FEBRUARY 2025 CLE FINAL COACHING ON

CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE

Prepared by: Atty. Jay M. Ferraro / Joy Guarino

INTRODUCTION TO CJS 6. What is the primary role of a prosecutor

during a preliminary investigation?
I. Explain the role and functions of law
enforcement a. To determine the guilt of the
1. What pillars of the Criminal Justice System where
respondent beyond a reasonable
justice is started, and the other pillars do not
doubt.
function without it being started?
b. To evaluate whether there is
a. Law Enforcement
sufficient evidence to establish
b. Prosecution
probable cause for filing a criminal
c. Courts
case.
d. Corrections
c. To provide legal counsel to the
2. This criminal justice model is based on the
accused.
idea that the most important function of the
d. To issue a warrant of arrest against
CJS is the protection of the public and the
the respondent.
repression of criminal conduct.
7. When is an inquest proceeding conducted by
a. Crime Prevention a prosecutor?
b. Crime Control
a. When the suspect has been arrested
c. Law and Order
without a warrant
d. Due Process
b. When the suspect voluntarily
3. Escapo, a bigtime prisoner of New Bilibid
submits to a preliminary
Prison, escapes from the said penal
investigation.
establishment many times. He planned again
c. When a private complainant files an
to escape and succeeded in escaping. Who
affidavit of complaint.
among the following could arrest him? d. When the accused is arraigned in
a. NBI agent
court.
b. PDEA agent
c. Barangay Police
8. If the prosecutor finds no probable cause
d. BuCor Correction Officer
during a preliminary investigation, what
e. All of the above
should the prosecutor do?
a. Dismiss the complaint and release
the respondent.
(1.2) Role of prosecutor in the administration of
b. File the case in court regardless of
justice, specifically in conducting preliminary
lack of probable cause.
investigation and inquest proceeding.
c. Recommend the dismissal of the
complaint but forward it to a higher
authority for review.
4. Preliminary investigation is required in those d. Refer the case to the police for
criminal cases where the penalty provided by
further investigation.
law for the offense charged is
__________________________.
9. He is responsible in evaluating the evidence
a. over 6 years imprisonment
the police have gathered and deciding
regardless of the amount of fine
whether it is sufficient to warrant the filing of
b. less than 6 years imprisonment
charge(s) against the alleged violator.
irrespective of the amount of fine
a. Investigator
c. at least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
b. Judge
of imprisonment irrespective of the
c. Prosecutor
amount of fine
d. solicitor general – prosecutor for
d. at least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
appellate cases; lawyer of the
of imprisonment but depending on
government in case of litigation
the of the amount of fine

5. The questioning initiated by law enforcement 10. In cases committed by Public officer with
authorities after a person is taken into salary grade 27 and above in violation of Act
custody or otherwise deprived of freedom of 3019, R.A. 1379 or Art. 210 to 212 of the
action is ___________. Revised Penal Code a complaint should first
a. Illegal detention be filed to the office of for the conduct of
b. Arbitrary detention the required preliminary investigation.
c. Custodial Investigation a. Ombudsman
d. Preliminary investigation b. Solicitor General

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 c. Judge of MTC
d. Sandiganbayan

15. It exercises appellate jurisdiction over cases

11. After filing of complaint and affidavits of decided by MTC, MCTC, MeTC, MTCC.
witnesses by the police, complainant or public a. Regional Trial Court
officer in charge of the enforcement of the b. Court of Tax Appeals
law alleged to have been violated, the next c. Ombudsman
step would be _________ d. Court of Appeals
a. Personal examination of affiants by
the investigating prosecutor 16. The offender is a government employee with
b. Preliminary action by investigating a salary grade of lower than 27. The crime
prosecutor committed is in violation of RA 3019 or the
c. Dismiss the complaint if he finds no Anti-Graft and Corrupt as amended. The
cause to continue with the inquiry. penalty imposed is lower than 6 years. Which
d. Issue subpoena to respondent court should have jurisdiction over the case?
requiring him to submit a
counter-affidavit. a. Municipal Trial Court
b. Supreme Court
(1.3) Hierarchy of courts and the jurisdiction of c. Court of Appeals
trial courts d. Regional Trial Court

12. Which type of cases falls under the exclusive 17. This doctrine states that a case must be filed
jurisdiction of the Municipal Trial Courts with the lowest court possible having the
(MTCs)? appropriate jurisdiction.
a. Doctrine of Separation of Powers
a. Civil cases involving amounts b. Doctrine of Primary Jurisdiction
exceeding PHP 2,000,000. c. Doctrine of Hierarchy of Courts
b. Criminal cases punishable by d. Doctrine of Judicial Supremacy
imprisonment of not more than 6
years.
c. Petitions for the annulment of (1.4) Role and Function of BJMP and BuCor
marriage.
d. Appeals from decisions of quasi-
judicial agencies. 18. What is the primary role of the Bureau of Jail
Management and Penology (BJMP) in the
13. Which of the following cases is within the Philippines?
exclusive jurisdiction of the Regional Trial a. To oversee the detention of inmates
Courts (RTCs)? serving sentences of more than
a. Small claims cases involving three years.
amounts not exceeding PHP b. To manage and supervise provincial,
400,000. city, and municipal jails for inmates
b. Violations of municipal ordinances. awaiting trial or serving sentences of
c. Criminal cases punishable by three years or less.
imprisonment of more than 6 years. c. To handle the reintegration of
d. None of the above released prisoners into society.
d. To conduct investigations of crimes
14. It has jurisdiction over criminal and civil cases committed within prison facilities.
involving graft and corrupt practices and such
other offenses committed by public officers 19. Corrections as pillar of CJS enters into the
and employees occupying the positions picture when the conviction of the accused
classified as Salary Grade 27, including those has become final and executory. What
in government-owned or controlled institution is charged with custody and
corporations, in relation to their office as may rehabilitation of national offenders?
be determined by law. a. Bureau of Corrections
a. Sandiganbayan b. Bureau of Jail Management and
b. Ombudsman Penology
c. Regional Trial Court c. Provincial Jails
d. Court of Appeals d. PNP Lock-up cells

Note: In cases where none of the accused are HUMAN RIGHTS

occupying positions corresponding to Salary
Grade '27' or higher, as prescribed in the said (2.1) Illustrate the concept of due process and
Republic Act No. 6758, or military and PNP equal protection of laws in the administration of
officers mentioned above, exclusive original justice.
jurisdiction thereof shall be vested in the proper
regional trial court, metropolitan trial court, 20. This concept simply means that before a man
municipal trial court, and municipal circuit trial can be deprived of his life, liberty or property,
court, as the case may be, pursuant to their he must be given an opportunity to defend
respective jurisdictions as provided in Batas himself.
Pambansa Blg. 129, as amended.

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 a. Inquest Proceeding c. It can be made through a video
b. Preliminary Investigation recording without legal counsel.
c. Due Process d. It is valid as long as it is made
d. Custodial Investigation voluntarily, even without
documentation.
21. It requires the intrinsic validity of the law in
interfering with the rights of the person to his
life, liberty, or property, and procedural due
process which consists of the two basic rights (2.3) Use the right against unreasonable search
of notice and hearing, as well as the and seizure
guarantee of being heard by an impartial and
competent tribunal. 27. PO2 Marco received a tip that Jake was
a. Due Process keeping marijuana plants. The information
b. Substantive Due Process was relayed to the Chief of Police, who in turn
c. Procedural Due Process directed PO2 Marco to conduct surveillance.
d. Equal Protection of the Law PO2 Marco immediately went to the area,
went up to the roof of the house, and found
22. It requires that all persons or things similarly two pots of what they identified as marijuana
situated should be treated alike, both as to plants. PO2 Marco decided to bring Jake and
rights conferred and responsibilities imposed. the plants to the police station. Was the
Its purpose is to secure every person within a seizure valid?
state’s jurisdiction against intentional and a. Yes, the seizure was incidental to a
arbitrary discrimination, whether occasioned lawful arrest
by the express terms of a statue or by its b. Yes, the search of evidence was in
improper execution through the state’s duly plain view
constituted authorities. c. Yes, the search was lawful.
a. Due Process d. No, the search and seizure was
b. Substantive Due Process unreasonable.
c. Procedural Due Process
d. Equal Protection of the Law
28. In the case of Ridon v. People, what did the
23. What characteristics of human rights holds Supreme Court rule regarding warrantless
the right to life, dignity and personal searches conducted after a traffic violation?
development? a. They are always valid if the
a. Universal individual attempts to flee.
b. Environmental b. They are valid if the traffic violation
c. Natural is punishable by imprisonment.
d. Political c. They are invalid if the traffic
violation does not warrant arrest.
(2.2) Demonstrate the rights of the person d. They are always invalid, regardless
under custodial investigation and anti-torture of the circumstances.
act in conducting criminal investigation NOTE: The Supreme Court ruled that a traffic
violation, particularly one not punishable by
24. The following are rights of persons arrested imprisonment, does not justify a warrantless
under custodial investigation, EXCEPT: search. In Ridon v. People, the Court
a. Right to be assisted by counsel emphasized that without a lawful arrest,
b. Inform his rights to remain silent subsequent warrantless searches are invalid.
c. To be allowed visits by or
conferences with any member of his
immediate family, among others.
d. Right to decline custodial 29. In the above case, under what condition can
investigation a warrantless search be justified during a
traffic stop?
25. Under the Anti-Torture Act of 2009, which of a. If the officer has reasonable
the following is prohibited during a custodial suspicion of a more serious crime.
investigation? b. If the individual consents to the
a. Offering food and water to the search.
detainee. c. If the traffic violation involves
b. Physical or mental torture to force a reckless driving.
confession or extract information. d. If the individual fails to present a
c. Allowing family members to visit the driver's license.
detainee.
d. Conducting the investigation in the
NOTE: The Court noted that warrantless
presence of legal counsel.
searches during traffic stops are generally
26. What is required for a waiver of rights under
invalid unless certain exceptions apply, such as
custodial investigation to be valid?
the individual's consent. In Ridon v. People, the
a. It can be made orally in the presence
absence of consent or other justifying
of the arresting officer.
circumstances rendered the warrantless search
b. It must be in writing and made in the
invalid.
presence of counsel.

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 30. During a checkpoint, the police officers asked 33. Which of the following acts can limit freedom
the occupant of a car to roll their windows of speech in the Philippines?
down, subjected them to a visual search and a. Criticizing public officials for their
before letting them pass, had the driver step performance.
out of the vehicle and conducted a body b. Protesting peacefully in front of
search on him. What will be inferred from this government offices.
scenario? c. Inciting to sedition or rebellion.
a. Since routine checkpoints are not d. Publishing defamatory articles about
deemed illegal, succeeding body a private individual.
search is justifiable.
b. It was not considered illegal as the 34. In which of the following instances is the right
driver was the only one searched, against self-incrimination limited?
not the passengers.
c. It constitutes unreasonable search a. Requiring the accused to testify in
as body search is prohibited when court.
conducting checkpoints unless b. Requiring a witness to produce
deemed necessary. physical evidence unrelated to the
d. Search of moving vehicles includes crime.
all types of searches inside the c. Compelling the accused to provide
vehicle including its occupants, fingerprints or DNA samples.
hence, the search is legal. d. D. Forcing the accused to answer
incriminating questions during
31. If a person being chased by the police for custodial investigation.
committing a crime enters another house, can
the police still arrest them inside that house NOTE: The right against self-incrimination
without a warrant? protects a person from being compelled to
testify against themselves. However, it does not
a. No, the police need to secure a apply to physical evidence like fingerprints or
search warrant before entering the DNA, as these are considered non-testimonial
house. evidence.
b. Yes, the police can enter and arrest
the person under the hot pursuit 35. When can the right to privacy of a public
exception. figure be lawfully limited?
c. No, entering another house violates a. When they express opinions in a
the homeowner’s right to privacy. private meeting.
d. Yes, but only if the homeowner b. When the matter involves their
consents to the arrest. official public duties.
c. When their personal life is unrelated
NOTE: Under the hot pursuit doctrine, police to their public role.
officers can pursue and arrest a person who has d. When the information is obtained
just committed a crime, even if the person without their consent.
enters another house. The pursuit must be
continuous and immediate, and the arrest must NOTE: Public figures have a reduced expectation
be based on probable cause that the person of privacy in matters related to their public roles
committed a crime. This is an exception to the and official functions, but their personal lives
rule requiring a warrant, as it balances the remain protected unless it directly relates to
enforcement of law with the exigency of the their public role.
situation. However, abuse of this doctrine can
still be challenged in court.
36. Which of the following speech acts is NOT
(2.4) Determine the limitations of the following protected by the freedom of speech?
rights: privacy, freedom of speech and right a. Criticism of government policies.
against self- incrimination. b. Peaceful advocacy for policy reform.
c. Publishing false information that
32. Which of the following is a lawful limitation incites panic.
of the right to privacy under the Philippine d. Expressing unpopular opinions on
Constitution? social media.
NOTE: Freedom of speech does not protect acts
a. Surveillance of private conversations like spreading false information that may harm
without a court order. public safety or cause panic, as it can endanger
b. Warrantless searches in routine national security or public order.
traffic stops.
c. Accessing personal data for national
security purposes with judicial 37. The right against self-incrimination has 2
authorization. aspects namely:
d. Forcing individuals to disclose a. The right to refuse to take the
personal information without due witness stand and the right to refuse
process. to answer an incriminatory question
b. The right to be silent and to be
assisted by counsel

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 c. The right to speedy trial and 42. Mario accidentally caused a fire that
arraignment destroyed his neighbor’s property while
d. The right to have independent carelessly burning garbage in his backyard.
counsel and be present at any stage Which mode of committing a elony applies to
of the proceedings Mario’s actions?
a. Dolo (deceit)
(2.5) Determine judicial remedies of persons b. Culpa (fault)
whose right to life and liberty are violated (Writ c. Mala in se
of Habeas Corpus, Writ of Amparo, and Writ of d. Mala Prohibita
Habeas Data) 43. Our criminal law may be applied
extraterritorially which simply means that:
38. What is the primary purpose of the Writ of a. Our criminal law may be enforced by
Habeas Corpus? another sovereign country
b. Our criminal law may be applicable
a. To compel the government to even outside of our territory
produce documents regarding a c. Foreigners here in our country may
person's private data. be charge for violation of our
b. To inquire into the legality of a criminal law
person’s detention and order their d. Those accused of crime may be
release if unlawful. arrested even outside of our territory
c. To protect a person from threats to
life and liberty caused by state 44. Which of the following is NOT an element of
actors. dolo (intentional felonies)?
d. To provide remedies for extrajudicial a. Freedom
killings and enforced disappearances b. Intelligence
c. Negligence
39. What distinguishes the Writ of Amparo from d. Intent
other judicial remedies? 45. The Principle of Generality in criminal law
a. It is limited to cases involving means that:
property disputes. a. Philippine criminal laws apply only to
b. It protects against violations or crimes committed by Filipino citizens.
threats to life, liberty, and security, b. Philippine criminal laws apply to all
persons who commit crimes within
particularly in cases of extrajudicial
the Philippine territory, regardless of
killings and enforced
nationality, subject to certain
disappearances.
exceptions.
c. It is exclusively available for c. Philippine criminal laws apply to
individuals detained by public crimes committed by Filipino citizens
officials. abroad
d. It provides remedies only for d. Philippine criminal laws apply only to
violations of privacy rights. crimes that affect the sovereignty of
the Philippines.
46. Which of the following persons is NOT covered
40. What is the primary function of the Writ of by the Principle of Generality?
Habeas Data? a. A foreigner who committed a crime
a. To secure a person’s immediate within the Philippines.
release from unlawful detention. b. A member of the diplomatic corps
b. To compel the return of property committing a crime in the Philippines.
unlawfully taken by the state. c. A Filipino citizen committing a crime
c. To protect an individual’s right to outside the Philippines.
privacy by gaining access to or d. A stateless person committing a
correcting personal information held crime in Philippine territory.
by the government or private NOTE: Diplomats are exempted under the
entities. Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations and
d. To provide a remedy for wrongful enjoy diplomatic immunity.
arrest by law enforcement officials.
47. Pedro, a Filipino citizen, committed a crime on
41. Gidong was one of the victims of a drug-
board a Philippine ship docked in a foreign
related extra-legal killings perpetrated by the port. Which principle applies to determine the
police officers of Davao City. What remedy is applicability of Philippine criminal law?
appropriate to address specific violations or a. Principle of Generality
threats of violation of the constitutional rights b. Principle of Territoriality
to life, liberty, or security? c. Principle of Nationality
a. Writ of Amparo d. Principle of Prospectivity
b. Writ of Habeas Corpus
c. Writ of Habeas data NOTE: The crime was committed on board a
d. Writ of Kalikasan Philippine ship, which is considered an extension
of Philippine territory under the Revised Penal
Book 1 (3.1) Recall the different characteristics Code (Article 2).
of criminal law and the nature and elements of
felony including the concept of dolo and culpa, 48. The Principle of Prospectivity in criminal law
and the plurality of crimes. means:

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 a. Criminal laws are applicable to all a. Philippine authorities, since the
crimes committed before their crime occurred within their waters.
enactment. b. Canadian authorities, since the
b. Criminal laws apply only to acts crime involves only the crew and is
committed after their enactment, an internal matter.
unless the new law is favorable to the c. Both Philippine and Canadian
accused.
authorities, depending on the trial’s
c. Criminal laws are enforceable only
location.
against foreign nationals committing
crimes in Philippine territory. d. Neither authority has jurisdiction
d. Criminal laws can be applied over this minor offense.
retroactively to any crime. 54. A foreign merchant vessel anchored in Manila
49. Under Article 3 of the Revised Penal Code, Bay violates Philippine environmental laws by
felonies are acts or omissions: discharging waste into the water. Under the
English Rule, who has jurisdiction?
a. Punishable by special laws, regardless
of intent or negligence. a. The foreign vessel’s flag state,
b. Punishable by the Revised Penal because the violation occurred
Code, committed either by deceit aboard their ship.
(dolo) or fault (culpa). b. Philippine authorities, because the
c. That are inherently immoral,
act violates local laws and affects
regardless of whether they are
territorial waters.
punishable by law.
d. Special Complex Crime/Composite c. The International Maritime
crime That are committed by public Organization, due to the nature of
officers in relation to their official the offense.
duties. d. Joint jurisdiction of the flag state and
Philippine authorities.
50. Which of the following crimes is classified as 55. A foreign warship from Country X accidentally
mala prohibita? collides with a local fishing vessel while
a. Theft of a mobile phone navigating through Philippine territorial
b. Illegal possession of firearms waters. The collision results in damage to the
c. Murder of a public official fishing vessel, and the Philippine government
d. Arson of a government building demands an investigation. Under
international law, who has jurisdiction over
51. A murder is committed on a Japanese-
the foreign warship?
registered merchant ship while docked at a
a. Philippine authorities, because the
Philippine port. Who has jurisdiction over the
collision occurred in Philippine
crime under the English Rule?
territorial waters.
a. The Japanese authorities, since the b. Country X authorities, because
ship is Japanese-registered. warships enjoy sovereign immunity
b. Philippine authorities, because the even in foreign territorial waters
crime occurred within Philippine c. Both Philippine and Country X
territorial waters. authorities, depending on mutual
c. Both Philippine and Japanese agreements.
authorities, depending on the location d. The International Maritime
of the trial. Organization, because it involves an
d. The United Nations, as it involves a
international maritime incident.
foreign vessel.
52. A theft is committed aboard a German-
registered merchant vessel while it is docked
56. Under Article 3 of the RPC, which of the
in Manila Bay. The theft involves only the
following is NOT a requisite of a felony?
crew, and no Filipino citizens are affected.
a. There is an act or omission.
Under the French Rule, who has jurisdiction?
b. The act or omission results in harm
a. Philippine authorities, since the vessel to another person.
is within territorial waters. c. The act or omission is punishable by
b. German authorities, since the crime law.
involves only the vessel's crew and d. The act or omission is committed
does not affect local citizens. with deceit or fault.
c. Both Philippine and German 57. It is defined as having an injurious result that
authorities, depending on their is greater than that intended.
agreement. a. Error in Persona
d. Neither authority, as it involves minor b. Praeter Intentionem
offenses.
c. Actus Reus
53. On a Canadian-registered merchant vessel
d. Mala In se
docked in Cebu, a crew member steals another
crew member’s belongings. The theft is
discovered while still within Philippine 58. How does a felony differ from a violation of
territorial waters. Under the French Rule, who a special law?
has jurisdiction? a. Felonies require intent or
negligence, while violations of
special laws do not require intent
unless explicitly stated.

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 b. Felonies apply only to acts 63. In criminal law, what is the other term for
committed within Philippine negligence?
territory, while special laws apply a. Culpa
internationally. b. Dolo
c. Felonies are punishable by the RPC, c. Prohibita
while special laws punish acts d. Reclusion perpetua
considered mala in se.
d. Felonies only cover crimes against 64. A man shoots a gun into the air during a
persons, while special laws cover celebration, intending only to make noise.
crimes against property. However, the bullet strikes and kills a
passerby. Under Article 4, what is the liability
NOTE: Felonies under the RPC require dolo or of the man?
culpa, while violations of special laws are a. He is liable for murder because the
typically mala prohibita and do not require act caused a death.
intent unless specified. b. He is liable for reckless imprudence
resulting in homicide because the
59. Under Article 4 of the RPC, criminal liability is death was not intended.
incurred: c. He is not liable because he had no
intent to harm anyone.
a. Only for felonies that result in injury d. He is only liable for illegal discharge
or damage to another person. of a firearm, not for homicide.
b. For all acts, whether intentional or 65. Which of the following distinguishes an
accidental, that cause harm. impossible crime from an attempted crime?
c. For felonies committed even if the a. Impossible crimes involve inherent
wrongful act's consequences are impossibility or absence of the
different from what was intended. object, while attempted crimes
d. Only for intentional felonies where involve overt acts that fall short of
all elements are present. completion.
e. b. Impossible crimes result in harm to
60. Under Article 4, when is a person criminally an unintended victim, while
liable for unintended consequences of their attempted crimes do not result in
acts? any harm.
a. When the unintended consequences c. Impossible crimes are punished only
are the direct, natural, and logical if the act is mala prohibita, while
result of the act. attempted crimes apply only to mala
b. When the unintended consequences in se.
occur, regardless of any intervening d. Impossible crimes always involve
factors. intentional felonies, while attempted
c. Only when the unintended crimes involve negligent acts.
consequences result in death or 66. Under Article 4(1), criminal liability arises
serious physical injury. when the harm caused is the direct, natural,
d. When the unintended consequences and logical consequence of the unlawful act.
were unforeseeable. Which of the following examples
61. Which of the following scenarios constitutes demonstrates this principle?
an impossible crime under Article 4(2)? a. A driver accidentally runs over a
a. Attempting to steal money from a pedestrian due to faulty brakes
wallet that turns out to be empty. despite exercising due care.
b. Attempting to kill someone who b. A man hits another with a stick,
survives because of prompt medical intending only to injure him, but the
attention. victim dies of an infection from the
c. Attempting to burn down a house wound.
but failing because the matchstick c. A person attempts to pick a locked
broke. drawer but fails because the drawer
d. Attempting to kill someone but only contains no valuables.
wounding them due to poor aim. d. A man pushes another into a river,
but the victim survives by
62. Pedro fired a gun at Juan intending to kill him, swimming to safety.
but the bullet ricocheted and hit Maria,
causing her death. Under Article 4, is Pedro 67. Under Article 4(2), what is the essence of
criminally liable for Maria's death? criminal liability for impossible crimes?
a. No, because he did not intend to a. The offender's act demonstrates
harm Maria. malice or intent to commit a crime,
b. Yes, because Maria’s death is a even if the crime could not succeed.
natural consequence of Pedro’s b. The offender's act violates a specific
unlawful act. provision in the Revised Penal
c. No, because the act resulted in harm Code.
to a person Pedro did not target. c. The offender's act causes harm to
d. Yes, but only for attempted murder another person, even
against Juan, not for Maria's death. unintentionally.

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 d. The offender's act always involves b. Yes, because there was conspiracy
physical impossibility. c. Yes, because when there is
68. What is considered an efficient intervening conspiracy, the act of one is an act
cause that absolves a person from criminal of all.
liability? d. Yes because he is principal by
a. A subsequent and independent act inducement, so he is liable for all the
acts of the principal by direct
that directly causes the harm,
participation.
completely unrelated to the
73. Immediately after murdering Robert, James
offender's original act. went to his mother to seek refuge. His mother
b. The offender's original act, which told him to hide in the maid’s quarter until she
indirectly contributed to the harm finds a better place for him to hide. After 2
caused to the victim. days, James was transferred to an apartment.
c. A continuous series of events A week later, James was apprehended by the
initiated by the offender, leading to police. What is the degree of participation of
the harm caused to the victim. James’ mother in the killing of Robert?
d. A pre-existing medical condition of a. Principal by indispensable
the victim that worsens due to the cooperation
offender’s act. b. Principal by direct participation
c. Accomplice
69. Which of the following scenarios illustrates
d. Accessory
an efficient intervening cause that absolves
74. Which of the following is NOT true about
the offender from criminal liability? conspiracy under the Revised Penal Code?
a. A driver hits a pedestrian, who later a. Conspiracy exists when two or more
dies due to the driver's failure to persons agree to commit a felony
bring the victim to the hospital. and decide to commit it.
b. A man shoots someone, but the b. Conspiracy must always be proven
victim dies from a natural calamity through direct evidence.
(e.g., an earthquake) while being c. When there is conspiracy, all
treated in the hospital. conspirators are liable as principals.
c. A suspect intentionally injures d. A person who conspires but does
another person, and the victim dies not physically participate in the
due to delayed medical attention. execution of the crime is still liable.
d. A suspect pushes someone into a
NOTE: Conspiracy can be proven through either
river, and the victim drowns due to
direct or circumstantial evidence, as it is often
their inability to swim.
inferred from the acts of the conspirators
70. Under Article 4(1), a person may still be
showing unity of purpose and intent.
criminally liable for error in personae. Which
of the following illustrates this principle?
a. Shooting at a person thinking he is 75. In a conspiracy, who is criminally liable for
the crime committed?
an enemy, but he turns out to be a
a. Only the person who physically
friend.
commits the criminal act.
b. Attempting to rob a safe, only to b. Only the mastermind who planned
find that it is empty. the crime.
c. Killing someone using a toy gun, c. All those who participated in the
thinking it was loaded. planning and execution of the crime.
d. Attempting to commit a crime but d. Only those who benefited from the
stopping voluntarily. crime.
76. Suppose that in a Bigamy case, the second
(3.2) Classify the participation of persons spouse knew the existence of her spouse’s
criminally liable for felonies including marriage with the first wife. What is the
conspiracy and proposal second wife’s criminal liability?
a. Principal by Inducement
b. Principal by Direct Participation
71. Zeno and Primo asked Bert to give them c. Accomplice
sketch of the location of Andy's house since d. Principal by Indispensable
they wanted to kill him. Bert agreed and drew cooperation
them sketch. Zeno and Primo drove to the 77. Juan, and Maria planned to rob a bank. Pedro
place and killed Andy. What crime did Bert acted as the lookout, Juan drove the getaway
commit? car, and Maria entered the bank and took the
a. Accomplice to murder, since his money. Who among them is liable as a
cooperation was minimal. principal?
b. Accessory to murder, since his map a. Only Maria, because she executed
facilitated the escape of the two. the crime.
b. Only Pedro and Juan, because they
c. None, since he took no step to take
helped in the commission of the
part executing the crime.
crime.
d. Principal to murder, since he acted c. All of them, because they acted in
in conspiracy with Zeno and Primo. furtherance of their common design.
d. None of them, because no violence
72. A induces B to kill C. B killed C by means of
was used during the robbery.
treachery. Should treachery be appreciated
78. Conspiracy as a mode of incurring criminal
also against A, the principal by inducement?
a. Yes, if he has knowledge that B killed liability under the RPC is:
C by means of treachery.

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 a. Punished as a separate crime in all 83. Persons who aid the felons to hide away
instances. evidence or profit from the fruits of the crimes
b. Punished only when the law are said to be.
specifically provides for it. a. Principals
c. Automatically punished if the crime b. Accessories
is successfully carried out. c. Accomplices
d. Not punishable if no overt act was
d. Conspirators
committed.
84. Which of the following is an example of
79. Which of the following is true about an
accomplice under the RPC? implied conspiracy?
a. An accomplice actively participates a. A group of people agree to rob a
in the execution of the crime. bank and plan its execution in detail.
b. An accomplice contributes to the b. Two men attack a victim
commission of the crime before or simultaneously without prior
during its execution without agreement.
participating in the conspiracy. c. A person provides a gun to
c. An accomplice is considered a someone, knowing it will be used for
principal because of his murder.
participation. d. A mastermind plans a crime and
d. An accomplice is punished with the
hires others to carry it out.
same penalty as the principal.
NOTE: Conspiracy can be implied when the
NOTE: Accomplices do not participate in the
actions of the offenders show a common
planning or decision-making but assist in the
purpose and intent, even without prior
commission of the crime.
agreement.

80. Which of the following differentiates a 85. Who among the following can be considered
principal by direct participation from an an accessory after the fact under the RPC?
accomplice?
a. A principal does not perform the a. A person who directly participated in
criminal act, while an accomplice the crime.
does. b. A person who harbored or assisted
b. A principal takes part in the the offender after the commission of
execution of the crime, while an
the crime to help them escape.
accomplice provides indirect
c. A person who planned the crime but
assistance.
c. A principal and an accomplice are did not execute it.
punished equally under the law. d. A person who encouraged the
d. An accomplice conspires to commit commission of the crime before it
the crime, while a principal does not. happened.

NOTE: Principals play a direct role in executing 86. If several individuals conspired to rob a
the crime, while accomplices assist without house and, in the process, one of them killed
directly participating in the execution. the homeowner, what is the liability of the
conspirators?
81. Valdes performed all necessary acts to set the a. All are liable for robbery only, as the
house on fire, but the fire was extinguished killing was not planned.
before any part of the house burned. b. Only the person who killed the
However, the jute sack and kerosene-soaked homeowner is liable for murder.
rag outside the house were burned. It were c. All are liable for robbery with
placed in a manner that could have burned homicide, as the killing was a
the house without timely intervention. What consequence of the robbery.
crime was committed by Valdes? d. The liability depends on who directly
a. Attempted murder participated in the killing.
b. Frustrated arson 87. Conspiracy to commit felony is punishable
c. Attempted arson only in cases in which the law specially
d. Arson provides a penalty therefor. Under which of
the following instances are the conspirators
82. Intod, armed with a firearm and with intent to not liable.
kill, positioned himself in front of Mr. a. Conspiracy to commit arson.
Palangpangan’s house, directly opposite the b. Conspiracy to commit terrorism.
latter’s bedroom, where he honestly believed c. Conspiracy to commit child
the supposed victim was located at that pornography.
moment. Intod wasted no time and riddled d. Conspiracy to commit trafficking in
with bullets said portion of the house. Luckily persons.
for Mr. Palangpangan, he was absent from his 88. Proposal to commit felony is punishable only
room at that moment as he was in another in cases in which the law specially provides a
city. Nobody was hit by the bullets fired by penalty therefor. Under which of the following
Intod. What crime was committed by Intod? instances are proponents NOT liable?
a. Attempted murder a. Proposal to commit coup d'etat
b. Frustrated murder b. Proposal to commit sedition.
c. No crime c. Proposal to commit rebellion.
d. Impossible crime d. Proposal to commit treason.

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 (3.3.) Determine the stages of the 94. Which of the following situations best
commission of felony and its illustrates the frustrated stage of a felony?
classification based on gravity, and the a. A person fires a gun at someone but
graduated scale of penalties. misses completely.
89. Which of the following is NOT a stage of the b. A person stabs another in the chest,
commission of a felony under the RPC? intending to kill, but the victim
a. Attempted stage survives due to immediate medical
b. Preparatory stage intervention.
c. Frustrated Stage c. A person plans a robbery but decides
d. Consummated Stage not to proceed.
d. A person steals a phone and
successfully takes it without being
90. When is a felony considered to be in the caught.
attempted stage? 95. When is a felony considered consummated?
a. When the offender begins the a. When the offender plans and starts
execution of the felony but is unable to execute the crime.
to perform all the acts necessary to b. When all acts necessary to commit
produce the intended result. the crime have been performed, and
b. When the offender has completed all the intended result is achieved.
the acts of execution but the felony c. When the offender attempts to
is not produced due to causes execute the crime but stops
independent of his will. voluntarily.
c. When the offender commits all the d. When the offender is arrested before
acts necessary to produce the performing all the acts of execution.
felony, and the intended result is 96. Which crime is considered as GRAVE Felony?
achieved. a. The crime committed has a penalty
d. When the offender merely plans to of imprisonment is at least 6 years
commit the felony without taking and 1 day.
any overt act. b. The crime committed has a penalty
of imprisonment of not exceeding 30
91. In an attempted felony, the offender's days
preparatory act ________. c. The penalty for the crime committed
a. Itself constitutes an offense. is imprisonment of reclusion
b. Must seem connected to the temporal
intended crime. d. The crime committed has a penalty
c. Requires another act to result in a of imprisonment ranging from 30
felony. days and 1 day to 6 years
d. Must be not connected to the 97. Which crime is considered as LESS GRAVE
intended crime. Felony?
a. The crime committed has a penalty
92. When are light felonies punishable? of imprisonment of at least 4 years
a. Light felonies are punishable in all and 1 day
stages of execution. b. The crime committed has a penalty
b. Light felonies are punishable only of imprisonment of not exceeding 30
when consummated. days
c. Light felonies are punishable only c. The crime committed has a penalty
when consummated with the of imprisonment ranging from 30
exception of those committed days and 1 day to 6 years
against persons or property. d. The crime committed has a penalty
d. Light felonies are punishable only of imprisonment of at least 6 years
when committed against persons or and 1 day
property. 98. What is the key difference between the
93. Can there be a frustrated impossible crime? attempted stage and the frustrated stage of a
a. Yes. When the crime is not produced felony?
by reason of the inherent a. In the attempted stage, the offender
impossibility of its accomplishment, performs all the acts of execution,
it is a frustrated impossible crime. while in the frustrated stage, they do
b. No. there can be no frustrated not.
impossible crime because the means b. In the attempted stage, the felony is
employed to accomplish the crime is prevented by external factors, while
inadequate or ineffectual. in the frustrated stage, it is
c. Yes, there can be frustrated prevented by the offender's
impossible crime when the act voluntary desistance.
performed would be an offense c. In the attempted stage, the felony is
against persons. incomplete, while in the frustrated
d. No. there can be no frustrated stage, all acts of execution have
impossible crime because the been performed but the felony is not
offender has already performed acts accomplished.
for the execution of the crime.

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 d.
In the attempted stage, the b. When the means employed to
offender is punished as a principal, prevent or repel the unlawful
while in the frustrated stage, they aggression are unreasonable.
are punished as an accomplice. c. When there is unlawful aggression,
99. How are felonies classified under the RPC reasonable necessity of the means
based on their gravity? employed, and lack of sufficient
a. Light felonies, less grave felonies, provocation.
grave felonies d. When the defender uses force after
b. Petty crimes, serious crimes, the aggression has ceased.
heinous crimes 106. What is this justifying circumstance wherein
c. Misdemeanors, felonies, treason the person assaulted is related to the accused
d. Minor felonies, intermediate by consanguinity within the fourth degree?
felonies, capital felonies a. Defense of relative
b. Parricide defense
100. Which of the following is considered a light c. Self-defense
felony under the RPC? d. Defense of stranger
a. Slight physical injuries 107. In the exempting circumstance of compulsion
b. Serious physical injuries of irresistible force, the irresistible force must
c. Qualified theft be in the form of ______.
d. Arson a. Intimidation
101. Which of the following is an example of a b. Physical fear
grave felony? c. Physical force
a. Robbery d. Spiritual force
b. Trespass to dwelling 108. Which of the following is a valid instance of
c. Alarms and scandal defense of a stranger?
d. Unjust vexation a. When a person defends their sibling
102. What distinguishes a less grave felony from from an unlawful aggression.
a grave felony? b. When a person defends their spouse
a. Less grave felonies are punishable without any lawful reason.
by arresto menor, while grave c. When a person defends a random
felonies are punishable by reclusion bystander against unlawful
perpetua. aggression.
b. Less grave felonies are punishable d. When a person retaliates against
by correctional penalties, while someone who hurt a stranger days
grave felonies are punishable by earlier.
afflictive penalties. 109. Accused was charged for homicide. He
c. Less grave felonies are punishable interposes the justifying circumstance of self-
by fines only, while grave felonies defense. In case, the burden of proof __
involve imprisonment. a. shifts to the accused
d. Less grave felonies are always b. rests to whoever presents the
bailable, while grave felonies are evidence
not. c. still belongs to the prosecution
d. upon the discretion of the court
103. Which of the following light felonies is 110. What is this Justifying circumstance wherein
punishable even when only attempted or the accused, in making the defense, must not
frustrated? be induced by revenge or ill motive?
a. Theft a. Defense of stranger
b. Treason b. Self defense of relative
c. Alarms & Scandal c. Defense of relative
d. Bribery d. Self defense of stranger
111. Which of the following exempts a person from
criminal liability under the RPC?
a. Committing a crime under voluntary
(3.4) Apply the different circumstances intoxication.
affecting criminal liability b. Committing a crime under an
irresistible force.
c. Committing a crime due to mere
104. The illness of the offender must diminish the passion or obfuscation.
exercise of his willpower. What kind of d. Committing a crime in immediate
modifying circumstance is this? retaliation for a wrongful act.
a. Exempting Circumstances
b. Mitigating Circumstances 112. The condition sine-qua non or indispensable
c. Alternative Circumstances element in self defense.
d. Justifying Circumstances a. Provocation
105. When does self-defense absolve a person b. Unlawful aggression
from criminal liability? c. Reasonable necessity
a. When there is provocation on the d. Irresistible force
part of the aggressor. 113. A child aged 9 years old commits theft. Is
the child criminally liable?

