1.1.

1 Liquid Penetrant Testing Level 2 (PT-2) General

Examination

1.A common application of an aluminium block containing quench cracks is to:

(a) Determine penetrant test sensitivity

(b) Compare performance of penetrant materials or processes

(c) Determine effects of mechanical cleaning methods on penetrant test results

(d) Determine effectiveness of cleaning techniques

1.2 Which of the following is not (!) an advantage of a water washable fluorescent
penetrant process?

(a) Excess penetrant is easily removed with a water wash

(b) It is well suited to testing large quantities of small parts

(c) It is readily removed from shallow discontinuities

(d) It has low cost, low processing time

compared to the post emulsified penetrant
process

2. When using a water washable

penetrant testing process, why should
the water rinse temperature remain
constant?

(a) To avoid changes in rinse efficiency

(b) To maintain the temperature of the part

(c) To avoid over washing

(d) To avoid under washing

3. What is the proper technique for

removal of excess penetrant from a part
when using a water washable penetrant
process?
(a) Fine spray normal to the surface
(b) Coarse spray normal to the surface
(c) Fine spray at 45 degrees to the surface
(d) Coarse spray at 45 degrees to the surface

4. Which type of developer would you use to

obtain the highest sensitivity test results?
(a) Dry
1
 (b) Non-aqueous wet
(c) Aqueous wet
(d) Lipophilic

2
 5. What type of penetrant process would
be best suited to an application at near
freezing temperatures?

(a) Solvent removable

(b) Water washable

(c) Post emulsifiable

(d) None of the above

6. Which type of developer does not (!)

provide a contrasting background
against which to view penetrant
indications?

(a) Dry

(b) Non-aqueous wet

(c) Water soluble

(d) Water suspendable

7. Which type of developer should not be

used with a visible dye penetrant process?

(a) Dry

(b) Non-aqueous wet

(c) Water soluble

(d) Water suspendable

8. Why might steel parts have a greater

tendency towards rusting after penetrant
testing?

(a) Penetrant materials are normally corrosive

(b) Penetrant materials residues are hydroscopic

(c) Any protective oils are removed during penetrant testing

(d) This is true only if the developer and

penetrant residues are not removed after
testing

9. The most significant advantage of the

visible solvent removable penetrant
process is?

(a) Its suitability for penetrant testing of article with rough surfaces

3
 (b) Portability

(c) Its non-corrosive properties

(d) Ability to allow retest

4
 10. Correct developer coating thickness is
indicated by:

(a) An even, snowy white appearance

(b) A slightly pinkish background

(c) A fine, misting spray

(d) A thin, translucent layer

11. Which penetrant test processes commonly

use the same penetrants?

(a) Water washable

(b) Water washable and solvent removable

(c) Solvent removable and post emulsifier

(d) None of the above

12. Mercury vapour black lights may be

extinguished if the supply voltage
drops below about:

(a) 120 volts

(b) 90 volts

(c) 220 volts

(d) 200 volts

13. The output of a mercury vapour black

light depends on:

(a) Cleanliness of its filter

(b) Age of the bulb

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of the above

14. When a mercury vapour black light is

first turned on, what minimum warm-
up time is normally required?

(a) None

(b) 2 to 3 minutes

(c) 5 minutes

(d) 10 minutes
5
 15. When a mercury vapour black light is
inadvertently cut off, approximately
how long should it be allowed to cool
before attempting to restart?

(a) Not required

(b) 2 to 3 minutes

(c) 5 minutes

(d) 10 minutes

16. A soft aluminium test piece is to be

penetrant tested. The piece has
previously been sand blasted to remove
tightly adhering soils. What additional
surface preparation should be
performed?

(a) Etching

(b) Solvent cleaning

(c) Ultrasonic cleaning

(d) Grinding

17. Dried, non-aqueous developers are best

removed after penetrant testing by:

(a) Solvent cleaning

(b) Wiping with a water dampened cloth

(c) Wiping with a dry towel

(d) Any of the above

18. The most important penetrant test

processing time to control is:

(a) Penetrant dwell time

(b) Emulsifier dwell time

(c) Water rinse time

(d) Development time

19. A penetrant which contains an emulsifier

is called:

(a) Solvent removable

(b) Water washable

6
(c) Post emulsifiable

(d) Solvent suspended

7
 20. A penetrant which requires a separate
emulsification step prior to removal
from the surface of the test piece is
called?

(a) Solvent removable

(b) Water washable

(c) Post emulsifiable

(d) Solvent suspended

21. The chief advantage of using a water

washable penetrant process is:

(a) Sensitivity

(b) Safety

(c) Water tolerance

(d) Economics

22. While performing a fluorescent water

washable penetrant test, which of the
following steps should be performed
under black light?

