I.

SPERMIOGENESIS, OOGENESIS
1. Choose the three correct statements!
A. In the fifth month of prenatal development, the total number of female germ cells in
the ovary is approx. 7 million.
B. In the fifth month of prenatal development, the total number of female germ cells in
the ovary is approx. 2 million.
C. During childhood, most oocytes become atretic; fewer than 500 will be ovulated.
D. At puberty, the total number of female germ cells in the ovary is approx. 400.
E. At birth, the total number of female germ cells in the ovary is significantly lower than
in the fifth month of prenatal development.

2. Choose the only correct statement!

A. The process of spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis takes approx. 74 days.
B. The process of spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis takes approx. 4 days.
C. The process of spermatogenesis takes approx. 36 days, the spermiogenesis takes
approx. 64 days.
D. The process of spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis takes approx. 100 day.
E. The process of spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis shows individual variation.

3. Choose the only correct statement!

A. The viability of sperm cell is 1-2 days.
B. The viability of sperm cell is 4-5 days.
C. The viability of sperm cell is 1-2 weeks.
D. The viability of sperm cell is 15 days.
E. The viability of sperm cell is 4 weeks.

4. Choose the only correct statement!

A. The viability of oocyte is 24 hours.
B. The viability of oocyte is 2 hours.
C. The viability of oocyte is 4 hours.
D. The viability of oocyte is 10 days.
E. The viability of oocyte is 30-40 hours.

5. Choose the two correct statements!

A. The average ejaculate of semen contains 1-2 million/mL.
B. The average ejaculate of semen has a volume of about 3 mL.
C. The average ejaculate of semen has a volume of about 1 mL.
D. The average ejaculate of semen contains 100 000/mL.
E. The average ejaculate of semen contains 40-100 million/mL.

6. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The semen contains prostaglandins.
B. The semen contains fructose.
C. In the semen, the ATP and the fructose are the source of energy for the sperm cells.
D. In the semen, the ATP is the source of energy for the sperm cells.
E. In the semen, the fructose is the source of energy for the sperm cells.

1
7. Choose the four correct statements!
A. Gametogenesis is the process whereby the germ cells are converted into male and
female gametes.
B. Gametogenesis includes the reduction of number of chromosomes and
cytodifferentiation.
C. During the fourth week of embryonic period, the primordial germ cells migrate from
the yolk to the developing gonads.
D. During the gametogenesis the primordial germ cell are formed in the wall of the yolk
sac.
E. During the second week of embryonic period, the primordial germ cells are formed in
the epiblast, then move through the primitive streak and migrate to the wall of the yolk
sac.

8. Choose the only correct statement!

A. Oogenesis is the process whereby the primary oocyte and the first polar body are
formed.
B. Oogenesis begins at the puberty.
C. Oogenesis is the process whereby the oogonia are converted into mature oocytes.
D. Oogenesis is the process whereby the primordial germ cells develop into oogonia.
E. The oogenesis begins after birth.

9. Choose the two correct statements!

A. Spermatogenesis is the process whereby the spermatogonia are converted into
spermatids.
B. Spermatogenesis begins at birth, the Type A dark spermatogonium divides to form the
primary spermatocyte.
C. Spermatogenesis begins before birth, the Type A pale spermatogonium divides to form
the primary spermatocyte.
D. Spermatogenesis begins at the puberty, the Type A dark spermatogonium divide to
form the Type A pale spermatogonia.
E. Spermatogenesis begins at the puberty, the Type A pale spermatogonium divide to
form the spermatid.

10. Choose the cells of spermatogenesis in sequence! Only one correct answer!
A. Type A dark spermatogonium, Type A pale spermatogonium, Type B spermatogonium,
spermatid, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte.
B. Spermatid, Type A dark spermatogonium, Type A pale spermatogonium, Type B
spermatogonium, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte.
C. Type A pale spermatogonium, primary spermatogonium, primary spermatocyte,
secondary spermatogonium.
D. Type A dark spermatogonium, Type A pale spermatogonium, Type B spermatogonium,
primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatid.
E. Primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, Type A pale spermatogonium, Type B
spermatogonium, spermatid.

11. Choose the three correct statements!

2
 A. Spermiogenesis is the process whereby the secondary spermatocyte is directly
differentiate into sperm cell.
B. Spermiogenesis is the process whereby the spermatids are converted into sperm cells.
C. The acrosome, which is formed during the process of spermiogenesis, contains
enzymes.
D. During the process of spermiogenesis, the nucleus becomes condensed and will be
found in the head of the sperm cell.
E. During the process of spermiogenesis, the nucleus becomes condensed and will be
found in the neck of the sperm cell.

12. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The neck, middle piece, and tail of sperm cells are formed during the process of
spermiogenesis.
B. No cell division occurs during the process of spermiogenesis.
C. Sperm cells may remain viable in the female reproductive tract for several days.
D. During the process of spermiogenesis, the division of a spermatid results in two sperm
cells.
E. Spermiogenesis includes mitotic and meiotic cell divisions.

13. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The primordial germ cells, arriving at a gonad of a genetic female, differentiate into
oogonia, and then these cells start the mitotic cell divisions.
B. The primordial germ cells, arriving at a gonad of a genetic female, differentiate into
oogonia, and then these cells start the meiotic cell divisions.
C. By the end of the third month of intrauterine life, the oogonia are arranged in clusters
and surrounded by simple squamous epithelium, which originate from the covering
epithelium of ovary.
D. Oogonia differentiate into primary oocytes and they start the meiosis I after birth.
E. During the intrauterine life the oogonia differentiate into primary oocytes, than shortly
thereafter they begin meiosis I and remain arrested in its prophase.

14. Choose the three correct statements!

A. After birth, the primordial follicle consists of the primary oocyte surrounded by simple
squamous epithelium.
B. After birth, the primordial follicle consists of one primary oocyte arrested in the
prophase of second meiotic division and the surrounding simple squamous epithelium.
C. During the intrauterine life, a large number of oogonia and primary oocyte degenerate
and become atretic.
D. During the intrauterine life, the number of the primary oocytes remains constant.
E. By the seventh month of embryonic life, the majority of oogonia become atretic.

15. Choose the only correct statement!

A. The first meiotic division of femal gametogenesis begins in the days immediately
preceding ovulation
B. The first meiotic division of femal gametogenesis begins at the time of puberty
C. The first meiotic division of femal gametogenesis begins during the embryonic life

3
 D. The first meiotic division of femal gametogenesis begins in the middle of ovarian
cycle
E. The first meiotic division of femal gametogenesis begins at the time of birth

16. Choose the only correct statement!

A. The first meiotic division of oocyte is completed during the embryonic life.
B. The first meiotic division of oocyte is completed before ovulation
C. The first meiotic division of oocyte is completed at the time of birth
D. The first meiotic division of oocyte is completed at the time of puberty
E. The first meiotic division of oocyte is completed immediately after ovulation

17. Choose the two correct statements!

A. Soon after birth, the secondary oocyte is in the prophase of first meiotic division.
B. Soon after birth, the primary oocyte is in the prophase of first meiotic division.
C. Soon before birth, the secondary oocyte is in the prophase of the second meiotic
division.
D. The first polar body is already present at birth.
E. Completion of meiosis I results in formation of two daughter cells of unequal size, one
of them is the first polar body.

18. Choose the only correct statement!

A. The first meiotic division of oocyte results in the secondary oocyte and the first polar
body
B. The first meiotic division of oocyte results in the secondary oocyte and the second
polar body
C. The first meiotic division of oocyte results in two primary oocytes
D. The first meiotic division of oocyte results in two secondary
oocytes The first meiotic division of oocyte does not result in
polar body

19. Choose the two correct statements!

A. The second meiotic division of oocyte is completed immediately after entry of the
sperm cell.
B. The second meiotic division of oocyte is completed immediately before entry of the
sperm cell.
C. The second meiotic division of oocyte results in the mature oocyte and the second
polar body
D. The second meiotic division of oocyte is completed immediately after the
ovulation
E. The second meiotic division of oocyte results in two secondary oocyte

20. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The second polar body is also known as female pronucleus
B. The female pronucleus appears after completion of second meiotic
division
C. Chromosomes of mature oocyte arrange themselves into female
pronucleus

4
 D. The female pronucleus appears before the entrance of sperm cell into the
oocyte
E. The cortical and zona reaction prevent the polyspermy.

