Multiple Choice Questions

Melanoma (Questions 1–30)

1. Which of the following is a primary risk factor for melanoma?

A. UV radiation exposure

B. High‐fat diet

C. Sedentary lifestyle

D. Viral infections

2. Which mutation is most commonly associated with cutaneous melanoma?

A. KRAS mutation

B. BRAF V600E mutation

C. TP53 mutation

D. EGFR mutation

3. What does the “Breslow thickness” in melanoma refer to?

A. Tumor diameter

B. Depth of invasion

C. Lymph node involvement

D. Number of lesions

4. Which of the following is part of the ABCDE criteria for melanoma detection?

A. Asymmetry

B. Benignity

C. Color uniformity

D. Diameter <2 mm
5. What is the significance of the Clark level in melanoma?

A. Indicates patient’s age

B. Describes depth of invasion by skin layer

C. Measures genetic mutation

D. Classifies tumor shape

6. Which immunohistochemical marker is most sensitive for melanoma?

A. Cytokeratin

B. S100 protein

C. Desmin

D. CD20

7. Which treatment option is generally first-line for localized melanoma?

A. Wide local excision

B. Topical chemotherapy

C. Radiation therapy

D. Immunotherapy

8. Melanoma most commonly arises from which type of skin cell?

A. Keratinocytes

B. Melanocytes

C. Langerhans cells

D. Fibroblasts

9. Which subtype of melanoma typically presents with a lentiginous growth pattern on sun-
damaged skin?

A. Lentigo maligna melanoma

B. Nodular melanoma
 C. Acral lentiginous melanoma

D. Mucosal melanoma

10. Which of the following is a common site for melanoma metastasis?

A. Brain

B. Lymph nodes

C. Liver

D. Bone

11. What is the primary method used for definitive diagnosis of melanoma?

A. Dermatoscopic evaluation

B. Excisional biopsy

C. Fine-needle aspiration

D. CT scan

12. Which of these is a hallmark histopathologic feature of melanoma?

A. Keratin pearls

B. Atypical melanocytes at the dermoepidermal junction

C. Lymphocytic infiltrate only

D. Squamous differentiation

13. Which therapeutic option has improved survival in advanced melanoma?

A. Topical retinoids

B. BRAF inhibitors

C. Cryotherapy

D. Mohs surgery

14. What does the term “in situ” imply in the context of melanoma?
 A. Invasion into the dermis

B. Confined to the epidermis

C. Distant metastasis

D. Recurrent disease

15. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for melanoma?

