Tables
Tables
1
CHAPTER
Tables
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Directions for examples 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The table given below shows the per capita CO 2 emission and populations of six countries during
the period 2013-2016. The total CO2 emission (in million tonnes) of the world in 2013, 2014, 2015 and 2016 was 30700,
31433, 32155 and 32042 respectively.
Per Capita CO2 emission (in tonnes) Population (in millions)
Country
2013 2014 2015 2016 2013 2014 2015 2016
1. The CO2 emission of China was approximately what percent of the total CO2 emission of the world during the given
period?
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 12 (4) 28
2. The CO2 emission of Russia and Japan put together was approximatelyn what percent of that of India and USA put
together during the given period?
(1) 60 (2) 45 (3) 75 (4) 70
3. If the CO2 emission of Germany was 2.4% of the total CO2 emission of the world during the given period, then what
was the per capita CO2 emission (in tonnes) of Germany in 2015?
(1) 7 (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 8
4. The total CO2 emission by which country was second lowest in 2014
(1) Germany (2) Russia (3) India (4) Japan
For examples 1 to 4:
1. 2 The total CO2 emission (in million tonnes) of the world during the given period
= 30700 + 31433 + 32155 + 32042 = 126330
The total CO2 emission (in million tonnes) of China during the give period
= 4.4 × (1314 + 1321) + 4.9 × 1326 + 5.2 × 1350.8 = 25115.56
25115.56
Hence, the required percentage 100 20.
126330
2. 1 The total CO2 emission (in million tonnes) of Russia and Japan put together
= [0.9 × (138.8 + 140.2 + 141.2) + 1 × 142.6] + [1.1 × (124.6 + 126.1) + 1 × 127.2 + 1.3 × 127.6] = 1089.3
The total CO2 emission (in million tonnes) of India and USA put together
= [0.3× (1095 + 1129) + 0.4 × (1140 + 1166)]+ [0.2 × (298.4 + 301.4 + 304 + 306.5)] =1831.66
1089.3
Hence, the required percentage 100 60.
1831.66
3. 4 Let the per capita CO2 emission (in tonnes) of Germany in 2015 be ‘x’.
2.4
9.8 × (81.6 + 82.4) + 80.5 × x + 9.6 × 81.4 126330
100
x 8.
4. 2 It is clear from the table that the lowest emission of CO2 is by USA and the second lowest is by Russia.
Directions for examples 5 to 8: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following table provides partial information about the composition of six different alloys namely A, B, C, D, E and
F. Each of these six alloys contains the five different elements namely Zinc, Tin, Lead, Copper and Nickel. An alloy G,
the composition of which is not given in the table, contains alloys A, B and C in the ratio 2 : 1 : 3. It is also known that
in alloy G, tin, lead and copper are present in an equal quantity.
Alloy Zinc Tin Le a d Coppe r Nicke l
A 10% 40% 10%
B 25% 15% 50% 5% 5%
C 15% 20% 35%
D 20% 25% 15% 30% 10%
E 5% 50% 25% 5% 15%
F 40% 10% 5% 30% 15%
5. Find the percentage of copper in alloy A.
95 95 25 25
(1) (2) (3) (4)
9 3 9 3
6. If an alloy X, which contains 15% nickel, at least 15% zinc and at most 20% copper, is to be made, how many
combinations of exactly two of the six mentioned alloys can be used to make it?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Two
7. Which of the following can be a value of the ratio in which alloys A, E and F need to be mixed to get at least 12%
lead in the resulting mixture?
(1) 4 : 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 2 : 4
8. If an alloy Z, which contains at least 8.25% nickel, is to be made by using the alloys mentioned in the table, the
percentage of alloy B in alloy Z cannot be more than
(1) 95.46% (2) 83.12% (3) 97.24% (4) 89.16%
For examples 5 to 8:
The given information can be tabulated as:
Zinc Tin Lead Copper Nickel
A 10% 40% (x) % (40 – x)% 10%
B 25% 15% 50% 5% 5%
C 15% (y) % 20% (30 – y)% 35%
D 20% 25% 15% 30% 10%
E 5% 50% 25% 5% 15%
F 40% 10% 5% 30% 15%
5. 2 In alloy G, the percentage of:
40 15 y 3y 95
Tin 2 1 3
6 6 6 6
2x 110
Lead =
6
175 2x 3y
Copper =
6
25 95
Now, (3y 95) (2x 110) (175 2x 3y) x and y
3 9
25 95
Therefore, the percentage of copper in alloy A (40 x) 40 .
3 3
6. 4 There are two possible ways in which the alloy X can be formed. The possible combinations are (E and F) and
(B and C).
25
7. 3 The percentage of lead in A, E and F is 3 %, 25% and 5% respectively..
By checking options:
1 25 95
Option (1): Percentage of lead in the mixture 4 1 25 1 5
% < 12%
6 3 9
1 25 85
Option (2): Percentage of lead in the mixture 2 1 25 3 5 % < 12%
6 3 9
1 25 110
Option (3): Percentage of lead in the mixture 1 2 25 3 5 % > 12%
6 3 9
1 25 235
Option (4): Percentage of lead in the mixture 1 2 25 4 5 % < 12%
7 3 21
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
8. 4 Since the percentage of nickel in alloy B and alloy Z is 5% and 8.25% respectively, in order to maximize the
percentage of B in Z, we need to choose alloy in which the percentage of nickel is greater than 8.25% and also
the maximum among the given alloys. So, we need to choose alloy C.
Let the percentage of alloy B in alloy Z be ‘x’%.
5x + 35(1 – x) = 8.25 x = 89.16%
Directions for examples 9 to 12: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
An FMCG company, planning to produce potato chips of three different flavours, namely Mint, Chilly and Cream,
conducted a survey among 1000 people in each of the three market segments Metros, Towns and Villages. In the
survey, all the participants were requested to select exactly one of the four options out of P, Q, R and S given in the
survey response sheet. One of the options out of the four was for not liking any of the three varieties of chips, and each
of the other three was for liking a different variety of chips out of the three. The following table represents the responses
recorded during the survey.
