Electrostatic - Solutions-Relations, Functions & ITF
Electrostatic - Solutions-Relations, Functions & ITF
A-7. The distance between two fixed positive charges 4e and e is . How should a third charge ‘q’ be arranged
for it to be in equilibrium? Under what condition will equilibrium of the charge ‘q’ be stable (for
displacement on the line joining 4e and e) or will it be unstable?
A-8. Three charges, each of value q, are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle. A fourth charge Q is
placed at the centre O of the triangle.
(a) If Q = –q, will the charges at corners start to move towards centre or away from it.
(b) For what value of Q at O will the charges remain stationary?
A-9. Two charged particles A and B, each having a charge Q are placed a distance d apart. Where should a
third particle of charge q be placed on the perpendicular bisector of AB so that it experiences maximum
force? Also find the magnitude of the maximum force.
SECTION (B) : ELECTRIC FIELD
B-1. The electric force experienced by a charge of 5 × 10–6 C is 25 × 10–3 N. Find the magnitude of the electric
field at that position of the charge due to the source charges.
B-2. A uniform electric field E = 91 × 10–6 V/m is created between two parallel, charged plates as shown in
figure. An electron enters the field symmetrically between the plates with a speed v 0 = 4 × 103 m/s. The
length of each plate is = 1m. Find the angle of deviation of the path of the electron as it comes out of
the field. (Mass of the electron is m = 9.1 × 10–31 kg and its charge is e = –1.6 × 10–19 C).
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B-3. Two point particles A and B having charges of 4 × 10–6 C and – 64 × 10–6 C respectively are held at a
separation of 90 cm. Locate the point(s) on the line AB or on its extension where the electric field is zero.
B-4. Three point charges q0 are placed at three corners of square of side a. Find out electric field intensity at
the fourth corner.
B-5. Two point charges 3C and 2.5 C are placed at point A (1, 1, 2)m and B (0, 3, –1)m respectively. Find
out electric field intensity at point C(3, 3, 3)m.
B-6. A hollow sphere of radius a carries a total charge Q distributed uniformly over its surface. A small area
dA of the sphere is cut off. Find the electric field at the centre due to the remaining sphere.
B-7. (i) Two infinitely long line charges each of linear charge density are placed at an angle as shown in
figure. Find out electric field intensity at a point P, which is at a distance x from point O along angle
bisector of line charges.
(ii) Repeat the above question if the line charge densities are and –as shown in figure.
B-8. The bob of a simple pendulum has a mass of 60 g and a positive charge of 6 × 10 –6 C. It makes
30 oscillations in 50 s above earth's surface. A vertical electric field pointing upward and of magnitude
5 × 104 N/C is switched on. How much time will it now take to complete 60 oscillations? (g = 10 m/s2)
B-9. If three infinite charged sheets of uniform surface charge densities , 2 and –4 are placed as shown
in figure, then find out electric field intensities at points A, B, C and D.
B-10. Find out electric field intensity due to uniformly charged solid non-conducting sphere of volume charge
density and radius R at following points :
(i) At a distance r from surface of sphere (inside)
(ii) At a distance r from the surface of sphere (outside)
B-11. Repeat the question if sphere is a hollow non-conducting sphere of radius R and has uniform surface
charge density .
B-12. A thread carrying a uniform charge per unit length has the configuration shown in figure a and b.
Assuming a curvature radius r to be considerably less than the length of the thread, find the magnitude
of the electric field strength at the point O.
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SECTION (C) : ELECTRIC POTENTIAL AND POTENTIAL DIFFERENCE
C-1. A point charge 20 C is shifted from infinity to a point P in an electric field with zero acceleration. If the
potential of that point is 1000 volt, then
(i) Find out work done by external agent against electric field?
(ii) What is the work done by electric field?
(iii) If the kinetic energy of charge particle is found to increase by 10 mJ when it is brought from infinity to
point P, then what is the total work done by external agent?
(iv) What is the work done by electric field in the part (iii)
(v) If a point charge 30 C is released at rest at point P, then find out its kinetic energy at a large distance?
C-2. Two particles A and B having charges of 4 × 10–6 C and –8 × 10–6 C respectively, are held fixed at a
separation of 60 cm. Locate the point(s) on the line AB where the electric potential is zero.
C-3. Six equal point charges q0' each are placed at six corners of a regular hexagon of side 'a'. Find out work
required to take a point charge 'q' slowly :
(i) From infinity to the centre of hexagon.
(ii) From infinity to a point on the axis which is at a distance ' 3 a' from the centre of hexagon.
(iii) Does your answer to part (i) and (ii) depends on the path followed by the charge.
C-4. 20 J of work has to be done against an existing electric field to take a charge of 0.05 C from A to B. How
much is the potential difference VB – VA ?
C-5. A charge of 8 mC is located at the origin. Calculate the work done by external agent in taking a small
charge of –2 × 10–9 C from a point A(0, 0, 0.03 m) to a point B(0, 0.04 m, 0) via a point
C(0, 0.06 m, 0.09 m).
C-6. A positive charge Q = 50 C is located in the xy plane at a point having position vector r0 = 2 ˆi 3 ˆj m
where î and ĵ are unit vectors in the positive directions of X and Y axis respectively. Find:
(a) The electric intensity vector and its magnitude at a point having co-ordinates (8 m, – 5 m).
