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JCJ Civil Judge 2022 Answer Key

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to legal concepts and provisions, specifically focusing on civil law, criminal law, and various acts such as the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act and the Civil Procedure Code. It includes participant details, test center information, and the selected answers for each question. The questions cover topics like marriage laws, court procedures, and definitions of legal terms.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
51 views21 pages

JCJ Civil Judge 2022 Answer Key

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to legal concepts and provisions, specifically focusing on civil law, criminal law, and various acts such as the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act and the Civil Procedure Code. It includes participant details, test center information, and the selected answers for each question. The questions cover topics like marriage laws, court procedures, and definitions of legal terms.

Uploaded by

phanikumarspk
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 21

Participant Id 2022003091

Participant Name S PHANI KUMAR


Test Center Name iON Digital Zone IDZ 1 Mallapur
Test Date 13/08/2022
Subject Civil Judge 2022

Section : Civil Judge 2022

Q.1 After divorce a Muslim woman


Ans 1. Cannot remarry

2. Can remarry immediately

3. Can marry only after completion of ‘iddat’ period

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479287
Chosen Option : 2

Q.2 The following section of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
provides for supply of copies of orders passed by the Magistrate free of charge to the
parties to the application, the concerned police officer and the service provider:
Ans 1. Section 24

2. Section 28

3. Section 27

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479298
Chosen Option : 3

Q.3 As per Order XXXIX Rule 3A C.P.C., the Court has to dispose of an application for
injunction within __
Ans 1. 90 days

2. 60 days

3. 30 days

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479208
Chosen Option : 2
Q.4 One of the following is not the essentials of a valid lease
Ans 1. A lessor must be competent to contract and he must have title or authority

2. Subject matter of the lease must be immovable property

3. A lessee acquires no interest in accretions

4. A lease is transferable and heritable

Question ID : 213479212
Chosen Option : 4

Q.5 Warrant case as defined under Section 2 (x) of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is a
case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or
imprisonment for a term exceeding:
Ans 1. 3 years

2. 2 years

3. 1 year

4. 5 years but not less than two years

Question ID : 213479285
Chosen Option : 4

Q.6 The expression ‘indigent’ as per Order 33 of the Civil Procedure Code means --
Ans 1. made in India

2. a liberal and carefree person

3. dishonest person

4. pauper

Question ID : 213479253
Chosen Option : 3

Q.7 The following remedies are available to a defendant against whom an ex parte decree
is passed:
Ans 1. To file an application under Order IX Rule 7 C.P.C.

2. To file an application under Order IX Rule 13 C.P.C.

3. To file an appeal under Section 96 C.P.C.

4. Both (b) and (c)

Question ID : 213479295
Chosen Option : 4

Q.8 Section 24 of C.P.C. deals with the General Power of Transfer and Withdrawal of any
Suit, Appeal or other proceedings
Ans 1. By the High Courts only

2. By the High Court or District Courts

3. By the Supreme Court

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479204
Chosen Option : 2
Q.9 As per Section _______ of C.P.C., Court can not proceed with the trial of any Suit in
which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously
instituted suit between the same parties or between the parties under whom they are
claiming where such suit is pending in the same Court or in any other Court in India
Ans 1. Section 9

2. Section 11

3. Section 10

4. Section 12

Question ID : 213479203
Chosen Option : 1

Q.10 Except in the circumstances therein provided, Section 60 of the Indian Evidence Act,
1872 says that oral evidence in all cases be:
Ans 1. inculpatory

2. exculpatory

3. direct

4. circumstantial

Question ID : 213479294
Chosen Option : 1

Q.11 As per Section 2 (2) of C.P.C. a decree may be


Ans 1. Preliminary or final

2. Only final decree

3. Only Preliminary Decree

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479201
Chosen Option : 2

Q.12 Which one of the following is not included in Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
Ans 1. Right to Die

2. Right to Life

3. Right to Livelihood

4. Right to Dignity

Question ID : 213479286
Chosen Option : 1

Q.13 A statement given before the police under section 161 of Cr.P.C., is -
Ans 1. admissible in evidence

2. inadmissible in evidence

3. admissible in part

4. none of the above

Question ID : 213479265
Chosen Option : 3
Q.14 The Magistrate, if satisfied on an application that prima facie respondent has
committed an act of domestic violence or that the respondent may commit an act of
domestic violence may grant an ex parte order on the basis of affidavit of the
aggrieved person under Section ___ of the Protection of Women from Domestic
Violence Act, 2005:
Ans 1. Section 23

