PREFIT 2025

HISTORY FULL TEST

TEST 48 - EXPLANATION

1. Consider the following:

1. In the 1907 Congress session, the Moderates proposed Dadabhai Naoroji as the president, while the
Extremists preferred either Tilak or Lajpat Rai for the position.
2. In the 1906 congress session, the goal of the Indian National Congress (INC) was defined as swarajya or
self-government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
At the Calcutta session of the Congress in December 1906, the Moderate enthusiasm had cooled a bit because
of the popularity of the Extremists and the revolutionaries and because of communal riots. Here, the
Extremists wanted either Tilak or Lajpat Rai as the president, while the Moderates proposed the name of
Dadabhai Naoroji, who was widely respected by all the nationalists. Finally, Dadabhai Naoroji was elected as
the president and as a concession to the militants, the goal of the Indian National Congress was defined as
‘swarajya or self-government’. So, Option (b) is correct.

2. In which session the following resolutions was first passed?

1. Favoring of boycott
2. National Education
3. Swadeshi
Select the correct option using the codes given below:
(a) Lahore session 1909
(b) Banaras session 1905
(c) Calcutta session 1906
(d) Bombay session 1904
EXPLANATION:
At the Calcutta session of the Congress in December 1906, Dadabhai Naoroji was elected president. As a
concession to the militants, the goal of the Indian National Congress was defined as ‘swarajya or self-
government’, like the United Kingdom or the colonies of Australia and Canada. Also, a resolution supporting
the Swadeshi programme, boycott, and national education was passed.
The Extremists, encouraged by the proceedings at the Calcutta session, called for wide passive resistance
and boycott of schools, colleges, legislative councils, municipalities, law courts, etc. So, Option (c) is correct.

3. In the context of Schools of sculpture, consider the following statements :

1. Gandhara school used bluish-grey sandstone, whereas Mathura school used spotted red sandstone.
2. Gandhara sculptures depict the life stories of Buddha and the Jataka tales.
3. Mathura school developed indigenously and had a role in all three religious sculptures, unlike
Gandhara.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Gandhara region was situated in the northwestern part of the Indian Subcontinent. The Greeks,
Mauryas, Sungas, Shakas, and Kushanas successively ruled this region. The stone used for making idols of
Buddha and Bodhisattva was predominantly blue-grey schist. The combination of the Greek and Indian styles
formed the Gandhara School of art.
Mathura school of art used red spotted sandstone as material for sculptural art. Mathura art refers to a
particular school of Buddhist art, which centered on the city of Mathura, in central northern India, during
the period in which Buddhism flourished in India. The Mathura artists used a local red stone with black
spots to make the images. Mathura has also yielded large numbers of sculptures of Jaina deities besides the
ayagapatas or stone slabs to place objects of worship.
Thus, the Gandhara school of art used bluish Grey and grey sandstone, whereas the Mathura school used
spotted red sandstone. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Gandhara school of art developed around the beginning of the Christian era was Graeco-Roman, Indo
Greek or Graeco-Buddhist and has all the influences-Roman, of Greek and Indian. The sculptures' theme is
predominantly Buddhist, but their style is Greek. Buddha is depicted with a garment draped in Graeco-
Roman fashion and with very curly hair.
The Amravati school of art flourished in the region of Andhra Pradesh between the lower valleys of rivers
Krishna and Godavari. The main patrons of this art form were the Satavahans. The Amravati school of art
sculptures often depict the thematic representations of stories from the life of the Buddha and the Jataka
tales, i.e., the former lives of Buddha in both human and animal [Link], Statement 2 is not correct.
The Mathura School of Art was developed on the banks of the River Yamuna in Mathura and nearby areas.
It is influenced by three religions, Hinduism, Jainism and Buddhism, and has been indigenously developed.
Mathura has also yielded large numbers of sculptures of Jaina deities besides the ayagapatas or stone slabs
to place objects of worship. The Brahmanical influence on the art school of Mathura is also evident. During
the Kushana period, a number of sculptures of Brahmanical deities were carved, which included Kartikeya,
Vishnu, and Kubera.
The Gandhara school of art was influenced by the theme of the sculptures is predominantly Buddhist, but
their style is Greek. Chief characteristics of the Gandhara school of art lie in its beautiful portrayal of human
figures with distinguished body muscles. Buddha is depicted with a garment draped in Graeco-Roman
fashion and with very curly hair. These beautiful images of the Buddha are ranked among the best pieces of
sculpture. So, Statement 3 is correct.

4. With reference to Sikh Gurus, which of the following statement is true ?

(a) Guru Nanak Dev started Guru Ka Langar where food is served without discrimination
(b) The first Sikh martyr Guru Arjan Dev was executed by Aurangzeb
(c) Guru Tegh Bahadur Sahib was the last Sikh Guru in human form
(d) Guru Nanak Dev was the contemporary of the Mughal emperor Akbar
EXPLANATION:
➢ Guru Nanak received his early education in Sanskrit and Persian. In 1496, he had an extraordinary
spiritual experience (enlightment), after which he travelled extensively to spread the message of love and
brotherhood.
➢ He was accompanied by a Muslim musician Mardanaji and a Hindu peasant Bhai Bala. The three went
from one village to another for preaching.
➢ Guru Nanak preached through kirtans, bhajans and ragas and people flocked to listen to him. He spent
the last years of his life with his family in the village of Kartarpur.
➢ His hymns and songs were compiled in a book called the Adi Granth.
 ➢ He established sangats (people sitting together to listen to the Guru) and pangats (people eating together
in langar (Guru-Ka-Langar) or free kitchen).
So, Option (a) is correct.

5. Consider the following :

[Link]. Newspaper Founder
1. Bombay Chronicle - S.A. Dange
2. East Indian - Henry v derozio
3. Sambad kaumudi - Dwaraknath Tagore
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Bombay Chronicle was an English-language newspaper published from Mumbai (then Bombay), started in
1910 by Sir Pherozeshah Mehta (1845-1915), a prominent lawyer who later became the president of the
Indian National Congress in 1890 and a member of the Bombay Legislative Council in 1893. J. B. Petit had
assisted Mehta in launching the newspaper and later went on to control the Indian Daily Mail. From 1913 to
1919, it was edited by B. G. Horniman. It was an important Nationalist newspaper of its time and an
important chronicler of the political upheavals of a volatile pre-independent India. The newspaper closed
down in 1959. So, Pair (1) is not correct.
Henry Louis Vivian Derozio - A journalist who contributed verse to the India Gazette and brought out a book
of English poetry, The Fakeer of Jungheera, in 1828, Derozio by that year had joined Hindu College (founded
in 1817, now Presidency College), Calcutta. Institutional outrage at his charismatic and radical, or rather
open-minded, teaching caused him to resign in 1831. Today, the college auditorium is called Derozio Hall.
He then established the East Indian daily newspaper but died shortly afterwards, on December 26, 1831, of
cholera. So, Pair (2) is correct.
On December 4, 1821, Raja Rammohan Roy launched a weekly newspaper named Sambad Kaumudi. It
became a prominent presence in India's newspaper landscape and remained in publication until 1834.
Sambad Kaumudi fervently championed progressive values and openly opposed bigotry and superstitions.
The newspaper was not only at the forefront of the movement to abolish sati-daha (co-death) but also
advocated for numerous other significant causes that have left a lasting mark on history. Sambad Kaumudi
also called for access to education for the masses under the guidance of European educators and spoke out
against British oppression based on caste. So, Pair (3) is not correct.

6. Consider the following statements :

Statement I :
The post-Mauryan age between 200 BC and 200 AD is referred to as the dark age of India.
Statement II :
Trade and commerce were affected, resulting in almost no economic progress.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation
of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
EXPLANATION:
The post-Mauryan period is the period that starts from 200 BC- to 300 AD.
The time between the end of the Mauryas (the fall of the Kushanas) to the rise of the Guptas, i.e., from BC
200 and 300 AD, was called the Dark Ages; the period is characterized as the dark period of the Indian sub-
continent because this period witnessed the end of political unification of imperial Maurya's. In these five
hundred years, there is not only the rise of multiple political powers in different parts of the subcontinent
but also the introduction of new features in art, architecture and religion.
The disintegration of the Mauryan empire led to the rise of many regional kingdoms in different parts of the
country. At the same time, there exists an invasion of various groups based in Central Asia and western
China—indo-Greeks, the Scythians or the Shakas, the Parthians or the Pahlavas and the Kushanas. Hence,
Statement I is true.
The most important economic development of the period was the thriving trade between India and the eastern
Roman Empire. Although the trade volume between India and Rome seems to have been large, it was not
carried on in articles of daily use for the common people. There was brisk commerce in luxury goods,
sometimes articles of aristocratic necessities.
The most important feature of the post-Mauryan period was the growth of trade and commerce, both
internally and externally. There were two major internal land routes in ancient India.
An important feature of commercial activities in the post-Mauryan period was the thriving trade between
India and the West, where the Roman empire was at its height.
Kushana's vast empire helped in the growth of internal and external trade. It resulted in the rise of new urban
centers. The rich state of the economy under the Kushanas is also evidenced by the large number of gold and
copper coins they struck. The political significance of Kanishka's rule lies in the fact that he integrated central
Asia with north India as part of a single empire. It resulted in the intermingling of different cultures and an
increase in inter-regional trading activities. Hence, Statement II is false. So, Option (c) is correct.

7. Consider the following statements with reference to the Early Traditions of Bhakti in South India:
1. One of the major themes in Tamil bhakti hymns is the opposition to Buddhism and Jainism.
2. The visions of the Nayanar saints inspired artists made the spectacular representations of Shiva in
bronze sculpture.
3. The Lingayats accepted the Brahmanical ideas of caste and the untouchability of certain groups.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
From the second half of the first millennium there is evidence for states, including those of the Pallavas and
Pandyas (c. sixth to ninth centuries CE).
While Buddhism and Jainism had been prevalent in this region for several centuries, drawing support from
merchant and artisan communities, these religious traditions received occasional royal patronage.
Interestingly, one of the major themes in Tamil bhakti hymns is the poets’ opposition to Buddhism and
Jainism. This is particularly marked in the compositions of the Nayanars. Historians have attempted to
explain this hostility by suggesting that it was due to competition between members of other religious
traditions for royal patronage. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Some of the most magnificent Shiva temples, including those at Chidambaram, Thanjavur and
Gangaikondacholapuram, were constructed under the patronage of Chola rulers. This was also the period
when some of the most spectacular representations of Shiva in bronze sculpture were produced. Clearly, the
visions of the Nayanars inspired artists. So, Statement 2 is correct.
 The Lingayats challenged the idea of caste and the “pollution” attributed to certain groups by Brahmanas.
They also questioned the theory of rebirth. These won them followers amongst those who were marginalised
within the Brahmanical social order. The Lingayats also encouraged certain practices disapproved in the
Dharmashastras, such as post-puberty marriage and the remarriage of widows. So, Statement 3 is not
correct.

8. With reference to ancient Indian history, consider the following pairs:

[Link]. (Literary work) (Author)
1. Panch Siddhantika - Aryabhatta
2. Khandakhadyaka - Varahamihira
3. Surya Siddanta - Brahmagupta
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Varahamihira was an Indian philosopher, astronomer, and mathematician, a compendium of Greek,
Egyptian, Roman, and Indian astronomy. Varahamihira was the author of the Pancha-siddhantika ("Five
Treatises"), which gives the summary of five schools of astronomy present in his time.
Varahamihira's knowledge of Western astronomy was thorough. In five sections, his monumental work
progresses through native Indian astronomy. It culminates in two treatises on Western astronomy, showing
calculations based on Greek and Alexandrian reckoning and even giving complete Ptolemaic mathematical
charts and tables. So, Pair (1) is not correct.
Khandakhadyaka is an astronomical treatise written by Indian mathematician and astronomer Brahmagupta
in 665 AD. The treatise contains eight chapters covering such topics as the longitudes of the planets, diurnal
rotation, lunar and solar eclipses, risings and settings, the moon's crescent and conjunctions of the planets.
The treatise was written as a response to Aryabhata's Ardharatrikapaksa. Khandakhadyaka was known in
Sanskrit to al-Biruni. So, Pair (2) is not correct.
Aryabhatta authored two great scientific works, Aryabhattiya and Surya Siddhanta. He was the first to
enunciate that the Earth is round and revolves around the sun. The essentially Greek origin of the Surya
Siddhanta, which is the classical textbook of Hindu astronomy. Surya Siddhanta manifests the Greek
influence. The Surya Siddhanta is clearly based on pre-Ptolemaic Greek methods. So, Pair (3) is not correct.

9. Consider the following statements about the temple architecture of Chalukyas:

1. The Vesara style reached its peak under the Chalukyas.
2. The best specimens of Chalukyan paintings are found in both Badami and Ajanta Caves.
3. The Virupaksha Temple, built on the models of the Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram, was
constructed during the chalukyan period.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Chalukyas were great patrons of art. They developed the vesara style in the building of structural
temples. However, the vesara style reached its culmination only under the Rashtrakutas and the Hoysalas.
So, Statement 1 is not correct.
 The structural temples of the Chalukyas exist at Aihole, Badami and Pattadakal. Cave temple architecture
was also famous under the Chalukyas. Their cave temples are found in Ajanta, Ellora and Nasik. The best
specimens of Chalukya paintings can be seen in the Badami cave temple and in the Ajanta caves. So,
Statement 2 is correct.
The Chalukya temples may be divided into two stages. The first stage is represented by the temples at Aihole
and Badami. The second stage is represented by the temples at Pattadakal. There are ten temples here, four
in the northern style and the remaining six in the Dravidian style.
The Papanatha temple is the most notable in the northern style. The Sangamesvara temple and the
Virupaksha temple are famous for their Dravidian style. The Virupaksha temple is built on the model of the
Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram. It was built by one of the queens of Vikramaditya II, Chalukyan ruler.
Sculptors brought from Kanchi were employed in its construction. So, Statement 3 is correct.

10. The Unionist party is a political party representing the interests of landholders. Which among the following
sections of people were included under it ?
(a) Sikhs, Hindus and Muslims
(b) Hindus, Muslims and Women
(c) Sikhs and Hindus only
(d) Hindus and Muslims only
EXPLANATION:
The Unionist Party was an organization of influential landlords without direct roots in the masses. Still these,
landlords wielded great personal sway in their relevant constituencies due to the strong bonds of the biradary
(feudal) network. The Unionists dominated the political scene in Punjab from World War I to the independence
of India and Pakistan (and the partition of the province) in 1947. The party was particularly powerful during
the period 1923-47.
People with little political awareness called it the Cooperative Society of Big Zamindars '. The majority of the
agrarian society belonged to Punjab's three main religious communities: the Muslims, the Hindus and the
Sikhs. The party was to nurture class interests, though the party targets, later on, were transformed to uplift
the rural and agrarian society of the Punjab Province. So, Option (a) is correct.

11. In the context of the Stone age in India, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. Palaeolithic sites are found in almost all parts of India but not in the Gangetic plains.
2. Neolithic people migrated away from hilly regions and lived predominantly in plains.
3. The people of the neolithic period used coarse grey ware, which is the earliest known usage of pottery in
India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Old Stone, or the Paleolithic Age in India, is divided into three phases according to the nature of the stone
tools used by the people and also according to the nature of change in the climate. The first phase is called
the Early or Lower Palaeolithic, 'the Second, Middle Palaeolithic, and the third, Upper Palaeolithic.
The Early Old Stone Age sites are found in the valley of river Soan in Punjab, now in Pakistan. Lower
Palaeolithic tools have also been found in the Belan valley in the Mlrzapur district in Uttar Pradesh.
The Middle Old Stone Age or Middle palaeolithic industries are all based upon flakes. These flakes are found
in different parts of India and show regional variations. The Middle Old Stone Age sites in India are found in
the Soan Valley. The artifacts of this age are also found at several places on the river Narmada and also at
several places south of the Tungabhadra river.
 The Upper Palaeolithic phase used blades and burins, which have been found in Andhra., Karnataka,
Maharashtra, Bhopal and Chotanagpur plateau. Caves and rock shelters for use by human beings in the
Upper Palaeolithic phase have been discovered at Bhimbetka, 40 kms south of Bhopal.
Thus, the paleolithic sites appear in practically all parts of the country except the alluvial plains of the Indus
and the Ganga. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Neolithic is derived from the Greek ‘neo,’ which means new, and ‘lithic,’ meaning stone. Thus, the term
‘neolithic Age’ refers to the ‘New Stone Age’ of human culture.
The Neolithic people did not live far away from the hilly areas. They habited mainly the hilly river valleys,
rock shelters, and the slopes of the hills since they were entirely dependent on weapons and tools made from
stone. Neolithic people used only weapons made up of stone, so they lived close to hills.
Therefore, the Neolithic people not migrated away from hilly regions and lived predominantly in hilly areas.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Pottery first appeared during the Neolithic period. The Neolithic people manufactured handmade pottery,
which was later turned on the wheel and fired in large kilns.
The important sites of the Neolithic period are Kashmir Valley, including Burzahom and Gufkral. In
Burzahom, the people used coarse grey pottery. So, Statement 3 is correct.

12. With reference to the officers during the Akbar reign, consider the following statements:
1. The office of Mir Saman is responsible for in charge of the imperial household.
2. Chief Qazi is responsible for the maintenance of etiquette at the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Mir-i-Saman was also called Khan Saman; he was in charge of the royal household called Karkhanas. He was
the head of this department, dealt directly with the emperor and other ministers, and was the custodian of
all government properties. He was also to supervise the manufacturing of different articles for the use of royal
household. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Chief Qazi, also known as Sadrus Sudur, was responsible for the judicial department. The Chief Qazi
supervised the work of Qazis in the districts and towns.
Mir Saman was responsible for maintaining etiquette at the court during the reign of Emperor Akbar (1556-
1605). So, Statement 2 is not correct.