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 a. Yes, because theft is punishable c. The offender acted under fear of an
under the law. imminent threat.
b. Yes, because minors can be d. The crime was committed in the
punished for property crimes. heat of passion.
c. No, because minors below 15 years
old are exempt from criminal 119. Deeply enraged by his wife's infidelity, the
liability. husband shot and killed her lover. The
d. No, unless the minor acted with husband subsequently surrendered to the
discernment. police. How will the court appreciate the
mitigating circumstances of (i) passion or
114. To save himself from crashing into an obfuscation, (i) vindicating of a grave offense,
unlighted truck abandoned on the road, Jose and (i) voluntary surrender that the husband
swerved his car to the right towards the invoked and proved?
graveled shoulder, killing two bystanders. Is a. It will appreciate passion or
he entitled to the justifying circumstances of obfuscation and voluntary surrender
state of necessity? as one mitigating circumstances and
a. No, because the bystanders had vindication of grave offense as
nothing to do with the abandoned another.
truck on the road. b. It will appreciate passion or
b. No, because the injury done is obfuscation and vindication of a
greater than the evil to be avoided. grave offense as just one mitigating
c. Yes, since the instinct of self- circumstance and voluntary
preservation takes priority in an surrender as another.
emergency. c. It will appreciate all three mitigating
d. Yes, since the bystanders should circumstances separately.
have kept off the shoulder of the d. It will appreciate the three
road. mitigating circumstances only as
115. Voluntary surrender can mitigate criminal one.
liability if:
120. A killed M. After the killing, A went to
a. The accused surrenders after being Barangay Chairman of the place of incident to
arrested. seek protection against the retaliation of M's
b. The accused voluntarily confesses relatives. May voluntary surrender be
during trial. appreciated as mitigating circumstances in
c. The accused surrenders to favor A?
authorities voluntarily and a. Yes. A surrender to the Barangay
unconditionally. Chairman who is a person authority.
d. The accused surrenders only after b. Yes. The surrender of A would save
the issuance of an arrest warrant. the authorities the trouble and
expense for his arrest.
116. Voluntary intoxication is considered a c. No. A did not unconditionally submit
mitigating circumstance when: himself to the authorities in order to
acknowledge his participation in the
a. It is habitual and chronic. killing or to save the authorities the
b. It is accidental and not habitual. trouble expenses necessary for his
c. The crime committed is search and capture.
premeditated. d. No. The surrender to the Barangay
d. The offender was intoxicated to gain Chairman is not a surrender to the
courage. proper authorities.
121. In malversation of public funds, the offender's
return of the amount malversed has the
117. Which of the following is a privileged following effect:
mitigating circumstance? a. It is exculpatory.
b. It is inculpatory, an admission of the
a. Sufficient provocation on the part of commission of the crime.
the offended party. c. It is mitigating
b. Intoxication that is not habitual. d. The imposable penalty will depend
c. Passion or obfuscation caused by an on what was not returned.
unlawful act. 122. Relationship may be considered an
d. Minority of the offender who is aggravating circumstance in which of the
above 15 but below 18 years of age. following cases?
a. When a wife kills her husband out of
118. Which of the following is an aggravating self-defense.
circumstance? b. When a son robs his father.
c. When a wife steals money from her
a. The crime was committed during husband.
nighttime to facilitate the offense. d. When a husband destroys his wife’s
b. The crime was committed in a property.
crowded marketplace. 123. Intoxication may be considered an
aggravating circumstance if:

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 a. The offender is voluntarily d. No, A is not a quasi-recidivist
intoxicated at the time of the because A should have served out
commission of the crime. his first sentence first prior to
b. The offender becomes intoxicated as conviction for the second offense.
a result of being forced by another. 129. Recidivism exists when:
c. The offender has a habit of drinking a. The offender commits a crime for
to commit crimes. the first time.
d. The offender was drunk but later b. The offender commits a crime after
regrets the crime. serving their sentence for another
crime embraced in the same title.
124. Which of the following is true regarding c. The offender commits a crime while
mitigating and aggravating circumstances? drunk.
a. A mitigating circumstance cancels d. The offender commits a crime
out an aggravating circumstance. unintentionally.
b. An aggravating circumstance 130. A, with intent to kill, entered the house of B
automatically increases the penalty. and killed B. Here,__________.
c. Mitigating and aggravating a. homicide is committed aggravated
circumstances do not affect criminal by dwelling
liability. b. there is trespass to dwelling
d. Aggravating circumstances only aggravated by dwelling
apply to heinous crimes. c. there is only trespass to dwelling
125. A qualifying aggravating circumstances ____ d. no crime was committed
a. Changes the description and the
nature of the offense 131. What is the effect of mitigating circumstances
b. Increases the penalty to its next on penalties?
degree but absorbs all the other
aggravating circumstances. a. They increase the penalty by one
c. Raises the penalty by two periods degree.
higher. b. They reduce the penalty by one
d. Is one which applies only in degree.
conjunction with another c. They exempt the offender from
aggravating circumstance. liability.
126. A crime was committed in the dwelling of the d. They have no effect on penalties.
offended party, without provocation. This
circumstance is:
a. A mitigating circumstance. (3.5) Identify the various mode of extinction of
b. An aggravating circumstance. criminal liability in a given scenario.
c. A justifying circumstance.
d. An alternative circumstance.
127. Which of the following situations involves 132. A, B, and C, raped D. Each one of them had
superior strength as an aggravating their turn in raping D. Eventually, D married
circumstance? A. Here, ______.
a. A person ambushes their victim with a. Only A will benefit from
a gun. extinguishment of criminal liability
b. A group of men attack an unarmed b. A, B, and C will all benefit from
woman. extinguishment of criminal liability
c. A person kills another during a bar c. D is prohibited by law from marrying
fight. any of her rapists.
d. A person kills someone after a d. Marriage of the victim in rape will not
heated argument. affect the offender’s criminal liability
128. A was convicted by final judgment of theft. 133. An investigation was conducted for the death
While he was serving sentence for theft, he of C and after more than 6 years of
was found in possession of marijuana. He was investigation, A discovered that B is the
charged with possession of dangerous drugs perpetrator and is dead already. The wife of
under RA 9165, and was found guilty therein. C wanted to pursue the filing of the criminal
Is A considered a quasi-recidivist? case. What advice can you give to the wife?
a. Yes, A is considered a quasi- a. That the death of B does not result
recidivist because he was serving to civil liability
sentence when he was found in b. That the death of B absolutely
possession of dangerous drugs extinguishes the criminal liability
b. No, A is not a quasi-recidivist for the c. That the death of B does only
reason that offense for which he was partially extinguishes the criminal
serving sentence is different from liability
the second offense for which he was d. None of the above
convicted anew.
c. No, A is not a quasi-recidivist for the 134. Which can extinguish ABSOLUTE criminal
reason that the second offense is not liability?
a felony or one which is punishable a. Parole
by the Revised Penal Code. b. Conditional Pardon
c. Commutation of Sentence
d. Amnesty

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 138. X committed unjust vexation on January 1,
135. When will prescription of crime start? 2010. Unjust vexation is a light offense
a. Upon the discovery of the police punishable by 1 to 30 days of imprisonment.
b. Upon the discovery of the Immediately after committing the crime, your
complainant classmate advised X to go to the USA and stay
c. Upon the discovery of the witness therein for a few months or years so that the
d. Upon the discovery of any person crime may prescribe. Was the advice legally
correct?
136. X committed the crime of homicide a. Yes, because after the lapse of a
(punishable by reclusion temporal) on certain time in hiding, the crime will
December 25, 2010. On August 1, 2011, he prescribe.
was sentenced by the Regional Trial Court to b. No, because prescription of crime
a maximum of twenty years imprisonment. does not run when the offender is
On January 1, 2012, X escaped from the New absent from the Philippines.
Bilibid Prison and successfully hid from the c. Yes, because the answer is no.
authorities. On January 31, 2015, he was d. It depends if there is an extradition
apprehended at Dasmarinas Cavite. Please treaty between the Philippines and
give your comment. the USA.
a. X can be sent back to Bilibid because
the crime has not yet prescribed. 139. X committed unjust vexation on January 1,
b. X can't be sent back to Bilibid 2010. X is known by the authorities as the
because the crime has prescribed. doer of the crime as early as January 1, 2010.
c. X can be sent back to Bilibid because Unjust vexation is a light offense punishable
the penalty has not yet prescribed. by 1 to 30 days of imprisonment. Immediately
d. X can't be sent back to Bilibid after committing the crime, X went to Mt.
anymore because the penalty has Pinatubo and hid therein for one year. It was
prescribed. only after one year that X was apprehended.
Can X still be charged in court?
NOTE: What is involved here is prescription of a. Yes, because he was apprehended.
penalty, not prescription of crime. Therefore, b. No, because the crime has
Article 92 of the RPC will apply. According to the prescribed.
article 92, Afflicted penalties, such as reclusion c. Yes, the crime has not yet prescribed
temporal, will prescribe in 15 years. The d. No, because the penalty has
counting of 15 years will start from the moment prescribed.
of escape from prison by the accused, that is
January 1 2012. Since the accused was re- Reason: Unjust vexation is a light offense.
captured on January 31,2015, the 15 years According to Article 90, light offense prescribes
prescriptive period had not yet lapsed. in two months. Here, the accused was charged
only after one year from the date of the crime of
137. X committed the crime of homicide its discovery, hence, the crime has prescribed,
(punishable by reclusion temporal) on Take note that this involves prescription of
December 25, 2010. On August 1, 2011, he crime and not prescription of penalty
was sentenced by the Regional Trial Court to
a maximum of twenty years imprisonment. 140. The death of the accused extinguishes his
On January 1, 2012, X escaped from the New criminal liability but civil liability is not
Bilibid Prison and successfully hid from the extinguished ________.
authorities. On January 31, 2027, he was a. when the death of the accused
apprehended at Dasmarinas, Cavite. Please occurred before conviction
give your comment. b. when the death of the accused
a. X can be sent back to Bilibid because occurred after conviction and after
the crime has not yet prescribed. he has perfected his appeal from
b. X can't be sent back to Bilibid conviction
because the crime has prescribed. c. when the death of the accused
c. X can be sent back to Bilibid because occurred after final judgment
the penalty has not yet prescribed. d. when the death of the accused
d. X cannot be sent back to Bilibid occurred during the pendency of his
anymore because the penalty has appeal
prescribed. Prescription of penalties shall commence to run
from the date when the culprit:
Evade the service of the sentence
This involves prescription of penalty. According
to Article 92, reclusion temporal, being an It shall be interrupted if the defendant:
afflictive penalty, prescribes in fifteen years. • Should give himself up
The counting of the prescriptive period will start • Be captured
on January 1,2012, the date of escape of the • Should go to some foreign country with
convict. The authorities had only until January which has no extradition treaty (If walang
1, 2027 to recapture the convict. Since he was extradition treaty, interrupted ang
recaptured on January 31, 2027, the penalty has prescription)
already prescribed. • Or should commit another crime before the
expiration of the period of the prescription

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 141. A person convicted of theft has fully served
the penalty imposed by the court. What is the BOOK 2 (CLJ 4)
effect of this on their criminal liability? (4.1) Analyze the elements of crimes against
persons, specifically murder, homicide,
a. The criminal liability is extinguished. parricide, infanticide, rape, physical injuries,
b. The civil liability is also extinguished. and illegal discharge of firearms.
c. Both criminal and civil liabilities
remain.
d. Criminal liability remains until the 148. One night, Anne, a married young woman,
offender applies for clemency. was sleeping when he felt a man on top of
142. Which is NOT an absolute extinction of her. She thought it was her husband, so Anne
criminal liability? let the man have sex with her. After reaching
a. Death climax, the man said, “Anne, I love you. I am
b. Full service of sentence not your husband. I am Peter”. Anne got
c. Conditional Pardon angry she took a gun and shot the man. Anne
d. Amnesty is charged with homicide. Can she invoke self-
defense/defense of honor?
143. What happens when a crime prescribes? a. Yes. Anne is the victim of unlawful
a. The crime is considered as if it never aggression here, unlawful sexual
happened. intercourse.
b. The offender is permanently b. No. The unlawful aggression against
immune from prosecution. her honor had already ceased at the
c. The crime can still be prosecuted if time of the shooting.
the victim insists. c. It depends if Peter would marry
d. The offender may still be held liable Anne.
if found. d. Yes. If Anne can show that she
144. To be eligible for the grant of conditional locked the door of her house, it will
pardon, what portion of the sentence must negate negligence on her part.
have been served by a petitioner-prisoner? 149. Under the above set of facts where Anne
a. At least one fourth of the maximum allowed a man to have sex with her, thinking
of his indeterminate sentence that he was her husband, the mitigating
b. At least one half of the maximum of circumstance in favor of Anne, if he
his indeterminate sentence immediately killed Peter after the sexual
c. At least one fifth of the maximum of intercourse is _____________
his indeterminate sentence a. defense of honor
d. At least one third of the maximum of b. immediate vindication of a grave
his indeterminate sentence offense
c. incomplete self-defense
145. An offender receives an absolute pardon d. self-defense
from the President. What is the effect on their
criminal liability? 150. Juan killed Pedro, a child who is not related to
a. Criminal liability is extinguished, but him and is under 12 years old. What crime
civil liability remains. was committed?
b. Both criminal and civil liabilities are a. Murder
extinguished. b. Infanticide
c. Only civil liability is extinguished. c. Cattle Rustling
d. Criminal liability is extinguished, but d. Parricide
political rights are not restored.

146. What happens to the criminal liability of an 151. Axel killed his illegitimate granddaughter,
accused who has been acquitted by the court? Anna, 11 years old. What crime was
committed?
a. It is extinguished along with civil a. Murder
liability. b. Infanticide
b. Criminal liability is extinguished, but c. Cattle Rustling
civil liability may remain if based on d. Parricide
other sources of obligation.
c. Criminal liability and civil liability 152. The accused discharged his firearm while he
remain. was 200 yards away from the victim. The
d. Civil liability is automatically bullet did not reach the target since the
extinguished regardless of distance was so great. There is evidence that
circumstances. the firing was merely made to frighten the
147. What happens if the penalty imposed for a victim. What crime was committed?
crime prescribes? a. Attempted homicide/murder
a. The penalty can still be enforced. b. Illegal discharge of firearm
b. The criminal liability is extinguished. c. Alarms and scandals
c. The penalty is reduced by one d. No crime
degree.
d. The offender must serve a different 153. Grace gave birth to a fetus with an
penalty. intrauterine life of less than 7 months, Grace

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 killed the fetus within 24 hours from its wife and he was buttoning his shirt. The place
delivery. Grace committed _______ was a secluded “talahiban”. The husband
a. Infanticide suspected that the two had just performed
b. No Crime sexual congress so he killed his wife and the
c. Parricide man. Here, the husband is _______________
d. Abortion a. criminally liable
b. not criminally liable
Basis: Campanilla c. exempted from criminal liability
d. none of the above
If the victim (embryo or fetus) is killed inside
the maternal womb, the crime is abortion The husband is criminally liable because he did
regardless of whether he is viable or not (People not actually catch them in the act of sexual
vs. Paycana, G.R. No. 179035, April 16, 2008; intercourse. In order to use the benefits of
People vs. Salufrania, G.R. No. L-50884, March Article 247, The killing spouse must have
30, 1988). If the victim is killed outside the witnessed actual sexual intercourse.
maternal womb, the crime is either abortion if
the victim is a born-alive non-viable fetus
(People vs. Detablan, CA, 40 O.G. No. 9, p. 30); 157. The husband saw his wife and another man
or infanticide, if the victim is a born-alive viable having sex at around 6:00 pm. The husband
infant with a life of less than 3 days old (U.S. v. immediately chased the man to kill him, but
Vedra, G.R. No. L-4779, November 20, 1908; the man was able to run away and escaped.
People vs. Paycana, Jr., supra). The husband immediately returned home (at
around 7:00 pm), and upon seeing his wife
climbing up the stairs killed her. Here, the
A fetus is viable if he can sustain a life husband committed the crime of ______.
independent from the mother. A fetus with an a. Murder
intrauterine life of 6 months is not viable b. Homicide
(People vs. Detablan, CA, 40 O.G. No. 9, p. 30; c. Parricide
People vs. Paycana, supra). Thus, if the d. Death under exceptional
intrauterine life of the fetus is more than 6 circumstance
months, he is considered as viable. However,
the viability of the fetus is not solely dependent 158. Charlie and Lea had been married for more
on its intrauterine life. Regardless of the than 6 months. They live together with the
duration of its intrauterine life, an expert children of Lea from her first husband. Charlie
assessment of the doctor on the viable condition had sexual relation with Jane, the 14- year old
of the fetus must be given considerable weight. daughter of Lea. Jane loves Charlie very
much. What was the crime committed by
Charlie?
154. X got mad with his pregnant wife and struck a. Simple Seduction
her with his fist. The woman died and the b. Qualified Seduction
fetus was expelled. What crime was c. Consented Abduction
committed? d. Rape
a. Complex crime of physical injuries
with unintentional abortion 159. Bravo, a sexual pervert, used his middle and
b. Complex crime of homicide with ring finger in penetrating the genitals of
unintentional abortion Chery, his neighbor. What crime is there?
c. Complex crime of parricide with a. Somody
unintentional abortion b. No crime
d. Abortion only c. Acts of lasciviousness
d. Rape
155. A suspected shoplifter who was arrested by
the police inside a grocery was immediately 160. The crimes of piracy and brigandage are
taken to a vacant lot adjacent to the grocery qualified and provided with greater penalties
store and was immediately maltreated if this crime is also committed on the occasion
therein. This is _________. of the said crimes. Which of the herein crimes
a. maltreatment of prisoner is that?
b. physical injuries a. Robbery
c. attempted murder b. Grave slander
d. abuse of authority c. Rape
d. Estafa
Maltreatment of prisoners under article 235 will
take place only if a victim is a “prisoner” in the 161. X slapped the face of Y without the motive of
legal sense. Here, the victim is not yet a prisoner casting dishonor on Y. What crime was
when he was maltreated, hence, our answer is committed?
only “physical injuries” a. Slight Physical Injuries
b. Serious Physical Injuries
c. Less Serious Physical Injuries
156. The husband saw/caught his wife rising up d. Maltreatment
and putting on her underwear while there was
a man who was a few meters away from the

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 162. Balmond and Layla are not married and they public officer. If the public officer
have a child Alpha. During a storm, Balmond committed the act in his private
killed Alpha. What crime is committed by capacity, this crime is not committed.
Balmond?
a. Murder (4.2) Differentiate the crimes against property
b. Homicide specifically theft, robbery, brigandage, estafa
c. Parricide and malicious mischief and crimes against
d. Infanticide personal liberty specifically kidnapping and
163. Dumon had previously consented to his wife's serious illegal detention, unlawful arrest,
relationship with another man. Later, Dumon threats and coercion.
was charged with double murder for the
deaths of Manuel Magbanua and Loreto
Magalona. Dumon mistakenly believed the 167. Which of the following constitutes theft?
couple to be his estranged wife and her a. Taking someone's property openly
alleged lover. Upon discovering them and with violence.
together, he shot and killed both individuals. b. Taking someone's property secretly
Can Dumon invoke Art. 247 of RPC? and without consent.
a. Yes, because of his wife’s infidelity c. Obtaining someone's property
b. Yes, but mitigating circumstance through false pretenses.
because of passion or obfuscation d. Destroying someone's property with
c. No, because Dumon had previously malicious intent.
consented to his wife’s relationship
with another man. 168. Robbery is classified as aggravated when:
d. No, Art. 247 is available as a defense
if crime was committed by the a. The stolen property is worth more
father. than PHP 250,000.
b. It is committed in an uninhabited
164. X slapped the face of Y with the intent to cast place or by a band.
dishonor, discredit, and contempt Y. What c. It involves deceit or abuse of
crime was committed? confidence.
a. Slight Physical Injuries d. The offender is below 18 years old.
b. Serious Physical Injuries
c. Slander by deed 169. Which is required to establish the crime of
d. Maltreatment brigandage?
165. V A killed B while they were in mission to
planet Mars. What crime was committed by a. The offenders acted individually in
the former? different locations.
a. Murder b. A group was organized for the
b. Homicide purpose of committing robbery or
c. Qualified Homicide kidnapping.
d. No crime c. A large amount of money or
property was stolen.
166. A jailer inflicted injury on the prisoner d. There was no intent to commit
because of his personal grudge against the robbery or theft.
latter. The injury caused illness of the prisoner
for more than thirty (30) days. What is the 170. Which act constitutes estafa under Article
proper charge against the jailer? 315 of the RPC?
a. The jailer should be charged with
maltreatment of prisoner and a. Secretly taking personal property.
serious physical injuries. b. Forging documents to defraud
b. The jailer should be charged with another.
serious physical injuries only. c. Breaking into a house to take
c. The jailer should be charged with property.
complex crime of maltreatment of d. Threatening someone to give up
prisoner with serious physical property.
injuries.
d. The jailer should be charged with 171. Which of the following is not an element of
maltreatment of prisoner only. malicious mischief?
a. The damage was caused
Maltreatment must relate to the inadvertently
correction or handling of a prisoner b. The damage caused does not fall
under his charge or must be for the within the provisions of arson
purpose of extorting a confession, or of c. The offender has caused damage to
obtaining some information form the the property of another
prisoner. A jailer who inflicted injuries d. The damage was caused deliberately
on the prisoner because of personal
grudge against him is liable for physical
injuries only (People v. Javier, CA, 54 OG 172. Kidnapping becomes a crime of serious illegal
6622; RPC by Luis Reyes). Maltreatment detention when:
of prisoner is a crime committed by a a. The victim is a minor.

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 b. The detention lasts more than 24 and with intent to gain. If the offender
hours. maliciously damages the property before taking
c. The offender is a public officer. it, the act still constitutes theft as the damage is
d. The victim is physically restrained in incidental to the unlawful taking, provided no
an isolated place. violence or intimidation was used against a
173. Josh is a private individual who detained person.
Erwin for a period of less than 3 days. Josh
threatened to kill the latter. What is the crime
committed? (4.3) Apply the elements of other felonies
a. Illegal Detention specifically piracy (PD 532 and RPC), arbitrary
b. Unlawful Detention detention, violation of domicile, assault, alarm
c. Serious Illegal Detention and scandal, infidelity in the custody of
d. Slight Illegal Detention prisoners, grave scandal, bribery
174. What distinguishes grave threats from light
threats?
a. The value of the property involved. 181. When is arbitrary detention committed by a
b. The type of violence threatened. public officer?
c. Whether the threat amounts to a
crime a. When a person is detained without a
d. The identity of the victim. legal ground
175. What makes kidnapping aggravated? b. When a private individual detains
a. The victim is a government another without legal grounds.
employee. c. When a person is detained for less
b. A ransom is demanded. than 24 hours.
c. The offender is armed. d. When a valid arrest is made but the
d. The detention exceeds three days. detainee is released early.
176. A person kidnaps a child and demands 182. If the offender is a public officer is vested
ransom but releases the child unharmed. with power to arrest and detain and he
What crime was committed? detained a person without legal grounds, the
crime committed is _______
a. Kidnapping with serious illegal a. Unlawful detention
detention. b. Illegal detention
b. Kidnapping for ransom. c. Arbitrary detention
c. Grave coercion. d. Abduction
d. Grave threats 183. Which act constitutes violation of domicile?
177. A thief ties up a store owner while stealing
money from the cash register. What crime is a. A police officer enters a house
committed? without a warrant and against the
a. Theft. owner’s will.
b. Robbery. b. A landlord inspects a rented property
c. Robbery with violence or without notifying the tenant.
intimidation. c. A person enters a property to
d. Grave coercion. retrieve their belongings.
178. A person finds a lost wallet containing money d. A public officer serves a warrant of
but decides to keep it despite knowing the arrest at night.
owner. What crime is committed?
a. Theft. 184. What constitutes infidelity in the custody of
b. Estafa. prisoners under the RPC?
c. Malicious mischief. a. A jail officer tortures a detainee
d. Robbery. under custody.
179. Qualified theft occurs when: b. A jail officer permits a prisoner to
escape.
a. Property is stolen by someone in a c. A public officer unlawfully arrests a
position of trust or confidence. person.
b. Property is taken through violence or d. A police officer detains someone for
intimidation. less than 12 hours without a
c. A group conspires to steal property. complaint.
d. A minor commits the act of theft. 185. What constitutes grave scandal under the
RPC?
180. Which crime is committed when a person a. Posting offensive remarks on social
maliciously damages someone's property and media.
then takes it with intent to gain? b. Performing grossly indecent acts in a
public place that offend morals.
a. Malicious Mischief c. Engaging in a heated argument in a
b. Theft public area.
c. Robbery d. Violently breaking into someone’s
d. Qualified Theft house at night.
186. V Money laundering involves the following
NOTE: theft is committed when personal stages EXCEPT ____.
property is taken without the owner’s consent a. Integration
b. Placement

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 c. Accumulation annulment case is pending, Carlo marries
d. Layering another woman. Can Carlo be charged with
187. A Which of the following constitutes direct bigamy?
bribery? a. Yes, because his first marriage is still
valid until the annulment is granted.
a. A public officer solicits money in b. No, because an annulment case is
exchange for performing their duty. already filed.
b. A person offers a public officer c. No, because he intended to annul
money, but the officer refuses. the first marriage.
c. A public officer demands money to d. Yes, because Carlo should wait five
expedite the processing of a years after the annulment is filed.
document. 194. Teresa marries Albert, who claims he is
d. A person bribes another to testify single. After 10 years, Teresa learns that
falsely in court. Albert was already married before their
wedding. Can Teresa file a bigamy case
188. In searching domicile under Art. 130 of the against Albert?
RPC, if owner of the house or any member of a. Yes, because Albert concealed his
the family is not around. How many witnesses first marriage.
residing in the area are required in order to b. No, because Teresa acted in good
have a valid search? faith by believing Albert was single.
a. 3 c. No, because Teresa was unaware of
b. 2 Albert's marital status at the time of
c. 1 their marriage.
d. 5 d. Yes, because the validity of Teresa’s
marriage depends on the annulment
189. When is piracy considered qualified under of Albert's first marriage.
the RPC? 195. A group of armed men hijacks a Philippine-
a. When committed in territorial registered cargo vessel in international
waters. waters, stealing goods and injuring several
b. When committed by an armed band. crew members. What crime have the armed
c. When accompanied by murder, men committed?
homicide, rape, or physical injuries. a. Robbery with Violence
d. When the offenders are minors. b. Piracy
c. Qualified Theft
190. Which of the following is NOT considered an d. Terrorism
act of grave scandal? 196. Armed individuals hijack a passenger vessel
and commit acts of sexual assault and
a.
Engaging in sexual acts in a public murder during the attack. What crime are
park. they liable for?
b. Hosting an indecent event in a a. Piracy
private venue with invited guests b. Qualified Piracy
only. c. Robbery with Homicide
c. Walking naked in a public street. d. Kidnapping
d. Performing obscene gestures in a
crowded area. 197. The accused with lewd design brought the
(4.4) Compare the crimes against honor woman who is a minor in a secluded place but
specifically slander by deed and intriguing with the consent of the latter. The accused is
against honor and crimes against chastity liable for the crime of _____.
specifically concubinage, adultery, seduction a. Simple seduction
and abduction, including bigamy. b. Forcible abduction
c. qualified abduction
191. Who can file a complaint for concubinage d. Consented abduction
under the RPC? 198. Pedro marries Carla in 2010. Without
a. Any relative of the offended wife. obtaining an annulment or a declaration of
b. The wife of the offending husband. nullity, Pedro marries Susan in 2015. Carla
c. The State through the public files a bigamy case against Pedro after
prosecutor. learning about the second marriage. Is Pedro
d. The concubine herself. guilty of bigamy?
e. a. Yes, because he entered into a
192. Juan marries Maria in 2015. In 2018, while second marriage while the first
still married to Maria, Juan marries another marriage was still valid.
woman, Anna, without obtaining a legal b. No, because Carla did not consent to
annulment or declaration of nullity for his first the bigamy case being filed.
marriage. What crime has Juan committed? c. Yes, because Susan did not know
a. Adultery about Pedro's first marriage.
b. Concubinage d. No, because Pedro can remarry
c. Bigamy without annulment if separated for
d. Fraud more than 5 years.
193. Marissa files for the annulment of her
marriage to Carlo in 2020. While the

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 199. Which of the following is required to concubine. His wife discovers the
establish the crime of adultery? arrangement and files a complaint. What
a. The husband must consent to the crime has Juan committed?
relationship. a. Adultery
b. Proof that the wife engaged in b. Concubinage
sexual intercourse with a man who c. Bigamy
is not her husband. d. Violation of Domicile
c. The wife must live with another man 206. Anna, a married woman, files an adultery
continuously for at least 6 months. case against her husband, Luis, after
d. The husband must be separated discovering he is living with his mistress.
from the wife legally. Can Anna successfully file the case?
200. Which of the following constitutes acts of a. Yes, as long as she can prove the
lasciviousness? extramarital relationship.
b. No, because adultery applies only
a.Publicly displaying obscene to married women, not men.
gestures. c. Yes, if she files the case jointly with
b. Engaging in sexual intercourse her children.
without consent. d. No, because concubinage is the
c. Committing lewd acts against proper charge against her husband.
another person’s will 207. Maria’s husband accuses her of adultery,
d. Spreading explicit photos of claiming she is often seen talking to another
someone without their consent. man. Can the husband file an adultery case
201. What distinguishes forcible abduction from against Maria?
consented abduction?

a. The age of the victim. a. Yes, because talking to another man

b. The use of deceit versus force or is evidence of infidelity.
intimidation. b. No, because there is no evidence of
c. Whether the victim is a married or sexual intercourse.
unmarried woman. c. Yes, because Maria is married and
d. Whether the victim is taken for interacting with another man is
ransom. suspicious.
202. Which of the following elements is required d. No, because adultery can only be
to prove bigamy under the RPC? filed by a public prosecutor.
a. The second marriage is performed 208. Martha discovers that her husband has been
with the consent of the first spouse. cohabiting with another woman in a separate
b. The accused contracted a second residence. What is required for Martha to file
marriage while the first marriage is a concubinage case against her husband?
still valid. a. Proof of her husband’s intent to
c. The accused obtained a legal leave their marriage.
annulment before the second b. Proof of cohabitation or scandalous
marriage. maintenance of the mistress.
d. The second marriage occurred c. Written consent from the husband.
outside the Philippines. d. A barangay conciliation certificate.
(4.5) Recall the punishable acts under the
203. What is the key difference between following Special Penal Laws: Human
concubinage and adultery? Trafficking, Terrorism, Hazing, Safe Space Act.

a. Concubinage requires sexual 209. Which of the following constitutes human

intercourse, while adultery does not. trafficking under the Anti-Trafficking in
b. Concubinage is committed by the Persons Act of 2003 (RA 9208)?
husband, while adultery is a. Offering someone a legitimate job
committed by the wife. abroad.
c. Adultery requires proof of b. Recruiting, transporting, or
cohabitation, while concubinage harboring a person through fraud or
does not. coercion for exploitation.
d. Adultery can be filed by any c. Asking a family member to work
interested party, while concubinage voluntarily without pay.
cannot. d. Providing temporary shelter to
204. Maria, a married woman, engages in an someone without asking for
extramarital affair and is caught by her compensation.
husband in a hotel room with another man. 210. Maria, a recruiter, promises several
What crime has Maria committed under individuals high-paying jobs abroad. Upon
Philippine law? arrival in another country, the recruits are
a. Concubinage forced to work in inhumane conditions
b. Adultery without pay. What crime has Maria
c. Grave Scandal committed?
d. Bigamy a. Illegal Recruitment
205. Juan, a married man, moves into a house b. Human Trafficking
with another woman, maintaining her as his c. Estafa

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 d. Illegal Detention NOTE: The Anti-Hazing Act of 1995, as amended
NOTE: Under the Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act, by RA 11053, prohibits all forms of hazing
recruiting individuals through fraud or coercion involving physical harm, regardless of the
for forced labor, slavery, or exploitation victim’s consent.
constitutes human trafficking.
215. Which of the following is prohibited under
the Safe Spaces Act (RA 11313)?
a. Criticizing someone’s opinions
211. Under the Anti-Terrorism Act of 2020 (RA during a debate.
11479), which of the following is considered b. Catcalling, making unwanted sexual
an act of terrorism? advances, or groping someone in a
a. Peacefully protesting against public place.
government policies. c. Giving constructive feedback to a
b. Destroying public infrastructure with colleague in a professional setting.
the intent to intimidate the d. Engaging in a consensual romantic
population or destabilize the relationship at work.
government. 216. While walking in a public park, Anna
c. Publishing an article critical of experiences catcalling and sexual remarks
government officials. from a group of individuals. She feels
d. Organizing a rally within the threatened and reports the incident. What
boundaries of the law. crime have the individuals committed?
a. Grave Scandal
NOTE: Under RA 11479, terrorism includes acts b. Gender-Based Sexual Harassment
that cause death, destruction, or harm to c. Slander
intimidate the public or destabilize the d. Public Disturbance
government. Peaceful protests and criticisms
are protected by law unless they incite violence NOTE: The Safe Spaces Act prohibits catcalling,
or terror. unwanted sexual remarks, and other forms of
gender-based harassment in public spaces,
ensuring the safety and dignity of individuals.
212. A group of individuals plants explosives in a
public plaza with the intent to intimidate the
population and disrupt government activities. 217. A criminal group recruits minors and forces
No casualties occur, but the explosion causes them to work in a sweatshop. They are also
fear among the public. What crime has been planning to carry out acts of violence to
committed? destabilize local government offices. What
a. Alarm and Scandal crimes can be charged against the group?
b. Terrorism
c. Grave Threats a. Human Trafficking and Terrorism
d. Arson b. Hazing and Grave Coercion
NOTE: Under the Anti-Terrorism Act of 2020, c. Safe Spaces Violation and Illegal
acts causing damage to property with the intent Recruitment
to intimidate the population or destabilize d. Alarm and Scandal
government structures qualify as terrorism,
regardless of casualties. EVIDENCE (5.1) Recall important terminologies
like evidence, proof beyond reasonable doubt,
213. Which act is punishable under the Anti- substantial evidence, preponderance of
Hazing Act of 1995 (as amended by RA evidence, equipoise of evidence,
11053)? equiponderance of evidence

a. Conducting team-building activities 218. What is the definition of evidence under

involving trust exercises. Philippine law?
b. Forcing neophytes to endure
physical harm as part of an initiation a. The conclusion derived from the
rite. arguments of counsel.
c. Requiring participants to take an b. Any data or testimony submitted to
oath of allegiance to an the court to prove the truth of
organization. alleged facts.
d. Voluntary participation in a sports c. A witness's personal opinion about
activity organized by the fraternity. the guilt of the accused.
214. John, a fraternity leader, organizes an d. The personal knowledge of the
initiation where new members are subjected judge about the case.
to physical harm as part of the rites. One of 219. Which of the following describes proof
the neophytes suffers severe injuries. What beyond reasonable doubt?
crime has John committed? a. Evidence sufficient to convince a
a. Physical Injuries reasonable mind to a moral certainty
b. Hazing of the guilt of the accused.
c. Grave Coercion b. A suspicion that the accused might
d. Illegal Assembly be guilty.