21. Choose the THREE correct statements!

A. Sertoli cells appear after puberty in the seminiferous
tubules.
B. Primordial germ cells originate from the epiblast.
C. At birth, there are oogonia in the ovarian follicles.
D. After birth, spermatogonia do not divide until puberty.
E. Testosterone in the testes is produced by the Leydig’s cells.
22. Choose the THREE correct statements!
A. The sperm head is followed by the mitochondria-rich neck, and after this the centrioles
are found in the initial part of the tail.
B. The epithelium of the primary ovarian follicle is a single cuboidal epithelium.
C. The primordial follicle contains a primary oocyte which is in the prophase of the first
meiotic division.
D. The sperm cells remain viable in the female reproductive tract for up to 72 hours.
E. The zona pellucida surrounding the oocyte surface is produced by the oocyte and
granulosa cells.

23. Choose the THREE correct statements!

A. The secondary oocyte completes the second meiotic division only after fertilization.
B. Estrogen is produced by the cells of the cumulus oophorus.
C. The ovarian follicle is called the tertiary follicle after the antrum has appeared.
D. The maturation of follicles is accompanied by an increasing production of estrogen.
E. The maturation of the follicles is accompanied by the increasing production of
progesterone.

24. Choose the TWO correct statements!

A. The ovary and the testis are collectively called the gametes.
B. In women, gametogenesis is completed before birth.
C. Spermatids are rounded in shape and have a haploid genome.
D. Spermatogonia divide exclusively by mitosis.
E. The second meiotic division of the oocyte is completed during the ovulation.

25. Choose the TWO correct statements!

A. For proper fertilisation, the number of sperm cells in the ejaculate reaches 40-100
million/mL.
B. In the Graffian follicle, the cells of the cumulus oophorus produce progesterone.
C. In the female reproductive tract, sperm cells can survive for several days.
D. The secondary oocyte can be fertilised up to 72 hours after ovulation.
E. Ovulation is caused by a sudden rise in FSH level in the blood.

26. Choose the TWO correct statements!

A. The ovaries of newborn girls contain primary ovarian follicles.
B. FSH induces the follicular epithelial cells to become theca interna.

5
 C. A metamorphosis occurs during spermiogenesis.
D. The acrosome is located at the head end of the sperm and contains an enzyme-rich
cytoplasm.
E. As the final step in spermiogenesis, the sperm cells gain motility in the seminiferous
tubules.

27. Choose the ONLY correct statement!

A. The first meiotic division of oogenesis occurs in the secondary follicle.
B. Cytoplasmic bridges formed during spermatogenesis allow developing cells to
exchange their Y chromosomes.
C. The process of spermato- and spermiogenesis takes about 74 days.
D. The first polar body has a haploid genome.
E. The oocyte maturation inhibitor is produced by the cells of theca interna.

28-Choose the ONLY correct statement!

A. By puberty, the number of primordial follicles in the two ovaries is reduced to about 4
million.
B. Actin filaments in the sperm flagellum ensure motility of these cells.
C. Granulosa cells are derived from follicular epithelial cells during oogenesis.
D. In men, LH stimulates spermatogenesis via Sertoli cells.
E. The zona pellucida is a modified membrana basalis around the oocyte.

29. Choose the ONLY correct statement!

A. The cells of the corona radiata originate from the theca folliculi.
B. The corpus luteum produces mainly estrogen.
C. The zona pellucida is rich in hyaluronic acid.
D. Primary spermatocytes appear in the seminiferous tubules before birth.
E. Spermatozoa gain their motility during capacitation.

30. Choose the ONLY correct statement!

A. The corona radiata is formed by the granulosa cells of the cumulus oophorus.
B. The corpus luteum is formed after ovulation from the cells of the internal and external
theca of the follicle.
C. Testosterone is produced by the Sertoli cells in the testes.
D. The primary oocyte remains fertile for about 24 hours after
ovulation.
E. The primary product of the corpus luteum is hCG.

31. Choose the two correct statements!

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 A. The structure is a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, the arrow shows the cumulus
oophorus, which contains the tertiary oocyte.
B. The structure is a Graafian/vesicular/mature/tertier follicle, the arrow shows the
cumulus oophorus.
C. The structure is a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, the arrow shows the cumulus
oophorus, the innermost cells of which form the corona radiata.
D. The structure is a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, the arrow shows the theca interna.
E. The structure is a secondary follicle, the arrow shows the theca interna.

32. Choose the two correct statements!

A. The structure is a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, the red arrow shows the cumulus
oophorus, which contains the primary oocyte in the prophase of first mitotic division.
B. The structure is a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, the red arrow shows the cumulus
oophorus.
C. The structure is a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle; the red arrow shows the cumulus
oophorus, which contains the primary oocyte arrested in the prophase of first meiotic
division.
D. The structure is a secondary follicle, the red arrow shows the cumulus oophorus,
which protrudes into the cavity of follicle.
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 E. The structure is a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, the red arrow shows the theca
interna, which contains the primary oocyte in the prophase of first mitotic division.

33. Choose the two correct statements!

A. The structure is a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, the red circle represents the cell
membrane of the oocyte.
B. The structure is a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, the red circle represents the zona
pellucida.
C. During the ovulation, the zona pellucida is not extruded from the
Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle.
D. The zona pellucida is composed of squamous cells.
E. During the ovulation, the zona pellucida is extruded from the Graafian/vesicular/tertier
follicle.

34. Choose the two correct statements!

A. The structure is a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, the red arrow shows the theca
interna, which is loceted between the membrana granulosa and theca externa.
B. The structure is a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, the red arrow shows the theca
externa.
C. The structure is a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, the red arrow shows the membrana
granulosa, which is bordered by the theca interna.

8
 D. The structure is a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, the red arrow shows the theca
interna.
E. The structure is a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, the red arrow shows the corona
radiata.

35. Choose the two correct statements!

A. The red arrow shows the cavity/antrum of a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, which is

filled with follicular fluid.
B. The red arrow shows the cavity/antrum of a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, which is
bordered by the membrana granulosa.
C. The red arrow shows the cavity/antrum of a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, which is
filled with oxygenated blood.
D. The red arrow shows the cavity/antrum of a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, which is
bordered by the theca interna.
E. The red arrow shows the cavity/antrum of a Graafian/vesicular/tertier follicle, which
appears in the the primary follicle.
36. Choose the three correct statements related to the red line segment!

A. The structure is the head of the sperm/spermatozoon, which is rich in

mitochondria.
B. The structure is the head of the sperm/spermatozoon, which does not contain
acrosomal enzymes.
C. The structure is the head of the sperm/spermatozoon, which contains the sperm
nucleus.
D. The structure is the head of the sperm/spermatozoon, which contains the sperm
nucleus and the acrosome.

9
 E. The structure is the head of the sperm/spermatozoon, which contains acrosomal
enzymes.

37. Choose the only correct statement related to the red line segment!

A. The structure is the neck of the sperm/spermatozoon, which is rich in mitochondria.

B. The structure is the neck of the sperm/spermatozoon, which is located between the
head and middle piece.
C. The structure is the neck of the sperm/spermatozoon, which is rich in proteolytic
enzymes.
D. The structure is the neck of the spermatid, which is located between the head and
middle piece.
E. The structure is the neck of the spermatid, which is located between the head and tail.

38. Choose the only correct statement related to the red line segment!

A. The structure is the middle piece of the sperm/spermatozoon, which does not contain
mitochondria.
B. The structure is the middle piece of the sperm/spermatozoon, which contains
proteolytic enzymes for the fertilazation.
C. The structure is the middle piece of spermatid, which is rich in mitochondria.
D. The structure is the middle piece of the spermatid, which is located between the head
and tail. the notochord.
E. The structure is the middle piece of the sperm/spermatozoon, which is located between
the neck and tail.

II. FERTILIZATION AND CLEAVAGE

39. Choose the three correct statements!
A. Only the capacitated sperm cell is able to pass through the corona radiata
B. The acrosome reaction occurs in the testis
C. The acrosome reaction occurs in the cavity of uterus
D. The acrosome reaction allows sperm to penetrate the zona pellucida
E. The acrosome reaction results in the release of enzymes

40. Choose the only correct statement!

10
 A. The acrosome reaction results in release of acrosin and trypsin-like substance from the
sperm cell
B. The acrosome reaction results in release of acrosin and trypsin-like substance from the
zona pellucida
C. The acrosome reaction results in release of trypsin-like substance from the oocyte
D. The acrosome reaction results in release of acrosin from the oocyte
E. The acrosome reaction results in release of cortical granules from the polar bodies

41. Which of the following processes prevents the polyspermy? One correct answer.
A. As soon as the sperm cell has entered the oocyte, it starts to produce proteolytic
enzymes.
B. As soon as the sperm cell has entered the oocyte, the zona pellucida begins to secrete
acrosin.
C. As a result of zona reaction, the oocyte begins to secrete acrosin.
D. As a result of release of lysosomal enzymes from the cortical granules of oocyte, the
oocyte membrane becomes impermeable to other sperm cells.
E. As a result of zona reaction, the oocyte and sperm cell begin to secrete acrosin.