P Q R S
Market Segment Villages 95 390 135 380
Market Segment Metros 180 405 230 185
Market Segment Towns 210 220 220 350
As the brand manager of the company, who compiled the data, knew which option indicated which flavour, he derived
the following conclusions from the given table.
I. In towns, as many as 22% of all the participants did not like any of the three flavours.
II. The total number of participants who selected Chilly flavour, differed from the total number of participants who
selected Cream flavour by 100.
9. If it was in villages where the minimum number of participants liked Mint flavour, then which of the following can be
definitely concluded?
(1) It was in Metros where the maximum number of participants liked Chilly flavour.
(2) It was in Metros where the minimum number of participants liked Cream flavour.
(3) It was in Villages where the maximum number of participants liked Chilly flavour.
(4) It was in Villages where the minimum number of participants did not like any of the three flavours.
10. If Cream flavour was liked by the minimum number of participants in all the three market segments put together,
then which of the following statements is definitely false?
(1) Out of the participants who liked Chilly flavour in the three market segments, the minimum number belonged
to villages.
(2) Out of the participants who liked Mint flavour in the three market segments, the minimum number belonged to
metros.
(3) Out of the participants who did not like any of the three flavours in the three market segments, the minimum
number belonged to villages.
(4) Out of the participants who did not like any of the three flavours in the three market segments, the maximum
number belonged to metros.
11. In towns, if the number of participants who liked Mint flavour was the minimum, then which of the following is
definitely true?
(1) In villages, the number of participants who liked neither Chilly flavour nor Cream flavour was 280.
(2) In towns, the number of participants who liked neither Mint flavour nor Cream flavour was 570.
(3) In metros, the number of participants who liked neither Chilly flavour nor Mint flavour was 635.
(4) In towns, the number of participants who liked neither Chilly nor Cream flavour was 430.
12. A maximum of how many of the following five statements can simultaneously be true?
I. In Villages, 135 participants did not like any of the three flavours.
II. In Towns, 210 participants liked Cream flavour.
III. In Metros, 185 participants liked Chilly flavour.
IV. In Towns, 220 participants liked Cream flavour.
V. In Metros, 180 participants liked Mint flavour.
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 5
For examples 9 to 12: The total number of participants in the surveys conducted in each of the three market
segments is 1000. The exact number of participants selecting the four options, across the three market segments is
given in the following table.
Market Segments P Q R S Total
Villages 95 390 135 380 1000
Towns 210 220 220 350 1000
Metros 180 405 230 185 1000
Total 485 1015 585 915 3000
The two observations made by the brand manager, hold true only for the following four cases.
Possible Cases P Q R S
Case I Cream Rejected All Chilly Mint
Case II Chilly Rejected All Cream Mint
Case III Mint Chilly Rejected All Cream
Case IV Mint Cream Rejected All Chilly
9. 4 If the statement given in the problem is true, then the selection of option P, in the survey form, must indicate
that the participant had liked the Mint flavour, the least. Accordingly, either Case III or Case IV could be true
and the two flavours-(Chilly & Cream) must be indicated by the two options-(Q & S) but their exact order
cannot be concluded. Further, selection of option R, in the survey form, indicated that the participant had
rejected all the three flavours. Hence none of the options (1) or (2) or (3) can definitely be concluded but option
(4) can definitely be concluded.
10. 3 If the statement given in the problem is true, then option P given in the survey form must indicate Cream flavour.
Accordingly, only Case I is valid. Statement given in option (3) is definitely false as the minimum number
belonged to the market segment, Towns.
11. 4 From the problem statement. We can conclude that option P in the survey form, indicates Mint flavour.
Accordingly, options Q and S could indicate Chilly and Cream flavours. Option R indicated rejection of all the
three flavours. Note that, in any of the given market segments, the number of participants who selected neither
option P nor Q is the sum of the number of participants who selected either option R or options S. Each of the
five answer options can be verified. Option (4) is correct.
12. 1 From each of the five given statements, we can make the following conclusions:
Statement Conclusion
I R indicated rejection of all the flavours.
II P indicated selection of Cream flavour.
III S indicated selection of Chilly flavour.
IV Either Q or R indicated selection of Cream Flavour.
V P indicated selection of Mint flavour.
Statements I, III, IV and V can simultaneously be true. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Directions for examples 13 to 17: Answer the questions based on the table given below.
The following table shows the business details of a company named ABC India Pvt. Ltd.
Annual sales Number of Annual salary per
Vertical Category Margin
(in Rs.) employees employee (in Rs.)
Software Inhouse 0.2 crore 23 25 20000
Export 1.5 crore 47 15 100000
Hardware Inhouse 0.4 crore 31 40 15000
Export 2 crore 52 40 80000
Pr ofit
Margin = 100.
Sales
13. If the salary of each hardware inhouse employee is increased by 50%, what is the new margin percentage of the
company? (All other factors remain the same)
(1) 21.5% (2) 27% (3) 35.59% (4) 45.9%
14. If the annual salary per employee of software inhouse employee is made equal to the annual salary per employee
of hardware inhouse employees, what is the percentage increase in the software inhouse margin?
(1) 8.75% (2) 29.25% (3) 6.25% (4) 27.17%
15. If in each vertical category the annual sales increases by 15%, what is the total profit of the company? (The margin
remains the same)
(1) Rs. 2.45 crore (2) Rs. 1.91 crore (3) Rs. 2.2 crore (4) Data insufficient
16. If the Software as well as Hardware exports of the company increases by 20% and the total inhouse business is
closed then what is the over all change in the profit of the company? (The margin remains the same)
(1) 17.9 lacs (2) 35.8 lacs (3) 34.9 lacs (4) 17 lacs
17. The company plans to train the software inhouse employees and the training expenditure per employee will be Rs.
9200. What will be the new margin percentage in software inhouse division if the company goes with the training
plan?
(1) 50% (2) 11.5% (3) 46% (4) Cannot be determined
13. 4 Net profit of company A in software inhouse = Rs. 0.046 crore, software export = Rs. 0.7 crore,
hardware inhouse = Rs. 0.124 crore,hardware export = Rs. 1.04 crore.
Total profit = Rs. 1.91 crore
Salary of hardware inhouse executives is increased by 50% that is by Rs. 7,500.
