NAGARJUNA PRE-UNIVERSITY COLLEGE,
RAMAGONDANAHALLI, YELAHANKA, BENGALURU 560064
Biology Answer Keys 2025
BIOLOGY FINAL EXAM 2025
ANSWER KEYS:
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. "Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils" because of the presence of:
Answer: a) Both Statements I and II are correct
2. The process of transformation of spermatids into sperms is called:
Answer: c) Spermiogenesis
3. Which one among the following is essential for the maintenance of endometrium and for
the implantation of the fertilized ovum?
Answer: b) Progesterone
4. Select the one among the given that is a probable reason for the explosive growth of
population in India.
Answer: d) Increase in the number of people in reproductive age
5. Which one among the following is a contraceptive method that involves no medicine or
device?
Answer: d) Coitus interruptus
6. Which one among the following ART can be used to rectify if infertility is due to low sperm
count?
Answer: c) IUI (Intrauterine Insemination)
7. Which one among the given is a symbol used in human pedigree analysis for
consanguineous mating?
Answer: b) Double line between two individuals
8. Which one among these represents the flow of genetic information?
Answer: c) DNA → mRNA → Protein
9. If the change in gene frequency occurs by chance, it is called:
Answer: d) Genetic drift
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RAMAGONDANAHALLI, YELAHANKA, BENGALURU 560064
Biology Answer Keys 2025
10. Which is the test that can be suggested for a patient with symptoms such as sustained
high fever (39°C - 40°C), weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache, and loss of
appetite?
Answer: a) Widal test
11. Which among the following is an enzyme modified by genetic engineering and used as
"Clot buster"?
Answer: d) Streptokinase
12. In which method are plant cells bombarded with high-velocity microparticles of gold
coated with DNA?
Answer: b) Biolistics
13. The use of bioresources by multinational companies and other organizations without
proper authorization and compensatory payment is called:
Answer: c) Biopiracy
14. In which of the processes given is humus degraded by some microbes, leading to the
release of inorganic nutrients?
Answer: b) Mineralisation
15. Which one among these is an example of ex-situ conservation?
Answer: a) Cryopreservation
II. Fill in the blanks:
16. Few flowering plants have evolved a special mechanism to produce seeds without
fertilization, called Apomixis.
17. Single-step large mutation is known as Saltation.
18. Oxytocin acts on uterine muscles and causes stronger contractions during
parturition.
19. The genus Glomus forms mycorrhiza and absorbs phosphorus from the soil to
supply it to plants.
20. The step in which bands of DNA are cut out and extracted from a gel piece is
termed as elution.
III. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING: (2 marker)
21) Draw a neat labeled diagram of a dicot embryo.
Answer:
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NAGARJUNA PRE-UNIVERSITY COLLEGE,
RAMAGONDANAHALLI, YELAHANKA, BENGALURU 560064
Biology Answer Keys 2025
Diagram (Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 1 - Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants)
22) Differentiate between Linkage and Recombination.
Answer:
Linkage Recombination
Linkage is the tendency of genes located on Recombination is the process of forming new
the same chromosome to be inherited gene combinations by crossing over during
together. meiosis.
It reduces variation in offspring. It increases variation in offspring.
Example: Genes for red-green color Example: Crossing over in Drosophila
blindness and hemophilia in humans are produces new gene combinations.
linked.
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 4 - Principles of Inheritance and Variation)
23) "AUG has dual function". Justify the statement.
Answer:
• AUG is the start codon in protein synthesis, which initiates translation by coding for
Methionine (Met).
• It also specifies Methionine as an amino acid in the polypeptide chain.
• Thus, it acts as both a start signal and an amino acid codon.
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 5 - Molecular Basis of Inheritance)
24) Analyze the table given in relation to human evolution and write the scientific
name for A and B respectively.
Answer:
A = Homo habilis
B = Homo erectus
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 6 - Evolution, Table on Human Evolution)
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RAMAGONDANAHALLI, YELAHANKA, BENGALURU 560064
Biology Answer Keys 2025
25) Which drug is very useful in patients who have undergone surgery? And why?
Answer:
• Morphine is used in organ transplant patients as painkiller and sedative.
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 7 - Human Health and Disease)
26) From which part of a virus-infected plant can healthy plants be recovered? Name
the technique involved.
Answer:
• Healthy plants can be recovered from the meristematic tissue (Shoot apical meristem)
of the virus-infected plant.