A. Intermittent sun exposure

B. Tanning bed use

C. Fair skin

D. Chronic smoking

16. Which imaging modality is often used to evaluate suspected metastatic melanoma?

A. Ultrasound

B. MRI

C. CT scan

D. X-ray

17. Which of these genetic markers is routinely tested in melanoma patients?

A. BRAF mutation

B. BRCA1 mutation

C. KRAS mutation

D. ALK rearrangement

18. Melanoma incidence is highest in which demographic?

A. Older adults with darker skin

B. Young adults with darker skin

C. Middle-aged fair-skinned individuals

 D. Children of any skin tone

19. What is the primary purpose of sentinel lymph node biopsy in melanoma?

A. To remove all cancer cells

B. To determine metastatic spread

C. To cure the disease

D. To assess genetic mutations

20. Which feature is most suggestive of melanoma during clinical exam?

A. A uniform, symmetric mole

B. A lesion with irregular borders

C. A flat, non-evolving lesion

D. A lesion with a single color

21. Which melanoma subtype is most aggressive and typically lacks a radial growth phase?

A. Nodular melanoma

B. Lentigo maligna melanoma

C. Superficial spreading melanoma

D. Acral lentiginous melanoma

22. Which term describes melanoma that has spread to distant sites?

A. Stage I

B. In situ

C. Metastatic

D. Localized

23. What is the role of immunotherapy in melanoma management?

A. To reduce UV exposure
 B. To stimulate the immune system against tumor cells

C. To perform genetic correction

D. To provide local pain relief

24. Which of the following is a preventative measure for melanoma?

A. Routine antibiotic use

B. Regular use of sunscreen

C. Increased tanning bed usage

D. High-fat diet

25. What does the term “Clark level” assess in melanoma?

A. Patient immune status

B. Tumor vascularity

C. Level of invasion into skin layers

D. Tumor genetic profile

26. Which of the following factors does NOT significantly increase melanoma risk?

A. Family history

B. History of sunburns

C. Melanocytic nevus count

D. Regular physical activity

27. What is the typical appearance of a melanoma on dermoscopy?

A. Uniform pigment network

B. Blue-white veil and irregular dots

C. Honeycomb pattern

D. Regular reticular pattern

28. Which melanoma type is frequently found on the soles of the feet?

A. Lentigo maligna melanoma

B. Acral lentiginous melanoma

C. Nodular melanoma

D. Superficial spreading melanoma

29. Which cellular feature is commonly seen in melanoma histology?

A. Spindle-shaped melanocytes

B. Well-differentiated keratinocytes

C. Multinucleated giant cells

D. Basaloid cells

30. Which of the following statements about melanoma is true?

A. It is the most common skin cancer

B. It rarely metastasizes

C. Early detection improves prognosis

D. It is unrelated to sun exposure

Basal Cell Carcinoma (Questions 31–60)