13. Which of the following Vedic texts depict a host of non-Vedic religious practices that were sanctioned by the
priests?
(a) Rig Veda
(b) Sama Veda
(c) Yajur Veda
(d) Atharva Veda
EXPLANATION:
The Vedic period is the most ancient period in the history of Indian culture that provides information about
the structure of the ancient culture of India. According to historians, the Vedic period is considered around
500 B.C. There are four Vedas in all – Rig Veda, Yajur Veda, Sama Veda and Atharva Veda.
The Rigveda includes more than a thousand hymns, called sukta or “well-said.” These hymns are in praise
of various gods and goddesses. So, Option (a) is not correct.
The Samaveda Samhita is a book of prayers and chants which are from the Rigveda, modified and set to tune
for the explicit purpose of singing them during rituals. So, Option (b) is not correct.
The Yajurveda elaborates on the rituals which accompany the recitation of hymns. The rituals and the hymns
in this Samhita document the social and political milieu of this period. So, Option (c) is not correct.
 The Artharvaveda contains the folk tradition of this period and represents popular religion. It depicts a host
of non-Vedic religious practices which priests sanctioned. It is a good source for understanding the socio-
religious conditions of the common people. So, Option (d) is correct.

14. Consider the following with reference to the Parallel Government (Prati Sarkar) established in Satara during
the Quit India Movement:
1. The Parallel Government in Satara was established under the leadership of Pabitra Mohan Pradhan.
2. It was the powerful and long-lasting parallel governments formed during the Quit India movement.
3. It successfully set up its taxation system, judiciary, and military units.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
During the Quit India Movement, parallel governments were established in many places:
➢ Ballia (in August 1942 for a week)—under Chittu Pandey. He got many Congress leaders released.
➢ Tamluk (Midnapore, from December 1942 to September 1944)—Jatiya Sarkar undertook cyclone relief
work, sanctioned grants to schools, supplied paddy from the rich to the poor, organised Vidyut Vahinis,
etc.
➢ Satara (mid-1943 to 1945)—named “Prati Sarkar”, was organised under leaders like Y.B. Chavan, Nana
Patil, etc. Village libraries and Nyayadan Mandals were organised, prohibition campaigns were carried
out, and ‘Gandhi marriages’ were organised. Pabitra Mohan Pradhan was a freedom fighter who
established a parallel government in the princely state of Talcher in Odisha. So, Statement 1 is not
correct.
The parallel government which developed in Satara was the longest and most successful. It lasted for three
years; it was established in the middle of 1943 and continued till June 13, 1946. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Prati Sarkar in Satara established a structured and autonomous administration, operating
independently of British control. To finance its activities, it implemented a taxation system, ensuring a
continuous flow of funds to support governance and resistance initiatives.
Moreover, a judicial system was introduced to resolve disputes and uphold order in the areas under its
jurisdiction. This provided locals with an alternative to the British judicial framework, strengthening the
legitimacy of the parallel government.
To protect its functions and counter British authority, military units composed mainly of volunteer squads
were organized. These groups played a vital role in enforcing law and order, safeguarding local leaders, and
executing acts of resistance against colonial rule. So, Statement 3 is correct.

15. Consider the following with reference to the Vernacular Press Act 1878:
1. The Act became to be known as a gagging act.
2. To avoid this Act, Bengal Samachar turned into an English newspaper overnight.
3. The decision of the district magistrate lies with the provincial court of law.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Vernacular Press Act (1878) was enacted in British India to limit the freedom of the Indian press and
prevent the expression of criticism toward British policies, particularly the opposition that had grown since
the start of the Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878– 80). The Act became known as "the Gagging Act". The worst
features of this Act were
➢ discrimination between English and vernacular press and
➢ no right of appeal. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Som Prakash, Bharat Mihir, Dacca Prakash, and Samachar were charged under the Vernacular Press Act.
Incidentally, to avoid the Vernacular Press Act, the Amrita Bazar Patrika morphed overnight into an English
newspaper. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The district magistrate was empowered to call upon the printer and publisher of any vernacular newspaper
to enter into a bond with the government, undertaking not to cause disaffection against the government or
antipathy between persons of different religions, castes, and races through published material.
The printer and publisher could also be required to deposit security, which could be forfeited if the regulation
were contravened. Press equipment could be seized if the offence reoccurred. The magistrate's action was
final, and no appeal could be made in a court of law. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

16. Consider the following pairs:

[Link]. Organization Founder
1. Ahmedabad Textile - Surendranath Banerjee
Labour Association
2. Bharath naujawan - Bhagath Singh
Sabha
3. Indian National liberal - Anusuya Sarabhai
federation
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) None
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) Only one
EXPLANATION:
It was in the year 1914, that late Smt. Anasuyabehn Sarabhai, who had gone to Europe just before the First
World War, returned from England and dedicated herself to work for social, moral and material uplift of the
workers in general and textile workers of Ahmedabad in particular. And Mahatma Gandhi, along with
Anasuya Sarabhai, laid the foundation for Majoor Mahajan Sangh (Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association or
TLA), which was established on February 25, 1920. So, Pair (1) is not correct.
Bhagat Singh and his revolutionary companions founded Naujawan Bharat Sabha in March 1926. The
Amritsar district in Punjab was one of the core centers of its anti-imperialist activities. The Naujawan Bharat
Sabha was originally established at Lahore, with the main aim of inculcating nationalist and revolutionary
ideologies among the young students and workers of Punjab. Dr. Satya Pal, a prominent freedom fighter from
Amritsar had first given this idea to Bhagat Singh. So, Pair (2) is correct.
 The adoption by the Congress of the non-cooperation movement initiated earlier by the Khilafat Committee
gave it a new energy, and the years 1921 and 1922 saw an unprecedented popular upsurge. At this stage,
some leaders like Mohammad Ali Jinnah, Annie Besant, G.S. Kharpade and B.C. Pal left the Congress as
they believed in a constitutional and lawful struggle while some others like Surendranath Banerjea founded
the Indian National Liberal Federation and played a minor role in national politics henceforward. So, Pair (3)
is not correct.

17. With reference to Sufism, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. Sufi orders are divided into Ba-shara and Be-shara.
2. Ba-shara are those who follow Islamic Law, whereas Be-shara are those who do not.
3. The presence of a master is a must for disciples in Sufism.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Sufism is the mystical arm of Islam and is better known as tasawwuf. It stresses on self-realization, tolerance,
righteousness and universal love for all. The Sufis came to be organised into orders or 'silsilas.' Ain-I –Akbari
mentions a dozen silsilahs. They were divided into 'Be-shara' (against Sharia law) and 'Ba-shara' (in favour
of Sharia law). So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Ba- shara Sufis followed the law of Islam (i.e., Sharia) and the silsilah (order) founded by one saint was
continued by his disciples. Prominent Silsilahs or Sufi orders were – Chishti, Suhrawardi, Firdausi, Qadariya,
Naqshbandi, etc.
The Be-shara did not believe in Sharia law. They came to be called 'Mast kalandars/ Malangs/Haidaris.'
These wandering saints were commonly known as 'babas.' They hardly left any written accounts. Usually,
they followed very harsh forms of asceticism and defied or ignored the rituals. Therefore, Be-shara does not
follow Sharia, i.e., the law of Islam. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Sufism strictly follows the concept of pir-murshidie. (Similar to the Guru-Shisya tradition). The master-
disciple relationship is one of Sufism's most fundamental and important aspects. A student can achieve the
true path to the realisation of God only with the help of his master or Pir.
Al-Ghazali (1059–1111 A.D.) is among the most revered Sufis. He reconciled Islamic mysticism with Islamic
orthodoxy, providing Sufi mysticism a secure place in Islam. He stressed the need for the disciple to follow
the guidance of the spiritual master. So, Statement 3 is correct.

18. Consider the following pairs:

[Link]. (Kingdoms that ruled India (Their Capitals)
between 300-750 CE)
1. Kadambas - Badami
2. Pallavas - Kanchi
3. Western Gangas - Kalinga
4. Ikshvakus - Nagarjunakonda
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
The Kadambas, founded by Mayurasharma, was an ancient dynasty that ruled northern Karnataka and the
Konkan. The Kadambas belonged to the Western Ganga Dynasty. Banavasi is an ancient town in Uttara
Kannada in the state of Karnataka. It is the oldest town. Banavasi (not Badami) was the capital of Kadambas,
who ruled the entire Karnataka for almost two centuries. So, Pair 1 is not correct.
The Pallava dynasty was one of the most significant dynasties of ancient India, and a major force in southern
India. Kanchi or modern-day Kanchipuram was the capital city of the Pallavas. Telugu, Tamil and Sanskrit
were their main languages.
The Pallavas were the emperors of the Dravidian country and rapidly adopted Tamil ways. Their rule was
marked by commercial enterprise and a limited amount of colonization in Southeast Asia, but they inherited
rather than initiated Tamil interference with Ceylon (now Sri Lanka). So, Pair 2 is correct.
Western Ganga Dynasty is an ancient Indian dynasty ruled parts of modern-day Karnataka from the 4th to
10th centuries CE. Their capital cities changed at different points. Initially it was Kolar and in Later period it
was Talakad in Mysore district.
The Eastern Gangas had their capital at Kalinganagara, or modern-day Mukhalingam, in the Ganjam district
of Odisha. So, Pair 3 is not correct.
During the third and fourth centuries CE, the Ikshvaku dynasty ruled in India's eastern Krishna River valley
from their capital at Vijayapuri (modern Nagarjunakonda in Andhra Pradesh).
The Ikshvaku kings were Shaivites who followed Vedic rituals, but Buddhism flourished during their reign
as well. So, Pair 4 is correct.

19. Consider the following:

1. He was the first Baptist missionary of the modern era and arrived in colonial Calcutta in November 1793
without any travel permits.
2. He spent well over half his time working as a professor of Bengali and Sanskrit at Fort William College,
Calcutta.
3. He, along with his associates, founded Serampore College in 1818.
Which personality of modern Indian history is mentioned above?
(a) William ward
(b) Joshua Marshman
(c) William Cary
(d) Arthur Wellesley
EXPLANATION:
William Carey, the first Baptist missionary of the modern era, arrived in colonial Calcutta in November 1793
without any travel permits. His family survived because he accepted employment as manager of an indigo
plantation in the interior of Bengal. After missionary colleagues arrived from England in 1799, he moved to
the Danish colonial enclave of Serampore, 13 miles up to the River Hooghly from Calcutta.
Serampore College, established in 1818, was founded by the English missionaries William Carey, Joshua
Marshman, and William Ward, known as the Serampore Trio. A strange combination of stiff political
opposition and unusual emoluments from the East India Company significantly shaped the nature and work
of the mission Carey established at Serampore. He spent well over half his time working as a professor of
Bengali and Sanskrit at Fort William College, Calcutta. So, Option (c) is correct.

20. Arrange the following in a chronological order:

1. Wavell Plan
2. August offer
3. Cripps Mission
4. Rajagopalachari Formula
 Select the correct answer:
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-1-4-3
(c) 2-3-4-1
(d) 2-3-1-4
EXPLANATION:
➢ August Offer of 1940
The August Offer was an offer made by Viceroy Linlithgow in 1940, promising the expansion of the Executive
Council of the Viceroy of India to include more Indians, the establishment of an advisory war council, giving
full weight to minority opinion, and the recognition of Indians' right to frame their own constitution. (after
the end of the war). In return, it was hoped that all parties and communities in India would cooperate in
Britain's efforts in World War II.
➢ The Cripps Proposals of 1942
In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals to seek
Indian support for the war. Stafford Cripps was a left-wing Labourite, the leader of the House of Commons
and a member of the British War Cabinet who had actively supported the Indian national movement.
➢ In the C.R. Formula of 1944, trying to seek the cooperation of the Muslim League, C. Rajagopalachari
(C.R.), the veteran Congress leader, prepared a formula for Congress-League cooperation in 1944. It was
a tacit acceptance of the League's demand for Pakistan. Gandhi supported the formula.
➢ Wavell Plan of 1945
Lord Wavell broadcast to the people of India the proposals of the British Government to resolve the deadlock
in India on June 14, which is called the Wavell Plan. It was constituted to resolve the political deadlock of
existing India, but due to disagreement between leaders of the Muslim League and Congress, finally the
proposals were dissolved at the Shimla Conference.
So, Option (c) is correct.

21. Consider the following statements with respect to the temples in Odisha:
1. The temples of Odisha form a distinct sub-style within the Nagara style of temple architecture.
2. Shikharas are almost vertical until the top, before they curve sharply inwards.
3. Boundary walls and Mandapas in temples of Odisha are absent.
4. Sun temple in Konark is one of the examples of this type of temple architecture.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
The main architectural features of Odisha temples are classified in three orders, i.e., rekhapida, pidhadeul
and khakra. Most of the main temple sites are located in ancient Kalinga—modern Puri District, including
Bhubaneswar or ancient Tribhuvanesvara, Puri and Konark. The temples of Odisha constitute a distinct sub-
 style within the Nagara order. In general, the shikhara, called deul in Odisha, is vertical almost until the top,
when it suddenly curves sharply inwards. So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Shikara, also called Deuls, is preceded, as usual, by mandapas called jagamohana in Odisha. The ground
plan of the main temple is almost always square, which, in the upper reaches of its superstructure, becomes
circular in the crowning mastaka. This makes the spire nearly cylindrical in appearance in its length.
Compartments and niches are generally square, the exterior of the temples is lavishly carved, and their
interiors are generally quite bare. Odisha temples usually have boundary walls. Thus, Boundary walls and
Mandapas are Present in temples of Odisha.
At Konark, on the shores of the Bay of Bengal, lie the majestic ruins of the Surya or Sun temple, built in
stone around 1240 is an example of the Odisha style of architecture. So, Statement 3 is not correct and
Statement 4 is correct.

22. With reference to the Mauryan administration, ‘Samaharta’ and ‘Sannidhata’ were appointed by the state
in order to
(a) propagate dhamma policy
(b) regulate the system of taxation
(c) promote access to justice
(d) expand the military forces
EXPLANATION:
Samaharta and Sannidhata were crucial appointees in the Mauryan administration, each with distinct but
interconnected roles in managing the empire's finances.
The Samaharta was the collector general of revenue for the Mauryan Empire. He had control over the
expenditure part as well. The post of Sannidhata was that of officer-in-charge of the treasury and store. He
had to supervise all the provinces, fortified towns, mines, forests, trade routes and others, which were the
sources of revenue. The treasurer was responsible for keeping a record of the tax revenues. So, Option (b) is
correct.

23. With reference to the nature of writing in the Harappan civilization, consider the following statements:
1. Most of the writing of this civilization appears on seals and sealings.
2. The script of the Harappan language is 'logo-syllabic' in which each symbol stands for a word or a
syllable.
3. The Boustrophedon style of writing is found in longer inscription.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The writing on the seals was probably in the language of the ruling elite. Some scholars have suggested that
this language belonged to the Dravidian family of languages, while others have argued in favor of the Indo-
Aryan family.
Most of Harappan's inscriptions were recorded on seals and sealings, some on copper tablets, copper/bronze
implements, pottery, and other miscellaneous objects. Propertied people may have used these seals to mark
and identify their private property. Seals and sealings were used to facilitate long-distance communication.
The sealing also conveyed the identity of the sender. Harappan seals usually have a line of writing, probably
containing the name and title of the owner. Scholars have also suggested that the motif (generally an animal)
conveyed a meaning to those who could not read. Most inscriptions are short, the longest containing about
26 signs. So, Statement 1 is correct.
 The Harappan script is not alphabetical but mainly pictographic. The number of signs in the Harappa script
is too small for a purely logo-graphic script (with word signs only) and too large for purely alphabetic or
syllabic writing. Thus, the Indus script is most likely to be logo-syllabic writing with a mixture of word-signs
and syllables. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Harappan Script was generally written and meant to be read from right to left (this is reversed on the
seals). This is evident from the fact that in inscriptions, the letters are cramped on the left side, where space
had clearly run out, and from overlapping letters scratched onto pottery. There are a few instances, however,
of writing from left to right. Longer inscriptions of Harappa that consisted of more than one line were
sometimes written in the boustrophedon style with consecutive lines starting in opposite directions. So,
Statement 3 is correct.

24. Consider the following with respect to the Congress socialist party (CSP):
1. The first annual session of the All-India Congress socialist party was held in Bombay in 1934 under the
presidency of Acharya Narendra Dev.
2. After the first annual meeting, the national executive was formed, and Sampurananda was its general
secretary.
3. The Congress socialist party was influenced along the lines of European socialism.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The first All-India Congress socialist conference was convened at Patna by Jaya Prakash Narayan on behalf
of the Bihar Socialist Party in May 1934. The Conference was presided over by Acharya Narendra Dev. After
the Conference, the Congress Socialist Party worked hard to organise the All India Congress Socialist Party.
As the Secretary, Jayaparkash Narayan campaigned in different parts of the country to organise the provincial
wings of the party.
The first annual session of the All-India Congress socialist party was held in Bombay in 1934 under the
presidency of Sampurnanand. In this meeting, the National Executive of the Congress Socialist Party was
constituted, with Jaya Prakash Narayan as the General Secretary. So, Statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
Dr Ram Manohar Lohia was influenced by the social democratic ideas of Europe and Gandhian ideas. He
founded a journal titled Congress Socialist, which later became the official organ of the Congress Socialist
Party. So, Statement 3 is correct.

25. With reference to medieval India, the terms ‘Kankut, Batai, Lang and Khet’ pertain to
(a) Crop sharing methods
(b) Ranks of soldiers
(c) Tribal kingdoms in northeast India
(d) Types of jagirs
EXPLANATION:
During the Mughal rule, land revenue was a tax on the crop. Abul Fazl in Ain-i Akbari justifies the imposition
of taxes by the state, saying that these are the remuneration of sovereignty, paid in return for protection and
justice.
During the Mughal period, the assessment was separately made for kharif and rabi crops. After the
assessment, a written document called patta was issued in which the amount of the revenue demand was
mentioned. The assessee was, in return, supposed to give ‘qabuliyat’ means acceptance of the obligation
imposed upon him.
The following methods were commonly used:
 ➢ Ghalla Bakhshi (Crop-sharing): The Ain-i Akbri describes three types of crop-sharing:
⚫ Crop division at the threshing floor after the grain was obtained was done in the presence of both
parties.
⚫ Khet batai: The share was decided when the crop was still standing in the fields.
⚫ Lang batai: The crop was cut and stacked in heaps without separating grain.
➢ Kankut: The word kankut is derived from the words kan and kat. ‘Kan’ denotes grain, while ‘kut’ means
to estimate. In kankut, at first, the field was measured either by means of a rope or by pacing. After this,
the per bigha productivity from good, middle and bad lands was estimated, and the revenue demand was
fixed accordingly.
➢ Zabti: It was the most important assessment method during the Mughal rule. Provinces covered under
zabti were Delhi, Allahabad, Awadh, Agra, Lahore and Multan. So, Option (a) is correct.

