(3) Depressant CNS Cardiovascular activity

(4) CNS Depressant Cardiovascular activity

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

87)
Product from this plant :-

(1) Abused by some sport persons

(2) is sedative
(3) is odorless, white and crystalline compounds
(4) is hallucinogenic.

88)
(A) (B)
Identify figure A, B

(1) A-Ascariasis, B-Ringworm of skin

(2) A-Elephantiasis, B-Ringworm
(3) A-Ringworm, B-Elephantiasis
(4) A-Ascariasis, B-Elephantiasis

89)
Which statement represent above diagram about life cycle of Plasmodium ?

(1) Parasites reach the liver through blood.

(2) Sexual stages (Gametocytes) develop in red blood cells.
(3) Fertilisation takes place in mosquito gut.
(4) Sporozoites migrate to salivary gland of mosquito.
90)
Choose the correct option about given above

A B

(1) Hallucinogen Depressant

(2) Morphine Datura

(3) Heroin Bhang

(4) Datura Morphine

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 1 2 1 4 2 2 4 1 1 3 2 3 4 2 4 3 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 3 3 4 4 1 2 4 4 2 4 2 3 3 1 3 2 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 2 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 1 3 3 2 4 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 2 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 1 1 3 3 2 1 3 2 4 3 1 1 1 2 1 4 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 3 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 1 3 4 1 3 2 2 4 3 4 1 1 1 1 1 3 3 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 1 3 4 1 3 4 3 1 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 2 4 1 4 3 1 2 4 3 2 4 4 3 4 4 4 2 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 4 3 3 3 3 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 1 1 3 4 4 2 2 (3)
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) FNet =

F1 = F2 =

FNet =

2) Tcos60° + Fesin30° = mg ........ (1)

Tsin60° = Fecos30° ........ (2)
Solving (1) and (2)

mg = Fe : Since Fe =
⇒ Q = (4π ∈0 mgL2)1/2
or
By lami's theorem

mg = Fe

mg =

3) Torque then torque on due to

= but angle between and is 180°
so

4) by Gauss' law,
V=

5)

6) Vcentre = 8

W = – q [v∞ – vcentre] =

7)
Enet = 2E cos 60° + E' = E + E'

8) Let us assume an element at angle 'θ' & angular width 'dθ'

Q = Linear charge density × length
so charge on element
dQ = λRdθ = λ0 cos θ Rdθ

⇒ Q = λ0 R [sin π – sin 0 ] ⇒ [Q = 0]

9)
10) U= =0

11)
+ (3q) (0)

+ (3q)

12) V1 = V2 as charge remains same.

13) V =

14) Max. P.E = +pE = U (θ = 180°)

W.D = pE [cos 180° – cos 0°]
= – 2 pE = – 2U

15) C & d are incorrect because electrostatic field lines never form closed loop & never cut
each other.

16) Given circuit can be redraw as

VA – VB = IR = 2×1 = 2V

17) Given ⇒ A part of an electric circuit is shown in the figure, in which a cell and two

resistors are connected, as shown :

To determine ⇒ The potential difference between points A and B i.e.

VA – V B = ?

Concept ⇒ Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law (KVL) between two points of an electric circuit.

Formula ⇒ No formula is required.

Calculation ⇒ On applying the KVL between points A & B :

VA + 3 Volts – (3 Amp).(1) – (3 Amp).(6Ω) = VB

⟹ VA + 3 Volts – 3 Volts – 18 Volts = VB

⟹ VA – 18 Volts = VB
⟹ VA – VB = 18 Volts
Final Answer : Option (4) 18 V

18)

Potential difference = TPD of cell

= = =

19) ⇒ R1 = 5Ω (all are in series)

Now adding dotted lines...

R2 = 3Ω

Now
20)

21) R =

I = V/R ∝

I1 : I2 : I3 : I4 =
= 12 : 6 : 4 : 3

22)

V = E – Ir = E –

23) On connecting a resistor in parallel with the first, effective resistance will decrease which
increases the current in the circuit.

24)
i1 + i2 + i3 = 0

7V = 30

25) For upper loop 2 – 3I – 2I1 = 0 ...(1)

For lower loop 4 + 2I1 –6(I – I1) = 0 ...(2)
 4 – 6I + 8I1 = 0
⇒ 2 – 3I + 4I1 = 0 ...(2)
by equation (1) and (2) I1 = 0

26)

as no current flows in crcuit,

Vxy = Vbattery = 120 V

27)

i= = 8A
Vxy = IReq
= (8) (3 + 10 + 6 + 1)
Vxy = 160 V

28)

i2 = i1 = (0.3) = 0.4A
i1 = i – (i1 + i2) = 0.8 – (0.03 + 0.04) = 0.1A
VR = V20Ω = (0.3) (20) = 6V

I3 = R = 6V ⇒ R = = 60Ω

29) Suppose current through different paths of the circuit is as follows. After applying KVL for
loop (1) and loop (2)
We get ⇒

and ⇒

Hence

30)

Voltmeter

31) Two resistance are short circuited.