31. Which is the most common type of skin cancer?

A. Melanoma

B. Basal cell carcinoma

C. Squamous cell carcinoma

D. Merkel cell carcinoma

32. What is the typical clinical appearance of basal cell carcinoma?

A. Scaly red patch

 B. Pearly papule with telangiectasia

C. Ulcerated lesion with rolled borders

D. Pigmented nevus

33. Which gene mutation is most commonly associated with basal cell carcinoma?

A. BRAF mutation

B. TP53 mutation

C. PTCH gene mutation

D. EGFR mutation

34. Where on the body is basal cell carcinoma most frequently found?

A. Face

B. Trunk

C. Limbs

D. Scalp

35. What is the standard treatment for localized basal cell carcinoma?

A. Mohs micrographic surgery

B. Chemotherapy

C. Wide local excision

D. Radiotherapy

36. Which of the following is a known risk factor for basal cell carcinoma?

A. UV radiation exposure

B. HPV infection

C. Immunosuppression

D. Smoking
37. Basal cell carcinoma rarely metastasizes because it…

A. Has low malignant potential

B. Is highly responsive to chemotherapy

C. Is well-contained in the epidermis

D. Is caused by viruses

38. Which of the following is NOT a typical presentation of basal cell carcinoma?

A. Pearly nodule

B. Scar-like lesion

C. Rapidly growing ulcerated mass

D. Lesion with rolled borders

39. Which diagnostic method is definitive for basal cell carcinoma?

A. Dermoscopy

B. Skin biopsy

C. Visual examination

D. Wood’s lamp examination

40. What does Mohs micrographic surgery aim to achieve in basal cell carcinoma treatment?

A. Minimally invasive biopsy

B. Complete tumor removal with tissue conservation

C. Cosmetic enhancement

D. Only palliative care

41. Which histopathologic feature is typical in basal cell carcinoma?

A. Palisading nuclei

B. Keratin pearl formation

 C. Melanin pigment

D. Spindle cell proliferation

42. Which of the following is a potential complication if basal cell carcinoma is left untreated?

A. Metastasis to distant organs

B. Local tissue invasion and disfigurement

C. Systemic infection

D. Autoimmune reaction

43. Which non-surgical treatment is sometimes used for superficial basal cell carcinoma?

A. Cryotherapy

B. Topical imiquimod

C. Oral retinoids

D. Laser ablation

44. Which environmental exposure is most strongly linked to basal cell carcinoma development?

A. Tobacco smoke

B. Ultraviolet light

C. Industrial chemicals

D. Asbestos

45. What is the recurrence rate after treatment of basal cell carcinoma if margins are clear?

A. High

B. Moderate

C. Low

D. Unknown

46. Basal cell carcinoma is most common in individuals with which skin type?
 A. Fitzpatrick type I-II

B. Fitzpatrick type III-IV

C. Fitzpatrick type V-VI

D. All skin types equally

47. Which genetic syndrome predisposes individuals to multiple basal cell carcinomas?

A. Gorlin syndrome

B. Li-Fraumeni syndrome

C. Gardner syndrome

D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

48. What is the role of vitamin D synthesis in basal cell carcinoma?

A. It prevents BCC

B. It is not related

C. UV exposure increases vitamin D but also increases BCC risk

D. Vitamin D supplements cure BCC

49. Which of the following best describes the growth pattern of basal cell carcinoma?

A. Slow-growing, locally invasive

B. Rapidly metastasizing

C. Systemically disseminated

D. Highly aggressive

50. What is the typical age range for basal cell carcinoma onset?

A. Childhood

B. Adolescence

C. Middle-aged to older adults

 D. Elderly only

51. Which treatment modality is preferred for facial basal cell carcinomas to preserve cosmetic
appearance?

A. Wide excision

B. Mohs micrographic surgery

C. Cryotherapy

D. Radiation

52. Which of the following is a common side effect of topical imiquimod used in BCC
treatment?

A. Severe systemic toxicity

B. Local skin irritation

C. Hair loss

D. Vision changes

53. Basal cell carcinoma most frequently presents as a lesion with which characteristic?

A. Scaly, red patch

B. Pearly appearance with rolled borders

C. Black, irregularly pigmented mole

D. Ulcerated, bleeding mass

54. What is the significance of sun protection in preventing basal cell carcinoma?

A. It is the only preventive measure

B. It significantly reduces risk

C. It has no effect

D. It increases risk

55. Which diagnostic tool enhances the clinical evaluation of basal cell carcinoma?
 A. Dermatoscopy

B. CT scan

C. MRI

D. X-ray

56. What is the role of radiotherapy in basal cell carcinoma treatment?

A. Primary treatment for all BCCs

B. Alternative for patients who are not surgical candidates

C. Not used at all

D. Only used in metastatic cases

57. Which feature distinguishes basal cell carcinoma from squamous cell carcinoma?

A. BCC rarely metastasizes, while SCC can metastasize

B. BCC is more common in darker-skinned individuals

C. BCC is usually painful

D. BCC is caused by viruses

58. Which factor is least associated with basal cell carcinoma development?

A. UV exposure

B. Genetic predisposition

C. Chronic inflammation

D. Age

59. What is the primary mechanism of action of imiquimod in treating BCC?

A. Direct cytotoxicity

B. Immune modulation

C. Inhibition of DNA synthesis

 D. Radiation sensitization

60. Which of the following is the most appropriate follow-up recommendation for a patient
treated for BCC?

A. Annual skin exam

B. No follow-up needed

C. Daily CT scans

D. Regular blood tests

Squamous Cell Carcinoma (Questions 61–90)

