Er.

THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLE

The Best Coaching Institution in Tamilnadu
Chromepet, Chennai-44.

Er.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

A Unique place for Uniform Service.
Saidapet, Chennai-15.
Phone: 96266 99743/ 99650 54293.

PHYSICS

Book Back Questions

Samacheer book Questions

11th STD - 12th STD –

PHYSICS PHYSICS
Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

Book Back Questions

11th STD – PHYSICS

UNIT 1 - NATURE OF PHYSICAL WORLD AND

MEASUREMENT

1. One of the combinations from the fundamental physical constants is

hr/G. The unit of this expression is
(a) K (b) (c) (d)m

2. If the error in the measurement of radius is 2%, then the error in

the determination of volume of the sphere will be
a) 8% b) 2% c) 4% d) 6%
3. If the length and time period of an oscillating pendulum have errors
of 1% and 3% respectively then the error in measurement of
acceleration due to gravity is
a) 4% b) 5% c) 6% d) 7%
4. The length of a body is measured as 3.51 m, if the accuracy is
0.01m, then the percentage error in the measurement is
a) 351% b) 1% c) 0.28% d)0.035%
5. Which of the following has the highest number of significant
figures?
(a) 0.007 m2 (b) 2.64×1024kg

(c) 0.0006032 m2 (d) 6.3200 J

6. If π = 3.14, then the value of π2 is

a) 9.8596 b) 9.860 c) 9.86 d) 9.9
7. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities have same
dimension?
a) force and power b) torque and energy
c) torque and power d) force and torque
[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293
Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

8. The dimensional formula of Planck's constant h is

a)[ML2T-1] (b) [ML2T-3]

(c) [MLT1] (d) [ML3T-3]

9. The velocity of a particle v at an instant t is given by

V= at+bt2 . The dimensions of b is
(a) [L] (b) [LT-1] (c) [LT-2] (d) [LT-3]

10. The dimensional formula for gravitational constant G is

(a) [ML3T-2] (b) [M-1L3T-2]
(c) [M-1L-3T-2] (d) [ML-3 T-2]

11. The density of a material in CGS system of units is 4 g cm -3 . In a

system of units in which unit of length is 10 cm and unit of mass is
100 g, then the value of density of material will be
a) 0.04 b) 0.4 c) 40 d) 400
12. If the force is proportional to square of velocity, then the
dimension of proportionality constant is
(a) [MLT 0] (b) [MLT-1] (c) [ML2T] (d) [ML-1T0]

13. The dimension of ( .0 0)-1/2

(a) length (b) time (c) velocity (d) force

14. Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton’s
gravitational constant (G) are taken as three fundamental constants.
Which of the following combinations of these has the dimension of
length?
3/2 5/2
(a) √ (b) √
√ 3/2
(c) (d) √ √
√

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

Unit 2 Kinematics

I. Multi Choice Question

1. Which one of the following Cartesian coordinate systems is not followed
in physics?

Ans:D
2. Identify the unit vector in the following.
(a) ̂ + ̂ (b) ̂/√ (c) ̂̇ - ̂/√ (d) ̂+ ̂/√

3. Which one of the following physical quantities cannot be represented by a

scalar?
(a) Mass
(b) length
(c) momentum
(d) magnitude of acceleration

4. Two objects of masses m1 and m2 fall from the heights h1 and h2

respectively. The ratio of the magnitude of their momenta when they hit
the ground is

(a) √ (b) √ (c) √ (d)

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

5. If a particle has negative velocity and negative acceleration, its speed

(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains same (d) zero

6. If the velocity is ⃗⃗⃗ =2 ̂ + t ̂ - 9 ⃗ then the magnitude of acceleration at t

2

= 0.5 s is
(a) 1m s -2 (b) 2ms-2 (c) ZERO (d) -1ms-2

7. If an object is dropped from the top of a building and it reaches the

ground at t = 4 s , then the height of the building is (ignoring air
resistance) (g = 9.8 ms–2)
(a) 77.3m (b) 78.4m (c) 80.5m (d) 79.2m

8. A ball is projected vertically upwards with a velocity v. It comes back

to ground in time t. Which v-t graph shows the motion correctly?

Ans:C
9. If one object is dropped vertically downward and another object is
thrown horizontally from the same height, then the ratio of vertical
distance covered by both objects at any instant t is
(a) 1 (b)2 (c)4 (d) 0.5

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

10. A ball is dropped from some height towards the ground. Which
one of the following represents the correct motion of the ball?

Ans:A

11. If a particle executes uniform circular motion in the xy plane in

clock wise direction, then the angular velocity is in
(a) +y direction (b) +z direction
(c) -z direction (d) -x direction
12. If a particle executes uniform circular motion, choose the correct
statement
(a) The velocity and speed are constant.
(b) The acceleration and speed are constant.
(c) The velocity and acceleration are constant.
(d) The speed and magnitude of acceleration are constant.

13. If an object is thrown vertically up with the initial speed u from

the ground, then the time taken by the object to return back to
ground is
(a) (b) (c) (d)

14. Two objects are projected at angles 30° and 60° respectively with
respect to the horizontal direction. The range of two objects are
denoted as R300 and R600. Choose the correct relation from the
following

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

(a) R300= R600 (b) R300=4R600

(c) R300.= (d) R300= 2R600

15. An object is dropped in an unknown planet from height 50 m, it

reaches the ground in 2 s . The acceleration due to gravity in this
unknown planet is
(a) g= 20ms-2 (b) g= 25 ms-2
(c) g= 15ms-2 (d) g= 30 ms-2

Unit 3 Laws of Motion

I. Multiple Choice Questions

1. When a car takes a sudden left turn in the curved road, passengers
are pushed towards the right due to
(a) inertia of direction
(b) inertia of motion
(c) inertia of rest
(d) absence of inertia

2. An object of mass m held against a vertical wall by applying

horizontal force F as shown in the figure. The minimum value of the
force F is

(a) Less than mg

(b) Equal to mg
(c) Greater than mg
(d) Cannot determine
3. A vehicle is moving along the positive x direction, if sudden brake is
applied, then
(a) frictional force acting on the vehicle is along negative x direction
(b) frictional force acting on the vehicle is along positive x direction
(c) no frictional force acts on the vehicle
(d) frictional force acts in downward direction

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

4. A book is at rest on the table which exerts a normal force on the

book. If this force is considered as reaction force, what is the action
force according to Newton’s third law?
(a) Gravitational force exerted by Earth on the book
(b) Gravitational force exerted by the book on Earth
(c) Normal force exerted by the book on the table
(d) None of the above
5. Two masses m1 and m2 are experiencing the same force where
m1<m2. The ratio of their acceleration a1/a2 is
(a) 1 (b) less than 1
(c) greater than 1 (d) all the three cases
6. Choose appropriate free body diagram for the particle experiencing
net acceleration along negative y direction. (Each arrow mark
represents the force acting on the system).

Ans:C

7. A particle of mass m sliding on the smooth double inclined plane

(shown in figure) will experience

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

(a) greater acceleration along the path AB

(b) greater acceleration along the path AC
(c) same acceleration in both the paths
(d) no acceleration in both the paths.

