15-04-2025

6001CKC20208724R022 KC

PHYSICS

1) The dimensional formulae of Bulk modulus of elasticity is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) A particle is thrown vertically up with speed 50 m/s. Find distance covered by it in 6 seconds ? (g
= 10 m/s2)

(1) 120 m
(2) 130 m
(3) 140 m
(4) 150 m

3) A particle is projected with speed 50 m/s at an angle 53° with the horizontal. Find its speed after
1 second ? (g = 10 m/s2)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 30 m/s

4) A particle is having speed 12 m/s and retardation 2 m/s2. Find displacement in 2nd second?

(1) 12 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 9 m
(4) 8 m

5) Two blocks are hanging through the pulley as shown in figure. Find acceleration of the block
(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 6 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 8 m/s2

6) A block starts from rest and moves under a force that provides constant power P = 2 watt. Mass
of the block is 2 kg. Find its speed after 2 seconds.

(1) 4 m/s
(2) 2 m/s
(3) 1 m/s
(4) 8 m/s

7) Find moment of inertia of a solid uniform sphere of mass 'm' and radius 'R' about its diameter

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A particle is projected from the surface of the earth. It reaches to a height of 'R' from the surface
of the earth. Find projection speed? (M = mass of the earth R = radius of the earth)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
9) Find percentage decrement in volume of a spherical object if pressure is increased by 10000
N/m2. Bulk modulus of elasticity

(1) 1%
(2) 2%
(3) 0.5%
(4) 1.5%

10)
Water is flowing in the pipe as shown in the figure. Find speed (V) ?

(1) 4 m/s
(2) 12 m/s
(3) 14 m/s
(4) 7 m/s

11) Convert 20°C into Fahrenheit scale ?

(1) -40°F
(2) 48°F
(3) 38°F
(4) 68°F

12) A gaseous system is given 200 J heat. Its internal energy decreases by 50 J. Find work done by
the system?

(1) 100 J
(2) 250 J
(3) 200 J
(4) 150 J

13) Two mol of monoatomic gas is mixed with 4 mol of diatomic gas. Find molar heat capacity of the
mixture at constant pressure?

(1) 3R

(2)

(3)

(4) 4R

14) The net force acting on a block of mass 2 kg is given by F = -2x - 4. Find time period of small
oscillations about its mean position?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The equation of wave is . Find velocity of wave ?

(1) 8 m/s
(2) 2 m/s
(3) 1 m/s
(4) 4 m/s

16) Four points A, B, C and D are marked in uniform electric field.

Electric potential is maximum at a point

(1) C
(2) A
(3) B
(4) D

17) A small particle of charge Q and mass m is attached with a string

and is at equilibrium in uniform horizontal electric field. Find tension in the string?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A dielectric is inserted between the plates of a capacitor connected with a battery. Mark the
correct option.
(1) Its potential will remain constant.
(2) Its charge will remain constant.
(3) Its capacitance will remain constant.
(4) Its energy stored remains constant.

19) A galvanometer is having internal resistance and current range up to 1 mA. Find shunt
resistance required to convert it into ammeter which can measure upto 1 Ampere.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Mark the correct option

(1) Ideal voltmeter has zero resistance.

(2) Ideal ammeter has infinite resistance.
(3) Ideal voltmeter has infinite resistance.
(4) Galvenometer can measure high current.

21) Which of the following is not the unit of energy

(1) Joule
(2) Electron volt
(3) Kilowatthour
(4) Watt

22) Resistance of a resister at 0°C is 20 . Find its resistance at 20°C if temperature coefficient of
resistor is 10-3/°C?

(1) 20.2
(2) 20.4

(3) 22

(4) 24

23)
A cylindrical wire is having resistivity and length ' '. Its radius increases from a to b. Find its
resistance
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24)
Find ?

