1. Which of the following lifestyle modifications can help reduce the risk of stroke?
a) Regular exercise
b) Healthy diet
c) Maintaining a healthy weight
d) All of the above
2. A 65-year-old woman suddenly experiences weakness on her right side and difficulty speaking. Her
symptoms started 30 minutes ago. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
a) Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)
b) Migraine
c) Ischemic Stroke
d) Hemorrhagic Stroke
3. Which of these is a sign of a possible head injury?
a) Feeling hungry
b) Headache
c) Feeling sleepy
d) Feeling thirsty
4. What is the FIRST thing to do if you suspect a significant head injury?
a) Give first aid
b) Call emergency services
c) Try to wake the person up
d) Move the person to safety
5. Which type of stroke involves bleeding within the brain?
a) Ischemic stroke
b) Hemorrhagic stroke
c) Thrombotic stroke
d) Embolic stroke
6. Which medication is used in anaphylactic shock?
A. Dopamine
B. Lasix
C. Epinephrine
D. Ciprofloxacin
7. What position is recommended in non-pharmacological management of shock?
A. High Fowler’s
B. Prone
C. Modified Trendelenburg
D. Supine with legs flat
8. Which test helps identify infection in shock cases?
A. ECG
B. Blood culture and sensitivity
C. X-ray
D. Echocardiogram
9. What happens during an anaphylactic shock?
A. Decreased pulmonary pressure
B. Vasodilation and severe bronchoconstriction
C. Decrease in heart rate only
D. Increased blood sugar
10. What is the definition of shock?
A. A condition of excessive blood pressure
B. A state of hyperactivity in the brain
C. A condition where tissues don’t receive enough oxygen and nutrients
D. A condition characterized by rapid heartbeat only
11. Which of the following is not a diagnostic criterion for SIRS?
A. Temperature >38°C or <36°C
B. Heart rate >90 bpm
C. Respiratory rate >20/min
D. Blood pressure >140/90 mmHg
12. What is the minimum number of criteria required to diagnose SIRS?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
13. Which white blood cell (WBC) count meets the criteria for SIRS?
A. 10,000/mm³
B. 7,000/mm³
C. 3,500/mm³
D. 9,000/mm³
14. Which of the following conditions may lead to SIRS?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Pancreatitis
C. Fracture of the femur
D. All of the above
15. Which respiratory finding fulfills the SIRS criteria?
A. Respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min
B. PaCO₂ of 40 mmHg
C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min
D. PaO₂ of 100 mmHg
16. What is the primary purpose of the SOFA score in clinical practice?
A. To diagnose sepsis
B. To monitor and quantify organ dysfunction over time
C. To determine nutritional status
D. To assess mental health
17. Which of the following organ systems is not directly assessed by the SOFA score?
A. Respiratory
B. Hepatic
C. Neurological
D. Endocrine
18. Which organ systems are most commonly affected first in MODS?
A. Endocrine and reproductive
B. Nervous and skeletal
C. Respiratory and cardiovascular
D. Muscular and integumentary
19. Vasopressors such as norepinephrine are used in MODS primarily to:
A. Treat anxiety
B. Lower the fever
C. Support blood pressure and maintain organ perfusion
D. Prevent clot formation
20. A MODS patient is disoriented and shows signs of hypoxia. What is the most relevant nursing
diagnosis?
A. Risk for infection
B. Ineffective tissue perfusion: cerebral
C. Impaired verbal communication
D. Impaired gas exchange
21. In the Emergency Severity Index (ESI), what does a level 1 patient require?
A. Non-urgent care
B. Two or more resources
C. Immediate life-saving intervention
D. Discharge with follow-up care
22. In the AMPLE history format, what does the "L" stand for?
A. Location of injury
B. Last oral intake
C. Level of consciousness
D. Loss of function
23. Which of the following is typically assessed during the secondary survey?
A. Spinal immobilization
B. Rapid identification of life-threatening injuries
C. Detailed head-to-toe examination
D. Establishing airway patency
24. What is the correct order of assessment in the primary survey of trauma patients?
A. Breathing, Airway, Circulation, Disability, Exposure
B. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure
C. Circulation, Airway, Breathing, Exposure, Disability
D. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Exposure, Disability
25. Which of the following best describes the purpose of triage in emergency care?
A. To diagnose patient illnesses
B. To prioritize patient care based on severity
C. To provide definitive treatment
D. To assign patients to hospital beds
26. What is the most accurate method for measuring core body temperature in a heat emergency?
A. Tympanic thermometer
B. Oral thermometer
C. Rectal thermometer
D. Axillary thermometer
27. A nurse suspects impaired gas exchange in a patient following a near-drowning event. Which of the
following assessments best supports this nursing diagnosis?
A. Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
B. SpO₂ of 86% with crackles on auscultation
C. GCS score of 15 and clear lung sounds
D. MAP of 70 mmHg with warm skin
28. A patient presents with burns and trauma after a volcanic eruption. Which of the following
interventions should the nurse implement first?
A. Provide IV fluids for potential shock
B. Apply burn ointments
C. Perform range of motion exercises
D. Administer sedatives for anxiety
29. Which diving-related emergency is caused by nitrogen bubbles forming in the body during ascent?
A. Arterial gas embolism (AGE)
B. Barotrauma
C. Decompression sickness (DCS)
D. Nitrogen narcosis
30. A patient exposed to floodwaters presents with fever and jaundice. Which diagnostic study would
help confirm hepatic involvement?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Rapid strep test
C. Liver function tests
D. ECG
31. A patient is choking and unable to speak or cough. What is the priority action?
A. Encourage the patient to keep coughing
B. Perform abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver)
C. Give water to clear the obstruction
D. Start chest compressions immediately
32. Which of the following is a classic sign of inhalation injury in a burn victim?
A. Chest pain
B. Bradycardia
C. Singed nasal hairs
D. Cool, pale skin
33. A patient suddenly develops shortness of breath, wheezing, and hypotension after a bee sting. What
is the priority medication?
A. Diphenhydramine IV
B. Albuterol nebulizer
C. Epinephrine IM
D. Corticosteroids IV
34. What is the most immediate concern for a patient with an open chest wound after a motor vehicle
crash?
A. Infection control
B. Fluid replacement
C. Breathing impairment
D. Pain management
35. Which of the following medications is most commonly administered first during cardiac arrest as
part of Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS)?
A. Amiodarone
B. Atropine
C. Epinephrine
D. Lidocaine