8. Two blocks of masses m and 2m are placed on a smooth horizontal

surface as shown. In the first case only a force F1 is applied from
the left. Later only a force F2 is applied from the right. If the force
acting at the interface of the two blocks in the two cases is same,
then F1 : F2 is

A)1:1 B) 1:2 C) 2:1 D) 1:3

9. Force acting on the particle moving with constant speed is

(a) always zero
(b) need not be zero
(c) always non zero
(d) cannot be concluded

10. An object of mass m begins to move on the plane inclined at an

angle θ . The coefficient of static friction of inclined surface is ms.
The maximum static friction experienced by the mass is
a) mg b) µs mg c) µs mg sinθ d) µs mg cosθ

11. When the object is moving at constant velocity on the rough

surface,

(a) net force on the object is zero

(b) no force acts on the object
(c) only external force acts on the object
(d) only kinetic friction acts on the object

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

12. When an object is at rest on the inclined rough surface,

(a) static and kinetic frictions acting on the object is zero
(b) static friction is zero but kinetic friction is not zero
(c) static friction is not zero and kinetic friction is zero
(d) static and kinetic frictions are not zero

13. The centrifugal force appears to exist

(a) only in inertial frames
(b) only in rotating frames
(c) in any accelerated frame
(d) both in inertial and non-inertial frames

14. Choose the correct statement from the following

(a) Centrifugal and centripetal forces are action reaction pairs
(b) Centripetal forces is a natural force
(c) Centrifugal force arises from gravitational force
(d) Centripetal force acts towards the centre and centrifugal force
appears to act away from the centre in a circular motion

15. If a person moving from pole to equator, the centrifugal force

acting on him
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) increases and then decreases

Unit 4 Work, Energy and Power

I. Multiple Choice Questions

1. A uniform force of (2 ̂ + ̂ ) N acts on a particle of mass 1 kg. The
particle displaces from position 3 ̂ + k) m to 5 ̂ + 3 ̂) m. The work done
by the force on the particle is
(a) 9 J (b) 6 J (c) 10 J (d) 12 J

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

2. A ball of mass 1 kg and another of mass 2 kg are dropped from a

tall building whose height is 80 m. After, a fall of 40 m each towards
Earth, their respective kinetic energies will be in the ratio of
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
3. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m s −1. It
momentarily comes to rest after attaining a height of 18 m. How
much energy is lost due to air friction?. g = 10 ms -2
(a) 20 J (b) 30 J (c) 40 J (d) 10 J
4. An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves
the hose with a velocity v and m is the mass per unit length of the
water of the jet. What is the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted
to water ?
(a) mv3 (b) mv3 (c) mv2 (d) mv2

5. A body of mass 4 m is lying in xy-plane at rest. It suddenly explodes

into three pieces. Two pieces each of mass m move perpendicular to
each other with equal speed v. The total kinetic energy generated
due to explosion is
(a) mv2 (b) mv2 (c)2mv2 (d) 4 m v2

6. The potential energy of a system increases, if work is done

(a) by the system against a conservative force
(b) by the system against a non-conservative force
(c) upon the system by a conservative force
(d) upon the system by a non-conservative force

7. What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must

enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?
(a)√2gR (b)√3gR (c) √5gR (d) √Gr

8. The work done by the conservative force for a closed path is

(a) always negative
(b) zero
(c) always positive
(d) not defined

9. If the linear momentum of the object is increased by 0.1%, then the

kinetic energy is increased by
(a) 0.1 % (b) 0.2% (c) 0.4% (d) 0.01%

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

10. If the potential energy of the particle is _ _ _ 2 2 x, then force

experienced by the particle is
2
(a) F = x (b) F = x (c) F = - x (d) F = - x2

11. A wind-powered generator converts wind energy into electric

energy. Assume that the generator converts a fixed fraction of the
wind energy intercepted by its blades into electrical energy. For wind
speed v, the electrical power output will be proportional to
(a) v (b) v2 (c) v3 (D) v4

12. Two equal masses m1 and m2 are moving along the same straight
line with velocities 5ms-1 and -9ms-1 respectively. If the collision is
elastic, then calculate the velocities after the collision of m1 and m2,
respectively
(a) -4 ms-1 and 10 ms-1
(b) 10 ms-1- and 0 m s-1
(c) -9 m s-1 and 5 m s-1
(d) 5 m s-1 and 1 m s-1
13. A particle is placed at the origin and a force F = kx is acting on it
(where k is a positive constant). If U(0) = 0, the graph of U(x) versus x
will be (where U is the potential energy function)

Ans:c

14. A particle which is constrained to move along x-axis, is subjected

to a force in the same direction which varies with the distance x of
the particle from the origin as F(x)=-kx +ax3 Here, k and a are positive
constants. For x ≥ 0, the functional form of the potential energy U(x)
of the particle is

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

Ans:D
15. A spring of force constant k is cut into two pieces such that one
piece is double the length of the other. Then, the long piece will have
a force constant of
(a) k (b) k (c) 3k (d)6k

Unit 5 Motion of System of Particles and

Rigid Bodies

I. Multiple Choice Questions

1. The centre of mass of a system of particles does not depend upon,
a. position of particles
b. relative distance between particles
c. masses of particles
d. force acting on particle

2. A couple produces,
(a) pure rotation
(b) pure translation
(c) rotation and translation
(d) no motion

3. A particle is moving with a constant velocity along a line parallel to

positive X-axis. The magnitude of its angular momentum with
respect to the origin is,
[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293
Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

(a) zero
(b) increasing with x
(c) decreasing with x
(d) remaining constant

4. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius

40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is
pulled with a force 30 N?
(A) 0.25 rad S-2 (b) 25 rad S-2 (c) 5 m s-2 (d) 25 ms-2

5. A closed cylindrical container is partially filled with water. As the

container rotates in a horizontal plane about a perpendicular
bisector, its moment of inertia,
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) depends on direction of rotation.

6. A rigid body rotates with an angular momentum L. If its kinetic

energy is halved, the angular momentum becomes,
(a) L (b) L/2 (c) 2L (d) L/ 2

7. A particle undergoes uniform circular motion. The angular

momentum of the particle remain conserved about,
(a) the centre point of the circle.
(b) the point on the circumference of the circle.
(c) any point inside the circle.
(d) any point outside the circle.

8. When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular

momentum is directed along,
(a) a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation
(b) the line making an angle of 45° to the plane of rotation
(c) the radius
(d) tangent to the path

9. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular

axis passing through centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc
with angular velocities ω1 and ω2. They are brought in to contact

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The expression for loss of
energy during this process is,
(a) 1/4 I(w1−w2)2 (b) I(w1−w2)2 (c) 1/8 I(w1−w2)2 (d) 1/2 I(w1−w2)2

10. A disc of moment of inertia Ia is rotating in a horizontal plane

about its symmetry axis with a constant angular speed ω. Another
discinitially at rest of moment of inertia Ib is dropped coaxially on to
the rotating disc. Then, both the discs rotate with same constant
angular speed. The loss of kinetic energy due to friction in this
process is,

Ans:D
11. The ratio of the acceleration for a solid sphere (mass m and
radius R) rolling down an incline of angle θ without slipping and
slipping down the incline without rolling is,
(a) 5:7 (b)2:3 (c) 2:5 (d) 7:5
12. From a disc of radius R a mass M, a circular hole of diameter R,
whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of
inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis
passing through it
(a) 15MR2/32 (b) 13MR2/32 (c) 11MR2/32 (d)9MR2/32

13. The speed of a solid sphere after rolling down from rest without
sliding on an inclined plane of vertical height h is,

(a) √ gh (b)√10/7 gh (c) √2gh (d) √1/2 gh

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

14. The speed of the centre of a wheel rolling on a horizontal surface

is vo. A point on the rim in level with the centre will be moving at a
speed of speed of,
(a) zero (b) v0 (c) 2 v0 (d) 2v0

15. A round object of mass M and radius R rolls down without

slipping along an inclined plane. The frictional force,
(a) dissipates kinetic energy as heat.
(b) decreases the rotational motion.
(c) decreases the rotational and transnational motion
(d) converts transnational energy into rotational energy

Unit 6 Gravitation
1. The linear momentum and position vector of the planet is
perpendicular to each other at
(a) perihelion and aphelion (b) at all points
(c) only at perihelion (d) no point

2. If the masses of the Earth and Sun suddenly double, the

gravitational force between them will
(a) remain the same (b) increase 2 times
(c) increase 4 times (d) decrease 2 times

3. A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the Sun at

distance r1 and farthest away at a distance of r2 . If v1 and v2 are
linear speeds at these points respectively. Then the ratio =
(a) (b) ( )2 (c) ` (d)( )2
4. The time period of a satellite orbiting Earth in a cirular orbit is
independent of .
(a) Radius of the orbit
(b) The mass of the satellite
(c) Both the mass and radius of the orbit
(d) Neither the mass nor the radius of its orbit
[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293
Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

5. If the distance between the Earth and Sun were to be doubled from
its present value, the number of days in a year would be
(a) 64.5 (b) 1032 (c) 182.5 (d) 730
6. According to Kepler’s second law, the radial vector to a planet from
the Sun sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time. This law
is a consequence of
(a) conservation of linear momentum
(b) conservation of angular momentum
(c) conservation of energy
(d) conservation of kinetic energy
7. The gravitational potential energy of the Moon with respect to Earth
is
(a) always positive (b) always negative
(c) can be positive or negative (d) always zero
8. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun,
at positions A, B and C are KA, KB and KC respectively. AC is the
major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun
S as shown in the figure. Then

(a) Ka > Kb>Kc

(b) Kb < Ka <Kc
(c) Ka< Kb <Kc
(d) Kb > Ka >Kc
9. The work done by the Sun’s gravitational force on the Earth is
(a) always zero (b) always positive
(c) can be positive or negative (d) always negative
10. If the mass and radius of the Earth are both doubled, then the
acceleration due to gravity g'
(a) remains same (b) g/2 (c) 2g (d) 4g

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

11. The magnitude of the Sun’s gravitational field as experienced by

Earth is
(a) same over the year
(b) decreases in the month of January and increases in the
month of July
(c) decreases in the month of July and increases in the month of
January
(d) increases during day time and decreases during night time.