Increase in total salary is Rs. 7500 × 40= Rs. 0.03 crore
New net margin = Rs. 1.88 crore
1.88
So, margin percentage 100 = 45.9%
4.10
14. 4 Net decrease in cost = (20000 – 15000) × 25= Rs. 1.25 lakh
Earlier net profit = Rs. 4.6 lakh
New net profit = (Rs. 4.6 + Rs. 1.25)= Rs. 5.85 lakh
5.85
20 1.25
4.6 1 100 4.6 100 27.17%
20
15. 3 Profit of company A in software inhouse = 23% of (115% of 0.2 crore) = Rs. 5.29 lacs
Profit of company A in software export = 47% of (115% of 1.5 crore) = Rs. 81.08 lacs
Profit of company A in hardware inhouse = 31% of (115% of 0.4 crore) = Rs. 14.26 lacs
Profit of company A in hardware export = 52% of (115% of 2 crore) = Rs. 119.6 lacs
Hence, the total profit = Rs. 220.23 lacs Rs. 2.2 crores
16. 1 Increase in profit = 47% of (20% of 1.5 crores) + 52% of (20% of 2 crore) = 0.141+ 0.208 = 0.349 crores
= Rs. 34.9 lacs
Decrease in profit due to closing of inhouse business = 23% of 0.2 crore + 31% of 0.4 crore
= (0.046 + 0.124) crore = 0.17 crore = Rs. 17 lacs.
Net increase in profit = 34.9 – 17 = Rs. 17.9 lacs.
17. 2 Before the training program, the profit of company A in software inhouse = Rs. 0.046 crores = 4.6 lacs
Now, profit = 4.6 lacs – (9200 × 25) = 2.3 lacs
2.3
So, the new margin percentage 100 11.5%
20
Directions for examples 18 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following table gives the details of the account statement of Raj’s account in HDCF bank during the period January
2017 to April 2017. It is also known that the balance in the account as on December 31, 2016 was Rs 18000.
Date Details Debit Credit Balance
10-Jan By Cash NA 12000 30000
30-Jan By CHQ 456789 NA 15000 45000
31-Jan To ATM Withdrawal 15000 NA 30000
17-Feb To CHQ 123456 NA 5635
23-Feb TO POS PUR 1085 NA 4550
28-Feb By Cash NA 16730 21280
11-Mar To ECS 6380 NA
24-Mar To Cash 14000 NA
31-Mar By CHQ 127128 NA 66800 67800
23-Apr By Cash NA 11922 79800
30-Apr To IB TFR 31716 NA 48084
The bank offers an interest of 0.5% on monthly basis on the Average Monthly Balance(AMB). The interest, the details
of which is not shown in the given account statements, is credited in the account on the last day of each month, after
the completion of all transactions for that day.
18. What was the total balance in the account at the end of April 30?
(1) Rs 48084 (2) Rs 48384 (3) Rs 48434 (4) Rs 48344
19. During the given period, what was the average monthly interest credited in Raj’s account?
(1) Rs 663 (2) Rs 165.75 (3) Rs 331.50 (4) Rs 350
th
20. What was the amount of the cheque that was debited in Raj’s account on 17 February?
(1) Rs 24365 (2) Rs 24635 (3) Rs 24500 (4) Rs 25500
For examples 18 to 20:
27000 6 1
Interest for the month of January = Rs. 135
12 100
Balance at the end of January = 30000 + 135 = Rs. 30,135
20000 6 1
Interest for the month of February = Rs. 100
12 100
15600 6 1
Interest for the month of March = Rs. 78
12 100
Balance at the end of March = 67800 + 78 = Rs. 67,878
70000 6 1
Interest for the month of April = Rs. 350
12 100
Balance at the end of April = 48084 + 350 = Rs. 48,434
18. 3 Balance at the end of April 2017 is Rs. 48,434.
19. 2 Total interest earned during the given period = 135 + 100 + 78 + 350 = Rs. 663
663
Average Interest earned = Rs. 165.75.
4
BEL 8 60 75%
Police Patrolling jeep No. No. of Received Calls No. of Dialed Calls
1 6 5
2 15 3
3 7 2
4 9 6
5 6 1
6 8 3
7 10 2
8 9 1
9 7 4
10 5 3
43. If Police Patrolling jeep No. 2 had received calls from only three Police Patrolling jeeps, then what could be the
lowest possible number of Police Patrolling jeeps from which Police Patrolling jeep No. 7 received calls?
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
44. What could be the maximum possible number of calls that can be made by the Constables?
(1) 19 (2) 16 (3) 13 (4) 10
45. If the total number of calls made by all the Inspectors was not less than the total number of calls made by all the
Constables and the total number of calls made by all Constables was not less than the total number of calls made
by the all the Drivers, then what was the minimum number of calls that could have been made by the Drivers?
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 8
46. If the total number of calls made by all the Inspectors was not less than the total number of calls made by all the
Constables and the total number of calls made by all Constables was not less than the total number of calls made
by the all the Drivers, then what was the maximum number of calls that could have been made by the Drivers?
(1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 4
Directions for questions 47 to 49: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The table given below shows the closing prices (in Rs.) of the stocks of six Indian banks viz. Axis Bank, BOB, ICICI
Bank, HDFC, PNB and SBI, on the days on which trading happened on a stock exchange from April 16, 2017 to May
15, 2017.
Bank
AXIS Ba nk BOB ICICI Ba nk HDFC PNB SBI
Date
16-Apr-17 1363 681 1079 663 740 2183
17-Apr-17 1377 676 1099 660 748 2245
18-Apr-17 1429 688 1123 674 767 2300
22-Apr-17 1441 699 1148 698 781 2327
23-Apr-17 1445 693 1161 689 779 2288
25-Apr-17 1503 709 1177 690 786 2335
26-Apr-17 1486 699 1145 689 772 2288
29-Apr-17 1475 699 1153 695 785 2274
30-Apr-17 1493 699 1164 682 768 2264
2-May-17 1516 712 1172 693 769 2299
3-May-17 1475 699 1130 681 744 2214
6-May-17 1460 700 1143 676 739 2226
7-May-17 1504 705 1164 688 748 2257
8-May-17 1490 692 1158 697 749 2255
9-May-17 1454 700 1153 690 783 2291
10-May-17 1470 703 1165 703 771 2294
11-May-17 1472 703 1168 703 773 2306
13-May-17 1452 690 1149 693 758 2278
14-May-17 1468 704 1147 689 766 2293
15-May-17 1509 728 1191 715 822 2383
47. Which of the six banks recorded the maximum increase in its closing stock price on a day over any of the
preceding days during the given period?