2. Section 25

3. Section 26

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479224
Chosen Option : 1

Q.15 ‘Immovable property’ as defined under the Transfer of Property Act includes:
Ans 1. standing timber

2. growing crops

3. grass

4. agricultural land

Question ID : 213479248
Chosen Option : 4

Q.16 Abetment of suicide is dealt with under --


Ans 1. Section 306 IPC

2. Section 307 IPC

3. Section 308 IPC

4. Section 309 IPC

Question ID : 213479255
Chosen Option : 1

Q.17 A report made in the prescribed form on receipt of a complaint of domestic violence
from an aggrieved person, as per Section 2(e) of the Protection of Women from
Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is called
Ans 1. Domestic Incident Report

2. Domestic Investigation Report

3. Domestic Enquiry Report

4. Domestic Prosecution Report

Question ID : 213479239
Chosen Option : 1

Q.18 Computation of time mentioned in instruments, as per Limitation Act, 1963 be made
with reference to
Ans 1. Lunar Calendar

2. Samarian Calendar

3. Gregorian Calendar

4. Ethiopian Calendar

Question ID : 213479236
Chosen Option : 3
Q.19 A suit can be instituted in a court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction -
Ans 1. where plaintiff resides

2. where the defendant resides

3. where cause of the action wholly or in part arises

4. (b) and (c)

Question ID : 213479264
Chosen Option : 4

Q.20 The following Section of Registration Act, 1908 deals with documents of which
registration is compulsory
Ans 1. Section 18

2. Section 19

3. Section 20

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479215
Chosen Option : 3

Q.21 A marriage is said to be void under the provisions of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 if:
Ans 1. Party has a spouse living at the time of marriage

2. The parties are within the degrees of prohibited relationship

3. Parties are Sapindas of each others

4. All the above

Question ID : 213479271
Chosen Option : 1

Q.22 The offence of ‘theft’ under Section 379 IPC, 1860 is


Ans 1. Non-cognizable, Non-bailable

2. Non-cognizable, Bailable

3. Cognizable, Non-bailable

4. Cognizable, Bailable

Question ID : 213479233
Chosen Option : 3

Q.23 A Second Appeal shall lie to the High Court from every decree passed in appeal by any
Court subordinate to the High Court, if the High Court is satisfied that the case
involves
Ans 1. Concurrent findings on facts

2. Substantial Question of Law

3. Mixed Question of facts and Law

4. Only Question of law

Question ID : 213479205
Chosen Option : 2
Q.24 Section _______ of C.P.C. deals with pecuniary jurisdiction
Ans 1. Section 7

2. Section 3

3. Section 4

4. Section 6

Question ID : 213479202
Chosen Option : 4

Q.25 Limitation period for filing a suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act is --
Ans 1. 1 year

2. 3 years

3. 6 months

4. 12 years

Question ID : 213479247
Chosen Option : 1

Q.26 The following persons are competent to contract, if they are of


Ans 1. Age of majority according to law of which he is subject

2. Sound mind and not disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject

3. Both (a) and (b)

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479219
Chosen Option : 3

Q.27 In an offence of rape, the consent given by a minor is no consent. What is the age of
minor mentioned in section 375 of IPC:
Ans 1. 16 years

2. 18 years

3. 21 years

4. 14 years

Question ID : 213479250
Chosen Option : 2

Q.28 After recording entire evidence and hearing arguments the Court comes to the
conclusion that it has no jurisdiction over the subject matter. In such an event
Ans 1. the Court shall proceed to pronounce the judgment

2. reject the plaint

3. return the plaint

4. none of the above

Question ID : 213479277
Chosen Option : 2
Q.29 An application for divorce by mutual consent under Hindu Marriage Act is filed under
Section _____
Ans 1. Section 13

2. Section 13A

3. Section 13B

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479216
Chosen Option : 3

Q.30 As per Sec. 34 of Telangana Tenancy (Telangana Area) Act, 1950, Protected tenant
means a person who has the land continuously for a period not less than -
Ans 1. 5 Years

2. 6 Years

3. 7 Years

4. 8 Years

Question ID : 213479280
Chosen Option : 3

Q.31 Which one of the following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with
‘Restitution of Conjugal Rights’?
Ans 1. Section 5