12. If a person moves from Chennai to Trichy, his weight

(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains same (d) increases and then decreases

13. An object of mass 10 kg is hanging on a spring scale which is

attached to the roof of a lift. If the lift is in free fall, the reading in
the spring scale is
(a) 98 N (b) zero (c) 49 N (d) 9.8 N

14. If the acceleration due to gravity becomes 4 times its original

value, then escape speed
(a) remains same (b) 2 times of original value
(c) becomes halved (d) 4 times of original value

15. The kinetic energy of the satellite orbiting around the Earth is
(a) equal to potential energy
(b) less than potential energy
(c) greater than kinetic energy
(d) zero

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

Unit 7 Properties of matter

1. Consider two wires X and Y. The radius of wire X is 3 times the

radius of Y. If they are stretched by the same load then the stress on
Y is
(a) equal to that on X (b) thrice that on X
(c) nine times that on X (d) Half that on X

2. If a wire is stretched to double of its original length, then the strain

in the wire is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

3. The load – elongation graph of three wires of the same material are
shown in figure. Which of the following wire is the thickest?

(a) wire 1 (b) wire 2

(c) wire 3 (d) all of them have same thickness

4. For a given material, the rigidity modulus is (1/3) of Young’s modulus.

Its Poisson’s ratio is
(a) 0 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.5

5. A small sphere of radius 2cm falls from rest in a viscous liquid. Heat
is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat
when the sphere attains its terminal velocity is proportional to
4 5
(a) 22 (b) 23 (c) 2 (d) 2

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

6. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same
volume. The area of cross sections of the first and the second wires
are A and 2A respectively. If the length of the first wire is increased
by ∆l on applying a force F, how much force is needed to stretch the
second wire by the same amount?
(a) 2 F (b) 4 F (c) 8 F (d) 16 F

7. With an increase in temperature, the viscosity of liquid and gas,

respectively will
(a) increase and increase
(b) increase and decrease
(c) decrease and increase
(d) decrease and decrease
8. The Young’s modulus for a perfect rigid body is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 0.5 (d) infinity
9. Which of the following is not a scalar?
(a) viscosity (b) surface tension
(c) pressure (d) stress
10. If the temperature of the wire is increased, then the Young’s
modulus will
(a) remain the same
(b) decrease
(c) increase rapidly
(d) increase by very a small amount
11. Copper of fixed volume V is drawn into a wire of length l. When
this wire is subjected to a constant force F, the extension produced
in the wire is ∆l. If Y represents the Young’s modulus, then which of
the following graphs is a straight line?
(a) ∆l versus V (b) ∆l versus Y
(c) ∆l versus F (d) ∆l versus 1/l
12. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius R
coalesce to form a single drop of radius R and volume V. If T is the
surface tension of the liquid, then
(a) energy = 4 V T ( - is released

(b) energy = 3 V T ( + is absorbed

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

(c) energy = 3 V T ( - is released

(d) energy is neither released nor absorbed

13. The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of
these will have the largest extension when the same tension is
applied?
(a) length=200 cm, diameter=0.5 mm
(b) length= 200 cm, diameter = 1 mm
(c) length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm
(d) length= 200 cm, diameter = 3 m
14. The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on
(a) viscosity
(b) surface tension
(c) density
(d) angle of contact between the surface and the liquid
15. In a horizontal pipe of non-uniform cross section, water flows
with a velocity of 1 m s-1 at a point where the diameter of the pipe is
20 cm. The velocity of water (1.5 m s-1) at a point where the
diameter of the pipe is (in cm)
(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 24 (d) 32

Unit 8 Heat and thermodynamics

I. Multiple choice questions:

1. In hot summer after a bath, the body’s
a) internal energy decreases
b) internal energy increases
c) heat decreases
d) no change in internal energy and heat
2. The graph between volume and temperature in Charles’ law is
a) an ellipse b) a circle
c) a straight line d) a parabola

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

3. When a cycle tyre suddenly bursts, the air inside the tyre expands.
This process is
a) isothermal b) adiabatic
c) isobaric d) isochoric
4. An ideal gas passes from one equilibrium state (P1 , V1 , T1 , N) to
another equilibrium state (2P1 , 3V1 , T2 , N). Then
(a) T1 = T2 (b) T1 = T2 /6 (c) T1 = 6T2 (d) T1 = 3T2

5. When a uniform rod is heated, which of the following quantity of the

rod will increase
a) mass b) weight
c) center of mass d) moment of inertia
6. When food is cooked in a vessel by keeping the lid closed, after some
time the steam pushes the lid outward. By considering the steam as
a thermodynamic system, then in the cooking process
(a) Q > 0, W > 0, (b) Q < 0, W > 0,
(c) Q > 0, W < 0, (d) Q < 0, W < 0,

7. When you exercise in the morning, by considering your body as

thermodynamic system, which of the following is true?
a) ΔU > 0, W > 0, b) ΔU < 0, W > 0,
c) ΔU < 0, W < 0, d) ΔU = 0, W > 0,

8. A hot cup of coffee is kept on the table. After some time it attains a
thermal equilibrium with the surroundings. By considering the air
molecules in the room as a thermodynamic system, which of the
following is true
a) ΔU > 0, Q = 0 b) ΔU > 0, W < 0
c) ΔU > 0, Q > 0 d) ΔU = 0, Q > 0

9. An ideal gas is taken from (Pi ,Vi ) to (Pf ,Vf ) in three different ways.
Identify the process in which the work done on the gas the most.

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

a) Process A
b) Process B
c) Process C
d) Equal work is done in Process A,B &C

10. The V-T diagram of an ideal gas which goes through a reversible
cycle A→B→C→D is shown below. (Processes D→A and B→C are
adiabatic)

The corresponding PV diagram for the process is (all figures

are schematic)

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

Ans: A
11. A distant star emits radiation with maximum intensity at 350
nm. The temperature of the star is
a) 8280 K b) 5000K c) 7260 K d) 9044K
12. Identify the state variables given here?
a) Q, T, W b) P, T, U
c) Q, W d) P, T, Q
[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293
Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

13. In an isochoric process, we have

a) W = 0 b) Q = 0 c) ∆U = 0 d) ∆T = 0

14. The efficiency of a heat engine working between the freezing point
and boiling point of water is
a) 6.25% b) 20% c) 26.8% d) 12.5%

15. An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at temperature −12°C. The

coefficient of performance of the engine is 5. The temperature of the
air (to which the heat ejected) is
a) 50°C b) 45.2°C c) 40.2°C d) 37.5°C

Unit 9 Kinetic theory of gases

1. A particle of mass m is moving with speed u in a direction which

makes 60° with respect to x axis. It undergoes elastic collision
with the wall. What is the change in momentum in x and y
direction?

(a) Δpx = −mu, Δpy = 0

(b) Δpx = −2mu, Δpy = 0
(c) Δpx = 0, Δpy = mu
(d) Δpx = mu, Δpy = 0

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

2. A sample of ideal gas is at equilibrium. Which of the following

quantity is zero?
(a) rms speed (b) average speed
(c) average velocity (d) most probable speed

3. An ideal gas is maintained at constant pressure. If the

temperature of an ideal gas increases from 100K to 10000K
then the rms speed of the gas molecules
(a) increases by 5 times (b) increases by 10 times
(c) remains same (d) increases by 7 times

4. Two identically sized rooms A and B are connected by an open

door. If the room A is air conditioned such that its temperature
is 4°C lesser than room B, which room has more air in it?
(a) Room A (b) Room B
(c) Both room has same air (d) Cannot be determined

5. The average translational kinetic energy of gas molecules

depends on
(a) number of moles and T (b) only on T
(c) P and T (d) P only

6. If the internal energy of an ideal gas U and volume V are

doubled then the pressure
(a) doubles (b) remains same
(c) halves (d) quadruples

7. The ratio γ = Cp/ Cv for a gas mixture consisting of 8 g of helium

and 16 g of oxygen is
(a) 23/15 (b) 15/23 (c) 27/17 (d) 17/27

8. A container has one mole of monoatomic ideal gas. Each

molecule has f degrees of freedom. What is the ratio of γ = Cp/ Cv
(a) f (b) f2 (c) f / f + 2 (d)
9. If the temperature and pressure of a gas is doubled the mean
free path of the gas molecules
(a) remains same (b) doubled
(c) tripled (d) quadrapoled

10. Which of the following shows the correct relationship between

the pressure and density of an ideal gas at constant
temperature?
[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293
Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

Ans:d

11. A sample of gas consists of μ1 moles of monoatomic molecules,

μ2 moles of diatomic molecules and μ3 moles of linear triatomic
molecules. The gas is kept at high temperature. What is the
total number of degrees of freedom?