(1) 6 Volt
(2) 4 Volt
(3) 10 Volt
(4) 5 Volt

25) A circular coil is having current i and radius 'R'. Point P is on its
axis at a distance x from its centre. Point 'C' is centre of the circle. Find x in terms of R so that

. (B = Magnetic field)

(1) x = R
(2) x = 2R
(3)
(4)

26) Two circular coil each having current 'i' and radius 'R' are kept perpendicular to each other with
centre at the same place. Find magnitude of magnetic field at the centre?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A proton and an alpha particle moving with same speed enter a uniform magnetic field
perpendicularly. Find the ratio of their radii
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

28) A long solenoid is having 200 turns in 50 cm. Current in each turn is 2 Amp. Find magnetic field
at the axial point

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) Magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of one turn is B. Find the magnetic field at the
centre of circular coil of n turns ? length of coil does not change.

(1) B
(2) nB
(3) n2B

(4)

30) A positively charged particle projected up. Find the direction in which it will deflect due to
earth's horizontal component of magnetic field (South to North)

(1) West
(2) East
(3) North
(4) South

31) Two long parallel wire each having current 10 Amp are placed at a distance of 10 cm. Find
magnetic force per unit length acting on one wire.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) A conducting rod of length 2m rotates about an axis passing through one end and perpendicular
to the rod with angular speed 2 radian/sec. Find induced emf in the rod if uniform magnetic field 2T
exists perpendicular to the plane.

(1) 4 Volt
(2) 2 Volt
(3) 6 Volt
(4) 8 Volt
33) A coil of 50 turn and area 2m2 is kept perpendicular to uniform magnetic field 2 Tesla. The coil is

removed from magnetic field in second. Find average emf induced in the coil.

(1) 400 Volt

(2) 200 Volt
(3) 100 Volt
(4) 50 Volt

34) Current in an inductor of inductance 4 Henry changes from 2 Amp to 4 Amp in second find
average induced emf in the inductor

(1) 8 Volt
(2) 16 Volt
(3) 4 Volt
(4) 2 Volt

35)
Find the phase difference between current and voltage?

(1) 30°
(2) 37°
(3) 45°
(4) 53°

36) In a L-R circuit inductive reactance is and resistance is . Find power factor of the
circuit

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) The frequency of an alternating current is 50 Hz. Find time taken by the current to reach its rms
value from zero?

(1) 2 m sec
(2) 4.5 m sec
(3) 2.5 m sec
(4) 5 m sec

38) An equiconvex lens having refractive index 1.5 is having focal length 20 cm in air. Find its focal
length in water?

(1) 80 cm
(2) 40 cm
(3) 60 cm
(4) 20 cm

39) Focal length of a concave lens is 20 cm find its power

(1) +5 D
(2) -5 D
(3) +4 D
(4) -4 D

40) A real object is kept at a distance of 10 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. Find
magnification produced

(1) +2
(2) -2
(3) +4
(4) -4

41) Find the phase difference between two points at a distance of when wavelength is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The De-Broglie wavelength of a particle having kinetic energy 'K' is . Find wavelength when

kinetic energy is .

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

43) When intensity of light incident is doubled

(1) Stopping voltage will be doubled
(2) Maximum kinetic energy will be doubled
(3) Work fucntion will be doubled
(4) Saturation current will be doubled

44) Light of intensity 30 Watt/m2 falls on a perfectly absorbing plate normally. Find radiation
pressure

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

45) The maximum kinetic energy of photo electron does not depends upon

(1) Intensity of light

(2) Frequency of light
(3) Wavelength of light
(4) Work function of target

46) A proton and an alpha particle is accelerated through same potential difference. Find the ratio of
their De-Broglie wavelength

(1)
(2)
(3) 2
(4) 4

47) When light of wavelength ' ' is incident on a metal target stopping voltage is 3v. When
wavelength changes to . Stopping voltage is v. Find threshold wavelength?