61. Which of the following is a major risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)?

A. Ultraviolet radiation exposure

B. Genetic mutations in PTCH

C. Merkel cell polyomavirus

D. Low melanin content only

62. What is the classic clinical presentation of SCC?

A. Pearly papule

B. Scaly, red, and indurated plaque

C. Pigmented mole

D. Subcutaneous nodule

63. Which of the following is commonly seen in SCC histopathology?

A. Keratin pearl formation

B. Palisading nuclei

C. Atypical melanocytes

D. Spindle cell proliferation

64. Which precursor lesion is commonly associated with SCC development?

 A. Actinic keratosis

B. Dysplastic nevus

C. Seborrheic keratosis

D. Basal cell nevus

65. Which surgical treatment is often preferred for squamous cell carcinoma lesions in
cosmetically sensitive areas?

A. Mohs micrographic surgery

B. Wide local excision

C. Cryotherapy

D. Topical imiquimod

66. Which patient population is at increased risk for developing SCC?

A. Organ transplant recipients

B. Pediatric patients

C. Patients with diabetes

D. Vegetarians

67. Which of the following is a common site for SCC occurrence?

A. Face

B. Soles of the feet

C. Palms

D. Oral mucosa

68. Which factor distinguishes SCC from BCC in terms of metastasis risk?

A. SCC has a higher risk of metastasis

B. SCC rarely metastasizes

C. Both metastasize equally

 D. BCC metastasizes more frequently

69. What role does human papillomavirus (HPV) play in SCC?

A. No role

B. Can contribute to SCC development in mucosal sites

C. It is the primary cause of SCC

D. It only affects melanoma

70. Which diagnostic procedure is definitive for SCC?

A. Skin biopsy

B. Clinical examination alone

C. Dermoscopy only

D. Wood’s lamp exam

71. In SCC, what does the term “perineural invasion” indicate?

A. Superficial lesion

B. Aggressive behavior

C. Benign lesion

D. Effective immune response

72. Which type of SCC is most common on sun-exposed skin?

A. Cutaneous SCC

B. Mucosal SCC

C. Lymphoepithelioma-like carcinoma

D. Basal SCC

73. Which complication is most concerning in untreated SCC?

A. Local tissue invasion and bone destruction

 B. Immediate systemic failure

C. Cardiac arrhythmias

D. Renal failure

74. What is the importance of margin assessment in SCC surgery?

A. To determine if additional treatment is needed

B. It is not important

C. It helps in staging melanoma

D. It prevents infection

75. Which histologic finding is characteristic of invasive SCC?

A. Keratin pearl formation

B. Blue nevus cells

C. Palisading nuclei

D. Spindle cell arrangement

76. Which factor does NOT typically contribute to SCC risk?

A. UV exposure

B. Immunosuppression

C. Smoking

D. High fiber diet

77. What does “actinic keratosis” represent in relation to SCC?

A. An immediate form of SCC

B. A precursor lesion to SCC

C. Unrelated to SCC

D. A type of BCC
78. Which of the following treatments can be used for superficial SCC?

A. Cryotherapy

B. Systemic chemotherapy

C. Photodynamic therapy

D. Both A and C

79. Which molecular marker is often elevated in SCC lesions?

A. p53 mutations

B. BRAF mutations

C. CD20

D. HER2/neu

80. What is the role of radiation therapy in SCC management?

A. First-line treatment for all cases

B. Option for patients who are not surgical candidates

C. It is contraindicated

D. Used only in metastatic cases

81. Which of the following is a common complication of SCC surgery on the lip?

A. Nerve damage

B. Cosmetic disfigurement

C. Excessive bleeding

D. Metastatic spread

82. Which anatomical site is known for a more aggressive form of SCC?

A. Ear

B. Back
 C. Abdomen

D. Thigh

83. What is the significance of tumor thickness in SCC?

A. It correlates with metastasis risk

B. It determines skin color

C. It is unrelated to prognosis

D. It indicates genetic mutation

84. Which of the following statements is true regarding SCC?

A. It is less common than melanoma

B. It often arises from chronic sun damage

C. It never metastasizes

D. It is primarily a pediatric disease

85. Which lifestyle factor may exacerbate the risk of developing SCC?

A. Excessive alcohol consumption

B. High carbohydrate diet

C. Regular exercise

D. Adequate sleep

86. In SCC, what does “in situ” mean?

A. Invasion into the dermis

B. Confinement to the epidermis

C. Metastatic disease

D. Complete regression

87. Which of the following is an emerging treatment modality for advanced SCC?
 A. PD-1 inhibitors

B. Antibiotic therapy

C. Antifungal agents

D. Antiviral drugs

88. Which imaging technique is most commonly used to assess SCC metastasis?

A. PET scan

B. Ultrasound

C. X-ray

D. Endoscopy

89. What is a common symptom of SCC when located on the lip?

A. Pain and ulceration

B. Painless nodule

C. Hyperpigmentation only

D. No visible changes

90. Which of the following factors is important in determining the prognosis of SCC?

A. Tumor thickness and perineural invasion

B. Patient’s height

C. Eye color

D. Hair type

Kaposi’s Sarcoma (Questions 91–120)