(a) [3μ1 + 7( μ2 + μ3)] NA

(b) [3μ1 + 7 μ2 + 6μ3] NA
(c) [7μ1 + 3( μ2 + μ3)] NA
(d) [3μ1 + 6( μ2 + μ3)] NA

12. If sP and sV denote the specific heats of nitrogen gas per unit
mass at constant pressure and constant volume respectively,
then

(a) SP – SV = 28R (b) SP – SV = R/28

(c) SP – SV = R/14 (d) SP– SV = R

13. Which of the following gases will have least rms speed at a given
temperature?

(a) Hydrogen (b) Nitrogen

(c) Oxygen (d) Carbon dioxide

14. For a given gas molecule at a fixed temperature, the area under
the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution curve is equal to

(a) PV/ KT (b) kT/ PV (c) P / NkT (d) PV

15. The following graph represents the pressure versus number

density for ideal gas at two different temperatures T1 and T2 .
The graph implies

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

(a) T1 = T2 (b) T1 > T2

(c) T1 < T2 (d) Cannot be determined

Unit 10 Oscillations

I. Multiple Choice Questions

1. In a simple harmonic oscillation, the acceleration against

displacement for one complete oscillation will be

a) an ellipse b) a circle
c) a parabola d) a straight line

2. A particle executing SHM crosses points A and B with the same

velocity. Having taken 3 s in passing from A to B, it returns to B
after another 3 s. The time period is

a) 15 s b) 6 s c) 12 s d) 9 s

3. The length of a second’s pendulum on the surface of the Earth is

0.9 m. The length of the same pendulum on surface of planet X
such that the acceleration of the planet X is n times greater than
the Earth is

(a) 0.9n (b) (0 .9 /n) m

(c) 0.9 n2m (d) 0 9/ n2

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

4. A simple pendulum is suspended from the roof of a school bus

which moves in a horizontal direction with an acceleration a, then
the time period is
a) T∝1 g2+a2 b) T∝ 1 /√g2+a2
c) T∝√ 2+a2 d) T∝(g 2+a2)

5. Two bodies A and B whose masses are in the ratio 1:2 are
suspended from two separate massless springs of force constants
kA and kB respectively. If the two bodies oscillate vertically such
that their maximum velocities are in the ratio 1:2, the ratio of the
amplitude A to that of B is
(a) √ (b) √ (c) √ (d)√

6. A spring is connected to a mass m suspended from it and its time

period for vertical oscillation is T. The spring is now cut into two
equal halves and the same mass is suspended from one of the
halves. The period of vertical oscillation is
(a) T’= √ (b) T’= T/√ (c) T’=√ (d) T’= √

7. The displacement of a simple harmonic motion is given by

y(t) = A sin (ωt + ϕ) where A is amplitude of the oscillation, ω is the
angular frequency and ϕ is the phase. Let the amplitude of the
oscillation be 8cm and the time period of the oscillation is 24s. If
the displacement at initial time (t = 0s) is 4cm, then the
displacement at t = 6s is
(a) 8 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 4√ cm (d) 8√ cm
8. A simple pendulum has a time period T1 . When its point of
suspension is moved vertically upwards according as y = k t2 ,
where y is vertical distance covered and k = 1 ms−2, its time period
2 2
becomes T2 . Then, T1 /T2 is (g = 10 m s−2)
a) 5/6 b) 11/ 10 c) 6/5 d) 5/4

9. An ideal spring of spring constant k, is suspended from the ceiling

of a room and a block of mass M is fastened to its lower end. If the
block is released when the spring is un-stretched, then the
maximum extension in the spring is
a) 4 Mg/ k b) Mg/ k c) 2 Mg/ k d) Mg/ 2k

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

10. A pendulum is hung in a very high building oscillates to and fro

motion freely like a simple harmonic oscillator. If the acceleration of
the bob is 16 ms−2 at a distance of 4 m from the mean position,
then the time period is
a) 2 s b) 1 s c) 2πs (d) πs

11. A hollow sphere is filled with water. It is hung by a long thread. As

the water flows out of a hole at the bottom, the period of oscillation
will
a) first increase and then decrease
b) first decrease and then increase
c) increase continuously
d) decrease continuously
12. The damping force on an oscillator is directly proportional to the
velocity. The units of the constant of proportionality are
a) kg m s−1 b) kg m s−2 c) kg s−1 (d) kg s

13. Let the total energy of a particle executing simple harmonic motion
with angular frequency is 1 rad s–1 is 0.256J. If the displacement of
the particle at time t = π/2 s is 8 √ cm then the amplitude of
motion is
a) 8 cm b) 16 cm c) 32 cm d) 64 cm

14. A particle executes simple harmonic motion and displacement y at

time t 0 , 2t0 and 3t 0 are A, B and C, respectively. Then the value of
A+C 2B ∙ is
(a) cos ωt0 (b) cos 2ωt0 (c) cos 3ωt0 (d) 1

15. A mass of 3 kg is attached at the end of a spring moves with simple

harmonic motion on a horizontal frictionless table with time period
2π and with amplitude of 2m, then the maximum fore exerted on
the spring is
(a) 1.5 N (b) 3 N (c) 6 N (d) 12 N

Unit 11 Waves
[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293
Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

I. Multiple Choice Questions:

1. A student tunes his guitar by striking a 120 Hertz with a tuning

fork, and simultaneously plays the 4th string on his guitar. By keen
observation, he hears the amplitude of the combined sound
oscillating thrice per second. Which of the following frequencies is
the most likely the frequency of the 4th string on his guitar?

a) 130 b) 117 c) 110 d) 120

2. A transverse wave moves from a medium A to a medium B. In

medium A, the velocity of the transverse wave is 500 ms-1 and the
wavelength is 5 m. The frequency and the wavelength of the wave in
medium B when its velocity is 600 ms-1, respectively are

a) 120 Hz and 5 m
b) 100 Hz and 5 m
c) 120 Hz and 6 m
d) 100 Hz and 6 m

3. For a particular tube, among six harmonic frequencies below 1000

Hz, only four harmonic frequencies are given : 300 Hz, 600 Hz, 750
Hz and 900 Hz. What are the two other frequencies missing from
this list?.
a) 100 Hz, 150 Hz
b) 150 Hz, 450 Hz
c) 450 Hz, 700 Hz
d) 700 Hz, 800 Hz

4. Which of the following options is correct?

Options for (1), (2) and (3), respectively are

a) (B),(C) and (A)
b) (C), (A) and (B)
[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293
Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

c) (A), (B) and (C)

d) (B), (A) and (C)

5. Eqution of travelling wave on a stretched string of linear density 5

g/m is y = 0.03 sin(450t–9x), where distance and time are measured
in SI units. The tension in the string is

a) 5 N b) 12.5 N c) 7.5 N d) 10 N

6. A sound wave whose frequency is 5000 Hz travels in air and then

hits the water surface. The ratio of its wavelengths in water and air
is
a) 4.30 b) 0.23 c) 5.30 d) 1.23

7. A person standing between two parallel hills fires a gun and hears
the first echo after t 1 sec and the second echo after t 2 sec. The
distance between the two hills is
(a) (b) (c)V(t1+t2) (d)

8. An air column in a pipe which is closed at one end, will be in

resonance with the vibrating body of frequency 83Hz. Then the
length of the air column is
a) 1.5 m (b) 0.5 m (c) 1.0 m (d) 2.0 m