(1)
(2) 3
(3)
(4)

48) Energy of electron in 2nd orbit of H-atom is 'E' then its energy in 3rd orbit will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
49) The angular momentum of electron in H-atom is then its KE is

(1) 1.51 eV
(2) 13.6 eV
(3) 3.4 eV
(4) 0.85 eV

50) The period of revoluction of an electron in nth orbit of H-atom is proportional to

(1) n

(2)

(3) n2
(4) n3

51) Find energy released in a nuclear reacion of mass defect is 0.01 amu?

(1) 9.315 Mev

(2) 93.15 Mev
(3) 931.5 Mev
(4) 9315 Mev

52) Find number of neutron in 88Ru226 nucleus.

(1) 226
(2) 88
(3) 314
(4) 138

53) Isobar are having

(1) Same atomic number

(2) Same mass number
(3) Same no of neutrons
(4) Same no of electrons

54) Radius of nucleus is proportional to (A = mass number)

(1) A
(2)
(3)
(4)

55) Find the energy released when 10-6 kg is converted into energy.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

56) Mark the correct option regarding nuclear force

(1) It depends upon charge

(2) It depends upon mass
(3) It is a short range force
(4) It is weakest force

57) In semi conductor current is due to motion of

(1) Hole only

(2) Electron only
(3) Hole as well as electron
(4) Proton only

58) Forbidden energy gap in Si is

(1) 1.1 eV
(2) 0.71 eV
(3) 2 eV
(4) 3 eV

59) Mark the correct option

(1) N-type semi conductor is negatively charged

(2) p-type semi conductor is positively charged
(3) p-type semi conductor is negatively charged
(4) Extrinsic semi conductor is electrically neutral

60) Majority charge carrier in p-type semi conductor is

(1) Hole
(2) Photon
(3) Electron
(4) Proton

CHEMISTRY

1) Equal masses of O2 and N2 are reacted according to the equation : O2 + N2 —→ 2NO. Which
statement is true ?
(1) O2 is the limiting reagent and N2 is present in excess
(2) N2 is the limiting reagent and O2 is present in excess.
(3) All of O2 and N2 react and neither is in excess.
(4) Nothing can be said about the limiting reagent

2)

(1) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)

(2) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r)
(3) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)
(4) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p)

3) Le-Chatelier principle is not applicable to :-

(1) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)

(2) Fe(s) + S(s) FeS(s)
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
(4) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)

4) pH of human blood is 7.4. Then H+ concentration will be:

(1) 4 × 10–8
(2) 2 × 10–8
(3) 4 × 10–4
(4) 2 × 10–4

5) The solubility product of AgCl is Ksp. Then the solubility of AgCl in xM KCl is

2
(1) Ksp × x

(2)

(3)
(4)

6) What is ‘A’ in the following reaction

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) Sn

7) If ΔH and ΔS for a process are 50KJ and 100J/K then the process will be spontaneous at :-

(1) 100 K
(2) 400 K
(3) 600 K
(4) 500 K

8) The enthalpy change for the reaction,

C2H6(g) → 2C(g) + 6H(g) is X kJ. The bond energy of C–H bond is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Data insufficient

9) The electronic configurations for some neutral atoms are given below.
(i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
(ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(iii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
(iv) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
Which of these is expected to have the highest second ionization enthalpy ?

(1) (i)
(2) (ii)
(3) (iii)
(4) (iv)

10) Which of the following statements is not correct regarding bonding molecular orbital ?

Bonding molecular orbitals possess less energy than the atomic orbitals from which they are
(1)
formed.
(2) Bonding molecular orbitals have low electron density between the two nucleus
(3) Every electron in bonding molecular orbitals contributes to the attraction between atoms
(4) They are formed when the lobes of the combining atomic orbitals have same sign

11) Which of the following is the correct order of dipole moment ?

(1) NH3 < BF3 < NF3 < H2O

(2) BF3 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O
(3) BF3 < NH3 < NF3 < H2O
(4) H2O < NF3 < NH3 < BF3

12) Which method is used to separate different fractions of Crude oil in petroleum industry?