91. Which virus is primarily associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A. Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)

B. Human papillomavirus (HPV)

 C. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

92. Kaposi’s sarcoma is most commonly seen in which patient population?

A. Immunocompetent children

B. Elderly men of Mediterranean descent

C. Immunosuppressed individuals

D. Adolescent females

93. Which type of Kaposi’s sarcoma is associated with AIDS?

A. Classic

B. Endemic

C. Iatrogenic

D. Epidemic (AIDS-related)

94. What is a common clinical presentation of Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A. Red or purple skin lesions

B. White, scaly plaques

C. Yellow nodules

D. Ulcerated pigmented lesions

95. Which of the following is a typical histological finding in Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A. Spindle cell proliferation with slit-like vascular spaces

B. Keratin pearls

C. Atypical melanocytes

D. Lymphocytic infiltrates only

96. What is the role of antiretroviral therapy in AIDS-related Kaposi’s sarcoma?

 A. It has no effect

B. It can lead to lesion regression

C. It worsens the disease

D. It only treats associated infections

97. Which of the following is considered a risk factor for Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A. HIV infection

B. UV exposure

C. Smoking

D. Human papillomavirus infection

98. Kaposi’s sarcoma lesions are typically found in which locations?

A. Extremities and mucous membranes

B. Scalp

C. Palms and soles exclusively

D. Nails

99. Which type of Kaposi’s sarcoma typically occurs in elderly men of Mediterranean descent?

A. Classic

B. Epidemic

C. Iatrogenic

D. Endemic

100. What is the primary treatment approach for localized Kaposi’s sarcoma lesions?

A. Surgical excision

B. Radiation therapy

C. Topical steroids
 D. Chemotherapy

101. Which of the following statements about Kaposi’s sarcoma is true?

A. It is highly metastatic

B. It is always fatal

C. It often follows a chronic course in immunocompetent patients

D. It does not affect the internal organs

102. What is the primary cell type involved in Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A. Endothelial cells

B. Keratinocytes

C. Melanocytes

D. Langerhans cells

103. Which of the following is a common systemic treatment option for advanced Kaposi’s
sarcoma?

A. Liposomal doxorubicin

B. Topical imiquimod

C. Cryotherapy

D. Surgical resection

104. Which clinical feature distinguishes Kaposi’s sarcoma from other vascular lesions?

A. Its color variation

B. Its association with HHV-8

C. Its rapid growth

D. Its tendency to ulcerate

105. What does the term “iatrogenic” refer to in the context of Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A. KS occurring in HIV patients

 B. KS resulting from organ transplant immunosuppression

C. KS in elderly patients

D. KS due to sun exposure

106. Which of the following is NOT typically associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A. Lymphedema

B. Angiogenesis

C. High metastatic rate

D. Immunosuppression

107. In Kaposi’s sarcoma, what is the significance of the HHV-8 virus?

A. It is the primary etiologic agent

B. It is incidental

C. It is a secondary infection

D. It only affects treatment options

108. Which of the following treatments has been shown to reduce the progression of Kaposi’s
sarcoma in AIDS patients?

A. Antiretroviral therapy

B. UV radiation

C. Topical antibiotics

D. Beta-blockers

109. Kaposi’s sarcoma lesions may involve which of the following organs?

A. Skin only

B. Gastrointestinal tract

C. Brain exclusively

D. Kidneys exclusively
110. Which characteristic is common in Kaposi’s sarcoma lesions?

A. Well-demarcated borders

B. Multifocal presentation

C. Uniform pigmentation

D. Rapid regression without treatment

111. What is the impact of improved immune function on Kaposi’s sarcoma in HIV-positive
patients?

A. No impact

B. Worsening of lesions

C. Regression of lesions

D. Induction of new lesions

112. Which demographic is most associated with endemic Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A. African populations in certain regions

B. Northern European populations

C. East Asian populations

D. South American populations

113. What is the common appearance of early Kaposi’s sarcoma lesions?

A. Flat, red patches

B. Raised, pigmented nodules

C. Scaly, white plaques

D. Ulcerated, necrotic areas

114. Which of the following best describes the progression of Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A. Rapid, widespread metastasis