26. Which of the following places are famous Buddhist pilgrimage sites ?
1. Kanheri caves
2. Kesariya
3. Udayagiri caves
4. Nagapattinam
5. Khandagiri caves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1, 3 and 5 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION:
The Kanheri Caves are a collection of caves and rock-cut monuments in Mumbai's western suburbs. The
caves are located amid the Sanjay Gandhi National Park's woodlands.
Kanheri is derived from the Prakrit word 'Kanhagiri' and appears in the Nasik inscription of Satavahana ruler
Vasisthiputra Pulumavi. Kanheri has been mentioned in the travelogues of international visitors.
The first mention of Kanheri is attributed to Fa-Hein, who visited India between 399 and 411 CE and was
followed by several more travelers. They house Buddhist sculptures, relief carvings, paintings, and
inscriptions from the first to the tenth centuries CE.
Most caves were Buddhist viharas meant for living, studying, and meditating. The larger caves, which
functioned as chaityas, or halls for congregational worship, are lined with intricately carved Buddhist
sculptures, reliefs, pillars and rock-cut stupas. Avalokiteshwara is the most distinctive figure. A large number
of viharas demonstrates there was a well-organized establishment of Buddhist monks.
So, Statement 1 is correct.

Kesariya stupa is a Buddhist stupa in Kesariya, located at a distance of 110 kilometers (68 mi) from Patna
in the Champaran (east) district of Bihar, India. The first construction of the Stupa is dated to the 3rd century
BCE. Kesariya Stupa has a circumference of almost 400 feet (120 m) and raises to a height of about 104 feet.
It is regarded as the largest Buddhist Stupa in the world and has been drawing tourists from across several
Buddhist countries. The locals call the stupa "devalaya," meaning "house of gods."
The stupa mound may even have been inaugurated during the Buddha's time, as it corresponds in many
respects to the description of the Stupa erected by the Licchavis of Vaishali to house the alms bowl the
Buddha has given them. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Udayagiri Caves are twenty rock-cut caves near Vidisha, Madhya Pradesh, primarily denoted to Hindu
gods Vishnu and Shiva from the early years of the 5th century CE. They contain some of the oldest surviving
Hindu temples and iconography in India.
They are the only site to be verifiably associated with a Gupta period monarch from its inscriptions. One of
India's most important archaeological sites, the Udayagiri hills and its caves are protected monuments
managed by the Archaeological Survey of India.
Udayagiri caves contain iconography of Hinduism and Jainism. They are notable for Vishnu's ancient
monumental relief sculpture in his incarnation as the man-boar Varaha, rescuing the earth symbolically
represented by Bhudevi clinging to the boar's tusk as described in Hindu mythology. The site has important
inscriptions of the Gupta dynasty belonging to the reigns of Chandragupta II (c. 375-415) and Kumaragupta
I (c. 415-55). So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Chudamani Vihara was a Buddhist vihara (monastery) in Nagapattinam, Tamil Nadu, India. Chudamani
Vihara was constructed in 1006 CE by the Srivijayan king Sri Vijaya Maravijayattungavarman with the
patronage of Rajaraja Chola I. The vihara building survived in dilapidated condition. Since 1856, about 350
Buddha bronzes have been found at Nagapattinam, dating from the 11th to the 16th century.
Nagapattinam was interestingly both one of the first and the last centers of Buddhism in South India. Even
now, there are places such as Sangamangalam, Buddhamangalam, Putthakkudy, etc., around Nagapattinam,
as a reminiscence of its Buddhist past. Around Nagapattinam, there are also many ancient stone statues of
the Buddha (8th to 10th Century CE) in places such as Pushpavanam, Peruncheri, Thirunellivakaval,
Buddhamangalam etc. From this can be inferred that Mahayana Buddhism thrived in Nagapattinam till the
17th Century CE. So, Statement 4 is correct.
 The rock-cut cave tradition also existed in Odisha. The earliest examples are the Udaigiri-Khandagiri caves
in the vicinity of Bhubaneswar. These caves are scattered and have inscriptions of Kharavela kings.
According to the inscriptions, the caves were meant for Jain monks. There are numerous single-cell
excavations. Some have been carved in huge independent boulders and given the shape of animals. The big
caves include a cave with a pillared veranda with cells at the back.
The upper part of the cells is decorated with a series of chaitya arches and narratives that continue in the
folklores of the region. The figures in this cave are voluminous, move freely in the picture space, and are an
excellent example of qualitative carving. So, Statement 5 is not correct.

27. With reference to Indian history, Krishna Kumar Mitra, Ashwini Kumar Dutt, and Ajit Singh were associated
with which of the following events,
(a) Arrested during the Quit India movement
(b) Deported during the Swadeshi and boycott movement
(c) Jailed for conspiracy against British
(d) Members of the secret radio during the Quit India movement
EXPLANATION:
➢ Krishna Kumar Mitra joined the Indian Association led by Surendranath Banerjee, and he dedicated
himself to spreading their radical political ideals across northern India. Mitra's pivotal role in history
emerged during the anti-Partition Swadeshi movement. Through his journal, Sanjibani, he rallied the
public against the divisive partition of Bengal. On July 13, 1905, he fearlessly called for the boycott of
foreign goods, for which he faced deportation by British authorities in 1908.
 ➢ Ashwini Kumar Dutta founded the Swadesh Bandhab Samiti to promote locally made products and
boycott foreign goods. In 1908, the British Government banned the Swadesh Bandhab Samiti and its 175
branches across India. They deported him to the United Provinces, where he was incarcerated in Lucknow
jail.
➢ In Rawalpindi (Punjab), the arsenal and railway workers, in Swadeshi spirit, went on strike, led by Lala
Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh. Extremism in Punjab died down quickly after the government struck in May
1907, banning political meetings and deporting Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh. So, Option (b) is correct.

28. Consider the following with reference to the Santhal rebellion:

1. The tribes of this region were gradually driven to a desperate situation as tribal lands were leased out
to non-Santhal zamindars and moneylenders.
2. Chand and Bhairava declared themselves to be the Suba Thakurs (Governors) and established a parallel
administration.
3. After the rebellion, Santhal Parganas was established with limited application of general laws and
regulations.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Santhal Rebellions (1855– 56) were gradually driven to a desperate situation as tribal lands were leased
out to non-Santhal Zamindars and moneylenders. The local police and European officers engaged in railroad
construction were also oppressed. This penetration of dikkus completely destroyed their familiar world and
forced them into action to take possession of their lost territory.
It was not only against local jagirdar, Zamindar, contractor Money lenders, Mahajan and traders but also
against the British Government. The object of the Santhal uprising was the economic emancipation of the
Santhals. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Sidhu and Kanhu also declared themselves the Suba Thakurs (Governors) and established a parallel
administration to maintain law and order and collect taxes. They also exhorted all Santhal households to
send at least one man to fight in the war against the Dikus. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Santhal insurrection forcefully drew British attention to their problems and grievances, and the
government took steps to redress some of their concerns. A special administrative system was created through
Act XXXVII, introduced in December 1855. This Act reorganized the Damin-i-koh and established the Santhal
Parganas as a separate district, with a Deputy Commissioner and four Assistant Commissioners to maintain
close supervision of the tribe's conditions. The district was also exempted from general laws and regulations.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

29. Which one of the following refers to "Vativaykkal" during the later Chola period?
(a) A traditional way of harnessing rainwater in the delta region
(b) A tax paid by the cultivating tenants to the government
(c) Form of free labour related to public works at the village level
(d) A tax paid by the people for repairing irrigation tanks
EXPLANATION:
Vativaykkal, a crisscross channel, is a traditional way of harnessing rainwater in the Kavery delta. Vati runs
in the north–south direction, while Vaykkal runs in the east–west direction. Technically, a vati is a drainage
channel, and a vaykkal is a supply channel. The water running through Vaykkal to the field was to be drained
out to Vati and another Vaykkal. Cholas undertook measures to improve the irrigation system. Rainwater
would flow from where the natural canal started. Many irrigation canals are modifications of such natural
 canals. The harnessed water was utilized alternately through Vati and Vaykkal. Here the mechanism designed
was such that water was distributed to the parcelled out lands in sequel. So, Option (a) is correct.
Generally, taxes were collected in different forms. The taxes collected included irai, kanikadan, iraikattina-
kanikadan and kadamai. An important category of tax was kudimai. The cultivating tenants paid Kudimai to
the government and the landlords, the bearers of honorific titles such as udaiyan, araiyan and kilavar. So,
Option (b) is not correct.
For the periodic and seasonal maintenance and repair of the irrigation tanks, rendering free labour was in
practice. Vetti and amanji were the forms of free labour related to public works at the village level. So, Option
(c) is not correct.
Village assemblies under the Cholas collected a tax called eriayam, which was utilized for repairing irrigation
tanks. Sometimes, local leaders like Araiyan repaired and renovated irrigation tanks destroyed in a storm.
So, Option (d) is not correct.

30. With reference to Sangam literature, consider the following statements:

1. The social classification of varna system was known to Sangam poets.
2. The ‘kuti’ were clan-based descent groups and were central to the early Tamil system of agricultural
production.
3. The Sangam literature reflects a belief in sacred or magical forces.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Sangam literature reflects a society with its distinctive cultural traditions, one which celebrated war and love.
The social classification of varna was known to Sangam poets. There is mention of the Arashar (kings),
Vaishiyar (traders), and Velalar (farmers). The Brahmanas are also mentioned, some of them closely
associated with the courts of kings and patronized by ruling elites. They are described as performing yajnas,
including ones on the battlefield, to ensure victory. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The more relevant basis of social classification was Kuti. The Kuti were clan-based descent groups and were
central to the early Tamil system of agricultural production. Although associated with lineage and hereditary
occupation, there were no real restrictions on inter-dining and social interaction among the kuti groups. So,
Statement 2 is correct.
Sangam literature reflects a belief in sacred or magical forces called ananku that were supposed to inhabit
various objects. The job of carrying out rites and rituals to control the ananku was that of groups such as
the Pariyans, Tutiyans, Panans, and Velans. They were associated with ritualistic singing, dancing, lighting
the cremation fire and worshipping memorial stones. So, Statement 3 is correct.

31. The 'Varkari’ sect, a devotional tradition that emerged in medieval India, belongs to which of the following?
(a) Shaivism
(b) Vaishnavism
(c) Tantric Buddhism
(d) Sikhism
EXPLANATION:
The Varkari sect belongs to the Vaishnava Bhakti tradition of Hinduism, which emerged in medieval India.
Bhakti emphasizes devotion and personal love for a deity, as opposed to the more ritualistic and philosophical
aspects of Hinduism.
 Varkari Panth or Varkari Sampradaya: The followers in this community are devotees of Lord Vishnu, in his
manifestation as Vithoba and the worship is centered on Vithoba’s temple at Pandharpur in Maharashtra.
The sect strictly avoids alcohol and tobacco. Their annual pilgrimage Vari undertakes interesting events. In
the Vari, the Varkaris carry the padukas of the saints in palkis from Samadhi to Pandharpur. Events Ringan
and Dhava are held during pilgrimage.
Under Ringan, a sacred horse runs through the rows of pilgrims, who try catching the dust particles kicked
off and smear their head with the same. Prominent figures under this sect include Jnaneshwar (1275-1296),
Namdev (1270-1350), Eknath (1533-1599) and Tukaram (1598-1650). So, Option (b) is correct.

32. With reference to Indian history, Jahanpanah and Siri are well known for:
(a) Medieval cities built by Delhi sultans
(b) Privileges claimed by nobles on account of birth
(c) Buildings constructed by Akbar at Fatehpur Sikri
(d) Token currencies introduced by Muhammad Tughluq.
EXPLANATION:
The rulers who ruled substantial parts of North India between 1200 AD to 1526 AD were termed Sultans,
and the period of their rule was the Delhi Sultanate. These rulers were of Turkish and Afghan origin. They
established their rule in India after defeating the Indian ruling dynasties, which were mainly Rajputs in
northern India.
The transformation of Delhi into a capital that controlled vast areas of the subcontinent started with the
foundation of the Delhi Sultanate. The Delhi Sultans built many cities in the area that we now know as Delhi.
Alauddin Khalji constructed a new garrison town named Siri for his soldiers, and Muhammad Tughlaq built
the fourth city of Delhi and named it Jahanpanah.
Thus, Jahanpanah and Siri are well-known medieval cities built by the Delhi sultans. So, Option (a) is
correct.

33. Consider the following:

1. The provinces were divided into three groups, and the princely states were free to leave the group before
the first general elections.
2. A two-tiered executive and legislature were formed at the union and provincial level.
3. Rejection of the demand for a full-fledged Pakistan.
4. In the central legislature, communal questions were to be decided by a simple majority of both
communities present and voting.
 How many of the above were the proposals of Cabinet Mission Plan 1946?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
To the Congress, the Cabinet Mission Plan was against the creation of Pakistan since grouping was optional.
Provinces should not have to wait till the first general elections to come out of a group. They should have the
option of not joining a group in the first place. (Congress had the Congress-ruled provinces of NWFP and
Assam in mind, which had been included in groups B and C, respectively.) So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Cabinet Mission reached Delhi on March 24, 1946. Major provisions include:
➢ Grouping of existing provincial assemblies into three sections:
➢ Section-A: Madras, Bombay, Central Provinces, United Provinces, Bihar and Orissa (Hindu-majority
provinces).
➢ Section-B: Punjab, North-West Frontier Province and Sindh (Muslim-majority provinces).
➢ Section-C: Bengal and Assam (Muslim-majority provinces).
➢ Three-tier executive and legislature at provincial, section and union levels. So, Statement 2 is not
correct.
➢ Rejection of the demand for a full-fledged Pakistan. So, Statement 3 is correct.
➢ Communal questions in the central legislature were to be decided by a simple majority of both
communities present and voting. So, Statement 4 is correct.

34. Which of the following were the duties of Iqtadar during the Khalji and Tughlaq periods?
1. Lead military campaigns
2. Maintain law and order
3. Collected revenues
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Khalji and Tughluq monarchs appointed military commanders as governors of territories of varying sizes.
These lands were called iqta, and their holder was called iqtadar or muqti. The duty of the muqtis was
➢ To lead military campaigns. So, Statement 1 is correct.
➢ Maintain law and order in their iqtas. So, Statement 2 is correct.
➢ In exchange for their military services, the muqtis collected the revenues of their assignments as salary.
They also paid their soldiers from these revenues. So, Statement 3 is correct.
The state-appointed accountants check the amount of revenue collected by the muqtis. Care was taken that
the muqti collected only the taxes prescribed by the state and that he kept the required number of soldiers.

35. With reference to Jainism, consider the following statements :

1. The first and second Jain councils were held in Pataliputra and Valabhi, respectively.
2. 12 Angas were completed in the second Jain council.
3. Angas are written in the Pali language.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
EXPLANATION:
Jainism is a philosophy-based ancient religion that teaches the path to emancipation, spiritual purity, and
enlightenment by disciplined nonviolence to all sentient creatures.
Vardhaman Mahavira is regarded as the founder of Jainism. He was born in 599 BC near Vaishali in Bihar.
He was the twenty-fourth and the last Tirthankara of Jainism. Jainism believes that the main goal of human
life is the purification of the soul and the attainment of nirvana, which means freedom from birth and death.
In 300 BC, 160 years after Mahavira's death in Pataliputra, the first Jain council was held (modern-day
Bihar). It was presided over by Sthulabhadra.
Jainism was divided into two factions at this meeting: Svetambara and Digambara.
Bhadrabahu, the last acharya of the undivided Jains and the leader of the Digambara sect, and his followers
fled to Shravanabelagola in Karnataka to avoid starvation. Sthulabhadra, the Svetambara sect's head and
originator, and his followers remained in Magadha.
The second Jain council met in two places at the same time. It was held in Vallabhi, Gujarat, and Mathura,
Uttar Pradesh. Devaradhi Kshama Ramana presided over the Vallabhi council. The primary purpose of this
council was to continue collecting religious scriptures. The second council convened in 512 AD.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
The main objective of the second council was to continue the compilation of sacred texts. The second council
was held in 512 AD. Devaradhi Kshama Ramana presided over the council as the chairman. The final
compilation of the twelve Angas and the twelve Upangas occurred in this Second council. So, Statement 2
is correct.
Angas is the Swetambars' sacred religious text. The book talks about the deaths that the followers will govern
over. It also discusses how to live a pure life and achieve enlightenment after death. It also explains how good
triumphs over evil.
Angas (or agamas) are 45 sacred Jain scriptures based on the discourse of the Tirthankara. Ardhamagadhi,
a Prakrit language (not in Pali), was used to write the earliest known Jain Agamas. Agama is a Sanskrit
phrase that alludes to the 'coming' of a body of knowledge via the transmission of authorized teachers down
a lineage. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

36. With reference to Sufi Saints of the Chisti silsila in medieval India, consider the following statements:
1. The dargah of Shaikh Salim Chisti, constructed in Fatehpur Sikri, symbolizes the bond between the
Chisti Sufis and the Mughal State.
2. Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya made Ajmer the most famous center of the Chisti order.
3. Shaikh Nasiruddin Chirag-i-Dehli was the most famous of Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya’s successors in
Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The Dargah of Shaikh Salim Chishti (a direct descendant of Baba Farid), constructed in Fatehpur Sikri,
Akbar's capital, symbolized the bond between the Chishtis and the Mughal state. The tomb of Salim Chisti is
one of the most sacred places for Muslims. It is one of the outstanding examples of Mughal architecture in
India. Mughal Emperor Akbar built Salim Chisti Dargah to show his gratitude towards the Sufi saint who
foretold the birth of Akbar's son, Prince Salim.
The Mughal paintings at the Dargah reflect an exclusive combination of Indian, Persian and Islamic styles.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
 The Chishti order, which later became the most influential and popular Sufi order in India, originated in
Herat and was introduced in India by Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti (d. 1236), who was born in Sijisian in c.
1141. He came to India at the time of the Ghori conquest. He finally settled in Ajmer in about 1206 and won
the respect of both Muslims and non-Muslims. He was not actively involved in conversions, and his attitude
towards non-Muslims was one of tolerance. His tomb in Ajmer became a famous center of pilgrimage in later
centuries.
The most celebrated disciple of Baba Farid and the greatest Sufi saint of the 14 th century was Shaikh
Nizamuddin Auliya (1236-1325). He made Delhi the most famous center of the Chishti order.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The most famous of Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya's Khalifas and his successor in Delhi was Shaikh Nasiruddin
Mahmud (d. 1356), who came to be known as Chiragh-i Delhi (Lamp of Delhi). He and some of his disciples
discontinued some of those practices of early Chishtis, which could clash with Islamic orthodoxy and, in
turn, persuaded the ulema to soften their attitude towards the Chishti practice of sama. So, Statement 3 is
correct.