32) Req = = 24 = R + ⇒ R = 20Ω

33)
Eeq = 6E
req = 8r

Battery across which voltmeter is conneTed is getting charged

∴ (TPD)charging = E + Ir

=E+

34)
If RAB = R

⇒R=1+
⇒ R(2+R) = 2 + R + 2R
⇒ R2 – R – 2 = 0
⇒ R = 2Ω

35) Concept :
Parallel axis symmetry

this can be folded along LN

it is balanced Wheatstone bridge

RLX =

Final Answer : (3) R

36) for balanced bridge

320 + 16x = 20x

x = 80 Ω
37)
Apply KCL
i1 = i2 + i3

⇒ 60 – 6VP = 3VP – 18 + 2 VP – 10
11 VP = 88 ⇒ VP = 8 Volt

38)

Simple ladder circuits start with the two 3Ω resistance in series the left most part (R' = 6Ω).
which will be in parallel with immediate 6Ω. so their not resistance will be R = 6/2 = 3Ω.
similarly work your way through the remaining resistance.

Rxy = .

39)

d↑

↓U ∝ C↓

40)

Concept :
Combine capacitors using series and parallel rules, and simplify the circuit systematically to
find net capacitance between two terminals.
Formula

• Series:
• Parallel:
Calculation:
The given circuit can be redraws as follows
On further solving the network in similar manner equivalent capacitance obtained between A
and B will be 1μF.

Answer Option -1

41)

42)
Q = Ceq V

Q= = 20 C

VA – 0 = 0 – VB =

= 60 V VB = – 40 V

43)

Force between the plates of capacitor does not depends on distance.

44)

C' = C' ∝ εr

C' ∝
C' ⇒ 8 × 6 × 2
C' = 96µF
 45)

Due to slab.

C → KC, E = CV2
V → V/K , E = E/K
Q = CV = constant
V → Decrease, Energy decrease.
Q → Remain constant

CHEMISTRY

46)

As per theory

47)
+1 + x–8 = 0
⇒ x = +7

48) Oxidising agent

49) Read notes

50)

gram Eq. of MnO4– = gram Eq. of C2O42–

1×5 = x×2

x =

51) Read notes

52) Read notes

53) Read notes

54)

55) Read notes

56) Concept: The Nernst equation E = E° – (RT/nF) × ln(Q)

 Mathematical Calculation:
For the hydrogen electrode, Q = (PH2)/([H+]2). Since PH2 = 1 atm, Q = 1/ [H+]2. Also, pH =
–log[H+], so [H+] = 10(–pH)

A. [H+] = 10(–10) M

B. Q= = 1020
C. E = 0 – (8.314 × 298 / (2 × 96485)) × ln(1020)
D. E = – (0.01285) × 20 × 2.303
E. E ≈ –0.591 V (approximately)

Since the question asks for the oxidation potential, we need to change the sign. The reduction
potential is –0.591 V. Therefore, the oxidation potential is +0.591 V.

Final Answer: 0.59 volt (Option 1)

57)

More negative or lower is the reduction potential, more is the reducing power.

58)

Λ∞NH4OH = Λ∞NH4Cl + Λ∞NaOH - Λ∞NaCl

= 150 + 250 - 130
= 270 ohm-1cm2 eq-1

61)

Λm = κ / C
Λm = (10⁻⁴ Ω⁻¹ cm⁻¹) / (10⁻⁵ mol/cm³)
Λm = 10 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹

64)

K = 25 × 10–6 Λeq = 19.6S cm2 eq–1

M = 0.01 M

K= 1–α≃1

α=

α= 5 × 10–2 =

66)
68) = 127.32 + 2 × 76.34
2 –1
= 280 S cm mol

72)

74) R.A. itself gets oxidised easily, i.e., Mg.

75) = + 1.66 + 0.34 = +2.00V

76)

77)

Strong electrolytes are those for which degree of dissociation (α) is 100% at any
concentration.

78)

Given : specific conductance

Conc. (M) = 0.01M

Now

n-factor for KCl = 1

So N = M = 0.01

79)
=
To subtract molar conductance of Na+ and Cl– We required .

80)

Equivalent conductance
For KCl v.f. = 1, So N = M

N↑ ⇒ λeq ↓ or M↑ ⇒ λeq ↓

81) If conc. is same then, π ∝ i.

 82)

83) C2H5OH and H2O form positive deviation solution and hence, minimum boiling azeotropic
mixture.