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 c. Evidence that tilts the scales of a. No, because John was not cross-
justice slightly in favor of the examined.
prosecution. b. Yes, because it is a dying
d. The presence of a preponderance of declaration.
evidence against the accused. c. No, because John did not survive to
testify.
220. What is the standard of substantial evidence d. Yes, because it is a res gestae
in administrative cases in the Philippines? statement.
227. During a trial for theft, the prosecution
a. Evidence that convinces the court introduces evidence that the accused
beyond any doubt. committed a similar theft five years ago. Can
b. Evidence that amounts to clear and this evidence be admitted?
convincing proof of guilt. a. Yes, because it proves the accused’s
c. Such relevant evidence as a criminal propensity.
reasonable mind might accept as b. No, because the evidence violates
adequate to support a conclusion. the principle of res inter alios acta.
d. Evidence that slightly outweighs that c. Yes, because it establishes a pattern
of the opposing party. of behavior.
221. Which standard of proof applies in civil d. No, because the past crime must be
cases in the Philippines? adjudicated first.
a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt. 228. During a trial for theft, the prosecution
b. Substantial evidence. attempts to call Juan’s wife, Maria, as a
c. Preponderance of evidence. witness to testify about conversations she
d. Clear and convincing evidence. overheard between Juan and his accomplice
222. What happens under the equipoise doctrine? planning the crime. Maria objects, citing the
marital disqualification rule. Can Maria be
a. The case is decided in favor of the compelled to testify?
party with less evidence. a. Yes, because the conversations were
b. The case is dismissed due to lack of not confidential.
evidence. b. No, because the marital
c. The case is resolved in favor of the disqualification rule prevents a
party with the burden of proof if the spouse from testifying against the
evidence is evenly balanced. other spouse.
d. The case is decided against the party c. Yes, because the rule does not apply
with the burden of proof if the in criminal cases.
evidence is evenly balanced. d. No, because Maria must testify
223. What does equiponderance of evidence mean voluntarily.
in a judicial context? 229. Anna files for annulment after discovering
a. A state where evidence for both her husband, Leo, committed fraud. During
parties is equally strong. the fraud case, Anna seeks to testify about
b. A standard requiring proof beyond a confidential conversations Leo had with her
reasonable doubt. during their marriage. Can she disclose these
c. The greater weight of evidence conversations in court?
favoring one party. a. Yes, because they are no longer
d. Clear and convincing evidence married.
supporting a claim. b. No, because the husband-and-wife
224. These are spontaneous and unplanned privileged communication rule
remarks made by persons at the scene of the applies even after the marriage
crime. ends.
a. Res Gestae c. Yes, because fraud is a criminal
b. Dying Declaration offense.
c. Hearsay d. No, because Anna was not a victim
d. Homicide of the fraud.
225. Maria witnesses a robbery and exclaims, 230. Carlos is on trial for physically assaulting his
"That man in the red shirt just stole my wife, Lisa. The prosecution calls Lisa to testify
bag!" A police officer hears her statement against Carlos. Can Lisa invoke the marital
immediately after the incident. Can Maria’s disqualification rule to avoid testifying?
statement be admitted as evidence? a. Yes, because the marital
a. No, because it is hearsay. disqualification rule applies to all
b. Yes, because it is a dying cases.
declaration. b. No, because the rule does not apply
c. Yes, because it is part of the res in cases involving crimes committed
gestae. by one spouse against the other.
d. No, because it was made outside c. Yes, because Lisa must voluntarily
the courtroom. agree to testify.
226. John, after being stabbed, tells a police d. No, because Lisa has no legal
officer, "It was Mike who stabbed me." John grounds to refuse to testify in any
dies from the injury a few hours later. Can this case.
statement be admitted as evidence?

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(5.2.) Identify evidence according to forms b. It must comply with the rules of
evidence and not be excluded by
231. Which of the following constitutes testimonial law.
evidence? c. It must come from a credible witness
with no prior criminal record.
a.
A witness providing verbal accounts d. It must be presented by the
of what they saw during the crime. prosecution, regardless of its
b. A photograph presented in court to relevance.
show the crime scene. 238. Which of the following renders evidence
c. A signed contract submitted as proof inadmissible, even if it is relevant?
of agreement.
d. A video recording of the incident. a. The evidence was obtained in
232. Which of the following is an example of violation of constitutional rights.
documentary evidence? b. The evidence is directly linked to the
a. A weapon used in the commission of fact in issue.
a crime. c. The evidence was presented during
b. A recorded phone conversation the pre-trial proceedings.
presented as evidence. d. The evidence contradicts the
c. A letter or contract submitted to testimony of other witnesses.
prove a fact in issue. 239. The prosecution presents a video recording
d. A witness describing the events they of the crime but fails to establish when,
observed. where, or how the recording was made. The
233. What is an example of real or object defense objects. Is the video admissible?
evidence? a. Yes, because the video clearly
shows the crime.
a. A digital image of the crime scene. b. No, because the prosecution failed
b. The weapon allegedly used in the to establish its competence and
commission of a crime. relevance.
c. A transcript of court proceedings. c. Yes, because visual evidence is
d. A written confession signed by the inherently reliable.
accused. d. No, because video recordings are
234. Evidence that which, standing alone, inadmissible in criminal cases.
unexplained or uncontradicted, is the 240. The prosecution offers an email as evidence
sufficient to sustain that proposition, it of conspiracy in a cybercrime case. The
supports or establish the facts or to defense objects, arguing that the email was
counterbalance the presumptions of not properly authenticated. How should the
innocence to warrant a conviction. court rule?
a. Substantive a. Admit the email, as its content is
b. Conclusive sufficient proof of conspiracy.
c. Prima Facie b. Reject the email, as it must first be
d. Cumulative authenticated.
235. The proof of facts from which either singly or c. Admit the email, because electronic
collectively, the existence of a particular fact evidence is exempt from
in dispute may be inferred as a necessary or authentication.
probable consequence? d. Reject the email, as emails are
a. Material inadmissible in court.
b. Relevant 241. The prosecution calls a lawyer to testify
c. Circumstantial about a conversation he had with his client
d. Direct regarding the crime. The defense objects,
citing privileged communication. Is the
(5.3.) Categorize the kinds/classes of evidence lawyer’s testimony admissible?
a. Yes, because the communication
236. Which of the following is considered primary relates to a crime.
evidence? b. No, because communications
between a lawyer and client are
a.
A photocopy of a contract presented privileged.
in court. c. Yes, because the lawyer is bound to
b. The original signed contract disclose the truth.
submitted as evidence. d. No, because the lawyer was not
c. A witness testifying about the under oath during the conversation.
contents of the contract. 242. The prosecution presents a photocopy of a
d. A handwritten note summarizing the contract to prove the accused’s involvement
terms of the contract. in fraud. The defense objects, arguing that
(5.4) Illustrate the rules of admissibility of the original document must be presented.
evidence in general Should the court admit the photocopy?
a. Yes, because it is sufficient to prove
237. Which of the following is a requirement for the content of the contract.
relevant evidence to be admissible in court? b. No, because the original document
a. It must be material to the case and rule requires the original document.
pertain directly to the main issue.

23 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 c. Yes, because the content of the b. The document must be identified
document is not disputed. and authenticated by a witness who
d. No, because photocopies are can prove its execution or
always inadmissible. genuineness.
243. During trial, a witness testifies, “I heard c. The document must be submitted
from Pedro that the accused confessed to directly to the judge during the trial
the crime.” The defense objects, citing the without prior notice to the opposing
hearsay rule. Is the testimony admissible? party.
a. Yes, because it relates to the d. The document can be presented
accused’s confession. anytime during the proceedings,
b. No, because it is hearsay even after the formal offer of
c. Yes, because Pedro is not available evidence.
to testify.
d. No, because it was not made under 5.7. Explain the sufficiency of evidence
oath.
244. Anna and Ben enter into a written contract
for the sale of a car. The contract states that 248. Under Philippine law, when is evidence
the car is sold "as is." During a dispute, Anna considered sufficient to convict an accused in
claims Ben orally promised to repair the car’s a criminal case?
engine before delivery. Can Anna introduce
evidence of this oral promise? a. When it creates a suspicion that the
a. Yes, because it explains the terms accused might have committed the
of the written agreement. crime.
b. No, because the parol evidence rule b. When it establishes guilt beyond
prohibits introducing oral reasonable doubt and convinces a
agreements that alter a written reasonable mind of the truth of the
contract. charge.
c. Yes, because oral agreements are c. When it shows a preponderance of
valid even if there is a written evidence against the accused.
contract. d. When it creates a balance of
d. No, because oral evidence is not probabilities favoring the
admissible in any case. prosecution.

(5.5) Explain the manner of offering of evidence

and their objections. CRIM PRO
(6.1) Compare the jurisdiction of courts
245. When is a witness considered offered in court
under Philippine law? 249. What type of cases fall under the
jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan?
a.When the witness is included in the a. Civil cases involving family disputes.
pre-trial list of witnesses. b. Administrative cases involving
b. When the witness takes an oath violations of barangay ordinances.
before the court. c. Cases involving public officials
c. When the witness is formally called accused of graft and corruption or
to the stand to testify. offenses related to their position.
d. When the witness completes their d. Appeals from the Court of Tax
testimony and cross-examination. Appeals.
246. When can a party object to the presentation 250. A person is charged with homicide, which is
of evidence? punishable by reclusion temporal. In which
court should the case be filed?
a. Only after the evidence has been a. Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
admitted by the court. b. Regional Trial Court (RTC)
b. At any time during the trial, even c. Court of Appeals
without stating the ground for d. Sandiganbayan
objection. 251. A corporation disputes a tax assessment
c. Immediately after the evidence is made by the Bureau of Internal Revenue
offered, specifying the ground for (BIR) amounting to PHP 10 million. Which
the objection. court has jurisdiction over the case?
d. During the final argument of the a. Regional Trial Court (RTC)
case. b. Court of Tax Appeals (CTA)
c. Sandiganbayan
5.6 Discuss the rules for presenting d. Supreme Court
documentary evidence. 252. A journalist is accused of libel for publishing
defamatory statements in a local newspaper.
247. Which of the following is required for the In which court should the case be filed?
proper presentation of documentary evidence a. Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
in court under Philippine law? b. Regional Trial Court (RTC)
a. The document must be presented c. Court of Appeals
without authentication to expedite d. Sandiganbayan
proceedings.

24 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 253. A high-ranking government official is charged b. The prosecution must prove the guilt
with graft and corruption for allegedly of the accused beyond a reasonable
misappropriating public funds amounting to doubt.
PHP 2 million. Which court has jurisdiction c. The accused must remain silent
over the case? throughout the trial to avoid self-
a. Regional Trial Court (RTC) incrimination.
b. Municipal Trial Court (MTC) d. The judge may assume guilt if there
c. Sandiganbayan is circumstantial evidence.
d. Court of Appeals 259. During a trial for murder, the judge makes a
comment implying that the accused is guilty
254. What is the primary jurisdiction of the based on their prior record, even before the
Supreme Court in the Philippine judiciary? prosecution presents its evidence. What right
of the accused has been violated?
a. It acts as a trial court for criminal a. Right to a Speedy Trial
cases punishable by reclusion b. Right to Due Process
perpetua. c. Right to be Presumed Innocent
b. It reviews decisions, resolutions, and d. Right to Remain Silent
rulings of lower courts and quasi- 260. The prosecution presents a witness who
judicial bodies. testifies via affidavit but does not appear in
c. It hears and decides small claims court for cross-examination. The defense
cases and disputes involving objects, claiming the testimony should not
amounts less than PHP 400,000. be admitted. What right of the accused is
d. It handles disputes between being invoked?
barangay officials. a. Right to Counsel
b. Right to a Fair Trial
(6.2.) Discuss the fundamental concepts of c. Right to Confront Witnesses
criminal procedure. d. Right Against Self-Incrimination
261. What does the right to confront witnesses
entail for the accused?
255. Where should a criminal action be filed under a. The accused can personally cross-
Philippine law? examine the witnesses.
b. The accused has the right to hear
a. In the court where the accused and challenge the testimony of
resides. witnesses against them.
b. In the court nearest to the c. The accused can prevent witnesses
complainant’s residence. from testifying.
c. In the court where the offense was d. The accused can require the court to
committed. exclude witness testimony.
d. In the court with the highest 262. During the trial, the prosecution compels the
jurisdiction, regardless of location. accused to take the witness stand and answer
256. When does the doctrine of double jeopardy incriminating questions about the crime. The
apply in the Philippines? defense objects. What right of the accused is
a. When a person is charged with two being protected?
crimes simultaneously. a. Right to Remain Silent
b. When a person is convicted of a b. Right to Due Process
crime and later charged with the c. Right Against Self-Incrimination
same offense. d. Right to a Public Trial
c. When a person is acquitted or
convicted by a competent court and 263. What is the scope of the accused’s right
later charged with the same offense. against self-incrimination during trial?
d. When a person is arrested multiple a. The accused cannot be compelled to
times for the same crime. testify against themselves.
257. Provisionally dismissed cases with penalties b. The accused cannot be required to
of 6 years or less shall become permanent provide physical evidence such as
after a period of ____ fingerprints.
a. 1 year c. The accused must refuse to answer
b. 2 years all questions during trial.
c. 3 years d. The accused cannot testify in their
d. 4 years defense.
264. During the arraignment, the accused is not
6.3 Determine rights of the accused during trial provided with legal counsel and is pressured
to plead guilty without understanding the
258. What does the right to be presumed innocent charges. What right has been violated?
mean for the accused during a trial? a. Right to Due Process
b. Right to Counsel
a. The accused must prove their c. Right to a Public Trial
innocence beyond a reasonable d. Right to Confront Witnesses
doubt.
6.4 Evaluate the procedure in the conduct of
arrest (with or without a warrant) and of a
search and seizure.

25 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 d. No, because Pedro did not consent
265. What is the duty of an arresting officer to the search
immediately after making an arrest under 270. Carlos is arrested for drug possession.
Philippine law? During the arrest, the police frisk him and
find a concealed firearm in his jacket. Is the
a. Detain the accused indefinitely until seizure of the firearm valid?
the case is resolved. a. Yes, because the search was
b. Bring the accused to the nearest conducted incident to a lawful
police station without unnecessary arrest.
delay. b. No, because a search warrant is
c. Interrogate the accused to gather required to seize personal
additional evidence. belongings.
d. Inform the accused's family only c. Yes, because the police can seize
after filing formal charges. any item during an arrest.
266. A police officer sees Juan breaking into a car d. No, because the firearm is
and immediately arrests him without a unrelated to the drug possession
warrant. Is this arrest valid? charge.
a. Yes, because Juan was caught in 271. A robbery suspect flees into a neighbor’s
flagrante delicto (in the act of house to evade arrest. The police enter the
committing the crime). house without a warrant and arrest the
b. No, because the officer must first suspect. Is the warrantless entry and arrest
secure a warrant before making an valid?
arrest. a. Yes, because the suspect was
c. Yes, because breaking into a car is a pursued immediately after the
public offense. crime (hot pursuit).
d. No, because the officer must b. No, because entering another
observe the crime for a longer period person’s home requires a search
before acting. warrant.
c. Yes, because the police can enter
any home during an arrest.
267. Which of the following is a lawful exception to d. No, because the suspect was not
the requirement for a search warrant under caught in the act.
Philippine law?

a. Searching a person’s home after 272. Which of the following is a duty of an officer
receiving a verbal tip about illegal during the conduct of a lawful search and
activities. seizure in the Philippines?
b. Conducting a search of a vehicle at
a police checkpoint with no probable a. Enter the premises immediately
cause. upon receiving information of a
c. Seizing contraband in plain view crime, even without a warrant.
during a lawful arrest. b. Ensure that the search is conducted
d. Searching a suspect’s phone without in the presence of the lawful
their consent during a routine traffic occupant or their representative.
stop. c. Confiscate all items found in the
268. A police officer asks Maria to open her bag premises, regardless of relevance to
for inspection at a checkpoint. Maria the search warrant.
consents, and illegal drugs are found inside. d. Prevent the owner from witnessing
Can the evidence be used against Maria? the search to avoid interference.
a. Yes, because Maria voluntarily 6.5 Illustrate the procedure in filing of cases,
consented to the search. conducting PI and IP, including barangay
b. No, because searches at checkpoints justice system
are inherently unlawful.
c. Yes, because checkpoints allow 273. What is the first step in filing a criminal case
unrestricted searches. in the Philippines?
d. No, because the search violated a. The complainant must immediately
Maria's right to privacy. file the case in court.
269. The police arrest Pedro at his home based b. The complainant must file a
on a warrant issued for robbery. During the complaint-affidavit with the
arrest, they search his home without a prosecutor's office
search warrant and seize unrelated items. Is c. The complainant must present
the search valid? evidence directly to the judge.
a. Yes, because the police had an d. The complainant must secure a
arrest warrant. search warrant before filing the
b. No, because a separate search case.
warrant is required to search 274. Maria files a complaint against Carlos for
Pedro’s home. estafa. During the preliminary investigation,
c. Yes, because all searches related to Carlos submits a counter-affidavit denying
an arrest are lawful. the allegations. What is the purpose of the
preliminary investigation?

26 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 a. To determine the guilt of the b. When the evidence of guilt is strong,
accused beyond reasonable doubt. and the offense is punishable by
b. To decide whether there is probable reclusion perpetua.
cause to file the case in court. c. When charged with an offense
c. To compel the accused to pay punishable by imprisonment lower
damages to the complainant. than reclusion perpetua or life
d. To resolve the case without the imprisonment, or if the evidence of
need for a trial. guilt is not strong.
275. Mark is arrested without a warrant for d. When a case is pending in the
robbery and brought to the prosecutor’s Supreme Court.
office for an inquest proceeding. The 280. Maria is arrested for a bailable offense and
arresting officer submits evidence but fails to files for bail immediately after her detention.
establish probable cause. What should the The prosecutor argues that Maria should not
prosecutor do? be released because she might influence the
a. Order Mark’s release and dismiss witnesses. What should the court consider in
the case. deciding Maria's application for bail?
b. File the case in court immediately. a. The personal opinion of the
c. Order the police to continue prosecutor about Maria's character.
detaining Mark while they gather b. The sufficiency of evidence of guilt
more evidence. and the likelihood of Maria fleeing.
d. Transfer the case to a barangay for c. The willingness of Maria to plead
resolution. guilty.
276. Carlos and Ben fail to reach an agreement d. The time Maria has spent in
during barangay mediation regarding a detention.
minor physical altercation. What is the next 281. During Juan’s arraignment, he refuses to
step for Carlos if he wants to pursue the enter a plea to the charge of robbery. What
case? should the court do in this situation?
a. File a criminal complaint directly in a. Proceed with the trial without a
court. plea.
b. Request a preliminary investigation b. Enter a plea of "guilty" on Juan’s
from the prosecutor. behalf.
c. Obtain a certification to file action c. Enter a plea of "not guilty" on
from the barangay. Juan’s behalf.
d. Proceed to inquest proceedings for d. Order a mistrial and remand the
resolution. case for reinvestigation.
277. Which cases must first undergo the 282. The prosecutor and the defense attorney
barangay justice system before proceeding meet during the pre-trial conference. What is
to court? not an allowable outcome of this stage?
a. Criminal cases punishable by a. Plea bargaining where the accused
imprisonment of more than 1 year. agrees to plead guilty to a lesser
b. Criminal cases punishable by offense.
imprisonment of 1 year or less b. The marking of documentary
c. All criminal cases, regardless of evidence for identification during
penalties. trial.
d. Cases involving public officials acting c. The dismissal of the case based
in their official capacity. solely on the defendant's testimony.
278. V What is the primary purpose of an inquest d. The resolution of stipulations of fact
proceeding under Philippine law, and what and other procedural agreements.
steps are involved?
a. To determine the guilt of the 283. What happens during the arraignment stage
arrested person and immediately of a criminal proceeding?
issue a court decision.
b. To decide whether the warrantless a. The court decides on the guilt or
arrest and the evidence presented innocence of the accused.
justify the filing of criminal charges b. The accused is formally informed of
in court. the charges against them and enters
c. To allow the accused to cross- a plea.
examine witnesses and submit c. The prosecution and defense
counter-affidavits. present their evidence.
d. To release the arrested person d. The case is referred to the pre-trial
immediately if no probable cause is conference.
found, without further proceedings. 284. During the trial, the prosecution finishes
6.5. Utilize the process in the application for presenting its evidence, and the defense
bail, arraignment, pre-trial, and trial claims that the prosecution has not proven
its case. What motion can the defense file at
279. When is a person entitled to bail under this stage?
Philippine law? a. Motion for Reconsideration
b. Demurrer to Evidence
a. When charged with any criminal c. Motion to Suppress Evidence
offense regardless of evidence. d. D. Motion for Continuance

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 a. Allow the prosecution to present
285. What is the purpose of a pre-trial conference additional evidence to reopen the
in criminal cases? previous case.
a. To determine the guilt or innocence b. Proceed with the trial if the
of the accused. prosecutor insists on continuing.
b. To resolve issues such as plea c. Grant the motion to quash and
bargaining, stipulations of fact, and dismiss the new case.
marking of evidence. d. Order the accused to file an appeal
c. To allow the accused to present their instead of a motion to quash.
case before the trial begins.
d. To dismiss the case based on lack of 291. The accused files a motion to quash,
probable cause. arguing that the facts stated in the complaint
286. What is the sequence of the trial proper in do not constitute an offense. What should
criminal cases? the court do if it finds the complaint
a. Defense presents evidence first, defective?
followed by the prosecution. a. Allow the prosecution to amend the
b. Prosecution presents evidence, complaint to correct the defect.
followed by the defense, with b. Dismiss the case permanently and
rebuttal and sur-rebuttal if acquit the accused.
necessary. c. Proceed with the trial to allow
c. Accused enters a plea, followed by evidence presentation.
the immediate judgment of the d. Require the accused to file an
court. appeal in a higher court.
d. Both parties simultaneously present
evidence, followed by the court’s 6.7. Illustrate the procedure in the presentation
decision. of witnesses, including child witnesses,
287. When can the court deny an application for particularly, in the conduct of direct
bail? examination and cross-examination.
a. When the accused is charged with a
capital offense, and the evidence of 292. What is the primary purpose of presenting a
guilt is strong. witness during the direct examination?
b. When the accused refuses to enter a. To impeach the credibility of the
a plea during arraignment. witness.
c. When the accused is charged with a b. To establish facts favorable to the
bailable offense but fails to submit party presenting the witness.
a counter-affidavit. c. To challenge the testimony of the
d. When the accused misses the pre- opposing party.
trial conference. d. To assess the competency of the
288. After presenting evidence, the court finds witness.
the accused guilty of theft. However, the 293. What special protection is given to child
accused argues that their constitutional witnesses during their testimony in court?
rights were violated during the trial. What a. They are required to testify without
legal remedy can the accused pursue? legal counsel to avoid intimidation.
a. File for an appeal in a higher court. b. They are allowed to testify through
b. File for a new arraignment. video conferencing or behind a
c. Request a retrial from the same screen to avoid facing the accused.
court. c. They must only testify in the
d. File a motion for dismissal of the presence of their parents.
case. d. They are prohibited from being
289. An accused is charged with theft. During the cross-examined.
arraignment, the defense files a motion to 294. Which of the following is NOT allowed
quash, claiming the court has no jurisdiction during direct examination?
over the offense because the crime allegedly a. Asking the witness to narrate what
occurred in another city. What should the they saw during the incident.
court do if the motion to quash is found to b. Using leading questions to suggest
be valid? answers to the witness.
a. Proceed with the trial regardless of c. Presenting evidence that directly
jurisdiction issues. relates to the issues of the case.
b. Transfer the case to the appropriate d. Asking the witness to clarify
court with jurisdiction. technical terms for the court.
c. Dismiss the case outright and free 295. What is the primary purpose of cross-
the accused. examination in court proceedings?
d. Require the prosecution to amend a. To present additional evidence that
the charge sheet. was not introduced during direct
290. The accused is charged with the same examination.
offense for which they were previously b. To verify the witness's honesty,
acquitted. The defense files a motion to credibility, and accuracy of their
quash based on double jeopardy. What testimony.
should the court do if double jeopardy is c. To allow the witness to provide
established? their personal opinion on the case.

28 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 d. To prevent the opposing counsel
from presenting their next witness.
296. What is the duty of the court in ensuring
proper conduct during the testimony of
witnesses, including child witnesses?
a. To allow all questions, regardless of
relevance, for thorough
examination.
b. To prevent harassment,
intimidation, or irrelevant questions
during the testimony.
c. To limit the witness’s testimony to
written affidavits.
d. To allow only the direct
examination of child witnesses to
avoid confusion.
297. It is the examination in chief of a witness by
the party presenting him on the facts
relevant to the issue
a. Direct Examination
b. Re-Direct Examination
c. Cross Examination
d. Clarificatory Examination
298. During direct examination, the prosecutor
asks a 9-year-old witness, “Did you see the
man wearing a red shirt take the wallet?”
The defense objects, claiming this is a
leading question. How should the court rule?

a. Sustain the objection, as leading

questions are not allowed in direct
examination.
b. Overrule the objection, as leading
questions are permitted for child
witnesses.
c. Sustain the objection, as child
witnesses cannot testify on material
facts.
d. Overrule the objection, as the
defense has the opportunity to
cross-examine.
299. A 12-year-old victim of abuse is called to
testify. The prosecutor requests that the
child testify via a one-way mirror to avoid
seeing the accused. Can the court grant this
request?
a. Yes, if it ensures the child’s safety
and emotional well-being.
b. No, because it violates the
accused’s right to confrontation.
c. Yes, but only if the accused waives
their right to confrontation.
d. No, because child witnesses must
testify in open court.
300. In a cross-examination, the defense
attorney asks the witness, “You didn’t
actually see the accused enter the store, did
you?” Is this question appropriate for cross-
examination?
a. Yes, because it challenges the
credibility of the witness’s
testimony.
b. No, because it is a leading question.
c. Yes, because cross-examination
allows leading questions.
d. No, because it introduces new
evidence.

29 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 FINAL COACHING ON LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
Prepared by: Prof. Richard M. Malit, 6th Placer April 2023 CLE
2025 Criminologist Licensure Examination

LEA-1 Law Enforcement Organization and a. The act, art, or manner of administering,
Administration (Inter-Agency Approach) controlling or conducting a unit or organization.
1. It is a group or a system consciously coordinated b. The direction of the police
bodies within its scope to perform a shared-purpose organization or a part of it, and the use of its
and attain a certain and common goal or objective. resources in such a manner so as to carry
A. Administration
out its functions efficiently.
B. Police administration
C. Organization c. The budgeting, accounting procedure,
D. Police organization purchasing guides, recruitment of personnel,
training selection, and or organization of personnel.
2. Organization refers to_____________________.
d. The Activities conducted in the field by law
1. The duties of designating the departments
enforcement officers as the “serve and protect”,
and the personnel that are to carry on the work,
including patrol, traffic, investigation and general
defining their functions and specifying the relations
calls for police service.
that are to exist between departments and individuals.

2. Consist of arranging personnel and

functions in a systematic manner designed to 7. Organizational chart portrays the_________.
accommodate stated goals and objectives in the most a. Unbroken chain of command from top to bottom
efficient manner possible. b. The relationship of superiors and subordinates
that has an infallible nature.
3. Apportioning of works or tasks among the c. Graphical representation of the hierarchical
various units or groups according to some logical plan. pattern in an organization which
represents the organizational structure.
4. A graphic view of the general structure of d. Shows the relationship of members in a
work and work relationship in the organization. hierarchical view
a. 1 and 3 c. 1 and 2
8. The systematic arrangement of the relationship of
b. 2 and 4 d. 3 and 4
the members, positions, departments and functions or
3. A group of professionals with training in the work of the organization. It is comprised of functions,
administration of public safety who work to achieve relationships, responsibilities and authorities of
goals and objectives that support the maintenance of individuals within the organization.
peace and order, protection of life and property, a. Hierarchical structure
enforcing the law, and crime prevention. b. Chain of command
A. Police administration c. Organizational chart
B. Police organization d. Organizational structure
C. Organization
D. Administration
9. Which is not a part of functional units in an
organization?
4. The processes that a certain organization applies in A. Bureau
managing and directing its members. These processes B. Sector
are commonly found in higher level position of C. Division
authorities in the hierarchy. D. Unit
A. Police administration
B. Administration
10. The following are part of the territorial units of an
C. Organization
organization, EXCEPT:
D. Police organization
A. Post
B. Route
5. It refers to the management and operation of law C. Section
enforcement organizations and the following D. District
implementation of measures to maintain public order,
improve safety, and reduce crime.
11. A functional unit that requires specialization
A. Administration
beyond necessary for the purpose of organization.
B. Police organization
A. Bureau
C. Organization
B. Division
D. Police administration
C. Section
D. Unit
6. Police administration refers
to_____________________
LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 1|P age
12. Measures how well resources are being utilized bottom within the structures, authority is definite and
hence, achieving its organizational goals at minimum absolute.
cost. B. Those establishments organized on a functional
A. Police efficiency basis violate the prime rule that men perform best
B. Police productivity when they have but one superior and is based on the
C. Police effectiveness concept of specialization.
D. Police quality C. Channels of responsibility are to “think and
provide expertise” for the line units. The line
supervisor must remember that he obtains
13. The process of monitoring performance, comparing advice from the staff specialists.
results to objectives and taking corrective action as D. Individual, military or departmental type of
necessary. organization.
A. Planning
B. Controlling
C. Leading 19. What type of organization is the PNP?
D. Organizing A. Nota
B. Functional
C. Line
14. What management functions below include hiring, D. Line and staff
firing and training of personnel?

A. Staffing 20. Those who are charged with the actual

fulfillment of the agency’s mission are ________
B. Organizing personnel.
C. Directing a. Staff

D. Planning b. Supervision

15. Any work project must be divided into small tasks c. Management
among workers based on their specialization. This
d. Line
promotes achieving specialization in a skill.
A. Division of work 21. In line and staff organization operational or line
B. Work specialization units are responsible for the direct accomplishment of
C. Functional principle the police objectives while the administrative or staff
D. Remuneration units are________________.
a. Responsible for the support or advisory
functions to enhance the capability of the line
16. Organizations are formal, rational systems with
well-defined rules and procedures, defined by and facilitate the achievement of its functions
specialization, hierarchy, well-trained employees, and objectives.
managerial dedication, and the impartiality of
b. Commanding the line so that it will perform its duties
management. An approach was a means of lessening
the cruelty, nepotism, and subjective managerial in a manner that it will efficiently achieve the police
practices objectives
A. Bureaucratic Management
c. Tasked to provide materials and logistics to the line
B. Scientific Management
C. Behavioral approach d. None of them;
D. Theory of X And Y

17. Which theory of police service is applied in 22. Primary or line police activities are the following:
countries with
decentralized government structure where policemen
are 1) Patrol work, traffic control/management and
criminal investigation
considered as civilian employees whose primary duty is 2) Jailers, matron, headquarters procedures
the 3) Transportation, communication, property supply
and records
preservation of public peace and security? 4) Juvenile and vice control
5) Personnel, inspection, planning activities,
a. Continental budgeting, training and public relations
a. 1 and 4 c. 3 and4
b. Authoritarian
b. 2 and 3 d. 4 and 5
c. Home Rule

d. Modern
23. A member of the of the police department who has
taken an oath of office and who possess all the function
and power of a police personnel.
A. Sworn officer
18. This describes the nature of a line and staff type of B. Oath officer
organization. C. Police officer
A. Simplest and perhaps the oldest type but it is seldom D. Full-fledged officer
encountered. Its channels of authority and
responsibility extends in a direct line from top to

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 2|P age

24. P/Lt. Bea Bunda assumes supervisory directives, or reports around a level of command
responsibilities among the police personnel of the usually has disastrous effects on efficiency of the
Kerengkeng police station. P/Lt. Bea Bunda is organization.
considered a______. A. Chain of command
A. Sworn officer B. Scalar chain
B. Ranking officer C. Scalar principle
C. Superior officer D. Delegation of authority
D. Kunwari officer

31. Hierarchy of authority which is the order of ranks

25. An officer who has the most senior/highest rank in from the highest to the lowest levels of the
a team or a group. organization is known as_______________.
A. Sworn officer a. Scalar Chain
B. Ranking officer
C. Superior officer b. Line of authority
D. Kunwari officer
c. Unity of command

d. Chain of command
26. Which of the following is related to the
principle of span of control when the tasks are
divided among the police personnel by one over-
all supervisor present at all times? 32. PBGen. Sanchez is the District Director of Manila
Police, so
A. Command responsibility he must supervise 600 police personnel as part of his
B. Unity of command Command. This organizational principle assumes that
there is a limit to the number of individuals that a
C. Delegation of authority
supervisor can effectively control.
D. Police management a. Chain of command c. Span
of control
b. Unity of command d. A and
27. The PNP Chief bestowed P/Lt. Col. Lato-otal the B
authority and responsibility to govern and supervise
the PNP personnel of town Sakih-Satainga. What
principle does it refers to? 33. In order to determine the supervisor’s span of
control, which of the following has to be taken
A. Command responsibility into consideration?

B. Unity of command A. The number of supervisors conferring orders to you.

C. Delegation of authority B. He has the knowledge of the number or

subordinates who will directly report to
D. None of the above him/her

C. The number of your immediate

28. What principle is intended that decision-
making should remain within the authority of the commanders
commanding officers and never referred upward
D. The total number of supervisors to handle
or downward in the organizational structure?
a group.
A. Delegation by result

B. Authority-level principle
34. Command responsibility postulates
C. Absolute responsibility
that_________________________.
D. Parity and responsibility a. The commander is directly
responsible for any act or omission of his
subordinates in relation to the performance of
their official duty
29. Police lieutenant Dimagibang-Pader was manning
an anti-criminality checkpoint held at the highways of b. The commander is accountable to the
Daan-Daanan national road when suddenly a man hit people
his operational personnel on the head with a lato-lato
purposely. It was his own wise-decision to perform the c. The commander is responsible to all
proper standard operating procedure to apprehend personnel within his command
and process the offender without conferring to the
higher-ups. What principle of police organization does D. The commander is responsible to his men,
the scenario portrays? thus he has full authority to direct his men
A. Authority level principle
B. Delegation of authority
C. Scalar principle
D. Hierarchy of needs 35. It depicts the unbroken flow of command from the
top to the bottom of the organizational hierarchy.
a. Chain of command c. Unity
30. This principle of organization suggests that of command
communications should ordinarily go upward through
established channels in the hierarchy. Diverting orders,

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 3|P age

 b. Span of control d. supports the AFP on matters involving
Delineation of power suppression of insurgency.
C. PNP personnel should not coordinate with the AFP
due to their specified functions strictly differs.
D. PNP and AFP must battle insurgency together,
36. The reason behind on why every group of always on the alert and report casually to the AFP.
personnel must have only one supervisor

A. To protect the personnel and stability of tenure

B. To ensure command and responsibility of the group 43. The operational supervision and control over the
PNP that are located on local municipalities, cities, and
C. To avoid confusion of authority and maintain provinces is a power of;
uniformity in execution of tasks a. DILG
b. NAPOLCOM
D. To protect the supervisor from landing into bad c. MAYORS AND GOVERNORS
decisions d. BARANGAY CAPTAINS AND MAYORS

44. Napolcom shall be headed by a Secretary which

37. The PNP Forensic group was termed to be the has how many member/commissioners?
prime processor of crime scene solely founded to A. Four (4) regular Commissioners and the Chief
process and collect pieces of physical evidence to of PNP as ex officio member.
identify, locate, and provide proof for the guilt of the B. Five (5) regular commissioner and the chief PNP as
perpetrator. What principle of police service does the one of the aforementioned
PNP SOCO team refers to? C. Five regular commissioners all coming from the
A. Authority level principle civilian sector
B. Delegation of authority D. Only the chief of the PNP shall be the Executive
C. Scalar principle Officer
D. Functional principle

45. Who serves as ex-officio Chairperson of the

38. Organic unit in a police organization that performs National Police Commission?
auxiliary functions such transportation, logistics, A. DILG SECRETARY
equipment, records, and communication. B. NAPOLCOM
A. Administrative C. MAYORS AND GOVERNORS
B. Operational D. BARANGAY CAPTAINS AND MAYORS
C. Service
D. Functional

39. By the virtue of section 9 of the R.A. 6040, this 46. What article and specific section of the 1987
certain office is in charged with the issuance of proper Philippine Constitution that provides for the
examinations officers and members of the Philippine establishment and maintenance of one police force
National Police in lieu of the Civil Service Commission. which shall be national in scope but civilian in
A. DILG character that shall be administratively controlled and
B. NAPOLCOM operationally supervised by the National
C. Office of the president Police Commission?
D. Civil Service Commission
a. Art. III, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
b. Art. VI, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
40. The administrative control and operational
supervision over the PNP is a power of; c. Art. XVI, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
A. DILG d. Art. XVII, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
C. Congress

B. NAPOLCOM D. Mayors 47. Under RA 9708, the institution of a criminal action

or
complaint against a police officer shall _____ to
41. Under the R.A. 6975, or the DILG act of 1990, what promotion.
is the relationship of the PNP to the AFP?
a. not be included
A. To be in-charge of the internal security
B. To be in-charge of the external security b. be a bar
C. To be in-charge of both the internal security and
external security c. be a hindrance
D. To be in-charge of logistics
d. not be a bar

42. Under R.A. 8551, or the PNP reform and

reorganization act of 1998, what is the relationship of 48. Which among the following is a qualified regular
the PNP to the AFP? member
A. The PNP should assist the AFP with training highly of the NAPOLCOM?
skilled personnel that are suitable for urban and jungle
warfare. a. A graduate of Medicine with at least 3 years
B. The PNP shall through information gathering experience.
and performance of its ordinary police functions
LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 4|P age
b. A graduate of Public Administration with at least 4 entry, what agency should be in charge in investigating
years human trafficking cases in all airports in the
philippines?
experience. A. NBI
B. SOCO
c. A member of the Philippine Bar with at least 5 C. AIRPORT POLICE
years D. PNP AVEGROUP
experience.
55. Listed below are the powers and function of the
d. A graduate of Criminology with at least 2 years of NBI, EXCEPT.
A. Human Trafficking cases in all airports in the
experience
Philippines
B. Extrajudicial/Extra-legal killings committed by the
state’s security forces against media practitioners and
49. Serves as the prime mover of the law in the activists
Philippines and Enforces all laws and ordinances C. Supervises and controls the training and
relative to the protection of lives and properties. operations of security agencies and issue
A. PNP licenses to operate security agencies and to
B. PCG security guards and private detectives, for the
C. DILG purpose of their professions
D. NAPOLCOM D. Violations of the Anti-Dummy Law

50. Which of these is not a power of the PNP? 56. Responsible for the efficient and effective law
A. Enforces all laws and ordinances relative to the
enforcement of all the provisions on any dangerous
protection of lives and properties
drug and/or controlled precursor and essential
B. Maintains peace and order and take all necessary
steps to ensure public safety chemical as provided in RA 9165.
C. Supervises and controls the training and operations
A. PDEA
of security agencies and issue licenses to operate
security agencies and to security guards and private B. DDB
detectives, for the purpose of their professions
D. Investigate killings of judges and justices, C.DOLE
including extra-judicial killings
D. PNP

51. It acts as a national clearing house of criminal

57. PDEA is headed by Director General with the rank
records and other related information for the benefit
of?
of the government; A. Director General
B. Undersecretary
A. NBI C. Director, PDEA
D. Chief, BJMP
B. PNP

C. NICA
58. What agency has the responsibility regarding drug
D. PDEA case incident along coastal line of la union?

a. PCG
52. If you are applying for a job and you are required b. PNP
to present a national type of clearance, what agency c. PDEA
should be in charged with clearing criminal records d. MARITIME GROUP
throughout the country?
A. NBI 59. By the virtue of R.A. 9165, this agency was titled
as the implementing arm of the Dangerous Drug
B. PNP Board.