37. With reference to temples at Khajuraho, consider the following statements:

1. The temples of Khajuraho are made of sandstone and granite.
2. The temples at Khajuraho have been built on high and solid platforms.
3. The temples are known for their erotic sculptures.
4. Those temples were patronized by the Chandella dynasty.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
The Khajuraho temples have been made of granite or sandstone especially upon raised platforms. The
platforms stand on solid rock masses. Spires were constructed by placing solid blocks of stone upon four
pillars and then adding blocks of stone. The vimana of the temple rises from the platform, and its vertical
towers reach high, piercing the sky. The temples used to be built in the panchayatana style, which consisted
of one central temple with four subshrines at four corners. The Lakshman temple at Khajuraho is an example.
Thus, the temples at Khajuraho have been built on high and solid platforms. So, Statements 1 and 2 are
correct.
 Khajuraho's temples are also known for their extensive erotic sculptures; the erotic expression is given equal
importance in human experience as a spiritual pursuit, and it is seen as part of a larger cosmic whole. Many
Hindu temples, therefore feature Mithun (embracing couple) sculptures, considered auspicious. Usually, they
are placed at the entrance of the temple or on an exterior wall, or they may also be placed on the walls
between the mandapa and the main shrine. So, Statement 3 is correct.
The Khajuraho temples were patronized by the Chandella dynasty, which reached its apogee between 950
and 1050 AD. Only about 20 temples remain; they fall into three distinct groups and belong to two different
religions – Hinduism and Jainism. They strike a perfect balance between architecture and sculpture. So,
Statement 4 is correct.

38. With reference to Jainism, consider the following statements:

1. The ‘triratna' of Jainism consists of 'ahimsa’ (non-violence), ‘satya' (not uttering falsehood), and
'aparigraha’ (non-possession).
2. Ahimsa is central to Jainism, and it is the first vow for renunciants as well as the laity.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The triratna (three gems) of Jainism consists of
➢ Right faith (Samyang-darshana),
➢ Right knowledge (Samyag-jnana), and
➢ Right conduct (Samyag-Charitra).
There are five great vows (Panchamahavrata) for monks and nuns. These vows aim to bring about inner
purification. The five great vows include,
➢ Not to injure any living being (Ahimsa);
➢ Not to utter any falsehood (Satya/sunrita);
➢ Not to take what is not given, i.e., not to steal (asteya);
➢ To lead a celibate life (brahmacharya);
➢ Non-possession, to call nothing one's own (aparigraha).
So, Statement 1 is not correct.
 Ahimsa is central to Jainism, and it is the first vow for renunciants as well as the laity. The extent to which
Jainas carry this principle is connected to their idea of different forms of life. So, Statement 2 is correct.

39. Consider the following:

Newspaper Region
1. Sandhya : Bengal
2. Yugantar : Maharashtra
3. Kal : Bengal
How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
EXPLANATION:
The nationalist Bengali newspaper Sandhya was an extremist daily started by Brahmabandhab Upadhyay in
1904. The newspaper condemned the British government’s action in extremely strong words. The main
purpose of the newspaper was to spread awareness among the masses about the atrocities of the British
government. Sandhya also became popular because of its uncompromising rejection of British policies. So,
Pair (1) is correct.
Jugantar Patrika, also known as Jugantar or Yugantar, emerged as a revolutionary Bengali newspaper in
Calcutta in 1906, exerting a significant influence on the Indian independence movement during the early
20th century. Its founders, Barindra Kumar Ghosh, Abhinash Bhattacharya and Bhupendranath Dutt,
established it as a political weekly, serving as the official voice of the Anushilan Samiti, a rising revolutionary
organization in Bengal at the time.
The name "Jugantar" translates to "New Era" in Bengali, drawing inspiration from Shivnath Shastri's political
novel. Eventually, the term "Jugantar" came to represent the Western Bengal faction of the Anushilan Samiti,
which became known as the Jugantar group. So, Pair (2) is not correct.
Shivram Mahadev Paranjape was a writer, journalist, intellectual and ardent patriot. In 1897, he founded the
weekly Kaal/Kal in Pune, Maharastra.
To channelize his patriotism, he founded the weekly, Kaal, and in a brisk period, Kaal became immensely
popular, addressing issues ranging from social, political, historical, religious to literary. Kaal (The Times)
had ushered in a new era of satirical and incisive writing. Paranjape astutely spoke against the British state,
imperialism, and social evils. So, Pair (3) is not correct.

40. With reference to the Government of India Act 1909, consider the following:
1. It increased the number of elected members in the Imperial Legislative Council and the provincial
councils.
2. Most of the elected members were elected directly by the provincial councils, in the case of the Imperial
Council.
3. The reformed council enjoyed some real powers instead of merely an advisory body.
4. It legalized communalism for the first time in India.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) All four
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Indian Councils Act 1909, popularly known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, the act made the first attempt to
bring in a representative and popular element in the governance of the country. The members of the Imperial
 Legislative Council and Provincial Executive Council were increased. It increased the number of members of
the Legislative Assembly from sixteen to sixty. A few non-elected members were also added. So, Statement
1 is correct.
In the Government of India Act 1909 (also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms), most of the elected members
in the Imperial Legislative Council were indeed elected indirectly. The elections were not direct in the modern
sense but were conducted through a system of limited franchise and representation. So, Statement 2 is
correct.
Although the powers of the legislative councils, both central and provincial, were increased, the real power
remained with the government, and the councils were left with no functions but criticism as an advisory
body. They could not stop any bills from being passed. Nor did they have any power over the budget. So,
Statement 3 is not correct.
The British made another calculated move to sow the seed of communalism in Indian politics by introducing
separate electorates for the Muslims. This meant that from the constituencies dominated by Muslims, only
Muslim candidates could be elected. Hindus could only vote for Hindus, and Muslims could only vote for
Muslims. Many leaders protested against this communal electorate policy of the British to ‘Divide and Rule’.
The Act is considered to have legalized communal representation for the first time in India as it
institutionalized the idea of communal representation in politics. So, Statement 4 is correct.
➢ Also, the income qualification for Muslim voters was kept lower than that for Hindus.

41. Chanhudaro, an Indus Valley site, is significant for the discovery of which of the following?
(a) Specialized centers for making shell objects
(b) Terracotta sealings with impressions of reed, woven fiber, cord and matting
(c) ‘Merchant’s house’ with evidence of seals and weights
(d) Bead-making workshops
EXPLANATION:
The most famous artefacts manufactured by Harappans were their beads. Some like carnelian beads were an
important export item. The beads of both precious metals, and semi-precious stones like agate, jasper,
steatite, and lapis lazuli were known. Beadmaking workshops have been recovered from Mohenjodaro and
Chanhudaro, and Lothal. So, Option (d) is correct.
A wide variety of shell objects like bangles, ladles, spoons, inlay pieces, decorative objects have been recovered
from the Indus sites. Manufacture of shell objects are known from Balakot, Nageswar and Kuntasi with some
workshops also discovered in the interior sites like Harappa and Mohenjodaro. This implies that shell in raw
form was highly valued and was an important trade item. So, Option (a) is not correct.
Lothal of Gujarat was a port town of the Harappans. It is located in a low deltaic area in the Saurashtra
peninsula. Both the citadel and the lower town are located within the same complex. From one of the
buildings, in the citadel, around 65 terracotta sealings having impressions of reed, woven fiber, cords, and
matting have been recovered. So, Option (b) is not correct.
Banawali in Haryana is located to the right of the dried river Rangoi. It is rectangular in plan covering an
area of nine ha. The entire unit was fortified. Unlike the sites surveyed
so far, the citadel and the lower town here are located within the same complex. The residences were provided
with bathing pavements, wells and drains. A multiroomed house which gave evidence for seals, and weights
has been identified as a ‘merchant’s house’. So, Option (c) is not correct.

42. Which of the following can be considered as the factors in the growth of nationalism in India ?
1. Emergence of Japan as an industrial power
2. Boer Wars
3. Offshoot of modernization initiated by the British in India
4. Growth of mass education in vernacular languages
5. Right of self-determination initiated by the French Revolution
 Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION:
Several events abroad at the turn of the 20th century tended to encourage the growth of militant nationalism
in India. The rise of modern Japan after the Meiji Restoration in 1868 showed that a backward Asian country
could develop itself without western control.
In a matter of a few decades, the Japanese leaders made their country a first-rate industrial and military
power, introduced universal primary education, and evolved an efficient, modern administration. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
Revolutionary movements in Ireland, Russia, Egypt, Turkey and China, and the Boer War in South Africa
convinced the Indians that a united people willing to make sacrifices could challenge even the most powerful
despotic governments. This also encouraged the militant nationalists of India. So, Statement 2 is correct.
In the middle of the 19th century, the British introduced the Railways, telegraph and a unified postal system
in India. These new systems brought the different parts of the country together and promoted mutual contact
among the people, especially among the educated leaders who set up associations that demanded political
and administrative reforms from the Colonial government. When these were denied, it led to the growth of
nationalism in India. So, Statement 3 is correct.
The introduction of English education in India through colleges and Universities led to the development of
educated leaders who obtained rational, secular, democratic and nationalist outlooks from the west. In the
second half of the 19th century, educated Indians had many reasons to be concerned about their rights being
trampled by the colonial state.
They set up multiple associations to campaign for the rights of Indians and for constitutional, administrative
and military reforms.
Irked by these demands, the Anglo-Indian press, in the 1860s and 70s, started propaganda that higher
education only bred discontent and disaffection among the Indians. In 1870, the Colonial government passed
a resolution to cut back funding for English education in Bengal, allegedly to re-channel funding to promote
mass education through vernaculars.
The British did not feel threatened by the promotion of mass education through vernaculars. It was designed
to develop Indians with skills to take up clerical and subordinate positions in government. So, Statement 4
is not correct.
With the spread of modern western education and thought during the 19 th century, a large number of Indians
were exposed to a modern rational, secular, democratic and nationalist political outlook. They learned about
the Right to self-determination, which was a part of contemporary nationalist movements in European
nations.
Rousseau, Paine, John Stuart Mill and other western thinkers became their political guides, while Mazzini,
Garibaldi and Irish nationalist leaders became their political heroes.
Despite the efforts of the colonial schools and colleges to inculcate notions of docility and servility to colonial
rule, the educated Indians imbibed western thoughts on democratic and nationalist political outlooks. They
assumed the leadership of the national movement to give it a democratic and modern direction. So,
Statement 5 is correct.

43. Consider the following with reference to Wood's Dispatch:

1. Grants-in-aid were provided to schools on the condition that they do not charge fees from students.
2. It promoted Macaulay's downward filtration theory.
3. It suggested establishing a central Department of Public Instruction to ensure uniformity in the
education system.
4. It encouraged private enterprises to promote women's education.
 How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a despatch on an educational system for India. Considered the "Magna Carta
of English Education in India", this document was the first comprehensive.
Plan for the spread of education in India. Wood's Dispatch (1854) introduced the grant-in-aid system, but it
did not mandate free education. Schools could charge fees while still receiving aid. So, Statement 1 is not
correct.
➢ It systematized the hierarchy, starting with vernacular primary schools in villages at the bottom, followed
by Anglo-Vernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level and affiliating universities
in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.
➢ It laid stress on female and vocational education, as well as on teachers' training.
➢ It asked the government of India to assume responsibility for the education of the masses, thus
repudiating the 'downward filtration theory', at least on paper. So Statement 2 is not correct.
For the first time, Wood's Despatch of 1854 recommended the creation of a Department of Public Instruction
(DPI) in each of the five provinces of Bengal, Bombay, Madras, the Punjab and the North Western provinces.
The head of the department would be called the director, and a number of inspectors would assist him. The
DPI had to submit an annual report to the government about the educational progress in his province. So,
Statement 3 is not correct.
The Wood's Despatch stated that the education imparted in government institutions should be secular. It
recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprise. It also recommended English as the
medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at school level. So, Statement 4 is correct.

44. The Vijay Stambha (Tower of Victory) at Chittorgarh Fort was built in the 15th century by Rana Kumbha to
commemorate his victory over which of the following rulers?
(a) Mahmud Begarha of Gujarat
(b) Ahmed Shah-I of Gujarat
(c) Hushang Shah of Malwa
(d) Mahmud Khalji of Malwa
EXPLANATION:
Vijay Stambh (Victory Tower) is situated in Chittorgarh Fort Rajasthan, the state of India. Vijay Stambh was
built by Mewar King Rana Kumbha of Mewar in 1448 to commemorate his victory over the combined armies
of Malwa and Gujarat sultanates led by Mahmud Khilji. This tower is dedicated to the Hindu God Vishnu. It
is a symbol of the Rajasthan Police and the Board of Secondary Education. It is called the Encyclopedia of
Indian Sculpture and the Museum of Hindu Gods and Goddesses. So, Option (d) is correct.

45. "There is suffering, and it has a cause. It can be removed and the way to achieve this is following the path
which consists of a number of interconnected activities related to knowledge, conduct, and meditative
practices."
The above statement reflects the core belief of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?
(a) Ajivika
(b) Charvaka
(c) Buddhism
(d) Jainism
EXPLANATION:
Gautam Buddha offered the middle path to life based on his experience. Buddha focused on the important
questions of sorrow, its cause stopping of suffering and the path through which sorrow can be stopped. The
answers to these questions form the basis of Buddha's enlightenment and are known as the four noble truths
(Catvari arya satyani). These are as follows :
➢ Life is full of suffering (Duhkha)
➢ There is a cause for all suffering (Duhkha-samudaya)
➢ It is possible to put an end to suffering (Duhkha nirodha)
➢ There is a path that leads to the end of suffering (Duhkha-nirodha-marga)
The Eightfold Path consists of a number of interconnected activities related to knowledge, conduct and
meditative practices. It consists of the right view, intention, speech, action, livelihood, effort, mindfulness and
concentration. So, Option (c) is correct.

46. Which of the following kings belong to the period of later Cholas?
1. Rajaraja I
2. Rajendra I
3. Karikalan
4. Kulothungan
5. Perunarkilli
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
The Cholas controlled the central and northern parts of Tamil Nadu. Their core area of rule was the Kaveri
delta, later known as Cholamandalam. Their capital was Uraiyur (near Thiruchirapalli town) and Puhar or
Kaviripattinam was an alternative royal residence and chief port town. Tiger was their emblem.
Kaviripattinam attracted merchants from various regions of the Indian Ocean.
The founder and first king of the Imperial Chola dynasty of Tanjore was Vijayalaya (850 - 871 CE). He
established his power in the area around Uraiyur, captured Tanjore from the Muttaraiyar chieftains, an ally
of the Pandyas, and extended his kingdom along the lower Kaveri. Vijayalaya accepted the over lordship of
Pallavas and began his rule around 850 CE.
In the copper plate documents of his successors that are available, the Cholas trace their ancestry to the
Karikala, the most well-known of the Cholas (early cholas) of the Sangam age.
Vijayalaya’s illustrious successors starting from Parantaka I (907–955) to Kulothunga III (1163–1216) brought
glory and fame to the Cholas.
Parantaka Chola set the tone for expansion of the territory and broadened the base of its governance, and
Rajaraja I (985–1014), the builder of the most beautiful Brihadishvara temple at Thanjavur, and his son
Rajendra I (1014–1044), whose naval operation extended as far as Sri Vijaya, consolidated the advances made
by their predecessors and went on to establish Chola hegemony in peninsular India. So, Statements 1, 2
and 4 are correct.
Perunarkilli was one of the Tamil kings of the Early Cholas mentioned in Sangam Literature. Karikalan, son
of Ilanjetchenni, is portrayed as the greatest Chola of the Sangam age (Early Cholas).
Pattinappalai, composed by the poet Katiyalur Uruttirankannanar, offers elaborate descriptions of the
bustling trading activity here during the rule of Karikalan.
Karikalan’s foremost military achievement was the defeat of the Cheras and the Pandyas, supported by as
many as eleven Velir chieftains at Venni.
 He is credited with converting forest into habitable regions and developing agriculture by providing irrigation
through the embankment of the Kaveri and building reservoirs.
Another king, Perunarkilli is said to have performed the Vedic sacrifice Rajasuyam. Both Karikalan and
Perunakilli belong to early cholas which was mentioned in the sangam literature (The last three centuries
before the common Era and the first three centuries of the Common Era). So, Statements 3 and 5 are not
correct.