(b) Work done by external agent in transporting a charge q = 10 C from (8 m, 6 m) to the point (4 m, 3 m).
C-8. A charge Q is distributed over two concentric hollow spheres of radius r and R (R > r), such that the
surface densities of charge are equal. Find the potential at the common centre.
C-9. Two uniformly charged concentric hollow spheres of radii R and 2 R are charged. The inner sphere has
a charge of 1 µC and the outer sphere has a charge of 2 µC of the same sign. The potential is 9000 V at
a point P at a distance 3R from the common centre O. What is the value of R?
C-10. In front of a uniformly charged infinite non-conducting sheet of surface charge density , a point charge
q0 is shifted slowly from a distance a to b (b > a). If work done by external agent is W, then find out relation
between the given parameters.
C-11. An electric field of 20 N/C exists along the negative x-axis in space. Calculate the potential difference
VB – VA, where the points A and B are given by :
(a) A = (0, 0) ; B = (0, 4m) (b) A = (2m, 1m) ; B = (4m, 3m)
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C-12. A uniform field of 8 N/C exists in space in positive x-direction.
(a) Taking the potential at the origin to be zero, write an expression for the potential at a general point
(x, y, z). (b) At which points, the potential is 160 V? (c) If the potential at the origin is taken to be 80V,
what will be the expression for the potential at a general point? (d) What will be the potential at the origin
if the potential at x = infinity is taken to be zero ?
C-13. A particle of charge + 3 × 10–9 C is in a uniform field directed to the left. It is released from rest and moves
a distance of 5 cm, after which its kinetic energy is found to be 4.5 × 10–5 J.
(a) What work was done by the electrical force?
(b) What is the magnitude of the electrical field?
(c) What is the potential of the starting point with respect to the end point?
C-14. In the previous problem, suppose that another force in addition to the electrical force acts on the particle
so that when it is released from rest, it moves to the right. After it has moved 5 cm, the additional force
has done 9 × 10-5 J of work and the particle has 4.5 × 10-5 J of kinetic energy.
(a) What work was done by the electrical force?
(b) What is the magnitude of the electric field?
(c) What is the potential of the starting point with respect to the end point?
D-5. A particle of mass m, charge q > 0 and initial kinetic energy K is projected from infinity towards a heavy
nucleus of charge Q assumed to have a fixed position.
(a) If the aim is perfect, how close to the centre of the nucleus is the particle when it comes
instantaneously to rest?
(b) With a particular imperfect aim, the particle’s closest approach to nucleus is twice the distance
determined in (a). Determine speed of particle at the closest distance of approach.
E-2. Three point charges are arranged at the three vertices of a triangle as shown in Figure. Given :
q = 10–7 C, calculate the electrostatic potential energy of the system.
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E-3. Eight equal point charges each of charge 'q' and mass 'm' are placed at eight corners of a cube of side ‘a’.
(i) Find out potential energy of charge system
(ii) Find out work done by external agent against electrostatic forces and by electrostatic forces to
increase all sides of cube from a to 2a.
a
(iii) If all the charges are released at rest, then find out their speed when they q q
are at the corners of cube of side 2a. q
q
(iv) If keeping all other charges fixed, charge of corner 'A' is released then
q q
find out its speed when it is at infinite distance?
(v) If all charges are released simultaneously from rest then find out their q q
A
speed when they are at a very large distance from each other.
R1
Q1 Q2
F-2 A spherical shell of radius R with a uniform charge q has point charge q0 at its centre. Find the work
performed by the electric forces during the shell expansion slowly from radius R to 2R. Also find out work
done by external agent against electric forces.
F-3. Two identical non-conducting spherical shells having equal charge Q, which is uniformly distributed on it,
are placed at a distance d apart. From where they are released. Find out kinetic energy of each sphere
when they are at a large distance.
F-4. In a solid uniformly charged sphere of total charge Q and radius R, if energy stored out side the sphere
is U0 joules then find out self energy of sphere in term of U0?
SECTION (G) : QUESTIONS BASED ON RELATION BETWEEN E AND V :
G-1. If E = 2y î + 2x ĵ , then find V(x, y, z).
G-3. If V = 2r2 then find out (i) E (1, 0, –2) (ii) E(r 2)
G-5. An electric field E Bxiˆ exists in space, where B = 20 V/m 2. Taking the potential at (2 m, 4 m) to be zero,
find the potential at the origin.
G-6. If E = 2r2, then find V(r)
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H-2. Three point charges –Q, Q and Q are placed on a straight line with distance d between chargesas shown.
Find the magnitude of the electric field at the point P in the configuration shown which is at a distance a
from middle charge Q in the system provided that a >> d. Take 2Qd = p.
H-3. A charge ' q ' is carried slowly from a point A (r, 135º) to a point B (r, 45º) following a path which is a
quadrant of circle of radius ' r '. If the dipole moment is P , then find out the work done by external agent.
H-4. Find out the magnitude of electric field intensity and electric potential due to a dipole of dipole moment
P î 3 ĵ kept at origin at following points.