C. NICA
a. PCG
D. PDEA b. PNP
c. PDEA
d. MARITIME GROUP

53. An agency in-charged with investigation process in

60. Powers and duties of the PDEA shall include,
matters of killings of justices and judges.
EXCEPT:
A. Implement or cause the efficient and effective
A. CIDG implementation of the national drug control strategy
formulated by the Board thereby carrying out a
B. SOCO
national drug campaign program which shall include
C. NBI
drug law enforcement, control and prevention
D. PNP
campaign with the assistance of concerned
government agencies;
54. There are several records of illegal entrance of B. Administer oath, issue subpoena and
foreign nationals and they are labeled as aliens due to subpoena duces tecum relative to the conduct of
their lack of records that proves their identity and
LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 5|P age
investigation involving the violations of R.A. vehicles and equipment, ships or vessels docked at
6425 piers.
C. Establish forensic laboratories in each PNP office in
every province and city in order to facilitate action on a. PNP
seize or confiscated drugs, thereby hastening its b. PDEA
destruction without delay c. ARSON INVESTIGATOR
D. Recommend to the DOJ the forfeiture of properties d. BFP
and other assets of persons and/or corporations found
to be violating the provisions of this Act and in
68. Shall have the power to investigate all causes of
accordance with the pertinent provisions of the Anti-
fires and if necessary, file the proper complaints with
Money-Laundering Act of 2001
the city or provincial prosecutor who has jurisdiction
over the case.
61. This law enforcement agency enforces regulations
in accordance with all relevant maritime international A. PNP
conventions, treaties or instruments and national laws B. PDEA
for the promotion of safety of life property at sea within C. ARSON INVESTIGATOR
the maritime jurisdiction of the Philippines and conduct D. BFP
port state control implementation
A. Philippine Coast Guard 69. If a fire broke out is a vessel within the Philippine
B. PNP Maritime group waters, who shall suppress and investigate the cause
C. Philippine Navy of the said fire?
D. Philippine Marine Corps
A. BFP
62. The Philippine Coast Guard is led by the B. PNP MARITIME GROUP
commandant of the Philippine Coast guard, and directly C. PCG
reports to the_________. D. SEAPORT POLICE

a. President 70. What agency should be responsible in filing proper

b. DILG secretary complaints if a fire was set by a drug addict and burnt
c. DOTR secretary a private property?
d. LTO secretary
A. PNP
63. In times of war, the Philippine Coast Guard shall B. PDEA
temporarily be attached to the____ C. ARSON INVESTIGATOR
A. DILG D. BFP
B. DND
C. DOTC
D. DICT

71. The bureau was given the sole authority to enforce

64. This function of the Philippine Coast Guard is and administer immigration and foreign nationals
designed to help prevent or minimize unnecessary loss registration laws including the admission, registration,
of lives and properties at sea. exclusion and deportation and repatriation of foreign
A. MARTINE ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION OR nationals. It also supervises the immigration from the
MAREP Philippines of foreign nationals.
B. MARITIME SEARCH AND RESCUE OR MARSAR A. BUREAU OF IMMIGRATION
C. MARITIME SAFETY or MARSAF B. BUREAU OF QUARATINE
D. MARITIME SECURITY OR MARSEC C. DEPARTMENT OF FOREIGN AFFAIRS
D. BUREAU OF CUSTOMS
65. If a vessel commercially used will be travelling from
area of jurisdiction that is governed by the Philippine 72. Acts as a chief repository of all immigration
government, to whom shall they request for inspection records on entry, temporary sojourn, admission,
and proper clearance prior to departure, to ensure and residence, and departure of all foreigners in the
enforce compliance with safety standards, rules and country.
regulation of Philippine waters? A. BUREAU OF IMMIGRATION
A. PCG B. BUREAU OF QUARATINE
B. PNP Maritime group C. DEPARTMENT OF FOREIGN AFFAIRS
C. Seaport police D. BUREAU OF CUSTOMS
D. Port management

73. If mayor Alice Q. Ditto was found a sleeping agent

66. During the conflict/dispute between sea territorial of a foreign country and was decided to be deported
jurisdiction between China and Philippines, to whom back to her country of origin, what agency should
shall the commandant of the PCG report? process and enforce her deportation proceedings?
A. DND secretary A. BUREAU OF IMMIGRATION
B. DOTR secretary B. BUREAU OF QUARATINE
C. DILG secretary C. DEPARTMENT OF FOREIGN AFFAIRS
D. AFP chief of staff D. BUREAU OF CUSTOMS

67. _______ is responsible for the prevention and LEA-2 COMPARATIVE MODELS IN POLICING
suppression of all destructive fires in buildings, houses
and other structures, forests, land transportation

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 6|P age

1. Process of outlining the similarities and differences
of one police system to another in order to discover
insights in the field of international policing. 7. The process of spreading various products and/or
A. Comparative police system services to people across all corners of the world
B. Law enforcement administration A. Internationalization
C. Globalization B. Universalization
D. Nota C. Westernization or Modernization
D. Liberalization

2. The following are not effects of globalization in the

current policing system era, except: 8. People of the community will employ several means
to protect their houses and properties from any known
A.There is a need for transnational policing. The type of crimes against their property and belongings.
cooperation among police organization in the What theory states how people acts in the statement?
world is vital.
A.Modernization
B.Police needed to promote team policing wherein the
community and the police serves as the mainstream of B.Alertness to crime theory
police and civil coordination.
C.Economic or migration theory
C.Transnational crimes did not emerged through
globalization due to syndicates have ease in accessing D. Opportunity
port to port travels.
D.Actually sir/maam, I have no idea regarding this
matter. 9. A Theory In Comparative Policing That Along With
Higher Standards Of Living, Victims Become More
Careless Of Their Belongings, And Chances For Crime
3. The main reason behind comparison of Multiply.
similarities and dissimilarities of one A.Modernization
country’s policing system.
A. Discover one country’s insight B.Alertness to crime theory
regarding policing system, adapting C.Economic or migration theory
effective styles and understanding
various techniques in applying a D. Opportunity
certain system for effective policing.
B. Limit knowledge regarding the in-tact,
current policing system, maintaining the 10. this type of society can be seen in the early and
present techniques and sticking to the medieval age wherein no laws are written and they
procedural training system. employ harsh punishments such as execution.
C. Compare and contrast existing policing
A. Bureaucratic society
system to know various systems around the
world. B. Urban-industrial society
D. Facilitate transnational crimes through
applying one system. C. Folk-communal society
D. Urban-commercial society

4. This comparative techniques/method the 11. Has a system of laws (along with armies of
researchers use to compare various police system lawyers), police who tend to keep busy handling
globally, encourages face to face visit with the subject political crime and terrorism, and a system of
police system’s area. punishment characterized by over criminalization and
A. Collaborative method overcrowding.
B. Safari method A. Bureaucratic society
C. Global method
D. Interview method B. Urban-industrial society
C. Folk-communal society
5. What is the category of Comparative Policing Study D. Urban-commercial society
which covers two country for sole research for insights
or comparing two countries?
a. Comprehensive textbook 12. Which type of police system is distinguished by a
b. Two culture study strong
c. Single culture study inquisitorial system where the accused is given minimal
d. Comparative police rights

and the written laws is considered as a bible and

6. A phenomena that describes how trade and subject to
technology have made the world into a more
connected and interdependent place, Is the system of little interpretation?
interaction among the countries of the world in order
to develop the global economy, spreading cultures, a. Socialist Law
products, goods, services and adapting practices even
law enforcement and policing styles globally. b. Law
A. Globalization
c. Common Law
B. Internationalization
C. Modernization d. Civil Law
D. Integration
LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 7|P age
 crimes against humanity, torture and enforced
disappearances.
B. Crimes that have actual or potential effect
across national borders and crimes which are
13. Refers to a system where police administration and intra-State but which offend fundamental
operation are independent from one state to another. values of the international.
It is more applicable to countries with federal C. The commission of a crime is an essential part to
government. commit the ultimate crime goal
A. Centralized pattern D. The crime was committed in other countries.
B. Decentralized pattern
C. Multiple coordinated
D. Multiple uncoordinated 20. Transnational crimes was defined as cross-border
crimes that are happening or involving more than one
country, its elements are, EXCEPT:
14. Dimension of methods in policing that states A. It is committed in more than one state
various Police Force have well-defined territories and B. Crimes that take place in one country, but their
they have their own functions which do not overlap consequences significantly affect another country
each other. C. Transit countries may also be involved
D. It affected one state but the preparation,
A. Multiple model essentials, planning, direction or control, and
B. Multiple uncoordinated target takes place in same state.
C. Multiple coordinated
D. Singular model
21. This is regarded as one of the most common type
of transnational crime wherein the commission of the
15. It is a model in policing that is considered to be a same is motivated by ideologies such as political and
conservative approach to crime that focuses on religious beliefs.
protecting society from criminals by regulating criminal A. Money laundering
conduct and justice. Repression of criminal behavior is B. Terrorism
the most convenient aspect of police duty. C. Slavery
A. Crime control model D. Human trafficking
B. Due process model
C. Watchman style
D. Legalistic style 22. Difference of Terrorism from Organized Crime.
A. Means and ends
B. Profit
16. Law enforcement style that emphasize informal C. Ideology
means of resolving disputes and problem in the D. Money and Power
community Keeping the peace Is the paramount
concern, Arrest is used only as a last resort to resolve
conflict.
a. Legalistic
b. Watchman 23. Conversion or transfer of property knowing that
c. Service such property is derived from a criminal offense, for
d. Reactive the purpose of concealing or disguising the illicit origin
or the property, or assisting any person who is involved
in the commission of such offense, or offenses, to
evade legal consequences of his action; (UN Definition)
17. Which of the following is an international police
A. Placement
organization that facilities cross-border police
B. Layering
cooperation and also support to prevent and fight
C. Money laundering
against international crimes?
D. Integration

A. International criminal police organization

24. Steps in money laundering includes, EXCEPT:
B. ASEANPOL A. Placement
B. Layering
C. Global police organization
C. Spinning
D. International center on transnational crime D. Integration

25. Involves the frequent series of money transfers

18. What agency should be responsible to formulate and transactions used to “cover the tracks” of the
and implement a concerted program of action of all law illegal funds.
enforcement and government agencies for the A. Placement
prevention and control of transnational crimes that B. Layering
involves the Philippines? C. Money laundering
A. INTERPOL D. Integration
B. PCTC
C. PNP
D. PAOCC 26. It is an international agreement in which the
Requested State agrees, at the request of the
Requesting State and under specified conditions, to
19. Transnational crimes can be defined as______ turn over persons who are within its jurisdiction and
A. Collective term for certain extremely serious who are charged with crimes against, or are fugitives
violations of international law: genocide, war crimes, from, the Requesting State.
A. Extradition

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 8|P age

B. Extradition treaty C. Yellow notice
C. Mutual legal assistance treaty D. Magenta notice
D. International cooperation

27. The extradition process generally begins

_________. 34. Mr. Osama BINI Lambeng was tracked inside the
A. When a foreign country requests the Philippines with intelligence officers of the INTERPOL.
extradition of an individual located in the In order for him to be caught and extradited from the
Philippines. Philippines back to his country of origin, what notice
B. Filing a petition for extradition with the Court of color should the INTERPOL send the Philippines?
Appeals A. Red notice
C. Issuance of of order of extradition B. Orange notice
D. Request for extradition in political crime C. Yellow notice
D. Magenta notice
28. Grounds for refusal for extradition includes,
EXCEPT:
35. The Philippines wants to share information
A. Crime is political in nature.
regarding a recorded transnational crime involving the
B. The person is to be prosecuted on account of their country to the Secretariat of the INTERPOL, what
race, religion, or nationality.
should be their designated contact point?
C. The person has already been tried and acquitted or
A. I-24/7
convicted of the same offense. B. National Central Bureaus
D. The person is a resident of the requesting C. Notice system
country.
D. Interpol notice

29. Principles of extradition that states according to

which the alleged offense for which extradition is being 36. It is the technical network that links law
sought must be of a criminal offence in both the enforcement in all member countries and enables
requesting and requested State. authorized users to share sensitive and urgent police
A. PRINCIPLE OF DOUBLE (OR DUAL) information with their counterparts around the globe.
CRIMINALITY A. INTERPOL Criminal Database
B. PRINCIPLE OF SPECIALTY
C. NON-EXTRADITION OF NATIONALS B. INTERPOL Notice System
D. NON-DISCRIMINATION CLAUSE
C. I-24/7 Global Police Communication
System
30. The _____is a regional organization that brings
D. Command and Coordination Center
together disparate neighbors to address economic and
security issues, but the group’s impact remains limited,
aims to promote economic and security cooperation
among its ten members: Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, 37. Which is not a function of the INTERPOL?
Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, a. Provide information regarding
Thailand, and Vietnam. transnational crimes
A. ASEANAPOL b. Give access to information regarding
B. ASEAN exchange of intelligence
C. UN
c. Apprehend the residing wanted
D. INTERPOL
person in a certain country
d. Provide training regarding polcing
31. The first stage in project management is to develop styles and development
a proposal regarding the goals of ASEAN.
A. Project Proposal Formulation
B. Appraisal and Approval 38. Channels of global bilateral and multilateral
C. Implementation and Monitoring international cooperation against transnational crime.
D. Completion and Reporting 1. Global multilateral cooperation via Interpol

2. Bilateral police cooperation agreements

32. How do INTERPOL request for with individual states
cooperation or alerts allowing police in
3. European multilateral cooperation via
member countries to share critical crime
related information? It is through the? Europol
A. INTERPOL calling card 4. Multilateral cooperation via Community
B. INTERPOL assembly oriented policing.
C. INTERPOL video call system
D. INTERPOL notices system a. 1 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 3

b. 2 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
33. One notice system color is to seek the
arrest or provisional arrest of wanted
persons with a view to extradition through
the _____. 39. How does INTERPOL helps bring perpetrators of
A. Red notice international terrorism to justice?
B. Orange notice
LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 9|P age
a. By exchanging information with its member there is a potential for violence or harm, preventing
countries escalation and promoting peaceful resolutions.

b. By preventing acts of international terrorism

E. Policing involves building strong
c. By cooperating operatives in the field relationships with the community. Police
officers engage with residents, businesses, and
d. By promoting best practices and trainings community organizations to understand their
concerns and address issues effectively. This
collaboration fosters trust, cooperation, and a
sense of partnership between the police and the
40. Expulsion of a foreigner who is considered public.
undersirable by a particular country
a. extradition
45. One of the goals of policing in terms of more
b. deportation community engagements is to gain public trust and
more coordination coming from the community. Which
c. reconduction
of these refers to goal of policing in terms of public
d. apprehension trust?
A. Policing aims to reduce crime rates and create a
safe environment for individuals and
communities.
41. A police organization uses a policing model wherein B. Policing seeks to maintain public order by
crime management approach in which police officers preventing disorderly conduct, addressing public
respond only to reported criminal activities,limits the nuisances, and ensuring compliance with laws
interaction between police officers and the people in and regulations.
their area of operation, with Lack of crime prevention C. Policing strives to uphold justice and fairness by
efforts. What kind of policing model are they using? investigating crimes, apprehending offenders,
A. Traditional policing model and ensuring due process for all individuals
B. Problem oriented policing model involved.
C. Community oriented policing model D. Policing aims to enhance community safety by
D. Intelligence led policing model working collaboratively with residents,
businesses, and community organizations to
identify and address safety concerns.
42. Team policing refers to the mutual coordination E. Policing seeks to build public trust and
between the police and the community regarding confidence by promoting transparency,
preventing crimes and promotion of public safety and accountability, and ethical conduct among
security. What kind of approach is the police using? police officers.
A. Traditional policing model
B. Problem oriented policing model
C. Community oriented policing model 46. Roles of the Police in the Affairs of the
D. Intelligence led policing model State/Government is to compel the citizen to follow and
abide rules and regulations set by the current
administration. Role of police in terms of maintenance
43. A police office is conducting information and of public order is_____.
intelligence gathering regarding the continuous A. The primary role of the police is to enforce laws
increasing crime rate in a certain area including and regulations established by the government.
multiple records of robbery. An approach was used, They investigate crimes, apprehend offenders,
what kind of approach did they use? and gather evidence for prosecution.
A. Traditional policing model B. The police are responsible for maintaining
B. Problem oriented policing model public order and preventing disruptions to
C. Community oriented policing model social harmony. They respond to public
D. Intelligence led policing model disturbances, manage protests, and ensure
compliance with laws and regulations.
C. The police provide security and protection to
44. The police and the community forge a strong bond state/government officials, including politicians,
and relationship in terms of mutual benefit for both. diplomats, and other high-ranking individuals.
Importance of policing in social life in terms of They may be assigned to personal security details
community engagement states that_____. or tasked with securing government buildings and
A. Police officers actively work to prevent crime by events.
patrolling communities, responding to emergencies, D. In some cases, the police are involved in
and conducting investigations. Their presence acts as intelligence gathering and counter terrorism
a deterrent and helps create a sense of security among efforts. They work closely with intelligence
the public. agencies to identify and prevent potential threats
B. Policing is essential for maintaining public safety. to national security.
Police officers respond to emergencies, enforce traffic E. The police are often the first responders in
laws, and handle situations that pose a threat to emergencies, such as natural disasters or terrorist
individuals or communities. They play a vital role in attacks. They coordinate rescue efforts, provide
protecting citizens from harm. assistance to victims, and ensure public safety
C. The police are responsible for enforcing laws and during crises.
regulations. They investigate crimes, gather evidence,
and apprehend offenders. By upholding the law, police
officers ensure that individuals are held accountable for
their actions, promoting a just and fair society.
D. Police officers often act as mediators in conflicts,
helping to resolve disputes and maintain peace. They
have the authority to intervene in situations where
LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 10 | P a g e
LEA-3 Introduction to Industrial Security D. None of the aforementioned
Concepts
7. Mr. Malit, a natural person wants to practice or
perform security jobs and apply to a private agency to
1. Generally speaking, this refers to a condition in secure a stable job for him. What kind of license should
which individuals, institutions, authorities, or Mr. Malit acquire?
organizations feel completely safe and secure and are A. License to exercise security profession
not exposed to any threats or vulnerabilities in their B. License to operate
lives, liberties, property, or activities from anybody or C. A & B
anything. It could manifest physically, psychologically, D. None of the aforementioned
socially, or economically.
A. Physical security
B. Security 8. How long is the validity of GSF-LTO of LGUs?
C. Barrier A. 3 years for new application, 5 years for renewal that
D. Defense system shall be applied within 60 days to the incumbent local
executive
B. 5 years for new application, 3 years for renewal
2. What is the protection against any harm or C. renewed every five (5) years. However, GSF-
LTO of LGUs shall be renewed every three (3)
crime in the preservation of life, properties and
years and shall be applied within sixty (60) days
installation using various methods and devices?
upon assumption of the local government
A. Police assistance executive concerned.
D. NOTA
B. Barriers

C. Hazards
9. Mr. Malit is an employed natural person to perfrom
D. Security security functions on a private establishment named
McJubilee. What kind of unit does he belongs to?
A. Private Security Agency
B. Company Guard Force
3. What is the title of R.A. 5487? C. Government Security Force
A. AN ACT TO REGULATE THE ORGANIZATION D. Private Security Officer
AND OPERATION OF PRIVATE DETECTIVE,
WATCHMEN OR SECURITY GUARDS AGENCIES.
10. What are the types of security unit recognized
B. AN ACT STRENGTHENING THE REGULATION OF under the R.A. 11917?
THE PRIVATE SECURITY SERVICES INDUSTRY, A. Private Security Agency
REPEALING FOR THE PURPOSE, REPUBLIC ACT NO. B. Company Guard Force
5487, ENTITLED “AC ACT TO REGULATE THE C. Government Security Force
ORGANIZATION AND OPERATION OF PRIVATE D. Private Security Training Agency
DETECTIVE WATCHMEN OR SECURITY GUARD E. All of the aforementioned
AGENCIES”, AS AMENDED
C. The Private Security Agency Law.
11. Refers to a natural person employed by the PSA to
D. The Private Security Services Industry Act provide personal protection to a VIP or Protectee.
A. Security guard
B. PSP
4. A person who is eligible/qualified to be issued a
C. Protection agent
valid LESP of any classification or category, issued by
D. Private detective
the designated government agency after satisfying all
the qualifications and requirements
A. Private Security Professional 12. what is an example of a private detective work?
B. Security guard A. Conduct laboratory examinations on forensic unit
C. Guard B. Criminal investigation
D. Private detective C. Locate missing person
D. Fingerprinting and DNA profiling
5. What law gives the PNP power to Supervise and
control the training and operations of security agencies 13. Written order/schedule/assignment issued to a
and issue licenses to operate security agencies, and to private security personnel by the licensee of the PSA,
security guards and private detectives, for the practice or administrative/resource operations manager of
of their professions. security, detective service, deployment of PSP and with
A. Ra 6975 the corresponding issuance of agency-owned firearms.
B. Ra 8551 A. DDO
C. Ra 11917 B. SDDO
D. Ra 5487 C. LTO
D. LTOPF

14. A business entity may establish one (1) PSA which

6. What are the two types of licenses being issued by
may provide one or more categories of security
the Chief, PNP through Chief, SOSIA, for a person’s or
services covered by distinct and separate LTO:
juridical entity’s engagement in the private security
Provided that they shall not employ more than
industry.
_______ Private Security Professionals.
A. License to exercise security profession
A. 1000
B. License to operate
B. 2000
C. A & B
LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 11 | P a g e
C. 3000 commission of a crime
D. 5000
b. When the firearm has just been used in the
commission of a crime
15. How long is the validity of license to exercise
security profession of a PSP? c. When the firearm being carried by the security
A. 3 years guard is unlicensed or a firearm is not authorized
B. 6 years by law and regulation for his use.
C. 5 years
D. 10 years d. When the confiscation of the firearm is
directed by the order of the prosecutor

16. What is required for security guards to

22. What are the grounds for confiscation of a PSP’s
undergo authorized training unit for a certain
firearm?
period of time?
a. Expired LTOPFs or no LTOPF;
A. Pre-licensing trainig program
b. Expired or unregistered firearms; and
B. Security supervisory course
c. Firearms with tampered, altered or obliterated
C. Security officer training course Serial Numbers.
d. All of the aforementioned
D. Re-training course

23. He/she is the field or area commander of the

17. Jina bowl a retired Police Chief Superintendent of agency.
the Philippine National Police (PNP) and his fellow
retired PNP officers are planning to establish a
A. Detachment commander
security guard and private detective agency in Manila.
B. Chief inspector
In what office of the government does their agency be
C. Inspector
registered?
D. Watchman

a. Department of Trade and Industries 24. General order number 1 is______

b. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective a. To take charge of the post and all company
Agency Operators, Inc. (PADPAO) properties in view and protect/ preserve
the same with utmost diligence
c. Philippine National Police, Supervisory Office for
Security and Investigative Agencies (PNP-SOSIA) b. To walk in an alert manner during my tour of duty
and observing everything that takes place within
d. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) sight or hearing

c. To report all violations of regulations and orders

I am instructed to enforce
18. Ms. Mikhamot is working with a nature of
d. To relay all calls from posts more distant from the
supervisory job for the security agency’s line officers.
security house where I am stationed
Her duty is inherent to the security task of the
personnel. Under what criteria does Ms. Mikhamot falls
to? 25. A security guard shall watch and secure the
A. Technology-based property of the person, firm, or establishment with
B. Territory-based whom he/she or his/her agency has a valid contract for
C. Competency-based security services.
D. Superiority based
A. Detachment duty

19. What is the firearm-PSP ratio B. Duty assignment

accordingratioaccording to R.A. 11917’s IRR?
C. Territorial power
A. 1:1
D. Territorial function
B. 1:2
C. 1:7
D. 1:1 + 1 26. It’s not just about enforcing rules and maintaining
a watchful eye; security guards are also the first point
of contact for many visitors and customers. As such,
20. How many ammunition are allowed to be
they are required to balance safety and hospitality,
purchased and possessed by a single PSP?
exhibiting excellent relationship with the customer
A. 50 rounds given that all of it will be kept in a storage
while ensuring the safety and security of the premises.
B. 50 rounds given that it will be surrendered to the
A. Customer Service Skills
PSA
B. Security training
C. 25 rounds of ammunition per firearm. The C. Safety and security
remaining 25 rounds shall be kept in storage. D. Nota
D. 55 rounds

27. Mr. Malit can balance his intuition and discretion

21. The following are the basis for the confiscation of during a dilemma which can lead him into a wise
firearms, except. decision. What did he executed?
a. When the firearm is actually being used in the A. Empathy
LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 12 | P a g e
B. Problem-solving skills
C. Conflict resolution
D. Communication 35. A fact finding probe to determine a plant’s
adequacy in all aspects of security, with the
corresponding recommendations, critical on-site
28. It refers to the disciplined collection and analysis of examination and analysis of an industrial plant,
external information from multiple sources to better business, home, or public or private institution.
understand the forces shaping an organization’s a. Security Inspection
competitive environment. It aims to establish or c.Security Investigation
enhance a competitive advantage through ethical
methods of data collection and analysis. b. Security Survey
A. Corporate investigation d.Security Education
B. Corporate intelligence
C. Corporate management
D. Corporate operations

29. Mr. Malit is running a business and aims to have 36. A business plant was experiencing substantial loss
competitive advantage against competitors of his due to natural calamities and they are on the verge of
products. What type of Corporate intelligence shall he bankruptcy because they kept their products on low
utilize? areas and during calamities, their degree of protection
A. Competitive intelligence doesn't suffice their protected assets. How are they
B. Market intelligence going to address the problem, conduct what?
C. Strategic intelligence A. Security survey
D. Operational intelligence B. Security investigation
C. Security inspection
D. Security training
30. A ______________ is the thorough investigation of
a corporation or business in order to uncover
wrongdoing committed by management, employees, 37. Which is true about security survey?
or third parties. A. The survey should be undertaken by either suitably
A. Corporate investigation trained staff security personnel, or a fully qualified
B. Corporate intelligence independent security specialist.
C. Corporate management B. No universal checklist can be applied to all sites for
D. Corporate operations survey purposes, as no two facilities are alike.
C. Only one person familiar to the installation should
conduct survey.
31. A plant was receiving numerous of complaints D. A & B
regarding stolen items and harassment of superiors.
What type of corporate investigation fits the scenario?
38. This is a check of how well existing security
measures and regulations are being carried out within
A. Undercover Investigation a detachment or establishment. It comes subeqeuent
B. Research Investigation to security survey.
C. Financial Investigation A. Security survey
D. Corruption Investigation B. Security investigation
C. Security inspection
D. Security training
32. Security survey sequence of action except.
A. Examine and analyze the sight and
organization 39. After the Bureau o Fire Protection conducted
security survey on areas concerning high risks of
B. Ascertain the organization current security industrial fires what is the next thing to do if they want
status and determine the level of protection needed to make sure and compel the site to comply with the
given recommendation stated at the security survey?
C. Make recommendation A. Security survey
B. Security investigation
D. Check whether the recommendation C. Security inspection
followed D. Security training

33. Which one is not a purpose of security survey?

A. To determine the existing state of security 40. It is a document that consists of the critical
information an organization needs to continue
B. To locate weakness in the defense operating during an unplanned event.
A. Business continuity plan
C. To determine degree of protection required
B. Risk management
D To determine the procedure of C. Hazard perception
D. Recovery
employee’s control

41. What is the main difference between BCP and Risk

34. Use term of security “to look carefully” management?
A. Patrol A. BCP sought to prevent potential risk to damage the
B. Survey operation while risk management mitigates the effect
C. Check of the risk
D. Walk through
LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 13 | P a g e
B. BCP aims for prevention and recovery from potential 48. The peak goal of security is this principle
threats to a company. The plan ensures that personnel A. Balance between security and efficiency
and assets are protected and are able to function B. General principles of security remain constant
quickly in the event of a disaster while risk C. Command Responsibility
management enables project managers to see ahead D. Security is the concern of all personnel
to potential risks and reduce their negative impact.
C. BCP is a plan for continuing operation of the plant,
and risk management is for prevention of a risk to 49. Which of the following is the main reason for
become a disruption. a personnel security investigation?
D. B & C
A. To suspend or terminate undesirable
employees
42. Those measures that will deter man from B. Prelude assignment to sensitive positions for
committing such act of fear of being caught, charge in those who are facing security risks
court or get dismissed.
A. Active measures C. To check the loyalty of employees to
B. Passive measures the organization
C. Inactive measures
D. Operated measures D. To determine the reputation of the
employees

43. Which of the following should be excluded as major

divisions of security?
A. Personal security C. Personnel 50. one who steals due to his inability to resist the
unexpected opportunity
security
and has little fear of detection. Examples of these are
B. Physical security D. Document kleptomaniac, children, and
Security
imbecile. Etc

A. Systematic pilferer
44. Is the act or condition affecting the safe operation B. Casual pilferer
of the facility caused by human action, accidental or C. Pilferer
intentional, like sabotage, espionage, pilferage, theft, D. Thief
etc
A.Security hazards
51. If utility opening such as air intakes, sewers,
B.Human hazards and exhaust tunnels have a cross section of
C.Natural hazards ninety-six inches or more, as a security consultant
what should be the appropriate recommendation?
D.Structural hazards a. It should be protected by filters and bar
grills
b. It should be closed immediately to avoid entry
45. Can natural hazards be prevented by the security of persons with slim physique
force of a plant?
A. Yes, by monitoring warning from the c. It should be manned with an armed guard
weather bureau at all times
B. No, it is an act of God and nobody can
prevents it d. It should be equipped with motion
C. No, but its effects which can cause detector devices to prevent unauthorized
damage to life and property entries
D. Yes, by proper planning and constant drills

52. Unobstructed area maintain on both sides of

46. Why do the personnel security is regarded as the the perimeter barrier.
weakest link in security chain? a. Zone
A. They are loyal and faithful to the company they are
employed in so they tend to follow even the most b. Clear zone
undesirable order.
c. Zoning
B. They tend to be easily defeated by temptation
and disloyalty d. All of the above
C. Person tend to find new company better than their
current employer
D. I have no idea.
53. A type of fence that is constructed in such a
47. This principle states that security is the paramount way that visual access through the fence is denied
concern regardless of the expenses and efforts as long is called:
as they employ efficient security service.
A. Balance between security and efficiency A. Chain link fence
B. General principles of security remain constant B. Solid fence
C. Command Responsibility C. Concertina wire fence
D. Delegation of authority
D. Full-view fence

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 14 | P a g e

54. Doors, floors, windows, walls, roofs and grills and
other entries to the building are considered
A. Third line of defense 61. Emergency lighting system is
B. Second line of defense placed________________________.
C. First line of defense a. On a regular schedule for secure areas
D. Fourth line of defense b. For occasions when more light is needed
c. When more light is needed in areas not
usually lit
55. Solid fences do have advantages and d. To be used as an alternate power
disadvantages. Which one is considered as the former? source when the regular power source fails
A. Denies visual access of the installation of the
intruder.
B. Allows the opportunity for the intruder to become 62. Which refers to various actions and physical
familiar with safeguards used by business eterprise to address
the personnel activities and the time schedule of the potential hazards?
movements of guards in the installations

C. It allows the guards from observing the area around A. Hazard prevention
the installation. B. Risk transfer
D. It creates shadows which may be used by the C. Security officers
intruder for cover and concealment. D. Countermeasures
56. What best describes the means of security
A. Eliminating doubtful personnel
63. Mr. Malangis P. Mabangis is planning to build his
B. Upgrading company’s security measures
house in one of the nicest subdivision in their town of
C. Providing necessary and proper security
Tagaytay City; he plans to have many forms of security
measures
so that no one has an access to his property. If Mr.
D. Removing risks in documents
Mabangis is going to include the quality of the building
exterior of his dream house, this is considered as?
57. Placed above level of the fence. It is used by the
security guards in observing activities in the nearby
a. First line of defense
surroundings.
a. Top guard c. Clear b. Second line of defense
zone
b. Security tower d. c. Third line of defense
perimeter barriers
58. Company X is experiencing substantial loss d. All of these
because of the involvement of its personnel in various
industrial problems such as disaffection, disloyalty,
espionage and pilferage. It also appeared that they
hired key officials not suited to their positions. What 64. What type of document that is inaccessible to
aspect of security did Company X went wrong? the public such as health information?
a. Personnel security c. Personnel A. Top secret
identification
B. Secret
b. Personal security
d. Lack of Background Investigation C. Personal

D. Confidential

59. Measures that may undertake for the security of a

plant against man-made hazards are:
I. Installation of physical barriers, security 65. This is a type of business record which contains an
lighting, use of vaults, locks and deployment of security irreplaceable records, reproduction of which does not
guards which called as physical measures. have the same value as the original
A. Class I
II. Programs that will cease person from B. Class II
committing an act for fear of being caught, charge in C. Class III
court or dismissed, e.g. security education programs, D. Class IV
investigations, fire prevention seminars, personnel
security checks etc. which are called passive measures 66. This involves the protection of documents as
classified papers from loss, access by unauthorized
Choose the correct answer.
persons, damage, theft and compromise through
A. I is true while II is false C. I and disclosure.
A. Physical security
II are both true
B. Personnel security
B. I is false while II is true C. Document and Information security
D. I and II are both false D. Personal security

67. If the facility is located in the city where there are

60. An authenticated list of personnel allowing entry to adjacent buildings and the installation of fence is
the plant, facility or room with classified work. impractical, which structure serves as the first line of
a. access list c. I.D. system defense?
b. personnel list d. VIP A. Vaults
list B. Fences

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 15 | P a g e

C. Gates D. Security clearance
D. Walls

68. Diwatang kayganda was ordered by his boss to 76. Company X is experiencing substantial loss
apply for their main competitor company and once she because of the involvement of its personnel in various
was hire, her boss told her to destroy all their industrial problems such as disaffection, disloyalty,
equipments and documents. What did Diwata do? espionage and pilferage. It also appeared that they
A. Subversion hired key officials not suited to their positions. What
B. Pilferage aspect of security did Company X went wrong?
C. Eavesdropping a. Personnel security c.
D. Sabotage Personnel identification

b. Personal security
69. What is the goal of an espion? d. Lack of Background Investigation
A. Spread rumors and gossip
B. Destroy properties
C. Steal company’s information
D. Observe company’s operation 77. Risk theory implies that_____
A. Based on the identification of a threat, the
specification of risk and the specification of how
70. The exposure and teaching of the employees on to overcome the risk. The essence of risk lies in
security and its relevance to their work. the objective existence of threats.It is focusing
a. Education of security c. on minimization of damage or impact.
Employee security education B. mainly on nature and causes of crisis. The basics of
b. Security education crisis prevention and its handling are based on the
d. Education crisis theory, it is important to determine what is the
71. Susceptibility of the plants to damage, loss, reason and nature of safety and security problems.
destruction due to various hazards. C. Determines that anything that happens has at least
a. Relative vulnerability c. one cause, and also any cause has future
relative criticality of operation consequences. The same causes create the same
b. Degree of risk d. effects. It is important to focus on this problem.
hazards D. All of the aforementioned