(1) Sublimation
(2) Crystallisation
(3) Fractional distillation
(4) Chromatography

13) Which of the following best explains the reason for the relative stabilities of the conformers
shown?

(I) (II)

(1) I has more torsional strain

(2) I has more steric strain
(3) II has more torsional strain
(4) II has more steric strain

14) IUPAC name of is :-

(1) 3-Bromo-6-chloro-5,5-dimethylcyclohexene
(2) 6-Bromo-3-chloro-4,4-dimethylcyclohexene
(3) 3-Chloro-4,4-dimethyl-6-bromocyclohexene
(4) None of these

15) The compound which does not decolourise Baeyer’s reagent is

(1) Cyclohexene
(2) But-2-yne
(3) Benzene
(4) But-1-ene

16) In which of the following alkenes, Markownikoff’s rule is not applicable?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Identify the unknown compounds.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) Hydrolysis of ester in alkaline medium is :–

(1) First order reaction with molecularity one

(2) Second order reaction with molecularity two
(3) First order reaction with molecularty two
(4) Second order reaction with molecularity one

19) For a first order reaction, the value of rate constant for the reaction
A(gas) ⟶ 2B(gas) + C(solid)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

 The temperature coefficient of a reaction is the ratio of the rate constants at any two
(1)
temperatures.
(2) The temperature coefficient of a reaction is the ratio of the rate constants at 298 K and 308 K.
(3) The temperature coefficient of most of the reactions lies between 2 and 3.
(4) In an endothermic reaction, activation energy of reactants is more than that of the products.

21) What will be the EMF for the given cell ?

Pt|H2(g,P1)|H+(aq.)(1M)||H+(aq.)(1M)|H2(g,P2)|Pt

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) How many grams of copper (atomic wt. = 64) would be displaced from the copper sulphate
solution by adding 27 g of aluminium
(atomic wt. = 27) :-

(1) 32
(2) 64
(3) 96
(4) 160

23) The value of Λ∞ for NH4Cl, NaOH and NaCl are respectively 150, 250 and 130 ohm–1cm2eq–1. The
value of Λ∞ of NH4OH is :-

(1) 270
(2) 280
(3) 400
(4) 380

24) Which of the following reactions occurs at the cathode during the charging of a lead storage
batter?

(1) Pb2+ + 2e– → Pb

2+ 2–
(2) Pb + SO4 → PbSO4
(3) Pb → Pb2+ + 2e–
+ 2– –
(4) PbSO4 + 2H2O → PbO2 + 4H + SO4 + 2e

25) In electrochemical corrosion of metals, the metal undergoing corrosion :

(1) Acts as anode

(2) Acts as cathode
(3) Undergoes reduction
(4) None

26) At a given temperature, the vapour pressure of a solution of two volatile liquids A and B is given
by the equation
PS = 120 – 80XB (XB = mole fraction of B)
Vapour pressure of pure A and B at the same temperature are respectively :-

(1) 120, 80
(2) 120, 200
(3) 120, 40
(4) 80, 40

27)

Two solutions S1 and S2 containing 0.1 M NaCl (aq) and 0.05 M BaCl2 (aq) are sparated by
semiperameable membrane. Which among the following statement is correct ? (Assume complete
dissociation of both the electrolytes) :-

(1) S1 and S2 are isotonic

(2) S1 is hypertonic while S2 is hypotonic
(3) S1 is hypotonic while S2 is hypertonic
(4) Osmosis will occur from S1 to S2

28)

In an aqueous solution mole fraction of solute is 0.2 then molality is :-

(1) 13.89
(2) 3.2
(3) 1.4
(4) 2

29) Assertion :– The boiling point of a solution containing non-volatile solute is always higher than
that of the boiling point of the pure solvent in which the solution is prepared.
Reason : Elevation in boiling point is directly proportional to the molal concentration of the solute in
a solution.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
 Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect statements

30) Which among the following is not colligative property ?