42. Choose the four correct statements!

A. The syncytiotrophoblast release proteolytic enzymes which help the implantation.
B. The syncytiotrophoblast is the innermost layer of the late blastocyst
C. Lacunae of syncytiotrophoblast contain maternal blood.
D. The syncytiotrophoblast contributes to the formation of placenta
E. The syncytiotrophoblast is the outermost layer of the late
blastocyst

43. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The outer layer of the blastocyst is the trophoblast, which gives rise to the
cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast layers.
B. The cytotrophoblast is the inner, mononuclear part of the blastocyst.
C. The syncytiotrophoblast is the outer, multinucleated part of the
blastocyst.
D. The syncytiotrophoblast is the inner, multinucleated part of the
blastocyst.
E. The cytotrophoblast is the outer, mononuclear part of the blastocyst.

44. Choose the two correct statements!

A. The developing blastocyst is surrounded by the extraembryonic mesoderm.
B. The cavity of blastocyst is the blastocoel, which contains amniotic fluid.
C. The cavity of blastocyst is the blastocel, which is filled with fetal blood.
D. During the formation of morula, two groups of cells are formed: the inner one of the
two groups of cells is called embryoblast cells.
E. During the formation of morula, two groups of cells are formed: the outer one of the
two groups of cells is called trophoblast cells.

45. Choose the only correct statement!

11
 A. During cleavage, the zygote divides with meiois, and the subsequent meioses results in
the formation of morula and than the blastocyst.
B. During cleavage, the secondary oocyte divides with mitosis, and the subsequent
mitoses results in the formation of morula and than the blastocyst.
C. During cleavage, the zygote divides with mitosis, and the subsequent mitoses results
in the formation of morula and than the blastocyst.
D. During cleavage, the zygote divides with mitosis, and the subsequent mitoses results
in the formation of two polar bodies.
E. During cleavage, the secondary oocyte divides with mitosis, and the subsequent
mitoses results in the formation of definitive oocyte and one polar body.

46. Choose the four correct statements!

A. The primitive yolk sac is bordered by the epiblast layer and the exocoelomic (Heuser)
membrane
B. The extraembryonic coelom is bordered by the extraembryonic somatic and splanchnic
mesoderm
C. The extraembryonic coelom is found in the early extraembryonic
mesoderm
D. The amniotic cavity is bordered by the epiblast layer and amnioblasts.
E. The chorionic cavity is located outer to the primitive yolk sac and the amniotic
cavity

12
III. GASTRULATION, EARLY DEVELOPMENT OF THE
MESODERM
47. Choose the three correct statements!
A. Gastrulation is the process whereby the three germ layers are established.
B. Gastrulation is the process whereby the stomach is established.
C. Gastrulation begins with formation of primitive streak.
D. The process of gastrulation occurs during the third week of gestation.
E. The first step of the gastrulation is the formation of primitive pit.

48. Choose the three correct statements!

A. Gastrulation is the process whereby the ectoderm, endoderm and the mesoderm are
established.
B. Gastrulation is the process whereby the epiblast and hypoblast are formed.
C. Gastrulation is the process whereby the epiblast and amnion are formed.
D. The process of gastrulation, which occurs during the third week of gestation, results in
the formation of the three germ layers.
E. Gastrulation begins with formation of primitive streak, which is formed on the surface
of the epiblast.

49. Choose the three correct statements!

A. All of the germ layers derive from the epiblast.
B. The primitive streak starts to form in the caudal region of the embryo.
C. The primitive streak appears before the formation of the notochord.
D. The primitive streak plays a role in the establishment of mediolateral axis of the
embryo.
E. The nervous system develops directly from the primitive streak.

50. Choose the only correct statement!

A. Mesoderm is synonymous with mesenchyme.
B. Mesoderm develops from the hypoblast.
C. Mesoderm can develop either from the hypoblast or epiblast.
D. Mesenchyme develops exclusively from the mesoderm cells.
E. Mesenchyme refers to loosely organized embryonic connective tissue regardless of its
origin.
51. Choose the three correct statements!
A. The primitive node is the cephalic end of the primitive streak surrounding the
primitive pit.
B. Detached cells of the epiblast give rise to the endoderm and mesoderm.
C. During the process of gastrulation, all of the germ layers derive from the epiblast.
D. During the process of gastrulation the endoderm develops by the transformation of
hypoblast cells.
E. During the process of gastrulation the notochord develops from the mesoderm.

52. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The primitive streak is formed on the surface of ectoderm.

13
 B. The primitive streak is formed on the surface of the epiblast.
C. During the process of gastrulation, which appears between the epiblast and hypoblast,
migrate only in lateral direction.
D. During the process of gastrulation, detached cells of the epiblast migrate along the
primitive streak and through the node and appear between the epiblast and hypoblast.
E. Detached cells of epiblast, soon after they appear between the epiblast and hypoblast,
begin to spread laterally and cranially and establish contact with the extraembryonic
mesoderm.

53. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The neurenteric canal is a temporary connection between the amniotic and yolk sac
cavities.
B. The neurenteric canal is involved in the formation of digestive
system.
C. The neurenteric canal is involved in the formation of nervous
system.
D. During the formation of notochord, its cranial end develops first.
E. The notochord serves as the basis for the development of axial skeleton.

54. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The oropharyngeal membrane contains only ectoderm and endoderm without
intervening mesoderm.
B. The oropharyngeal membrane is located in the caudal end of the embryo.
C. The oropharyngeal membrane is a temporary structure, which separates the
stomodeum (= primitive oral cavity) from the primitive gut.
D. Rupture of the oropharyngeal membrane establishes connection between the amniotic
cavity and primitive gut.
E. Rupture of the oropharyngeal membrane establishes connection between the amniotic
and yolk sac cavity.
55. Choose the four correct statements!
A. The hindgut terminates temporarily at an ectodermal– endodermal membrane, the
cloacal membrane, with no intervening mesoderm.
B. When the cloacal membrane appears, the allantois or allantoenteric diverticulum is
also formed that extends into the connecting stalk.
C. The outpocketing of the dorsal wall of neural tube is the allantois or
allantoenteric diverticulum, which later becomes obliterated.
D. The outpocketing of the yolk sac in the caudal part of embryo is the allantois or
allantoenteric diverticulum, which later becomes obliterated.
E. Differentiation of three germ layers begin at the caudal part of the embryo

56. Choose the three correct statements!

14
 A. The arrow shows the cloacal membrane, which is located at the cranial/cephalic end of
embryonic plate.
B. The blue color represents the epiblast; the arrow shows the
buccopharyngeal/oropharyngeal membrane.
C. The blue color represents the dorsal surface of the epiblast from the direction of
opened yolk sac.
D. The blue color represents the dorsal surface of the epiblast from the direction of
opened amniotic cavity.
E. The arrow shows the buccopharyngeal/oropharyngeal membrane, which is located at
the cranial/cephalic end of embryonic plate.

57. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The blue color represents the epiblast; the structure labeled with black arrow is the
buccopharyngeal/oropharyngeal membrane.
B. The structure labeled with red arrow is the primitive streak; the structure labeled with
black arrow is the buccopharyngeal/oropharyngeal membrane.
C. The blue color represents the dorsal surface of the epiblast from the direction of
opened amniotic cavity.
D. The structure labeled with red arrow is the cloacal membrane; the structure labeled
with black arrow is the buccopharyngeal/oropharyngeal membrane.
E. The blue color represents the epiblast; the structure labeled with red arrow is the
cloacal membrane.

58. Choose the two correct statements!

15
 A. The structure labeled with black arrow is the primitive streak; the structure labeled
with red arrow is the cut edge of the amnion.
B. The blue color represents the dorsal surface of the hypoblast; the structure labeled
with black arrow is the primitive streak
C. The blue color represents the dorsal surface of the epiblast; the structure labeled with
red arrow is the cut edge of the amnion.
D. The blue color represents the dorsal surface of the epiblast; the structure labeled with
black arrow is the primitive node.
E. The structure labeled with black arrow is the primitive streak; the structure labeled
with red arrow is the cut edge of the yolk sac.