(a) Penetrant application

(b) Excess penetrant removal

(c) Emulsification

(d) Developer application

23. What are the two most important

properties in determining the
penetrating ability of a penetrant?

(a) Viscosity and surface tension

(b) Viscosity and contact angle

(c) Surface tension and wetting ability

(d) None of the above

24. The human eye is most sensitive to which

of the following types of light?

(a) Yellow-green

(b) Red

8
(c) Blue-violet

(d) Orange

9
 25. What amount of time is normally
considered necessary for dark adaption
of the eyes prior to performing a
fluorescent penetrant test?

(a) None required

(b) 1 to 2 minutes

(c) 3 to 5 minutes

(d) 5 to 10 minutes

26. Which of the following is not normally recommended?

(a) Performing a fluorescent penetrant test following a visible penetrant test?

(b) Performing a visible penetrant test following a fluorescent test

(c) Removing excess penetrant with a water spray

(d) Removing excess penetrant with towels moistened with solvent

27. What is the most common source of

penetrant bath contamination?

(a) Emulsifier

(b) Water

(c) Developer

(d) Solvent

28. Which of the following is normally

considered acceptable practice?

(a) Sand blasting a soft aluminium part during pre-cleaning

(b) Performing a fluorescent penetrant test following a visible penetrant test

(c) performing a re-test on a part tested with a water washable penetrant process

(d) Removing excess penetrant with a water spray

29. A penetrant testing method in which an

emulsifier, separate from the penetrant,
is used is called:

(a) Solvent removable

(b) Water washable

(c) Post emulsifying

(d) Self emulsifying

10
 30. A penetrant testing method in which
the degree of washability can be
controlled by the operator is called:

(a) Self emulsifying

(b) Post emulsifiable

(c) Water washable

(d) Solvent removable

31. Open, shallow discontinuities are best

detected by which penetrant testing
method?

(a) Solvent removable

(b) Water washable

(c) Post emulsifiable

(d) None of the above

32. An advantage of the post emulsifiable

penetrant testing process is that:

(a) Test pieces can be re-processed several times with little loss of sensitivity

(b) It is the most economical penetrant testing process

(c) It is highly susceptible to over washing

(d) It is not self emulsifying

33. A disadvantage of the post emulsifiable

penetrant process is that:

(a) Test pieces can be re-processed several times with little loss of sensitivity

(b) It is not very sensitive to open, shallow discontinuities

(c) It is less sensitive to degradation in the presence of acids and chromates

(d) Emulsifier application is an extra processing step

34. Acceptable methods to apply emulsifier

are:

(a) Dipping

(b) Flowing

(c) Spraying

(d) All of the above

11
 35. An advantage of emulsifier application by
dipping is:

(a) Excess penetrant is recovered in the emulsifier tank and reprocessed

(b) All of the test object is coated at approximately the same time

(c) Excess emulsifier drains back into the emulsifier tank for re-use

(d) Hydrophilic scrubbing is then easier to perform

36. Emulsification time is less critical for the

detection of:

(a) Fine, tight cracks

(b) Wide, shallow discontinuities

(c) Internal porosity

(d) None of the above

37. Over washing during excess

penetrant removal is less likely with
which penetrant testing process?

(a) Solvent removable

(b) Water washable

(c) Post emulsifiable

(d) Self emuslifying

38. The fluorescent dyes used in the liquid

penetrant testing process are most
active when energised with black light
of what wavelengths? (Å stands for
angstrom units)

(a) 2.0 × 10-7m (2000 Å)

(b) 2.5 × 10-7m (2500 Å)

(c) 3.25 × 10-7m (3250 Å)

(d) 3.65 × 10-7m (3650 Å)

39. Application of penetrant to a test piece

may be by:

(a) Dipping, brushing or spraying

(b) Spraying only

(c) Bushing or spraying only

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(d) Dipping or spraying only

13
 1.2.2 Liquid Penetrant Testing Level 2 (PT-2) Specific
Examination

1. The most likely result of a too short dwell

time of an emulsifier is:

(a) A tendency to remove the penetrant from fine discontinuities

(b) Incomplete removal of excess surface penetrant

(c) An overactive emulsifier

(d) All of the above

2. Diffusion of a lipophilic emulsifier

penetrant into the test piece surface is
stopped by:

(a) The conclusion of the emulsifier dwell time

(b) The penetrant

(c) Application of developer

(d) The water rinse step

3. When using a post emulsifiable

penetrant process, it is important to
drain as much excess penetrant as
possible from the surface of a test piece
which has been immersed in the
penetrant because:

(a) Too much penetrant on the part surface may

lead to more rapid penetration and over-
sensitivity

(b) A thinner layer of penetrant is likely to have

higher capillary action and, thus, be more
sensitive to fine discontinuities

(c) A thinner layer of penetrant will result in less

penetrant contamination in the emulsifier
tank

(d) None of the above

4. When a drain-dwell technique is used

during emulsification, what two
mechanisms are responsible for
combining the emulsifier and
penetrant?