(1) SBI
(2) HDFC
(3) ICICI
(4) AXIS Bank
48. On which date did the closing stock price of ICICI Bank record the maximum increase over that of the previous day
during the given period?
(1)18th April
(2) 15th May
(3) 23rd April
(4) 6th May
49. Which of the six banks recorded the maximum percentage increase in its closing stock price over the given
period?
(1) PNB
(2) AXIS Bank
(3) ICICI
(4) BOB
Directions for questions 50 to 52: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The table given below shows the data related to a few key financial indicators for fourteen European countries in the FY
2016-17.
50. If the Fiscal-deficit of France was x Euros, which was 50% more than that of Belgium, then what was the Debt (in
Euros) of Belgium in FY 2016-17?
(1) 13x
(2) 7x
(3) 14x
(4) 6.5x
51. The countries with the Long-term interest rate less than 4% per annum, Debt to GDP ratio less than 60% and
Fiscal-deficit not more than 4.6% were given a AAA rating. The number of countries rated AAA among the fourteen
in FY 2016-17 was
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) None of these
52. If the GDP (in Euros) of Finland was 50% more than that of Italy, then by what percent was the Fiscal-deficit (in
Euros) of Italy more/less than that of Finland in FY 2016-17?
(1) 0
(2) 1.5
(3) 0.5
(4) Cannot be determined
Directions for questions 53 to 55: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The table below gives information regarding the number of candidates who appeared in CEE, an exam conducted for
selection of Probationary Officers in 10 banks, and the number of candidates who were finally selected for the post by
the banks. The exam was conducted in 2014 for the first time. A candidate could not reappear for the exam during the
given period after getting selected once. It is also known that no two banks ever selected the same candidate for the
post in a year.
2014 2015 2016 2017
Total 559232 593456 642965 691584
AB 112 124 104 119
IOB 76 84 92 97
OBC 345 496 221 245
BB 239 117 179 381
PNB 715 225 468 159
BOI 224 72 802 415
PSB 1092 948 732 645
BOM 510 713 196 240
SB 468 749 217 69
CB 698 1534 1149 1358
53. The number of candidates who appeared at least two times for the exam during the given period cannot be more
than
(1) 541803 (2) 1236421 (3) 752863 (4) 1193558
54. If a candidate kept on appearing for the exam till he/she was selected by one of the banks, how many candidates
appeared in all the years during the given period?
(1) 541803 (2) 554753 (3) 531803 (4) Cannot be determined
55. How many banks selected at least 0.05% of the appearing candidates each year during the given period?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
Directions for questions 56 to 59: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The table given below shows some data regarding the production and per head consumption of wheat and rice for six
farming families in a village named Hoshiarpur in the year 2017.
Surplus = Production – Consumption
Wheat Rice Per head Per head
Number of
Family Produced (in Produced (in consumption of consumption of
members
kg) kg) wheat (in kg) rice (in kg)
Sharma’s 6 600 520 91.2 83.2
Sen’s 4 440 260 100.8 60
Srivastava’s 7 800 560 108.4 78.4
Sehgal’s 8 600 640 74.4 75.2
Srinivasan’s 5 480 500 80 96.8
Suri’s 7 520 460 63.2 64
56. For how many families was the surplus of Wheat and Rice together greater than 73.5 kg?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 0 (4) 3
57. A relative of Sehgal’s family joined it at the beginning of the year 2017 and stayed till the end of the year. If the
amount of wheat consumed by the relative was 68 kg, by what amount must the family have reduced its per head
consumption of wheat to meet the requirement with the produced quantity only?
(1) 7.10 kg (2) 7.43 kg (3) 7.90 kg (4) None of these
58. What was the total combined surplus of wheat and rice of all the families put together at the end of the year?
(1) 296 kg (2) 404.8 kg (3) 411.6 kg (4) None of these
59. Price of rice and wheat are Rs. 20 and Rs. 10 per kg respectively. How many families earn more amount by selling
the surplus of rice then that by the selling the surplus of wheat at the end of the year?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Directions for questions 60 to 63: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The total electricity production of five thermal power plants in India in year 2016-17 is given in the table below. Capacity
utilization for any power plant is the percentage of maximum capacity, of that power plant, which is used for power
production.
Maximum capacity (100%) = Capacity utilization (In %) + Unutilized production (In %)
Production Cost (In Rs. / kw units) Selling Price (In Rs. / Kw units)
A 2.1 3.4
B 2.25 3.2
C 2.0 2.9
D 2.35 3.0
E 2.2 2.8
Total cost of production = Units Produced (in Kw) × Production Cost (in Rs. / Kw units)
Total Revenue = Units Sold (in Kw) × Selling price (in Rs. / Kw units)
Re venue Cost
Profitability =
Cost 100%
60. In the given year, if capacity of power plant B had 12.5% of the total power capacity of India, and thermal power
capacity of India is 95% of its total power capacity. The total capacity of these 5 thermal power plants was what
percentage of the total thermal power capacity of India?
(1) 91.92% (2) 85.5% (3) 77.73% (4) 90%
61. Which of the following represents the decreasing order of units sold by the given 5 power plants?
(1) E > C > D > A > B (2) C > E > A > D > B (3) E > C > A > D > B (4) C > A > E > B > D
62. Which power plant had the third highest profitability?
(1) A (2) C (3) D (4) B
63. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) The power plant with the lowest percentage capacity utilization sold minimum number of units.
(2) The power plant with the second highest per unit selling price sold minimum number of units.
(3) The power plant B had the second lowest capacity.
(4) The total capacity of E was more than 10,000 MW units.
Directions for questions 64 to 67: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The BCCI has devised a grade system for cricket players. The players will be placed in four grades, I to IV. The more
the points, the better the grade. Grades are assigned based on points, awarded on the basis of performance considering
certain parameters. The following information gives relation between points and grades:
A player with points more than 15000 is assigned Grade I.