(i) (2, 0, 0) (ii) (–1, 3 , 0)
H-5. A molecule of a substance has permanent electric dipole moment equal to 10–29 C-m. A mole of this
substance is polarised (at low temperature) by applying a strong electrostatic field of magnitude
(106 Vm–1). The direction of the field is suddenly changed by an angle of 60º. Estimate the heat released
by the substance in aligning its dipoles along the new direction of the field. For simplicity, assume 100%
polarisation to the sample.
SECTION () : ELECTRIC LINES OF FORCE, FLUX CALCULATION AND GAUSS'S LAW
-1. Find out the electric flux through an area 10 m2 lying in XY plane due to an electric field E 2iˆ 10ˆj 5kˆ
-2. n a uniform electric field E if we consider an imaginary cubical closed suface of side a, then find the net
flux through the cube ?
-3. Find the flux of the electric field through a spherical surface of radius R due to a charge of 8.85 × 10–8C
at the centre and another equal charge at a point 3R away from the centre
(Given : 0 = 8.85 × 10–12 units)
-4. A charge q is placed at the centre of an imaginary hemispherical surface. Using symmetry arguments
and the Gauss’s law, find the electric flux due to this charge through the given surface.
-5. What do you predict by the given statement about the nature of charge (positive or negative) enclosed
by the closed surface. "In a closed surface, lines which are leaving the surface are double than the lines
which are entering it".
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SECTION (J) : CONDUCTOR, IT'S PROPERTIES & ELECTRIC PRESSURE
J-1. Two conducting plates X and Y, each having large surface area A (on one side), are placed
parallel to each other as shown in figure. The plate X is given a charge Q whereas the other
is neutral. Find:
(a) The surface charge density at the inner surface of the plate X,
(b) The electric field at a point to the left of the plates,
(c) The electric field at a point in between the plates and
(d) The electric field at a point to the right of the plates.
J-2. Three identical metal plates with large equal surface areas are kept parallel to each
other as shown in figure. The leftmost plate is given a charge –q, the rightmost a
charge 2q and the middle one remains neutral. Find the charge appearing on the
outer surface of the leftmost plate.
J-3. Two thin conducting plates (very large) parallel to each other carrying total charges A and –2A
respectively (where A is the area of each plate), are placed in a uniform external electric field E as shown.
Find the surface charge on each surface.
J-4. Figure shows two conducting spheres separated by large distance and of radius 2cm and 3cm containing
charges 10C and 20C respectively. When the spheres are connected by a conducting wire then find
out following :
(i) Ratio of the final charge. (ii) Final charge on each sphere.
(iii) Ratio of final charge densities. (iv) Heat produced during the process.
J-5. Two concentric hollow conducting spheres of radius a and b (b > a) contains charges Qa and Qb
respectively. If they are connected by a conducting wire then find out following
(i) Final charges on inner and outer spheres.
(ii) Heat produced during the process.
J-6. There are two concentric metal shells of radii r1 and r2 (> r1). If initially, the outer shell has a charge q and
the inner shell is having zero charge and then inner shell is grounded. Find :
(i) Charge on the inner surface of outer shell.
(ii) Final charges on each sphere.
(iii) Charge flown through wire in the ground.
J-7. A metal sphere of radius r1 charged to a potential V1 is then palced in a thin-walled uncharged conducting
spherical shell of radius r2. Determine the potential acquired by the spherical shell after it has been
connected for a short time to the sphere by a conductor.
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PART - II : ONLY ONE OPTION CORRECT TYPE
SECTION (A) : PROPERTIES OF CHARGE AND COULOMB'S LAW
A-1. A charged particle q1 is at position (2, –1, 3). The electrostatic force on another charged particle q2 at
(0, 0, 0) is :
q1q2 q1q2
(A) (2iˆ ˆj 3k)
ˆ (B) (2iˆ ˆj 3k)
ˆ
56 0 56 14 0
q1q2 q1q2
(C) ( ˆj 2iˆ 3k)
ˆ (D) ( ˆj 2iˆ 3k)
ˆ
56 0 56 14 0
A-2. Three charges +4q, Q and q are placed in a straight line of length at points at distance 0, /2 and
respectively from one end of line. What should be the value of Q in order to make the net force on q to
be zero?
(A) –q (B) –2q (C) –q/2 (D) 4q
A-3. Two similar very small conducting spheres having charges 40 C and –20 C are some distance apart.
Now they are touched and kept at the same distance. The ratio of the initial to the final force between
them is :
(A) 8 : 1 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 8 (D) 1 : 1
A-4. Two point charges placed at a distance r in air exert a force F on each other. The value of distance R at
which they experience force 4F when placed in a medium of dielectric constant K = 16 is :
(A) r (B) r/4 (C) r/8 (D) 2r
SECTION (B) : ELECTRIC FIELD
B-1. A simple pendulum has a length & mass of bob m. The bob is given a charge q coulomb. The pendulum
is suspended in a uniform horizontal electric field of strength E as shown in figure, then calculate the time
period of oscillation when the bob is slightly displaced from its mean position.