9. The displacement y of a wave travelling in the x direction is given by

y= (2 1 -3 )sin (300t -2x+ , where x and y are measured in metres and t
in second. The speed of the wave is
a) 150 ms-1 b) 300 ms-1 c) 450 ms-1 d) 600 ms-1

10. Consider two uniform wires vibrating simultaneously in their

fundamental notes. The tensions, densities, lengths and diameter of
the two wires are in the ratio 8 : 1, 1 : 2, x : y and 4 : 1 respectively.
If the note of the higher pitch has a frequency of 360 Hz and the
number of beats produced per second is 10, then the value of x : y
is
(a) 36 : 35 (b) 35 : 36 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2

11. Which of the following represents a wave

(a) (x - vt)3 (b) x(x+vt) (c) 1/ (xvt) (d) sin(x+vt)

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293
Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

12. A man sitting on a swing which is moving to an angle of 60° from

the vertical is blowing a whistle which has a frequency of 2.0 k Hz.
The whistle is 2.0 m from the fixed support point of the swing. A
sound detector which detects the whistle sound is kept in front of
the swing. The maximum frequency the sound detector detected is

(a) 2.027 kHz (b) 1.974 kHz (c) 9.74 kHz (d) 1.011 kHz

13. Let y = 1 /1+x2 at t = 0 s be the amplitude of the wave propagating

in the positive x-direction. At t = 2 s, the amplitude of the wave
propagating becomes y = 1/ 1+(x-2)2. Assume that the shape of the
wave does not change during propagation. The velocity of the wave
is
(a) 0.5m s-1 (b) 1.0m s-1 (c) 1.5m s-1 (d) 2.0m s-1

14. A uniform rope having mass m hangs vertically from a rigid

support. A transverse wave pulse is produced at the lower end.
Which of the following plots shows the correct variation of speed v
with height h from the lower end

Ans:D

15. An organ pipe A closed at one end is allowed to vibrate in its first
harmonic and another pipe B open at both ends is allowed to
vibrate in its third harmonic. Both A and B are in resonance with a
given tuning fork. The ratio of the length of A and B is

a) 8/3 b) 3/8 c) 1/6 d) 1/3

Book Back Questions

12th STD – PHYSICS

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

12th physics

Unit 1 Electrostatics

I Multiple choice questions

1. Two identical point charges of magnitude –q are fixed as shown in the

figure below. A third charge +q is placed midway between the two
charges at the point P. Suppose this charge +q is displaced a small
distance from the point P in the directions indicated by the arrows, in
which direction(s) will +q be stable with respect to the displacement?

(a) A1 and A2 (b) B1 and B2

(c) both directions (d) No stable

2. Which charge configuration produces a uniform electric field?

(a) point charge

(b) uniformly charged infinite line
(c) uniformly charged infinite plane
(d) uniformly charged spherical shell

3. What is the ratio of the charges | | for the following electric field line
pattern?

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

(a) 1 /5 (b) 25/ 11 (c) 5 (d) 11 /25

4. An electric dipole is placed at an alignment angle of 30o with an
electric field of 2 × 105 N C–1. It experiences a torque equal to 8 N m.
The charge on the dipole if the dipole length is 1 cm is

(a) 4 mC (b) 8 mC (c) 5 mC (d) 7 mC

5. Four Gaussian surfaces are given below with charges inside each
Gaussian surface. Rank the electric flux through each Gaussian
surface in increasing order.

(a) D < C < B < A (b) A < B = C < D

(c) C < A = B < D (d) D > C > B > A

6. The total electric flux for the following closed surface which is kept
inside water

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

(a) 80q / (b) q /40

(c) q/ 80 (d) q /160

7. Two identical conducting balls having positive charges q1 and q2 are

separated by a centre to centre distance r. If they are made to touch
each other and then separated to the same distance, the force
between them will be
(a) less than before (b) same as before
(c) more than before (d) zero

8. Rank the electrostatic potential energies for the given system of

charges in increasing order.

(a)1=4<2<3 (b) 2=4<3<1

(c)2=3<1<4 (d) 3<1<2<4

9. An electric field i exists in ̂ = 10x ̂ a certain region of space. Then

the potential difference V = Vo – VA, where Vo is the potential at the
origin and VA is the potential at x = 2 m is:
(a) 10 V (b) – 20 V (c) +20 V (d) – 10 V

10. A thin conducting spherical shell of radius R has a charge Q

which is uniformly distributed on its surface. The correct plot for
electrostatic potential due to this spherical shell

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

Ans :B

11. Two points A and B are maintained at a potential of 7 V and -4 V

respectively. The work done in moving 50 electrons from A to B is

(a) 8.80 × 10–17 J (b) -8.80 × 10–17 J

(c) 4.40 × 10–17 J (d) 5.80 × 10–17 J

12. If voltage applied on a capacitor is increased from V to 2V, choose

the correct conclusion.

(a) Q remains the same, C is doubled

(b) Q is doubled, C doubled
(c) C remains same, Q doubled
(d) Both Q and C remain same

13. A parallel plate capacitor stores a charge Q at a voltage V.

Suppose the area of the parallel plate capacitor and the distance
between the plates are each doubled then which is the quantity that
will change?
(a) Capacitance (b) Charge
(c) Voltage (d) Energy density

14. Three capacitors are connected in triangle as shown in the figure.

The equivalent capacitance between the points A and C is

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

(a)1 F (b)2 (c)3 (d) ¼

15. Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given charges of

–1 × 10–2 C and 5 × 10–2 C respectively. If these are connected by a
conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger sphere is
(a) 3 × 10-2 C (b) 4 × 10-2 C

(c) 1 × 10-2 C (d) 2 × 10-2 C

Unit 2 CURRENT ELECTRICITY

1. The following graph shows current versus voltage values of some

unknown conductor. What is the resistance of this conductor?

(a) 2 ohm (b) 4 ohm (c) 8 ohm (d)1 ohm

2. A wire of resistance 2 ohms per meter is bent to form a circle of

radius 1m. The equivalent resistance between its two diametrically
opposite points, A and B as shown in the figure is

(a) π Ω (b) Ω (c) 2πΩ (d) Ω

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

3. A toaster operating at 240 V has a resistance of 120 Ω. Its power is

a) 400 W b) 2 W c) 480 W d) 240 W

4. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7 ) k Ω to be marked with rings of

different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will
be
a) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
b) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
c) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
d) Green – Orange – Violet - Gold

5. What is the value of resistance of the following resistor?

(a)100 k Ω (b)10 k Ω (c) 1k Ω (d)1000 k Ω

6. Two wires of A and B with circular cross section are made up of the
same material with equal lengths. Suppose RA = 3 RB then what is the
ratio of radius of wire A to that of B?

(a) 3 (b) √3 (c) 1/√ 3 (d) 1/ 3

7. A wire connected to a power supply of 230 V has power dissipation

P1 . Suppose the wire is cut into two equal pieces and connected
parallel to the same power supply. In this case power dissipation is
P2 . The ratio is
(a)1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

8. In India electricity is supplied for domestic use at 220 V. It is

supplied at 110 V in USA. If the resistance of a 60W bulb for use in
India is R, the resistance of a 60W bulb for use in USA will be
(a) R (b) 2R (c) R/ 4 (d) R/ 2

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

9. In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of 40 W, 5 bulbs of 100 W, 5

fans of 80 W and 1 heater of 1kW are connected. The voltage of
electric mains is 220 V. The maximum capacity of the main fuse of
the building will be
(a) 14 A (b) 8 A (c) 10 A (d) 12 A

10. There is a current of 1.0 A in the circuit shown below. What is the
resistance of P ?

a) 1.5 Ω b) 2.5 Ω c) 3.5 Ω d) 4.5 Ω

11. What is the current drawn out from the battery?

a) 1A b) 2A c) 3A d) 4A

12. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire is 0.00125

per °C. At 20°C, its resistance is 1 Ω. The resistance of the wire will
be 2 Ω at

a) 800 °C b) 700 °C c) 850 °C d) 820 °C

13. The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2
A through a resistance of 10 Ω is
a) 0.2 Ω b) 0.5 Ω c) 0.8 Ω d) 1.0 Ω

14. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from

room temperature to 80 K. The resistance of
[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293
Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

a) each of them increases

b) each of them decreases
c) copper increases and germanium decreases
d) copper decreases and germanium increases

15. In Joule’s heating law, when R and t are constant, if the H is

taken along the y axis and I2 along the x axis, the graph is
a) straight line b) parabola
c) circle d) ellipse

Unit 3 Magnetism and magnetic effects of

electric current

I Multiple choice questions

1. The magnetic field at the centre O of the following current loop is

Ans:a

2. An electron moves in a straight line inside a charged parallel plate

capacitor of uniform charge density σ. The time taken by the
electron to cross the parallel plate capacitor undeflected when the
plates of the capacitor are kept under constant magnetic field of
induction

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

Ans:D

3. A particle having mass m and charge q accelerated through a

potential difference V. Find the force experienced when it is kept
under perpendicular magnetic field B.