72. Which of the following is a practical test of a plan 78. Security by design in architecture refers to the
or any activity to determine its effectiveness and also practice of integrating security measures and
an operational readiness exercise? considerations into the planning, design, and
A. Run through construction of buildings and infrastructure from the
very beginning of architectural projects.
B. Fire drill A. Architectural security
B. 1st line of defense
C. Dry run
C. Physical security
D. Controlling D. Active measures

79. It aims to influence the behavior of individuals by.

73. It is the protection resulting from the application designing the physical environment in a way that
of various measures which prevent or delay the enemy deters criminal activity. Examples of such design
or unauthorized persons in gaining information through elements include clear sight lines, proper lighting,
the communication system. landscaping that doesn't provide hiding spots, and
controlled access points.
A. Physical security A. Urban design
B. Communication security B. Architectural security
C. Physical security
C. Information security D. Crime Prevention Through Environmental
D. Document security Design (CPTED)

74. Refers to the grant of access to classified matter 80. Mr. Bhaowg Baylat is planning to build a
only to properly cleared persons when such classified convenience store in a highly crowded or
information is required in the performance of their overpopulated area in Manila. Due to high count of
official duties, and restricting it to specific physical population, the area was congested and needed
confine when feasible. further security for him to secure his convenience store
through employing metal bars and gates, elevated
A. Need to know platforms for flood, plants that will serve as natural
B. Interim eligibility barrier/fence, and seats to let people loiter that will
serve as additional surveillance. This scenario implies
C. Compartmentalization that Mr. Bhaowg Baylat utilized the use of _______ to
his business.
D. Final clearance
A. Architectural security
B. 1st line of defense
C. Physical security
75. An administrative determination that an individual
D. Active measures
is eligible from a security standpoint for access to
classified matter of specific category.
A. Interim clearance 81. The process of developing and designing urban
B. Final clearance areas to meet the needs of a community. The practice
C. Complete clearance
LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 16 | P a g e
draws from a number of disciplines; architecture, D. Procedures
engineering, economics, sociology, public health,
finance, and more, and strives to prepare cities and
towns for the future. 5. What is the main difference between policies and
A. Urban planning/ urban design procedure that are stated in the elements of planning?
B. Architectural security A. Policies states the step by step sequence of activities
C. Physical security and procedures serves as rule of conduct
D. Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design B. Procedures states the nature of the organization and
(CPTED) policies define the goal of the organization
C. Policies provide guidelines to thinking and
action, but procedures are definite and specific
82. Ms. Gina Cole Co, is currently running a garage steps to thinking and action.
wherein she sells different variety of 2nd hand cars. She D. Policies are strategic and procedures are long-
plans to relocate her building to a highly urbanized area range.
in Metro Manila.considering Manila is full of skyscrapers
and tall structures, how can she make her garage
gather more market and be recognized immediately to 6. Means an estimate of men, money, materials and
her new location. She must consider______. equipment in numerical terms required for
A. Urban planning/ urban design implementation of plans and programmes.
B. Architectural security A. Rules
C. Physical security B. Procedures
D. Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design C. Budget
(CPTED) D. Programmes

7. Which of the following criteria is necessary in

obtaining an EFFECTIVE operational plan?
LEA-4 Law Enforcement Operations and A. Identification of unseen scenarios that
are possible to happen
Planning with Crime Mapping
B. Need for an increased logistics

C. More available space for conference

1. It is concerned with visualizing future situations, D. More man power

making estimates concerning them, identifying issues,
needs and potential danger points, analyzing and
evaluating the alternative ways and means for reaching
desired goals. 8. What is the next planning step after the need
A. Leading to plan is recognized?
a. Evaluate alternatives
B. Coordinating
b. Execute the plan
C. Planning
c. Formulate the objectives
D. Organizing
d. Gather and analyze data

2. Principle of planning that means certain resources

must be committed or pledged for the purpose of 9. Execution of a plan requires the issuance of orders
planning. Planning is not an easy task. So, necessary and directives to units and personnel concern.
help is to be taken from experts. The enterprise must A. Developing the facts
be ready to exhaust the available resources for the B. Selling the plan
achievement of a plan. C. Arranging execution of the plan
A. Principle of the Limiting Factor D. Evaluating the plan
B. Principle of Reflective Thinking
C. Principle of Commitment
D. Principle of Flexibility 10. Is a series of preliminary decisions on a framework,
which in turn guides subsequent decisions that
generate the nature and direction of an organization.
3. Principle of planning states that plan should be made This is usually long ranged in nature.
efficient to attain the objectives of the enterprise at the A. Strategic planning
minimum cost and least effort. It must also achieve B. Tactical planning
better results with the minimum of unexpected C. Operational planning
happenings. Therefore, it is to be seen that what is D. None
expected is likely to be achieved.
A. Principle of Contribution to Enterprise Objectives
B. Principle of Efficiency 11. These are developed in anticipation of problems.
C. Principle of Selection of Alternatives Although not all police problems are predictable, many
D. Principle of Planning Premises are, and it is possible for a police department to
prepare a response in advance.
A. Reactive plan
4. Element of planning that defines the goals of the B. Proactive plan
organization. C. Predictive plan
A. Forecasting D. Visionary plan
B. Objectives
C. Policies

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 17 | P a g e

12. A plan to address the continuous elevation of crime and analysis of the planning process and can assist
rate in the Philippines is what type of plan according to police administrator in formulating goals and priorities
general types of plan? is called;
A. Reactive plan
B. Proactive plan A. Synoptic planning
C. Predictive plan B. Incremental planning
D. Visionary plan C. Transactive planning
D. Advocacy planning
13. These plan are designed to visualized future E. Radical planning
conditions and anticipate where a crime would take
place.
A. Reactive plan 21. Concludes that long range and comprehensive
B. Proactive plan planning are not only too difficult, but inherently bad.
C. Predictive plan This refers to:
D. Visionary plan
A. Synoptic planning
B. Incremental planning
14. It relates to plans, which determine quantity and
C. Transactive planning
quality efforts and accomplishments. It refers to the
process of determining the contribution on efforts that D. Advocacy planning
can make or provide with allocated resources. E. Radical planning
A. Strategic or Long Range Plan
B. Intermediate or Medium Range Planning
22. Managers of the mekus-mekus ni Insan fast food
C. Operational or Short Range Planning
stall always check the pending unfinished formulas
D. Reactive plan
before innovating and jumping into inventing new one.
What kind of approach did the managers use?
15. Plan that is an outline of steps designed with the
goals of the entire organization as a whole in mind, A. Synoptic planning
rather than with the goals of specific divisions or B. Incremental planning
departments. C. Transactive planning
A. Strategic plans D. Advocacy planning
B. Tactical plans E. Radical planning
C. Operational plans
D. Contingency plans
23. The PNP-SAF, in their base are conducting a face
to face private conversation regarding the operation
16. Plan that utilizes flexibility or presence of against insurgents in the mountains of Awra-arwa.
alternatives. What kind of approach did they applied?
A. Strategic plans A. Synoptic planning
B. Tactical plans B. Incremental planning
C. Operational plans C. Transactive planning
D. Contingency plans D. Advocacy planning
E. Radical planning
17. Anti-drug campaign or the”Drug war” conducted by
the Duterte administration is a type of what plan? 24. Mr. Sabut-sabut always take the negative side
A. Strategic plans effects of the plan into consideration and tends to take
B. Tactical plans into priority the greater sensitivity of the plan’s
C. Operational plans outcome.
D. Contingency plans

A. Synoptic planning
18. The PNP quota system is a never-ending
B. Incremental planning
replacement for those personnel that are retires,
C. Transactive planning
resigned or attritted. Continuous selection for new
members of the PNP is a kind of what plan? D. Advocacy planning
A. Strategic plans E. Radical planning
B. Tactical plans
C. Operational plans
25. Which planning model can you create if you group
D. Contingency plans
the problems together and solve them one at a time?

A. Synoptic planning
19. Which of the following DOCTRINES is governing B. Incremental planning
planning, organizing and employment of PNP force in C. Transactive planning
the accomplishment of basic security mission in D. Advocacy planning
maintaining peace and order? E. Radical planning
A. Complimentary
B. Fundamental
C. Operational 26. It has two mainstream The first mainstream
D. Functional involves collective actions to achieve concrete results
in the immediate future. The second mainstream is
20. This model is especially appreciated for police critical of large scale social processes and how they
agencies as it based on problem oriented approach to permeate the character of social and economic life at
planning. It relies heavily on the problem identification

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 18 | P a g e

all levels, which, in turn, determine the structure and community event, what kind of police plan shall the
evolution of social problems. police employ?
A. Synoptic planning A. Operational plans
B. Incremental planning B. Strategic plans
C. Transactive planning C. Reactive plan
D. Advocacy planning D. Tactical plan
E. Radical planning
33. Patrol, investigation, traffic, vice control, juvenile
27. To properly achieve the administrative planning control are primary responsibility to plan operations
responsibility within in the unit, the Commander shall done in the field and also to execute the plans these
develop unit plans relating to policies or procedure, are included in what type of plan?
tactics, operations, extra-office activities and A. Operational plans
management. What kind of police plan was stated? B. Strategic plans
A. Policy and procedural plans C. Reactive plan
B. Tactical plans D. Tactical plan
C. Operational plans
D. Extra-office plans
34. These type of plans are concerned with the active
public concern in its affairs. These are plans made to
organize the community to assist in the
28. The procedures that relate to reporting, raids, accomplishment of objectives in the fields of traffic
arrests, investigates crimes are examples control, organized crime, and juvenile delinquency
of_______. prevention.

A. Office
A. Policy and procedural plans
B. Special operating B. Tactical plans
C. Operational plans
C. Field D. Extra-office plans

D. Police special
35. The PNP encourages the community to report all
violation of laws and ordinances to let them be aware
of the criminality happening and to prevent them to be
29. These operating divisions/units shall have specific
victimized by any sort of crimes. What type of police
plans to meet current needs. The manpower shall be
plan shall they employ?
distributed throughout the hours of operation and
A. Policy and procedural plans
throughout the area of jurisdiction in proportion to
B. Tactical plans
need.
C. Operational plans
A. Regular operating program
D. Extra-office plans
B. Meeting unusual needs
C. Standing plans
D. Regular plans 36. Pnp's Master Plan To Help Protect And Preserve
Our Environment, Cultural Properties And Natural
Resources.
30. You are a police officer of the Traffic A. SANGYAMAN MASTER PLAN
department and you encountered a day-to-day B. SANG-BANAT MASTER PLAN
operation problem, what solution do you and your C. SANG-INGAT MASTER PLAN
department needs? D. SAKLOLO MASTER PLAN

37. This serves as the long-range and holistic master

a. None of these plan of the PNP in waging an internal security support
operations nationwide. Premised on the estimate of the
b. Operation program
national situation and other considerations, it
c. Standard operating seminar prescribes the counter-insurgency support strategy,
operational concept, scheme of implementation,
d. Regular operating program service support and coordinating instructions in order
to accomplish the PNP's internal security support
mission.
A. SANDIGAN MASTER PLAN
31. These are procedures in coping with specific B. SANDUGO MASTER PLAN
situations at known locations and plans for dealing C. SANG-INGAT MASTER PLAN
with an attack against buildings, special community D. SAKLOLO MASTER PLAN
events and other street affairs is called;
A. policy plan

B. tactical plan 38. SWOT analysis; Assets are your______.

A. Threats
C. operational plan
B. Strength
D. extra office plan C. Opportunities
D. Weaknesses

32. The FIBA world cup is hosted by the Philippines. To

maintain public safety and a smooth flow of the

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 19 | P a g e

39. SMART method is used for goal-setting, which of B. Scorecards and dashboard measures progress on
these describes that a goal must be possible to achieve both fields
with current resources and capabilities? C. Scorecards measures the personnel while dashboard
A. Measurable measures the project
B. Realistic D. NOTA
C. Achievale/attainable
D. Timely
48. Strategy reviews uses scorecards by identifying key
success factors or barriers that contributed or
hampered in the accomplishment of the target and it is
done quarterly, but what does dashboard measures?
40. What kind of plan is the PNP P.A.T.R.O.L. PLAN A. Operations review
2030? B. Daily reviews
A. Tactical C. Tactical reviews
B. Operational D. NONE
C. Management
D. Strategic
49. It is the process through which crime analysts and
researchers use location information about crime
41. P.A.T.R.O.L. means_____ events to detect spatial patterns in criminal activity.
A. Police Alertness and transparency of Role Of Leaders A. Crime analysis
B. Peace and Order Through Radical Operating Law B. Crime prevention
C. Peace and Order Agenda for Transformation C. Crime mapping
and Upholding of the Rule of Law D. Crime intervention
D. Policing At Top Rank Of Love

50. Used by analysts in law enforcement agencies to

42. What is PGS in the PNP P.A.T.R.O.L. PLAN 2030? map, visualize, and analyze crime incident patterns.
A. Performance, Governance, Solution A. Crime analysis
B. Policing, Governance, System B. Crime prevention
C. Performance, Governance, System C. Crime mapping
D. Police, Guidelines, Standards D. Crime intervention

43. 4 stages of PGS includes: 51. Brgy. San Juan comes with high count of criminals
A. Initiation Stage crawling from every point of their streets. What
B. Compliance Stage medium can they use to determine what exact location
C. Proficiency Stage they need to provide more police forces to lessen
D. Institutionalization Stage criminality in a certain point of area?
E. All of the above A. Selective enforcement
B. Crime mapping
C. Crime analysis
44. This part of the PGS states that It is an essential D. Critical pointing
part to set goals of the organization and the
identification of objectives, strategies, and impact
indicators towards the attainment of the institution’s 52. Thematic maps are color coded maps that depict
vision. the geographic distribution of numeric or descriptive
A. Initiation Stage values of some variable.
B. Compliance Stage A. thematic mapping
C. Proficiency Stage B. non-graphical indicators
D. Institutionalization Stage C. hot spots
D. spatial regression
E. geographic profiling
45. These are both analytical tools that allow you to
focus on the measurements that are important to the
achievement of your goals. 53. These are used to sort various variables such as
A. Scorecards and dashboard language, population, temperature and other
B. Daily time record and bulletin distributions affecting crime and how to compensate
C. Bulletin board and annoucement personnel demand in each crime area.
D. Orders and Memos A. thematic mapping
B. non-graphical indicators
C. hot spots
46. These are used for performance management that D. spatial regression
measure the progress towards the strategic goals and E. geographic profiling
is updated periodically.
A. Dashboard
B. Bulletin board 54. Produce a single number that represents the
C. Scorecards presence of the clustering of crime incidents or not.
D. Memos These are global level statistics indicating the strength
of spatial auto correlation, but not its location.They
compare actual distributions of crime incidents with
47. What is the main difference between scorecards random distributions.
and dashboard? A. thematic mapping
A. Scorecards measures contribution towards B. non-graphical indicators
the strategic goals of the PNP, updated C. hot spots
periodically while dashboard measures the day D. spatial regression
to day accomplishments updated continuously E. geographic profiling

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 20 | P a g e

 One example for this is serial killings with a patterned
location of targets not far away from where the suspect
55. This is used to cluster similar offenses in an area, resides.
for example, grouping all crimes related against
property, crimes against person and the like. A. thematic mapping
A. thematic mapping B. non-graphical indicators
B. non-graphical indicators C. hot spots
C. hot spots D. spatial regression
D. spatial regression E. geographic profiling
E. geographic profiling

62. A system that generates, manages, examines, and

56. These are places with concentrations of high crime maps all kinds of data, connects data to a map,
or a greater than average level of crime. The converse combines location information with all kinds of
of a hot spot is a cold spot, which are places that are descriptive information, and aids users in
completely, or almost, devoid of crime. understanding patterns, relationships, and geographic
A. thematic mapping context and is collecting and storing information in the
B. non-graphical indicators data base, what is also used to track criminals.
C. hot spots
D. spatial regression A. Geographic System for Police
E. geographic profiling
B. Geographic Information System

57. A small geographical area where crime occurs often C. Geographic Manual for Police
enough that it's predictable. One example of this is a
slum or an area with high density of population tends D. Geographical Police System
to apply the metaphor of “survival of the fittest”.
A. thematic mapping
B. non-graphical indicators
C. hot spots
D. spatial regression 63. A feature of GIS data representation which is
E. geographic profiling analogous to a pin placed on a paper wall map.
A. Polygon
B. Line
58. A place with high crime is most likely surrounded
C. Point
by neighbors that also experience high crime, thereby
D. Cube
displaying spatial auto correlation.
A. thematic mapping
B. non-graphical indicators 64. What is simply a visualization tool that is used to
C. hot spots display raw geographic data and output form analysis
D. spatial regression which is done through GIS?
E. geographic profiling A. Mapping

B. Investigation
59. Subdivisions in the Philippines tends to ignore the
fact that they still need to employ the use of fences C. Observation
and gates to prevent accidental entry and crimes
D. Sketching
committed against their properties.
Using___________, we can sense the significance of
the environment’s ecology and factors as it affects the
rate of crimes. 65. Is similar to a wall map, in that the computer is
A. thematic mapping used to place a point at a specific location just as a
B. non-graphical indicators person would put a pin on a wall map.
C. hot spots A. Computer Mapping
D. spatial regression B. Pin / wall mapping
E. geographic profiling C. Graduated mapping
D. Chart mapping

60. It is a technique for identifying the likely area

where a serial offender resides or other place such as 66. This is the use of GIS in crime mapping.
their place of work, that serves as an anchor point, with A. Using GIS techniques for crime mapping is
the assumption that criminals do not go far out of their very helpful for the law agencies to show
daily routines to commit crimes. It takes into account density maps for overall crime patterns and
a series of crime locations that have been linked to a track crime incidents especially in the hotspot
particular serial criminal and creates a probability areas of high crime intensity.
surface that identifies the area where the offender's B. This helps to locate potential pieces of evidence that
anchor point may be are found In the crime scene and help process them in
A. thematic mapping the crime laboratory
B. non-graphical indicators C. Gis helps identify patterns of crime such as modes
C. hot spots of operation, organized criminal groups and determine
D. spatial regression transnationality of criminal activities.
E. geographic profiling D. None

61. It was originally developed for use in serial 67. Which type of crime analysis looks at the long-term
murder, rapes, and other rare but serious crimes. and on

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 21 | P a g e

going issues. Its focus is often on identifying
_________.
74. Why do we need at least one female officer in a
a. Strategic Crime Analysis checkpoint team?
A. In case of suspected female participant in a crime
b. Tactical Crime Analysis B. To effect handle suspected CICL
C. Cross gender searches are strictly prohibited, so
c. Administrative Crime Analysis presence of a female officer in a team is a must.
D. All of the above
d. Line Crime Analysis

75. The following are basic requirements in conducting

police operations, except:
68. Is a linear- progressive decision-making A. Led by a Police Commissioned Officer (PCO)
process which displays the array of police or the most senior Police Non Commissioned
reasonable responses commensurate to the level Officer (PNCO) in the absence or
of suspect/law offender’s resistance to effect unavailability of a PCO; and
compliance, arrest and other law enforcement B. With personnel in prescribed police uniform
actions. except for covert operatives when serving
A. Force Continuum warrant of arrest provided personnel in
uniform shall be present during the arrest
B. Lethal Approach C. With unmarked police vehicle;
D. With the use of Body Worn Cameras (BWCs)
C. Force Continuity and/or Alternative Recording Devices
(ARDs) during the conduct of searches and
D. Maximum Tolerance arrests.

69. This involves the police presence in crime-prone 76. All the statements regarding stopping and
areas and the employment of activities or actions to searching a person are true, except.
persuade and/or request cooperation of people A. The police officer may stop an individual
particularly suspects and law offenders to police for the purpose of conducting a spot check
instructions and other control efforts. only when he is armed with search warrant.
A. Non-lethal approach
B. In stopping, the police officer must be able to
B. Lethal approach
point to specific facts that when taken together
C. Less lethal approach
with rational inferences, reasonably warrant the
D. Fatal approach
stop.

C. When approaching the individual, the police

70. Include investigation of crime or incident, Scene of
officer shall clearly identify himself as a police
the Crime Operations (SOCO), administrative
investigation and other investigative work necessary to officer.
determine facts and circumstances for filing cases
D. Before approaching more than one individual,
criminally or administratively.
police officers should determine whether the
A. Police Community relations
B. Investigation operation circumstances warrant a request for back-up.
C. Special police operation
D. Law Enforcement operation
77. What is the role of the first responder upon arriving
at a crime scene?
71. In all planned police operations, the team leader of
A. Save the victim’s life if there is still signs of life
the operating team/s shall secure a ___________ prior
B. Arrest perpetrators trying to flee
to the conduct of operation.
C. Cordon and preserve the area of the crime scene
A. Operational plan
D. All of these
B. Operational clearance
C. Pre-operational clearance
D. Security clearance 78. Why is patrol considered of great importance?
a. Patrol is the initiator of operations and can be
done by anyone in the organization
72. Prior to the conduct of a buy-bust operation,
b. Patrol seldomly impact citizen’s satisfaction
coordinated with the local PDEA office, P/Lt. Diyata
c. Actions taken by the patrol officer have the
must secure a__________ before executing the said
most direct impact on the citizen’s
entrapment operation.
satisfaction
A. Operational plan
d. Patrol is partisan
B. Operational clearance
C. Pre-operational clearance
D. Security clearance
79. When can a peace officer stop and frisk a
suspected felon?
73. Who may be a team leader in a checkpoint
operation? a. The person is reported to be allegedly involved in
A. A police commisioned officer a criminal activity
B. Most senior officer in a team in the absence of a
b. The actions or demeanor of the person suggest
commissioned officer
that he/she is engaged in a criminal activity
C. Police Lieutenant in the team
D. Chief of police

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 22 | P a g e

c. The person is carrying something illegal or when 85. How many days is the validity of a warrant of
his/her clothing bulges in a manner that suggests arrest?
he/she is carrying a weapon A. 10 days
B. 5 days
d. The person is seen at the time and place C. It does not expire
proximate to an alleged crime incident and/or D. It will be valid until recalled or served
flees at the sight of a police officer.

e. All of the aforesaid 86. Whenever an officer has entered the building or
enclosure and the rightful occupants refused
admittance to the place of directed search after giving
80. After seizing of the describes property in the search notice of his purpose and authority, he may break out
warrant, the officer must___. therefrom when necessary to___ himself?
A. Immediately arrest the occupant a. Protect
B. Give a detailed receipt for the same to the
lawful occupant B. Liberate
C. Deliver the person to the right custody
D. Observe chain of command C. Conceal

D. Search
81. In the absence of such lawful occupant in effecting
a search warrant, who may be a substitue witness?
a. Relatives residing at the same locality
87. Firing at moving vehicle is allowed only when
b. Relatives residing at the same searched locality
A. The intent of the suspect/s to harm the police officer
where building/property was installed
or other persons
c. At least 2 witnesses residing in the same
B. The capability of the suspect/s to harm with
locality
certainty the police officer or other persons
d. All of the aforementioned
C. Accessibility or the proximity of the suspect/s from
the police officer and other persons
D. All of the aforementioned
82. A police officer who fires his/her service firearm or
weapon during a confrontation with an offender or
offenders must 88. What is the prescribed time for effecting a warrant
of arrest?
A. surrender his firearm A. Daytime only for more explicit vision
B. Night time to employ stealth
B. voluntarily surrender himself C. Any day of the week at anytime of the day or
night
C submit an incident report outlining the D. Depending on the peace officer when he/she asserts
circumstances necessitating the use of his/her convenience
firearm.

D.bring the offender to the nearest hospital 89. Senator Robbing Paella stated defamatory and
threatening statements during a congressional hearing
due to consistent false statements thrown by the
accused. Can he be arrested while the session is on
83. Which agency with concurrent jurisdiction shall going?
take custody of a crime incident if both arrive at the A. Yes, committing oral defamation is a gorund for
scene at the same time? arrest at all times
A. Napolcom will determine B. No, A senator or member of the house of
B. Regional trial court will determine jurisdiction representatives shall, in all offenses punishable
C. First agency to arrive at the incident will take by not more than 6 years imprisonment, be
charge privileged from arrest while the congress is in
D. DILG wil determine who’s in charge session.
C. No, that is an interrogatory style of gaining
confession/admission from the accuses and is highly
84. When can a peace officer stop and frisk a
favorable for the committee to hold him as number one
suspected felon?
source of information
a. The person is reported to be allegedly involved in D. Yes, principle of generality may be applied even in
a criminal activity congress and in their performance of actual duty.

b. The actions or demeanor of the person suggest

90. Who should handle the case if the arrested or
that he/she is engaged in a criminal activity
victim is a minor or a woman?
c. The person is carrying something illegal or when A. Desk officer
his/her clothing bulges in a manner that suggests B. Investigator on case
he/she is carrying a weapon C. Women and children’s protection desk
D. Duty investigator
d. The person is seen at the time and place
proximate to an alleged crime incident and/or
91. After an arrest of a person, what shall be the first
flees at the sight of a police officer.
thing to do by the arresting officer prior to detention?
e. All of the aforesaid A. To deliver the arrested person without delay to the
nearest police station or jail to record the fact of the
arrest

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 23 | P a g e

B. To inform the person arrested of the cause of the C. Suppress destructive fires on vessels
arrest and the fact that a warrant had been issued for D. Assist other law enforcement agencies along coastal
his/her arrest lines and coordinate operations inline to theirs.
C. To subject arrested person with or without
warrant to a medical examination prior to
temporary detention 98. The apprehending or seizing officer having initial
D. To immediately bring to the Police Station for custody and control of the seized or confiscated
investigation without unnecessary delay, the person dangerous drugs, plant sources of dangerous drugs,
arrested without warrant controlled precursors and essential chemicals,
instruments/paraphernalia and/or laboratory
equipment shall, immediately after seizure and
92. Before constructing a building, what must be done confiscation, mark, inventory and photograph the
in order for the Bureau of Fire Protection to ensure that same in the following manner. Where shall he conduct
designs, plans, and specification of all buildings to be inventory of the seized item?
constructed are Fire Code compliant and that the FSEC A. The marking, physical inventory and
is issued in accordance with the Fire Code and BFP photograph of the seized/confiscated items
Citizen’s Charter. shall be conducted where the search warrant is
A. FIRE SAFETY INSPECTION (PRE-CONSTRUCTION served.
PHASE) B. It shall be done in a courtroom with the presence of
B. BUILDING PLAN REVIEW his competent counsel
C. FIRE SAFETY INSPECTION (CONSTRUCTION C. It should be done inside the property searched
PHASE) D. Place them in the presence of the judge issued the
D. FIRE SAFETY INSPECTION AND ISSUANCE OF FSIC search warrant.
FOR OCCUPANCY

99. A search warrant was served against the name

93. Ensure that establishments, which failed to comply “Tanggol Dalisay y Martin” and seized multiple grams
with the Abatement Order, are closed or stopped from of drugs. Prior to the service of search warrant, a
operating. packet of suspected marijuana was found inside his
A. IMPOSITION OF FINE (NOTICE TO CORRECT pocket. What shall be the procedure to be done by the
VIOLATION) officer in charge?
B. ISSUANCE OF CERTIFICATE OF EXEMPTION A. Mark all pieces of evidence found at the property
C. ISSUANCE AND SERVICE OF CLOSURE seized and the packet of marijuana all together.
ORDER/ORDER OF STOPPAGE OF OPERATION B. Gather all pieces of evidence and seal them before
(DUE TO EXPIRATION OF ABATEMENT ORDER) surrendering to the crime laboratory.
D. IMPLEMENTATION OF CLOSURE ORDER C. In cases when the execution of search
warrant is preceded by warrantless seizures, the
marking, inventory and photograph of the items
94. What agency has the responsibility to initially recovered from the search warrant shall be
handle drug case incident along coastal line of la performed separately from the marking,
union? inventory and photograph of the items seized
from warrantless seizures.
D. Let the evidence custodian handle all the evidence,
A. PCG photograph the same and seal with proper bags
B. PNP starting from the fragile ones.
C. PDEA
D. MARITIME GROUP
100. How many hours should the court conduct occular
inspection after the findings and confirmation of drug
contents and filing of criminal case?
A. Within 24 hours
95. The Philippine Coast Guard is led by the
B. Within 36 hours
commandant of the Philippine Coast guard, and directly
C. Within 72 hours
reports to the_________.
D. Within 180 hours

A. President
B. DILG secretary 101. Similar to information, filed by a prosecutor that
C. DOTR secretary serves as an accusation and approved by the Chief,
D. LTO secretary Legal Division, charging a foreigner with violation of
immigration laws.
96. Is designed to help prevent or minimize A. Complaint sheet
unnecessary loss of lives and properties at sea. B. Information
A. MARSAF(MARITIME SAFETY) C. Charge sheet
B. MAREP(MARINE ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION) D. Mission order
C. MARSAR(MARITIME SEARCH AND RESCUE)
D. MARSEC(MARITIME SECURITY)
102. Upon a well-founded and reasonable
determination based on available and verifiable
97. PCG is deputized by 21 government agencies to civilian, immigration, law enforcement, or military
perform maritime law enforcement functions directed intelligence report that a foreigner has committed, is
towards the suppression of piracy, smuggling, actually committing or is about to commit a violation
poaching, illegal fishing, illegal entry, human of immigration laws, or any of the Philippine laws, rules
smuggling, illegal logging, drug trafficking, gun and regulations, which may constitute grounds for
running and terrorist activities EXXCEPT: deportation.
A. Suppression of criminal activities done in the coastal A. Complaint sheet
areas B. Information
B. Arrest offenders and wanted person C. Charge sheet
LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 24 | P a g e
D. Mission order C. Nationalism is a toxic feeling of superiority
assertiveness and being hostile towards other
countries.
D. Patriotism and nationalism are simply alike
103. Any arrested person and held to custody shall be
allowed to entertain visitors or conversation with any 5. Is an aggressive and radical form of nationalism that
member of his immediate family. Which is not included incorporates autonomous, patriotic sentiments with a
as an immediate family member? belief in expansionism, generally through military
A. Spouse aggression.
B. Fiancee A. Civic nationalism
C. Parent B. Territorial nationalism
D. Cousin C. Liberal
D. Expansionist Nationalism
104. suggests that the design of buildings, landscaping
and outdoor environments can either encourage or
discourage crime. CPTED attempts to minimize crime
and the fear of crime by reducing criminal opportunity 6. It is a garment worn by Filipino women and serves
and fostering positive social interaction among the as the national costume of the Philippines.
users of a space. A. Barong
A. Architectural security B. Baro’t saya
B. Urban planning C. Barong tagalog
C. Crime Prevention Through Environmental D. Barong at Slacks
Design (CPTED)
D. Physical defense
7. The carabao is the Philippine national animal
because it symbolizes _________.
105. Employing a full view fence can increase level of A. Symbolize the country's rich marine resources and
clear sight to a protected area. This is one of the five the importance of sustainable fishing practices.
elements of environmental design employed in crime B. Symbolize the country's strength, courage, and
prevention. How can territorial reinforcement be freedom.
applied to protected areas? C. Symbolizes purity, simplicity, humility, and strength
A. Employing security guards at entrances of spirit.
B. Installing CCTV cameras D. Symbolize the country's agricultural heritage
C. Lights projected towards the protected area and the importance of hard work and diligence.
with signs and notices prominently erected
D. Trimming of bushes to provide clear zones
8. This is one of the most popular and the most
recognizable qualities of Filipinos observed by our very
LEA5 - Character Formation 1-Nationalism and own state people and foreign tourists.
Patriotism
A. Respect

B. Strong Family Ties and Religions

1. Refers to the feeling of attachment and commitment
to a country, nation, or political community C. Hospitality
A. Nationalism
B. Patriotism D. Generosity and Helpfulness
C. Both
9. Traits/ Character ng Filipinos except..
D. None
A. Generous
B. Hospitable
2. Loyalty and devotion to a nation, sense of national C. Positive
consciousness, and promotion of culture and interests D. Pessimism
as opposed to other nations or groups
A. Nationalism 10. This is the norm of reciprocity. Filipinos are
B. Patriotism expected by their neighbors to return favors—whether
C. Both these are asked or not— when such favors are needed
D. None or want.
A. UTANG NA LOOB (GRATITUDE/SOLIDARITY)
B. GENEROSITY AND HELPFULNESS
3. Which of the statements below is true? C. STRONG FAMILY TIES AND RELIGIONS
A. Nationalism defeats the whole patriotism D. RESPECT
idea due to its toxicity of too much love for the
country and sees it as superior to others 11. One of the Filipino Traits they have to people
B. Patriotism is less acceptable than nationalism around them even when they have little. This
because it serves only as allegiance to one’s country emphasize what positive Filipino Trait?
C. Nationalism and patriotism are both excessive and A. Respect
aggressive king of patriotism B. Hospitality
D. Nationalism simply means patriotism C. Generosity and Helpfulness
D. Loving and Caring

4. Which of the statements are true?

A. Nationalism is a kind of patriotism that promotes its
country’s welfare 12. A verbal sign of respect in the Philippines when
B. Nationalism is better than patriotism talking to elderly or strangers. These words are spoken
by the Filipinos when talking to elders, or in order to
LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 25 | P a g e
show respect to persons in authority. These Filipino 20. The flag retreat ceremony must be done at what
words mean "yes," when answering or talking to the time and day?
elders. A.Friday morning
A.Po at opo
B.Friday afternoon
B.Pagmamano
C.Monday afternoon
C.Pakikipag fist-bump
D.Friday 5:00PM
D.Pakikipag-apir

21. As a sign of respect, all persons shall stand

13. This is a negative Filipino trait and attitude where attention and face the National Flag, if there is none,
they tend to push each other down to clear the way they shall__________________.
for their own gain. A. Face the building where the flag was supposed to
a. Fatalism be erected
b. Procrastination B. Face the person adjacent to you
C. Face the band or the conductor.
c. Ningas cogon
D. Face the wall
d. Crab mentality

22. The sun in the Philippine flag represents?

14. The filipino gesture of showing respect to elderly. a. The revolutionary provinces consists of Manila,
A.Po at opo Bulacan, Pampanga, Cavite, Batangas, Laguna,
Tarlac, Nueva Ecija
B.Pagmamano
b. The major islands of the Philippine archipelago
C.Pakikipag fist-bump c. People’s unity, freedom, democracy, and
sovereignty.
D.Pakikipag-apir
d. Purity and peace

15. A negative Filipino trait that goes with the saying 23. When displayed with another flag, the Philippine
“come what may” or what ever happens, happen. flag shall be on the __ of the other flag.
A. Fatalism A. Top
B. Ningas cogon B. Bottom right
C. Crab mentality C. Right
D. Hypocrisy D. Left of the observer’s view

16. Negative trait of a Filipino person is causing delays

and fond of procrastinating over things/tasks. 24. The white color of the Philippine flag
A. Mañana habit represents____.
B. Fatalism A. Purity and peace
C. Gossiping B. Purity and courage
D. Flipino time C. Valor and bravery
D. Valor and peace

17. Filipino got this habit of coming late of schedule to

a meeting or gathering due to their belief of no event 25. National flag shall be permanently hoisted, day and
has already followed it’s proper scheduling and tend to night throughout the year, in front of the following
become behind schedule. EXCEPT:
A. Filipino time A. Malacañang Palace
B. Tardiness B. Libingan ng mga Bayani
C. Fatalism C. Rizal Monument in Luneta
D. Crab mentality D. SM Megamall

18. Filipino got this attitude of “self-serving bias” 26. The flag shall be flown on merchant ships of
wherein if a task turned out to be successful, they will Philippine registry of more than one thousand (1000)
take the credit behind success and tend to blame gross tons and on all naval vessels. EXCEPT:
others when a task got short or failed. A. Philippine coast guard vessel
A. Blaming B. Philippine marine aircraft carrier
B. Selfishness C. Fishing boat less than 1000 gross tons
C. Hypocrisy D. Maritime group tactical watercraft
D. Crab mentality

27. The flagpole that is planted on the ground must

be____
19. The flag raising ceremony is done during what time A. Pointing upward and anchored to the bilding’s
and day? vertical shaft
A.Monday morning B. Straight and slightly tapering at the top.
C. Tapering from the top to bottom
B.Monday 8:00AM D. Having same height with the vicinity’s building
C.Monday afternoon
D.Friday morning 28. The flagpole shall be on top of its roof anchored on
a still projecting at angle _____.
A. backyard
B. wayward