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 2
g g qE g qE 2
qE
m m g2
m
B-2. Charges 2Q and –Q are placed as shown in figure. The point at which electric field
intensity is zero will be:
(A) Somewhere between –Q and 2Q (B) Somewhere on the left of –Q
(C) Somewhere on the right of 2Q
(D) Somewhere on the perpendicular bisector of line joining –Q and 2Q
B-3. The maximum electric field intensity on the axis of a uniformly charged ring of charge q and radius R will
be :
1 q 1 2q 1 2q 1 3q
(A) (B) 2
(C) (D)
40 3 3R 2
40 3R 40 3 3R 2
40 2 3R2
B-4. A charged particle of charge q and mass m is released from rest in a uniform electric field E. Neglecting
the effect of gravity, the kinetic energy of the charged particle after time ‘t’ seconds is
Eqm E2 q2 t 2 2E2 t 2 Eq2m
(A) (B) (C) (D)
t 2m mq 2t 2
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B-5. A flat circular fixed disc has a charge +Q uniformly distributed on the disc. A charge +q is thrown with
kinetic energy K, towards the disc along its axis. The charge q :
(A) may hit the disc at the centre
(B) may return back along its path after touching the disc
(C) may return back along its path without touching the disc
(D) any of the above three situations is possible depending on the magnitude of K
B-6. The linear charge density on upper half of semi-circular section of ring is and that at lower half is – .
The direction of electric field at centre O of ring is :
B-8. The particle of mass m and charge q will touch the infinitely large plate of uniform charge density if its
velocity v is more than: {Given that q > 0}
........
v
q,m
d
........
2qd qd
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D) none of these
m 0 m 0
B-9. There is a uniform electric field in X-direction. If the work done by external agent in moving a charge of
0.2 C through a distance of 2 metre slowly along the line making an angle of 60º with X-direction is
4 joule, then the magnitude of E is :
(A) 3N/ C (B) 4 N/C (C) 5 N/C (D) 20 N/C
A C
B
–q –q
Q
(A) A, B, C, P and Q (B) A, B and C (C) A, P, C and Q (D) P, B and Q
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C-3. Two equal positive charges are kept at points A and B. The electric potential, while moving from A to B
along straight line :
(A) continuously increases (B) remains constant
(C) decreases then increases (D) increases then decreases
C-4. A semicircular ring of radius 0.5 m is uniformly charged with a total charge of 1.5 × 10–9 coul. The electric
potential at the centre of this ring is :
(A) 27 V (B) 13.5 V (C) 54 V (D) 45.5 V
C-5. When a charge of 3 coul is placed in a uniform electric field, it experiences a force of 3000 newton. The
potential difference between two points separated by a distance of 1 cm along field within this field is:
(A) 10 volt (B) 90 volt (C) 1000 volt (D) 3000 volt
C-6. A 5 coulomb charge experiences a constant force of 2000 N when moved between two points separated
by a distance of 2 cm in a uniform electric field. The potential difference between these two points is:
(A) 8 V (B) 200 V (C) 800 V (D) 20,000 V
C-7. The kinetic energy which an electron acquires when accelerated (from rest) through a potential difference
of 1 volt is called :
(A) 1 joule (B) 1 electron volt (C) 1 erg (D) 1 watt
C-8. The potential difference between points A and B in the given uniform electric field is :
a
C B
E
b
A
E
(B) E (a b )
2 2
(A) Ea (C) Eb (D) (Eb / 2 )
C-10. A particle of charge Q and mass m travels through a potential difference V from rest. The final momentum
of the particle is :
mV 2QV
(A) (B) 2Q mV (C) 2mQV (D)
Q m
C-11. If a uniformly charged spherical shell of radius 10 cm has a potential V at a point distant 5 cm from its
centre, then the potential at a point distant 15 cm from the centre will be :
V 2V 3
(A) (B) (C) V (D) 3V
3 3 2
C-12. A hollow uniformly charged sphere has radius r. If the potential difference between its surface and a point
at distance 3r from the centre is V, then the electric field intensity at a distance 3r from the centre is:
(A) V/6r (B) V/4r (C) V/3r (D) V/2r
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C-13. A hollow sphere of radius 5 cm is uniformly charged such that the potential on its surface is 10 volts then
potential at centre of sphere will be :
(A) Zero
(B) 10 volt
(C) Same as at a point 5 cm away from the surface
(D) Same as at a point 25 cm away from the centre
C-14. A charge +q is fixed at each of the points x = x 0, x = 3x 0, x = 5x0, ...... upto infinity on the x-axis and a
charge –q is fixed at each of the points x = 2x 0, x = 4x 0, x = 6x0, ..... upto infinity. Here x 0 is a positive
Q
constant. Take the electric potential at a point due to a charge Q at a distance r from it to be.