59. Choose the two correct statements!

A. The picture is a cross section of the embryo; the cells around the arrow give rise to the
myotom.
B. The picture is a sagittal section of the embryo; the cells around the arrow constitute the
myotom.
C. The picture is a cross section of the embryo; the cells around the arrow constitute the
sclerotom.
D. The picture is a cross section of the embryo; the cells around the arrow give rise to the
vertebrae.
E. The picture is a sagittal section of the embryo; the cells around the arrow constitute the
myotom.

16
60. Choose the two correct statements!

A. The picture is a cross section of the embryo; the arrow shows the dermatome.
B. The picture is a sagittal section of the embryo; the arrow shows the intraembryonic
mesenchyme.
C. The picture is a cross section of the embryo; the arrow shows the dermatome which
gives rise to the connective tissue (dermis) of skin on the dorsal side of the embryo.
D. The picture is a cross section of the embryo; the arrow shows the somite.
E. The picture is a sagittal section of the embryo; the arrow shows the
sclerotom.

61. Choose the two correct statements!

A. The picture is a cross section of the embryo; the arrow shows the myotom.
B. The picture is a cross section of the embryo; the arrow shows the sclerotom which
gives rise to bones.
C. The picture is a cross section of the embryo; the arrow shows the somite.
D. The picture is a sagittal section of the embryo; the arrow shows the sclerotom.

17
 E. The picture is a cross section of the embryo; the arrow shows the myotom which gives
rise to muscles.

IV. DIFFERENTIATION OF THE ECTODERM AND

MESODERM
62. Choose the only correct statement!

A. Neurulation is completed by day 10 of embryonic development.

B. Neurulation is completed by day 28 of embryonic development.
C. Neurulation is completed by day 38 of embryonic development.
D. Neurulation is completed by the end of second month of embryonic development.
E. Neurulation is completed by the end of third month of embryonic development.

63. Choose the only correct statement!

A. No permanent structures develop from the placodes.
B. Structures develop form placodes remain on the outer surface of the body.
C. Placode gives rise to the central nervous system.
D. Placodes refer to ectodermal thickenings in the cephalic region of the embryo.
E. Placodes refer to ectodermal thickenings in the posterior body wall.

64. Choose the only correct statement!

A. The notochord induces the overlying endoderm to thicken and form the neural
plate.
B. The notochord induces the overlying ectoderm to thicken and form the neural
plate.
C. The notochord does not have any role in the development of nervous system, it
only contributes to the development of axial skeleton
D. The notochord gives rise to the spinal cord
E. The notochord induces the completion of neural development

65. Choose the two correct statements!

A. The central nervous system develops from the neural tube
B. Part of the peripheral nervous system develops from the neural crest
C. Neurulation refers to the development of brain ventricles
D. Neurulation refers to the development of peripheral nerves
E. Neurulation refers to the development of the notochord and neural plate

66. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The cells of neural crest start to migrate from the wall of the neural tube.
B. The neural tube is derivative of the ectoderm
C. Formation of neural tube is completed by the closure of anterior and posterior
neuropore
D. Formation of neural tube begins with the fusion of neural folds
E. The cavity of neural tube is continuous with the cavity of yolk sac through the anterior
neuropore

67. Choose the three correct statements!

18
 A. The neural crest gives rise to neural and non neural structures
B. There are ganglia which are derived from the neural crest
C. The neural crest cells are formed at the crest of the neural fold and begin to dissociate
from their neighbors and migrate away from this region after the closure of neural tube
is completed
D. The neural crest cells do not migrate to the head
region
E. The neural crest contribute to the formation of
neural tube

68. Which of the structures develop from the neural crest? Choose the three correct
statements!
A. Some of the bones of skull
B. Hypophysis
C. Enamel of the teeth
D. Melanocytes
E. Sympathetic ganglia

69. Which of the structures develop from the ectoderm? Choose the four correct
statements!
A. Epidermis of skin including its glands and nail
B. Cartilage
C. Neurons of central nervous system
D. Enamel of the teeth
E. Sensory epithelium of nose

70. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The first step in the differentiation of mesoderm is the appearance of paraxial,
intermediate and lateral plate mesoderm at both sides of the notochord.
B. The intermediate mesoderm connects the paraxial mesoderm and lateral plate
mesoderm.
C. The cavity which is formed within the lateral plate mesoderm is called intraembryonic
coelom.
D. The bilateral intraembryonic coeloms communicate with each
other.
E. The intraembryonic coelom opens to the amniotic cavity.

71. Choose the four correct statements!

A. In the lateral direction, the intraembryonic coelom is continued into the
extraembryonic coelom.
B. Due to the formation of the intraembryonic coelom, the lateral plate mesoderm
develops into the somatopleura and splanchnopleura.
C. The somatic mesoderm is the other name of the somatopleura.
D. The splanchnopleura is the other name of the splanchnic or visceral
mesoderm.
E. The intraembryonic coelom appears in the paraxial part of the mesoderm.

72. Choose the four correct statements!

19
 A. The extraembryonic coelom appears in the paraxial mesoderm.
B. The somatopleura is continued into the part of extraembryonic mesoderm which
covers the amnion.
C. The splanchnopleura is continued into the part of extraembryonic mesoderm which
covers the yolk sac.
D. As a result of the segmentation of paraxial mesoderm, the newly formed structures in
the head region are called somitomers, and caudally to the occipital region they are
called somites.
E. In the lateral direction, the intraembryonic coelom is continued into the
extraembryonic coelom.

73. Choose the four correct statements!

A. Due to the formation of the intraembryonic coelom, the lateral plate mesoderm
develops into a somatopleura and a splanchnopleura.
B. The first pairs of somites appear in the future occipital region, the new somites appear
in craniocaudal sequence and at the end of fifth week, 42 to 44 pairs are present.
C. Cells at the ventral and medial walls of the somite migrate toward the neural tube and
notochord and form the myotome
D. During the differentiation of somites, small cavity appears inside.
E. Cells at the ventral and medial walls of the somite migrate toward the neural tube and
notochord and form the sclerotome.

74. Choose the three correct statements!

A. Cells, migrate from the ventral and medial walls of the somite form the sclerotome.
B. The vertebrae and ribs develop from the sclerotom.
C. Cells at the dorsomedial and ventrolateral edges of the somite form the
myotom.
D. Cells, migrate from the ventral and medial walls of the somite form the
sclerotome and myotom.
E. Cells at the dorsomedial and ventrolateral edges of the somite form the dermatome,
myotome and sclerotom.

75. Choose the only correct statement!

A. The extraembryonic mesoderm lining the cytotrophoblast and amnion is called the
extraembryonic somatic mesoderm.
B. The extraembryonic mesoderm covering the yolk sac is not continuous with the
somatic or parietal mesoderm.
C. The intermediate mesoderm connects the intra- and extraembryonic mesoderm
D. The paraxial mesoderm connects the intra- and extraembryonic mesoderm
E. The intraembryonic mesoderm differentiates directly into the sclerotom and lateral
plate mesoderm.

76. Choose the only correct statement!

A. The extraembryonic mesoderm covering the amniotic cavity is continuous with the
splanchnic or visceral mesoderm.
B. The extraembryonic mesoderm covering the yolk sac is continuous with the
splanchnic or visceral mesoderm.

20
 C. No permanent structures develop from the intermediate mesoderm
D. The nephrotomes develop from the paraxial mesoderm
E. All bones of the skull develop directly from the intermediate mesoderm.

77. Choose the four correct statements!

A. The splanchnic or visceral layer of lateral plate mesoderm is continuous with the
visceral layer of extraembryonic mesoderm covering the yolk sac.
B. The parietal (somatic) layer of lateral plate mesoderm is continuous with the
extraembryonic parietal mesoderm covering the amnion.
C. The myotom develops from the intermediate mesoderm
D. The gonads develop from the intermediate mesoderm.
E. The sclerotome derives from the paraxial mesoderm.

78. Choose the two correct statements in relation to the structure pointed by red arrow!

A. The structure is the neural fold, which develops from the neural plate.
B. The structure is the neural fold, which gives rise to the peripheral nervous system.
C. The structure is the neural fold, which, by fusion of its contralateral pair, contributes to
the closure of the neural tube.
D. The structure is the neural fold, which gives rise to the red bone marrow.
E. The structure is the neural fold, which does not give rise to any permanent structures
in the body.