A Player with points between 10001 to 15000, both inclusive, is assigned Grade II.
A Player with points between 5000 to 10000, both inclusive, is assigned Grade III.
A Player with points less than 5000 is assigned Grade IV.
The following table gives partial information regarding the parameters that are taken into account for awarding points for
a few Indian players. Blank cells indicate missing data.
Player Runs Wickets Catches Centuries 5 wicket-haul
Ganguly 10000 50
Tendulkar 80 80 25 5
Sehwag 40 50 10 4
Laxman 3000 0 60
Dravid 8000 0 12
Zaheer 1000 50 8
Kumble 1500 300 75 0 14
For the grading system,
1 run = 1 point, 1 wicket = 20 points, 1 catch = 3 points
In addition, there is a bonus point system as well:
1 century = 50 bonus points, one 5-wicket haul = 50 bonus point.
Additional information given below is available to fill up the blank cells.
I. Tendulkar has scored more runs than Ganguly.
II. Dravid has scored more runs than Sehwag.
III. Kumble has taken the highest number of wickets, which is twice the number of wickets taken by Zaheer.
IV. Dravid has taken the highest number of catches.
V. Number of catches taken by Laxman is equal to half the number of catches taken by Dravid.
64. Laxman is in Grade
(1) II (2) III (3) IV (4) Cannot be determined
65. If it is given that the total points of Ganguly is greater than that of Tendulkar, the number of centuries scored by
Ganguly cannot be less than
(1) 31 (2) 29 (3) 30 (4) 35
66. The number of players who can be in grade IV cannot be more than
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1
67. If Sehwag is in Grade II, the number of runs scored by Sehwag could not be less than
(1) 8351 (2) Sehwag cannot be in Grade II
(3) 8350 (4) None of these
PRACTICE EXERCISE – 2
Directions for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Production at a cloth manufacturing plant involves the following stages:
W — Warehouse; A — Cutting; B — Rolling; C — Bleaching; D — Accumulating ; E — Charging (Input)
The sequence of working for a unit of product is E–D–C–B–A. After this, the unit gets stored in the warehouse as the
final product. Transfer between different stages of production takes negligible time. Transfer of the semi-processed
units between any two stages of production occurs at the end of 1-hr shift, and 1-hr is the processing time during each
stage. Final products are transferred out of warehouse only at end of day i.e. at 4 : 00 p.m. The warehouse can store
any number of units i.e. it does not have capacity constraint. Following is the work capacity of cloth manufacturing
plant during different shifts of the day:
Shift time E D C B A
10:00 a.m.–11:00 a.m. 2 6 4 1 1
11:00 a.m.–12:00 noon 6 1 6 6 3
12:00 noon–1:00 p.m. 4 5 2 3 4
1:00 p.m.–2:00 p.m. 2 2 2 5 2
2:00 p.m.–3:00 p.m. 5 5 5 1 5
3:00 p.m.–4:00 p.m. 3 4 6 2 4
At 10:00 a.m., A, B, C, D and E stages have 1, 1, 4, 6 and 2 units respectively. There are no units kept in the
warehouse at 10 : 00 a.m. ‘Outstanding’ is defined as the number of unfinished units at any stage of production which
cannot be processed due to capacity constraint. If capacity permits, the outstanding of any shift can be processed
during the next shift.
1. What is the maximum possible number of final products that can be stored in the warehouse at 3 : 00 p.m.?
(1) 12 (2) 15
(3) 11 (4) 13
2. Which stage of production will encounter ‘Outstanding’ for the first time?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
3. Had there been only two stages of production namely E and D, what would have been the maximum possible
number of final products that can be stored in the warehouse at 4 : 00 p.m.? (D is the final stage of production and
at 10 : 00 a.m., E and D have 2 and 6 units of product respectively.)
(1) 22 (2) 23
(3) 21 (4) Cannot be determined
4. Had there been only two stages of production namely B and A, what would have been the maximum possible
number of final products that can be stored in the warehouse at 2 : 00 p.m.? (A is the final stage of production and
B is the input, with 1 unit of product at each stage at 10 : 00 a.m.)
(1) 8 (2) 13
(3) 10 (4) Cannot be determined
Directions for questions 5 to 8: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following table gives the break-up of marks across various topics in an examination called KAT for the period of
six years from 2012 to 2017. In each of these years, the questions were asked from the given topics only. The
examination is conducted once a year.
S. No. Topic 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017
1 Algebra 11 12 8 7 9 13
2 Analogies 5 5 10 5 8 5
3 Analytical Reasoning 20 30 15 24 15 10
4 Arithmetic 5 11 9 8 5 12
5 Comprehension 30 25 20 15 15 25
6 Data Interpretation 30 20 15 15 35 25
7 Data Sufficiency 10 4 13 3 15 2
8 Fill in the blanks 10 8 7 10 10 5
9 Geometry 9 11 5 15 6 9
10 Mathematical Reasoning 25 15 30 16 10 10
11 Modern Maths 6 5 11 4 0 2
12 Number System 8 7 7 11 9 6
13 Parajumbles 8 7 0 10 5 20
14 Sentence Correction 8 5 15 7 8 6
5. For how many years, were the marks allotted to geometry questions lesser than those allotted to analogies as
well as arithmetic?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) None of these
6. Which topic accounted for the second lowest number of marks over the given period?
(1) Arithmetic (2) Parajumbles (3) Analogies (4) Modern Maths
7. Which year’s paper had the maximum number of total questions during the given period?
(1) 2012 (2) 2013 (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Cannot be determined
8. How many of the topics witnessed positive and negative growth rates for 2014 and 2015 respectively?
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) None of these
Directions for questions 9 to 12: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following table gives the brand-wise percentage distribution of certain categories of cars sold in India in 2017.
Small Midsize MUV Sedan SUV
Tata 25 25 50 12.5 40
Maruti 30 15 30 7.5 6
Hyundai 24 20 10 15 12
Honda 15 33.33 8.33 40 16
BMW 0 6.66 1.66 20 8
The following table shows category-wise percentage distribution of given brands of cars.