(1) Vapour pressure lowering

(2) Boiling point
(3) Freezing point depression
(4) Osmotic pressure

31) Which of the following order is correct ?

(1) Sc > Mn Zn (metallic radii)

(2) Cr > Mn < Fe (melting point)
(3) Sc < Mn < Zn (I.E value)
(4) All are correct

32) Which of the following ions will exhibit colour in aqueous solutions?

(1) Sc3+ (z = 21)

(2) La3+ (z = 57)
(3) Ti3+ (z = 22)
(4) Lu3+ (z = 71)

33) The most stable oxidation state of Cr in aq. medium is –

(1) Cr2+
(2) Cr3+
(3) Cr4+
(4) Cr6+

34) Transition elements act as catalyst because -

(1) Their melting points are higher

(2) Their I.P. value are higher
(3) They have high density
(4) They can show variable oxidation states

35) CrO3 is red or orange in colour. The nature of oxide is

(1) Acidic
(2) Basic
(3) Amphoteric
(4) Neutral

36) What is the correct order of the following elements with respect to their density ?

(1) Cr < Zn < Co < Cu < Fe

(2) Zn < Cu < Co < Fe < Cr
(3) Zn < Cr < Fe < Co < Cu
(4) Cr < Fe < Co < Cu < Zn

37) N(CH2CH2NH2)3 ligand is :-

(1) Bidentate
(2) Tridentate
(3) Tetradentate
(4) Pentadentate

38) Oxidation number and coordination number of central metal atom in [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 respectively
are :-

(1) +3, 5
(2) +3, 6
(3) +4, 6
(4) +6, 3

39) Strongest CO bond is present in :-

–
(1) [V(CO)6]
(2) [Fe(CO)5]
+
(3) [Cr(CO)6]
(4) None of above

40) The complex [Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2] can exhibit.

(a) Linkage isomerism
(b) Coordination isomerism
(c) Ionisation isomerism
(d) Optical isomerism
The correct answer is :-

(1) Only 'a' 'b' and 'c'

(2) Only 'a'
(3) Only 'a' and 'd'
(4) Only 'b'

41) Which of the following complex species do not involve d2sp3 hybridisation :-

3–
(1) [CoF6]
 3+
(2) [Co(NH3)6]
3–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]
3+
(4) [Cr(NH3)6]

42) In which of the following reaction acetylene will be formed as major product:

(1)

(2)

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4)

43) Major product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) The reactivity order of halides for dehydrohalogenation is :–

(1) R–F > R–Cl > R–Br > R–I.

(2) R–I > R–Br > R–Cl > R–F.
(3) R–I > R–Cl > R–Br > R–F.
(4) R–F > R–I > R–Br > R–Cl.

45) Which among the following gives fastest SN2 ?

(1) C6H5CH2Br
(2) C6H5CH(CH3)Br
(3) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br
(4) C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br

46) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

47)

(1)

(2)

(3) B = ArNO2
(4) All are correct

48)
reagents ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are

⊕ ⊕
(1) (CH3CO)2O/H and (CH3CO)2O/H
⊕ ⊕
(2) (CH3CO)2O/H and CH3OH/H , Δ
(3) H/H⊕, Δ and CH3OH/H⊕, Δ
⊕ ⊕
(4) (CH3CO)2O/H and (CH3CO)2O/H

49) Which of the following is most reactive towards Lucas reagent :-

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH

(2)

(3)

(4)

50)
What is X and Y in above reaction respectively :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

51)
The product D of the reaction :-
CH3–Cl (D)

(1) CH3–CH2–NH2
(2) CH3CH
(3) HCONH2
(4) CH3 CONH2

52)

The correct order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis at room temperature is

(1) (D) > (A) > (B) > (C)