2. Section 9

3. Section 10

4. Section 11

Question ID : 213479288
Chosen Option : 2

Q.32 Section 12 of the Limitation Act, 1963 lays down that in computing the period of
limitation, the day from which such period is to be reckoned, shall be –
Ans 1. excluded

2. included

3. deliberated

4. reconciled

Question ID : 213479299
Chosen Option : 2

Q.33 Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, the powers of revision is conferred on
Ans 1. the High Court

2. the Sessions Court

3. the High Court as well as the Sessions Court

4. none of the above

Question ID : 213479278
Chosen Option : 1
Q.34 Section ___ of Cr.P.C. deals with the powers to summon material witnesses, or
examine person present, recall and re-examine any such person
Ans 1. Section 310

2. Section 311

3. Section 312

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479227
Chosen Option : 1

Q.35 Point out incorrect response: The period of limitation for taking cognizance of an
offence shall be --
Ans 1. six months if offence is punishble with fine only

2. one year, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one
year
3. three years, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding one
year but not exceeding three years
4. five years, if the offence is punishable with death sentence

Question ID : 213479249
Chosen Option : 3

Q.36 While exercising the power under Order VII Rule 11 of C.P.C., the Court has to consider
Ans 1. Only the averments in the plaint

2. Only the plea taken by the defendant in the written statement

3. Both the above

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479206
Chosen Option : 3

Q.37 Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting wishes or expects to
receive is -
Ans 1. Master question

2. Star question

3. Leading question

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479267
Chosen Option : 1

Q.38 A petition for dispensing with the personal attendance of the accused may be filed
during enquiry or trial under Section ___ of Cr.P.C.
Ans 1. Section 317

2. Section 318

3. Section 206

4. Section 207

Question ID : 213479225
Chosen Option : 3
Q.39 An application for review of Judgment or Order may be filed under
Ans 1. Section 113 C.P.C. R/w Order XLVI C.P.C.

2. Section 114 C.P.C. R/w Order XLVII C.P.C.

3. Section 115 C.P.C.

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479209
Chosen Option : 2

Q.40 With reference to Transfer of Property Act, 1882, transfer of ownership in exchange for
a price paid or promised or part paid and part promised is called
Ans 1. Exchange

2. Sale

3. Lien

4. Mortgage

Question ID : 213479235
Chosen Option : 2

Q.41 The period prescribed for institution of a suit expired on Sunday that followed the last
working day of the Court before its summer recess. During summer recess, provision
is made for receiving urgent cases. However, the suit is instituted on the reopening
day of the court after summer recess. Can the suit be treated to have been filed in
time?
Ans 1. no

2. yes

3. only if the delay is properly explained

4. when leave is obtained by the court

Question ID : 213479246
Chosen Option : 2

Q.42 An insufficiently stamped instrument is admissible in evidence:


Ans 1. Yes

2. No

3. Upon impounding the same

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479268
Chosen Option : 3

Q.43 The Principle of Rule of Election is laid under Section ___ of Transfer of Property Act
Ans 1. Section 31

2. Section 34

3. Section 33

4. Section 35

Question ID : 213479297
Chosen Option : 3
Q.44 Special provision as to admissibility of electronic records is mentioned under Section
___ of the Evidence Act
Ans 1. Section 65A

2. Section 85A

3. Section 65B

4. Section 85B

Question ID : 213479214
Chosen Option : 3

Q.45 If the act is done by a person with the knowledge that it is likely to cause death but
without any intention to cause death or to cause bodily injury as is likely to cause
death is liable for punishment under Section __ of I.P.C.
Ans 1. Section 302

2. Section 304 Part I

3. Section 304 Part II

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479221
Chosen Option : 3

Q.46 No police officer shall detain a person arrested, in custody, without a warrant for a
period exceeding ______ hours, exclusive of the time necessary for the journey from
the place of arrest to the Court of the Magistrate, other than by a special order of
Magistrate.
Ans 1. 12 hours

2. 24 hours

3. 36 hours

4. 48 hours

Question ID : 213479254
Chosen Option : 2

Q.47 Assault in order to outrage the modesty of a woman is punishable under


Ans 1. Section 363 of I.P.C.