Tata Maruti Hyundai Honda BMW
Small 25 50 40 18.75 0
Midsize 15 12.5 20 25 16
MUV 30 25 10 6.25 4
Sedan 10 8.33 20 40 64
SUV 20 4.16 10 10 16
Note: These may not be the only brands of car in the given categories.
9. If Hyundai sold 6000 Midsize cars in India in 2017, then the number of SUV cars sold by the brand which had the
second highest share in SUV category could not be more than
(1) 3600 (2) 4200 (3) 4500 (4) None of these
10. What was the ratio of the number of Honda Sedans sold to the number of Midsize cars sold in India in 2017?
(1) 15 : 8 (2) 8 : 15 (3) 3 : 10 (4) 6 : 5
11. If BMW sold 25000 cars in India in 2017, then what was the number of Sedans sold by the brand which has the
smallest share in that category?
(1) 1200 (2) 4000 (3) 6000 (4) Cannot be determined
12. Revenue earned by Maruti from Small cars was what percentage of the revenue earned by Honda from Sedans?
(1) 111.1% (2) 112.5% (3) 87.5% (4) Cannot be determined
Directions for questions 13 to 16: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following table shows the information related to population and a few other parameters for 5 states of India for the
year 2017.
P 720 40 50 920
Q 400 70 55 914
R 420 55 45 970
S 350 64 44 958
T 640 30 60 990
13. In rural region of state P, all women i.e. 188 Lakh are literate and all men are illiterate. The literacy rate among
urban men in state P is atleast
(1) 40% (2) 0% (3) 4% (4) None of these
14. If the literate population, staying in urban area, of each state is maximum possible, then in how many states
urban population can be 100% literate?
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) More than 3
15. In each state 10% of rural population migrates to urban areas of the same state.If this migrant population is
illiterate then which state will have lowest literacy rates in its urban areas?
(1) Q (2) R (3) S (4) Cannot be determined
16. If 70% of literate population of each state lives in urban areas, then which state has the lowest percentage of
literacy in rural areas?
(1) Q (2) R (3) S (4) Cannot be determined
Directions for questions 17 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The tables below show the fare structure and the average number of passengers who travel per day for a bus service
connecting villages A, B, C and D.
Fare per passenger (Rs.) Number of passengers per day
Destination Destination
A B C D A B C D
Source Source
A - 15 18 16 A - 30 35 15
B 15 - 8 20 B 25 - 42 16
C 18 8 - 13 C 23 12 - 5
D 16 20 13 - D 5 10 14 -
A passanger who wants to travel by using the given bus service, can buy a ticket between any two of the given
stations only. It is also known that a commuter has to buy a ticket at the boarding station.
17. At which station is the collection the maximum?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
18. What is the total daily collection (in Rs.) on the route B–C–D–C–B ?
(1) 579 (2) 679 (3) 779 (4) 879
19. If the fare is charged at a rate 40p per km along all the routes except BD, along which it is 60p per km, what is the
approximate length (in km) of the route BDAC?
(1) 118 (2) 138 (3) 158 (4) 177
20. A revenue inspector residing in village C travels to villages A, B and D in that order, on regular basis. His pattern of
travel is such that he travels to only one village each day and returns to his home village at the end of the same
day. What are his expenses on bus fare in the month of September 1999 considering he does not travel on
Sundays? It is further known that 31st July is a Sunday and the inspector travelled to village D on 30th September.
(1) Rs. 580 (2) Rs. 666 (3) Rs. 780 (4) Data inconsistent
Directions for questions 21 to 24: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following table shows the details of various mutual fund schemes available in the market. The returns indicate the
average return over the given time period (1-year or 3-year) in rupee terms.
Assets Return Return Return Best Worst
Scheme
(Rs. in crore) 1-year 1-year SIP 3-year 1-year return 1-year return
HSBC Equity 1108.3 93.36 60.99 — 195.44 93.33
Reliance Growth 493.76 80.29 52.21 50.74 229.36 –56.73
Franklin India Prima 629.32 69.87 46.53 56.01 217.85 –47.60
DSPML Opportunities 604.39 68.88 39.59 36.68 166.83 –44.87
Franklin India Bluechip 1668.93 67.6 34.55 32.91 199.42 –36.54
Birla Dividend Yield Plus 433.74 61.67 27.97 — 146 60.81
Templeton India Growth 367.04 61.06 29.69 30.04 152.23 –39.49
Reliance Vision 658.62 59.69 26.59 56.12 212.39 –47.82
HDFC Equity 993.65 57.55 28.78 38.98 179.39 –40.23
HDFC Top 200 605.03 56.03 28.94 36.71 154.57 –38.98
According to the directives of SEBI, the scheme (among those given above), having the highest ratio of the difference
between Best 1-year return and Worst 1-year return to the assets of that scheme, will be given a gold medal. The
second-best ratio holder scheme gets a silver medal. The schemes having the worst two ratios will be barred from
doing any business in future.
21. How many schemes are there with assets of more than Rs. 500 crore and the ratio of Best 1-year return to
Return 1-year more than 2?
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
22. Based on the SEBI’s directive, which scheme will get the gold medal?
(1) Reliance Growth (2) Franklin India Prima
(3) HSBC equity (4) Reliance Vision
23. Based on the SEBI’s directive, which scheme will get the silver medal?
(1) Templeton India Growth (2) Reliance Vision
(3) DSPML Opportunities (4) HDFC Top 200
24. Based on the SEBI’s directive, which two schemes will be barred from doing any business in future?
(1) HSBC Equity and Franklin India Blue-chip
(2) Birla Dividend Yield Plus Franklin India Blue-chip
(3) HSBC Equity and HDFC Equity
(4) None of these
Directions for questions 25 to 28: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Brass alloy is made by mixing copper and zinc in a certain proportion. The following table shows the information
related to four alloy – copper used in each alloy was of a different quality, quantity and price, whereas zinc used in
each alloy was of the same quality and price @ Rs 150/kg. In none of the alloy, Weight of zinc is more than the weight
of copper.
Weight of copper Rate of copper Weight of zinc Rate of brass
(in Kg) (in Rs/Kg) (in Kg) (in Rs/Kg)
Alloy 1 12 90 W A
Alloy 2 16 60 X B
Alloy 3 18 75 Y C
Alloy 4 20 102 Z D
Price of brass alloy per kg = (weight of copper × rate of copper + weight of zinc × rate of zinc)/(weight of copper +
weight of zinc)
It is also known that W, X, Y, Z, A, B, C and D are natural numbers.