(2) (A) > (B) > (C) > (D)
(3) (A) > (C) > (B) > (D)
(4) (D) > (B) > (A) > (C)

53) Consider the following reaction,

The product A is :

(1) C6H5CHO
(2) C6H5OH
(3) C6H5COCH3
(4) C6H5Cl

54) Which of the following cannot show positive carbyl amine test?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) CH3 – NH – CH3

55)
What is A ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

56)

1º, 2º and 3º amines are differentiated by :-

(1) Hinsberg's test

(2) Lucas test
(3) Lieberman nitroso test
(4) Iodoform test

57) Which reagent is used to form glucosazone :-

(1) NH2–NH2
(2) C6H5NH–NH2
(3) NH2–OH
(4) NH2NHCONH2

58) Peptide linkage in protein is chemically -

(1) Amide bond

(2) ester bond
(3) ether bond
(4) Glycoside bond

59) A imparts green color to the flame. Its solution does not give a precipitate on passing H2S. When
it is heated with solid K2Cr2O7 and conc. H2SO4, deep red vapour is evolved. The gas when passed in
an aqueous solution of NaOH turns it yellow. Find out A :

(1) HgCl2
(2) BaCl2
(3) KCl
(4) Both (1) and (2)

60) Which of the following is correct regarding vitamins : -

(i) Vitamin A, E and K are fat soluble vitamins.
(ii) Vitamin B1, B2 and D are water soluble vitamins.
(iii) Water soluble vitamins must be supplied regularly in diet.
(iv) Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes Convulsions.

(1) i, ii, iii

(2) i, iii, iv
(3) i, iii
(4) i, iv

MATHEMATICS

1) A survey shows that 63% of the Americans like cheese whereas 76% like apples. If x% of the
Americans like both cheese and apples, then we have

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

2) The range of the function is,

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) If then the value of , is

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) -1
(4) 2

4) If then the value of,

(1) 0
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) For positive integer is always divisible by

(1) 3
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 6

6) The least integer satisfying is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) If , then the values of x lie in the interval

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) The radius of the circle passing through the foci of and having centre (0,3) is

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3)

(4)

9) Three of the six vertices of a regular hexagon are chosen at random. The probability that the
triangle formed by these vertices is equilateral is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The value of is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) If one of the roots of the equation

is , then other two roots are:

(1) {2, 6}
(2) {3, 6}
(3) {2, 7}
(4) {3, 7}
13) is continuous at , then a is equal to

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 3

(4)

14) If then

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Let and then is equal to

(1)

(2) 20 t8

(3)

(4) None

16) The radius of a cylinder is increasing at the rate of 3m / s and its altitude is decreasing at the
rate of 4 m / s. The rate of change of volume when radius is 4 m and altitude is 6 m, is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) If the line is a normal to the curve xy = 1, then

(1) a > 0, b > 0

(2) a > 0, b < 0
(3) a < 0, b < 0
(4) Data is unsufficient
18) is increasing in

(1) R - {0}
(2)
(3) R
(4)

19)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The value of the integral , where [.] denotes the greatest integer
function, is

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

21)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) is equal to

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The area bounded by the curves and y = 0 is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) The order of the differential equation is

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 5

26) Solution of the differential equation is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A function y = f(x) has a second order derivative f"(x) = 6(x - 1). If its graph passes through the
point (2,1) and at that point the tangent to the graph is y = 3x - 5, then the function is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) The solution set of is

(1) Half plane not containing the origin

Half plane containing the points lying on the
(2)
line 3x + 2y = 6 and the origin
(3) xy - plane except points on the line 3x + 2y = 6
(4) None of these

29) Let A and B be two events such that . If and

, then is equal to

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) If the events A and B are independent and if , then is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) If , where [x] denotes the greatest integer funtion then

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) Modulus of is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

33) The length of semi latusrectum of a parabola, whose focus is (2, 3) and directrix is ,
is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

34) is equal to

(1) 2
(2)

(3)

(4)