4 0 r
Then the potential at the origin due to the above system of charges is: [JEE 1998 Screening, 2/200]
q q n2
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
8 0 x0 n2 4 0 x 0
D-2. A particle of mass 2 g and charge 1C is held at rest on a frictionless horizontal surface at a distance of
1 m from a fixed charge of 1 mC. If the particle is released it will be repelled. The speed of the particle
when it is at distance of 10 m from the fixed charge is:
(A) 100 m/s (B) 90 m/s (C) 60 m/s (D) 45 m/s
q2 3 15 2 3 9 q2 3 15 2 3 15
(A) (B) q (C) (D) q
0 a 8 4 0 a 2 4 0 a 4 2 0 a 2 8
E-2. You are given an arrangement of three point charges q, 2q and xq separated by equal finite distances so
that electric potential energy of the system is zero. Then the value of x is :
2 1 2 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 3 2
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SECTION (G) : QUESTIONS BASED ON RELATION BETWEEN E AND V :
G-1. The variation of potential with distance r from a fixed point is shown in Figure. The electric field at
r = 5 cm, is :
(A) (2.5) V/cm (B) (–2.5) V/cm (C) (–2/5) cm (D) (2/5) V/cm
G-2. In the above question, the electric force acting on a point charge of 2 C placed at the origin will be :
(A) 2 N (B) 500 N (C) –5 N (D) –500 N
G-3. The electric potential V as a function of distance x (in metre) is given by V = (5x2 + 10x – 9) volt. The
value of electric field at x = 1 m would be :
(A) – 20 volt/m (B) 6 volt/m (C) 11 volt/m (D) –23 volt/m
G-4. A uniform electric field having a magnitude E0 and direction along positive x-axis exists. If the electric
potential V is zero at x = 0, then its value at x = +x will be :
(A) Vx = xE0 (B) Vx = –xE0 (C) Vx = x2E0 (D) Vx = –x2 E0
G-5. Let E be the electric field and V, the electric potential at a point.
(A) If E 0, V cannot be zero (B) If E = 0, V must be zero
(C) If V = 0, E must be zero (D) None of these
G-6. The electric field in a region is directed outward and is proportional to the distance r from the origin.
Taking the electric potential at the origin to be zero, the electric potential at a distance r :
(A) increases as one goes away from the origin. (B) is proportional to r2
(C) is proportional to r (D) is uniform in the region
G-7. A non-conducting ring of radius 0.5 m carries a total charge of 1.11 × 1010 C distributed non-uniformly
on its circumference producing an electric field E every where in space. The value of the line integral
0
E.d ( = 0 being centre of the ring) in volts is : (Approximately) [JEE 1997, 1]
(A) at P only (B) at Q only (C) both at P and at Q (D) neither at P nor at Q
H-2. An electric dipole of dipole moment p is placed at the origin along the x-axis. The angle made by electric
field with x-axis at a point P, whose position vector makes an angle with x-axis, is :
(where, tan = 1/2 tan )
(A) (B) (C) + (D) + 2
H-3. An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges each of magnitude 1.0 C, separated by a distance
of 2.0 cm. The dipole is placed in an external electric field of 1.0 × 105 N/C. The maximum torque on the
dipole is :
(A) 0.2 × 10–3 N-m (B) 1.0 × 10–3 N-m (C) 2.0 × 10–3 N-m (D) 4.0 × 10–3 N-m
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H-4. A dipole of electric dipole moment P is placed in a uniform electric field of strength E. If is the angle between
positive directions of P and E, then the potential energy of the electric dipole is largest when is :
(A) zero (B) /2 (C) (D) /4
H-5. Two opposite and equal charges of magnitude 4 × 10–8 coulomb each when placed 2 × 10–2 cm apart
form a dipole. If this dipole is placed in an external electric field of 4 × 10 8 N/C, the value of maximum
torque and the work required in rotating it through 180º from its initial orientation which is along electric
field will be : (Assume rotation of dipole about an axis passing through centre of the dipole):
(A) 64 × 10–4 N-m and 44 × 10–4 J (B) 32 × 10–4 N-m and 32 × 10–4 J
–4 –4
(C) 64 × 10 N-m and 32 × 10 J (D) 32 × 10–4 N-m and 64 × 10–4 J
H-6. At a point on the axis (but not inside the dipole and not at infinity) of an electric dipole
(A) The electric field is zero
(B) The electric potential is zero
(C) Neither the electric field nor the electric potential is zero
(D) The electric field is directed perpendicular to the axis of the dipole
H-7. The force between two short electric dipoles separated by a distance r is directly proportional to :
(A) r2 (B) r4 (C) r–2 (D) r–4
H-8. Three dipoles each of dipole moment of magnitude p are placed tangentially on a circle of radius R in its
plane positioned at equal angle from each other as shown in the figure. Then the magnitude of electric
field intensity at the centre of the circle will be :
4kp 2kp kp
(A) (B) (C) (D) 0
R3 R3 R3
SECTION () : ELECTRIC LINES OF FORCE, FLUX CALCULATION AND GAUSS'S LAW
-1. A square of side 'a' is lying in xy plane such that two of its sides are lying on the axis. If an electric field
E E0 xkˆ is applied on the square. The flux passing through the square is :
E0 a3 E a3 E0 a 2
(A) E0a3 (B) (C) 0 (D)
2 3 2
-2. If electric field is uniform, then the electric lines of forces are:
(A) Divergent (B) Convergent (C) Circular (D) Parallel
-3. The figure shows the electric lines of force emerging from a charged body. If the electric fields at A and
B are EA and EB respectively and if the distance between A and B is r, then
EB EB
(A) EA < EB (B) EA > EB (C) E A (D) E A
r r2
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-4. Select the correct statement :
(A) The electric lines of force are always closed curves
(B) Electric lines of force are parallel to equipotential surface
(C) Electric lines of force are perpendicular to equipotential surface
(D) Electric line of force is always the path of a positively charged particle.