25. How many values can B take ?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) More than 5
26. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
i. ‘A’ is definitely less than ‘C’
ii. Whenever ‘W’ is more than ‘Z’, ‘A’ is not less than any possible value of ‘C’
iii. When ‘W’ and ‘Z’ are equal, ‘A’ and ‘D’ can also be equal
iv. ‘Z’ can take 3 values
(1) Only iv (2) Only iv & ii (3) Only ii & iii (4) Only ii
27. If equal weights of Alloy 1 and Alloy 2 are melted together to form a new alloy, then which of the following is not a
possible price of the new alloy (in Rs/Kg)?
(1) 105 (2) 96 (3) 90 (4) None of these
28. Which of the following value(s) is/are possible for more than one out of A, B, C and D?
(1) 102 (2) 120 (3) 118 (4) (1) and (2) both
Directions for questions 29 to 32: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following Table gives the number of students across six different classes of Pune Modern School in the years
2016 and 2017.
Cla ss Stude nts in the ye a r 2016 Stude nts in the ye a r 2017
V 100 125
VI 75 82
VII 68 65
VIII 60 57
IX 45 50
X 34 47
95 95 25 25
(1) (2) (3) (4)
9 3 9 3
58. If an alloy X, which contains 15% nickel, at least 15% zinc and at most 20% copper, is to be made, how many
combinations of exactly two of the six mentioned alloys can be used to make it?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Two
59. Which of the following can be a value of the ratio in which alloys A, E and F need to be mixed to get at least 12%
lead in the resulting mixture?
(1) 4 : 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 2 : 4
60. If an alloy Z, which contains at least 8.25% nickel, is to be made by using the alloys mentioned in the table, the
percentage of alloy B in alloy Z cannot be more than
(1) 95.46% (2) 83.12% (3) 97.24% (4) 89.16%
Directions for questions 61 to 64: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The table given below shows the total population, ratio of the number of males and females, literacy rate and number
of literate females in eight different states of India for the year 2015.
Number of literate
Name Population (in lakh) Male : Female Literacy rate
females (in lakh)
Bihar 570 3:2 70% 199
Odisha 360 5:4 80% 120
UP 605 7:4 60% 180
Jharkhand 340 9:8 65% 95
Assam 425 14 : 11 84% 167
MP 510 10 : 7 90% 169
Kerala 240 5:3 95% 80
Karnataka 320 9:7 85% 102
The table given below shows the age-wise percentage break up of males and females separately in these eight states
taken together in the same year.
ANSWER KEYS
PRACTICE EXERCISE – 1
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (4)
21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (4) 24. (1) 25. (4) 26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (4) 29. (1) 30. (1)
31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (4) 34. (4) 35. (3) 36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (1)
41. (3) 42. (1) 43. (4) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (1) 50. (3)
51. (3) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (4) 55. (3) 56. (4) 57. (3) 58. (3) 59. (2) 60. (4)
61. (2) 62. (4) 63. (2) 64. (3) 65. (3) 66. (1) 67. (2)
PRACTICE EXERCISE – 2
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (2)
11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (3) 15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (2)
21. (3) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (4) 29. (2) 30. (1)
31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (1) 36. (2) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (3)
41. (2) 42. (4) 43. (4) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (2) 48. (1) 49. (1) 50. (3)
51. (3) 52. (4) 53. (2) 54. (1) 55. (3) 56. (1) 57. (2) 58. (4) 59. (3) 60. (4)
61. (1) 62. (2) 63. (1) 64. (1)
EXPLANATIONS
PRACTICE EXERCISE – 1 Genre Action Romance Drama Patriotic Thriller Total
Total 192 250 300 77 216 1035
1. Total cost of BEL shares = 8 crore 60 Total number of
72 90 100 22 96 380
hit movies
= Rs. 480 crore. Total number of
120 160 200 55 120 655
flop movies
75 Number of flop
Government holding 480 Rs. 360 crore. movies by STS
12 10 25 11 6 64
100
Number of hit
12 15 5 11 12 55
movies by STS
20 Total number of
Disinvestment (20%) 360 Rs. 72 crore. movies by STS
24 25 30 22 18 119
100
4. Number of hit movies by STS which belonged to one
Total cost of BML shares = 3.64 × 15 of three genres Drama, Patriotic or Thriller
= Rs. 54.6 crore. = 5 + 11 + 12 = 28.
Government holding 5. Number of flop movies as a percentage of total
60 number of movies across all five genres
54.6 Rs. 32.76 crore.
100 655
= 100 63.28%.
Disinvestment (25%) 1035
Dollar Tree
(760 – 600) 14 532 3,969.40 Chesapeake
Stores
Percentage change = 26.66%.
600 15 Universal 573 3,511.30 Richmond
1 Tata Steel Steel Tata 594 595 596 594 595 593
2 JK Steel Steel JK 592 590 588 589 590 591
3 Essar Steel Steel Essar 591 592 593 594 595 596
4 Modi Steel Steel Modi 596 597 598 599 600 598
5 Nippon Steel Steel Nippon 598 596 597 598 599 597
Sharm a’s 6 600 520 91.2 83.2 547.2 499.2 52.8 20.8 73.6
Srivastava’s 7 800 560 108.4 78.4 758.8 548.8 41.2 11.2 52.4
Sehgal’s 8 600 640 74.4 75.2 595.2 601.6 4.8 38.4 43.2
56. There were three families whose surplus of Wheat Same values of others are
and Rice together was more than 73.5 and those B 1.406, C 1.4108
families were Sharma’s Srinivasan’s and Suri’s.
D 1.2617, E 1.257
57. The required reduction = 74.4 – (600 – 68)/8
So, B has the third highest ratio and hence third
= 7.9 kg. highest profitability.
58. The required surplus = 73.6 + 56.8 + 52.4 + 43.2 + 63. Only statement ‘b’ is true.
96 + 89.6 = 411.6 kg.