79. Choose the two correct statements in relation to the structure pointed by red arrow!

21
 A. The arrow shows the neural crest cells, which migrate from the notochord.
B. The arrow shows the cells, which give rise to the somites.
C. The arrow shows the neural crest cells, which develop from the hypoblasts.
D. The arrow shows neural crest cells are formed at the crest of the neural fold and begin
to dissociate from their neighbors and migrate away from this region after the closure
of neural tube is completed.
E. The arrow shows the neural crest cells, which leave their original position by active
migration and contribute to the development of different structures, e.g. some of the
bones of the skull.

80. Choose the only one correct statement!

A. The arrows show the migration pathway of a group of cells, which give rise to the
notochord.
B. The arrows show the migration pathway of a group of cells in the wall of the gut tube,
which give rise to the neural crest.
C. The arrows show the migration pathway of a group of cells, which give rise to the
neural crest.
D. The arrows show the migration pathway of a group of cells, which cells give rise to
the sclerotome.
E. The arrows show the migration pathway of a group of cells in the wall of the gut tube,
which give rise to the ganglia.

22
V. DIFFERENTIATION OF THE ENDODERM AND FOLDING
OF THE EMBRYO
81. Choose the three correct statements!
A. During the folding of the embryo, the head and tail folds as well as the lateral (body
wall) folds move ventrally.
B. As a result of longitudinal growth of the neural tube, the head and tail folds move
ventrally.
C. Parallel to the development and growth of the brain vesicles, the embryonic disc
begins to bulge into the amniotic cavity.
D. Parallel to the development and growth of the brain vesicles, the embryonic disc
begins to bulge into the yolk sac.
E. As a result of ventral movement of the head and tail folds as well as the lateral (body
wall) folds, the ventral body wall closes completely.

82. Choose the two correct statements!

A. Initially, the allantois is found in the connecting stalk; later, its proximal part is
incorporated into the body of the embryo.
B. As a result of ventral movement of the head and tail folds as well as the lateral (body
wall) folds, the ventral body wall closes completely except for the region where the
connecting stalk and yolk sac are found.
C. As a result of ventral movement of the head and tail folds as well as the lateral (body
wall) folds, the ventral body wall closes completely except for the region where the
connecting stalk and neural tube are found.
D. Initially, the allantois is found in the connecting stalk; later, its distal part is
incorporated into the body of the embryo.
E. The allantois and the vitelline duct open to the hindgut.

83. Choose the only correct statement!

A. The allantois appears close to the oropharyngeal (buccopharyngeal)
membrane.
B. The allantois appears in the anterior wall of the yolk sac and does not grow
into the connecting stalk.
C. The allantois appears in the anterior wall of the yolk sac and then grows into the
connecting stalk.
D. The epithelium of primitive gut derives from the ectoderm.
E. The epithelium of primitive gut derives from the endoderm.

84. Choose the only correct statement!

A. The vitelline duct connects the yolk sac and
midgut
B. The vitelline duct connects the allantois and
midgut.
C. The vitelline duct is not accompanied by blood vessels.
D. The vitelline duct connects the hindgut and the yolk sac.
E. The vitelline duct is not present in the primitive umbilical cord

85. Choose the only correct statement!

23
 A. Epithelium of the respiratory system develops from the endoderm.
B. Epithelium of gut tube develops from the ectoderm; cells of the endoderm migrate to
the gut tube in a later stage of development
C. Parenchyma of the liver develops from the mesoderm.
D. Parenchyma of the liver develops from the ectoderm.
E. Epithelium of urinary bladder develops from the mesoderm.

86. Choose the two correct statements!

A. As a result of cephalocaudal and lateral folding of the embryo, the epithelium of
primitive gut develops from the endoderm.
B. The primitive gut is a blind-ending tube, which is divided into foregut, midgut and
hindgut.
C. The hindgut is not present in the primitive gut it develops in a later stage of
development.
D. The epithelium of primitive gut develops from the mesoderm and
endoderm.
E. The epithelium of primitive gut develops from the endoderm and
ectoderm.

87. Choose the two correct statements!

A. The ectodermally lined primitive oral cavity is called stomodeum.
B. The ectodermally lined primitive oral cavity is separated from the ectodermally lined
pharynx by the oropharyngeal (buccopharyngeal) membrane.
C. The ectodermally lined primitive oral cavity is separated from the endodermally lined
pharynx by the oropharyngeal (buccopharyngeal) membrane.
D. The endodermally lined primitive oral cavity is separated from the endodermally lined
pharynx by the oropharyngeal (buccopharyngeal) membrane.
E. The endodermally lined primitive oral cavity is called stomodeum.

88. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The cloacal membrane develops from the mesoderm.
B. Proctodeum, which is the lower part of the anal canal, originates from the ectoderm.
C. Opening for the anus is created by the rupture of cloacal membrane.
D. The upper and lower parts of the anal canal are separated by the cloacal membrane.
E. Proctodeum, which is the lower part of the anal canal, originates from the
endoderm.

89. Choose the two correct statements!

A. The oropharyngeal (buccopharyngeal) membrane breaks down later than the cloacal
membrane.
B. The oropharyngeal (buccopharyngeal) and the cloacal membrane break down
simultaneously.
C. The hindgut terminates temporarily at an ectodermal– endodermal membrane, the
cloacal membrane.
D. The oropharyngeal (buccopharyngeal) membrane breaks down earlier than the cloacal
membrane.
E. The cloacal membrane consists up the ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.

24
90. Choose the only correct statement!
A. The cloacal membrane appears after folding of the embryo.
B. The cloacal membrane appears in the embryonic disc.
C. The cloacal membrane appears in the embryonic disc, the oropharyngeal
(buccopharyngeal) membrane develops during later stages.
D. The oropharyngeal (buccopharyngeal) membrane appears in the embryonic disc, the
cloacal membrane develops during later stages.
E. The cloacal membrane contains mesoderm.

91. Choose the only correct statement!

A. The cloacal membrane is present in the embryonic disc.
B. The oropharyngeal (buccopharyngeal) membrane appears after completion of the
folding of the embryo.
C. The cloacal membrane is found below the proctodeum.
D. The oropharyngeal (buccopharyngeal) membrane is found at the junction of
stomodeum and midgut.
E. The cloacal membrane consists up the mesoderm and endoderm.

92. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The picture is the midsagittal section of an embryo, the white curved arrow shows the
head fold.
B. The picture is the midsagittal section of an embryo and the black curved arrow shows
the tail fold.
C. The picture is the midsagittal section of an embryo, the white and black curved arrows
are located in the extraembryonic cavity.
D. The picture is the midsagittal section of an embryo, the white and black curved arrows
are located in the amniotic cavity.
E. The picture is the midsagittal section of an embryo, the white and black curved arrows
show the lateral (body wall) fold.

93. Choose the two correct statements!

25
 A. The picture is the midsagittal section of an embryo, the arrow shows the amniotic
cavity.
B. The picture is the midsagittal section of an embryo; the arrow shows the yolk
sac.
C. The picture is the cross section of an embryo; the arrow shows the yolk sac.
D. The picture is the cross section of an embryo, the arrow shows the amniotic cavity
which is filled with amniotic fluid.
E. The picture is the midsagittal section of an embryo, the arrow shows the amniotic
cavity which is filled with amniotic fluid.

94. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The arrow shows a cavity which develops into the

foregut.
B. The small intestines develop from the vitelline duct.
C. The picture is the midsagittal section of an embryo, the arrow shows the yolk sac.
D. The arrow shows a cavity which, in a later stage of development, is connected to the
midgut with the vitelline duct.
E. No permanent structure develops from the cavity which is labeled with arrow.

95. Choose the three correct statements!

26
 A. The picture is the midsagittal section of an embryo; the straight arrow shows the
yellow colored allantois.
B. The allantois is found in the primitive umbilical cord.
C. In a later stage of development the lumen of the allantois is obliterated.
D. The picture is the midsagittal section of an embryo; the straight arrow shows the
vitelline duct.
E. The picture is the cross section of an embryo; the straight arrow shows the allantois.

96. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The cavity above the blue color structure is the yolk sac.
B. The nervous system develops from the structure shown in blue color.
C. The epithelium of the skin develops from the structure shown in blue color.
D. The picture is the cross section of an embryo; the blue color structure is the ectoderm.
E. The picture is the midsagittal section of an embryo, the blue color structure is the
ectoderm.