84)

negative deviation

85)

Abnormal colligative properties.

86)

Molarity of pure water is always 55.5 M

87) π = = 1.85 atm

BIOLOGY

91)

Industrial melanism is an example of Natural selection.

92)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 111, 113

93) NCERT Pg # 111

94) NCERT Pg # 118, 119

95) NCERT Pg # 118, 119

96) NCERT Pg # 124, 125

97) NCERT Pg # 121

98) NCERT Pg # 122

99) NCERT Pg # 126

100) NCERT-XII Pg#115

101) NCERT (XII) Pg# 131/141 (H) fig.: 7.3 (b)

102) NCERT Reference:

Zoology-XII, Page No. 135

103) NCERT-XII, Pg. # (E)-140, (H)-151

104) NCERT XII, Pg. # 134

105) NCERT XII Pg # 127

106) NCERT Pg#141 (E)

NCERT Pg#143 (H)

107)

NCERT-XII Pg#125

108) NCERT XII Page No. # 134

109)

NCERT Pg # 125

110)

NCERT Page no.141

111) NCERT-XII, Pg # 157

112) NCERT-XII, Pg # 188

113) NCERT-XII, Pg # 183

114) NCERT Pg. # 188

115) NCERT Pg. # 182

116) NCERT Pg. # 181

117)

NCERT Pg. # 182

118) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 183-184

119) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 186

120)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 188, 189

121) NCERT XII, Pg # 181, 10.1

122)

NCERT Pg.# 152

123)

NCERT XII, Pg # 153

124) NCERT-XII Pg#153

125) NCERT-XII Pg. # 153

126) NCERT Pg. No. # 182

127) NCERT Pg.#181

128) NCERT, Pg. # 158

129) NCERT, Pg # 187

130) NCERT Pg. # 187

131) NCERT XII Pg. # 137

 132) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 143

133) NCERT XII Pg. # 129

It was thought that persons with 'black bile' belonged to hot personality and would have fever.

134) NCERT XII Pg. # 130

135) NCERT Pg. # 129

136) NCERT Pg. # 131

I - In common cold affect nose and respiratory passage but not lungs.
II - Common cold is caused by Rhino viruses.

137) Explanation:
Let's break down the statements:

A. A. Widal test used for treatment of typhoid: The Widal test is used for diagnosing
typhoid fever, not for treatment. Hence, this statement is False.
B. B. Primary and secondary immune response are function of all leucocytes: Leucocytes
(white blood cells) are involved in immune responses, but primary and secondary immune
responses are specifically functions of B cells and T cells. Therefore, not all leucocytes are
involved in these responses. Hence, this statement is False.
C. C. Only two heavy chains present in IgG antibody: The IgG antibody actually has two
heavy chains and two light chains, so this statement is False as well.

Correct Answer: Option 3 (F, F, T)

Explanation:

A. Statement A is false, as the Widal test is a diagnostic tool, not a treatment.

B. Statement B is false, as not all leucocytes are involved in primary or secondary immune
responses.
C. Statement C is false because IgG has two heavy chains and two light chains (not just two
heavy chains).

138) NCERT, Pg. # 135

139) NCERT, Pg. # 135

140) NCERT, Pg. # 136

141) NCERT, Pg. # 137

142) NCERT, Pg. # 131

143) NCERT, Pg. # 133

144) NCERT, Pg. # 141

145) NCERT, Pg. # 143

146) NCERT, Pg. # 146

147) NCERT, Pg. # 135

148) NCERT, Pg. # 138

149) NCERT, Pg. # 136

150) NCERT, Pg. # 142

151) NCERT, Pg. # 145

152) NCERT, Pg. # 129,130

153) NCERT, Pg. # 136

154) NCERT, Pg. # 134,135

155) NCERT, Pg. # 136,137

156) NCERT, Pg. # 141,142

157) NCERT, Pg. # 131,133,134

158) NCERT, Pg. # 131,134

159) Ncert Pg No: 42

160) Ncert Pg No: 130, 131, 132

161) Ncert Pg No: 137

162) Ncert Pg No: 142, 143

163) Ncert conceptual Pg No: 131, 132

164) NCERT Pg. # 151 (E)

NCERT Pg. # 162 (H)

165) NCERT Pg. # 151 (E)

NCERT Pg. # 162 (H)

166)

NCERT Pg. # 135 (E), 148 (H)

167) Ncert Pg No: 138

168) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 147

169) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 154

170) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 148

171) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 149

172) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 159

173)

NCERT XI, Page # 143

174)

NCERT XI, Page # 135

175) Ncert page 136.

176)

NCERT Pg. # 142-143

177) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 142-143

178) NCERT, Pg. # 133

179) NCERT, Pg. # 132

180) Ncert Pg No: 142 & 143