2. Section 509 of I.P.C.

3. Section 511 of I.P.C.

4. Section 354 of I.P.C.

Question ID : 213479283
Chosen Option : 2
Q.48 Which of the following statements is not correct?
Ans 1. Decree holder means any person in whose favour a decree is passed

2. Foreign Court means a Court situated outside India and not established or continued
by the authority of Central Government
3. Final Decree is one where the rights of the parties are determined but the suit is not
completely disposed off and further proceedings have to be initiated
4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479292
Chosen Option : 3

Q.49 Facts admitted


Ans 1. need to be proved

2. should only be proved

3. need not be proved

4. should not be proved

Question ID : 213479242
Chosen Option : 3

Q.50 Section 164A of Cr.P.C. deals with


Ans 1. Medical examination of victim of rape

2. Examination of accused of rape by Doctor

3. Examination of arrested person by Medical Officer

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479226
Chosen Option : 1

Q.51 A statement under Section 164 Cr.P.C., can be recorded by --


Ans 1. Investigating Officer

2. Magistrate concerned

3. Assistant Commissioner of Police

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479263
Chosen Option : 2

Q.52 Petition under Section 13 B of the Hindu Marriage Act can be filed --
Ans 1. Any time after marriage

2. After one year from the date of marriage

3. After six months from the date of marriage

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479244
Chosen Option : 2
Q.53 As per the provisions of Indian Evidence Act,1872 (i) An inscription on a metal plate is
a document (ii) An inscription on a stone is a document
Ans 1. Both (i) and (ii are correct

2. Both (i) and (ii) are wrong

3. Only (i) is Correct

4. Only (ii) is correct

Question ID : 213479229
Chosen Option : 2

Q.54 Can the provisions of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 apply to an illegitimate child
one of whose parents is a Budhist and the other follower of Arya Samaj?
Ans 1. yes

2. no

3. yes, by will

4. none of the above

Question ID : 213479276
Chosen Option : 3

Q.55 In the Indian Penal Code, right of private defence is provided under:
Ans 1. Section 96

2. Section 95

3. Section 99

4. Section 92

Question ID : 213479259
Chosen Option : 2

Q.56 Which section of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, governs the dishonour of
cheques for insufficiency of funds?
Ans 1. section 132

2. section 129

3. section 138

4. section 136

Question ID : 213479251
Chosen Option : 3

Q.57 Under Section 18 of the Telangana Buildings (Lease, Rent and Eviction) Control Act,
for conversion of residential building into a non-residential building, a written
permission of ____________is required:
Ans 1. Controller

2. Commissioner

3. District Judge

4. Either of the above

Question ID : 213479273
Chosen Option : 4
Q.58 Which of the following are the essentials of a ‘Promissory Note’: (i) It must be an
instrument in writing, (ii) It must contain an unconditional undertaking to pay, (iii) The
sum of money should be certain, (iv) It must be signed by the maker
Ans 1. (i), (ii) and (iv)

2. (i), (iii) and (iv)

3. (i), (ii) and (iii)

4. All of the above

Question ID : 213479241
Chosen Option : 4

Q.59 Whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as to prevent that person
from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits is liable for punishment under
Section ____ of I.P.C.
Ans 1. Section 339

2. Section 340

3. Section 341

4. Section 342

Question ID : 213479293
Chosen Option : 3

Q.60 Hindu Succession Act, 1956 applies to any person who is


Ans 1. Hindu by religion

2. Buddhist by religion

3. Jaina by religion

4. All the above

Question ID : 213479237
Chosen Option : 1

Q.61 A person accused of an offence may apply for a plea bargain in


Ans 1. In the Court in which his case is pending trial

2. In any Court

3. In the High Court

4. In the police station

Question ID : 213479274
Chosen Option : 1

Q.62 Which provision of Indian Penal Code makes promoting enmity between different
groups on the ground of religion, race, etc., an offence:
Ans 1. Section 153A

2. Section 120A

3. Section 153AA

4. Section 146

Question ID : 213479260
Chosen Option : 1
Q.63 A person deliberately and maliciously outraging the feelings of any class by insulting
its religion or religious belief is liable for punishment under Section ___ of I.P.C.
Ans 1. Section 294

2. Section 294A

3. Section 295

4. Section 295A

Question ID : 213479220
Chosen Option : 2

Q.64 In a proceedings under the Hindu Marriage Act, a wife or husband who has no
independent income to support their necessary expenses or proceedings may make
an application before the Court as per Section _____ for maintenance pendente lite
and expenses of the proceedings
Ans 1. Section 23