97. Choose the three correct statements!

27
 A. The cavity above the blue color structure is the yolk sac.
B. The picture is the midsagittal section of an embryo, the straight arrow shows the
endoderm seen in yellow color.
C. The picture is the midsagittal section of an embryo, the straight arrow shows the
endoderm seen in yellow color; the endoderm gives rise to the epithelium of primitive
gut.
D. The structure shown in yellow color derives from the epiblast.
E. The straight arrow shows a yellow color structure which derives from the notochord.

VI. FETAL MEMBRANES. EXTRENAL FEATURES OF THE

FETUS. TWINS. MALFORMATIONS.
98. Choose the two correct statements!
A. Both the amnion and chorion develop from maternal tissue.
B. Both the amnion and chorion are in direct contact with the amniotic fluid.
C. The amnion and chorion are fetal membranes.
D. The amnion and chorion develop from embryonic tissue.
E. The fetal membranes start to develop only in the last month of pregnancy.

99. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The amniotic cavity is filled with a clear, watery fluid.
B. The amount of amniotic fluid increases from 30 mL at 10 weeks of gestation to 1000
mL at 37 weeks.
C. The amniotic fluid prevents the adherence of the embryo to the uterus. The amniotic
fluid serves as a protective cushion.
D. The amniotic cavity is filled with amniotic fluid; its volume remains unchanged during
the pregnancy.
E. The fetal urine is present in the amniotic fluid during the total length of
pregnancy.

100. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The fetal period begins in the ninth week of pregnancy and lasts until birth.

28
 B. The age of the embryo may be indicated with the crown-rump length (CRL, sitting
height), which is measured from the vertex of the skull to the midpoint between the
apices of the buttocks.
C. The age of the embryo may be indicated with the crown rump length (CRL, sitting
height), which is measured from the face to the buttocks.
D. The age of the embryo may be indicated with the crown-heel length (CHL, standing
height), which is measured from the vertex of the skull to the heel.
E. The age of the embryo may be indicated with the crown-heel length (CHL, standing
height), which is measured from the vertex of the skull to the midpoint of sole of the
foot.

101. Choose the four correct statements!

A. During the third month of pregnancy, the length of the head is approximately half of
the crown-rump length (CRL, sitting height).
B. During the fifth month of pregnancy, movements of the fetus can be felt by the mother.
C. During the third month of pregnancy, the length of the head is approximately one
fourth of the crown-rump length (CRL, sitting height).
D. The length of pregnancy is considered to be 280 days, or 40 weeks after the onset of
the last normal menstrual period.
E. The length of pregnancy is considered to be 266 days or 38 weeks after fertilization.

102. Choose the three correct statements!

A. During the third month of pregnancy, the eyes move to the ventral aspect of the
face.
B. It is not before of the 12 th week of pregnancy when the external genitalia
develop such a degree that the sex of the fetus can be determined by ultrasound.
C. Primary ossification centers are present in the long bones and skull by the 12 th week of
pregnancy.
D. By the 20th week of pregnancy, the external genitalia develop such a degree that the
sex of the fetus can be determined by ultrasound.
E. During the seventh month of pregnancy, the eyes move to the ventral aspect of the
face.

103. Choose the three correct statements!

A. At birth, the labia majora of mature female newborn do not cover the labia
minora.
B. At birth, the testes of mature male newborn are in the scrotum.
C. At birth, the body weight of mature newborn is at least 2500 g.
D. At birth, the border between the head hair and forehead of the mature newborn is
sharp.
E. At birth, the nails of the mature newborn do not exceed the fingertips.

104. Choose the three correct statements!

A. By the end of intrauterine life, the skin of fetus is covered by the vernix caseosa,
which is the product of sebaceous glands.
B. The lanugo is a fatty substance, which covers the body of the fetus.
C. The lanugo hair is a fine hair which covers the fetus.

29
 D. The age of the fetus can be determined with the biparietal diameter of the skull, which
is determined by ultrasound.
E. At the beginning of pregnancy, the body of the fetus is covered by the vernix caseosa,
which disappears by the middle of the sixth month.

105. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The primitive umbilical ring is an oval line of reflection between the amnion and body
wall.
B. The primitive umbilical ring is found between the amnion and the midgut.
C. The connecting stalk along with the allantois and umbilical vessels passes through the
primitive umbilical ring.
D. The vitelline duct and its vessels pass through the primitive umbilical ring.
E. The only structure which passes through the primitive umbilical ring is the connecting
stalk.

106. Choose the three correct statements!

A. Structures in the umbilical cord are surrounded by the Wharthon's jelly, which is a
kind of connective tissue.
B. The blood vessels in the umbilical cord contain maternal blood; the umbilical arteries
carry the deoxygenated blood.
C. The blood vessels in the umbilical cord contain maternal and fetal blood; the umbilical
vein carries the oxygenated blood.
D. The umbilical cord, surrounded by the amnion, contains the blood vessels which form
connection between the placenta and fetus.
E. The blood vessels in the umbilical cord contain fetal blood; the umbilical vein carries
the oxygenated blood.

107. Choose the three correct statements!

A. Approximately two thirds of twins are dizygotic.
B. Dizygotic twins develop from a single oocyte which is fertilized by two spermatozoa.
C. Dizygotic twins develop from simultaneous release of two oocytes which are fertilized
by different spermatozoa.
D. Monozygotic twins develop from a single zygote which is splitting at various stages of
the development.
E. Monozygotic twins develop from two oocytes which are fused after the fertilization.

108. Choose the four correct statements!

A. Dizygotic twins usually have separate chorion and amnion.
B. Dizygotic twins usually have separate placenta, but sometimes the placentas are fused.
C. Dizygotic twins usually have separate chorionic sac (cavity), but sometimes the walls
of sacs fuse.
D. If the separation of zygote occurs at the two-cells stage, the blastocysts implants
separately and each embryo has its own placenta and chorionic sac (cavity).
E. The monozygotic twins always have common placenta.

109. Choose the one correct statement!

30
 A. Monozygotic twins can develop by the separation of inner cell mass at a late stage of
development; each embryo has its own placenta.
B. Monozygotic twins can develop by the separation of inner cell mass at a late stage of
development; each embryo has its own amniotic cavity.
C. Monozygotic twins are of the same sex and they are genetically identical.
D. Dizygotic twins are genetically identical and they may or may not be of different
sex.
E. The monozygotic twins always have common placenta.

110. Choose the two correct statements!

A. Monozygotic twins can develop by splitting of inner cell mass at a later stage of
development; the two embryos have a common placenta.
B. Monozygotic conjoined twins can develop by partial or complete splitting of the
primitive streak and node.
C. Monozygotic twins always have common placenta, chorionic sac (cavity), and
amniotic cavity.
D. Monozygotic twins can develop by the separation of zygote at the late blastocyst stage
(bilaminar germ disk stage); the two embryos have a common placenta, but separate
chorionic sac (cavity) and amniotic cavity.
E. Monozygotic twins have common umbilical cord.

111. Choose the two correct statements!

A. Monozygotic twins develop from a single zygote.
B. Approximately 90% of twins are monozygotic.
C. Approximately one third of twins are monozygotic.
D. The only mechanism of monozygotic twins formation is the splitting of embryo in a
two-cell stage.
E. The only mechanism of monozygotic twins formation is the splitting and separation of
the embryoblast cells.

112. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The arrows show lacunae in the syncytiotrophoblast; in a later stage of development

maternal blood vessels will open into these lacunae.
B. The arrows show lacunae in the syncytiotrophoblast; in a later stage of development
the lacunae will communicate with each other.

31
 C. The arrows show lacunae in the syncytiotrophoblast, which, in a later stage of
development, will be filled with maternal blood establishing the uteroplacental
circulation.
D. The arrows show lacunae in the syncytiotrophoblast, which are filled with amniotic
fluid.
E. The arrows show the lacunae in the syncytiotrophoblast, and in a later stage of
development, fetal blood vessels will open into the lacunae.

113. Choose the only one correct statement in relation to the cavity pointed by arrow!

A. It is the amniotic cavity filled with amniotic fluid and bordered by amnioblasts and
hypoblast cells.
B. It is the amniotic cavity filled with amniotic fluid and bordered by amnioblasts and
epiblast cells.
C. It is the blastocyst cavity filled with amniotic fluid and bordered by amnioblasts and
epiblast cells.
D. It is the extraembryonic coelom filled with amniotic fluid and bordered by amnioblasts
and epiblast cells.
E. It is the amniotic cavity, which is bordered by amnioblasts and epiblast cells and in a
later stage of development, will receive fetal blood vessels.