(a) Diffusion and turbulent mixing

14
(b) Osmosis and agitation

(c) Turbulent mixing and osmosis

(d) Agitation and turbulent mixing

15
 5. When performing a post emulsifiable
penetrant test, the test piece does not
rinse acceptable clean during normal
processing. What should be done?

(a) Return the test piece to the emulsifier and repeat the step

(b) Increase water temperature and pressure

(c) Remove the excess penetrant with solvent

remover and process the remainder of the test
normally

(d) Clean the test piece and re-process through the complete penetrant test process

6. The adequacy of excess penetrant

removal, using water washable
penetrant process, is judged and
controlled by:

(a) Water rinse time

(b) Fluorescent brightness measurement

(c) Visual observation

(d) Cleanliness of cloths used for removal

7. Another name for a self-emulsifying

penetrant process is:

(a) Solvent removable

(b) Water washable

(c) Post emulsifiable

(d) Solvent emulsifiable

8. Which of the following is a function of an

emulsifier?

(a) To draw penetrant out of a discontinuity and form a visible indication

(b) To increase the size of an indication through capillary action

(c) To provide contrasting background for viewing penetrant indications

(d) None of the above

9. When viewed under black light, developer

appears:

(a) Yellow-green

(b) Blue-black
16
(c) White

(d) Pinkish white

17
 10. Penetrant developers are used in which of
the following forms?

(a) Water washable

(b) Water suspendable

(c) Solvent suspendable

(d) All of the above

11. Which of the following developers

requires the test piece to be dried
prior to its application?

(a) Water washable

(b) Water suspendable

(c) Non-aqueous suspendable

(d) All of the above

12. An effect of a thick developer coating

might be:

(a) To obscure discontinuity indications

(b) To enhance discontinuity indications

(c) To increase penetrant test sensitivity by providing more capillary paths

(d) None of the above

13. Why is it important to view the test

piece shortly after developer
application and periodically through
the development time?

(a) To make sure the developer dries evenly

(b) To guard against pooling of developer in low areas

(c) To avoid missing small flaw indications adjacent to areas of high bleed-out

(d) To avoid missing transient indications against an otherwise clean background

14. Which of the following is an advantage of

a dry developer?

(a) Ease of handling

(b) Non-corrosive

(c) No hazardous vapours

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(d) All of the above

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 15. Why is the need for a dry surface
prior to developer application more
of a disadvantage with a dry developer
than with a non-aqueous wet
developer?

(a) Because the dry developer only forms a

thin film on the surface of the test piece

(b) Because the solvent in a non-aqueous wet

developer penetrates deeper into
discontinuities to contact entrapped penetrant
and draw it back out

(c) Because the warm test piece causes

evaporation of the solvent in the non-
aqueous developer

(d) All of the above

16. The preferred method of application of aqueous wet developer is:

(a) Dipping
(b) Spraying
(c) Brushing

(d) All of the above

17. It is easier to control developer coating

thickness with a soluble developer than
a water suspendable one because:

(a) Less developer can be dissolved that suspended in water

(b) It dries more rapidly on the test piece

(c) Evaporation deposits a thin, even coating on the test piece

(d) All of the above

18. Which of the following is not an

advantage of an aqueous wet developer?

(a) It may be applied to a dry surface

(b) It has no hazardous vapours

(c) There is visible evidence of developer coverage

(d) During drying, only water evaporates, not costly solvents

19. A disadvantage of water soluble

developers is:

20
(a) Agitation of the developer is not required

(b) A uniform developer film is obtained

(c) The dried developer is difficult to remove during post cleaning

(d) None of the above

21
 20. Fluorescent penetrant indications are
more visible than colour contrast
penetrant indications because:

(a) They reflect more light

(b) They emit rather than reflect light

(c) They contain a higher concentration of dye particles

(d) Yellow and green contrast more than red and white

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23
 1.2.3 Liquid Penetrant Testing Level 2 (PT-2) Answers to
Questions

Liquid Penetrant Testing Level 2 Answers to questions

General Examination Specific Examination
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11 45 11 45
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 1.2.4 Magnetic Particles Testing Level 2 (MT-2) General
Examination