64. Laxman has scored 3,000 runs and has taken
59. Price of rice per kg is double as that of wheat. Sen’s 60 catches. He has not taken any wickets. If we
and Sehgal’s family earned more amount by selling assume that he has scored all his runs in centuries,
the surplus of rice. then the maximum points earned by him will be 4680
For questions 60 to 63: (Runs = 3,000, Catches = 180, Centuries = 30 × 50
Total Capacity Units Sold = 1,500).
(n MW units) (In MW units) Hence, his grade is IV.
A 8,500 7,565
65. In order to minimize the number of centuries scored
B 6,250 5,437.50
by Ganguly, the total number of runs scored by
C 10,000 9,000
Tendulkar has to be the least possible i.e. 10,001
D 8,500 7,225
and the number of catches and five wicket-haul taken
E 9,500 7,600
by Ganguly have to be the maximum possible.
100 Minimum number of points of Tendulkar
60. Total capacity of India = 6,250
12.5 = 10,001 + 80 × 20 + 80 × 3 + 25 × 50 + 5 × 50
= 13,341
= 50,000 MW units
The maximum number of catches taken by Ganguly
Thermal capacity of India = 95% of total capacity can be 119, as the number of catches taken by Dravid,
= 47,500 MW units who has taken the maximum number of catches, is
Total capacity of these five power plants = 42,750 120, and that of five wicket-haul can be 10.
MW units Maximum number of points of Ganguly with zero
centuries
42,750
Required percentage = 100 = 90%. = 10,000 + 50 × 20 + 119 × 3 + 10 × 50 = 11,857
47,500
As the total number of points of Ganguly is more
61. The correct order is C > E > A > D > B than that of Tendulkar, the total number of points of
62. Profitability can be compared by comparing the ratio Ganguly has to be at least 13,342.
of total revenue to total cost. The additional points required for Ganguly i.e.
(13,342 – 11,857) = 1485 will come in the form of
(89% of TC) 3.4 89 3.4 bonus point through centuries. As each century
Profitability for A =
(93% of TC) 2.1 93 2.1 fetches 50 points, to earn 1485 points the number
= 1.549. of centuries required is 30.
Thus, the inspector must have travelled to the villages V 100 125 – x x (new joinees) 125
on (30 – 4) VI 75 107 – x x – 25 82
= 26 days. VII 68 97 – x x – 32 65
His expenses for the first 24 days VIII 60 86 – x x – 29 57
37. Difference will be maximum when all the silver and 1.25
Required percentage = 100 27.17%.
bronze coins are of maximum possible denomination, 4.6
i.e 95ps & 70Ps respectively and platinum and gold 43. Nothing is given said about the other costs.
coins are of minimum possible denomination
Hence, the question cannot be answered.
i.e 225Ps & 25Ps respectively.
Difference = ( 16 × 95 + 16 × 70 ) – ( 4 × 225 + 12 52
44. Cost of hardware export = Rs. 2 1 crore
× 100) = 540ps. 100
38. Total amount with Rahul in Copper coins is 960ps
= Rs. 0.96 crore
and the denominations possible are 25, 30, 35, 40 &
Total salary = Rs. 80000 × 40 = Rs. 0.32 crore
45. To maximise the number of 45ps coins
Cost of hardware increases by 15% that is by
Either, (i) have only one coin of each except 25ps &
45ps. Let the number of 25ps coins be “a” and number Rs. 0.144 crore.
of 45ps coins be “d”. So salary should be reduced by Rs. 0.144 crore.
So, 25a + 30×1 + 35 × 1 + 40 × 1 + 45 × d = 960 ; 5a Percentage by which the salary should be reduced
+ 9d = 171
0.144
Maximum possible value of ‘d’ is 14 is 100 45%.
0.32
For questions 45 to 48: Since the total charges of one local CDMA call, one
All the deliveries made in November were for bookings local GSM call and one landline call put together for
done in September, and one-fifth of total booking in Idea, Airtel and Vodafone is Rs. 5.5, Rs. 5.5 and Rs.
September, that is 272, were delivered in October. Hence 7 respectively and the amount left after rental and
remaining 323 were delivered in the same month. Similarly CLIP charges is the maximum for Idea, the plan
we can find for the remaining months. offered by Idea would be the best choice for him.
Booking 56. In order to maximize the number of calls received
Premium Normal Discounted during 10 days while on roaming, he should received
Months as many calls as he can at an expense of Rs. 75.
April 0 617 623 Number of calls which he can receive in 10 days
May 271 212 577
75
June 118 164 538 = = 30.
2.5
July 183 180 537
Number of call which he can receive everyday
August 362 220 518
September 323 272 765 30
= = 3.
October 0 0 0 10
November 0 0 0 Hence, Ram can receive a maximum of 3 calls
45. Premium is 2.5 times the discount, so the month for everyday of 1 minute each while ensuring his roaming
which premium bookings is more than 0.4 times the bill does not exceed Rs. 75.
number of discount bookings, premium collected will For questions 57 to 60:
be more than the discount given. And this is true for The given information can be tabulated as:
months of May, August and September.
Zinc Tin Lead Copper Nickel
46. This value is highest for the month of August
A 10% 40% (x) % (40 – x)% 10%
47. 538 orange mobiles booked in June were delivered
in August. B 25% 15% 50% 5% 5%
48. Required month is August. C 15% (y) % 20% (30 – y)% 35%
1 25 235 783
Required percentage = 100 23.23.
1 2 25 4 5
% < 12% 3370
7 3 21
63. There were six such states that had female literacy
Hence, option (3) is the correct answer.
rate of at least 75% and those states were Bihar,
60. Since the percentage of nickel in alloy B and alloy Z Odisha, UP, Assam, Kerala and MP.
is 5% and 8.25% respectively, in order to maximize
64. Total number of males in the age group 25 < x 40
the percentage of B in Z, we need to choose alloy in
which the percentage of nickel is greater than 8.25% 20
and also the maximum among the given alloys. So, = 1975
100
we need to choose alloy C.
Total number of females in the age group 25 < x 40
Let the percentage of alloy B in alloy Z be ‘x’%.
5x + 35(1 – x) = 8.25 x = 89.16% 20
= 1395
100
20
1975 1395 100
Required percentage =
20
1395
100
= 41.58%.