-5. If the electric flux entering and leaving a closed surface are respectively of magnitude 1 and 2, then the
electric charge inside the surface will be :
– 1
(A) 2 (B) (1 2 )0 (C) 0 (2 – 1 ) (D) 0 (2 1 )
0
-6. An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a sphere. Mark the correct options.
(A) The electric field is zero at every point of the sphere.
(B) The flux of the electric field through the sphere is non-zero.
(C) The electric field is zero on a circle on the sphere.
(D) The electic field is not zero anywhere on the sphere.
-7. Figure (i) shows an imaginary cube of edge length L. A uniformly charged rod of length 2L moves towards
left at a small but constant speed v. At t = 0, the left end of the rod just touches the centre of the face of
the cube opposite to it. Which of the graphs shown in figure (ii) represents the flux of the electric field
through the cube as the rod goes through it ?
Flux d
b a
c
(i) (ii)
time
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
-8. Electric charges are distributed in a small volume. The flux of the electric field through a spherical surface
of radius 20 cm surrounding the total charge is 50 V-m. The flux over a concentric sphere of radius
40 cm will be:
(A) 50 V-m (B) 75 V-m (C) 100 V-m (D) 200 V-m
-9. Eight point charges (can be assumed as uniformly charged small spheres and their centres at the corner
of the cube) having value q each are fixed at vertices of a cube. The electric flux through square surface
ABCD of the cube is
q q q q
(A) (B) (C) (D)
24 0 12 0 6 0 8 0
-10. Figure shows two large cylindrical shells having uniform linear charge densities + and – . Radius of
inner cylinder is ‘a’ and that of outer cylinder is ‘b’. A charged particle of mass m, charge q revolves in a
circle of radius r. Then, its speed ‘v’ is : (Neglect gravity and assume the radii of both the cylinders to be
very small in comparison to their length.)
q 2 q q q
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 0 m 0 m 0 m 40m
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-11. A positive charge Q is placed at a distance of 4R above the centre of a disc of
radius R. The magnitude of flux through the disc is . Now a hemispherical shell of
radius R is placed over the disc such that it forms a closed surface. The flux through
the curved surface (taking direction of area vector along outward normal as
positive), is :
(A) zero (B) (C) – (D) 2
-12. The given figure gives electric lines of force due to two charges q1 and q2. What are the signs of the two
charges?
-14. A cylinder on whose surfaces there is a vertical electric field of varying magnitude
as shown. The electric field is uniform on the top surface as well as on the bottom 800 V/m
surface therefore, this cylinder encloses [Olympiad (stage-1) 2017]
(A) no net charge
(B) net positive charge
(C) net negative charge
(D) There is not enough information to determine whether or not there is net
charge inside the cylinder. 400 V/m
J-6. Figure shows a thick metallic sphere. If it is given a charge +Q, then electric field will be present in the
region
(A) r < R1 only (B) r > R1 and R1<r<R2 (C) r R2 only (D) r R2 only
J-7. An uncharged sphere of metal is placed in a uniform electric field produced by two large conducting
parallel plates having equal and opposite charges, then lines of force look like:
+ + + + +
– – – – –
J-8. Two small conductors A and B are given charges q1 and q2 respectively. Now they are placed inside a
hollow metallic conductor (C) carrying a charge Q. If all the three conductors A, B and C are connected
by conducting wires as shown, the charges on A, B and C will be respectively:
q1 q2 q1 q2 Q q1 q3 Q q1 q2 Q q1 q2
(A) , ,Q (B) , ,
2 2 3 3 3
q1 q2 Q q1 q2 Q
(C) , , 0 (D) 0, 0, Q + q1 + q2
2 2
J-9. You are travelling in a car during a thunder storm. In order to protect yourself from lightening, would you
prefer to :
(A) Remain in the car (B) Take shelter under a tree
(C) Get out and be flat on the ground (D) Touch the nearest electrical pole
J-10. A positively charged body 'A' has been brought near a neutral brass sphere B mounted on a glass stand
as shown in the figure. The potential of B will be:
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J-11. The amount of work done by electric field in joules in carrying a charge +q along the closed path PQRSP
between the oppositely charged metal plates is: (where, E is electric field between the plates)
J-12. Figure shows a closed surface which intersects a conducting sphere. If a positive charge is placed at the
point P, the flux of the electric field through the closed surface:
shell
shell
+q initially no
net charge
(B) K (q) Potential energy of system of spheres
decreases.
shell
shell
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initially no
net charge
+q
(C) (r) No heat is produced.