47. With reference to Medieval India, "rabab" and "sarangi" refers to:
(a) Musical Instruments
(b) Regional Languages
(c) Vedantist philosophy
(d) Sanskrit literature
EXPLANATION:
In Medieval India, both the rabab and sarangi are string instruments that have been played in India for
centuries and are considered integral to the rich musical heritage of the country. The Turks are credited with
bringing musical instruments like rabab and sarangi into South Asia. So, Option (a) is correct.
Rabab was introduced to the Indian classical music scene around the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries. It
is the national instrument of Arabs. It journeyed through Middle East and Afghanistan to reach India. It was
the most popular instrument in Kashmir and also during Akbar’s time. The rabab became famous because
of Mian Tansen. Tansen’s disciples can be classified into in two groups- the Rababiyas and Beenkaras. Ustad
Pyar Khan and Bahadur Khan were known great Rababiyas.

The Sarangi is a bowed stringed instrument and representative of India. The word ‘Sarangi’ has been derived
from two Hindi words, ‘Sau’, which means hundred and ‘Rang’, which means colour. It is called Sarangi
because the sound of this musical instrument is very pleasing and communicative. It also indicates a varied
range of musical forms. It is said that Sarangi is very close to human voice and that is why it is regarded as
the best accompanying instrument in India.
 48. With reference to Indian history, Biju Patnaik, Chhotu Bhai Puranik, Achyut Patwardhan, and Sucheta
Kripalani are associated with,
(a) Members of the HSRA
(b) Personalities who carried out underground activities
(c) Members included in the viceroy executive council
(d) Took part in individual satyagraha
EXPLANATION:
In July 1942, the Congress Working Committee met at Wardha and resolved to authorize Gandhi to take
charge of the nonviolent mass movement. The resolution is generally referred to as the 'Quit India' resolution.
Many nationalists went underground and took to subversive activities. The participants in these activities
were the Socialists, Forward Bloc members, Gandhi ashramites, revolutionary nationalists and local
organizations in Bombay, Poona, Satara, Baroda and other parts of Gujarat, Karnataka, Kerala, Andhra,
United Provinces, Bihar and Delhi.
The main personalities taking up underground activity were Rammanohar Lohia, Jayaprakash Narayan,
Aruna Asaf Ali, Usha Mehta, Biju Patnaik, Chhotubhai Puranik, Achyut Patwardhan, Sucheta Kripalani and
R.P. Goenka. Usha Mehta started an underground radio in Bombay. This phase of underground activity was
meant to keep up popular morale by continuing to provide a line of command and guidance to distribute
arms and ammunition. So, Option (b) is correct.

49. With reference to the Anglo-Maratha Wars, consider the following pairs :
Treaty Associated Governor General
1. Treaty of Salbai - Warren Hastings
2. Treaty of Bassein - Lord Wellesley
3. Treaty of Gwalior - Lord Hardinge
How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?
(a) None of the pairs
(b) Only one pair
(c) Only two pairs
(d) All three pairs
EXPLANATION:
Warren Hastings was the Governor-General during the First Anglo-Maratha War. The Treaty of Salbai was
signed between Warren Hastings and Mahadaji Sindhia on 17 May 1782 to settle the outcome of the First
Anglo-Maratha War (1776 and 1782). So, Pair 1 is correct.
 Treaty of Bassein (Dec. 31, 1802) was a pact between Baji Rao II, the Maratha Peshwa of Poona and the
British. It was a decisive step in the breakup of the Maratha confederacy. The pact led directly to the East
India Company’s annexation of the peshwa’s territories in western India in 1818. It was Lord Wellesley who
was the Governor General at that period. So, Pair 2 is correct.
The Treaty of Gwalior was (1817) signed between Shinde and the British, even though Shinde was not involved
in the war. According to the treaty, Shinde gave up Rajasthan to the British. The Rajas of Rajputana remained
the Princely States till 1947 after accepting British sovereignty. Lord Hastings was the governor-general of
India at that time. So, Pair 3 is not correct.

50. With reference to the Vijayanagar empire, consider the following statements :
1. Harihara-I, who belonged to the Saluva dynasty, was the founder of the Vijayanagar kingdom.
2. Ibn Battuta visited during the reign of Harihara-I.
3. In Vijayanagar, a combined style of dance and music called Lepakshi was developed.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
According to tradition and epigraphic evidence, two brothers, Harihara and Bukka, of the Sangama Dynasty
(not the saluva dynasty) founded the Vijayanagara Empire in 1336. This empire included peoples who spoke
different languages and followed different religious traditions within its fluctuating frontiers. So, Statement
1 is not correct.
In 1334 Moroccan traveler Ibn Battuta visited India during the rule of Muhammad bin Tughlaq and not
during the reign of Harihara-I and was presented with precious gifts.
In return, Battuta was given a furnished house, a job of Qadi (Judge) in the royal court by the king and stayed
for around seven years. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Built in the 16th century, the golden age of the Vijayanagar empire, the Lepakshi temple in the Anantapur
district of Andhra Pradesh boasts impressive sculptures and exquisite murals portraying stylized versions of
scenes from Hindu lore on its ceilings.
Sri Veerabhadra temple (Lepakshi Temple) is located in Lepakshi Village, named after a main shrine dedicated
to Veerabhadra (the fiery incarnation of Lord Shiva).
From the inscriptions engraved on the prakara walls of the temple, the village is alternatively called Lepaksha,
Lepakshi and Lepakshipura. The word's literal meaning is -Lepa + Akshi- an embalmed or painted eye.
Vijayanagar kings gave patronage to Music and dance as well. Some scholar Lakshmidhar composed a text
on Music called as Sangeeta Suryodaya. In Vijayanagar court, a new style of dance cum Music developed.
This came to be known as the Yakshini style. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

51. The term 'adhyakshas' mentioned in Kautilya's Arthashatra refers to:

(a) Superintendents to regulate economic activities of the state
(b) Officers who spread the message of dhamma
(c) Authorities appointed to punish or reward people
(d) Chiefs who held hereditary positions
EXPLANATION:
Apart from the king and his consultative bodies, there were a number of high officers in charge of important
portfolios. The Arthashastra mentions,
➢ Samahartri (chief collector of revenue, who was in charge of maintaining accounts)
➢ Samnidhatri (treasurer, also in charge of the royal stores).
➢ Dauvarika (chief of the palace attendants),
 ➢ Antaravamshika (chief of the palace guard) and
➢ A large number of adhyakshas (departmental heads or Superintendents to regulate the economic activities
of the state). The Arthashastra recommends that the king grant land unsuitable for agriculture in the
wilderness to ascetics for the study of the Veda and the performance of soma sacrifices. Grants of land to
adhyakshas are also recommended.
So, Option (a) is correct.

52. Consider the following freedom fighters:

1. Sohan Singh
2. Kartar Singh
3. Abdul Mohamed Barakatullah
4. Rash Behari Bose
Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
EXPLANATION:
The Ghadr Party was a revolutionary group organized around a weekly newspaper, The Ghadr, with its
headquarters in San Francisco and branches along the US coast and in the Far East. The Ghadr programme
was to organize assassinations of officials, publish revolutionary and anti-imperialist literature, work among
Indian troops stationed abroad, procure arms and bring about a simultaneous revolt in all British colonies.
The formation of the Ghadar Party was primarily the work of Sikhs. Sohan Singh, Kartar Singh, Abdul
Mohamed Barakatullah, and Rashbehari Bose were among the prominent leaders who laid the groundwork
for the establishment of an Indian political organization in the United States and Canada. The moving spirits
behind the Ghadr Party were Lala Hardayal, Ramchandra, Bhagwan Singh, Kartar Singh Saraba,
Barkatullah, and Bhai Parmanand. So, Option (d) is correct.

53. Consider the following:

1. Worship of female goddesses
2. Fertility-related beliefs
3. Veneration of the pipal tree
4. Fire altars
5. Temple worship
6. Ceremonial bathing
How many of the above were a part of Harappan religious and funerary practices?
(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All six
EXPLANATION:
The worship of female goddesses associated with fertility has long been held as one of the major features of
the Harappan religion. This conclusion is based on the importance of goddess worship in later Hinduism and
the discovery of a large number of terracotta female figurines that were labeled ‘Mother Goddesses.’ Certain
representations on seals are also relevant. For instance, a seal showing a nude woman, head downwards,
with her legs apart and a plant issuing from her vagina is often interpreted as a prototype of Shakambhari,
the Earth Mother. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Another aspect of the fertility-related beliefs of the Harappans was the worship of male and female creative
energy in the form of stone icons of lingas and yonis (representing the male and female sexual organs,
respectively). A terracotta piece that closely resembles a linga with a yoni-pitha (yoni base) has been found at
Kalibangan. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Harappan seals, sealings, amulets, and copper tablets depict a number of trees, plants, and animals,
some of which may have had cultic significance. The pipal (Ficus religiosa) tree appears often and may have
been venerated. Sometimes, there is a figure peering out from between its branches, possibly a tree spirit.
A seal found at Mohenjo-daro shows a row of seven figures with long braids standing in front of a pipal tree,
which has a horned figure standing in it. Scholars have speculated that there may be a connection with the
later traditions of the seven rishis or the seven mothers.
So, Statement 3 is correct.
Kalibangan contains a row of seven clay-lined pits, each about 75 × 55 cm. These have been identified as ‘fire
altars,’ i.e., pits in which offerings were made into the fire as part of sacrificial rituals. Ash, charcoal, the
remains of a rectangular clay piece, and terracotta cakes were found in them. Nearby was a well and the
remains of bath pavements with attached drains, all made of burnt bricks. A ‘fire altar’ and a well were
discovered on another platform in the southern sector of the citadel complex of Kalibangan.
Fire altars’ have also been reported at Banawali, Lothal, Amri, Nageshwar, and Vagad in Gujarat and
Rakhigarhi in Haryana. But it is only at Kalibangan and Banawali that they may have signified some
community event; in the other cases, they seem to have been associated with domestic rituals. So, Statement
4 is correct.
Harappan civilization does display a few features reminiscent of later Hinduism traditions, except, however,
the important element of temple worship. Not a single structure found at any Harappan site can conclusively
be identified as a temple. Thus, Temple worship was not a part of Harappan religious belief. So, Statement
5 is not correct.
The Great Bath in Mohanjadaro was probably the scene of an elite ritual activity involving ceremonial bathing.
The Great Bath, an example of the Harappans’ engineering skill, measures about 14.5 × 7 m, with a maximum
depth of 2.4m.
A wide staircase leads down into the tank from the north and south. The floor and walls of the tank were
made water-tight by finely fitted bricks laid edge to edge with gypsum mortar. A thick layer of bitumen was
laid along the sides of the tank and probably also below the floor, making this one of the earliest examples of
waterproofing in the world. The floor slopes towards the southwest corner, where a small outlet leads to a
large corbelled brick drain, which would have taken the water out to the edge of the mound. There are a
series of rooms along the eastern edge of the building. One of them has a well that may have supplied water
 to the tank. Immediately to the north of the Great Bath is a large building consisting of eight small rooms
with common bathing platforms.
So, Statement 6 is correct.

54. Consider the following pairs :

[Link]. Rivers in Vedic age Known as
1. Vitasta - Chenab
2. Parushni - Jhelum
3. Vipasa - Beas
How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Rig Vedic period is another name for the Early Vedic period. The early Vedic Aryans lived in the area
known as sapta-sindhu meaning area of seven rivers. This area largely covers the northwestern part of South
Asia up to river Yamuna. The seven rivers such as Sindhu, Asikni (Chenab), Parushni (Ravi), Vipash (Beas),
Shutudri (Sutlej) and the Sarasvati.
Vitasta (Jhelum). So, Pair (1) is not correct.
The ‘battle of ten kings’ (dasharajna), recounted in Book 7 of the Rig Veda Samhita may be based on an actual
historical incident. In this battle, the Bharata chief Sudas, grandson of Divodasa, fought against a
confederacy of 10 tribes. This great battle took place on the banks of the river Parushni (Ravi). So, Pair (2) is
not correct.
The core geographical area to which the evidence of the Rigveda relates to was sapta-sindhu or the land of
seven rivers. This would correspond with the whole of Punjab and its neighbouring regions of Haryana. The
Beas was known as the Vipasha, from ‘vipash‘, which means ‘without bonds’ or ‘unfettered’. So, Pair (3) is
correct.
55. With reference to the Gupta period, consider the following statements:
1. ‘Aprahata’ is a term used to refer to the land under cultivation.
2. The officer who maintained records of all land transactions was the sole proprietor of the land.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The concern of society with agricultural production is clear from the way various aspects associated with
agricultural operations are mentioned in the sources of the Gupta period.
Various types of land are mentioned in the inscriptions,
➢ Land under cultivation was usually called Kshetra
➢ Land not under cultivation (waste land) was variously called as Khila, Aprahata and the inscriptions give
the impression that uncultivated land was being regularly brought under cultivation. So, Statement 1
is not correct.
The Paharput copper plate inscription indicates that the king was the sole proprietor of the land. Even when
he made land grants, he reserved his prerogatives over it. The location and boundaries of individual plots
were marked out and measured by the record keepers and influential men in the locality.
As stated in Paharpur plates, an officer called Ustapala maintained records of all the land transactions in the
district, and the village accountant preserved records of land in the village. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

56. Consider the following Saints of the Early Bhakti movement:

1. Appar
2. Tondaradippodi
3. Andal
4. Karaikkal Ammaiyar
5. Sambandar
How many of the Saints given above are referred to as ‘Alvar’?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
EXPLANATION:
Some of the earliest bhakti movements were led by the Alvars (literally, those who are "immersed" in devotion
to Vishnu). They traveled from place to place, singing hymns in Tamil in praise of their gods. By the tenth
Century, the compositions of the 12 Alvars were compiled in an anthology known as the Nalayira
Divyaprabandham (Four Thousand Sacred Compositions).
Appar, also known as Thirunavukkarasar, was a seventh-century Saiva Tamil poet-saint and one of the most
prominent of the 63 Nayanars (Not an Alvar). He was an older contemporary of Thirugnanasambanthar. So,
Statement 1 is not correct.
Thondaradippodi Alvar, or Vipra Narayana, is one of the twelve Alvar saints of South India who are known
for their affiliation with the Vaishnava tradition of Hinduism. He is considered the tenth in the line of the
twelve Alvars.
His works are the Tiruppalli Ezuchi, which has ten verses, and Tirumaalai, which has forty verses, both of
which are counted among the 4000 stanzas in the Nalayira Divya Prabandam. The works of Thondaradipodi
and other azhwars contributed to the philosophical and theological ideas of Vaishnavism. So, Statement 2
is correct.
 Andal, or Kothai Naachiyaar, is the only female Alvar among the 12 Alvar saints of South India. Andal saw
herself as the beloved of Vishnu; her verses express her love for the deity. She is credited with the great Tamil
works of Thiruppavai and Nachiar Tirumozhi, which devotees still recite during the winter festival season of
Margazhi. So, Statement 3 is correct.
KaraikkalAmmaiyar is one of the three women saints among the 63 Nayanmars (Not an Alvar), and is
considered one of the greatest figures of Tamil literature. She was born in Karaikkal, which was, during the
Chola period, a maritime center. Ammaiyar was a great devotee of Lord Siva, and she is believed to have lived
during the sixth Century, named Punithavathi. Right from childhood, she had great faith in Lord Siva and
worshipped Him daily. She adopted the path of extreme asceticism in order to attain her goal. So, Statement
4 is not correct.
Thirugnanasambanthar was a young Saiva poet-saint who lived in the seventh Century CE. He is one of the
most prominent saints amongst the 63 Nayanmars (Not an Alvar). Sambanthar's entire collection of hymns
about Lord Shiva is called "Thirukkadaikappu." These were later collected to form the first three volumes of
the Thirumurai – one of the principal texts of Saiva Siddhantha philosophy. Sambanthar was a contemporary
of Thirunavukkarasar (Appar), another renowned Saiva saint who lived in the same period. So, Statement 5
is not correct.