114. Choose the only one correct statement in relation to the cavity pointed by arrow!

32
 A. The cavity is an exocoelomic cyst, which is the remnant of the secondary yolk
sac.
B. The cavity is an exocoelomic cyst, which is the remnant of the blastocyst
cavity.
C. The cavity is an exocoelomic cyst, which is located in the extraembryonic cavity
(chorionic cavity).
D. The cavity is the secondary yolk sac bordered by amnioblast cells.
E. The cavity is the secondary yolk sac containing amniotic fluid.

115. Choose the one correct statement in relation to the cavity pointed by arrow!

A. The cavity is the secondary/definitive yolk sac bordered by cells migrated from the
hypoblast.
B. The cavity is the exocoelomic cyst sac which is bordered by hypoblast cells.
C. The cavity is the secondary/definitive yolk sac which appears within the exocoelomic
cavity.
D. The cavity is the secondary/definitive yolk sac which is bordered by epiblast cells.
E. It is the exocoelomic cavity which is the remnant of the secondary/definitive yolk
sac.

33
116. Choose the three correct statements in relation to the structure pointed by arrow!

A. The structure is the connecting stalk, which is the part of the extraembryonic
mesoderm.
B. The structure is the connecting stalk, which is not the part of the extraembryonic
mesoderm.
C. The structure is the connecting stalk, which contributes to the formation of the
umbilical cord.
D. The structure is the connecting stalk, which in the chorionic cavity.
E. The structure is the connecting stalk, which becomes the part of the notochord.

117. Choose the three correct statements in relation to the structure pointed by arrow!

A. The structure is the chorionic plate (extraembryonic somatic/somatopleuric

mesoderm), which is the part of the extraembryonic mesoderm.
B. The structure is the chorionic plate (extraembryonic somatic mesoderm) which gives
rise to the notochord.

34
 C. The structure is the chorionic plate (extraembryonic somatic mesoderm), which is
surrounded by the cytotrophoblast cells.
D. The structure is the chorionic plate (extraembryonic somatic mesoderm), which
participates in the formation of placental villi.
E. The structure is the chorionic plate (extraembryonic somatic mesoderm), which is not
the part of the extraembryonic mesoderm.
VII. MOLECULAR EMBRYOLOGY
118. Choose the four correct statements!
A. Establishment of the body axes takes place before and during the period of
gastrulation.
B. The anteroposterior axis of the embryo is signaled by cells at the anterior (cranial)
margin of the embryonic disc the area is called anterior visceral endoderm.
C. The anterior visceral endoderm expresses genes essential for the formation of
visceral organs.
D. Transcription factors, essentials for head formation are OTX2, LIM1, and HESX1.
E. Secreted factors, essentials for head formation are cerberus and lefty, which inhibit
nodal activity in the cranial end of the embryo.

119. Choose the two correct statements!

A. The mediolateral axis is signaled by cells at the anterior (cranial) margin of the
embryonic disc the area is called anterior visceral endoderm.
B. Transcription factor, which is essential for head formation is only the OTX2.
C. The anterior visceral endoderm expresses genes essential for the formation of hindgut
D. Secreted factors, essentials for head formation are cerberus and lefty, which inhibit
nodal activity in the cranial end of the embryo.
E. Establishment of the body axes takes place before and during the period of
gastrulation.
.

120. Choose the two correct statements!

A. Activity of bone morphogenetic protein 4 (BMP4) and fibroblast growth factor (FGF)
contribute to the ventralization of the embryo.
B. The ventralization of the embryo is due to the activity of Brachyury (T) gene, which
antagonizes the activity of BMP4.
C. The activity of chordin, noggin, follistatin, and Brachyury (T) gene contribute to the
dorsalization of the embryo.
D. The dorsalization of embryo occurs due to the activity of BMP4 and FGF.
E. The BMP4 and noggin have synergistic role in the establishment of the dorsoventral
axis of the embryo.

121. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The first step in the establishment of left-right (L-R) sidedness of embryo is the
secretion of fibroblast growth factor8 (FGF8).
B. The first step in the establishment of anteroposterior axis of embryo is the secretion of
FGF8.

35
 C. During the establishment of L-R sidedness of embryo, the FGF8 is secreted by cells in
the primitive node and primitive streak.
D. Establishment of L-R sidedness of embryo takes place after the neurulation.
E. During the establishment of L-R sidedness of embryo, the FGF8 induces expression of
Nodal, only on the left side of the embryo.

122. Choose the two correct statements!

A. The retinoic acid is an important morphogen in the process of neurulation.
B. Downregulation of FGF and upregulation of BMP4 are important in the process of
neurulation.
C. The retinoic acid is not involved in the process of neurulation.
D. Upregulation of FGF and BMP4 are important in the process of neurulation.
E. Downregulation of BMP4 and upregulation of FGF are important in the process of
neurulation.

36
VIII. BLOOD FORMATION
123. Choose the only correct statement!
A. All types of formed elements of the blood originate from the myeloid progenitor cells
(CFUM).
B. All types of formed elements of the blood originate from the myeloid progenitor cells
(CFUM) except the red blood cells.
C. All types of formed elements of the blood originate from the myeloid progenitor cells
(CFUM) with the exception of lymphocytes.
D. Only the white blood cells originate from the myeloid stem cell (CFU-M).
E. The myeloid stem cells (CFU-M) give rise to formed elements of the blood only in the
intrauterine life.

124. Choose the only correct statement!

A. The pluripotent myeloid stem cells appear in the extraembryonic mesoderm of yolk
sac.
B. The pluripotent myeloid and lymphoid stem cells appear in the extraembryonic
mesoderm of yolk sac.
C. In one phase of embryonic development the hemopoietic pluripotent stem cells (CFU-
S) appear in the extraembryonic mesoderm of yolk sac.
D. The lymphoid progenitor cells (CFU-L) appear in the extraembryonic mesoderm of
yolk sac.
E. The myeloid progenitor cells (CFU-M) appear in the extraembryonic mesoderm of
yolk sac.

125. Choose the only correct statement!

A. The lymphoid progenitor stem cells (CFU-L) are the only cells within the hemopoietic
system that possess the potential for self-renewal.
B. The myeloid progenitor stem cells (CFU-M) are the only cells within the hemopoietic
system that possess the potential for self-renewal.
C. The pluripotent hemopoietic stem cells (CFU-S) are the only cells within the
hemopoietic system that possess the potential for self-renewal.
D. The pluripotent hemopoietic stem cells (CFU-S) and myeloid progenitor stem cells
(CFU-M) possess the potential for self-renewal.
E. The pluripotent hemopoietic stem cells (CFU-S) and lymphoid progenitor stem cells
(CFU-L) possess the potential for self-renewal.

126. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The pluripotent hemopoietic stem cells (CFU-S) can give rise to myeloid (CFU-M)
and lymphoid progenitor cells (CFU-L).
B. The pluripotent hemopoietic stem cells (CFU-S) have self-renewal capacity, which is
the ability to give rise to identical daughter CFU-S.
C. The pluripotent hemopoietic stem cells (CFU-S) have self-renewal capacity
throughout the life.

1
 D. The pluripotent hemopoietic stem cells (CFU-S) have self-renewal capacity in the
intrauterine life.
E. The pluripotent hemopoietic stem cells (CFU-S) have self-renewal capacity till the
beginning of puberty.

127. Choose the three correct statements!

A. In the intrauterine life the hemopoiesis occurs in the yolk sac, liver, spleen, and red
bone marrow.
B. After birth, the hemopoiesis occurs in the red bone marrow.
C. In the intrauterine life the shortest period of hemopoiesis occurs in the spleen.
D. In the intrauterine life the shortest period of hemopoiesis occurs in the liver.
E. In the intrauterine life the shortest period of hemopoiesis occurs in the red bone
marrow.

128. Choose the three correct statements!

A. The pluripotent hemopoietic stem cells (CFU-S) are found only in the red bone
marrow.
B. The shape and size of pluripotent hemopoietic stem cell (CFU-S) is similar to the
monocyte
C. The pluripotent hemopoietic stem cells (CFU-S) are found both in the peripheral blood
and red bone marrow.
D. The shape and size of pluripotent hemopoietic stem cell (CFU-S) is similar to the
small lymphocytes.
E. The pluripotent hemopoietic stem cells (CFU-S) can be identified by detecting their
specific markers.