K
shell
shell
+q
initially no
net charge
(D) (s) The shell has no charge after equilibrium is
K reached.
shell
shell
2. Column gives a situation in which two dipoles of dipole moment p î and 3pjˆ are placed at origin.
A circle of radius R with centre at origin is drawn as shown in figure. Column gives coordinates of
certain positions on the circle. Match the statements in Column with the statements in Column .
y
3 p ĵ
x
pî
R
Column- Column-
R 3 R
(A) The coordinate(s) of point on circle where potential is maximum (p) ,
2 2
R 3 R
(B) The coordinate(s) of point on circle where potential is zero (q) , –
2 2
3 R R
(C) The coordinate(s) of point on circle where magnitude of electric field (r) ,
1 4p 2 2
intensity is
40 R3
(D) The coordinate(s) of point on circle where magnitude of electric field (s) 3R R
,
1 2p 2 2
intensity is
40 R3
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2. The magnitude of electric force on 2 c charge placed at the centre O of two equilateral triangles each
of side 10 cm, as shown in figure is P. If charge A, B, C, D, E & F are 2 c, 2 c, 2 c, –2 c, – 2 c,
–2 c respectively, then P is:
F
E A
O
D B
C
(A) 21.6 N (B) 64.8 N (C) 0 (D) 43.2 N
3. Five balls, numbered 1 to 5, are suspended using separate threads. Pairs (1, 2), (2, 4), (4, 1) show
electrostatic attraction, while pairs (2, 3) and (4, 5) show repulsion. Therefore ball 1 :
(A) Must be positively charged (B) Must be negatively charged
(C) May be neutral (D) Must be made of metal
4. Two point charges of same magnitude and opposite sign are fixed at points A and B. A third small point
charge is to be balanced at point P by the electrostatic force due to these two charges. The point P :
(A) lies on the perpendicular bisector of line AB (B) is at the mid point of line AB
(C) lies to the left of A (D) none of these.
5. Two point charges a & b, whose magnitudes are same are positioned at a
certain distance from each other with a at origin. Graph is drawn between
electric field strength at points between a & b and distance x from a. E is
taken positive if it is along the line joining from a to b. From the graph, it can
be decided that
(A) a is positive, b is negative (B) a and b both are positive
(C) a and b both are negative (D) a is negative, b is positive
6. A solid sphere of radius R has a volume charge density = 0r2 (Where 0 is a constant and r is the
distance from centre). At a distance x from its centre (for x < R), the electric field is directly proportional
to :
(A) 1/x2 (B) 1/x (C) x3 (D) x2
7. A charged particle ‘q’ is shot from a large distance with speed v towards a fixed charged particle Q.
It approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q were given a speed ‘2v’, the closest
distance of approach would be :
q q q q 1
(A) loge 2 (B) loge 2 (C) loge 2 (D) loge
0 4 0 4 0 20 2
9. Two short electric dipoles are placed as shown (r is the distance between their centres). The energy of
electric interaction between these dipoles will be:
C
(C is centre of dipole of moment P2)
2k P1 P2 cos 2k P1 P2 cos 2k P1 P2 sin 4k P1 P2 cos
(A) (B) (C) (D)
r3 r3 r3 r3
10. A charge q is placed at the centre of the cubical vessel (with one face open) as shown in figure. The flux
of the electric field through the surface of the vessel is :
q
(A) zero (B) q/0 (C) (D) 5q/60
40
11. The electric field above a uniformly charged nonconducting sheet is E. If the nonconducting sheet is now
replaced by a conducting sheet, with the charge same as before, the new electric field at the same point is :
(A) 2E (B) E (C) E/2 (D) None of these
12. A dipole having dipole moment p is placed in front of a solid uncharged conducting sphere as shown in
the diagram. The net potential at point A lying on the surface of the sphere is :
17. A solid metallic sphere has a charge +3Q. Concentric with this sphere is a conducting spherical shell
having charge –Q. The radius of the sphere is a and that of the spherical shell is b(>a). What is the
electric field at a distance r(a < r < b) from the centre?
1 Q 1 3Q 1 3Q 1 Q
(A) (B) (C) (D)
40 r
2
40 r 40 r 40 r2
18. A charge ' q ' is placed at the centre of a conducting spherical shell of radius R, which is given a charge
Q. An external charge Q is also present at distance R (R > R) from ' q '. Then the resultant field will be
best represented for region r < R by: [where r is the distance of the point from q]
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
19. In the above question, if Q' is removed then which option is correct:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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20. Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two light strings of length l, are initially
at a distance d(<< l) apart due to their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres
at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity . If x denotes the distance
between the spheres, the varies as [Olympiad (Stage-1) 2017]
(A) x–1 (B) x1/2 (C) x–1/2 (D) x
21. Acidified water from certain reservoir kept at a potential V falls in the form of small droplets each of radius
r through a hole into a hollow conducting sphere of radius a. The sphere is insulated and is initially at
zero potential. If the drops continue to fall until the sphere is half full, the potential acquired by the sphere
is [Olympiad (Stage-1) 2017]
2 3
a V a V a V aV
(A) 2
(B) (C) 3
(D)
2r r 2 2r r
9. A hollow sphere having uniform charge density (charge per unit volume) is shown in figure. If b = 2a
a 2
and potential difference between A and B is . Then find the value of n :
n 0
10. Two identical particles of mass m carry a charge Q each. Initially, one is at rest on a smooth horizontal
plane and the other is projected along the plane directly towards the first particle from a large distance,
xQ2
with a speed V. The closest distance of approach is . Find the value of x :
40 m v 2
11. A particle having charge + q is fixed at a point O and a second particle of mass m and having charge
– q0 moves with constant speed in a circle of radius r about the charge + q. The energy required to be
qq0
supplied to the moving charge to increase radius of the path to 2 r is . Find the value of n.
n 0 r
15. The electric field in a region is given by E E0 x ˆi . The charge contained inside a cubical volume bounded
by the surface x = 0, x = 2m, y = 0, y = 2m, z = 0 and z = 2m is n0E0. Find the value of n.