2. Section 24

3. Section 25

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479217
Chosen Option : 3

Q.65 To attract Section 304-B IPC death of a married woman should have occurred within
_______ years of marriage, otherwise than under normal circumstances
Ans 1. 5

2. 7

3. 9

4. 11

Question ID : 213479234
Chosen Option : 2

Q.66 Under Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, a child who is
alleged to have committed an offence is termed as
Ans 1. child in conflict with law

2. child abandoned

3. child in need of protection

4. child offender

Question ID : 213479231
Chosen Option : 1

Q.67 Which one of the following is not a document under the Indian Evidence Act?
Ans 1. An inscription on a stone of a building

2. A photograph

3. A printout of a message sent through mobile or computer

4. A knife recovered by police from the possession of an accused and produced in the
Court

Question ID : 213479289
Chosen Option : 1
Q.68 In order to constitute an offence of unlawful assembly, there should be assembly of -
Ans 1. 3 or more members

2. 4 or more members

3. 5 or more members

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479262
Chosen Option : 3

Q.69 Can irretrievable breakdown of marriage be a ground for seeking divorce under the
Hindu Marriage Act?
Ans 1. yes

2. no

3. yes, if permitted by court

4. yes, upon payment of permanent alimony to the counter part

Question ID : 213479245
Chosen Option : 2

Q.70 The provision of Mandatory Injunction is regulated by Section _____ of the Specific
Relief Act:
Ans 1. 42

2. 41

3. 40

4. 39

Question ID : 213479272
Chosen Option : 2

Q.71 Order XXIII of the Civil Procedure Code applies to the following:
Ans 1. Withdrawal of suits

2. Appeals

3. Execution proceeding

4. All the above

Question ID : 213479282
Chosen Option : 2

Q.72 A proposal when accepted becomes:


Ans 1. a promise

2. a contract

3. an agreement

4. none of the above

Question ID : 213479281
Chosen Option : 2
Q.73 The defendant shall file written statement within 30 days from the date of service of
summons provided where the defendant fails to file written statement within the said
period he shall be allowed to file the same, for reasons to be recorded in writing within
a period of _____ days from the date of service of summons
Ans 1. 60 days

2. 90 days

3. 30 days

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479207
Chosen Option : 3

Q.74 Save in exceptional circumstances, no woman shall be arrested after Sunset and
before Sunrise, and where such exceptional circumstances to arrest exist, the woman
police officer shall obtain the prior permission of the following:
Ans 1. District Magistrate

2. Superintendent of Police

3. Judicial Magistrate of the First Class

4. Sessions Judge

Question ID : 213479284
Chosen Option : 3

Q.75 Power to quash FIR under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure can be
exercised by -
Ans 1. Judicial Magistrate of First Class

2. Court of Sessions

3. High Court

4. Both High Court and Court of Sessions

Question ID : 213479291
Chosen Option : 3

Q.76 One of the following is not essential requisite for valid gift
Ans 1. There should be a donor and donee

2. The gift should be voluntarily and without consideration

3. Acceptance must be at a time when the donor is alive and capable of giving

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479213
Chosen Option : 3

Q.77 By grave and sudden provocation one is likely to be deprived of the power of
Ans 1. esteem

2. self control

3. discipline

4. anger

Question ID : 213479230
Chosen Option : 2
Q.78 Novation of contract as per Section 62 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 means-
Ans 1. Renewal of original contract

2. Cancellation of contract

3. Substitution of a new contract in place of the original contract

4. Alteration of contract

Question ID : 213479257
Chosen Option : 3

Q.79 A summary suit by a person who is dispossessed of immovable property without his
consent, otherwise than due course of law may be filed under Section ____ of Specific
Relief Act
Ans 1. Section 5

2. Section 6

3. Section 7

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479218
Chosen Option : 2

Q.80 Finder of lost goods under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is a:
Ans 1. Bailor

2. Surety

3. Bailee

4. Principal debtor

Question ID : 213479258
Chosen Option : 4

Q.81 Whoever commits rape on woman under the age of 12 years is liable for punishment
under Section __ of I.P.C.
Ans 1. Section 376DB

2. Section 376AB

3. Section 376DA

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479222
Chosen Option : 1

Q.82 Section 92 of Transfer of Property Act deals with ____


Ans 1. Right of Redemption

2. Right of Subrogation

3. Right to Accession

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479211
Chosen Option : 2
Q.83 Divorce can be obtained under the provisions of the Hindu Marriage Act on the ground
of:
Ans 1. Cruelty