• The technique used is Meristem Culture.
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 10- Biotechnology and Its Applications)
27) "Tropical regions have greater biological diversity". Give two hypotheses proposed
by ecologists in favor of the above-given statement.
Answer:
1. More stable environment – Tropical regions have a stable climate over millions of years,
allowing species to diversify.
2. Higher productivity – More sunlight and rainfall in tropical regions support higher
primary productivity, leading to greater biodiversity.
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 13 - Biodiversity and Conservation)
IV: ANSWER THE FOLLOWING: (3 marker)
28) List the features required for the flowers pollinated by wind.
Answer:
Wind-pollinated flowers have the following features:
1. Small, inconspicuous, and colorless flowers (No need to attract pollinators).
2. Long, feathery stigmas to trap airborne pollen grains.
3. Produce a large quantity of light and dry pollen grains for effective dispersal.
4. Well-exposed stamens for easy pollen release.
5. Flowers often lack nectar and fragrance.
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 1 - Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, Section on
Pollination)
29) Name the human male accessory glands.
Answer:
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NAGARJUNA PRE-UNIVERSITY COLLEGE,
RAMAGONDANAHALLI, YELAHANKA, BENGALURU 560064
Biology Answer Keys 2025
The three male accessory glands are:
1. Seminal vesicles – Secrete fructose-rich fluid for sperm nourishment.
2. Prostate gland – Produces an alkaline secretion that enhances sperm motility.
3. Bulbourethral glands (Cowper’s glands) – Secrete mucus to lubricate the urethra.
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 2 - Human Reproduction, Section on Male Reproductive
System)
30) How do IUDs function in bringing about contraception effectively?
Answer:
Intrauterine devices (IUDs) like Copper-T and LNG-20 prevent pregnancy through:
1. Suppressing sperm motility and fertilization (Copper ions released by Copper-T are
toxic to sperm).
2. Altering the endometrial lining, making it unsuitable for implantation.
3. Increasing phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus.
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 3 - Reproductive Health, Section on Birth Control Methods)
31) a) Mention any two examples of evolution by anthropogenic action.
Answer:
1. Industrial melanism in moths – Dark-colored moths increased due to pollution during
the Industrial Revolution.
2. Pesticide resistance in insects – Insects evolve resistance to pesticides over time.
b) State the Hardy-Weinberg Principle.
Answer:
The Hardy-Weinberg Principle states that the allele frequency in a population remains
constant if there are no evolutionary forces acting on it. It is expressed as:
P2+2pq+q2=1
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 6 - Evolution, Section on Hardy-Weinberg Principle)
32) What is a carcinogen? Give an example each for physical and biological
carcinogens.
Answer:
• Carcinogen: Any substance that causes cancer by inducing uncontrolled cell growth.
• Physical Carcinogen: UV radiation (causes skin cancer), X rays, gamma rays.
• Biological Carcinogen: Oncogenic viruses and Oncogenic genes (C-Onc genes)
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 7 - Human Health and Disease, Section on Cancer)
33) List the three uses of genetically modified plants.
Answer:
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NAGARJUNA PRE-UNIVERSITY COLLEGE,
RAMAGONDANAHALLI, YELAHANKA, BENGALURU 560064
Biology Answer Keys 2025
1. Increased crop yield – Example: Bt cotton produces insecticidal proteins to resist pests.
2. Enhanced nutritional content – Example: Golden rice (rich in Vitamin A).
3. Herbicide resistance – GM crops like herbicide-tolerant soybeans allow selective weed
control.
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 10 - Biotechnology and Its Applications, Section on
Genetically Modified Crops)
34) In an ecosystem, the number of primary producers is 4, and primary consumers is 21
Construct an ecological pyramid for this ecosystem.
Answer:
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 12 - Ecosystem, Section on Ecological Pyramids)
V: ANSWER THE FOLLOWING (5 marker)
35) a) Draw a neat labeled diagrammatic sectional view of the mammary gland.
Answer:
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 2 - Human Reproduction, Figure on Mammary Gland)
Diagram must be drawn as per NCERT.
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RAMAGONDANAHALLI, YELAHANKA, BENGALURU 560064
Biology Answer Keys 2025
36) a) How is phenylketonuria an example of pleiotropy?
Answer:
• Pleiotropy: A single gene affects multiple traits.
• Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder caused by a defective gene coding for the
enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase.
• Effects:
1. Mental retardation
2. Reduced skin pigmentation
3. Behavioral abnormalities
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 4 - Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Section on
Pleiotropy)
36 b) Schematically represent the sex determination in honeybee.
Answer:
Diagram should show haploid (n) and diploid (2n) offspring.
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 4 - Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Section on Sex
Determination in Honeybee)
37) Explain incomplete dominance with an example.
Answer:
• Incomplete dominance: Neither allele is completely dominant, resulting in an
intermediate phenotype.
• Example: Snapdragon flower (Antirrhinum)
o RR (Red) × rr (White) → Rr (Pink)
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NAGARJUNA PRE-UNIVERSITY COLLEGE,
RAMAGONDANAHALLI, YELAHANKA, BENGALURU 560064
Biology Answer Keys 2025
Diagram of cross should be drawn as per NCERT.
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 4 - Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Section on
Incomplete Dominance)
38) Write any five salient features of the human genome.
Answer:
1. Contains 3.1 billion base pairs.
2. About 30,000 genes are present.
3. Only ~1.5% of the genome codes for proteins; the rest is non-coding DNA.
4. Repetitive sequences constitute a large part of the genome.
5. Chromosome 1 has the maximum number of genes, while the Y chromosome has the
least.
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 5 - Molecular Basis of Inheritance, Section on Human
Genome Project)
39) a) Name the biocontrol agents of aphids and mosquitoes respectively.
Answer:
• Biocontrol agent for aphids → Ladybird beetle (Coccinella septempunctata)
• Biocontrol agent for mosquitoes → Gambusia fish
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 9 - Microbes in Human Welfare, Section on Biocontrol
Agents)
39) b) How can Bacillus thuringiensis be used as a biocontrol agent?
Answer:
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NAGARJUNA PRE-UNIVERSITY COLLEGE,
RAMAGONDANAHALLI, YELAHANKA, BENGALURU 560064
Biology Answer Keys 2025
• Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) produces an insecticidal protein (Cry protein).
• When ingested by insects, the toxin binds to gut cells, causing paralysis and death.
• Used in Bt cotton to protect crops from bollworms.
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 10 - Biotechnology and Its Applications, Section on Bt
Cotton)
40) Diagrammatically represent recombinant DNA technology.
Answer:
Diagram should include the following steps:
1. Isolation of DNA
2. Cutting of DNA with restriction enzymes
3. Insertion of DNA into vector (Plasmid)
4. Introduction into host cells (Transformation)
5. Selection and expression of recombinant DNA
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 9 - Biotechnology: Principles and Processes, Figure on
Recombinant DNA Technology)
41) Give suitable terms for the following examples/statements with respect to
population interactions.
Answer:
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NAGARJUNA PRE-UNIVERSITY COLLEGE,
RAMAGONDANAHALLI, YELAHANKA, BENGALURU 560064
Biology Answer Keys 2025
a) The method Mediterranean orchid Ophrys employs to get pollinated:
Mimicry (Ophrys mimics female bees to attract male pollinators).
b) Species facing competition might evolve mechanisms that promote co-existence
rather than exclusion:
Resource partitioning (Different species utilize different resources to reduce competition).
c) The parasitic bird lays eggs in the nest of its host and lets the host bird incubate
them:
Brood parasitism (e.g., Cuckoo laying eggs in the crow’s nest).
d) The interaction between cattle egret and grazing cattle:
Commensalism (Egret benefits by feeding on insects disturbed by cattle).
e) The interaction in which one species is harmed while the other is unaffected:
Amensalism (e.g., Penicillium secretes penicillin, which kills bacteria).
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 11 - Organisms and Populations, Section on Population
Interactions)
VI: ANSWER THE FOLLOWING: (5 marker)
42) Read the below-given statement and answer the given questions.
(a) "A breeder is interested in crossing different species of plants to combine desirable
characters to produce commercially superior varieties."
To achieve the goal of combining desirable characters from different plant species to produce
commercially superior varieties, a breeder can utilize the technique of artificial
hybridization. This method involves controlled pollination to ensure that only selected
parent plants contribute to the offspring's genetic makeup.
(b) Discuss in detail the techniques involved in the process.
Two techniques in this process are emasculation and bagging.