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 26 | P a g e

C. upward 36. After the internment of a deceased veteran, the
D. sideward flag shall be____.
A. Folded solemnly and lowered with the deceased’s
29. When the Philippine flag is flown with another flag, grave
the flags, if both are national flags, must be flown on B. Folded solemnly and is forth displayed to his/her
house
separate staffs of the same height and shall be of
C. Folded solemnly and placed on the deceased’s
equal size. The Philippine flag shall be hoisted first and
hands or covered to the casket
lowered last. D. Folded solemnly and handed over to the heirs
A. TRUE of the deceased
B. FALSE
C. PARTIALY TRUE
D. PARTIALY FALSE 37. Displaying the flag to half-mast; the flag should be
first_____.
A. Raised briskly to half-mast position and let flown
30. the red color of the Philippine Flag represents – aloft
A. purity and peace B. Raised briskly to the top and lowered ceremoniously
to mast position
B. high political purpose and ideals C. Raised briskly to the peak before it is lowered for the
day
C. courage, bravery, heroism, valor and D. First hoisted to the peak for a moment and
willingness to shed blood in defense of the then lowered to the half-mast position
Country

D. peace 38. The flag shall be replaced ___________ when it

begins to show signs of wear and tear.
A. upon approval of the head of the establishment
31. PAG-IBIG SA TINUBUANG LUPA written and quoted
B. with permission from the Office of the president
by Andres Bonifacio - "What love can be ________
and greater than love of country? What love? No other C. within 24 hours
love, none"
A. Purer D. immediately
B. Stronger
C. Mightier
D. Holistic
39. What government agency is mandated to issue
rules and regulations for the proper conduct of the flag
32. When hoisting the flag it should be done____, and ceremony?
when lowering or retreating the flag it should be A. National Historical Commission
done______.
A. Rapidly ; Slowly B. Office of the President
B. Briskly ; Ceremoniously
C. Department of National Defense
C. Fast ; Obtusely
D. Quickly ; Briskly D. Flag and Heraldry Commission

33. What should be the maximum prescribed length of

a flag in relation to its flagstaff? 40. A flag worn out through wear and tear, shall not
A. One-fourth be thrown away. It shall be _____________ to avoid
B. Three-fourth misuse or desecration.
C. One-half A. buried
D. One-third
B. ceremoniously burned

34. A flag shall be in accordance with the prescribed C. solemnly burned

length in relation to its flagstaff or flagpole stated in
D. solemnly kept
R.A. 8491. what shall be the length of the flag if the
supossed flagstaff is standing 36 feet tall?
A. 12 feet
B. 20 feet 41. In hanging positon, what does the blue field on the
C. 15 feet right signifies?
D. 30 feet A. Times of war
B. Times of peace
C. Times of serenity
D. Times of chaos
35. When lowering a flag from half-mast, it should
be____?
42. If planted on the ground, the flagpole shall be at a
A. Lowered immediately
prominent place and shall be of such height as would
B. Raised to the top briskly and then lowered back to
give the flag a ___________ position in relation to the
half-mast then lowered all the way down.
buildings in the vicinity.
C. Raised briskly to the peak before it is lowered
A. Outstanding
for the day
B. Prominent
D. Lowered ceremoniously
C. Peak
D. Commanding

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 27 | P a g e

43. The period from ______________ of each 50. What is the prime duty of the government of the
year is declared as Flag Days. Philippines
a. from June 12-14 A. To maintain peace and order
B. To protect civilians
b. from May 25-28 C. Serve and protect people
D. Guide and lead people
c. from May 28 to June 12

d. from June 28-July 12 51. What is the reason behind the separation of church
and state?
A. The state ensures that citizens are free to
44. What agency shall serve as the implementing practice their religion without fear of
agency of the law RA 8491 or the "Flag and Heraldic persecution or discrimination, and that the
Code of the Philippines"? government remains neutral with regard to
A. National Historical Institute religion
B. The church can have political ideologies that can
B. Office of the President intervene state policies
C. The church and state differs at all aspects
C. Department of National Defense D. The church shall promote one political party only

D. Flag and Heraldry Commission

52. What does the state affirms as the primary social
economic force?
A. Product
45. Article XIV, Section 3, Paragraph 1 of the 1987
B. Service
Constitution provides that all educational institutions
C. Labor
shall include the study of the Constitution as part of
D. Industry
the_______.
A. Extra-curricular activities
B. Curricula 53. The separation of Church and State shall be
C. Syllabus inviolable. Inviolable means_____
D. Lesson plan
A. Prone to tarnish

46. Civilian authority is, at all times, B. Never to be broken, infringed,

_______the military. or dishonored

A. Supreme always C. Indispensable

B. Supreme over D. Nota

C. Supreme above

D. Nota 54. Section 1 of Art. II of 1987 Constitution states

that the Philippines is a _________State.
A. Democratic and Sovereign

47. What article and specific section of the 1987 B.Democratic and republican
Philippine Constitution that provides for the
establishment and maintenance of one police force C. Republican and Sovereign
which shall be national in scope but civilian in
character that shall be administratively controlled and D. All of the above
operationally supervised by the National
Police Commission?
a. Art. III, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution 55. The Philippines _________ as an instrument of
national policy, adopts the generally accepted
b. Art. VI, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution principles of international law as part of the law of the
land and adheres to the policy of peace, equality,
c. Art. XVI, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
justice, freedom, cooperation, and amity with all
d. Art. XVII, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution nations.
A. Promotes war
B. Affirms war
48. The state recognizes ____ as the foundation of the C. Renounces war
nation. D. Portrays war
A. Father 56. The Philippines renounces war as an instrument of
B. Parents national policy, adopts the generally accepted
C. Family principles of international law as part of the law of the
D. Youth land and adheres to the policy of peace, equality,
justice, freedom, cooperation, and amity with all
nations. What does the word “renounces” means?
49. Who is in charge with the security of sovereignty? A. Revoke, suspend
A. Armed forces of the Philippines B. Refuse, decline
B. President C. Agree, confirm
C. All military and uniformed personnel D. Affirm, proceed
D. Philippine National Police

57. The control and administration of educational

institutions shall be vested in ______.
LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 28 | P a g e
A. citizens of the Philippines 6. Commonly found in monarchy wherein traits of
B. any foreigner being a successor of a king is regarded as a quality of
C. naturalized Filipino being a leader.
D. Filipino and foreigner A. Great man
B. Trait
C. Great event
LEA-6 Character Formation 2- Leadership, D. Managerial
Decision Making, Management and
Administration
7. The PNP personnel are given exemplary awards for
their bravery and commitment to duty, and few
penalties for infidelities. What theory may be applied?
1. An art of getting people to comprehend and A. Trait
believe in the vision set for the organization and B. Great event
to work with others to achieve goals is known as C. Managerial
A. management D. Transformational

C. directing
8. Today, it is the widely accepted theory. People can
B. administration opt for leadership. People can learn the ability to take
leadership.
D. leadership A. Great events theory
B. Trait theory
C. Transformational
D. Trained
2. Which is the BEST description of a leader in an
organization?
9. Philippine National Police academy is a premiere
A. He is the one who helps the institution training future leaders and future generals
organizations and people to grow for the PNP organization. What theory may be applied?
A. Great events theory
B. He makes work processes more effective in
B. Trait theory
the organization
C. Transformational
C. He is the most important person in the
D. Trained
organization
D. He serves as a base of a successful
organization 10. MCGREGOR’S THEORY X AND Y have two
components. Theory X assumes that people have little
ambition, dislike work, and must be coerced in order to
3. This is practical skill encompassing the ability of an
perform satisfactorily. How about theory Y?
individual, group or organization to influence or guide
A. Theory Y assumes that people needs to be focused
other individuals, teams or entire organization
on while working
A. management
B. Theory Y assumes that people do not
C. directing inherently dislike work and if properly
rewarded, especially satisfying esteem and self
B. administration actualization needs, will perform well on the
job.
D. leadership C. Theory Y states that no people needs affection and
must be left when working to promote concentration
and commitment
D. none

4. What is the main difference between Great man 11. They are the type of managers known as “bosses”
theory and trait theory? of the organization. They have titles such as chief
A. The Great Man theory emphasizes executive officer (CEO), chief operations officer (COO).
exceptional individuals shaping history, while A. Top-Level Managers
trait theory focuses on identifying specific B. Middle Managers
characteristics that make effective leaders, C. First-Line Managers
B. Great man and trait both shares that qualities of a D. Team Leaders
leader are learned not inherited
C. Trait theory suggest that a great event of crisis
triggers an exceptional skill while great man theory 12. The leader of a certain specified task are called?
suggest that no man is born a leader. A. Top-Level Managers
D. None B. Middle Managers
C. First-Line Managers
D. Team Leaders
5. What theory suggests when a leader employs
“Reward and punishment” technique, he might be a
transactional leader? 13. .What do you call a set of principles relating to the
A. Great man roles of planning, coordinating, directing and
B. Trait regulating and the implementation of those principles
C. Great event in the efficient use of physical, financial human and
D. Managerial information capital to achieve organizational
objectives?

A. Administration

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 29 | P a g e

B. Management
20. A leader that takes a hands-off passive approach in
C. Decision-making dealing with the subordinates.
A. Autocratic
D. Leadership B. Free-rein
C. Democratic
D. Charismatic
14. Their management style is characterized by a
centralized decision-making process where the 21. Identify which is an activity of Autocratic style of
manager holds all the authority and makes decisions leadership in the following statement.
without seeking input from team members. A. All policies were a matter of group discussion and
A. Autocratic Management Style decision, encouraged and assisted by the leader.
B. Democratic Management Style B. Various materials were supplied by the leader who
C. Laissez-Faire Management Style made it clear that he would supply information when
D. Transactional Leadership Style asked. Leader took no active part in work discussion.
c. Techniques and activity step were dictated by
the authority, one at a time, so that the future
15. Mr. Bull Ball never seeks assistance from his steps were always uncertain to a large degree.
subordinates when coming up with decision, he tends d. Activity perspective was gained in the discussion
to be the representative of his subordinates when period. When technical advice was needed, leader
making decisions and accepting little to no inputs suggested which choice could be made.
coming from them. What kind of management style did
he portrayed? 22. Which should be the attribute of chief negotiator in
A. Autocratic Management Style hostage taking incident?
B. Democratic Management Style A. transactive
C. Laissez-Faire Management Style B. transformational
D. Transactional Leadership Style C. Charismatic
D. Collaborative

16. Evaluate the following. Which is true regarding

autocratic management style? 23. Which suggestions would you make to improve
I. Autocratic management is characterized by a rational decision?
centralized decision-making process where the A. Establish linkages with other companies for you to
manager holds all the authority and makes decisions know their strengths and weaknesses.
without seeking input from team members. B. Know the risk of managing the organization
II. Autocratic leaders let his subordinates decide for to anticipate your future actions.
themselves. C. Obtain information of pitfalls and prejudices in
decision making in order to avoid the same.
D. Ask fellow managers who failed to deliver positive
A. I and II are true result in the organization.
B. I is true II is false
C. I is false II is true 24. A kind of leadership who always give a best role to
D. I and II are both false subordinates to follow it.
A. Keep your subordinates informed
B. Make sounds timely decisions
17. To motivate his men to exert utmost C. Set the Example
effort to serve and protect the public, PCOL D. Train as a Team
Vargas is actively and consistently gives
awards and incentives to his men for every
good work they have accomplished. PCOL
Vargas used ___________ leadership style. 25. It is the basic function of management. It deals
A. transformational with chalking out a future course of action & deciding
in advance the most appropriate course of actions for
C. laissez-faire achievement of pre-determined goals.
A. Planning
B. transactional B. Organizing
C. Staffing
D. coach style
D. Directing
E. Controlling

18. A person making a decision, impulse and without

thought. 26. Good example of this is grouping work subdivisions
A. Rational according to specified criteria, manufacturing function,
B. Intituive delivery, and customer service are examples of this.
C. Analytical A. Planning
D. Random B. Organizing
C. Staffing
19. A managers let their team members make D. Directing
decisions, solve problem and get their work done E. Controlling
without having to worry about their every move being
obsessively watched by the manager.
A. Democratic 27. This managerial concept is important for
B. Autocratic employing different types of people and
C. Bureaucratic performing different activities such as training,
D. Laissez-Faire growth, evaluation, compensation, welfare etc.

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 30 | P a g e

A. Controlling B. Requirements must be graded and placed in order
of importance
B. Organizing
C. There are usually followed could be steps used
C. Planning leading to assess to any decision model that optimal
production schedule
D. Staffing
D. The leader should always avoid conflicting
decisions rendered by his/her member and
28. Mr. Teki is a graduate of Information and should not inform them regarding changes.
technology course. According to staffing pattern in
functions of management, where should Mr. Teki be
34. An approach in decision-making when people will
utilized?
point to a "gut feeling" or "hunch" as the cause for a
A. Computer functions
choice, reflecting that explanation is not accessible
B. Production
through conscious thought
C. Customer service
A. Rational
D. Financial support
B. Intuitive
29. The part where the manager gives instruction
C. Analytical
regarding how a function should be accomplished, it
includes overseeing the work and performance of each D. Random
subordinate.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Staffing 35. P/Lt. Seguerra always looks for factors and details
D. Directing when making decision and carefully examining all the
E. Controlling possible outcome when formulating an alternative.
What approach did she utilized in making a decision?
A. Rational or analytical approach
30. The monitoring process of comparing work output B. Intuitive approach
(performance) of a worker to the desired outcome C. Random or chance approach
(goal) of an organization and if deviations are found, D. Approach-approach
corrective actions must be done.
A. Planning
B. Organizing 36. Promote innovative thinking and teamwork and
C. Staffing take a wide variety of viewpoints into consideration.
D. Directing These decision makers are based on success and want
E. Controlling to look well into the future when it comes to making
critical decisions.
a. Directive
31. Your workplace comprises of workers who differs b. Analytic
in aspects of religion. What should you do when c. Conceptual
formulating decisions regarding the organization? d. Behavioral

A. Create a new workplace with sub-culture exclusive

only for the ambiance of the workplace 37. Systematic process of recognizing and dissecting a
problem, devising potential solutions, and selecting the
B. Prevent mixing cultures to avoid conflicting ideas most suitable course of action. It involves breaking
down intricate issues into manageable components
C. Study different cultures present inside your and finding ways to address them.
members and accept multi-cultural concepts for A. Decision-making
the good of the workplace B. Problem-solving
C. Problem-oriented
D. Let them create their own concept of culture and
D. Decision
avoid opening statements that will make them
uncomfortable
38. Problem-solving process; after identifying the
32. Process that generates a solution that is considered problem, what should be the next thing to do?
to be ideal, or at least acceptable. It involves A. Identify the problem
evaluating a finite range of alternatives that are B. Generate possible solutions
defined in terms of evaluative criteria so the challenge C. Evaluate each option
would be to rate these alternatives in terms of how D. Select an appropriate course of action
appealing they are to the decision-maker while
considering all the criteria at the same time.
39. What should be the next thing to do if all available
A. Decision
alternatives are found and the organization needs to
B. Decision-making
select the best possible alternative?
C. Alternatives
A. Identify the need for a decision
D. Problem-solving
B. Gather necessary data
C. Make the decision
33. Which is not a characteristic of a good decision- D. Communicate the decision
making?

A. Objectives have to be set first 40. What should you use if you are currently facing a
given difficulty and a quick response must be done?
A. Decision-making
LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 31 | P a g e
B. Problem-solving allows decision makers to evaluate alternative solutions
C. Problem-oriented and choose the best course of action. Which of these
D. Decision states the above mentioned?
A. Problem Solving
B. Evidence-based Decision Making
41. Evaluate the differences of problem-solving and C. Risk Assessment
decision-making. Which should be their dissimilarities? D. Forecasting
I. Similar Flow: They encompass identifying an issue, E. Improved Accuracy
researching solutions, evaluating choices,
implementing decisions, and monitoring outcomes.
II. Satisfactory Solutions: Both processes strive to yield 46. First step for the guides for quick or fast decision
positive or neutral outcomes for addressing challenges. making that includes defining your nature and direction
III. Process Goals: Problem-solving targets finding and narrowing down your intent is?
solutions to existing problems, while decision-making A. Gather information
centres on choosing the best option from available B. Evaluate alternatives
alternatives. C. Define your goals
IV. Stakeholders: Problem-solving often requires input D. Review and adjust
from various stakeholders, whereas decision-making is
usually led by an individual or a group with
comprehensive information.
V. Results: Problem-solving produces creative
solutions, whereas decision-making focuses on
immediate choices among existing options.

A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, III, IV, V
C. III, IV, V
D. I, II, III, IV, V
Differentiate the effects of Group decision-making and
Individual-decision making.
I. Increasing the diversity of ideas and information,
enhancing the acceptance and commitment of the
stakeholders, and promoting learning and
development.
II. Consuming more time and resources, creating
potential conflicts and disagreements, and causing
group think and conformity.
III. Saving time and resources and allowing flexibility
and autonomy.
IV. Limiting the diversity of ideas and information,
reducing the acceptance and commitment of
stakeholders, and increasing the risk and responsibility
for the decision maker.

42. Which shall be the advantages of Group decision-

making?
A. I, II
B. I ONLY
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, IV

43. Which should be the disadvantage of Individual

decision making?
A. III, IV
B. I, IV
C. IV ONLY
D. I, II, III

44. How can research benefits decision making

process?
A. Research can help you to gather information about
the situation you are facing.
B. Research can help you to identify all of the possible
options available to you.
C. Research can help you to evaluate the potential
outcomes of each option.
D. All of the aforementioned

45. One of the importance of information in decision-

making is that information helps identify problems and

LEA FC by Prof. Richard Malit 32 | P a g e

 FINAL COACHING ON LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
Prepared by: Prof. Arvie Mendoza, Top 10 August 2023 CLE
2025 Criminologist Licensure Examination

1. Who of the following Police officer is qualified

6. The collation of international covenants and
for United Nations Special Action Team
treaties on war and for the protection of the
(UNSAT)?
rights of women and children.
a. Police Corporal Pedro, 22 years old – first
time applicant a. international bill of human rights
b. Police Staff Sergeant Juan, 41 years old b. Geneva conventions
– first time applicant c. universal declaration of human rights
c. Police Captain Maria, 35 years old – former d. covenant of civil and political right
UNSAT member / United Nations Special
Awardee 7. The National Central Bureau (NCB) serves as
d. Police Major Jose, 54 years old- first time the contact point of the General Secretariat,
applicant regional offices and other member countries
requiring assistance with overseas
2. The movement of an employee from investigations and the location and
department or agency to another which is apprehension of fugitives. How many NCB does
temporary in nature and which may not require the INTERPOL has?
issuance of an appointment which may either
involve reduction or increase in compensation. A. 190
A. Promotion by virtue of position B. 193
B. Secondment C. 195
C. Appointment D. 196
D. Ex-officio
8. The Chief PNP of the Philippines went on a
3. A Global police communications system bilateral meeting held at Kuala Lumpur Malaysia
developed by the INTERPOL to exchange highly with Malaysian Inspector General of the Royal
sensitive and valuable data that is more Malaysian Police about the increasing number
efficient and secured and is vital for the of Cybercrime like Phishing scam and Cybersex
International Law Enforcement organizations. in the region. Hence what method of
comparative system shown?
a. The INTERPOL 24/7 Communications
system thru General Secretariat A. Safari Method
b. The INTERPOL 24/7 Communications B. Collaborative Method
system thru Executive Committee C. Colloborative Method
c. INTERPOL Notice System AND D. Bi-lateral/ Inter-agency Coordination
Commission for control of INTERPOL Files
(CCF) 9. All except one is the Disadvantage of SAFARI
d. The INTERPOL I-24-7 METHOD:
a. The researcher will have first-hand
4. Statement 1: All Countries have the RIGHT to experience of learning
extradite Suspects from all other countries and b. More effort needed and expensive
they are OBLIGATED TO perform the same c. It Is Time consuming
Statement 2: Any person may be extradited. d. Both A and B

A. Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is

wrong 10. Here globalization refers to the process of
B. Statement 2 is correct: Statement 1 removing officially imposed constraints on
is wrong movement of resources between countries in
C. Both Statement is correct order to form an open and borderless world
D. Both Statement is False economy
A. Liberalization
5. An international agreement concluded between B. Internationalization
the states in written form and sworn by C. Universalization
international law, whether embodied in a single D. Modernization
instrument or in two or more instruments and
whatever its particular designation.
A. Contract 11. Organized Syndicate usually employ Money
B. Treaty Laundering techniques to hide illicit money
C. Agreement from authorities, What stage of Money
D. Memorandum of Understanding Laundering does ‘dirty money’ considered
“clean”?

LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 1|P age

 A. Placement a. Police officers actively work to prevent crime
B. Placement- Immersion by patrolling communities, responding to
C. Layering emergencies, and conducting investigations.
D. Integration b. Policing involves building strong relationships
with the community. Police officers engage with
12. A type of criminal justice system whereas residents, businesses, and community
characterized by the absence of positive law organizations to understand their concerns and
and are based more on the concept of natural address issues effectively.
justice. c. By upholding the law, police officers ensure
A. Marxist-Leninist that individuals are held accountable for their
B. Common law System actions, promoting a just and fair society.
C. Civil Law System d. Police officers engage with public and
D. Islamic System community organizations as well as
business to foster financial leverage while
13. Due to the rising crime rate on the area, addressing the concern of the public and
Residents of the Cauayan Village requests law maintaining peace and order
enforcement authorities to be more effective,
thus conducting more patrol and checkpoints. 20. Each scenario depicts an example of Policing,
What theory of comparative policing best choose the BEST example that describes
describes the scenario? Policing as promoting JUSTICE and FAIRNESS
a. Staff Sgt. Mendoza and his comrades
A. Opportunity Theory from the Manila Police district ensuring due
B. Alertness to crime process will be observed especially by
C. Demographic Theory conducting Investigation, apprehension
D. Modernization theory and arrest in lined with the rules of
criminal procedures
14. Increase in the population is one of the factors b. The PNP developed a program MASTERPLAN
to be considered for a high crime rate in an PAGKAKAPANTAY PANTAY wherein they aim to
area due to unstrained shifting of people’s make the recruitment process for aspiring
abode. What theory best describe? policeman fair and equal as possible
A. Opportunity c. The main objective of the PNP is to maintain
B. Deprivation peace and order and to reduce crime rates as
C. Anomie and Synomie possible
D. Economic Theory d. All of the above

21. Statement 1: The concept of the police

15. All except one uses a centralized system of service states that police service which
policing. maintains that police officers are servants of
a. United States higher authorities (OLD) and The theory of
b. Philippines police service which states that police officers
c. France are servants of the community or the
d. Israel people(NEW)
Statement 2:The yardstick of police
16. This type of Policing focuses on the root cause proficiency relies on the number of arrest
of the crime rather than single calls or Incidents made. (Traditional). the yardstick of police
of actual complaint. proficiency relies on the absence of crime
A. Pro-active Policing (Modern)
B. Reactive Policing A. Former being True; while Latter is False
C. Nodal Policing B. Former being False; while Latter is True
D. Problem Oriented Policing C. Both are True
D. Both are False
17. What type of intercepting information covertly,
by government agents using electronic
monitoring of telephones while the members of 22. Crime has become a Global Phenomenon
a bigtime drug syndicate were out of their hotel because of Transnational Crimes hence the
room? need for bilateral and international
A. Bugging cooperation become imperative. One of the
B. Surveillance comparative techniques include research. It
C. Wiretapping basically an alternative to both qualitative and
D. Teletapping quantitative methods
a. Safari and Collaborative
18. The most powerful branch of United Nations Method
A. Executive Committee b. Published works thru Single
B. General Assembly Culture study
C. International court of justice c. Published works thru Two-
D. Security council culture/Multiple Culture study
d. Holism

19. All except one are the Importance of Policing:

LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 2|P age

 23. Comparative Policing is the process of C. Central Africa
Investigating and comparing police system of D. Bureaucratic
nations. Choose the best reason of why do we
need to compare them? 29. This type of Justice system that tend to be
A. Because crime becomes a global phenomenon characterized by arrest without trial and other
B. There is a need for International and Bi-lateral summary procedures.
cooperation A. Tribal Justice System
C. Because our policing needs improvement B. Canadian Justice
D. To gain knowledge based on their C. English Justice
experience and style of policing D. Inquisitorial

30. Which of the following statement is TRUE

24. The Society A has statute that was already a. Nations which do not practice death penalty
written and enacted, the highlight of this are always better than who practice death
society can be found on their system of penalty
punishment that is characterized to balance b. Nations that practice corporal
overcrowding. The hallmark of this society also punishment tend to have less
defines Juvenile Delinquency. What type of correctional overcrowding problem
society describes the scenario above? c. Nations which practice death penalty are
a. Urban Commercial Society always better than who does not practice it.
b. Bureaucratic Society And it gives satisfaction of vengeance to the
c. Urban-industrial Society offended party
d. Folk-Communal Society d. Nations that practice beatings are not
civilized and tend to have bad reputation
25. All but one is the element of Transnationality
(Transnational Crime)
A. It is committed in more than one 31. Considered as the Execution and
State implementation of tailored activities to address
B. It is committed in in one State the causes of the problem identified in the
but a substantial part of its analysis phase.
preparation, planning, direction A. Reaction phase
or control takes place in same B. Response phase
state. C. Searching phase
C. It is committed in one state but D. Analysis phase
involves an organized criminal
group that engages in criminal 32. Types of Policing that includes predictive and
activities in more than one state analytical technique in law enforcement to
D. It is committed in one State but has identify potential offenders; the use of
substantial effects in another State. mathematical and analytical techniques to
identify possible criminal activity
A. Pro-active policing
26. What is NOT an example of Transnational B. Reactive Policing
Crime, Except? C. Analytical Mapping
A. Terrorism D. Predictive Policing
B. Prostitution
C. Robbery 33. Type of Policing that highlight the importance
D. Murder of security; hence it is not only provided by
State authorities but also non central
27. All except one of the statements is TRUE. authorities, Private and informal Sectors.
a. Arabic Justice system is characterized A. Nodal Policing
by the absence of positive law and NOT B. Value based policing
based on the concept of Natural Justice C. Intelligence led policing
b. Socialist system practice that neither judges D. Reassurance policing
nor lawyers are allowed to make law. Law is
the same as policy, and an orthodox Marxist 34. Referrals and diversion to community treatment
view is that eventually, the law will NOT be agencies are common instead of arrest and
necessary formal court action. This style is most likely
c. Civil law system is considered above the found in wealthy communities.
LAW, if a judge knows the answer, he must A. Legalistic
not be prohibited from achieving it by undue B. Service
attention to regulations and procedures of C. Watchman
evidence. D. All of the Above
d. Common Law system practiced that at least
suspend belief until the event of trial is over 35. This center is created by virtue of Executive
or otherwise proven. Order No. 62 to establish a shared database
among concerned agencies or information on
28. Type of Country mostly that they collect crime criminals, methodologies, arrests and
statistics, but the DATA are classified? convictions on transnational crime.
A. Urban-Commercial A. Philippine National Police (PNP)
B. Socialist countries B. National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH)

LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 3|P age

C. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC) 41. Include investigation of crime or incident, Scene
D. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO) of the Crime Operations (SOCO), administrative
investigation and other investigative work necessary
36. The following are procedures of When to Stop to determine facts and circumstances for filing cases
and Frisk (Pat-Down Search) EXCEPT: criminally or administratively.
A. Whenever possible, body frisking shall be done by A. Crime Scene Investigation (CSI)
at least two (2) police officers. B. Investigation Operation
B. If the person is carrying an object such as a C. Scene of the Crime Operation
handbag, suitcase, briefcase, sack or other similar D. Special Police Operation
items that may conceal weapon, the police officer
shall not open the item but instead put it in a place 42. Procedures that involved coordinated action on
out of the person’s reach. activity of several police offices, however, shall
C. If the external patting of the person’s established separately as in the case of using
clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon, telephone for local or long-distance calls, the radio
further search may be made teletype, and other similar devices.
D. If a weapon is found and the possession of which A. Headquarters Procedure
constitutes a violation of the law, the police officer B. Tactical Plan
shall arrest the person and conduct a complete C. SOP
search. D. Field Procedure

43. Danao Company is famous for fire-arm crafting in

37. The following are the grounds to Stop and the Philippines, they excel on making budget-friendly
Frisk/Pat-Down Search EXCEPT: firearm and its quality. Marketing strategy however
A. The person is reported to be allegedly would be the key for this company if they wish to ace
involved in a criminal activity. in firearm industry in the country. (Marketing strategy
B. The actions or demeanor of the person would be ___________ in SWOT analysis)
suggest that he/she is engaged in a criminal A. Strength
activity B. Weakness
C. The person is carrying something illegal or C. Opportunity
when his/her clothing bulges in a manner that D. Threat
suggests he/she is carrying a weapon
D. The person is seen at the time and place 44. In 2024, Danao sold 80,000 firearms and 2025
proximate to an alleged crime incident. that boils up to 85,000 since 2020s the Danao are
improving their product quality and therefore that
38. In firing at a moving vehicle, the following speaks up the evidence that this company is making
parameters should be considered EXCEPT: great progress. The statement referred to as:
A. The intent of the suspect/s to harm the police A. Specific
officer or other persons B. Proficiency
B. The capability of the suspect/s to harm with C. Competitiveness
certainty the police officer or other persons D. Measurable
C. The accessibility or the proximity of the suspect/s
from the police officer and other persons. 45. Radical planning is a stream of metropolitan
D. A police officer who fires his/her service firearm or planning which tries to oversee advancement in a fair
weapon during a confrontation with an offender or and local area-based way. It is a vague custom, with
offenders must submit an accident report two standards of reasoning that occasionally stream
together. The first mainstream is focused on
39. These are Basic requirements of police operations ______________
for checkpoint EXCEPT: A. large-scale social processes
A. With a marked police vehicles B. Solid outcomes in immediate future
B. Led by the Senior PNCO in absence or C. how they permeate the character of social and
unavailability of PCO economic life at all levels
C. With personnel in prescribed police uniform or D. Views condition of state
attire
D. With the use of Body Worn Cameras (BWC’s) 46. All BUT ONE are characteristics of an effective
and/or Alternative Recording Devices (ARDs) during plan.
the conduct of searches and arrests. A. They should contain a degree of flexibility
E. NOTA for the unforeseen.
B. They must be coordinated in their
40. In all planned police operations, the team leader deployment and implementation within the
of the operating team/s shall secure a ___________ police department to ensure consistency.
prior to the conduct of operation. This must be C. The plan must be sufficiently specific so
approved by their Chief/Commander/Head of that the behavior required is understood.
Office/Unit and must be submitted at the Operations D. As may be appropriate, the means
Section/Division of the concerned operating police for comparing the results planned for
units for record purposes. versus the result actually produced
A. Duty Detail Order must be ignored before implementation
B. Pre operational Clearance
C. Mission Order
D. Memorandum 47. Type of Management plan that oversees present
and future money needs for personnel, equipment

LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 4|P age

and capital investments must be estimated. Plans for
supporting itemized fund request must be made if 54. What objective stated below is not included in
needed appropriations are to be obtained. police personnel management?
A. Budget Plan a. To improve the benefit of all preforming police
B. Accounting Procedure personnel
C. Specification and Purchasing Procedures b. To maintain the effective strength of the PNP.
D. Personnel Planning c. To uphold the vision and mission of the PNP.
d. To procure personnel with inapt police
qualification and eligibility.
48. Under this category, the mobile patrol car is
required to observe all traffic laws and rules 55. Which of the following is NOT true when it comes
and does not normally use its flashing lights and to being a good and effective leader?
siren while on its way to the scene. a. He must earn the respect of his subordinates
A. Routine Call b. He is responsible for the output of his men.
B. Urgent Call c. The tasks is concentrated to the leader as
C. Emergency Call the supervisor.
d. The leader must be a good example to his/her
D. Day to day call
subordinates.