35) The symmetric part of the matrix when it is written as sum of

symmetric and skew symmetric matrix is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
36) If then the value of is

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 3

37) If and then

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 3L

38) If A is a non singular matrix and then

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) If matrix A satisfies the equation, then A-1 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) If then
(1) p = q
(2) p = -q
(3)
(4)

41) If is continuous at x = 0, then k is equal to

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) -4
(4) 8

42) If then at x = 4 is equal to

(1) 108
(2) 54
(3) 36
(4) 516

43)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

45) If [x] is the gretest integer function not greater than x then is equal to

(1) (1012) (2025)

(2) (1012) (1017)
(3) (1012) (2024)
(4) (1012) (1014)

46)

(1) 12

(2)

(3) 21
(4) 10

47) If , then

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

48) If are three non-zero vectors such that any two of them are non-collinear. If is
collinear with and is collinear with , then the value of equals

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

49) If the angle between the pair of lines and is then

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

50) If the points and are collinear, then the value of and are
given by

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

51) Corner points of the feasible region for an LPP are (0, 2), (3, 0), (6, 0), (6, 8) and (0, 5). Let
be the objective function. The minimum value of z occurs at

(1) Only (0, 2)

(2) Only (3, 0)
(3) Only (0, 5)
(4) Any point on the line segment joining the points (0, 2) and (3, 0)

52) A bag contains 5 red balls, 4 white balls and 3 blue balls. If a ball is selected at random. The
probability that it is not white is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

53) For the probability distribution given by

Xi 0 1 2

Pi

The standard deviation is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

54)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

55) The integrating factor of is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

56) If are vectors such that and then angle between

vector and is

(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 90°

57) The shortest distance between the lines and

is

(1) 84
(2) 14
(3) 21
(4) 16

58) The direction ratios of the line which is perpendicualr to the lines and

are

(1) < 4, 5, 7>

(2) <4, -5, 7>
(3) <4, -5, -7>
(4) <-4, 5, 7>

59) Objective function of a L.P.P. is

(1) A constraint
(2) A function to be optimized
(3) A relation between the variables
(4) None of these
60) Two events A and B have “probabilities 0.25 and 0.50 respectively. The probability that both
occur is 0.14, then neither A nor B occurs is

(1) 0.39
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.11
(4) None
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 2 3 1 2 1 3 3 3 4 2 2 1 4 2 4 1 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 1 4 3 4 1 2 3 1 1 4 1 2 3 4 3 1 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 2 3 4 2 1 1 1 3 1 4 1 4 2 3 1 3 3 1 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 1 1 2 1 4 2 3 4 2 2 2 3 4 2 3 1 3 2 2 1
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 3 1 4 1 3 2 1 1 2 4 3 2 4 1 3 3 2 3 2
Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 2 2 2 1 1 4 2 3 3 4 2 1 4 4 1 2 1 2 3

MATHEMATICS

Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
A. 3 3 1 1 1 3 2 1 3 3 1 3 4 4 3 1 2 1 2 3
Q. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A. 3 4 2 3 1 3 2 2 4 3 2 2 3 3 2 4 4 3 4 1
Q. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 3 2 1 1 3 4 2 1 4 2 2 3 3 1 2 1 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

61) Given data O2 + N2 → 2NO

Wa2 = WN2
Concept
o

LR ER
Correct option (1)

65) AgCl(S) ⇌ Ag+ + Cl–

1 0 0
1–S S (S + x) [x due to KCl]
∴ S(S + x) = Ksp
or, S2 + xS = Ksp
∵ S2 is very small, it is neglected
⇒ xS = Ksp

⇒S=

67) ΔG = ΔH – TΔS

For spontaneous process T >

T > 500 K

68) C2H6 → 1(C – C) + 6(C – H)

C – C → Not given
∴ C – H → cannot be determined

72) Fractional distillation

74) Numbering is according to lowest locant sum rule.