1. Which of the following is not a property

of magnetic lines of force?
(a) They form closed loops which do not cross
(b) The density increases with distance from the poles of a permanent magnet
(c) Hey are considered to have direction
(d) They seek paths of least magnetic resistance or least reluctance

2. Surrounding an electromagnet, the

magnetic field is strongest:
(a) Immediately after the current ceases to flow
(b) While the magnetizing current ceases to flow
(c) At the time the magnetic particles are applied to the part
(d) Just prior to current reversal

3. The value of permeability is:

(a) A fixed value depending upon the type of material
(b) Between 1 and 100 for all ferromagnetic materials
(c) Between 0 and 10 for all ferromagnetic materials
(d) Dependent upon the amount of magnetizing force necessary to overcome
saturation

4. The flux density of the magnetism induced by a coil is affected by:

(a) The coil size

(b) The current in the coil

(c) The number of turns in the coil

(d) All of the above

5. How many turns of a coil will be

needed to establish a longitudinal field
in a steel shaft that is 22.86 cm (9
inches) long and 7.62 cm (3 inches) in
diameter? 3000 amperes magnetizing
current is available, it is desired to
magnetize the part in accordance with
the formula NI = 45,000/(L/D):

(a) 1

(b) 3
25
 (c) 5

(d) 7

26
 6. How many ampere-turns are required
to magnetize a part that is 40.6 cm (16
inches) long and 5 cm (2 inches) in
diameter?

(a) 9000 ampere-turns

(b) 5625 ampere-turns

(c) 2812 ampere-turns

(d) None of the above

7. The lines of flux or force in a circularly

magnetized ferromagnetic bar:

(a) Are aligned through the piece from the south to the north pole

(b) Are aligned through the piece from the north to the south pole

(c) Leave the south pole and enter the north pole

(d) Are contained within and around the part

8. In which magnetizing method is the

current passed directly through the
part, thereby setting up a magnetic
field at right angles to the current flow?

(a) Longitudinal magnetization

(b) Coil magnetization

(c) Central conductor magnetization

(d) None of the above

9. Which of the following is false

concerning a magnetic field in and
around a hollow conductor as
compared to that of a solid conductor
of the same outside diameter when
both are of the same magnetic material,
and when the applied current is the
same?

(a) The field immediately outside the outer

surface of the hollow conductor is greater

(b) The field gradient inside the hollow conductor is steeper

(c) The fields outside the conductors are the same

(d) The fields are the same at the centre

10. The field in a section of ferromagnetic

27
 pipe being magnetized by means of a
central conductor is strongest at the:
(a) Ends of the pipe
(b) Outer surface of the pipe
(c) Inner surface of the pipe
(d) The field is uniform at all places

28
 11. For a 7.6 cm (3 inches) diameter bar
how much current is needed to
magnetize the bar for the detection of
longitudinal discontinuities:

(a) 5500 amperes

(b) 16500 amperes

(c) 1000 amperes

(d) 3000 amperes

12. For detection of longitudinal

discontinuities a 7.6 cm (3 inches)
diameter bar is magnetized in:

(a) The longitudinal direction

(b) The circular direction

(c) The clockwise direction

(d) None of the above directions

13. A bar that is 5 cm (2 inches) by 10 cm

(4 inches) by 30.5 cm (12 inches) is
being magnetized in the circular
direction. About how many amperes
are required using the perimeter
approach?

(a) 2200

(b) 4500

(c) 3800

(d) None of the above

14. An advantage of AC is that:

(a) It is most readily available

(b) Equipment can be made lighter

(c) It leaves the part demagnetized

(d) All of the above

15. When a magnetic field cuts across a crack:

(a) Electrons begin jumping back and forth across the crack

(b) The crack begins to heat up

29
 (c) Magnetic poles form at the edges of the crack

(d) All of the above

30
16. A disadvantage of AC current is that it:

(a) Cannot be used with dry powder

(b) Has poor penetrating power

(c) Can only provide low flux densities

(d) Cannot be used for residual magnetic particle testing

17. What causes a leakage field in a steel bar?

(a) A crack

(b) Reversal of the magnetic field

(c) Paint on the surface

(d) All of the above

18. An indication is a defect under which of

the following conditions?