2. Desertion

3. Adultery

4. All the above

Question ID : 213479270
Chosen Option : 1

Q.84 ‘Gaming’ under the provisions of the Telangana Gaming Act, 1974 includes:
Ans 1. Matka or Satta

2. Horse racing with the sanction of Government

3. Lottery

4. Both (a) and (b)

Question ID : 213479269
Chosen Option : 4

Q.85 Which of the following is a constitutional right but not a fundamental right?
Ans 1. Protection of life and personal liberty

2. Right to move freely throughout the territory of India

3. Right to assemble peaceably

4. Right to hold property

Question ID : 213479290
Chosen Option : 2

Q.86 All the offences under Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 are
Ans 1. Non-compoundable

2. Compoundable

3. Partly Compoundable

4. Partly Non-compoundable

Question ID : 213479238
Chosen Option : 2

Q.87 Which among the following is considered to be a weak type of evidence?


Ans 1. Hearsay

2. Oral

3. Electronic

4. Documentary

Question ID : 213479232
Chosen Option : 1
Q.88 Who can record a dying declaration?
Ans 1. Magistrate concerned

2. Investigating officer himself

3. Station House Officer

4. Any of the above

Question ID : 213479266
Chosen Option : 4

Q.89 Wrongful confinement is defined under Section_____ of the Indian Penal Code:
Ans 1. 339

2. 340

3. 343

4. 346

Question ID : 213479275
Chosen Option : 4

Q.90 Any question suggesting the answer, as per Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act,
1872 is called
Ans 1. legal question

2. logical question

3. leading question

4. lawful question

Question ID : 213479243
Chosen Option : 4

Q.91 Fermented or unfermented juice drawn from an excise tree and containing alcohol, as
per the Telangana Excise Act, 1968 is called
Ans 1. Spirit

2. Molasses

3. Wash

4. Toddy

Question ID : 213479240
Chosen Option : 1

Q.92 The following can be transferred under the Transfer of Property Act:
Ans 1. a right to future maintenance

2. salary of a public officer whether before or after it has become payable

3. a mere right to sue

4. assignment of immovable property

Question ID : 213479300
Chosen Option : 3
Q.93 ‘Pleading’ as per Order 6 Rule 1 of Civil Procedure Code means:
Ans 1. plaint or rejoinder

2. plaint and written statement

3. plaint or written statement or rejoinder

4. plaint alone

Question ID : 213479252
Chosen Option : 2

Q.94 Under which provision of Cr.P.C. can a person be added as an accused when his role
surfaces during the course of evidence:
Ans 1. Sec.319

2. Sec.219

3. Sec.183

4. Sec.366

Question ID : 213479279
Chosen Option : 2

Q.95 The court competent to deal with Domestic Violence Cases is not empowered to grant
which one of the following reliefs under the Protection of Women from Domestic
Violence Act, 2005
Ans 1. Custody of the Child

2. Monetary Relief due to loss of earnings

3. Protection from communication by the respondent through whatsapp

4. Directing the Mother-in-law to remove herself from shared household

Question ID : 213479228
Chosen Option : 4

Q.96 The burden of proof as to ownership under the Indian Evidence Act lies on
Ans 1. The owner

2. The tenant

3. The person who asserts it

4. On all the above

Question ID : 213479256
Chosen Option : 4

Q.97 Procedure for suits by or against minors and persons of unsound mind is laid under:
Ans 1. Order XXX of C.P.C.

2. Order XXXI of C.P.C.

3. Order XXXII of C.P.C.

4. Order XXXIII of C.P.C.

Question ID : 213479296
Chosen Option : 1
Q.98 Where one seeks right of hearing on an application expected to be filed, he or she can
file:
Ans 1. Caveat

2. Suit

3. Complaint

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479261
Chosen Option : 2

Q.99 Which of the following is not correct for valid transfer of property?
Ans 1. Transfer must be between two or more living persons

2. The transfer must not offend the rule against the perpetuity

3. The transfer may be for an unlawful object or consideration

4. A transferrer must be competent to contract and entitled to transfer property

Question ID : 213479210
Chosen Option : 3

Q.100 As per Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, a child means
Ans 1. A person who has not completed 14 years of age

2. A person who has not completed 16 years of age

3. A person who has not completed 18 years of age

4. None of the above

Question ID : 213479223
Chosen Option : 3

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