 IUPAC name ⇒ 6-Bromo-3-Chloro-4,4-Dimethyl Cyclohex-1-ene

81) H2(P1) + 2H+(aq) → 2H+(aq) + H2(P2)

Q=

E = 0–

E=

83)

Λ∞NH4OH = Λ∞NH4Cl + Λ∞NaOH - Λ∞Nacl

= 150 + 250 - 130
= 270 ohm-1cm-1 eq-1

85)

NCERT XII Pg. # 91, Edition-2021-22

86)

Ps = 120 – 80 XB
For pure B, XB = 1, Ps = p°B = 40

For pure A, XB = 0, Ps = p°A = 120

87)

S1(NaCl) S2(BaCl2)
π1 = i1C1 RT π2 = i2C2RT
i1 = 2 i2 = 3
C1 = 0.1 m C2 = 0.05 m
π1 = 0.2 RT π2 = 0.15 RT
π1 > π2

90)

Boiling point

96)

97)
NCERT Pg. # 247

101)

F- is a weak field ligand.

102)

NCERT XI Page No. # 388

105) NCERT Reference: XII, Part-II, Page No. 304

106)
*Anti-elimination
Remove that hydrogen opposite to halogen.

110)

113)

114) Carbyl amine test given by 1°-amine only.

 115)

117) NCERT-XII/Part-II/Page-414

MATHEMATICS

121)

maxm of

122)

123)

124)

125)

Let
Put n = 1, gives
Since each of P(1), P(2), P(3) is exactly divisible by 3. Therefore n3 + 2n is divisible by 3.

126)

Inequation is

Least integer is x = 3.

127)

Given inequality is

Case I x < 1

i.e.,
Case II

i.e.,
Case III

i.e.,
From all the interval

Values of x lie in the interval [-2, 6]

128)

foci
centre (0, 3)
radius

129)
Let ABCDEF be the regular hexagon.
Number of total triangles ways
For the favourable event, the vertices should be either A, C, E or B, D, F

The required probability

130)

131)

132)

Operating , we get

Operating and , we get

 are other roots

133)

[Using L' Hospital's rule]

Since, f(x) is continuous at

134)

135)

136)

Let h and r be the height and radius of cylinder.

Given that,
Also,
On differentiating w.r.t. t, we get
At and h = 6m

137)

The given equation of curve is xy = 1.

On differentiating w.r.t. x, we get

Let be any point on the curve at which normal to the curve can be drawn.

So, slope of normal = t2

Therefore, the given line will be

normal to the curve, if

Since, t2 > 0
Either b > 0, a < 0 or a > 0, b < 0.

138)

is increasing function

139) ,

140)

Let (1)
 (2)
On adding (1) and (2), we get

141) (1)

(2)
(1) + (2)

142)

Let (1)

(2)
On adding Eqs. (1) and (2), we get
143)

144)

We have,

The above curve intersect X-axis at the points where y = 0

i.e., x2 = 3

Point of intersection with X-axis are

Required area

145)

We have,

Since, the highest order derivative is

Order of the given differential equation is 3.

146)
We know
that is, given expansion is rewritten as

taking log on both sides, gives

i.e.

147)
Integrating w.r.t. x

....(i)

Integrating w.r.t.x

...(ii)
(2,1) lies on the curve equation

148)

Consider
149)

Given,

150)

Given,

and

Given, A and B are independent events,

151)

152)

153)
Length of latusrectum
154)

L - H rate

155)

156)

157)

158)

159)

160)

161)

162)

163)

164)

165)

166)
167)

168)

169)

170)

D. r's of AB = D. r's of AC

171)

Conceptual

172)

173)

174)
175)

Integrating factor is

176)

Given , we need angle between so consider

177)

Given, equation of lines are

178)

Let d.r’s of line are <a, b, c> then

and
 d.r's of line are <4, 5, 7>

179)

Conceptual

180)

Now P(neither A nor B) = 0.14