56. It articulates the rationale for the existence of the

49. This doctrine provide guidance for specialized
organization, the most powerful underlying influence
activities of the PNP in the broad field of interest
in law enforcement, affecting the performance,
such as personnel, intelligence, operations, logistics, conduct and performance of the organization and the
planning, etc. members as well.
A. Functional Doctrine a. Goal
B. Primary Doctrine b. Vision
C. Complimentary Doctrine c. Mission
D. Secondary Doctrine d. Objectives

50. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of 57. The Task force Agila was assigned to secure
Foot Patrol EXCEPT? Olympic events held in Manila this incoming 2025,
A. Low mobility resulting to limited coverage of peace and order must be provided for the welfare of
the patrol area the athletes, visitors, participant and all other people
B. Low response time to telephone complaints present, what classification of plan must be applied by
the team?
C. Places not accessible by motor vehicles
a. Procedural
D. Involves large number of personnel
b. Operational
c. Tactical
51. What is the BEST purpose of Police Uniform?
d. Extra-departmental
A. To separate policemen from everyone who
are not in the same line of work to avoid 58. All except one are the CONCEPTS of
confusion and to assure others of his authority INCREMENTAL PLANNING
and his presence. A. Gradual adjustment to plan is more effective thus
B. To be more Intimidating against potential criminal giving ample time to correct/modify the plan
C. To be Professional Looking B. Problem that are too broad should be solved in a
D. All of the Above different manner, thus it is easier to solve it when
they are solved from which are needed first
C. Long range planning is not difficult to made,
52. All except ONE are characteristic of an effective therefore it is inherently good for the
plan. organization
A. The plan must be sufficiently specific so that d. Incremental planning focuses on taking the
the behavior required is understood. problem one on one basis
B. Involvement in their formulation must
as be in secrecy and limited. 59. Pluralistic and inclusive planning has the following
C. They should contain a degree of flexibility for aspect except?
the unforeseen. A. Represent interest of other group especially in the
D. The benefits derived from the achievement Financially challenged group
of the goals associated with the plan must B. It showcase greater sensitivity to the
offset the efforts of developing and intended effects and negative side effect of
implementing the plan, and the level of plan
achievement should not so modest that it is C. Advocate the pros and cons of the plan to the
easily reached. marginalized group
D. None of the above
53. A particular problem may occur for which the
department has no plan in which the need for one 60. Refers to a preparatory plan on how to carry out
rise. a case operation which is the last resort to pursue
A. Proactive Plan intelligence objectives when normal police operations
B. Reactive Plan fail.
C. Visionary Plan A. Procedural plan
D. Strategic Plan B. Tactical plan

LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 5|P age

C. Operational plan maps that depict areas of crime, along with
D. Case operation plan corresponding tables and definitions.
A. Administrative Crime Analysis
61. It relates to plans, which determine quantity and B. Operational Crime Analysis
quality efforts and accomplishments. It refers to the C. Tactical Crime Analysis
process of determining the contribution on efforts D. Strategic Crime Analysis
that can make or provide with allocated resources.
A. Strategic/long range plan 67. In the next 2 years, Police Colonel Pedro planned
B. Intermediate/medium range plan to procure high caliber firearms to fill up the lack of
C. Operational/short-range plan weapon for Internal Security Operations.
A. Medium Term Planning
D. Management plan
B. Tactical Planning
C. Strategic Planning
62. One of the operative functions of the police
D. Operational Planning
personnel which is directly related to the study of the
labor supply of jobs, which are composed of the 68. Statement 1: If before conducting a spot
demands for employees in the organization to check/accosting or pat-down search, the police officer
determine future personnel requirements which either has no basis for making an arrest, he should record
to increase or decrease. the facts of such spot check/accosting or pat-down
A. Planning search and forward a report to the appropriate
B. Police Planning authority.
C. Police Personnel Planning Statement 2: If the spot check/accosting or pat-down
D. Police Personnel and records search gives a justification for a valid warrantless
management planning arrest, then an arrest shall be made. Do you agree
with the statement?
63. Pedro is holding a large wood and his behavior A. Statement no 1 is False, Statement no 2 is
suggest that he would use it if prompted to after True
B. Both statement is TRUE
finding out that his wife is clearly cheating on him. As
a police officer, what do you think the type of FORCE C. Both statement is FALSE
should be applied to de-escalate this situation? D. Statement no 1 is True, Statement no 2 is False
A. Use Lethal approach, it is not necessary that the
offender is carrying firearm or deadly weapon, the
69. Location that assists police in identifying high-
danger is justified
B. Use Less lethal approach, the suspect is holding a crime areas, types of crime being committed, and the
wood therefore you should match it by using less best way to respond.
A. Crime Hot spots
lethal weapon such as a truncheon or night stick
C. Use Non-Lethal approach, but use your gun to B. Non-Graphical Indicators
intimidate the suspect by doing a warning shot C. Thematic Maps
D. Use Non-Lethal approach, try to persuade D. Density Map
the suspect but should be ready to respond
commensurate if needed.
E. Use C then, use A. 70. A type of Crime mapping that can identify the
density value of a particular attribute, such as the
64. The factors to be considered in determining the number of assaults, crime victim service centers, or
number of patrol officers to be deployed in an area victim compensation claims in a geographically
are the following: defined boundary composed of a state, police
a. Size of the area; precinct, county, neighborhood, census tract, or
b. Topography; victim service provider catchment area
A. Thematic Mapping
c. Crime rate and;
d. Possible problems to be encountered. B. Non geographical indicators
C. Chart Mapping
A. a, c, d D. Graduated Mapping
B. b, c, d
71. One of the Pillars of Anti-Drug Campaign of the
C. a, b, d
D. a, b, c, d Government that focus on advocacy and treatment
A. Drug-Supply Reduction Drive
B. Drug-Demand Reduction Drive
65. Element of vector data that It used to represent C. Alternative Development
areas such as the boundary of city (On a large scale D. International Cooperation
map), lake, forest, etc.
A. Point data
B. Line/Arc Data 72. The PDEA Agents of Pasig City conducted a buy
C. Raster Data bust operation wherein 2 suspects were apprehended
D. Polygon Data at a busy highway possessing a suspected marijuana.
Immediately after the operation, a heavy rain began
to fall. The inventory, photograph and marking of the
66. A type of Crime Analysis Mapping that is valuable
seized items in the presence of the violator shall be
tool used by police, researchers, and media done at _____________.
organizations to convey criminal activity information
to the public. Websites operated by police
A. Immediately at the Place
departments and news organization routinely post

LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 6|P age

B. Find a covered facility and transfer therein stopped for allegedly carrying fake passport and
document. What should be the process for Erwin?
C. Nearest house/building A. He should be transported to Philippine
National Police for proper booking procedure
D. Nearest police station B. He should be held in the facility of
Bureau of Immigration for an
investigation be conducted
73. According to RA 10640, The Philippine Drug C. He will be detained in the Bureau of Jail
Enforcement agency (PDEA) Forensic Laboratory Management and Penology
should conduct Qualitative and Quantitative D. He should be turn over to the German
examination on the submitted substance and Embassy in the Philippines
therefore shall provide Partial chemistry report within
______ hours. 80. Summary Deportation can be conducted due to
A. 24 hours the following reasons EXCEPT:
B. 36 hours A. Undocumented Foreigners
C. 72 hours B. Overstaying Tourists
D. 48 hours C. Aliens who are found fugitives
E. Nota D. Foreigners who are issued an Order to
Leave
74. Sole agency responsible for the implementation of
Conventions regards to oil pollution, prevention, 81. Mission Order issued by the Bureau of
mitigation and control through the conduct of marine Immigration can be served on the following EXCEPT:
pollution monitoring and control and response A. Cannot be served on Saturday and Sunday
operations of all marine environmental laws and and Holiday except the foreigner is a fugitive
regulations. B. Mission Orders should be served in
A. Bureau of Aquatic Resources and Fisheries prescribed office hours of 8am-5pm only.
(BFAR) C. Mission Order can be served on
B. Maritime Industry Authority (MARINA) Holidays and without further delay
C. Department of Environment and Natural D. Should be carry out without delay and in
Resources (DENR) accordance to rules of law
D. Philippine Coastguard (PCG)
82. Accreditation of schools and learning institutions
75. The Philippine Coastguard thru Its Civilian Support
that can officially accept and enroll foreign students
Group can assist the Department of Transportation on
are one of specific functions of:
Implementing TRAFFIC rules on Highways.
A. Department of Foreign Affairs (DFA)
A. True
B. Bureau of Immigration (BI)
B. False
C. Department of Education (DEPED)
C. Yes
D. Commission on Higher Education (CHED)
D. No
83. It investigates and arrest unscrupulous
76. One of the Coastguard functions tasked primarily
manufacturers and makers of substandard food and
for the security, protection and Port State Control
drugs without license or permits.
(PSC).
A. DTI
A. MARSEC
B. BFAD
B. MAREP
C. FDA
C. MARSAF
D. Department of Health
D. MARLEN
84. The ____ operates against proliferation of fake
77. Assist local and international law enforcement
and pirated VHS, DVD, VCD, CD tapes.
agencies in securing the tranquility of the state
A. MTRCB
against foreigners whose presence or stay may be
B. OMB
deemed threats to national security, public safety,
C. DTI
public morals and PUBLIC HEALTH.
D. DENR
A. INTERPOL
B. NBI Anti Organized and Transnational Crime
85. Government agency responsible for the regulation
Division
of system of transportation services of public utility
C. Department of Health – Bureau of
vehicles and their operations compliance within metro
Quarantine
manila.
D. Bureau of Immigration
A. Land Transportation Office
B. Land Transportation Franchising and
78. Primary agency that is tasked for the Effective
Regulatory Board
revenue collection for foreign goods upon supervision
C. Metro Manila Development Authority
of its entrance.
(MMDA)
A. Bureau of Internal Revenue
D. Department of Transportation
B. Kawanihan ng Adwana ng Pilipinas
C. Philippine Coastguard
86. Government agency responsible for operation
D. Kagawaran ng Kalakal at Industriya
against pornography films shown on TV and movie
houses.
79. Erwin Rommel Schilke is a German National who
A. PNP Anti Cybercrime Group
were supposed to live in the Philippines but were
B. NBI Cybercrime Division
LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 7|P age
 C. MTRCB A. Fire safety evaluation clearance
D. Optical Media Board
B. Fire safety inspection certificate
87. It Investigates, arrests and prosecutes counterfeit
currency manufacturers and passers. C. Property Recovery and Clearing permit
A. Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
B. PNP Anti Cybercrime Group D. FCC
C. NBI
D. Department of Finance 93. Render technical assistance to government
agencies and instrumentalities, when so requested
88. One of the vessels docked at Batangas pier was and act as a national clearing house of criminal
set on fire by a suspected terrorist; who will be the records and other related information for the benefit
agency tasked to INVESTIGATE and collect evidence of the government;
as to prove if it is arson.
A. Philippine Coastguard – because of their A. Bureau of Corrections
MARSAR and MARLEN function B. PNP Forensic Group-Crime Laboratory
B. PNP Maritime group – with assistance of PNP C. Regional Trial Court
Forensics D. National Bureau of Investigation
C. BFP
D. National Bureau of Investigation 94. The NBI’s 2 Pillars Rule stated that the
Investigation is Conducted with _____________.
89. The Fire safety inspector shall conduct an A. Swiftness and Accuracy
inspection of every building or structure within his B. Thoroughness and Adherence to law
area of responsibility at least once a year and every C. According to Rules of Criminal Procedure
time the owner, administrator or occupant shall renew D. Legal and Human rights adherence
his/her business permit or permit to operate; No
occupancy permit, business or permit to operate shall 95. Mr. Mendoza is currently teaching 3rd year
be issued without securing __________________ Criminology students. He noticed that some of his
from the Chief, BFP, or his/her duly authorized student is failing the subject’s major examinations,
representative; thus he made a different approach in teaching to
improve his students learning. What type of
A. Fire Safety Evaluation Clearance Managerial Process is shown?
B. Fire Safety Inspection Clearance
C. Fire Safety Evaluation Certificate a. Planning
D. Fire Safety Inspection Certificate b. Organizing
c. Leading
d. Controlling
90. Given to the fire victim in lieu of fire investigation
report for purpose of insurance claims and for other
lawful applications. ONLY WHEN FIRE IS ACCIDENTAL 96. Major Dizon assigned Sgt. Mendoza to take
charge of the tactical team to avoid confusion during
a. Fire safety assessment tactical operations. The statement aforementioned
describes_________.
b. FSIC a. Unity of Command
b. Unity of Direction
c. FALAR-3 c. Delegation of Authority
d. Span of Control
d. Fire clearance certificate
97. Sgt. Mendoza is currently in a vacation in Isabela.
Suddenly, he witnessed that a crime is taking place.
91. Given to fire other occupants who are affected by He then proceeded to perform his duty to apprehend
the fire incident for their record purposes and other the suspect. What is shown?
legal use upon their request. a. Ranking Officer
b. Superior Officer
A. FCC c. Sworn Officer
d. Authority Level Principle
98. The maintenance of Firearms and equipment
B. FIC
belongs to ________ Function of Police Organization.
a. Line
C. FSIC
b. Staff
c. Auxiliary
D.FSEC d. Line and Staff

99. Pedro went to the Municipal police station of

Balanga. He saw a picture of current officials who are
92. Given to the fire victim or other occupants in charge of the said municipal police station.
allowing any removal, retrieval of items stored at the A. Organizational Structure
scene of fire, demolition, reconstruction and B. Organizational Chart
rehabilitation of fire scene after the complete C. PNP Organizational Structure
processing of fire scene and investigation D. None of the Above.

LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 8|P age

100. The Manila City’s Chief of Police believes that 107. As Regards the creation and composition of the
they should operate more on busy areas of Recto and NAPOLCOM, which of the following statement is false?
Mendiola Avenue to catch more traffic violators in A. The Commission shall be attached to the
response to lowering traffic accidents/violators on the DILG for policy and program
area. coordination.
A. Old Concept B. It shall be composed of a chairperson,
B. Investigation four (4) regular commissioners.
C. Traffic Enforcement C. The three (3) of the regular
D. Modern Concept. commissioners shall come from the
civilian sector who are either active
101. Length of Street that is a subdivision of an area or former members of the police or
that consist of 2 or more beat and post. military and one should be a
A. Route woman.
B. Post D. The fourth regular commissioner shall
C. District come from the law enforcement sector
D. Sector who is active or retired.

102. The Municipal Police of Calilayan practice the all- 108. One of the three (3) regular commissioners of
important duty of interrelating the various parts of NAPOLCOM that comes from the civilian sector is
police work together with integrating the Local designated by the President as __________.
government and Non-Governmental Organizations A. The ex-officio member
(NGO) participation to peace and order. B. The executive officer of the commission
A. Team work C. The-ex officio chairperson of the
B. Coordinating commission
C. Inter-agency approach D. The vice chairperson of the
D. Team Policing commission

103. The management principle that states: Personnel

function of bringing in and out training the staff and 109. What happens in the event of a temporary or
maintaining the staff the favorable conditions of work permanent incapacity of the chairperson of
will produce an excellent work. NAPOLCOM?
A. Directing A. The vice chair shall replace him
B. Organizing immediately as the new chairperson
C. Monitoring B. The vice chair will act as the
D. Staffing chairperson until such time the
chairperson is present or a new
104. Functional group within a section with further chairperson shall have been
specialization appointed, as the case maybe.
A. Division C. The President has to choose from the
B. Section commissioners whom to replace the
C. Unit chairperson
D. Section D. The Chief PNP will act as the Temporary
chairperson of NAPOLCOM until further
105. Police Lieutenant Jacob optionally retired from relieved
the police service. How will his benefits be computed?
A. He will get the benefits of his present 110. Dr. Sarmiento is a Doctor of Philosophy; he
rank because his retirement is optional opted to join the Philippine National Police. What
B. He will get the benefits of Police would be his initial rank upon entry?
Captain. a. P / Captain
C. He will get the benefits of Police Lt., b. P / Major
provided he had served at least one c. P / Lieutenant
year in his present rank d. none
D. He will get the benefits of Police Major,
two ranks higher if he had served at 111. What would be the insignia of the lowest rank of
least five years in his present rank a police officer so that an arrival honor should be
tendered for him?
A. Three (3) Sampaguita flowers
106. The NAPOLCOM is an agency attached to the B. Two (2) Anahaw Leaf
DILG for policy coordination, it’s composed of: C. One (1) Star
A. DILG Secretary as Ex-Officio Chairperson; D. Two (2) Sampaguita flowers
B. Four (4) Regular Commissioners;
C. Chief of the PNP as ex-officio member; 112. Sec. 12, RA 6975 is amended by Sec 3, RA 8551
D. A member of the bar chosen by IBP; and so that the DILG is relieved of the primary
E. Any barangay captain in the locality. responsibility on matters involving the suppression of
insurgency and other serious threats to national
a. A, B, C, and E security. What will now be the participation of the
b. A, B, and C PNP as regards insurgency and serious threats to
c. A, C, and D national security?
d. A, B, and D

LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 9|P age

 A. Act to conduct Crime scene investigation in 119. According to the Sec 15. Of RA 8551, who will
areas where there was an encounter be prioritized in order if based on
between military and enemies Scenario given :
B. Information gathering and 1.Wena has a weight waiver
performance of its ordinary police 2.Ariel has an age waiver
functions 3. Jomel has a height waiver
C. Participate actively in military operations as 4. Mary ann has 72 units
insurgency and other serious threats to
national security are still internal problems A. 2314
D. Act as guides during military operations as B. 1234
they are the ones who exactly know about C. 1342
the area of operation. D. 1423
120. Who may be automatically granted height
waiver, as provided under section 15 of Republic Act
113. What could happen to the PNP member if he No. 8551?
was rated poor in his performance evaluation rating in a. Police officers nearing retirement requesting
two consecutive rating period? extension of service
A. He is immediately terminated from the Police b. Members of cultural minorities duly certified
Service by the appropriate government agency
B. He will be delayed for promotion until he c. Government employees wishing to transfer to PNP
passed the evaluation rating d. Applicant who are relatives of Government officials
C. He is a candidate for attrition like Mayors, Governors etc.
D. He will be given 6 months to comply
121. Police Lt. Vincent is 55 years old and will be 56
114. All of the following are members of the Peoples years old after 7 months, can he be appointed to a
Law Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT higher position?
A. three (3) members chosen by the peace and order A. Yes
council from among the respected members of the B. No
community C. True
B. any barangay captain of the city/ municipal D. False
concerned chosen by the association of the barangay
captain 122. In general, the process of organizing, leading
C. any member of the sangguniang panglungsod/ and controlling the efforts of the members of an
pambayan organization using the resources at hand to realize
D. a bar member chosen by the integrated bar the goal of the said organization is called
of the Philippines
A. Administration
B. Management
115. The Regional Appellate Board of the NAPOLCOM
decides cases on appeal from decisions rendered by C. Police Administration
A. The Mayor, Governor, Chief of Police, D. Police Management
Provincial Director and Regional Director
B. The Mayor, Chief of Police, Provincial 123. The main concern of the police in this
Director and Regional Director __________________ is assisting the legislature in
C. The Mayor, Chief of Police, Provincial determining the police guidelines through the passage
Director, Regional Director and Chief PNP of appropriate laws or ordinances for the police to
D. The Governor, Chief of Police, Provincial enforce.
Director, and Regional Director A. Broad Internal Policy Planning
B. Broad External Policy Planning
116. Compulsory age of retirement for the C. Internal Policy Planning
nonuniformed personnel of the PNP D. External Policy Planning
A. 20
B. 56
C. 60 124. Which is included in the term “Custodial
D. 65 investigation” as used under RA 7438?
A. It includes the practice of issuing an
117. PNP members under the waiver program but are invitation to a person who is investigated in
dismissed for failure to comply with the requirements connection with an offense he is suspected to
can re-apply to the PNP? have committed.
A. Yes B. It includes the practice of issuing an invitation to a
B. Depending on the scenario/requirement of PNP person who witnessed a crime committed
C. Maybe C. It includes the practice of issuing an invitation to
D. Absolutely No counsel of the person who is suspected of a crime
D. It includes the practice of issuing an invitation to
118. The R1 in PNP is called _______. the family of person who is suspected of a crime.
A. Logistics and Research
B. Police Community Relations 125. This particular procedure calls for the recognition
C. Personnel and Human Resource of the predicament and comprehending all the history
D. Comptrollership and record then seek for possible solutions for the
dilemma. This statement is pertaining to what step of
planning:

LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 10 | P a g e

A. Collecting of facts 131. The highest policy-making body in ASEAN
B. Analyzing facts comprising the Head of States or Government of
C. Clarifying the problem ASEAN Member States.
D. Developing alternative plan a. National central bureau
b. General secretariat
c. Executive committee
126. Why are goals and objectives important in the
d. ASEAN summit
organization?
A. They help to identify the expectations of
what the organization are doing and how
132. Pedro is a police officer that resides in the
effective they perform.
neighborhood of Pasig City. Whenever there is quarrel
B. They set the culture of cooperation between and
between members of the community, he always put
among members of the organization.
the emphasis of turmoil whenever they are
C. They provide opportunity for career growth and
apprehended, therefore a speedy way of resolving it
development of each and every personnel.
instead of actual apprehension. The style of policing
D. They help to establish harmonious relationship
Pedro has is an example of:
among personnel in the organization.
A. Legalistic
B. Watchman
127. The plan must be Proactive not Reactive. This
C. Service
statement implies that?
D. NOTA
A. It is best to solve the problem before it
happens
133. The INTERPOL is primarily financed
B. Experience and training will be reflected on the
by_____________.
plan you make
A. UNITED NATIONS
C. People know what you want to do
B. FIRST WORLD COUNTRIES
D. A plan establishes the basis for what you are doing
C. EUROPE
D. General Assembly

128. SARA model is a highlight of the problem-

134. All except one are the INTERPOL’s Six Priority
oriented policing that calls for police to focus on
crime areas:
problems instead on single calls or incidents. The
A. Corruption
Analysis phase means?
B. Drugs
A. To test if it had the desired effect and to make
C. Terrorism
changes to the response if required.
D. High-tech crimes
B. Identifying and prioritizing the main problems
E. Regulated Prostitution
C. Implementation of tailored activities to address the
causes of the problem.
D. Gathering information and intelligence to
135. The most well known notice of INTERPOL
identify underlying causes.
A. Black
B. Special Notice
C. Yellow
129. A strategic roadmap adopted by the Philippine D. Red
National Police (PNP) to enhance its digital capabilities
and improve law enforcement services. This initiative
136. One of the Four Core function of INTERPOL
aims to transform the PNP into a digitally connected
which is focused on guidance/advise and support for
organization, leveraging technology to enhance
national police forces in building dedicated crime-
policing efforts.
fighting components.
A. Secure global communication services
A. Community Oriented Policing (COP)
B. Operational data services and database
C. Operational Police support services
B. SMART Policing D. Police training and development

C. POP
137. Officer A is a Commissioned officer of the PNP
D. Interactive Policing who tasked to handle maximum of 30 NCOs, however
an additional of 30 subordinates was added to his
responsibility thus reducing his managing
130.Pedro was extradited by Philippines to USA., effectiveness. This violated the principle of:
However, he was re-extradited to Argentina due to A. Unity of Command
the reason that the offended party is Argentinian. B. Unity of Direction
What Principle of Extradition was violated? C. Span of Control
D. Scalar Chain
A. Double Criminality

B. Double Jeopardy 138. All except one is TRUE about coaching leader
A. This type of leader promote progress by
C. Specialty identifying different set of skills of his/her employee
and use it as a basis for additional workshop if
D. Political offense exception necessary.

LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 11 | P a g e

B. A coaching leader supervise his subordinate
by promoting growth thru giving tokens of 146. This skill is needed in which you can be able to
appreciation express yourself properly and build empathy with
C. This type of leader provides direct feedback of other people.
their employee/subordinate’s task completion A. Communication
D. He identify their strength and weakness. B. Resilience
C. Empathy
139. All except one is true about DEMOCRATIC leader
D. Sympathy
A. This type of leader work with his subordinate in
performance as well as DECIDING outcomes.
147. They include all levels of management between
B. He believe that Feedback is a “Gift” thus he
encourages everyone to do so. the supervisory level and the top level of the
C. He is an Office bearer thus a result of organization. These managers may be called
democracy. Thus, he adhere to the practices functional managers, plant heads, and project
established therein. managers.
D. also known as participatory leadership. A. first line managers
B. middle level managers
140. A Type of leader is also able to establish a C. top managers
strong organizational bond. Has a clear idea of the D. last manager
future, which they communicate to their employees.
A. Visionary 148. Pedro is a manager of a Construction site, he
B. Servant then arranges his workers depending on their skills,
C. Autocratic capability, age, physical strength and body conditions
D. Laissez Faire to maximize the concept of “Staffing” what do you
think is the style of leadership behavior does Pedro
141. According to this theory, a Leader is born, thus has?
his/her path will lead to taking a responsibility A. Effective Leader
someday. B. Attention to Detail
A. Trait theory C. Production Oriented
B. Hereditary Theory D. Employee Oriented
C. Great events theory
D. Great man theory 149. It is defined as evaluating the value, quality, or
significance of people ideas, or things and how people
142. There is a saying that goes "familiarity breeds accomplish a task.
contempt". Thus this type of power is known for A. Supervising
being short term power especially for younger people. B. Leading
A. Coercive Power C. Evaluating
B. Legitimate power D. Directing
C. Informational power
D. Expert power 150. A Written reprimand is an example of
___________form of discipline
143. Writing the problem into a piece of paper in a A. Positive
clear and simple language and identifying concepts of B. Negative
the problem is a type of ____________. C. Neutral
A. Rational Approach D. Warning
B. Intuitive Approach
C. Scientific Approach 151. Adherents of this Model often consider cross-
D. Decision Making Approach cultural variations. they also promote the
development and testing of complex models reflecting
144. The construction workers asked for increase in the process by which culture influences
their salary due to heavy workloads and unjust decision makers.
compensations on the project. What concept did the A. Dynamic Model of Decision Making
manager broke? B. Universal Model of Decision-Making
A. Authority C. Cross cultural Model of Decision Making
B. Unity of command D. Dispositional Model of Decision Making
C. Subordination of Individual Interests to the General
Interest
D. Renumeration of personnel
152. Management includes learning the
145. Mr. Mendoza tends to apply new policies on the procedures and values required to perform official
restaurant stall without conferring the employees administrative duties. This shows that Management
regarding the amendments. What kind of a leader Mr. __________
Mendoza is? A. Management as an Art
A. Bureaucratic B. Management as a Science
B. Laissez-faire C. Management as a Group
C. Autocratic D. Management as a Discipline
D. Democratic E. Management as a Profession

LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 12 | P a g e

 open on flag-staffs in front of private buildings:
153. This theory believe that he best way for the Provided,
worker to do the job, to provide the proper tools and
training, and to provide incentives for good A. That they are not obligated to observe flag-raising
performance. ceremonies in accordance with the rules and
A. Bureaucratic Management regulations to be issued by the Office of the
President.
B. Scientific Management
B. That they observe flag-raising ceremonies in
C. Administrative Theory
accordance with the rules and regulations to be
D. Financial and General Management
issued by the Office of the President.
C. that they should not observe flag-raising
154. When the Philippine flag is flown with another ceremonies in accordance with the rules and
flag, the flags, if both are national flags, must be regulations to be issued by the Office of the
flown on separate staffs of the same height and shall President.
be of equal size. The Philippine flag shall be hoisted D. that if the place is not place of frivolity and they
first and lowered last. are qualified, then they are required to observe flag-
A. True raising ceremonies in accordance with the rules and
B. False regulations to be issued by the Office of the
C. Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false President.
D. Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true
160. If attached to a building, the flagpole shall be on
155. Upon official announcement of the death of the top of its roof or anchored on a sill projecting at an
President or any former President, how many days angle ________. If on stage or platform or
the flag will put into half-mast? government office, the flag shall be at the
__________ of the office upon entering.
A. 10 days
A. Upward – Right
B. 7 days
B. Upward – Left
C. 15 days
C. Downward- Right
D. 5 days D. Downward-Left

156. Based on the 1987 Constitution the Philippines is 161. When the Philippine flag is flown with another
a democratic and republican State. From whom flag, the flags, if both are national flags, must be
sovereignty resides? flown on ______________
A. Congress A. Same staffs of the same height and shall be
B. President of equal size.
C. People B. Separate staffs being the height of Philippine
D. Armed Forces of the Philippines Flag shall be higher and shall be of equal
size.
157. Section 3 of the RA 8491 also known as C. Separate staffs of the same height and
Definition of terms. The “Hoist” shall mean shall be of equal size.
____________ D. Same staffs of the same height and
A. shall mean to hang in a curved shape Philippine flag shall be of larger size.
between two points as a decoration;
B. shall mean the part of the flag outside 162. Defines the nation as an association of people
the length who identify themselves as belonging to the nation,
C. shall mean lowering the flag to one-half who have equal and shared political rights, and
the distance between the top and allegiance to similar political procedures
bottom of the staff A. Civic Nationalism
D. shall mean the part of the flag B. Creole Nationalism
nearest the staff or the canvass to C. Nativist Nationalism
which the halyard is attached D. Ethnic Nationalism

158. Section 3 of the RA 8491 also known as 163. This type of policy comes from the government
Definition of terms. The “Places of Frivolty” shall in the form of laws, administrative orders, and rules
mean ____________ and procedures or contract specifications.
A. shall mean places of hilarity A. Procedures
marked by or providing boisterous B. Imposed Policy
merriment or recreation C. Originated Policy
B. shall mean Malacañang, and other D. Appealed Policy
government-owned structures where
the President resides, and other
164. The flag may be used to cover the caskets of the
structures occupied by the Philippine
honored dead of the military, veterans of previous
Consulate or Embassies abroad
wars, national artists, and of civilians who have
C. shall mean the National Historical
rendered distinguished service to the nation, as
Institute.
maybe determined by the local government unit
D. Shall mean business and commercial
concerned. In such cases, the flag shall be placed
area including private places
such that ___________________.
A. the white triangle shall be at the head
159. The flag may also be displayed throughout the
and the blue portion shall cover the
year in private buildings or offices or raised in the
right side of the caskets
LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 13 | P a g e
 B. the white triangle shall be at the bottom and C. In accordance with the musical arrangement and
the red portion shall cover the right side of composition of Noel Cabangon
the caskets
C. the white triangle shall be at the head and D. In accordance with the musical arrangement
the blue portion shall cover the left side of and composition of Julian Felipe
the caskets
D. the white triangle shall be at the head and
the red portion shall cover the right side of 171. Branch of security which is concerned with
the caskets procedures undertaken by the Company to ensure
that the employee to be hired are best suited to the
165. “Best at start, just good before ends.” company’s interest
a. Tardiness
A. Personnel Security
b. Ningas Cogon
B. Personal Security
c. Hypocrisy
d. Mañana Habit C. Background Investigation
D. Human Resource (HR) Interview

166. The Philippines is a democratic and republican

State. Sovereignty resides in the ______ and all 172. One of the factors to consider in the background
government authority emanates from them. investigation of security personnel is the opinion or
estimation in which one is generally held. It is what one
A. Territory
reported to be, whereas character is what a person is.
B. President
A. Moral
C. Military
A. Character
D. People
B. Reputation
C. Behavior

167. Civilian authority is, at all times, _______the

military.
173. The President and the Consultant of a corporation
A. Supreme always
were invited to be the speakers for the opening of
B. Supreme over another company. What type of security was provided?

C. Supreme above A. Special

D. Supreme as B. Operational

C. Personal
168. A verbal sign of respect in the Philippines when D. Critical
talking to elderly or strangers.

A. Po at opo
174. A type of protective alarm system where the
B. Pagmamano
protective alarm located outside the installation.
C. Pag tawag ng Boss amo manager
A. Local Alarm System
D. Pakikipag-apir B. Central Station System
C. Auxiliary System
D. Proprietary System
169. It is a "honouring-gesture" used in Filipino
culture to express respect for elders and to ask for
their blessing; A gesture of reaching for the right 175. Which of the following is the main reason for a
hand of elders to ask for their blessings. personnel security investigation?

A. Po at opo A. To suspend or terminate undesirable employees

B. Pagmamano B. Prelude assignment to sensitive positions for those

who are facing security risk
C. Pag bebeso
C. To check the loyalty of employees to the
D. Salute
organization

D. To determine the reputation of the employees

170. How the Philippine National Anthem be
rendered?

A. In accordance with the musical arrangement and 176. A person who applies to operate a private security
composition of Jose Rizal agency must be at least 25 years old, a degree holder,
of moral turpitude, physically and mentally fit and
B. In accordance with the musical arrangement and
Composition of Levi Celerio A. Must owned the security agency

LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 14 | P a g e

B. Have enough capitalization include the quality of the building exterior of his dream
house this is considered as?
C. Former member or office of the uniformed services

D. Have training in security management A. First line of defense

B. third line of defense
C. Second line of defense
D. All of these
177. There is no impenetrable barrier, they act only to
___________.

A. Impede
B. Stop 183. Escala Hotel is one of the popular and highly
C. Delay recommended in Tagaytay City, So, one of the security
D. Deter measures that this hotel offer is that they have their
own Company Guard Force to protect their clients as
well as their own employee while in the vicinity. The
178. The creation of North Luzon Expressway (NLEX) security given is considered as?
is one example of ______________ power of the state.
A. Human security
a. Power of Imminent Domain B. Human barriers
b. Power of Taxation C. Hotel security
c. Police power D. Personnel Security
d. Power of Eminent Domain

179. Giselle owned an establishment located in Cebu 184. Pearl is applying for the position of Regional
City. One of her proposals is to place fences on the Director of the company he is very much qualified for
entire area of her property especially in securing and the vacant position. One of the procedures of the
avoiding any unauthorized person to view the activity company to determine the loyalty of their employees
inside of her establishment. What type of fence did that is to ensure that the firm hires those best suited
Giselle plan to have? to assist the firm in achieving goals and objectives.
A. Physical security
A. Full-view fence B. human security
B. Solid fence C. Personnel security
C. Half type fence D. none of these
D. Wall
D. Vibration detection device
185. Ken has an inmate friend named Wendell, she was
convicted of qualified theft that made her to serve 6
years and 1 day inside jail. Ken doesn’t want to
180. A grant given by the government to an inventor,
experience the life of her friend behind bars that made
conveying and securing to him the exclusive rights to
him a good person in the community. The statement is
make use and sell his invention.
referring to:
A. Patent A. Active measures
B. Aware of security
B. Intellectual Property C. Passive measures
D. all of these
C. Ownership

D. Proprietary
186. Can natural hazards be prevented by security
force of a plant?

181. What are documents or records which are A. Yes, by monitoring warning from the weather
irreplaceable or any reproduction do not have the same bureau.
value as the originals?
B. No, it is an act of God and nobody can prevent it
A. Vital
C. No, but its effects which can cause damage to
B. Secured life and property

C. Important D. Yes, by proper planning and constant drills

D. Useful

187. Pilferage means theft, sabotage is the malicious

disruption of plant operations, vandalism relates to
182. Lorenzo is planning to build his house in one of destruction of company property and espionage is
the nicest subdivisions in their town of Tagaytay City; about covert gathering of information. These are
he plans to have many forms of security so that no one collectively known in security as what?
has an access to his property. If Lorenzo going to
LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 15 | P a g e
A. Natural Hazards A. Need to know

B. Occupational Hazard B. Classification

C. Man-Made Hazards C. Dissemination

D. Operational Hazards D. Access

189. Physical security is a system of barrier placed 194. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer
between the potential intruder and the object/matters before he can prepare a comprehensive security
to be protected. As a criminologist, this is simply a program for his industrial plan?
denial of:
A. Security Conference
A. access to the object of protection
B. criminal instinct to surface in the potential offender B. Security Survey
C. opportunity to commit the offense
D. opportunity and access to objects of C. Security Check
protection
D. Security education

190. A written order/schedule issued by a superior

officer usually the private security agency/branch 195. A PSA and CGF shall only be allowed to acquire
manager or operations officer assigning the and possess small arms, specifically handguns and
performance of private security/detective service shotguns, but shall not exceed how many firearms for
duties. each private security professional (PSP)

A. General Duty Order A. One

B. Duty General Order B. Two

C. Duty Detail Order C. Three

D. Guard Detail Order D. Four

191. Document issued by the Chief, Philippine National 196. The following are the basis for the confiscation of
Police or his duly authorized representative, firearms, except
authorizing a person to engage in employing security
guard or detective, or a juridical person to establish, A. When the firearm is actually being used in the
engage, direct, manage or operate an individual or a commission of a crime
private detective agency or private security B. When the confiscation of the firearm is
agency/company security force. directed by the order of the prosecutor

A. Security Guard License C. When the firearm has just been used in the
commission of a crime
B. Security Agency License
D. When the firearm being carried by the security
C. License to Operate guard is unlicensed or a firearm is not authorized by
law and regulation for his use.
D. Business Permit

197. Refers to a natural person employed by the PSA

192. What is the program given to employees of an
to provide personal protection to a VIP or Protectee.
installation by lecture and other means pertaining to
measures and safeguards to be taken to protect the A. Protection Agent
interest of the installation from loss, damage,
sabotage, pilferage, and other criminal acts B. Security Guard

A. Security Survey C. Security Agent

B. Security Education D. Private Agent

C. Security Planning

D. Security Inspection 198. Refers to a person who is eligible/ qualified to be

issued a valid LESP of any classification or category,
issued by the designated government agency after
satisfying all the qualifications and requirements set
193. Term given to the requirement that the
forth
dissemination of classified matters be limited strictly to
those persons whose official duties require knowledge
thereof.
LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 16 | P a g e
 a. Security Guard C. 6 years
b. Professional Security Personnel
D. 10 years
c. Private Security Guard
d. Private Security Professional

204. Licenses may be renewed on or within ______

prior to the expiry date.

A. 30 days
199. The pass issued to a Personnel will be exchanged
to another color-coded pass at the entrance of the B. 45 days
controlled areas. Upon leaving, the personnel
surrender his badge or pass and retrieve back his basic C. 60 days
identification
D. 1 year
A. Single Pass

B. Double Pass
205. The LTO of PSTAs, PSAs, and CGFs that fail to file
C. Pass exchange for renewal of LTO sixty (60) days after its expiry date
shall automatically be cancelled and the said PSTAs,
D. Multiple pass PSAs and CGFs shall be issued with _____________ by
the approving authority.

200. It is a systematic program for gathering and

analyzing information about competitor’s activities and A. Order of Closure
general business trends to further company’s goals. B. Termination of License to Operate
C. Suspension to Exercise Security Profession
A. Propriety Information
D. Cease to Operate order
B. Competitive Intelligence

C. Dissemination
206. Exemptions, Limitations and Prohibitions to
D. Collecting Licenses, which statement is TRUE

A. No person shall engage in the operation,

management, direction, and/or conduct of a
PSA, CGF, or PSTA without a valid LESP except
201. ALL BUT ONE ARE STANDARD QUALIFICATION those employed solely for clerical or manual
OF LESP APPICANT work or office rank and file personnel

A. legal age B. No person shall engage in the operation,

management, direction, and/or conduct of a PSA, CGF,
B. Good moral character; or PSTA without a valid LESP including those employed
solely for clerical or manual work or office rank and file
C. Must not have been convicted of a crime or offense
personnel
involving moral turpitude; and
C. All person shall engage in the operation,
D. Must have completed the necessary
management, direction, and/or conduct of a PSA, CGF,
Bachelor’s Degree.
or PSTA with a valid LESP and those employed solely
for clerical or manual work or office rank and file
personnel will have certification
202. TWO (2) CLASSES OF LESP are:
D. All person shall engage in the operation,
management, direction, and/or conduct of a PSA, CGF,
or PSTA without a valid LESP including those employed
A. Training Personnel and Security
solely for clerical or manual work or office rank and file
Personnel
personnel.
B. Admin Officer and Security Personnel
C. Security Officer and Private Detective
D. Security Officer and Security Guards

207. ______________shall be administered by PNP

203. The validity of the License to Operate (LTO) of SOSIA or its authorized representative to individual
GSF shall be valid for ______ from the date of trainees prior to the conclusion of the training.
issuance.
No trainee shall be declared to have completed the
A. 5 years course without passing the _______ administered for
the purpose.
B. 3 years

LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 17 | P a g e

 A. Regulatory Assessment Examination C. Master keying System
B. Ladderized Training Education D. Key Control
C. Refresher Training program
D. Marksmanship Training 214. Which of the following is not a false key?
A. Duplicate key of owner
B. A picklock or similar tool
C. A genuine key stolen from the owner
208. A preliminary type of course taken by D. Any key other than those intended by the
existing security guards or first timers who owner
wants to engage in the security industry as a
security officer.
a. Basic Security Guard Course 215. A PSA and CGF shall only be allowed to acquire
b. Security Officer Training Course and possess the following small arms except:
c. Security Supervisory Course
d. Refresher Training Course A. Cal. 38

B. 9mm

C. Shotgun
209. Criteria for classification of LSP- Security
Professional that scopes the primary security D. Cal.45
equipment the personnel are using.

A. Competency Based 216. How many numbers of firearms ammunition is a

B. Territory Based private security guard allowed to have in his or her
possession?
C. Technology Based
A. 50 rounds per firearm
D. All of the above
B. 25 rounds per firearm

C. 70 rounds per firearm

210. It is a process of selecting and implementing
security countermeasures to achieve an acceptable D. 100 rounds per firearm
level of risk at an acceptable cost.

a. Risk analysis 217. As a general, high-powered firearms are not

allowed to possess except when there is an upsurge
b. Risk management
of lawlessness and criminality as determined by
proper authority, but shall not exceed of the
c. Risk evaluation
total number of security guards
d. Risk interpretation A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 50%
211. The susceptibility of the plant or
establishment to damage, loss, or disruption of
operation due to various hazards refers to?

