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Mock Test-10

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to microbiology, including topics such as bacterial characteristics, laboratory tests, and immune responses. Each question is followed by four answer options, with the correct answers provided at the end. The content is designed to assess knowledge in the field of microbiology and related sciences.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
42 views9 pages

Mock Test-10

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to microbiology, including topics such as bacterial characteristics, laboratory tests, and immune responses. Each question is followed by four answer options, with the correct answers provided at the end. The content is designed to assess knowledge in the field of microbiology and related sciences.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

101.

Clostridium bacillus is:


A. Facultative anaerobe
B. Facultative aerobe
C. Obligate anaerobe
D. Obligate aerobe
102. α-hemolytic streptococci are also known as_______.
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Virulence group
C. Viridans group
D. CoNS
103. __________ is/are used to determine glucose fermentation by
bacteria?
A. Methyl red test
B. TSI test
C. Urease test
D. MR test and TSI test
104. Protein particles which can cause disease are:
A. Virions
B. Nucleoida
C. Bacteriophages
D. Prions
105. Bacteria are more sensitive to antibiotics at which phase of
growth curve?
A. Decline phase
B. Lag phase
C. Log phase
D. Stationary phase
106. Syphilis is a bacterial STD, caused by________.
A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Leptospira
D. Neisseria gonorrhea
107. Staining material of Gram-negative bacteria is
A. Crystal violet
B. Safranin
C. Carbol fuchsin
D. Methylene blue
108. The bacterium that is most commonly used in genetic
engineering is:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Klebsiella
C. Proteus
D. Escherichia
109. In autoclave, the principle involved is:
A. Dry heat
B. Moist heat
C. Steam under pressure
D. Moist heat and steam under pressure

110. ____ is NOT an example of immuno-diagnostic test.


A. PCR
B. Serum plate agglutination test
C. ELISA
D. FAT
111. Staph-110 used for the isolation of Staphylococcus, is an
example of ___________ medium.
A. Selective
B. Enrichment
C. Differential
D. General purpose
112. Production of RNA from DNA is called:
A. Translation
B. Transcription
C. RNA splicing
D. Replication
113. Metachromatic granules are found in: A. Mycoplasma
B. Tuberculosis
C. Diphtheria
D. Tetanus

114. Example of anaerobic medium is:


A. Nutrient agar
B. Selenite F broth
C. Robertson cooked-meat medium
D. MacConkey agar
115. All of following are waterborne diseases EXCEPT:
A. Cholera
B. Scabies
C. Giardiasis
D. Salmonellosis
116. Existence of Tuberculosis in population of Faisalabad is
an example of:
A. Epidemic
B. Endemic
C. Pandemic
D. Sporadic
117. Mycotoxins are produced by:
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Fungi
D. Protozoa
118. In polymerase chain reaction, extension step is done at
temperature:
A. 50-60 oC
B. 95 oC
C. 37 oC
D. 72 oC
119. Basophils have receptors for _________ antibodies.
A. IgG
B. IgE
C. IgA
D. IgD
120. Enzymes are chemically:
A. Lipids
B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrates
D. Lipoproteins

121. Which of the following has optimum growth temperature


greater than 45oC?
A. Mesophilic
B. Psychrophiles
C. Psychrophilic
D. Thermophiles
122. The enzyme ____________ unzips and unwinds the DNA.
A. DNA polymerase
B. Helicase
C. Primase
D. Reverse transcriptase
123. Helicobacter pylori possesses __________ that helps to
neutralize stomach acid (HCl).
A. Coagulase
B. Urease
C. Hyaluronidase
D. Catalase
124. Capnophiles bacteria grow at optimum in:
A. Small percentage of CO2
B. Excess CO2
C. Excess of O2
D. Absence of O2
125. First line of body defense is:
A. Antibody molecules
B. Antigen molecules
C. Phagocytic cells
D. Unbroken skin
126. ‘Toxic shock syndrome’ is caused by the toxin of:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Proteus vulgaris
127. _________ reagent is used to precipitate DNA.
A. SDS
B. Isopropanol
C. Phenol
D. EDTA
128. The nosocomial infections are acquired from:
A. Plants
B. Hospitals
C. Animals
D. Community
129. Virus family causing mumps is also responsible for:
A. Hepatitis
B. Rabies
C. Measles
D. Smallpox
130. Carcinoma refers to
A. Malignant tumors of the connective tissue
B. Malignant tumors of the colon
C. Malignant tumors of skin or mucus membrane
D. Malignant tumors of the lungs
131. Batch fermentation is also called:
A. Open system
B. Closed system
C. Sub-merger system
D. Continuous system
132. Live bacterial cells can be examined:
A. In dark field microscope
B. After Gram staining
C. After special staining
D. Acid-fast staining
133. IgM type of antibodies has been found to occur in:
A. Monomer
B. Dimer
C. Trimer
D. Pentamer
134. Which sequence is a palindrome?
A. 5'-GATTA-3'
B. 5'-GACTTT-3'
C. 5'-GACCAA-3'
D. 5' AGGCCT 3’
135. Bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak during:
A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. Stationary Phase
D. Decline Phase
136. The antibiotic acting on cell was is:
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Rifampin
C. Polymyxins
D. Penicillin
137. Which of the following is a motile bacterium?
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Shigella flexneri
138. Migration of leukocytes in response to specific chemicals
towards the site of injury or infection:
A. Specific immunity
B. Phagocytosis
C. Inflammation
D. Chemotaxis
139. _____ is a vector to transmit Dengue virus to man.
A. Male Culex
B. Male Aedes
C. Female Aedes
D. Female Culex
140. The organisms which grow best in the presence of a low
concentration of oxygen:
A. Microaerophilic
B. Anaerobic
C. Facultative anaerobic
D. Obligate aerobes
141. Which one the following blood cells primarily functions as
phagocytic cells?
A. B-lymphocytes
B. T-lymphocytes
C. Eosinophils
D. Neutrophils
142. Acquired immunity is:
A. Natural
B. Artificial
C. Active
D. All of these

143. Formation of nitrate from ammonia is called:


A. Ammonification
B. Denitrification
C. Nitrogen fixation
D. Nitrification
144. Main site of action of tetanus toxin: A. Muscle fibers
B. Neuromuscular junction
C. Postsynaptic terminal of spinal cord
D. Presynaptic terminal of spinal cord

145. Which of the following is a start codon?


A. GUG
B. UGA
C. GAA
D. AUG
146. Acquisition of naked DNA by intact bacteria is:
A. Transduction
B. Transcription
C. Conjugation
D. Transformation
147. T4 enzyme is an example of:
A. Restriction enzyme
B. Polymerase
C. Ligase
D. Integrase
148. _____________ are thin and help in attachment and
colonization.
A. Fimbriae
B. Sex pilli
C. Capsule
D. Cell wall
149. _________ is the killing of all microorganisms both in
vegetative and sporing states.
A. Disinfection
B. Pasteurization
C. Sterilization
D. Antisepsis
150. ______________ technique requires previously diluted
samples carpeted over agar plate.
A. Streak plate
B. Spread plate
C. Pour plate
D. Stab tube
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
C C D D C B B D D A
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A B C C B B C D B B
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
D B B B D A B B C C
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 39 140
B A D D B D C D B A
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
D D D D D D C A C B

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