1. Emasculation: Emasculation is the process of removing the anthers from a bisexual
flower before they release pollen. This prevents self-pollination and ensures that the flower
can only be fertilized by pollen from a desired male parent. The steps involved in
emasculation are:
• Selection of the Flower: Choose a flower that is in the bud stage, where the anthers
have not yet matured or released pollen.
• Removal of Anthers: Carefully open the bud and remove the anthers using fine
forceps or a similar tool, ensuring that the stigma and other parts of the flower remain
undamaged.
This technique is essential for preventing unwanted self-pollination, thereby maintaining
control over the parentage of the hybrid seeds.
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Biology Answer Keys 2025
2. Bagging: After emasculation, the flower is susceptible to contamination from unwanted
pollen carried by wind or insects. To prevent this, the emasculated flower is covered with a
suitable bag, a process known as bagging. The steps involved in bagging are:
• Covering the Flower: Immediately after emasculation, cover the flower with a bag
made of butter paper, polythene, or any other suitable material that prevents the entry
of external pollen.
• Pollination with Desired Pollen: Once the stigma is receptive, introduce pollen from
the selected male parent to the stigma. This is often done by dusting the pollen onto
the stigma manually.
• Re-bagging: After pollination, re-cover the flower to protect it from contamination until
fertilization is complete and the fruit begins to develop.
By employing emasculation and bagging, breeders can effectively control the breeding
process, ensuring that the resulting hybrids possess the desired traits from both parent
plants. This method is widely used in crop improvement programs to develop new plant
varieties with enhanced yield, disease resistance, and other beneficial characteristics.
Reference: NCERT Class 12 Biology Textbook, Chapter 1 - Sexual Reproduction in Flowering
Plants.
43) Analyze the below-given transcription unit diagram and answer the given
questions.
a) Name the Parts A and B in the diagram.
Answer:
• A → Coding strand
• B → Terminator (Signals the end of transcription)
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 5 - Molecular Basis of Inheritance, Section on Transcription
Unit)
b) Which site of the transcription unit provides the binding site for RNA polymerase?
Answer:
• The Promoter provides the binding site for RNA polymerase.
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RAMAGONDANAHALLI, YELAHANKA, BENGALURU 560064
Biology Answer Keys 2025
c) Write the sequence of bases of the mRNA transcribed from the template given in the
diagram.
Answer:
• Given template strand: ATG CAC GAC
• mRNA sequence (Complementary to template strand):
UAC GUG CUG
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 5 - Molecular Basis of Inheritance, Section on Transcription
and RNA Polymerase)
44) "Our body is provided with different types of non-specific immunity barriers at the
time of birth". Justify the above statement with suitable examples.
Answer:
Non-specific (Innate) immunity is present from birth and includes four types of barriers:
1. Physical Barriers:
o Skin – Prevents pathogen entry.
o Mucous membranes in the respiratory, digestive, and urogenital tracts trap
microbes.
2. Physiological Barriers:
o Stomach acid (HCl) kills ingested microbes.
o Lysozyme in saliva and tears destroys bacterial cell walls.
3. Cellular Barriers:
o Phagocytes (Macrophages and Neutrophils) engulf and destroy pathogens.
o Natural Killer (NK) cells attack virus-infected cells.
4. Cytokine Barriers:
o Interferons secreted by virus-infected cells protect neighboring cells from viral
infections.
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 7 - Human Health and Disease, Section on Innate
Immunity)
VISUALLY CHALLENGED ONLY
7) Failure of segregation of chromatids during the cell division cycle results in:
Answer:
• Correct option: (c) Aneuploidy
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 4 - Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Section on
Chromosomal Disorders.)
43) List the salient features of the genetic code.
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Biology Answer Keys 2025
Answer:
1. Triplet Code – Each codon consists of three nucleotides.
2. Degeneracy of the Code – More than one codon can code for a single amino acid (e.g.,
UUU and UUC both code for phenylalanine).
3. Universal – The genetic code is the same for all living organisms (e.g., AUG codes for
methionine in all species).
4. Non-Overlapping & Comma less – Codons are read sequentially without overlapping
or gaps.
5. Start and Stop Codons –
o AUG (Start codon, codes for methionine).
o UAA, UAG, UGA (Stop codons, do not code for any amino acid).
6. Unambiguous & Specific – Each codon specifies only one amino acid.
(Refer to NCERT Class 12, Chapter 5 - Molecular Basis of Inheritance, Section on Genetic Code.)
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