57. With reference to the Harappan site of Dholavira, consider the following statements:
1. It was a single-mound site with no fortifications.
2. It had an impressive and unique water harvesting and management system.
3. The Dholavira ‘signboard’ indicates a civic use of writing among the Harappans.
How many statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Dholavira is located on Kadir island in the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat. The architecture of Dholavira shows a
large-scale use of sandstone, combined in places with mudbrick—a feature of the Harappan sites of Gujarat.
The layout of this settlement is unlike that of any other Harappan site. It is surrounded by an outer
fortification wall made of mudbrick with a veneer of stone blocks on the outer face. Thus, the site of Dholavira
has fortifications. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The configuration of the city of Dholavira is an outstanding example of a planned city with planned and
segregated urban residential areas based on possibly differential occupational activities and a stratified
society.
The city had an impressive and unique water harvesting and management system. It can be noted that this
area receives less than 160 cm of rain every year and is very prone to droughts. The site is flanked by two
streams, namely, the Manhar and Mandsar. Dams were built across these to channel their water into
reservoirs. Several large, deep water cisterns and reservoirs (at least 16) located in the citadel and lower town
preserved precious stores of rainwater. So, Statement 2 is correct.
One of the most exciting discoveries at Dholavira is a large wooden "signboard" just outside the north entrance
to the citadel. This is actually one of the longest Indus inscriptions known.
The Dholavira' signboard' may or may not indicate a high level of urban literacy, but it does indicate a civic
use of writing. It is likely that a very small proportion of Harappan's written material survives and that people
wrote on perishable material as well. The evidence of a common script all over the vast Harappan culture
zone shows a high level of cultural integration. So, Statement 3 is correct.
58. Consider the following with reference to the Government of India Act 1919:
1. It provided for a bicameral legislature at the centre.
2. It introduced dyarchy at the provincial level.
3. The revenue resources from income tax and land resources are assigned to the centre.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
The Government of India Act of 1919 was based on what is popularly known as the Montague-Chelmsford
Reforms. In August 1917, the British government, for the first time, declared that its objective was to
gradually introduce responsible government in India, but as an integral part of the British Empire.
➢ Under the 1919 Act, the Indian Legislative Council at the Centre was replaced by a bicameral system
consisting of a Council of State (Upper House) and a Legislative Assembly (Lower House). So, Statement
1 is correct.
The act introduced dyarchy in the provinces, which indeed was a substantial step towards the transfer of
power to the Indian people. Although it gave considerable autonomy to Indians, they kept the real powers
firmly in British hands. The system of dyarchy, as introduced by these reforms, gave greater representation
to Indians and greater control of local expenditure. However, the elected legislature had no control over the
executive. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Subjects were divided into two lists: ‘reserved’, which included subjects such as law and order, finance, land
revenue, irrigation, etc., and ‘transferred’, which included subjects such as education, health, local
government, industry, agriculture, excise, etc. The reserved subjects were to be administered by the governor
through his executive council of bureaucrats, and the transferred subjects were to be administered by
ministers nominated from among the elected members of the legislative council.
The provincial ministers had no control over finances or bureaucrats, which led to constant friction between
them. Ministers were often not consulted on important matters, too; in fact, they could be overruled by the
governor on any matter that the latter considered special.
Thus, the revenue resources were divided between the center and the provinces, with land revenue going to
the provinces, and income tax remaining with the center. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
59. Consider the following with reference to Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar:
1. He was the first Indian principal of Fort William College.
2. He took steps to include non-brahmins in Sanskrit school.
3. He established a Bethune female school and acted as secretary.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Fort William College was established in 1800 by Lord Wellesley in Calcutta to train British civil servants in
Indian languages. The college was managed by British scholars, and John Borthwick Gilchrist is often
associated with its leadership, especially in the Hindustani department. In 1850, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
became the first principal of Sanskrit College. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was determined to break the priestly monopoly of scriptural knowledge. For this,
he opened the Sanskrit College to non-brahmins as he also changed the rules of admission for students in
Sanskrit College, allowing non-Brahmin students. So, Statement 2 is correct.
➢ He introduced Western thought in Sanskrit College to break the self-imposed isolation of Sanskritic
learning. As an academician, he developed a new methodology for teaching Sanskrit.
➢ Vidyasagar started a movement in support of widow remarriage, which resulted in the legalization of
widow remarriage.
➢ He was also a crusader against child marriage and polygamy. He did much for the cause of women's
education. As government inspector of schools, he helped organize thirty-five girls' schools, many of which
he ran at his own expense.
John Elliot Drinkwater Bethune, the educator whose contribution towards women's education in India is
immense, founded a Hindu Female School in 1849 with 21 girls at Baithakkhana at a private residence.
Pandit Iswar Chandra Vidyasagar helped Bethune to establish Bethune School and acted as its Secretary of
Bethune. He was one of the pioneers of higher education for women in India. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

60. Tabernacle of New Dispensation, in Indian history, is associated with,

(a) Religious establishment by Keshab Chandra Sen
(b) The place where the Young Bengal movement officially launched
(c) The place where the Quit India movement launched
(d) Swami Vivekananda's first speech after returning from Chicago
EXPLANATION:
On the occasion of the anniversary festival on 24th January 1868 Keshub laid the foundation stone of his
mandir called the Tabernacle of New Dispensation. Keshub and his followers marched to the proposed spot
early in the morning performing sankirtan and this was the first Brahmo street procession and it was the
first of its kind in Calcutta. Adi Samaj condemned it as a degradation of Brahmoism.

61. With reference to the Chalcolithic settlements in India, consider the following statements:
1. The people were mostly urbanized and used bronze objects.
2. In the Chalcolithic settlements in Malwa and Rajasthan, stylized bull terracotta shows that the bull was
the symbol of a religious cult.
3. Unlike in central and western India, in eastern India, the Chalcolithic phase was immediately followed
by the iron phase.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The Chalcolithic people mostly used stone and copper objects, but they also occasionally used low-grade
bronze and even iron. They were primarily rural communities spread over a wide area with hilly land and
rivers.
On the other hand, the Harappans (not the Chalcolithic people) used bronze and urbanized based on the
produce from the flood plains of various river valleys in India. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Terracotta figurines of women suggest that the Chalcolithic people worshiped the mother goddess, and some
unbaked nude clay figurines were also used for worship. A figure of the mother goddess, similar to that found
in Western Asia, has been found in Inamgoan, Maharashtra. In the Malwa and Rajasthan region, stylized
bull terracottas show that the bull was the symbol of a religious cult. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Chalcolithic cultures in central and western India disappeared by 1200 BC or thereabout; only the Jorwe
culture continued until 700 BC. In western India and western Madhya Pradesh, the eclipse of the Chalcolithic
habitations is attributed to a decline in rainfall from about 1200 BC onwards. Still, in West Bengal and the
mid-Gangetic zone, they continued for a long time.
In the red soil areas, especially in eastern India, the Chalcolithic phase was immediately followed, without
any gap, by the iron phase, which gradually transformed the people into full-fledged agriculturalists. The
same is true of the Chalcolithic cultures of the mid-Gangetic plains. So, Statement 3 is correct.

62. The term ‘vidatha’ found in the Rig Vedic text refers to which of the following?
(a) A warring tribe
(b) An agricultural implement
(c) A tax
(d) A tribal assembly
EXPLANATION:
The Rig Veda is pervaded with the aura of warring tribes. About 30 tribes and clans are mentioned as warring
tribes in Rig Veda. Five tribes, such as the Yadu, Turvasha, Puru, Anu, and Druhyu, are collectively known
as the ‘five peoples’ (pancha-jana, pancha-kristhya, or pancha-manusha).
The Purus and Bharatas are the two dominant tribes. The Rig Veda mentions a chief of the Purus named
Trasadasyu. It also mentions a famous Bharata king named Divodasa and describes his victory over the Dasa
ruler Shambara. So, Option (a) is not correct.
The terms vap (to sow) and Krish (to cultivate) occur, along with references to various agricultural implements
in Rig Vedic text. Phala, langala, and sira are words for the plough, which must have been made of wood.
Other agricultural implements included the hoe (khanitra), sickle (datra, srini), and axe (parashu, kulisha).
A regular taxation system had not yet emerged in the Rig Vedic Society. So, Options (b) and (c) are not
correct.
The Rig Veda mentions assemblies such as the Sabha and Samiti. The distinctions between their functions
are not entirely clear. The Sabha seems to have been a smaller, more elite gathering, whereas the samiti
appears to have been a larger assembly presided over by the Rajan. Such assemblies may have played an
important role in the redistribution of resources. Hymns express the desire for harmony among members
(‘Assemble, speak together; let your minds be all of one accord.’).
The Vidatha has been referred to as a tribal assembly with diverse functions. However, it actually seems to
refer to a local congregation of people meeting to perform socio-religious rituals and ceremonies for the well-
being of the settlement. So, Option (d) is correct.

63. With reference to the rulers of ancient India, consider the following statements:
1. Chandragupta I was given the title of ‘Maharajadhiraja.’
2. Samudragupta was known as the ‘Napoleon of India.’
3. Chandragupta II was given the title of “Kaviraja.”
 How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The real founder of the Gupta empire was Chandragupta I (AD 319–334). The year of his accession in A.D.
319 marks the beginning of the Gupta era. It was subsequently used in all their records and also those of
their feudatories. He took the title of Maharajadhiraja (king of kings).
He married a Lichchhavi princess, Kumaradevi. This event is recorded in a series of gold coins issued by
Chandragupta. It appears that this matrimonial alliance gave legitimacy, prestige and strength to the Gupta
king. Chandragupta ruled over Magadha (Bihar), Saket (modern Ayodhya), and Prayaga (modern Allahabad),
with his capital at Pataliputra (Modern Patna). So, Statement 1 is correct.
Chandragupta was succeeded by his son Samudragupta (A.D. 335–375). Samudragupta followed a policy of
conquest and enormously enlarged his kingdom.
Samudragupta (335-375AD) of the Gupta dynasty is known as the Napolean of India. Historian A V Smith
called him because of his great military conquests known from the ‘Prayag Prashati” written by his courtier
and poet Harisena, who also describes him as the hero of a hundred battles. The inscription is engraved on
a Pillar at Allahabad. It enumerates the people and the regions conquered by Samudragupta. He adopted a
different policy for different areas conquered by him. In the Ganga-Yamuna doab, he followed a policy of
annexation. He defeated nine Naga rulers and incorporated their kingdoms into the Gupta empire. He then
proceeded to conquer the forest kingdoms of central India, mentioned as atavirajyas. So, Statement 2 is
correct.
Samudragupta was given the title of “Kaviraja” because he was as devoted to the arts of peace as to war. He
was a great musician and played the vina, an Indian stringed instrument resembling the lyre or lute, with
great aplomb. He was a highly intellectual person and an accomplished poet. He was always depicted as an
able and compassionate ruler who cared a lot for the welfare of his subjects, particularly people experiencing
poverty. He granted permission to the Sri Lankan king to build a Buddhist monastery and rest house for Sri
Lankan pilgrims at Bodhgaya. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

64. Consider the following statement with reference to Annie Besant:

1. She founded newspapers like Commonweal and Madras Standard.
2. She founded the Women's India Association the year after presiding over the Congress session.
3. In 1917, the support for the home rule movement was restricted to Congress, and the Muslim League
refrained from it.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Annie Besant, the Irish theosophist based in India since 1896, had decided to enlarge the sphere of her
activities to include the building of a movement for home rule on the lines of the Irish Home Rule Leagues.
By early 1915, Annie Besant had launched a campaign to demand self-government for India after the war on
the lines of white colonies. She campaigned through her newspapers, New India and Commonweal, and
through public meetings and conferences. The Madras Standard was later renamed to New India. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
Annie Besant presided over the Indian National Congress session in 1917, the same year the Women’s India
Association (WIA) was founded. Established on May 8, 1917, in Adyar, Madras, the WIA was India’s first
 national women's organization, working towards women's education, social reforms, and political rights.
Annie Besant served as its first president, along with co-founders like Margaret Cousins.
The association played a significant role in advocating for women’s suffrage, equal opportunities, and
participation in the nationalist movement, laying the foundation for future women’s rights activism in India.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
During 1916–1917, both the Congress and the Muslim League actively participated in the Home Rule League
Movement. Led by Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak, the movement gained momentum in 1916, with
members from both parties joining the Home Rule Leagues to advocate for self-governance.
The Lucknow Pact of 1916 further solidified the collaboration between the Indian National Congress and the
Muslim League, strengthening their collective push for constitutional reforms and self-rule within the British
Empire. The movement continued to gain traction until 1917 when mounting pressure led the British
authorities to make concessions, promising gradual political reforms. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

65. Consider the following kingdoms :

1. Pala
2. Kamarupa
3. Gandhara
4. Avanti
Which of the above kingdoms does not comes under the sixteen Mahajanapadas ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 only
EXPLANATION:
Mahajanapadas is a Sanskrit word that means "Great Kingdoms" (Maha - "great," and Janapada-"foothold of
a tribe," "country").
Ancient Buddhist texts frequently referenced the sixteen great kingdoms and republics (Solas
Mahajanapadas), which had evolved and flourished in the northern/north-western parts of the Indian sub-
continent before the rise of Buddhism in India.
Janapada means the land where the Jana (people) set foot and settled down. The tribes (janas) of the late
Vedic period decided to form their territorial communities, which eventually gave rise to new and permanent
areas of settlements called 'states' or 'janapadas. The rajas who performed big sacrifices were now recognized
as rajas of janapadas rather than Janas.
About 2500 years ago, some janapadas became more important than others and were known as
mahajanapadas.
There were sixteen Mahajanapadas: Kasi, Kosala, Anga, Magadha, Vajji, Malla, Chedi, Vatsa, Kuru, Panchala,
Machcha, Surasena, Assaka, Avanti, Gandhara and Kamboja.
So, Option (a) is correct.
66. Consider the following statements :
Statement I :
Chengiz Khan came close but did not invade India.
Statement II :
Qutbuddin Aibak refused to give asylum to Jalaluddin Mangabarni, the ruler of Kwarizam.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) Both Statements I and II are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement-I
(b) Both Statements I and II are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
EXPLANATION:
With the rise of the Khwarizmi empire, the Control of the Ghurids over Kabul, Qandahar and Ghazni has
been rapidly lost and the boundary of the Khawarizmi empire had reached the river Indus. It appeared that
a struggle for the mastery of north India between the Khawarizmi rulers and the successors of Qutbuddin
Aibak was about to begin.
There, the arrival of Chengiz Khan, the Mongol leader, who prided in calling himself ‘the Scourge of God’. The
Mongols attacked the Khwarizmi empire in 1218. The Mongols deliberately used terror as an instrument of
war.
The Mongols threat to India appeared in 1221. After the defeat of the Khwarizmi ruler, the crown prince,
Jalaluddin, fled and was pursued by Chengiz Khan. Jalaluddin fought a brave battle on the banks of the
Indus, and after being defeated; he flung his horse into the river and crossed over to India.
Although Chengiz Khan loitered near the river Indus for three months, he decided not to cross into India,
preferring to give his attention to conquering the remaining portions of the Khawarizmi empire. Iltutmish,
who was ruling at Delhi at the time, tried to appease the Mongols by politely refusing a request from
Jalaluddin for asylum.
In 1210, Aibak died of injuries received in a fall from his horse while playing chaugan (polo). He was succeeded
at Delhi by Iltutmish who was the son in law of Aibak.
So, Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false. So, Option (c) is correct.

67. Consider the following:

1. Defence management
2. Foreign affairs
3. Religious affairs
4. Issues related to tribal areas
How many of the given above come under the original jurisdiction of the governor-general as per the
Government of India Act 1935?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Amidst the struggle of 1932, the Third Round Table Conference was held in November, again without
Congress's participation. The discussions led to the formulation of the Act of 1935, in which the subjects to
be administered were divided into reserved and transferred subjects. Reserved subjects—foreign affairs,
defence, tribal areas and ecclesiastical affairs—were to be exclusively administered by the governor-general
on the advice of executive councillors. Executive councillors were not to be responsible to the central
legislature. So, Option (d) is correct.
68. Consider the following:
1. Cotton
2. Rice
3. Opium
4. Saltpetre
5. Tea
How many of the above are the main goods handled by the Dutch?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
EXPLANATION:
The Dutch pursued Eastern trade, with Cornelis de Houtman reaching Sumatra and Bantam in 1596. In
1602, the Netherlands merged several trading companies into the Dutch East India Company, granting it
powers to wage war, form treaties, acquire territory, and build fortresses.
The English and Dutch competed for dominance in Eastern trade, leading to violent conflict. The rivalry
peaked in 1623 with the Amboyna Massacre, where the Dutch killed ten Englishmen and nine Japanese.
This intensified hostilities until a 1667 compromise: the British withdrew from Indonesia, while the Dutch
exited India to focus on Indonesian trade. The Dutch monopolised the trade in black pepper and spices. The
most important Indian commodities the Dutch traded in were silk, cotton, indigo, rice and opium. So, Option
(b) is correct.

69. During which event of the Indian freedom struggle was the Kurnool Circular circulated?
(a) Swadeshi and boycott movement
(b) Quit India movement
(c) Anti-Simon Commission movement
(d) Jallian Walla Bagh massacre
EXPLANATION:
The Kurnool Circular, drafted by Kala Venkat Rao and issued on July 29, 1942, outlined a civil disobedience
plan to disrupt British rule. It called for students to leave schools, lawyers to quit practice, and traders to
withdraw bank savings. The circular aimed to paralyze communication and revenue sources by cutting
telephone and telegram lines, refusing taxes, and boycotting British goods. It played a crucial role in
strengthening the Quit India Movement and intensifying the final phase of India's freedom struggle. So,
Option (b) is correct.

70. With references to the epigraphical sources of ancient India, consider the following statements:
1. The term ‘Senapati’ does not occur in Gupta inscriptions.
2. A Vaishali seal mentions the ranabhandagar-adhikarana, which is the district-level police office.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Seals and inscriptions mention military designations such as baladhikrita and mahabaladhikrita
(commander of infantry and cavalry). The standard term “senapati” does not occur in Gupta inscriptions, but
the term could be found in some Vakataka epigraphs. So, Statement 1 is correct.
 A Vaishali seal mentions the ranabhandagar-adhikarana, which is the office of the military storehouse.
Another Vaishali seal mentions the adhikarana (office) of the dandapashika, which may have been a district-
level police office. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

71. Consider the following statements:

1. Rajaraja Chola conquered the Maldives Islands.
2. Rajendra I helped in the construction of a Buddhist monastery at Nagapattinam.
3. Rajendra I founded the city of Gangaikondacholapuram to commemorate his successful expedition to
north India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
By these conquests, the extent of the Chola empire under Rajaraja I included the Pandya, Chera and the
Tondaimandalam regions of Tamil Nadu and the Gangavadi, Nolambapadi and the Telugu Choda territories
in the Deccan and the northern part of Ceylon and the Maldives Islands beyond India. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
Rajaraja assumed a number of titles like Mummidi Chola, Jayankonda and Sivapadasekara. He was a devout
follower of Saivism. He completed the construction of the famous Rajarajeswara temple or Brihadeeswara
temple at Tanjore in 1010 A.D. He also helped in the construction of a Buddhist monastery at Nagapattinam.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Rajendra I most famous military enterprise was his expedition to north India. The Chola army crossed the
Ganges by defeating a number of rulers on its way. Rajendra defeated Mahipala I of Bengal. To commemorate
this successful North-Indian campaign Rajendra founded the city of Gangaikondacholapuram and constructed
the famous Rajesvaram temple in that city. He also excavated a large irrigation tank called Cholagangam on
the western side of the city. So, Statement 3 is correct.