(a) If it is greater than 3.8 cm (1.5 inches) long

(b) If it exceeds the limits of a standard or specification

(c) If it is deep

(d) Under all of the above indications

19. Paint will not affect the detection of a

crack if:

(a) The paint is thick and the defect is subsurface

(b) The paint is thin and the crack is parallel to the direction of flux lines

(c) The crack is sharp and the paint is thin

(d) All of the above

20. A magnetic particle indication is

sharp and very fine; this suggests
that the discontinuity is:

(a) Subsurface seam

(b) A shallow, tight surface crack

(c) Porosity

(d) A deep crack

31
 21. Among the following, the best type of
current for the detection of fatigue cracks
is:

(a) Half-wave direct current

(b) Alternating current

(c) Direct current

(d) Half-wave alternating current

22. Continuous magnetization provides the

most sensitivity because:

(a) The magnetic particles are present while the part is being magnetized

(b) The magnetic field is greatest while the magnetizing current is on

(c) All of the above

(d) Neither of the above

23. The sensitivity of magnetic particle

testing is greatest when the discontinuity
is:

(a) Parallel to the direction of the magnetic flux lines

(b) Perpendicular to the flow of the magnetizing current

(c) Perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic flux

(d) Perpendicular to the line between prods

24. To provide reliability and

reproducibility in magnetic particle
testing, written procedures should
include:

(a) Location of the coil and current for each magnetization

(b) Requirements for ammeter calibration

(c) Type and concentration of the particles

(d) All of the above

25. The magnetic particles are noticed to

bunch in some fillet areas and stand on
end on the edge of a part being
magnetized. These observations
indicate that the:

(a) Particle concentration is too low

32
(b) Flux density is excessive

(c) Flux density is too low

(d) Magnetizing current should be changed form AC to DC

33
 26. Flux density is a measure of the
number of magnetic flux lines
perpendicular to an area of cross-
section. If a discontinuity is in the
plane of the unit area, the strongest
magnetic article indication will be
formed when the discontinuity is:

(a) Inclined at 45º to the flux lines

(b) Parallel to the flux lines

(c) 90º to the flux lines

(d) 135º to the flux lines

27. Prods are being used to magnetize a

weld area. When dry powder is dusted
on the surface, it is observed that there
is no mobility of the particles. What is
the most probable reason for this
observation?

(a) The magnetizing current is not high enough

(b) The flux density is too low

(c) DC is being used

(d) All of the above are possible reasons

28. The current from portable high amperage

units can be applied to the object using:

(a) Prods

(b) Cable coils

(c) Pre-wrapped coils

(d) All of the above

29. How can parts be tested to determine if

they have been adequately demagnetized?

(a) By bringing a suspended paper clip near the middle of the part

(b) By using a small horseshoe permanent magnet

(c) By using a small magnetometer held at a corner of the part

(d) By sprinkling some magnetic particles on the part

30. The statement ‘magnetic particle testing

can be applied to plated and painted
parts’.
34
(a) May be true depending upon the thickness of the coating

(b) May be true if flux densities are increased

to compensate for the coating thickness

(c) Is true only for circular circumstances

(d) Both (a) and (b)

35
 31. A group of indications, some sharp and
some broad and fuzzy, were found on
an area of a small forging.
Demagnetization and re-inspection
eliminated these indications. What was
the probable cause?

(a) Forging lap

(b) Magnetic writing

(c) Change in permeability

(d) Subsurface variation

32. Magnetic particle testing is most likely to

find subsurface discontinuities in:

(a) Soft steels with high permeability

(b) Soft steels with low permeability

(c) Hardened steels with low permeability

(d) Hardened steels with high permeability

33. Which of the following is not an

advantage of Magnetic Particle testing?

(a) Fast and simple to perform

(b) Can detect discontinuities filled with foreign material

(c) Most reliable for finding surface cracks in all types of material

(d) Works well through a thin coat of paint

34. Which of the following does not represent

a limitation of Magnetic Particle testing?

(a) The type of materials which may be effectively tested

(b) The directionality of the magnetic field

(c) The need for demagnetization

(d) The ability to detect discontinuities filled with foreign material

35. The most effective NDT method for

locating surface cracks in
ferromagnetic materials is:

(a) Ultrasonic testing

(b) Radiographic testing

36
(c) Magnetic particles testing

(d) Liquid penetrant testing

37
 36. A discontinuity which is produced during
solidification of the molten metal is
called:

(a) Inherent

(b) Processing

(c) Service

(d) None of the above

37. Pipe would be classified as what type of

discontinuity?

(a) Inherent

(b) Processing

(c) Service

(d) None of the above

38. A seam would be classified as what type

of discontinuity?

(a) Inherent

(b) Processing

(c) Service

(d) None of the above

39. A lamination in steel plate would be

classified as what type of discontinuity?