B. Gradual progression with potential for local invasion

 C. Immediate fatality

D. Self-limiting and always resolving

115. Which treatment is often considered for disseminated Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A. Systemic chemotherapy

B. Topical steroids

C. Local cryotherapy

D. Laser removal

116. In the diagnosis of Kaposi’s sarcoma, which diagnostic method is crucial?

A. Skin biopsy

B. CT scan

C. MRI

D. Blood test alone

117. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the histology of Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A. Spindle cells and neovascularization

B. Keratin pearls

C. Atypical melanocytes

D. Lymphoid aggregates

118. What is the significance of immunohistochemistry in diagnosing Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A. To detect HHV-8 latent nuclear antigen

B. To detect BRAF mutations

C. To assess melanin production

D. To evaluate epidermal thickness

119. Which of the following statements about Kaposi’s sarcoma is false?

 A. It is associated with HHV-8 infection

B. It only affects the skin

C. It can involve mucosal sites

D. It is more aggressive in immunosuppressed patients

120. Which therapeutic agent is specifically approved for treating advanced Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A. Liposomal doxorubicin

B. Imiquimod

C. Retinoic acid

D. Beta interferon

Merkel Cell Carcinoma (Questions 121–150)

121. Which virus is most commonly associated with Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. Merkel cell polyomavirus (MCV)

B. Human papillomavirus (HPV)

C. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

D. Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)

122. Merkel cell carcinoma is best described as which type of tumor?

A. Melanocytic tumor

B. Neuroendocrine carcinoma

C. Squamous cell carcinoma

D. Basal cell carcinoma

123. Which population is at increased risk for Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. Young individuals with dark skin

B. Elderly individuals with fair skin

 C. Pediatric patients

D. Middle-aged individuals with dark skin

124. What is the typical clinical presentation of Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. Rapidly growing, painless, firm nodule

B. Slow-growing pigmented lesion

C. Ulcerated lesion with crusting

D. Red scaly patch

125. Which of the following is a common risk factor for Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. UV exposure

B. HPV infection

C. Tobacco use

D. Chronic chemical exposure

126. What is the significance of the high mitotic rate in Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. It indicates a benign process

B. It is associated with aggressive tumor behavior

C. It leads to increased melanin production

D. It is not clinically significant

127. Which immunohistochemical marker is most useful in diagnosing Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. CK20 in a dot-like pattern

B. S100 protein

C. HMB-45

D. CD20

128. What is the standard treatment for localized Merkel cell carcinoma?
 A. Wide local excision with sentinel lymph node biopsy

B. Topical chemotherapy

C. Radiotherapy alone

D. Cryotherapy

129. Which of the following features is characteristic of Merkel cell carcinoma histology?

A. Small blue round cells with scant cytoplasm

B. Spindle-shaped cells

C. Keratin pearls

D. Atypical melanocytes

130. Merkel cell carcinoma is known for its high rate of which clinical characteristic?

A. Local recurrence and metastasis

B. Spontaneous regression

C. Slow growth

D. Low mitotic activity

131. Which of the following is a common site for Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. Head and neck region

B. Lower extremities

C. Trunk

D. Palms

132. What is the role of immunotherapy in Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. It is ineffective

B. It can be used for advanced or metastatic disease

C. It is only used in pediatric patients

 D. It replaces surgery in all cases

133. Which of the following is NOT typically a risk factor for Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. Immunosuppression

B. UV exposure

C. Merkel cell polyomavirus infection

D. High-fiber diet

134. What is the most common initial symptom of Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. Pain

B. Pruritus

C. Asymptomatic nodule

D. Bleeding

135. Which of the following statements about Merkel cell carcinoma is true?

A. It is less aggressive than basal cell carcinoma

B. It has a high propensity for metastasis

C. It is primarily a pediatric cancer

D. It is not associated with UV exposure

136. Which diagnostic procedure is essential for confirming Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. Skin biopsy