(a)√ (b)√

(c) √ (d)√

4. A circular coil of radius 5 cm and 50 turns carries a current of 3

ampere. The magnetic dipole moment of the coil is nearly
(a) 1.0 A m2 (b) 1.2 A m2
(c) 0.5 A m2 (d) 0.8 A m2

5. A thin insulated wire forms a plane spiral of N = 100 tight turns

carrying a current I = 8 m A (milli ampere). The radii of inside and
outside turns are a = 50 mm and b = 100 mm respectively. The
magnetic induction at the centre of the spiral is
(a) 5 µT (b) 7 µT (c) 8 µT (d) 10 µT

6. Three wires of equal lengths are bent in the form of loops. One of the
loops is circle, another is a semi-circle and the third one is a square.
They are placed in a uniform magnetic field and same electric
current is passed through them. Which of the following loop
configuration will experience greater torque ?

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

(a) Circle (b) Semi-circle

(c) Square (d) All of them

7. Two identical coils, each with N turns and radius R are placed
coaxially at a distance R as shown in the figure. If I is the current
passing through the loops in the same direction, then the magnetic
field at a point P at a distance of R/2 from the centre of each coil is

Ans:b

8. A wire of length l carrying a current I along the Y direction is kept in

a magnetic field given by ⃗⃗⃗ = (̂ ⃗ ) T .The magnitude of
√
Lorentz force acting on the wire is

(a)√ (b) √ (c)√ (d) √

9. A bar magnet of length l and magnetic moment pm is bent in the

form of an arc as shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole moment
will be

(a) pm (b) pm (c) pm (d) pm

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

10. A non-conducting charged ring carrying a charge of q, mass m

and radius r is rotated about its axis with constant angular speed ω.
Find the ratio of its magnetic moment with angular momentum is
(a) q /m (b) 2q /m (c) q/ 2m (d) q /4m

11. The BH curve for a ferromagnetic material is shown in the figure.

The material is placed inside a long solenoid which contains 1000
turns/cm. The current that should be passed in the solenonid to
demagnetize the ferromagnet completely is B in tesla H in ampere
per metre

(a) 1.00 m A (b) 1.25 mA

(c) 1.50 mA (d) 1.75 mA

12. Two short bar magnets have magnetic moments 1.20 Am2 and
1.00 Am2 respectively. They are kept on a horizontal table parallel to
each other with their north poles pointing towards south. They have
a common magnetic equator and are separated by a distance of 20.0
cm. The value of the resultant horizontal magnetic induction at the
mid-point O of the line joining their centres is (Horizontal
components of Earth’s magnetic induction is 3.6 × 10–5 Wb m–2 )

((a) 3.60 × 10–5 Wb m–2 (b) 3.5 × 10–5 Wb m–2

(c) 2.56 × 10–4 Wb m–2 (d) 2.2 × 10–4 Wb m–2

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

13. The vertical component of Earth’s magnetic field at a place is

equal to the horizontal component. What is the value of angle of dip
at this place?
(a) 30o (b) 45o (c) 60o (d) 90o

14. A flat dielectric disc of radius R carries an excess charge on its

surface. The surface charge density is σ. The disc rotates about an
axis perpendicular to its plane passing through the centre with
angular velocity ω. Find the magnitude of the torque on the disc if it
is placed in a uniform magnetic field whose strength is B which is
directed perpendicular to the axis of rotation
(a)( 1 /4) σωπBR (b) (1/ 4) σωπBR2

(c) (1/ 4) σωπBR3 (d) (1/4) σωπBR4

15. The potential energy of magnetic dipole whose dipole moment is

m = −( -0.5 ) Am2 in uniform magnetic field , ⃗=02 T
(a) –0.1 J (b) –0.8 J
(c) 0.1 J (d) 0.8 J

Unit 4 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND

ALTERNATING CURRENT

I Multiple Choice Questions

1. An electron moves on a straight line path XY as shown in the

figure. The coil abcd is adjacent to the path of the electron. What
will be the direction of current, if any, induced in the coil?

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

(a) The current will reverse its direction as the electron goes past
the coil
(b) No current will be induced
(c) abcd
(d) adcb

2. A thin semi-circular conducting ring (PQR) of radius r is falling with

its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field B, as shown in the
figure.

The potential difference developed across the ring when its

speed v , is
a) Zero
(b) and P is at higher potential
(c) πrBv and R is at higher potential
(d) 2rBv and R is at higher potential

3. The flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by

ΦB = 10t2 -50 t + 250 . The induced emf at t = 3 s is

(a) −190 V (b) −10 V (c) 10 V (d) 190 V

4. When the current changes from +2A to −2A in 0.05 s, an emf of 8 V

is induced in a coil. The co-efficient of self-induction of the coil is

(a) 0.2 H (b) 0.4 H (c) 0.8 H (d) 0.1 H

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

5. The current i flowing in a coil varies with time as shown in the

figure. The variation of induced emf with time would be

Ans:a

6. A circular coil with a cross-sectional area of 4 cm2 has 10 turns. It

is placed at the centre of a long solenoid that has 15 turns/cm and
a cross-sectional area of 10 cm2 . The axis of the coil coincides with
the axis of the solenoid. What is their mutual inductance?

(a) 7.54 µH (b) 8.54 µH

(c) 9.54 µH (d) 10.54 µH

7. In a transformer, the number of turns in the primary and the

secondary are 410 and 1230 respectively. If the current in primary
is 6A, then that in the secondary coil is

(a) 2 A (b) 18 A (c) 12 A (d) 1 A

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

8. A step-down transformer reduces the supply voltage from 220 V to

11 V and increase the current from 6 A to 100 A. Then its efficiency
is
(a) 1.2 (b) 0.83 (c) 0.12 (d) 0.9

9. In an electrical circuit, R, L, C and AC voltage source are all

connected in series. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase
difference between the voltage and current in the circuit is π/ 3 .
Instead, if C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is
again π /3 . The power factor of the circuit is

(a) 1 /2 (b) 1/√ 2 (c) 1 (d) √3 /2

10. In a series RL circuit, the resistance and inductive reactance are

the same. Then the phase difference between the voltage and
current in the circuit is

(a) π/ 4 (b) π /2 (c)π/ 6 (d) zero

11. In a series resonant RLC circuit, the voltage across 100 Ω resistor
is 40 V. The resonant frequency ω is 250 rad/s. If the value of C is 4
µF, then the voltage across L is

(a) 600 V (b) 4000 V (c) 400V (d) 1 V

12. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 μF and a resistor 40Ω are

connected in series across a source of emf V = 10 sin 340 t. The
power loss in AC circuit is

(a) 0.76 W (b) 0.89 W (c) 0.46 W (d) 0.67 W

13. The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltage in a

circuit are i = (1 /√2) sin 100π A and v= (1/√
( sin100 πt+ π /3)V The average power in watts consumed in the
circuit is
(a)1 /4 (b) √3/ 4 (c) 1/ 2 (d) 1/ 8

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

14. In an oscillating LC circuit, the maximum charge on the

capacitor is Q. The charge on the capacitor when the energy is
stored equally between the electric and magnetic fields is

(a) Q/ 2 (b) Q/√ 3 (c) Q /√2 (d) Q

15. (20/ π2) H inductor is connected to a capacitor of capacitance C.