72. Consider the following personalities :

1. Rajkumar Shukla
2. J.B. Kriplani
3. Mazhar – ul-Haq
4. Mahadev Desai
5. Mohanlal Pandya
How many of the above personalities were involved in Champaran movement?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All Five
EXPLANATION:
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first Satyagraha movement led by Gandhi in India and is
considered a historically important revolt in the Indian Independence Movement. It was a farmer's
uprising that took place in the Champaran district of Bihar, India, during the British colonial period.
Some Leaders and their participation in Champaran Satyagraha was
➢ Gandhi was requested by Rajkumar Shukla, a local man, to look into the problems of the farmers in the
context of indigo planters of Champaran in Bihar.
 ➢ Gandhi, joined by Rajendra Prasad, Mazharul-Haq, Mahadeo Desai, Narhari Parekh, and J.B. Kripalani,
reached Champaran to probe into the matter.
➢ Gandhi had won the first battle of civil disobedience in India. Other popular leaders associated with
Champaran Satyagraha were Brajkishore Prasad, Anugrah Narayan Sinha, Ramnavmi Prasad and
Shambhusharan Varma.
Mohanlal Pandya was a Gandhian who involved in Keda satyagraha and not part of champaran
movement. So, Option (c) is correct.

73. Consider the following statements with reference to inscriptions

1. Inscriptions are writings engraved on hard surfaces such as stone, metal or pottery.
2. They record the achievements and the exploits of kings or donations made by women and men to
religious institutions.
3. Prashastis are the inscriptions composed by poets in praise of kings and patrons.
4. The first person in ancient Indian history to issue inscriptions was Chandragupta Maurya.
How many statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Inscriptions are permanent writings engraved on hard surfaces such as stone, metal or terracotta. The study
of inscriptions is called epigraphy. The earliest inscriptions were written on stone. Some inscriptions carry
dates. Others are dated on the basis of paleography or style of writing, with a fair amount of precision. The
earliest inscriptions were in Prakrit, a name for a language used by ordinary people. In later times, Tamil and
Sanskrit were also used to write inscriptions. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Inscriptions usually record the achievements, activities and ideas of those who got them inscribed. So, we get
inscriptions that glorify the exploits of kings or mention donations made by men and women for religious
purposes. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Inscription of a special kind known as a prashasti, a Sanskrit word meaning ‘in praise of’. In other words Those
inscriptions which are composed by poets in praise of kings and patrons are known as prashastis.
While prashastis were composed for some of them, such as Gautamiputra Shri Satakarni, they became far
more important from the time of the Guptas. In other words Those inscriptions which are composed by poets
in praise of kings and patrons are known as prashastis. So, Statement 3 is correct.
The Mauryan king Ashoka was the first person to issue inscriptions. Most of his inscriptions are in Prakrit
language written in the Brahmi script though some in the northwest were written in Kharosthi. The Aramaic
and Greek scripts were used for inscriptions in Afghanistan so that the local people could understand their
subject matter. Hence, the first person in ancient Indian history to issue inscriptions was Ashoka not
Chandragupta Maurya. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

74. The famous Allahabad pillar contains the inscriptions of which of the following rulers?
1. Ashoka
2. Samudragupta
3. Chandragupta II
4. Shahjahan
5. Jahangir
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 5 only
EXPLANATION:
➢ Asoka originally installed the Allahabad pillar inscription at Kausambi. It was later on shifted to Allahabad
Fort. It contains three inscriptions belonging to the time of Asoka, Samudragupta and Jahangir.
➢ Samudragupta delighted in violence and conquest. His court poet Harishena wrote a glowing account of
the military exploits of his patron and, in a long Allahabad pillar inscription.
➢ Allahabad pillar inscription contains information about Mughal emperor Jahangir, written in Persian and
inscribed in a fine Nastaliq script by his favorite calligrapher, Abdullah Mushkin Qalam. The inscription
records Jahangir's ancestry.
So, Option (d) is correct.

75. Who among the following is/are associated with the famous Sudarshana Lake?
1. Shakas
2. Maurya
3. Gupta
4. Kushana
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Sudarshan Lake is located in the middle of a hill called Girnaar in Saurashtra. This lake was constructed by
order of Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Maurya dynasty, by the Governor 'Pushyagupta Vaishya'
appointed in his Girnaar.
Following are the rulers who reconstructed Sudarshan Lake-
➢ By the order of Emperor Ashoka, his great master Tushasp had rebuilt this lake and strengthened it.
➢ In the post-Mauryan period, Suvishakh, the Governor of Saurashtra, rebuilt the lake on the orders of the
Shaka ruler Rudradaman.
➢ In the Gupta period, by the order of Skandagupta, Chakrapalit rebuilt the lake. Skandagupta spent money
with great generosity and built a dam built on this lake.
The Junagarh inscription of Rudradaman, which is of Shak Samvat 72 (150-151 AD), gives information about
the history of the Sudarshan lake.
So, Option (c) is correct.

76. Consider the following :

Sl.
Terms Definitions
No.
1. Dubashes - Rural settlement in South India
2. Qasbath - Small town in the countryside
3. Ganj - Small fixed market
4. Kotwal - Impherial officer who dealt with policing of the town
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
EXPLANATION:
During the colonial period, Madras developed by incorporating innumerable surrounding villages and by
creating opportunities and spaces for a variety of communities. Of the several different communities that
came and settled in Madras, the Dubashes were Indians who could speak two languages – the local language
and English.
They worked as agents and merchants, acting as intermediaries between Indian society and the British. They
used their privileged position in government to acquire wealth. Their powerful position in society was
established by their charitable works and patronage of temples in the Black town. So, Pair 1 is not correct.
Qasbas, in the medieval context, was largely an extension of a village, a small town in the countryside, often
the seat of a local notable. A large village with a market center possessed all potential to turn into a Qasba.
So, Pair 2 is correct.
Ganj refers to a small fixed market. Many Qasbas also emerged out of market towns. Qasbas with the suffix
‘ganj’ were large ‘market’ towns where weekly markets (hats) and fairs (melas) were also held. So, Pair 3 is
correct.
Kotwal was the overall incharge of town administration in north India. He was appointed by the emperor at
the recommendation of mir-i atish. He was responsible for the maintenance of law and order and safety of
the town population. To prevent theft, murder, etc. was the responsibility of the kotwal. He also supervised
and controlled the markets. His office in the city was known as chabutara-i kotwali. So, Pair 4 is correct.

77. Consider the following:

1. He was born into a family of Mahar caste around 1840.
2. He developed a racial theory to explain the oppression and also published a monthly journal targeted at
Brahmanical Orthodoxy.
3. He also wrote articles for Marathi-language newspapers such as Sudharak and Deenbandhu, as well as
composed couplets in Marathi.
4. His monthly journal was the first one to have untouchable class as its target audience.
Which personality from Indian history is mentioned above?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dhondo Keshav Karve
(c) Shankarrao Kharat
(d) Gopal Baba Walangkar
EXPLANATION:
Gopal Baba Walangkar, also known as Gopal Krishna (c. 1840–1900), was a pioneering activist dedicated to
liberating India's untouchables from socio-economic oppression. He is regarded as a trailblazer of the
movement, formulating a racial theory to explain their plight. He also published the monthly journal Vital-
Vidhvansak, which challenged Brahmanical orthodoxy.
He was born in Ravdul, Maharashtra, belonged to the Mahar caste and was related to Ramabai, wife of B. R.
Ambedkar. After serving in the army, he settled in Dapoli in 1886 and was influenced by social reformer
Jyotirao Phule. In 1895, he was appointed to the Mahad taluk board, sparking controversy among upper
castes. He passed away in Ravdul in 1900. So, Option (d) is correct.

78. With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:

1. Milindapanha
2. Ashtadhyayi
3. Bhagavati Sutra
4. Netigandha
5. Nidanakatha
 How many of the texts given above are Buddhist texts?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
EXPLANATION:
Non-canonical Buddhist literature includes Milindapanha (first century BCE first century CE), which consists
of a dialogue between Indo-Greek king Menander and a Buddhist monk, Nagasena. Thus, Milindapanha is a
Buddhist text. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Ashtadhyayi, the Sanskrit treatise on grammar written in the 6th to 5th century BCE by the Indian
grammarian Panini. This work set the linguistic standards for Classical Sanskrit. It sums up in 4,000 sutras
the science of phonetics and grammar that had evolved in the Vedic religion.
Panini divided his work into eight chapters, each of which is further divided into quarter chapters. Beyond
defining the morphology and syntax of the Sanskrit language, Ashtadhyayi distinguishes between usage in
the spoken language and usage that is proper to the language of the sacred texts. Thus, Ashtadhyayi by
Panini is a text on Sanskrit grammar.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Bhagavati Sutra is a Jaina text. The Bhagavati Sutra describes a violent quarrel between Makkhali Gosala
and Mahavira, in which the former cursed the tirthankara and tried to destroy him with his great powers, of
course unsuccessfully.
The Bhagavati Sutra gives a list of powerful states that flourished in the early 6th century BCE such as Anga,
Banga (Vanga), Magaha (Magadha), Malaya, Malava, Achchha, Vachchha (Vatsa), Kochchha, Ladha (Lata or
Radha), Padha (Pandya or Paundra), Bajji (Vajji), Moli (Malla), Kasi (Kashi), Kosala, Avaha, and Sambhuttara.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Netigandha (Nettipakarna) is a mythological Buddhist scripture sometimes included in the Khuddaka Nikaya
of Theravada Buddhism. The Nettipakarana is ascribed to the Buddha's disciple, Kaccana, by the text's
colophon, introductory verses, and the commentary attributed to Dhammapala. The text's colophon says he
composed the book, that the Buddha approved it and that it was recited at the First Council (483 BC). Thus,
Netigandha is a Buddhist text.
The first connected life story of the Buddha occurs in the Nidanakatha (1st century). Therefore, Nidanakatha
is the Buddhist text. So, Statements 4 and 5 are correct.

79. The "dvarapalas" sculpture at the entrance of Garbagriha in Dravida style of temple architecture refers to
which among the following?
(a) River goddesses
(b) Subsidiary shrines
(c) Doorkeepers
(d) Erotic images
EXPLANATION:
The study of images of deities falls within a branch of art history called 'iconography,' which consists of the
identification of images based on certain symbols and mythologies associated with them. Every region and
period produced its distinct style of images with its regional variations in iconography. The temple is covered
with elaborate sculptures and ornament that form a fundamental part of its conception. The placement of an
image in a temple is carefully planned as follows:
➢ River goddesses (Ganga and Yamuna) are usually found at the entrance of a garbhagriha in a Nagara
temple.
➢ Dvarapalas (doorkeepers) are usually found on the gateways or gopurams of Dravida temples.
 ➢ Mithunas (erotic images), navagrahas (the nine auspicious planets) and yakshas are also placed at
entrances to guard them.
Unlike the Nagara temple, the Dravida temple is enclosed within a compound wall. The front wall has an
entrance gateway in its centre, which is known as a gopuram. The shape of the main temple tower, known
as Vimana in Tamil Nadu, is like a stepped pyramid that rises up geometrically rather than the curving
shikhara of North India.
In the South Indian temple, the word ‘shikhara’ is used only for the crowning element at the top of the temple
which is usually shaped like a small stupika or an octagonal cupola— this is equivalent to the amlak and
kalasha of North Indian temples. It is common to find a large water reservoir or a temple tank enclosed within
the complex.
Thus, the "dvarapalas" sculpture at the entrance of Garbagriha in Dravida style temple architecture are
doorkeepers. So, Option (c) is correct.

80. Consider the following pairs:

[Link]. (Literature) (About)
1. Akbar Nama - History of Akbar
2. Badshah Nama - Biography of Shah Jahan
3. Alamgir Nama - Reign of the first decade of Aurangzeb
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Akbar ordered one of his close friends and courtiers, Abul Fazl, to write a history of his reign. Abul Fazl wrote
a three-volume history of Akbar’s reign, titled Akbar Nama. The first volume dealt with Akbar’s ancestors,
and the second volume recorded the events of Akbar’s reign. The third volume is the Ain-i Akbari. It deals
with Akbar’s administration, household, army, the revenues and the geography of his empire. It also provides
rich details about the traditions and culture of the people living in India. The most interesting aspect of the
Ain-i Akbari is its rich statistical details about things as diverse as crops, yields, prices, wages and revenues.
So, Pair (1) is correct.
Among the important illustrated Mughal chronicles, Badshah Nama (The Chronicle of a King) was the most
well-known. A pupil of Abul Fazl, Abdul Hamid Lahori is known as the author of the Badshah Nama. Emperor
Shah Jahan, hearing of his talents, commissioned him to write a history of his reign modeled on the Akbar
Nama. The Badshah Nama is the official history in three volumes (daftars) of ten lunar years each. Lahori
 wrote the first and second daftars comprising the first two decades of the emperor’s rule (1627-47); these
volumes were later revised by Sadullah Khan, Shah Jahan’s wazir. So, Pair (2) is correct.
Alamgir Nama is the story of Alamgir, a title of the Mughal ruler Aurangazeb. Following the tradition of the
Mughal emperors from the time of Akbar, Aurangzeb ordered his court historian, Mirza Muhammad Kazim,
to record and compile the history of his reign. It consists of the history of the first ten years of Aurangzeb’s
reign, compiled by Muhammad Kazim. So, Pair (3) is correct.

81. The crop is Tropical and subtropical in nature. It grows well in hot and humid climates with a temperature
of 21 – 27 degrees Celsius and an annual rainfall between 75 cm and 100cm. It can be grown on a variety
of soils and needs manual labour from sowing to harvesting. India is the largest producer and consumer of
this crop while being the second largest exporter. Which one of the following is the crop?
(a) Cotton
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Jute
(d) Tea
EXPLANATION:
Sugarcane is a tropical as well as a subtropical crop. It grows well in hot and humid climates with a
temperature of 21°C to 27°C and an annual rainfall between 75cm and 100cm. Irrigation is required in
regions with low rainfall. It can be grown on a variety of soils and needs manual labour from sowing to
harvesting.
India is the second-largest producer of sugarcane, only after Brazil. It is the main source of sugar, gur
(jaggary), khandsari and molasses. The major sugarcane-producing states are Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra,
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Bihar, Punjab and Haryana. So, Option (b) is correct.

82. Consider the following statements regarding the Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) Clause:
1. The MFN principle under the WTO, as enshrined in GATT, GATS, and TRIPS, mandates that any trade
advantage granted by a member to one country must be extended to all WTO members.
2. India’s suspension of MFN status to Pakistan in 2019 did not require formal notification to the WTO, as
there is no prescribed procedure for such suspension under WTO rules.
3. The suspension of the MFN clause in the India-Switzerland Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement
(DTAA) allows Switzerland to impose higher tariffs on Indian goods compared to those from other WTO
members.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The most-favoured-nation (MFN) principle denotes treating other countries equally. Under WTO agreements,
countries cannot normally discriminate between their trading partners. When granting a country a special
favour (such as a lower customs duty rate for one of its products), the same should be done for all other WTO
members.
It is so important that it is the first article of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), which
governs trade in goods. MFN is also a priority in the General Agreement on Trade in Services (GATS) (Article
2) and the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) (Article 4), although
the principle is handled slightly differently in each agreement. Together, those three agreements cover all
three main areas of trade handled by the WTO. So, Statement 1 is correct.
 There is no formal procedure for suspending MFN treatment, and it is unclear whether members are obligated
to inform the WTO if they do so. India suspended Pakistan’s MFN status in 2019 after a suicide attack by a
Pakistan-based Islamist group killed 40 police. Pakistan never applied MFN status to India. So, Statement
2 is correct.
The MFN clause in a Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) pertains to tax benefits, such as income
tax rates, rather than tariffs or trade barriers. Switzerland’s suspension of the DTAA affects tax reciprocity,
not import duties, which fall under the WTO’s Most-Favored-Nation (MFN) framework.
It also signals Switzerland's emphasis on reciprocity, which may deter Indian investment by raising business
costs. The suspension could serve as diplomatic leverage for renegotiating the treaty, particularly regarding
MFN clause procedures. Additionally, it aligns with global tax policy trends, including the OECD’s BEPS
initiative, which promotes fairness and consistency in tax treaties. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

83. The terms Methoxychlor, Dechlorane plus and UV-328, sometimes mentioned in news recently, are related
to
(a) Preservatives in food processing
(b) Persistent Organic Pollutants
(c) Manufacture of plastics
(d) Fruit ripening agents
EXPLANATION:
In 2023, international delegates agreed to ban Dechlorane Plus, UV-328, and methoxychlor under the
Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants. This global treaty aims to protect human health and
the environment from the harmful effects of persistent chemicals.
➢ Dechlorane Plus, a flame retardant used in electronics and automobiles, is associated with
neurodevelopmental and reproductive disorders.
➢ UV-328, a polymer stabilizer, has been associated with liver and kidney toxicity in animals.
➢ Methoxychlor, a pesticide already banned in the United States and the European Union, is toxic to aquatic
life and an endocrine disruptor.
Their inclusion in the treaty ensures a global ban to mitigate environmental and health risks. So, Option (b)
is correct.

84. With reference to the technique of Grafting, consider the following statement
1. Grafting involves building a new plant by connecting organic tissues of two plants of the same species.
2. It is not possible to graft plants from different species or genus.
3. It cannot be done naturally and is possible only through growing them in nurseries.
4. It is possible to get an exact genetic copy of a desirable plant through grafting.
How many of the above given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Grafting involves building a new plant by connecting the organic tissues of two plants, often of the same
species. That is, the scion, a portion of the shoot, is tied onto the rootstock – the roots of a plant grown from
a seedling. Then, the scion is inserted into the root stock, which are tied together. The tied portion, known
as the "graft union," must heal and fuse to grow.
Plants from different genera or species can also be grafted, but in many cases, the outcome is weaker and
shorter-lived, and sometimes, they never come together at all. So, Statement 1 is correct and Statement
2 is not correct.
 Grafting can occur naturally through inosculation, a process in which two plants gradually fuse as they grow.
It is not restricted to nurseries. The living bridges in northeastern India form via a natural process of grafting,
in which their long, tendril-like roots fuse together. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Grafting gives an exact genetic copy of a desirable plant because even plants that grow from seedlings don’t
have the exact nature of the parent plant. The scion (grafted part) preserves the genetic identity of the parent
plant, allowing grafting to propagate an exact genetic replica of a desirable plant. So, Statement 4 is
correct.