B. Clinical examination alone

C. CT scan only

D. Ultrasound

137. Which of the following best describes the demographic most affected by Merkel cell
carcinoma?

A. Young adults
 B. Middle-aged women

C. Elderly men

D. Children

138. What does the term “sentinel lymph node biopsy” help determine in Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. Tumor grade

B. Lymphatic spread

C. UV exposure history

D. Viral load

139. Which of the following treatments is emerging as an option for advanced Merkel cell
carcinoma?

A. Immune checkpoint inhibitors

B. Topical imiquimod

C. Cryotherapy

D. Laser therapy

140. Merkel cell carcinoma often exhibits which pattern on CK20 staining?

A. Diffuse positivity

B. Perinuclear dot-like staining

C. Negative staining

D. Random patchy staining

141. Which of the following is a common prognostic factor in Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. Tumor size and nodal involvement

B. Patient’s hair color

C. Dietary habits

D. Geographic location
142. What is the role of radiation therapy in the management of Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. It is used as adjuvant treatment

B. It is the first-line treatment

C. It is contraindicated

D. It is used only in pediatric patients

143. Which of the following best describes Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. A benign skin lesion

B. An aggressive neuroendocrine tumor of the skin

C. A slow-growing inflammatory condition

D. A type of B-cell lymphoma

144. Which of the following is most important in reducing the risk of Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. UV protection and monitoring skin changes

B. High vitamin intake

C. Avoiding spicy foods

D. Regular exercise

145. Merkel cell carcinoma was first described in which decade?

A. 1970s

B. 1980s

C. 1990s

D. 2000s

146. Which of the following is the most common metastatic site for Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. Regional lymph nodes

B. Brain
 C. Gastrointestinal tract

D. Bone

147. What is the impact of immunosuppression on Merkel cell carcinoma risk?

A. It decreases risk

B. It increases risk

C. It has no effect

D. It cures the disease

148. Which of the following is a key factor in the poor prognosis of Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. Its rapid growth and early metastasis

B. Its benign nature

C. Its responsiveness to antibiotics

D. Its limited location

149. What is the role of sentinel lymph node biopsy in the staging of Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. To assess regional lymph node involvement

B. To determine the patient’s age

C. To diagnose viral infection

D. To measure tumor pigmentation

150. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Merkel cell carcinoma?

A. Neuroendocrine origin

B. High recurrence rate

C. Slow progression

D. Association with MCV

Answer Key
Melanoma (Questions 1–30):

1. A

2. B

3. B

4. A

5. B

6. B

7. A

8. B

9. A

10. B

11. B

12. B

13. B

14. B

15. D

16. C

17. A

18. C

19. B

20. B

21. A
22. C

23. B

24. B

25. C

26. D

27. B

28. B

29. A

30. C

Basal Cell Carcinoma (Questions 31–60):

31. B

32. B

33. C

34. A

35. A

36. A

37. A

38. C

39. B

40. B

41. A

42. B
43. B

44. B

45. C

46. A

47. A

48. C

49. A

50. C

51. B

52. B

53. B

54. B

55. A

56. B

57. A

58. C

59. B

60. A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma (Questions 61–90):

61. A

62. B

63. A
64. A

65. A

66. A

67. A

68. A

69. B

70. A

71. B

72. A

73. A

74. A

75. A

76. D

77. B

78. D

79. A

80. B

81. B

82. A

83. A

84. B

85. A

86. B
87. A

88. A

89. A

90. A

Kaposi’s Sarcoma (Questions 91–120):

91. A

92. C

93. D

94. A

95. A

96. B

97. A

98. A

99. A

100. B

101. C

102. A

103. A

104. B

105. B

106. C

107. A
108. A

109. B

110. B

111. C

112. A

113. A

114. B

115. A

116. A

117. A

118. A

119. B

120. A

Merkel Cell Carcinoma (Questions 121–150):

121. A

122. B

123. B

124. A

125. A

126. B

127. A

128. A
129. A

130. A

131. A

132. B

133. D

134. C

135. B

136. A

137. C

138. B

139. A

140. B

141. A

142. A

143. B

144. A

145. A

146. A

147. B

148. A

149. A

150. C