The value of C in order to impart maximum power at 50 Hz is

(a) 50 μF (b) 0.5 μF (c) 500 μF (d) 5 μF

Unit 5 Electromagnetic waves

I Multiple choice questions

1. The dimension of 1/ µ0 ε0 is
(a) [L T−1] (b) [L2 T−2]
(c) [L−1 T] (d) [L−2 T2 ]

2. If the amplitude of the magnetic field is 3 × 10−6 T, then amplitude of

the electric field for a electromagnetic waves is
(a) 100 V m−1 (b) 300 V m−1
(c) 600 V m−1 (d) 900 V m−1

3. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations is used for viewing

objects through fog
(a) microwave (b) gamma rays
(c) X- rays (d) infrared

4. Which of the following is false for electromagnetic waves

(a) transverse (b) non-mechanical waves
(c) longitudinal (d) produced by accelerating charges

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

5. Consider an oscillator which has a charged particle oscillating about

its mean position with a frequency of 300 MHz. The wavelength of
electromagnetic waves produced by this oscillator is
(a) 1 m (b) 10 m (c) 100 m (d) 1000 m

6. The electric and the magnetic fields, associated with an

electromagnetic wave, propagating along negative X axis can be
represented by

Ans:B

7. In an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space the rms value of

the electric field is 3 V m−1. The peak value of the magnetic field is
–8
(a)1.414 × 10 T (b) 1.0 × 10–8 T

(c) 2.828 × 10–8 T (d) 2.0 × 10–8 T

8. An e.m. wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity ̂.

The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this e.m. wave is along
+y-axis, then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the e.m.
wave will be along:

(a) –y direction (b) –x direction

(c) +z direction (d) –z direction

9. If the magnetic monopole exists, then which of the Maxwell’s

equation to be modified?

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

Ans :B

10. Fraunhofer lines are an example of _______ spectrum.

(a) line emission (b) line absorption
(c) band emission (d) band absorption

11. Which of the following is an electromagnetic wave?

(a) α - rays (b) β - rays
(c) γ - rays (d) all of them

12. Which one of them is used to produce a propagating

electromagnetic wave?
(a) an accelerating charge
(b) a charge moving with constant velocity
(c) a stationary charge
(d) an uncharged particle

13. If E = Eo sin [106 x -ωt]be the electric field of a plane electromagnetic

wave, the value of ω is
(a) 0.3 × 10–14 rad s–1 (b) 3 × 10–14 rad s–1
(c) 0.3 × 1014 rad s–1 (d) 3 × 1014 rad s–1

14. Which of the following is NOT true for electromagnetic waves?

(a) it transports energy
(b) it transports momentum
(c) it transports angular momentum
(d) in vacuum, it travels with different speeds which depend on
their frequency

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

15. The electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave are

(a) in phase and perpendicular to each other
(b) out of phase and not perpendicular to each other
(c) in phase and not perpendicular to each other
(d) out of phase and perpendicular to each other

Unit 6 ray optics

Multiple choice questions

1. The speed of light in an isotropi medium depends on,

(a) its intensity

(b) its wavelength

(c) the nature of propagation

(d) the motion of the source w.r.t medium

2. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave

mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that its end closer to the
pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is,

(a) 2.5 cm (b) 5cm (c) 10 cm (d) 15cm

3. An object is placed in front of a convex mirror of focal length of f and

the maximum and minimum distance of an object from the mirror
such that the image formed is real and magnified.

(a) 2f and c (b) c and ∞

(c) f and O (d) None of these

4. For light incident from air on a slab of refractive index 2, the

maximum possible angle of refraction is,

(a) 30o (b) 45o (c) 60o (d) 90o

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

5. If the velocity and wavelength of light in air is Va and λa and that in

water is Vw and λw, then the refractive index of water is,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6. Stars twinkle due to,
(a) reflection (b) total internal reflection
(c) refraction (d) polarisation

7. When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped

in a liquid, it acts as a plane sheet of glass. This implies that the
liquid must have refractive index,
(a) less than one
(b) less than that of glass
(c) greater than that of glass
(d) equal to that of glass

8. The radius of curvature of curved surface at a thin planoconvex lens

is 10 cm and the refractive index is 1.5. If the plane surface is
silvered, then the focal length will be,
(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm
(c) 15 cm (d) 20 cm

9. An air bubble in glass slab of refractive index 1.5 (near normal

incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one surface and 3 cm
deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness of the slab
is,
(a) 8 cm (b) 10 cm
(c) 12 cm (d) 16 cm

10. A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of refractive

index n falls, on a surface separating the medium from air at an
angle of incidents of 45o. The ray can undergo total internal
reflection for the following n,
(a) n = 1.25 (b) n = 1.33
(c) n = 1.4 (d) n = 1.5

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

Unit 7 wave optics

Multiple choice questions

1. A plane glass is placed over a various coloured letters (violet, green,

yellow,red) The letter which appears to be raised more is,
(a) red (b) yellow (c) green (d) violet

2. Two point white dots are 1 mm apart on a black paper. They are
viewed by eye of pupil diameter 3 mm approximately. The maximum
distance at which these dots can be resolved by the eye is, [take
wavelength of light, λ = 500 nm]
(a) 1 m (b) 5 m (c) 3 m (d) 6m

3. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, the slit separation is doubled.

To maintain the same fringe spacing on the screen, the screen-to-
slit distance D must be changed to,

(a) 2D (b) D/ 2 (c) √2D (d) D/√ 2

4. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are

superposed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the
resulting beam are
(a) 5I and I (b) 5I and 3I
(c) 9I and I (d) 9I and 3I
5. When light is incident on a soap film of thickness 5×10–5 cm, the
wavelength of light reflected maximum in the visible region is 5320
Å. Refractive index of the film will be,
(a) 1.22 (b) 1.33 (c) 1.51 (d) 1.83

6. First diffraction minimum due to a single slit of width 1.0×10–5 cm is

at 30o. Then wavelength of light used is,
(a) 400 Å (b) 500 Å
(c) 600 Å (d) 700 Å

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

7. A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle 60o. If the reflected

and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other,
the refractive index of the glass is,

(a) √3 (b) (c)√ (d) 2

8. One of the of Young’s double slits is covered with a glass plate as

shown in figure. The position of central maximum will,

(a) get shifted downwards (b) get shifted upwards

(c) will remain the same (d) data insufficient to conclude

9. Light transmitted by Nicol prism is,

(a) partially polarised (b) unpolarised
(c) plane polarised (d) elliptically polarised

10. The transverse nature of light is shown in,

(a) interference (b) diffraction
(c) scattering (d) polarisation

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

Unit 8 dual nature of radiation

and mat ter

I Multiple Choice Questions

1. The wavelength λe of an electron and λp of a photon of same

energy E are related by

Ans :d

2. In an electron microscope, the electrons are accelerated by a

voltage of 14 kV. If the voltage is changed to 224 kV, then the de
Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would
a) increase by 2 times
b) decrease by 2 times
c) decrease by 4 times
d) increase by 4 times

3. The wave associated with a moving particle of mass 3 × 10–6 g

has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a velocity
6 ×106 m s-1 . The velocity of the particle is
a) 1. 82 10 -18 m s-1 b) 9 10 -2m s-1
c) 3 10 -31m s-1 d) 1. 82 10- 15 m s-1

4. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of

wavelength λ , the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is
illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ , the stopping
potential is V/4 . The threshold wavelength for the
metallic surface is
a) 4λ b) 5λ c) λ d) 3λ
[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293
Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

5. If a light of wavelength 330 nm is incident on a metal with work

function 3.55 eV, the electrons are emitted. Then the wavelength
of the wave associated with the emitted electron is (Take
h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
a) < 2 .75 10- 9 m b) ≥ 2.75 10- 9 m
c) ≤ 2. 75 10 -12 m d) < 2.5 10 -10 m

6. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively

monochromatic light of wavelength λ and λ/2 . If the maximum
kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is
3 times that in the first case, the work function of the material is

a) (b) (c) (d)

7. In photoelectric emission, a radiation whose frequency is 4 times

threshold frequency of a certain metal is incident on the metal.
Then the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will
be

Ans:B

8. Two radiations with photon energies 0.9 eV and 3.3 eV

respectively are falling on a metallic surface successively. If the
work function of the metal is 0.6 eV, then the ratio of maximum
speeds of emitted electrons in the two cases will be
a) 1:4 b) 1:3 c) 1:1 d)1:9

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

9. A light source of wavelength 520 nm emits 1.04 × 1015 photons

per second while the second source of 460 nm produces 1.38 ×
1015 photons per second. Then the ratio of power of second
source to that of first source is
a) 1.00 b) 1.02 c) 1.5 d) 0.98

10. If the mean wavelength of light from sun is taken as 550 nm and
its mean power as 3.8 × 1026W, then the number of photons
emitted per second from the sun is of the order of
a) 1045 b) 1042 c) 1054 d) 1051