(a) Inherent

(b) Processing

(c) Service

(d) None of the above

40. An internal rupture caused by working

steel at improper temperatures is called a:

(a) Lap

(b) Cold shut

(c) Forging burst

(d) Slag inclusion

38
 1.2.5 Magnetic Particles Testing Level 2 (MT-2) Specific
Examination

1. Demagnetization, ASTM E709-95

recommends a coil of ampere-turns:

(a) 1000 to 3000

(b) 3000 to 5000

(c) 5000 to 10000

(d) 10000 to 15000

2. According to ASTM E709-95 when

dry particles are used magnetic particle
testing shall not be performed on the
surface of parts whose temperature
exceeds:

(a) 57ºC

(b) 79ºC

(c) 158ºC

(d) 136ºC
3. According to ASTM E709-95 in using
prod technique, prod spacing shall not
exceed:

(a) 50 mm

(b) 100 mm

(c) 150 mm

(d) 200 mm

4. According to ASTM E709-95, the UV

intensity shall not be less than:

(a) 600 µW/cm2

(b) 700 µW/cm2

(c) 800 µW/cm2

(d) 900 µW/cm2

5. According to ASTM E709-95 in using

prod technique on a 50 mm thickness
plate with a prod spacing of 101 mm
(4 inches), current shall be selected in
39
 the following range:

(a) 300-450 A

(b) 400-500 A

(c) 500-625 A

(d) 550-700 A

6. According to ASMT E709-95

alternating current electromagnetic
yokes should give a lifting force of at
least:

(a) 1.5 kg

(b) 2.5 kg

(c) 3.5 kg

(d) 4.5 kg

7. According to ASTM E709-95 direct

current electromagnetic yokes should
have a lifting force of at least:

(a) 15 kg

(b) 16 kg

(c) 17 kg

(d) 18 kg
8. According to ASTM E709-95 the UV
light shall be centred on (1 Å = 10-10m):

(a) 3000 Å

(b) 3250 Å

(c) 3400 Å

(d) 3650 Å

9. According to ASTM E709-95 when fluorescent particles are used, the UV light
intensity shall be above:

(a) 700 µW/cm2

(b) 800 µW/cm2

(c) 900 µW/cm2

(d) 1000 µW/cm2

40
10. According to ASTM E709-95 when fluorescent particles are used, the bulb shall be
warmed up prior to use for at least:

(a) 1 min

(b) 2 min

(c) 3 min

(d) 4 min

(e) 5 min

11. According to ASTM E709-95 with

prod technique, the prods shall be
tipped if the open circuit voltage is
over:
(a) 10 V
(b) 15 V
(c) 20 V
(d) 25 V

12. According to ASME Section VIII, a

linear indication is defined as an
indication in which the length is equal
to or greater than the width by a factor
of:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
13. According to ASTM E709-95 the
viscosity limit (measured in centi
Stokes) of the wet medium
(conditioned water) should not exceed:

(a) 1 cSt

(b) 3 cSt

(c) 6 cSt

(d) 4 cSt

14. According to ASTM E709-95 when

applying fluorescent magnetic particles
technique, the operator shall be in
darkness area at least prior to

41
 examination:

(a) 2 min

(b) 3 min

(c) 4 min

(d) 5 min

15. According to ASTM E709-95 the

alkalinity of conditioned water shall not
exceed:

(a) 10.0 pH

(b) 10.5 pH

(c) 11.0 pH

(d) 11.5 pH

16. According to ASTM E709-95, with

wet continuous magnetization
technique, the duration of
magnetization current is of the order
of:

(a) 0.5 sec

(b) 1.0 sec

(c) 1.5 sec

(d) 2.0 sec

17. According to ASTM E709-95 in using

prods having a spacing of 19 mm (3/4
inches) and above, the magnetizing
current shall be:

(a) From 90 to 110 A/25 mm (1 inch)

(b) From 100 to 125 A/25 mm (1 inch)

(c) From 90 to 120 A/ 25 mm (1 inch)

(d) From 100 to 200 A/25 mm (1 inch)

18. According to ASTM E709-95 powder
shall be applied upon the part to be
tested in such a manner that:

(a) A light uniform coating is formed

(b) In excess coating

42
(c) All of the above

(d) None of the above

19. According to ASTM E709-95 before

turning off current and examination,
dry powder in excess shall be:

(a) Removed by a dry-air current

(b) Kept in place

(c) All of the above

(d) None of the above

20. According to ASTM E709-95

demagnetization can be performed by:

(a) Decreasing alternating current

(b) Reversing direct current

(c) All of the above

(d) None of the above

(e)

(f)

43
 1.2.6 Magnetic Particle Testing Level 2 (MT-2) Answers to
Questions

Magnetic Particle Testing Level 2 Answers to Questions

General Examination Specific Examination
35 35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
10 44 10
11 45 11
12 46 12
13 47 13
14 48 14
15 49 15
16 50 16
17 51 17
18 52 18
19 53 19
20 54 20
21 55 21
22 56 22
23 57 23
24 58 24
25 59 25
26 60 26
27 61 27
28 62 28
29 63 29
30 64 30
31 65 31
32 66 32
33 67 33
34 34