129. Choose the only correct statement!

A. During the eryhropoiesis the first morphologically identifiable cell is the
proerythroblast.
B. During the eryhropoiesis the last cell which sill has nucleus is the polychromatophil
erythroblast.
C. During the eryhropoiesis the last cell which sill has nucleus is the reticulocyte
D. The acidophilic cytoplasm of proerythroblast refers to the appearance of
hemoglobin.
E. The acidophilic cytoplasm of proerythroblast refers to the appearance of the hem
component of hemoglobin.

130. Choose the only correct statement!

A. One of the factors that control the erythropoiesis is the erythropoietin, which is
produced in the red bone marrow.
B. One of the factors that control the erythropoiesis is the erythropoietin, which is
produced in the kidney.

2
 C. During the erythropoiesis the diameter of cells increases from the younger to mature
erythrocytes.
D. During the erythropoiesis the diameter of cells remains constant.
E. During the erythropoiesis the diameter of cells increase in the younger forms followed
by a decrease in the mature cells.

131. Choose the two correct statements!

A. During the granulopoiesis the nonspecific granules appear in the myelocytes.
B. During the granulopoiesis the first morphologically identifiable cell is the myeloblast
C. During the granulopoiesis the nonspecific granules appear in the myeloblasts.
D. During the granulopoiesis the nonspecific granules appear in the promyelocytes.
E. During the granulopoiesis the specific granules appear in the promyelocytes.

132. Choose the cells of granulopoiesis in sequence! Only one correct answer!
A. Myeloblast, promyelocyte, metamyelocyte or juvenile, stab (band), myelocyte,
granulocyte
B. Promyelocyte, myeloblast, myelocyte, metamyelocyte or juvenile, stab (band),
granulocyte
C. Myelocyte, promyelocyte, myeloblast, metamyelocyte or juvenile, stab (band),
granulocyte
D. Myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte or juvenile, stab (band),
granulocyte
E. Promyeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte or juvenile, stab (band),
granulocyte

133. Choose the cells of erythropoiesis in sequence! Only one correct answer!
A. Proerythroblast, basophil erythroblast, orthochromatophil erythroblast, oxyphil
erythroblast or normoblast, reticulocyte, erythrocyte.
B. Orthochromatophil erythroblast, basophil erythroblast, oxyphil erythroblast or
normoblast, proerythroblast, reticulocyta, erythrocyte.
C. Basophil erythroblast, proerythroblast, orthochromatophil erythroblast, oxyphil
erythroblast or normoblast, reticulocyte, erythrocyte.
D. Basophil erythroblast, oxyphil erythroblast or normoblast, proerythroblast,
orthochromatophil erythroblast, reticulocyte, erythrocyte.
E. Basophil erythroblast, orthochromatophil erythroblast, oxyphil erythroblast or
normoblast, proerythroblast, reticulocyte, erythrocyte.

134. Choose the only correct statement!

A. Progenitor stem cell of granulocytes (CFU-G) derives from the common
granulocytemonocyte progenitor cell (CFU-GM).
B. Progenitor stem cell of granulocytes (CFU-G) derives directly from the pluripotent
hemopoietic stem cell (CFU-S).
C. Progenitor stem cell of monocytes (CFU-Mo) derives directly from the pluripotent
hemopoietic stem cell (CFU-S).

3
D. All the progenitor stem cells of formed elements of the blood derive directly from the
pluripotent hemopoietic stem cell (CFU-S).
E. Progenitor stem cell of erythrocytes (CFU-E) derives directly from the pluripotent
hemopoietic stem cell (CFU-S).

4
IX. LIMB DEVELOPMENT
135. Choose the THREE correct statements!
A. The muscles of the limbs originate from the parietal plate of the lateral mesoderm.
B. The bones of the limbs differentiate from mesenchymal cells that migrate to the
limb buds from the sclerotome of the somites.
C. The bones of the limbs develop from the parietal plate of the lateral mesoderm.
D. The muscles of the limbs are differentiated from the cells that migrate from the
somites.
E. Cartilage tissue in the limbs develops from mesenchyme originating from the parietal
plate.

136. Choose the THREE correct statements!

A. The fingers separate from each other in the developing hand in the 5th embryonic
week.
B. There is no bone ossifying membraneous way in the free limbs.
C. The limb buds start to appear at the end of the fourth embryonic week.
D. The upper limb buds appear earlier than the lower ones.
E. The lower limb buds appear earlier in the embryo than the upper ones.

137. Choose the THREE correct statements!

A. Complete separation of the fingers occurs during the 8th embryonic week.
B. AER cells are characterized by a high production of FGF4 and FGF8.
C. The primary regulator of proximo-distal axis determination in developing limbs is
Sonic Hedgehog, which is produced by AER cells.
D. The apical ectodermal ridge cells maintain the progression zone in the developing
limb.
E. The development of polydactyly is explained by the mis-sequencing of HOX genes.

138. Choose the TWO correct statements!

A. The mesenchymal cells that give rise to the muscles of the limbs migrate from the
dermamyotomes of the somite into the limb buds.
B. MYOD is one of the master transcription factors controlling skeletal muscle
differentiation.
C. The mesenchyme that makes up the connective tissue of the skin of the limbs is
derived from the dermatome of the lateral plate.
D. Muscles of the limbs develop from the myotome of the lateral plate under the control
of the transcription factor Myf-5.
E. The primary ossification centers of the epiphyses appear in the long bones already in
the fetal life.

139. Choose the TWO correct statements!

A. Teratogens acting during the organogenesis can cause limb development
abnormalities.
 B. Upper limb buds appear during the folding of the embryo.
C. A malfunction of the zone of polarizing activity leads to amelia.
D. The connective tissue of the skin of the limbs is derived from the dermamyotome of
the corresponding somites.
E. The bones of the limbs are derived from the ectomesenchyme.

140. Choose the TWO correct statements!

A. At birth, the epiphyses of the long bones are still completely cartilaginous.
B. Ossification of the limbs starts in the 8th embryonic week.
C. The short bones in the limbs are ossified by the time of birth.
D. On the hand and foot plates, fingers and toes are formed following apoptosis of the
AER.
E. The ossification of the long bones of the limbs occurs by enchondral ossification.

141. Choose the TWO correct statements!

A. The formation of the dorso-ventral limb axis requires WNT signalling from the ZPA.
B. Higher doses of vitamin A can be highly teratogenic, including causing severe limb
malformations.
C. Teratogenic agents are particularly dangerous in the 4th-8th embryonic weeks because
this is the primary time of organogenesis.
D. In the dorso-ventral axis arrangements of the limbs, the effect of the zone of polarizing
activity via retinol is of primary importance.
E. The counter-rotation of the limbs occuring during the tenth week of pregnancy
determines the final orientation of the limbs, which causes the ventral location of the
lower limb extensors.

142. Choose the ONLY correct statement!

A. The proximo-distal segmentation of the limbs is determined by the phased expression
of HOX gene products.
B. The cranio-caudal positioning of limbs is regulated by transcription factors encoded
by HOX genes.
C. The zone of polarizing activity is not involved in the regulation of Sonic Hedgehog
expression in the limbs.
D. The position of the little finger on the hand is determined by the absence of SHH.
E. Vitamin A derivatives can cause severe limb malformations in the second trimester
of the pregnancy.

143. Choose the ONLY correct statement!

A. A strong BMP effect on the dorsal side of the limbs is required for proper dorso-
ventral alignment of the limb structures.
B. The inhibition of the action of BMP proteins produced in the ventral ectoderm of the
limbs is necessary to define the dorsal side.
 C. FGF8 produced by the AER is required for the development of dorsal elements on the
limbs.
D. The formation of the dorso-ventral limb axis requires signaling of WNT4 and WNT8
in the ZPA.
E. FGF4 expressed by the ectoderm of limb buds induces the activation of MYOD gene.

144. Choose the ONLY correct statement!

A. Myoblasts that form the muscles of the limbs migrate from the extraembryonic
somatopleura into the limb primordia.
B. The patella is ossified by membraneous ossification.
C. Cells in the interzones that mark the location of the joints are characterized by FGF5
expression.
D. The primary ossification centers of the cartilagineous models of the carpal bones are
already present in newborns.
E. The mesenchymal cells that form the hyaline cartilage condensations in the limbs are
derived from the intraembryonic somatopleura.