218. Security Vehicle and Mobility of a Security Agency

a. Relative Criticality requires a ___________ and must be in standard
b. Relative Vulnerability specification provided.
c. Relative Susceptibility
d. Relative Security

A. License to Operate (LTO)

B. Certificate of Registration and
212. The minimum number of private security
Inventory (CRI)
personnel that a PSA may employ shall be atleast
C. OR/CR for Security Vehicles
___________ at the time of application.
D. License and Registration of PSA
A. Two Hundred (200) Security Personnel

B. Three (3) Security Staffs

219. Mineski infinity is experiencing substantial loss
C. Two Thousand (2000) Security Personnel because of the involvement of its personnel in various
industrial problems such as disaffection, disloyalty,
D. Fifty (50) Licensed Security Professionals espionage and pilferage. It also appeared that they
hired key officials not suited to their positions. What
aspect of security did they went wrong?
213. The issued key to open main entrance gate and
a. Personnel security
office is called?

A. Master key b. Personal security

B. Maison Key System
LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 18 | P a g e
c. Personnel identification 225. Zion is the owner of Diamond jewelry shop, his
engineer informs him that they should installed a kind
d. Lack of Background Investigation
of alarm that detects any sound caused by attempted
force entry. What type of alarm did Zion have?

220. What should not be the done by a PSP during A. Audio detection device
strikes and Lockouts. B. Laser beam alarm
C. Metallic foil wire
A. Maintain Peace and order
D. Vibration detection device
B. Participation in Mass Gatherings/pickets

C. Use of force when necessary 226. No License shall be granted to any application
(new/renewal) for LTO or LESP with any of the
D. Quit post when properly relieved following disqualifications EXCEPT:

A. Dummy of a foreigner
221. Level of Force Continuum for Security that states: B. habitual drunkard
In the event that presence and words are not enough,
certain types of physical restraints may become C. Not having been convicted of any crime or
necessary, the use of hands to hold someone, may be offense involving moral turpitude;
necessary to prevent further danger and harm. This
D. Being mentally incompetent
shall be limited to use of such reasonable force
necessary to restrain an individual.

A. Level 4
“Keep going and trust yourself! You know
B. Level 3
more than you think you do! Pray and be
inspired, for the time of your success is
C. Level 5
near!”
D. Level 6 46. First step for the guides for quick or fast decision
making that includes defining your nature and direction
and narrowing down your intent is?
A. Gather information
222. It means loss of security, which results B. Evaluate alternatives
from an authorized persons obtaining C. Define your goals
knowledge of classified matter D. Review and adjust
A. Risk
B. Compromise
C. Threat
D. Hazard

223. Security Vehicle and Mobility of a Security Agency

requires a ___________ and must be in standard
specification provided.

A. License to Operate (LTO)

B. Certificate of Registration and
Inventory (CRI)
C. OR/CR for Security Vehicles
D. License and Registration of PSA

224. Type of code system so that security personnel or

any employee when forced by armed men intending to
enter an installation can activate alarm by the use of
certain words.

A. Duress Code

B. Morse Code

C. Secret Code

D. List Code

LEA FC by Prof. Arvie Mendoza 19 | P a g e

 FINAL COACHING ON LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
Prepared by: Prof. Al-Jhun Quilab, Rcrim
2025 Criminologist Licensure Examination

a. Operation Police Function

PART 1. LAW ENFORCEMENT ORGANIZATION
b. Line Police Function
AND ADMINISTRATION (INTER-AGENCY
c. Primary Police Function
APPROACH)
d. All of the above

1. Which of the following statements conforms to the

6. A functional group or unit where further
definition of administration?
specialization is needed.

a. An organizational process concerned with the

a. Bureau
implementation of objectives and plans and internal
b. Division
operating efficiency
c. Section
b. It focuses on the policing process or how law
d. Unit
enforcement agencies are organized and managed to
achieve the goals of law enforcement most effectively,
7. Which of the following is a superior officer?
efficiently and productively
c. It pertains to the utilization of available resources in
a. A personnel of the police department who has an
an organization to achieve its organizational objectives
oath and possesses the power to arrest
d. It refers to the planning, organizing, leading, and
b. A personnel having supervisory responsibilities,
controlling of police resources and personnel to ensure
either temporarily or permanently, over officers of
effective and efficient law enforcement operations
lower rank
c. An officer who is in command of the department, a
2. It is also called the “scalar-type” organization since
bureau, a division, an area or a district
an order or command can be carried out only when it
d. An officer who has the most senior rank in a team
comes from the higher level of authority.
or group

a. Line Organizational Structure

8. What territorial unit is termed also as a line beat?
b. Functional Organizational Structure
c. Staff Organizational Structure
a. Post
d. Line and Staff Organizational Structure
b. Beat
c. Route
3. Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding the
d. Sector
line and staff organizational structure?
9. Which of the following best describes beat as to the
a. It combines the flow of information from the line
geographical/territorial units of an organization?
structure with the staff departments that service,
advise, and support them
a. It is a spot location for general guard duty
b. The channel of responsibility is to “think and provide
b. An area assigned for patrol purposes, whether foot
expertise” for the line units
or motorized
c. The line supervisor must remember that he obtains
c. A length of streets designated for patrol purposes
advice from the staff specialists
d. A geographical subdivision of a city for patrol
d. It is organized on a functional basis that violate the
purposes, usually with its own station
prime rule that men perform best when they have but
one superior
10. PSSg Alucard was jailed after having been involved
in a shooting incident resulting to the death of his two
4. Those that perform the auxiliary functions such as
comrades. Later, it was found out that he was under
communication and records management.
the influence of dangerous drug at the time of the
commission of the offense. This means that PSSg does
a. Operational Units
not conform to the __________.
b. Administrative Units
c. Service Units
a. Principle of Unity of Objectives
d. Logistics Units
b. Principle of Organizational Efficiency
c. Chain of Command
5. PCMS Ling investigates a homicide case involving a
d. Unity of Command
taxi driver, whose assailant is unknown, stabbed while
the latter was eating porridge at a kitchenette in
11. When there is only one supervisor, one plan for a
Enamu street. PCMS Ling performs the __________.
group of personnel assigned to an activity with a
common objective or goal, there is _________.
LEA FC by Prof. Al-Jhun Quilab 1|P age
 d. Authority is given to individual non-commissioned
a. Unity of Command personnel
b. Chain of Command
c. Unity of Direction 18. The span of control of a supervisor over personnel
d. Principle of Unity of Objectives or units shall not mean more than what he can
effectively direct and coordinate. This means that
12. An organization’s structure is effective if it is __________.
structured in such a way to aid the accomplishment of
the organization’s objectives with a minimum, of A. Level of authority shall be kept to a minimum
unsought consequences or costs. (Jul-Aug 2024 LEC) B. Subordinates be controlled by several supervisors
C. Supervisor’s responsibility should be re-delegated
a. Principle of Unity of Objectives D. Units shall be clustered into several groups
b. Principle of Organizational Efficiency
c. Chain of Command 19. The chief executive directly controls two to ten
d. Unity of Command subordinates, who then control two to ten subordinates
each and so on, until the bottom of the organization is
13. These are circumstances which may exempt the reached. In principles of organization, it is called
commander from command responsibility, EXCEPT: __________.

a. When he is not properly informed of the acts or A. Scalar

omission of his subordinates B. Unity of Command
b. When he was properly informed, and he acted by C. Delegation of Authority
conducting immediate investigation/action thereof D. Span of Control
c. When he acted upon lawful orders from higher
authorities 20. What principle emphasizes that for an intended
d. When he did not intend to commit the violation delegation to be maintained, decisions within the
authority of individual commander should be made by
14. It prescribes the vertical hierarchy of the them, and conferring these decisions to the higher-ups
organizations, defined as an unbroken chain or scale of should never be an option?
units from top to bottom describing explicitly the flow
of authority. a. Parity of Authority and Responsibility
b. Command Responsibility
a. Scalar Chain Principle c. Authority Responsibility
b. Principle of Scalar Chain d. Absolute Responsibility
c. Scalar Principle/Chain
d. All of the foregoing 21. During the conduct of nationwide validation by
DIDM in 2013 to 2014, several disfunctions were noted
15. The PNP Chief is the only person allowed to give in Unit Crime Periodic Report (UCPER) wherein crime
command to the entire police organization. This is in statistics were inaccurate and not reflecting the true
adherence to the principle of __________. nature of crime environment. So, the DIDM developed
the e-Blotter or Crime Information, Reporting, and
A. Delegation of Authority Analysis System (CIRAS) for efficient and effective
B. Unity of Command prescription of police intervention. What principle
C. Span of Control conforms to the given scenario?
D. Chain of Command
a. Organizational Efficiency
16. How would you describe the top echelon as one of b. Flexibility
the levels in the chain of command? c. Delegation by Results
d. Scalar Chain
a. It is the vertical movement of authority up and down
through established channels in the organizational 22. What is the process of attracting candidates who
hierarchy have maximum qualifications to be eligible for the
b. It is where the overall responsibility and authority selection procedure?
over subordinate commands and units is placed
c. It constitutes subordinate commands/units a. Police Recruitment
apportioned by the commander to accomplish his tasks b. Police Selection
d. It is comprised of the subordinate units further c. Police Placement
apportioned by subordinate commanders d. Police Appraisal

17. Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding the 23. This personnel function focuses on recruitment,
delegation of authority? training, placement, and police uniform and non-
uniformed personnel promotion.
a. It is closely related to span of control
b. The authority and responsibility are given to the a. Planning
heads of smaller units b. Organizing
c. It is continued to the lowest level of execution c. Staffing

LEA FC by Prof. Al-Jhun Quilab 2|P age

d. Directing 29. Prior to the effectivity of RA 8551 as amended by
RA 9708, PMSg Claude has been in the police service
24. Mr. Gusion always provides clear instructions, sets for almost 20 years already despite of not having
expectations, and motivates his subordinates to finished college and has exhibited exemplary
achieve the goals of their organization. This means he performances as a police officer. By virtue of RA 8551
is in adherence to the administrative principle of as amended by RA 9708, is there a necessity for him
__________. to comply with the minimum educational qualification?

a. Planning a. No, because RA 9708 provides that compliance is no

b. Leading longer needed when one exhibits exemplary
c. Directing performance in the police service
d. Coordinating b. Yes, because a police officer should be a
baccalaureate degree holder, and he has 5 years to
25. PGEN Tigreal was appointed as PNP Chief in the obtain such minimum educational qualification
year 2010 and retired three years later. After eleven c. No, because he has been in the service for more than
months from his retirement, the Chief Executive of the 15 years already and has exhibited exemplary
Republic of the Philippines appointed him as the performances
Secretary of DILG. Is the appointment valid? d. Yes, he will be given at least 2 more years to comply
with the minimum educational qualification
a. No, because he should have served completely the
maximum tenure intended for a PNP Chief 30. Republic Act No. 6975 provides that on average
b. Yes, because it is the prerogative of the Chief nationwide, the manning levels of the PNP shall be
Executive, and no one must dare to question such approximately in accordance with a police-to-
prerogative population ratio of __________.
c. No, because he should have been appointed after
the lapse of one year from his retirement a. One policeman for every seven hundred inhabitants
d. Yes, because it is the privilege a former PNP Chief b. One policeman for every one thousand five hundred
enjoys inhabitants
c. One policeman for every five hundred inhabitants
26. What law provides PNP with the authority to d. One policeman for every one thousand inhabitants
supervise and control the training and operations of
security agencies and issue licenses? 31. PNP uniformed personnel can be attrited on any of
the following grounds, EXCEPT:
a. RA 8551
b. RA 9708 a. Relief for just cause without being given an
c. RA 6975 assignment within two years after such relief
d. RA 9208 b. Non-promotion for a continuous period of ten years
c. Poor performance as police officer
27. Through the enactment of RA 8551, the DILG was d. Indefinite suspension due to serious offense
relieved of the primary responsibility of suppressing
insurgency and other serious threats to national 32. Attrition is one of the indispensable provisions of
security. Is there an instance in which members of the RA 8551. If a police officer becomes attrited, what
PNP may engage in combat operations against the happens next?
insurgents?
a. Retired if he has rendered at least 20 years of active
a. No, RA 8551 provides that they should only be service to the PNP
responsible for information gathering and ordinary b. Separated if he has rendered less than 20 years of
police functions active service to the PNP
b. Yes, when they are called on by the Commander-in- c. Either A or B
Chief of the AFP d. Dismissed from the service without prejudice to the
c. No, there will never be an instance unless otherwise benefits that he is entitled
they are confronted by the insurgents
d. Yes, so long as they are given permission by the 33. A police officer who has exhibited acts of
Chief of Staff of the AFP conspicuous courage and gallantry at the risk of his life
above and beyond the call of duty is entitled to special
28. Granger, a PNP applicant, weighs more than 7 promotion provided that the acts shall be validated by
kilograms from the standard weight corresponding to which of the following?
his height, age, and sex. To be admitted to PNP, he is
given 6 months to comply with the weight requirement. a. The appointing authority, which will depend upon
What is the status of his appointment? the rank of the appointee
b. The Internal Affairs Service
a. Permanent c. NAPOLCOM
b. Probationary d. PLEB, Regional Director, National Support Units
c. Temporary Director, or Chief PNP as the case may be
d. On-going

LEA FC by Prof. Al-Jhun Quilab 3|P age

34. Among the following descriptions, which best suits b. When the charge is serious, and the evidence of guilt
meritorious promotion? is strong
c. When the respondent is a recidivist or has been
a. The promotion to the next higher rank granted to repeatedly charged and there are reasonable grounds
any uniformed personnel who passed the minimum to believe that he is guilty of the charges
qualification standards d. When the respondent is guilty of a serious offense
b. The promotion to the next higher rank granted to involving conduct unbecoming of a police officer
any uniformed personnel who has exhibited acts of
conspicuous courage and gallantry at the risk of his/her 39. The following are the powers and functions of the
life above and beyond the call of duty and is validated IAS, in which a complaint or directive from Chief PNP
by the Commission based on established criteria or NAPOLCOM must be made, EXCEPT:
c. A special promotion conferred by the President of
the Republic of the Philippines which shall be exempted a. Submit a periodic report on the assessment,
from the validation of NAPOLCOM analysis, and evaluation of the character and behavior
d. A special promotion given for acts of heroism of PNP personnel and units to the Chief PNP and the
exhibited in the face of an armed enemy or in the Commission
conduct of rescue/disaster operations resulting in the b. Investigate complaints and gather evidence in
loss of life support of an open investigation
c. Investigate compromised, tampered, obliterated, or
35. Once the Governors and Mayors are elected, they lost pieces of evidence while in the custody of police
automatically become the deputies of NAPOLCOM in d. Provide assistance to the Office of the Ombudsman
operationally supervising and controlling the PNP in cases involving the personnel of the PNP
personnel assigned in their area of jurisdiction. In what
circumstance may their deputation either be 40. Which of the following incidents or cases involving
suspended or withdrawn? PNP personnel that IAS is mandated to conduct inquiry
without a complaint or directive from the Chief PNP or
a. Frequent unauthorized absences or abuse of the NAPOLCOM?
authority
b. Providing material support to criminal elements a. Where police personnel discharged a firearm or
c. Engaging in acts inimical to national security or suspect in custody was seriously injured
which negate the effectiveness of the peace and order b. Where death penalty, serious physical injury, or
campaign violation of human rights occurred in the conduct of
d. Any of the foregoing police operation
c. Where evidence was compromised, tampered with,
36. PCpl Yuzhong frequently abandons his post, lawful obliterated, or lost while in the custody of police
orders of his superior officer, and is always late during d. All of the above
the pre-patrol formation. He was even caught
gambling inside a casino while being under the 41. The National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM) is
influence of liquor. Which of the following authorities composed of __________.
have NO disciplinary power over him?
a. 1 Ex-Officio Chairperson, 3 Regular Commissioners,
a. RD or its equivalent 1 Ex-Officio Member
b. C, PNP b. 1 Ex-Officio Chairperson, 4 Regular Commissioners,
c. PLEB or IAS 1 Ex-Officio Member
d. COP or PD or its equivalent c. 1 Ex-Officio Chairperson, 5 Regular Commissioners,
1 Ex-Officio Member
37. How would you illustrate nonfeasance? d. 1 Ex-Officio Chairperson, 6 Regular Commissioners,
1 Ex-Officio Member
a. A police officer sees a dangerous situation at the end
of their shift and calls another officer instead of 42. What agency in the Philippines acts as the national
responding themselves clearing house of criminal records and other related
b. A police officer stops and frisks a suspicious information for the benefit of the government?
individual but does not liberate him after the execution
of stop and frisk a. Philippine National Police
c. A police officer accepts bribes and steals money b. National Bureau of Investigation
taken as evidence of certain case c. Bureau of Investigation
d. Either of the foregoing d. Armed Forces of the Philippines

38. The following are the instances where dismissal or 43. The following are cases in which NBI has
removal of personnel in the PNP, after due notice and jurisdiction with, EXCEPT:
summary hearings, may be implemented, EXCEPT:
a. Human Trafficking cases in all airports in the
a. When the respondent goes on absence without Philippines
official leave for a continuous period of thirty days or b. Eradication programs in destroying wild or illegal
more growth of plants from which dangerous drugs may be
extracted

LEA FC by Prof. Al-Jhun Quilab 4|P age

c. Extrajudicial/Extra-legal killings committed by the d. Conducting regular patrols and surveillance for the
state’s security forces against media practitioners and safety of navigation at sea
activists
d. Killings of justices and judges 50. The following represents the maritime safety of the
PCG, EXCEPT:
44. The following are the specific functions of the
Bureau of Immigration, EXCEPT: a. To inspect on all merchant ships and vessels to
ensure and enforce compliance with safety standards,
a. It regulates the entry (arrival), stay (sojourn), and rules and regulations
exit (departure) of foreign nationals in the country b. To detain, stop or prevent a ship or vessel which
b. It monitors the entry and exit of Filipino citizens in does not comply with safety standards, rules and
compliance with Philippine laws and other legal regulations from sailing or leaving the port
procedures c. To remove, destroy or low to port, sunken or floating
c. It accredits schools and learning institutions that can hazards to navigation at or close to sea lanes which
officially accept and enrol foreign students may cause hazards to the marine environment
d. It acts as the primary enforcement arm of the DOJ d. To organize, train and supervise the PCG Auxiliary
and the President of the Philippines, and acts the chief (PCGA) for the purpose of assisting the PCG in carrying
repository of all immigration records out its mandated functions

45. The __________ is responsible for the prevention PART 2. COMPARATIVE MODELS IN POLICING
and suppression of all destructive fires in buildings,
houses and other structures, forests, land 51. It is the growing interpenetration of states,
transportation vehicles and equipment, ships or vessels markets, communication, and ideas.
docked at piers or wharves or anchored in major
seaports, petroleum industry installations. a. Westernization
b. Internationalization
a. NBI c. Globalization
b. BJMP d. Universalization
c. DENR
d. BFP 52. It is a process of interaction and integration among
the people, companies, and government of different
46. The Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency is headed nations, as process driven by international trade and
by a cabinet rank of __________. (Jul-Aug 2024 LEC) investment and aided by information technology.

a. Director a. Globalization
b. Director General b. Internationalization
c. Secretary c. Modernization
d. Undersecretary d. Universalization

47. What agency is primarily responsible for a drug 53. An act that institutes policies to eliminate trafficking
case incident along the coastline of La Union? in persons especially women and children and
establishes the necessary institutional mechanisms to
a. PDEA protect and support trafficked persons and provides
b. Navy penalties for the violations.
c. Coast Guard
d. Maritime Group a. RA 9208
b. RA 9372
48. The Philippine Coast Guard is headed by a c. RA 11479
Commandant who then reports directly to d. RA 10364
__________.
54. A continuing criminal enterprise that rationally
a. DILG Secretary works to profit from illicit activities that are often in
b. Chief of the Philippine Navy great public demand, and its continuing existence is
c. President maintained through corruption of public officials and
d. DOTr Secretary the use of intimidation, threats or force to protect its
operations.
49. Which of the following best illustrates the maritime
search and rescue of the PCG? a. Terrorism
b. Organized Crime
a. Destroying of or towing floating hazards to c. Organized Crime Group
navigation d. Organized Criminal Group
b. Development of oil spill response, containment and
recovery capabilities against ship-based pollution 55. What makes terrorism different from organized
c. Aiding of persons and vessels in distress within the crime? (Jul-Aug 2024 LEC)
maritime jurisdiction of the country
a. Means and ends

LEA FC by Prof. Al-Jhun Quilab 5|P age

b. Ideology 62. Money laundering is the process by which criminals
c. Power or criminal organizations seek to disguise the illicit
d. Money nature of their proceeds by introducing them into the
stream of legitimate commerce and finance. Below are
56. The organized crime groups maintain their power its stages, EXCEPT:
and profit through __________.
a. Dirty money is introduced into the financial system
a. Corruption b. Illegal ones are combined with the licit ones
b. Violence c. Criminals engage in a series of transactions to create
c. Continuous association with criminal protectors confusion and distance the funds from their criminal
d. Tolerance of law-abiding citizens origin
d. Laundered money is reintroduced into the legitimate
57. Which of the following refers to the so-called financial system, often through investments in real
borderless crime? estate, luxury assets, or business ventures

a. Universal Crime 63. PSSg Moskov visits another country to conduct his
b. Transnational Crime research on its policing system. What method in
c. Transnational Organized Crime comparative policing is being applied?
d. International Crime
a. Collaborative
58. EXCEPT for one, under the United Nations on b. Safari
Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC), an offense is c. Historical Comparative
transitional if __________. d. Police Culture

a. It is committed to more than one State 64. What kind of research method in comparative
b. It is committed in one State but a substantial part of policing that covers three or more countries?
its preparation, planning, direction or control takes
place in another State a. Single-Culture Studies
c. It is committed in one State but involves an b. Two-Culture Studies
organized criminal group engages in criminal activities c. Multi-Culture Studies
in such one State d. Comprehensive Textbook
d. It is committed in one State but has substantial
effects in another State 65. This espouses that offenders make rational
choices, thus, choose targets that offer high reward
59. The __________ has been created to formulate with little effort and risk. Along with higher standards
and implement a concerted program of action of all law of living, victims become more careless of their
enforcement, intelligence and other agencies for the belongings, hence, opportunities for committing crimes
prevention and control of transnational crime. multiply.

a. OSETC a. Immigration Theory

b. PCTC b. Opportunity Theory
c. NICA c. Deprivation Theory
d. AMLC d. Relative Deprivation Theory

60. It is considered a form of “modern-day slavery.” 66. This is based on the event of when a greater
number of children are born, because as these baby
a. Drug Trafficking booms grow up, delinquent subcultures develop out of
b. Human Trafficking the adolescent identity crisis.
c. Illicit Trading of Firearms
d. Trafficking in Cultural Property a. Economic or Migration Theory
b. Deprivation Theory
61. The following are the core elements of human c. Demographic Theory
trafficking, EXCEPT: d. Theory of Anomie and Synomie

a. Recruitment, transportation, transfer, harboring or 67. Which of the following statements conforms to the
receipt of persons concept of deprivation theory?
b. Threat or use of force, coercion, abduction,
deception, abuse of power or vulnerability, or giving a. Migrants move from societies where labour is
payments or benefits to a person in control of the abundant, and wages are low to societies where labour
victim is scarce, and wages are high
c. Provision of a service who voluntarily seeks to gain b. Inability of an individual to access the basic
illegal entry into a foreign country necessities of life
d. Exploitation, including sexual exploitation, forced c. It sees the problem as society becoming too complex
labor, slavery or similar practices, and the removal of d. Progressive lifestyles and norms result in the
organs disintegration of older norms that once held people
together

LEA FC by Prof. Al-Jhun Quilab 6|P age

68. These are societies with little codification of law, no a. Reduction of crime rates and creating a safe
specification among police, and a system of environment for individuals and communities
punishment that just lets things go for a while without b. Prevention of disorderly conduct, addressing public
attention until things become too much, and then nuisances, and ensuring compliance with laws and
harsh, barbaric punishment is resorted to. regulations
c. Upholding of justice and fairness by investigating
a. Folk-Communal crimes, apprehending offenders, and ensuring due
b. Urban-Commercial process for all individuals involved
c. Bureaucratic d. Building of public trust and confidence by promoting
d. Urban-Industrial transparency, accountability, and ethical conduct
among police officers
69. These societies produce most of the goods and
services they need without government interference, 75. The following are the roles of police in the affairs
have codified law, and police become specialized in of the state/government, EXCEPT:
how to handle property crimes.
a. Emergency Response
a. Folk-Communal b. Protection of the State/Government Officials
b. Urban-Commercial c. Intelligence and Counterterrorism
c. Bureaucratic d. Political Association/Affiliation
d. Urban-Industrial
76. An era of policing wherein activists sought to
70. What model in policing posits that police forces separate policing from politics by building a
have well-defined territories of functioning, and their nonpartisan police force and aimed to reorganize how
functions do not overlap each other? the police operated.

a. Multiple a. Non-Partisanship
b. Multiple-Coordinated b. Patronage
c. Multiple-Uncoordinated c. Professional
d. Decentralized d. Community

71. In this policing model, many agencies can have 77. What era of community policing where police
overlapping jurisdictions. officers are under the control of politicians?

a. Singular a. Partisanship
b. Multiple-Coordinated b. Political
c. Multiple-Uncoordinated c. Professional
d. Decentralized d. Patronage

72. A Greek word where the word “Police” was derived, 78. What occurs when a person who committed a
and it means “The State.” criminal offense is surrendered, by a state where he
was found, to the state where he was proven to have
a. Porice done the crime?
b. Politeia
c. Politia a. Deportation
d. Polis b. Extradition
c. Repatriation
73. Public Safety, as one of the importance of policing d. Expatriation
in social life, is best illustrated by police officers by
__________. 79. A system wherein there is only one police force that
is recognized and operates entirely in a certain country.
a. Patrolling communities, responding to emergencies,
and conducting investigations as their presence acts as a. Centralized
a deterrent and helps create a sense of security among b. Decentralized
the public c. Adversarial
b. Responding to emergencies, enforcing traffic laws, d. Federal
and handling situations that pose a threat to individuals
or communities 80. What policing model, as far as the type of force is
c. Upholding the law and ensuring that individuals are concerned, is more applicable to countries with federal
held accountable for their actions, promoting a just and government?
fair society
d. Acting as mediators in conflicts and helping to a. Centralized
resolve disputes and maintain peace b. Coordinated
c. Decentralized
74. As one of the basic goals of policing, public order d. Uncoordinated
is best conceptualized as the __________.

LEA FC by Prof. Al-Jhun Quilab 7|P age

81. As the chief of police of the Municipality of d. Continental
Magkagulu, what should PMAJ Badang do in so far as
the problem-oriented policing is concerned? 87. Police service is founded on two theories, the
continental theory and the home rule theory. The home
a. He should employ detectives monitoring for patterns rule theory considers the policeman as:
of crime to help understand when and how crimes are
being committed I. Servants of the community, who depend the
b. He should enforce laws and disrupt criminal groups effectiveness of their functions upon the express
c. He should immediately respond to specific request wishes of the people
from the individual or groups in the community II. Civil employees whose primary duty is the
d. He should bring the police and the public closer preservation of public peace and security
together and create more cooperative working III. Armed elements of the government whose job is to
environment between them serve and protect

82. It draws upon the notion that the police can do a. I only
know a great deal about offending patterns. This b. II only
means police should actively gather information to be c. I and II only
utilized for enforcement and disruption of criminal d. II and III only
groups.
88. Which of the following statements is TRUE about
a. Problem-Oriented Policing the modern police concept/service?
b. Intelligence-Led Policing
c. Pro-Active Policing a. A concept of police service stating that the yardstick
d. Predictive Policing of police proficiency relies on the absence of crime
b. A concept of police service stating that the accused
83. A model in policing designed to bring the police and should be held innocent until proven guilty beyond
the public closer together and create a more reasonable doubt
cooperative working environment between them. c. A concept of police service stating that the yardstick
of police proficiency relies on the number of arrests
a. Value-Based made
b. Reassurance d. A concept of police service stating that the accused
c. Community-Oriented should be held guilty until proven innocent or mitigated
d. Neighborhood
89. A style of policing with aggressive crime fighting
84. In this system, all production and distribution and tries to control officers’ behavior through a rule
decisions are made by the government, and the bound.
individuals rely on the state for everything from food
to health care. a. Service
b. Legalistic
a. Common Law c. Preventive
b. Socialist d. Watchman
c. Civil Law
d. Marxist-Leninist 90. During the Spanish regime, locally organized police
forces, although performing civil duties is a direct
85. Which of the following statements conforms to the adjunct of the colonial military establishments, which
definition of the common law system? means __________.

a. A strong adversarial system and rely upon oral a. They were responsible for the suppression of
system of evidence in which the public trial is a main brigandage by patrolling unsettled areas
focal point b. They were responsible for the detection of local or
b. A strong inquisitorial system where less right is petty uprising by spying upon the work and
granted to the accused and the written law is taken as movements of the people
gospel and subject to little interpretation c. They were responsible for policemen in appearance
c. A system that focuses on procedures designed to yet colonial soldiers in the ultimate sense
rehabilitate the offender d. They were responsible for the enforcement of tax
d. A system that derives all their procedures and collection including church revenues
practices from the interpretation of the Koran
91. What police force in the year 1712 that was armed
86. The PNP personnel are considered servants of the and considered as the mounted police who later
community, and its effectiveness depends upon the discharged the duties of a port, harbor, and river
community’s approval. What theory of police service police?
does the PNP adopt?
a. Guadrilleros
a. Old b. Carabineros De Seguridad Publica
b. Home Rule c. Coerpu De Seguridad Publica
c. Modern d. Guardia Civil

LEA FC by Prof. Al-Jhun Quilab 8|P age

 99. What INTERPOL Notice must be requested against
92. What is the test of police efficiency according to someone who has pending extradition, surrender, or
peel’s principles of law enforcement? similar action?

a. Impartial enforcement of the law a. Green

b. Citizen’s respect for law b. Red
c. Cooperation of the public c. Blue
d. Absence of crime and disorder d. Black

93. The member countries of ASEANAPOL take turns 100. What is Blue Interpol Notice for?
hosting the conference and automatically assume the
role of the secretariat for the current year. What is the a. To seek the location and arrest of wanted people
basis in doing so? with a view to extradition or similar lawful action
b. To warn of an event, a person, an object or a
a. Electoral process representing a serious and imminent threat to
b. Rotational public safety
c. Unilateral c. To help locate missing persons, often minors, or to
d. Circular help identify persons who are unable to identify
themselves
94. What does INTERPOL stand for? d. To provide warnings and intelligence about people
who have committed criminal offenses and are likely to
a. International Police repeat these crimes in other countries
b. International Criminal Police Organization
c. International Policing Organization PART 3. INDUSTRIAL SECURITY CONCEPTS
d. Organisation Internationale De Police Criminele
101. It is the degree of protection or resistance against
harm, danger, loss, and criminals. (Jul-Aug 2024 LEC)
95. What are the official languages of INTERPOL?
a. Safety
a. Armenian, English, French, and Spanish b. Asset
b. Arabic, Egyptian Arabic, French, Spanish, and c. Security
Chinese d. Protection
c. Arabic, English, French and Spanish
d. Arabic, English, French, Chinese, Russian, and 102. There is no impenetrable barrier; therefore, rather
Spanish than attempting to achieve exclusion using a single
barrier, security must be built upon accumulated time.
96. Staffed by national law enforcement officers, the This refers to __________.
__________ is the designated contact point for the
a. Risk Theory
General Secretariat, regional offices and other member
b. Causality Theory
countries requiring assistance with overseas
c. Crisis Theory
investigations and the location and apprehension of
d. Defense-in-Depth Theory
fugitives.

103. Which of the following statements conforms to the

a. Executive Committee
definition of crisis theory?
b. General Assembly
c. General Secretariat a. The identification and assessment of safety and
d. National Central Bureau security problems by identifying threats, risk analysis,
and the choice of method of risk management
97. What is the color-coded system which serves to b. It is closely linked to the theory of safety and
alert police of fugitive, suspected terrorists, dangerous security by managing the breach consequences
criminals, missing persons, or weapons? c. A theory that deals with the causes of safety and
security breaches
a. INTERPOL Alert System d. A theory suggesting that to achieve the ultimate
b. INTERPOL Notice System results from a physical security system, it is necessary
c. INTERPOL Notices to add barrier to barrier
d. None of the above
104. A form of physical security involving industrial
98. The __________ a.k.a. I-24/7 connects law plants and business enterprises, and the safeguarding
enforcement officials in all member countries and of personnel, processes, properties, and operations.
provides them with the means to share crucial
a. Personal Security
information on criminal and criminal activities.
b. Personnel Security
c. Industrial Security
a. Secure Global Police Communication Services
d. Operational Security
b. Interpol’s Global Police Communication System
c. Operational Data Services and Databases for Police
105. A security consultant made some
d. Operational Police Support Services
recommendations that the establishment should be
installed with high quality steel gates surmounted by
LEA FC by Prof. Al-Jhun Quilab 9|P age
barbed wire top guards, doorways and outside d. Dannert Wire Fence
approaches with protective lightings, doors and
windows with good quality locks, metallic containers 112. What is a master key?
for important documents, and other security measures
a. A key that can open everything in a system
as may be necessary. What category of security has
been recommended? b. A special key capable of opening a series of locks
c. A key that can open all locks within a particular area
a. Physical or grouping
b. Personnel d. A key to a single lock
c. Perimeter 113. What is an inquiry into the character, reputation,
d. Protective discretion, integrity, morals, and loyalty of an individual
to determine his suitability for appointment or to be
106. To ensure that a well-known politician gives his given a security clearance?
speech with the least amount of disturbance, a
specialized close protection team quietly keeps an eye a. Personnel Security Investigation
on the audience, controls entrance points, keeps a b. National Agency Check
secure perimeter, and is ready to respond to any c. Local Agency Check
potential threats. This scenario is an example of d. Background Investigation
__________.
114. An inquiry which aims to verify applicant’s
information written at the applicant's form, to ascertain
a. Personal Security
his/her past employment experiences and to obtain
b. V.I.P. Security
other information pertinent to the decision to employ.
c. Either A or B
d. Personnel Security a. Personnel Security Investigation
b. Complete Background Investigation
107. A security measures that involve the installation c. Partial Background Investigation
of physical barriers, security lighting, use of vaults, d. Background Investigation
locks and others.
115. It refers to a covert distress signal used by an
a. Active Measures individual who is being coerced by one or more hostile
b. Passive Measures persons.
c. Relative Criticality of Operations
a. Need to Know
d. Relative Vulnerability
b. Duress Code
c. Compromise
108. The importance of an establishment with
d. Compartmentation
reference to the national economy and security. This
statement refers to __________.
116. Which of the following best describes secret
classified document?
a. Active Measures
b. Passive Measures
a. A classified document the unauthorized disclosure of
c. Relative Criticality of Operations
which would cause exceptionally grave damage to the
d. Relative Vulnerability
nation
b. A classified document the unauthorized disclosure of
109. The following are otherwise termed as the three
which would endanger national security, cause serious
lines of physical defense, EXCEPT:
injury to the interest or prestige of the nation
c. A classified document the unauthorized disclosure of
a. Perimeter Barriers
which would cause administrative embarrassment or
b. Building Exteriors
unwarranted injury
c. Interior Controls
d. A classified document the in which it requires special
d. Perimeter Fences
protection other than those determined in the
preceding choices
110. Franco wants to build a house and considers the
idea that every activity inside should not be seen from 117. These are consisting of any formula, pattern,
the outside. What type of fence should he install? device, or compilation of information used in one’s
business and gives him an opportunity to gain an
a. Dannert Wire advantage over other competitors.
b. Solid
c. Barbed Wire a. Patents
d. Solidified b. Trademarks
c. Copyrights
111. Which among the following is considered a semi- d. Trade Secrets
permanent structure?
118. What is one of the most annoying and common
a. Chain Link Fence human hazards that security has to deal with?
b. Barbed Wire Fence
c. Concertina Wire Fence a. Pilferage

LEA FC by Prof. Al-Jhun Quilab 10 | P a g e

b. Theft weaknesses, and upcoming products or services. What
c. Espionage type of corporate intelligence does her company need?
d. Sabotage
a. Competitive
119. A term used in security which means “to look b. Market
carefully.” c. Strategic
d. Operational
a. Patrol
b. Survey 126. Balmond wants to gather pieces of operational
c. Check
intelligence to assess the internal operations of his
d. Walk Through business. This means he needs to __________.

120. Gathering information, finding the deficiencies a. Gather information about the new products that are
and sufficiency of a plant in each feature is referred to
about to be released by his business rivals
as security __________. b. Gather information about the needs of his customers
a. Education so he can keep up with trends of the business world
b. Survey c. Gather information about technological
c. Inspection advancements that are of utmost importance
d. Investigation