44
1.3 Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2)

1.3.1 Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2) General Examination

1. Increasing the kV setting on an X ray

machine increases the:

(a) Penetrating power

(b) Short wavelength components of the X ray beam

(c) Radiation intensity

(d) All of the above

2. During the manufacturing of a casting, the

purpose of a riser is:

(a) To introduce molten metal into the mould

(b) To provide additional molten metal to allow for shrinkage during solidification

(c) To allow excess heat to escape during solidification

(d) To provide a vent for excess steam to escape

3. An effective method of recognising a film

artifact is:

(a) Viewing a film in daylight

(b) Viewing film in reflected light from a viewer

(c) Comparing both film shot with a double film technique

(d) All of the above

4. The main reason for using a casting is

that:

(a) Castings are stronger than other metal product forms

(b) Castings are normally of higher quality than other metal product forms

(c) Complex shapes of minimum weight are easily manufactured

(d) None of the above

5. A change in which of the following

parameters would require a new X ray
exposure chart?

(a) kV

(b) Required film density

45
 (c) Test piece thickness

(d) All of the above

46
 6. Static marks on radiographic film are
caused by:

(a) An improperly grounded X ray tube

(b) Scratches on the lead screens

(c) Poor film handling technique

(d) Old film

7. Of the following radiographic sources,

which emits the most penetrating
radiation?

(a) Co-60

(b) Ra-226

(c) Cs-137

(d) Ir-192

8. Which of the following techniques

would probably reduce the amount
of back scattered radiation reaching
the film during a radiographic
exposure?

(a) Using a finer grained film

(b) Backing the cassette with a sheet of lead

(c) Removing lead screens

(d) All of the above

9. Radiographic contrast is dependant on:

(a) Density

(b) Processing

(c) Radiation energy

(d) All of the above

10. A plot of film density versus log of

relative exposure is called:

(a) An H&D curve

(b) A sensitometric curve

(c) A characteristic curve

47
 (d) All of the above

48
 11. The most common material used for
targets in X ray tubes is:

(a) Tungsten

(b) Copper

(c) Silver

(d) Beryllium

12. A dark crescent shaped spot, clearly

in the base metal adjacent to a weld
would probably be:

(a) Burn through

(b) Film crimp mark

(c) A crack

(d) A water spot on the film

13. Which of the following are potential

sources of scattered radiation?

(a) Test piece

(b) Cassette

(c) Floor

(d) All of the above

14. If the required exposure time for a

2220 GBq (60 curie) Ir-192 source is
2 minutes, what exposure time would
be required at 1110 GBq (30 curie)
source:

(a) 2/3 minutes

(b) 60 minutes

(c) 2 minutes

(d) 4 minutes

15. An advantage of a larger grain film is:

(a) It has higher speed

(b) It has better definition

(c) It has lower speed

49
 (d) None of the above

50
 16. How does radiation intensity change with
increasing distance from the source?

(a) Inversely with distance

(b) Inversely with the square of distance

(c) Directly with distance

(d) Directly with the square of distance

17. A weld discontinuity which consists of

unmelted joint surfaces at the root, and
which may be caused by poor fit- up, is
called:

(a) Hot short cracking

(b) A slag inclusion

(c) Incomplete penetration

(d) Burn through

18. Mottling due to X ray diffraction can be

identified by:

(a) Noting a large change between two

successive exposures with the test piece
rotated slightly about the beam axis

(b) Noting a slight change between two

successive exposures with the test piece
rotated slightly about the beam axis

(c) Noting a characteristic pattern corresponding to the lattice spacing

(d) None of the above

19. Which of the following welding

discontinuities would be considered the
most serious?

(a) Porosity

(b) Incomplete penetration

(c) Crack

(d) Slag inclusions

20. A depression at the edge of a weld

where the base metal has been
melted during welding is called:

(a) Burn through

51
 (b) Undercut

(c) Root concavity

(d) Root convexity

52
 21. Which of the following would not be
considered a film artifact?

(a) Sugar

(b) Chemical streaks

(c) PI lines

(d) Pressure marks

22. Gamma ray or high voltage X ray

radiography, using film without lead
screens, is likely to result in:

(a) Mottling of the film

(b) Increased geometric unsharpness

(c) No apparent difference, but increased exposure time

(d) No apparent difference, but decreased exposure time

23. Which of the following would be

detrimental to radiographic image
sharpness?