85. With reference to the Yuva Sahakar Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. It aims to encourage newly formed cooperative societies with new and innovative ideas.
2. It has a provision of giving long-term loans with 2% interest subvention.
3. The scheme comes under the supervision of the Ministry of Youth and Sports Affairs.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Yuva Sahakar – Cooperative Enterprise Support and Innovation Scheme is being implemented by the
National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC), a statutory corporation under the administrative
control of the Ministry of Cooperation nationwide, with the aim of encouraging newly formed cooperative
societies with new and innovative ideas. So, Statement 1 is correct and Statement 3 is not correct.
The Yuva Sahakar Scheme encourages young entrepreneur cooperative societies that have been in operation
for a minimum of three months. The loan provided under the scheme is a long-term loan (up to 5 years). As
an incentive, NCDC offers a 2% interest subvention on its applicable rate of interest for term loans used in
project activities. So, Statement 2 is correct.
➢ Furthermore, the loan component under the scheme can also be combined with subsidies, as applicable
and available, from other Government of India schemes. NCDC funding is project-based.

86. With reference to Tribal Movements, consider the following:

[Link]. Uprising Leaders
1. Hul rebellion Kanhu Murmu
2. Khond Uprising Chakra Bishnoi
3. Kol rebellion Budhu Bhagat
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pair
(c) All three pair
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION:
The Santal rebellion, also known as the ‘Hul’ revolution, began in 1855, two years before the 1857 uprising,
which is often referred to as the first war for Indian independence. Led by two brothers, Sidhu and Kanhu, it
saw the participation of as many as 32 castes and communities rallying behind them. So, Pair 1 is correct.
In the 19th century, the Khonds rebelled against British rule in India due to political unrest in Ghumusar,
British interference in succession, economic hardships, and disruption of their socio-religious practices.
Dora Bisoi initially led the rebellion, and after his death, Chakra Bisoi took charge in 1840. Chakra’s
resentment against the British deepened after his father, Ram Singh Bakshi, was killed in a skirmish in 1837.
Following this tragedy, he joined his uncle in resisting British rule. So, Pair 2 is correct.
 The Kol rebellion took place between 1831 and 1832. It was a movement of the tribal Kol people of Chhota
Nagpur, Jharkhand. The rebellion was caused by economic exploitation arising from the land ownership and
administrative systems imposed by the East India Company.
Its leaders were Budhu Bhagat, Joa Bhagat, Jhindriya Manki Madara Mahat etc. Initially, the rebellion was
successful. The Kols were able to capture several cities and villages. However, the Kols were later defeated by
the British. However, the rebellion had a significant impact on British policy in Chhota Nagpur. So, Pair 3 is
correct.

87. With reference to Coal reserves in India, consider the following statements
1. Coal inventory in India is assessed by Coal India Limited under the Ministry of Coal.
2. India has the 4th-largest coal reserve in the world, with 352 billion tons.
3. The majority of Indian coal reserve is relatively low-calorific-value thermal or non-coking coal.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Coal inventory in India is assessed by the Geological Survey of India under the Ministry of Mines. According
to the National Coal Inventory of 2023, published by the Geological Survey of India, India's total estimated
coal reserve (resource) is 378.21 billion tonnes as of 2023. However, Coal India Limited (CIL), under the
Ministry of Coal, focuses on coal production and related activities. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
India has the fifth-largest coal reserves in the world and is the second-largest consumer of coal, driven by its
rapidly growing economy. However, the current consumption landscape reveals a critical need for imports,
particularly for coking coal and high-grade thermal coal, which are not sufficiently available within domestic
reserves. This shortfall necessitates imports to support key industries, including steel. So, Statement 2 is
not correct.
Indian coal has historically been evaluated as having a high ash content and a low calorific value compared
to imported coal. The average GCV of domestic thermal coal ranges from 3,500-4,000 kcal/kg compared to
imported thermal coals of +6,000 kcal/kg of GCV.
Also, the average ash content of Indian coals is more than 40% compared to imported coal, which has less
than 10% ash content. The consequence of this is that high-ash coal, when burnt, results in higher
particulate matter, nitrogen and sulphur dioxide. Given this, the government, since 1954, has controlled
the price of coal in a way that disincentivised power companies from using high-grade coking coal for power
generation. So, Statement 3 is correct.

88. Consider the following:

1. The numbers of judges in the Supreme Court and High Court are decided by the Parliament.
2. The President can appoint a Judge of the High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a
temporary period.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The original Constitution of 1950 established the Supreme Court with a Chief Justice and seven puisne
Judges, granting Parliament the authority to increase this number. Initially, all Judges sat together (en banc)
to hear cases. However, as the workload grew, Parliament expanded the bench over the years—from 8 in 1950
to 11 in 1956, 14 in 1960, 18 in 1978, 26 in 1986, 31 in 2009, and finally 34 in 2019, which remains the
current strength.
While Parliament has the authority to increase the number of Supreme Court judges, the President
determines the strength of High Court judges under Article 216 of the Constitution of India. So, Statement
1 is not correct.
Article 127 of the Constitution provides that if at any time there should not be a quorum of Judges of the
Supreme Court available to hold or continue any session of the Court the Chief Justice of India may, with
the previous consent of the President and after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court
concerned request, in writing, a Judge of a High Court duly qualified for appointment as a Judge of the
Supreme Court to attend, for such period as may be necessary. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

89. With reference to the District Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements
1. DLSA are headed by the District Judge, who acts as a chairman of the authority.
2. Various legal aids and programs of NALSA are implemented through DLSA along with State legal services
authority.
3. Both NALSA and SLSAs have exclusive power to conduct Lok adalats
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act,
1987, to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society and to organize Lok Adalats for
amicable settlement of disputes.
In every District, the District Legal Services Authority has been constituted to implement Legal Services
Programmes in the District. The District Legal Services Authority is situated in the District Courts Complex
in every District and chaired by the District Judge of the respective district. A Civil Judge Cadre Judicial
Officer is appointed as Secretary on a full-time basis. So, Statement 1 is correct.
In every State, State Legal Services Authority has been constituted to give effect to the policies and directions
of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State. The State
Legal Services Authority is headed by the Hon’ble Chief Justice of the respective High Court, who is the
Patron-in-Chief of the State Legal Services Authority. A senior most Judge of the High Court is nominated as
Executive Chairman of the SLSA. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The authority to conduct Lok Adalats is not limited to NALSA and SLSAs. DLSAs and Taluk Legal Services
Committees (TLSCs) also have the power to organize Lok Adalats at their respective levels. So, Statement
3 is not correct.

90. Formosa Strait, recently seen in the news, lies between which of the following countries?
(a) China and Taiwan
(b) China and North Korea
(c) Australia and New Zealand
(d) Malaysia and Thailand
EXPLANATION:
The Taiwan Strait, also known as the Formosa Strait, separates Taiwan from mainland China’s Fujian
province. It is an arm of the Pacific Ocean, located in the South China Sea. The strait is 160 km wide at its
narrowest point and has a maximum depth of 70 meters. It includes the Pescadores Islands, which are
controlled by Taiwan. The region falls within a typhoon zone. It serves as a crucial shipping route between
China, Japan, and Europe.

So, Option (a) is correct.

91. Consider the following statements regarding the Registration of Overseas Citizens of India:
1. Any minor child whose both parents are citizens of India.
2. Any foreign national who is a child or a grandchild or a great-grandchild a citizen.
3. Any minor child with at least one of the parents is a citizen of India
4. Spouse of foreign origin of an OCI card holder.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
The Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) scheme, introduced in 2005, grants permanent residency to foreign
nationals of Indian origin and their spouses, allowing them to live and work in India indefinitely, but it doesn't
confer Indian citizenship.
➢ A foreign national who was eligible to become a citizen of India on 26 January 1950 or was a citizen of
India on or any time after 26 January 1950 or belonged to a territory that became part of India after 15
August 1947 and his/her children and grandchildren, provided their country of citizenship allows dual
citizenship in some form or the other under the local laws, is eligible for registration as an Overseas
Citizen of India (OCI). Minor children of such a person are also eligible for OCI. However, if the applicant
had ever been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh, he/she would not be eligible for OCI. So, Statement
2 is correct.
 ➢ The spouse of foreign origin of a citizen of India or spouse of foreign origin of an Overseas Citizen of India
cardholder registered under section 7A and whose marriage has been registered and subsisted for a
continuous period of not less than two years immediately preceding the presentation of the application
can apply for an OCI card. So, Statement 4 is correct.
➢ Minor children whose parents are citizens of India or one of whose parents is a citizen of India are eligible
to apply for an OCI Card. So, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

92. With respect to the term Right to Disconnect, which of the following statements are incorrect?
(a) It means that the employees are not obliged to reply to calls after work hours.
(b) Australia is the first country to come up with the Right to disconnect law
(c) India doesn't have a right to disconnect law.
(d) These rights provide immunity against work after office hours.
EXPLANATION:
➢ The "Right to Disconnect" means that employees are not obligated to respond to work-related calls or
communications outside of their regular working hours. This Right typically covers work-related emails,
texts, phone calls, and other digital communications. By enacting this law, Australia joins about two
dozen other countries, mainly in Europe and Latin America, that have similar regulations.
➢ France was the first country to introduce a 'right to disconnect' in 2017. "Employees are more and more
connected during hours outside of the office. According to a BBC report, it required that companies with
more than 50 workers were obliged to draw up a charter of good conduct, setting out the hours when
staff are not supposed to send or answer emails.
➢ In India, Baramati MP Supriya Sule drafted a Private Member's Bill for such a right through the Right to
Disconnect Bill of 2018, which was never taken up for discussion in the House.
➢ The law was introduced to combat the increasing intrusion of work into personal lives, a problem that
has intensified since the COVID-19 pandemic and blurred the boundaries between work and home. So,
Option (b) is not correct.

93. With reference to River Yamuna, Consider the following statements

1. The river Yamuna rises from Yamunotri Glacier in the state of Himachal Pradesh
2. It flows parallel to the River Ganga and joins it as a right-bank tributary at Allahabad
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Yamuna River does originate from the Yamunotri Glacier, near the Bandarpunch peaks in the Garhwal
Himalayas, in Uttarakhand, not Himachal Pradesh. It flows parallel to the Ganga, and as a right bank
tributary, it meets the Ganga at Allahabad. The Yamuna River, a major tributary of the Ganga, flows through
Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, and Delhi, merging with the Ganga near Triveni Sangam in
Prayagraj (Allahabad). Its main affluent in the upper reaches is the Tons, which also originates from the
Bandarpoonch glacier. So, Statement 1 is not correct, and Statement 2 is correct.
94. With reference to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change, consider the following statements:
1. IPCC was set up in 1988 by World Meteorological organization WMO and UN environmental programme
UNEP.
2. Its main activities is to prepare assessment reports, Special reports, and methodology reports.
3. It engages itself in Scientific research to assess the state of knowledge of climate change
How many of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
IPCC Created in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP), the objective of the IPCC is to provide governments at all levels with scientific information
that they can use to develop climate policies. So, Statement 1 is correct.
IPCC's main activities are to prepare:
➢ Comprehensive assessment reports on climate change, its causes, impacts and response options
 ➢ Methodology reports, providing practical guidance to Parties to the UNFCCC and Paris Agreement when
preparing national greenhouse gas inventories
➢ Special reports on topics informing the assessment reports. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The IPCC does not undertake new research. Instead, it synthesizes published and peer-reviewed literature to
develop a comprehensive assessment of scientific understanding. These assessments are published in
IPCC reports. They are subject to multiple drafting and review processes to promote an objective,
comprehensive and transparent assessment of current knowledge. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

95. Consider the following statements with reference to the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
(FSSAI):
1. The Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006 consolidated several existing laws, including the Prevention
of Food Adulteration Act of 1954 and the Fruit Products Order of 1955.
2. The FSSAI operates under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution and is
headquartered in New Delhi with regional offices in Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, and Bengaluru.
3. Initiatives such as the 'Eat Right India' campaign and the Repurpose Used Cooking Oil (RUCO) project
are implemented under the auspices of FSSAI to enhance food safety standards.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) was established under Food Safety and Standards,
2006, which consolidates various acts & orders that have hitherto handled food-related issues in various
Ministries and Departments. Various central Acts like the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act of 1954, Fruit
Products Order 1955, Meat Food Products Order of 1973, Vegetable Oil Products (Control) Order 1947, Edible
Oils Packaging (Regulation)Order 1988, Solvent Extracted Oil, De- Oiled Meal and Edible Flour (Control)
Order, 1967, Milk and Milk Products Order, 1992 etc will be repealed after commencement of FSS Act, 2006.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India, is the Administrative Ministry for the
implementation of FSSAI. The Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of the Food Safety and Standards
Authority of India (FSSAI) have been appointed by the Government of India. The Chairperson is in the rank
of Secretary to the Government of India.
FSSAI has its headquarters in New Delhi and operates six regional offices in Delhi, Guwahati, Mumbai,
Kolkata, Cochin, and Chennai. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The 'Eat Right India' campaign and the Repurpose Used Cooking Oil (RUCO) project are indeed implemented
under the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) to enhance food safety standards and
promote healthy, sustainable food practices. So, Statement 3 is correct.

96. With reference to Secured Overnight Rupee Rate, which of the following statement are incorrect?
(a) It is a newly introduced rate at which the Government can borrow from RBI.
(b) It is based on secured money market instrument that are more reliable and less prone to manipulation.
(c) It will replace Mumbai Interbank Offered Rate.
(d) It aligns with global best practices, such as the Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR).
EXPLANATION:
➢ The Secured Overnight Rupee Rate (SORR) is a benchmark interest rate, not a mechanism for the
Government to borrow from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
 ➢ The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced the development of the Secured Overnight Rupee Rate
(SORR) as a new benchmark for the interest rate derivatives market, based on secured money market
transactions like market repo and tri-party repo (TREPS).
➢ SORR, to be developed with support from Financial Benchmarks India Limited (FBIL), aims to offer a
trade-based, robust, and manipulation-resistant benchmark that reflects real market dynamics, unlike
the Mumbai Inter-Bank Offer Rate (MIBOR), which relies on polling data.
➢ The initiative aligns with global best practices, such as the Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR), and
signals a shift toward transparency in India's benchmark-setting methodology.
So, Option (a) is not correct.

97. With reference to mRNA vaccines, Consider the following statements

1. mRNA vaccines use messenger RNA created in laboratories, which helps cells in initiating immune
response against particular disease
2. mRNA vaccines cannot be stored in room temperature.
3. Moderna Covid-19 vaccine is an mRNA vaccine
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
mRNA vaccines work by introducing a piece of mRNA that corresponds to a viral protein, usually a small
piece of a protein found on the virus's outer membrane. By using this mRNA, cells can produce the viral
protein. As part of a normal immune response, the immune system recognizes that the protein is foreign and
produces specialized proteins called antibodies. Antibodies help protect the body against infection by
recognizing individual viruses or other pathogens, attaching to them, and marking the pathogens for
destruction. So, Statement 1 is correct.
mRNA vaccines typically cannot be stored at room temperature and require specific cold storage conditions,
usually frozen or refrigerated, to maintain their efficacy. Both the Pfizer-BioNTech and the Moderna COVID-
19 vaccines use mRNA. So, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

98. Which of the following is the best description of Prachand, that was in news recently?
(a) Indigenously built Light combat helicopter
(b) Torpedo recovery and Launch vehicle
(c) Amphibious warfare ship
(d) Nuclear-powered submarine
EXPLANATION:
The Prachand LCH is India's first indigenously developed combat helicopter with ground attack and aerial
combat capability. It was designed and built by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). It is an attack
helicopter derived from the existing Dhruv helicopter.
The LCH can be deployed in roles including tracking slow-moving aerial targets and remotely piloted aircraft,
counter-insurgency operations in jungle and urban environments, destroying enemy defences, conducting
search and rescue missions, engaging in anti-tank operations and performing scouting missions. A datalink
system transmits mission data to mobile platforms and ground stations operating within the network. So,
Option (a) is correct.
 99. Consider the following:
1. Building quantum computers
2. Improve measurements
3. Construct Quantum networks
4. Establishing secure encrypted Communication
How many of the above statements is/are the potential applications of quantum mechanics?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Quantum mechanics is a fundamental theory describing the behaviour of matter and light at the atomic and
subatomic levels. Quantum mechanics has diverse applications, including building quantum computers,
improving measurements, constructing quantum networks, and establishing secure encrypted
Communication.
➢ Quantum computers leverage the principles of quantum mechanics, particularly superposition and
entanglement, to perform computations that are impossible for classical computers. They use qubits
(quantum bits) instead of bits, allowing them to store and process information in a vastly different way,
potentially leading to breakthroughs in areas like drug discovery, materials science, and artificial
intelligence.
➢ Quantum mechanics allows for the development of extremely precise and sensitive measurement
techniques. For example, quantum sensors can detect subtle changes in magnetic fields, gravitational
waves, and other phenomena, leading to advancements in areas like medical imaging, navigation, and
fundamental physics research.
➢ Quantum networks utilize quantum phenomena like entanglement to establish secure communication
channels and facilitate distributed quantum computing. Quantum cryptography uses the principles of
quantum mechanics to ensure the security of data transmission.
➢ Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) is a prominent example, where quantum states are used to create
shared secret keys, making it virtually impossible for eavesdroppers to intercept the Communication
without being detected.
So, Option (d) is correct.

100. With reference to the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee GEAC, consider the following statements.
1. GEAC functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate change
2. It is responsible for the appraisal of proposals relating to the release of Genetically engineered organisms
and products into the environment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions in the Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change (MoEF&CC). As per Rules, 1989, it is responsible for the appraisal of activities involving
large-scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from
the environmental angle. The committee is also responsible for the appraisal of proposals relating to the
release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the environment, including experimental
field trials.
GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a
representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT). Presently, it has 24 members and meets every
month to review the applications in the areas indicated above.
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the statutory committee constituted under the
"Rules for the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro Organisms/Genetically
Engineered Organisms or Cells (Rules, 1989)" framed under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. So,
Statements 1 and 2 are correct.