11. The threshold wavelength for a metal surface whose photoelectric

work function is 3.313 eV is
a) 4125Å b) 3750 Å
c) 6000 Å d) 2062 5. Å

12. A light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a sensitive metal

plate of photoelectric work function 1.235 eV. The kinetic energy
of the photo electrons emitted is (Take h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
a) 0.58 eV b) 2.48 eV
c) 1.24 eV d) 1.16 eV
13. Photons of wavelength λ are incident on a metal. The most
energetic electrons ejected from the metal are bent into a circula
arc of radius R by a perpendicular magnetic field having
magnitude B. The work function of the metal is

Ans:D

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

14. The work functions for metals A, B and C are 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV
and 5.0 eV respectively. The metal/metals which will emit
photoelectrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are
a) A only b) both A and B
c) all these metals d) none

15. Emission of electrons by the absorption of heat energy is

called.........emission.
a) photoelectric b) field
c) thermionic d) secondary

Unit 9 Atomic and Nuclear physics

I Multiple Choice Questions

1. Suppose an alpha particle accelerated by a potential of V volt is

allowed to collide with a nucleus of atomic number Z, then the
distance of closest approach of alpha particle to the nucleus is

Ans:B

2. In a hydrogen atom, the electron revolving in the fourth orbit, has

angular momentum equal to
(a) h (b) h/ π (c) 4h/ π (d) 2h/ π

3. Atomic number of H-like atom with ionization potential 122.4 V for

n = 1 is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

4. The ratio between the radius of first three orbits of hydrogen atom is

(a) 1:2:3 (b) 2:4:6 (c) 1:4:9 (d) 1:3:5

5. The charge of cathode rays particle is

(a) positive (b) negative
(c) neutral (d) not defined

6. In J.J. Thomson e/m experiment, electrons are accelerated through

2.6 kV enter the region of crossed electric field and magnetic field of
strength 3.0 × 104 Vm–1 and 1.0 × 10–3 T, respectively, and pass
through it and undeflected, then the specific charge is
(a) 1.6 × 1010 Ckg–1 (b) 1.7 × 1011 Ckg–1
(c) 1.5 × 1011 Ckg–1 (d) 1.8 × 1011 Ckg–1

7.The ratio of the wavelengths radiation emitted for the transition from
n =2 to n = 1 in Li++, He+ and H is
(a)1: 2: 3 (b) 1: 4: 9
(c) 3:2:1 (d) 4: 9: 36

8.The electric potential of an electron is given by V= V0 ln ( ln , where

r0 is a constant. If Bohr atom model is valid, then variation of radiu
of nth orbit rn with the principal quantum number n is

Ans:B

9.If the nuclear radius of 27Al is 3.6 fermi, the approximate nuclear
radius of 64Cu in fermi is
(a) 2.4 (b) 1.2 (c) 4.8 (d)3.6

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

10. The nucleus is approximately spherical in shape. Then the

surface area of nucleus having mass number A varies as

(a) A2/3 (b) A2/3 (c) A 1/3 (d) A 5/3

11. The mass of a 3 Li7 nucleus is 0.042 u less than the sum of the
masses of all its nucleons. The average binding energy per nucleon
of 3 Li7 nucleus is nearly
(a) 46 MeV (b) 5.6 MeV
(c) 3.9MeV (d)23 MeV

12. M p denotes the mass of the proton and Mn denotes mass of a

neutron. A given nucleus of binding energy B, contains Z proton and
N neutrons. The mass M(N,Z) of the nucleus is given by(where c is
the speed of light)

Ans:C

13. A radioactive nucleus (initial mass number A and atomic number

Z) emits two α-particles and 2 positrons. The ratio o number of
neutrons to that of proton in the final nucleus will be

(a) (b) (C) (d)

14. The half-life period of a radioactive element A is same as the mean

life time of another radioactive element B. Initially both have the
same number of atoms. Then
(a) A and B have the same decay rate
initially
(b) A and B decay at the same rate always
(c) B will decay at faster rate than A
(d) A will decay at faster rate than B.

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

15. A radiative element has N0 number of nuclei at t=0. The number

of nuclei remaining after half of a half-life (that is, at time t = T 1/ 2 )

(a) (b) (c) (d)

√

Unit 10 electronics and Communication

I. Multiple choice questions

1. The barrier potential of a silicon diode is approximately,

a) 0.7 V b) 0.3V c) 2.0 V d) 2.2V

2. If a small amount of antimony (Sb) is added to germanium crystal,

a) it becomes a p-type semiconductor
b) the antimony becomes an acceptor atom
c) there will be more free electrons than hole in the
semiconductor
d) its resistance is increased

3. In an unbiased p-n junction, the majority charge carriers (that is,

holes) in the p-region diffuse into n-region because of

a) the potential difference across the p-n junction

b) the higher hole concentration in p-region than that in n-region
c) the attraction of free electrons of n-region
d) All of the above

4. If a positive half –wave rectified voltage is fed to a load resistor, for

which part of a cycle there will be current flow through the load?

a) 00 –900 b) 900 –1800 c) 00 –1800 d) 00 –3600

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

5. The zener diode is primarily used as

a) Rectifier b) Amplifier
c) Oscillator d) Voltage regulator

6. The principle based on which a solar cell operates is

a) Diffusion b) Recombination
c) Photovoltaic action d) Carrier flow

7. The light emitted in an LED is due to

a) Recombination of charge carriers

b) Reflection of light due to lens action
c) Amplification of light falling at the junction
d) Large current capacity.

8. The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on i) type of

semiconductor material ii) amount of doping iii) temperature. Which
one of the following is correct?

a) (i) and (ii) only b) (ii) only

c) (ii) and (iii) only d) (i) (ii) and (iii)

9. To obtain sustained oscillation in an oscillator,

a) Feedback should be positive

b) Feedback factor must be unity
c) Phase shift must be 0 or 2π
d) All the above

10. If the input to the NOT gate is A = 1011, its output is

a) 0100 b) 1000 c) 1100 d) 0011

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

11. Which one of the following represents forward bias diode?

Ans:A
12. The given electrical network is equivalent to

a) AND gate b) OR gate

c) NOR gate d) NOT gate

13. The output of the following circuit is 1 when the input ABC is

(a)101 b) 100 c) 110 d) 010

14. The variation of frequency of carrier wave with respect to the
amplitude of the modulating signal is called
a) Amplitude modulation
b) Frequency modulation
c) Phase modulation
d) Pulse width modulation

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

15. The frequency range of 3 MHz to 30 MHz is used for

a) Ground wave propagation
b) Space wave propagation
c) Sky wave propagation
d) Satellite communication

Unit 11 Recent developments in physics

I Multiple Choice Questions

1. The particle size of ZnO material is 30 nm. Based on the

dimension it is classified as
a) Bulk material b) Nanomaterial
c) Soft material d) Magnetic material

2. Which one of the following is the natural nanomaterial.

a) Peacock feather b) Peacock beak
c) Grain of sand d) Skin of the Whale

3. The blue print for making ultra durable synthetic material is

mimicked from
a) Lotus leaf b) Morpho butterfly
c) Parrot fish d) Peacock feather
4. The method of making nanomaterial by assembling the atoms is
called
a) Top down approach b) Bottom up approach
c) Cross down approach d) Diagonal approach
5. “Ski wax” is an application of nano product in the field of
a) Medicine b) Textile
c) Sports d) Automotive industry

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293

Er.THANGAMUTHU STUDY CIRCLEEr.THANGAMUTHU IPS ACADEMY

6. The materials used in Robotics are

a) Aluminium and silver
b) Silver and gold
c) Copper and gold
d) Steel and aluminium

7. The alloys used for muscle wires in Robots are

a) Shape memory alloys
b) Gold copper alloys
c) Gold silver alloys
d) Two dimensional alloys
8. The technology used for stopping the brain from processing pain
is
a) Precision medicine
b) Wireless brain sensor
c) Virtual reality
d) Radiology

9. The particle which gives mass to protons and neutrons are

a) Higgs particle b) Einstein particle

c) Nanoparticle d) Bulk particle

10. The gravitational waves were theoretically proposed by

a) Conrad Rontgen b) Marie Curie

c) Albert Einstein d) Edward Purcell

[email protected]Phone: 96266 99743/ 9965054293