(a) Small focal spot

(b) Small film focal distance

(c) Small object to film distance

(d) None of the above

24. A change in which the following

parameters would require a new X
ray exposure chart?

(a) kV

(b) X ray machine

(c) Test piece thickness

(d) All of the above

25. If the required exposure time for a

1850 GBq (50 curie) Ir-192 source is
4 minutes, what exposure time would
be required for 925 GBq (25 curie)
source:

(a) 4 minutes

(b) 8 minutes
53
 (c) 2 minutes

(d) 16 minutes

54
 26. A radiograph is made using film X
with an exposure of 10 mA-min. Film
density obtained in the area of interest
is 1.0. If it is desired to achieve a
density of 2.0 in the area of interest,
what exposure is required? (Log
relative exposure = 1.1 for a density of
1.0 and 1.62 for a density of 2.0)

(a) 41.67 mA-min

(b) 10 mA-min

(c) 12.6 mA-min

(d) 33.1 mA-min

27. The least offensive of the following

welding discontinuities would probably
be:

(a) Incomplete penetration

(b) Lack of fusion

(c) Slag inclusions

(d) Porosity

28. A quantity calculated by the formula,

0.693/(decay constant), is called:

(a) Half value layer

(b) Mass attenuation constant

(c) Half-life

(d) Specific activity

29. The density difference displayed from

one area of a film radiograph to another
is called:

(a) Subject contrast

(b) Radiographic contrast

(c) Film contrast

(d) Film latitude

30. The half-life of Co-60 is approximately:

(a) 74 days

55
 (b) 129 days

(c) 5.3 years

(d) 30.1 years

56
 31. Increasing the mA setting on an X ray
machine:

(a) Decreases exposure time

(b) Increases exposure time

(c) Increases the short wavelength components of the X ray beam

(d) Decreases the short wavelength components of the X ray beam

32. Which of the following would be

considered a film artifact?

(a) Excessive film density

(b) Light leaks

(c) Inadequate penetration

(d) Sugar

33. Which of the following would be

detrimental to radiographic image
sharpness?

(a) Small focal spot

(b) Large film focal distance

(c) Small object to film distance

(d) None of the above

34. The half-life of Ir-192 is approximately:

(a) 74 days

(b) 129 days

(c) 5.3 years

(d) 30.1 years

35. A dark crescent shaped mark in the

centre of a weld bead radiographic
image would probably be:

(a) A film artifact

(b) Porosity

(c) A tungsten inclusion

(d) Root concavity

57
 36. A photon-nuclear interaction in which
energy is converted into sub-atomic
particles is called:

(a) The photoelectric effect

(b) The Compton effect

(c) Pair production

(d) Bremsstrahlung

37. An interaction in which radiation is

produced by the rapid deceleration of
an electron is called:

(a) The photoelectric effect

(b) The Compton effect

(c) Pair production

(d) Bremsstrahlung

38. The gamma factor of Tm-170 is:

(a) 1.37 R·h-1·Ci-1 at one metre

(b) 0.59 R·h-1·Ci-1 at one metre

(c) 0.0062 R·h-1·Ci-1 at one metre

(d) 0.38 R·h-1·Ci-1 at one metre

39. An exposed radiographic film which

transmits 1% of the light incident on it
has what density:

(a) 1.0

(b) 2.0

(c) 99.0

(d) 0.5

40. If the radiation intensity is 5 Gy/h (500

R/h) at a distance of 152.4 cm (5 feet)
from a source, what is the intensity at
1524 cm (50 feet)?

(a) 0.5 Gy/h (50 R/h)

(b) 1.0 Gy/h (100 R/h)

(c) 0.1 Gy/h (10 R/h)

58
(d) 0.05 Gy/h (5 R/h)

59
 1.3.2 Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2) Specific Examination

1. Contrast and definition are the two

major factors that determine the of
the radiograph:

(a) Density

(b) Sensitivity

(c) Graininess

(d) Intensity

2. Scatter radiation:

(a) Is not controllable

(b) Is controllable to some extent, but cannot be completely eliminated

(c) Can be eliminated completely by changing the kV

(d) Can be eliminated completely by using lead intensifying screens

3. Which of the following factors will affect
the definition of the radiographic image?

(a) Intensity of radiation

(b) Film density

(c) Tube current

(d) Focal spot size

4. Slow films:

(a) Give better definition than fast films

(b) Are faster than fast films

(c) Require shorter exposure times than fast films

(d) Usually have less contrast than fast films

5. Contrast is defined as the comparison

between on different areas of
the radiograph:

(a) Density

(b) Sensitivity

(c) Sharpness

(d) Latitude
60