16. The volume charge density as a function of distance X from one face inside a unit cube is varying as
shown in the figure. Find the total flux (in S.I. units) through the cube (If 0 = 8.85 1012 C/m3). :
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17. A very long uniformly charged thread oriented along the axis of a circle of radius R = 1m rests on its
centre with one of the ends. The charge per unit length on the thread is = 160. Find the flux of the vector
E through the circle area in (Vm).
18. The electric field in a region is radially outward with magnitude E = 2r. The charge contained in a sphere
of radius a = 2m centred at the origin is 4x0. Find the value of x.
19. Two isolated metallic solid spheres of radii R and 2R are charged such that both of these have same
charge density 12 C/m2. The spheres are located far away from each other, and connected by a thin
conducting wire. Find the new charge density on the bigger sphere in C/m2.
20. A metallic sphere of radius R is cut in two parts along a plane whose minimum distance from the sphere's
centre is h = R/2 and the sphere is uniformly charged by a total electric charge Q. The minimum force
3kQ2
necessary (to be applied on each of the two parts) to hold the two parts of the sphere together is .
pR2
Then find the value of p ?
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6. Which of the following quantites depends on the choice of zero potential or zero potential energy ?
(A) Potential at a particular point
(B) Change in potential energy of a two-charge system
(C) Potential energy of a two - charge system
(D) Potential difference between two points
7. The electric field intensity at a point in space is equal in magnitude to :
(A) Magnitude of the potential gradient there
(B) The electric charge there
(C) The magnitude of the electric force, a unit charge would experience there
(D) The force, an electron would experience there
8. The electric field produced by a positively charged particle, placed in an xy-plane is 7.2 (4i + 3j) N/C at
the point (3 cm, 3cm) and 100 î N/C at the point (2 cm, 0).
(A) The x-coordinate of the charged particle is –2cm.
(B) The charged particle is placed on the x-axis.
(C) The charge of the particle is 10 x 10–12 C.
(D) The electric potential at the origin due to the charge is 9V.
9. At distance of 5cm and 10cm outwards from the surface of a uniformly charged solid sphere, the
potentials are 100V and 75V respectively. Then :
(A) Potential at its surface is 150V. (B) The charge on the sphere is (5/3) × 109C.
(C) The electric field on the surface is 1500 V/m (D) The electric potential at its centre is 225V.
10. The electric potential decreases uniformly from 180 V to 20 V as one moves on the X-axis from
x = – 2 cm to x = + 2 cm. The electric field at the origin :
(A) must be equal to 40V/cm. (B) may be equal to 40V/cm.
(C) may be greater than 40V/cm. (D) may be less than 40V/cm.
11. An electric dipole is kept in the electric field produced by a point charge.
(A) dipole will experience a force.
(B) dipole will experience a torque.
(C) it is possible to find a path (not closed) in the field on which work required to move the dipole is zero.
(D) dipole can be in stable equilibrium.
12. Four short dipoles each of dipole moment ‘p’ are placed at the vertices of a square of side a. The direction
of the dipole moments are shown in the figure.
2p 2p
(A) Electric field at O is (B) Electric field at O is
2 0 a 3
0 a3
(C) Electrostatic potential at O is zero (D) Net dipole moment is 2p
13. Figure shows a charge Q placed at the centre of open face of a cylinder as
shown in figure. A second charge q is placed at one of the positions A, B, C
and D, out of which positions A and D are lying on a straight line parallel to
open face of cylinder. In which position(s) of this second charge, the flux of
the electric field through the cylinder remains unchanged ?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
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14. A long cylindrical volume (of radius R) contains a uniformly distributed charge of density . Consider a
point P inside the cylindrical volume at a distance x from its axis as shown in the figure. Here x can be
more than or less than R.Electric field at point P is :
x x R 2 R 2
(A) if x < R (B) if x < R (C) if x > R (D) if x > R
2 0 0 4 0 x 20 x
15. An imaginary closed surface P is constructed around a neutral conducting wire connected to a battery
and a switch as shown in figure. As the switch is closed, the free electrons in the wire start moving along
the wire. In any time interval, the number of electrons entering the closed surface P is equal to the number
of electrons leaving it. On closing the switch, the flux of the electric field through the closed surface:
(A) remains unchanged (B) remains zero (C) is increased (D) is decreased
16. A and B are two conducting concentric spherical shells. A is given a charge B
Q while B is uncharged. If now B is earthed as shown in figure. Then :
(A) The charge appearing on inner surface of B is -Q ++ +
++ +
(B) The field inside and outside A is zero. + A +
+ +
+ + ++
(C) The field between A and B is not zero.
(D) The charge appearing on outer surface of B is zero.
17. A large nonconducting sheet M is given a uniform charge density. Two uncharged small metal spheres
A and B are placed near the sheet as shown in figure.
18. A point charge 'q' is within an electrically neutral conducting shell whose
outer surface is a sphere of radius R. The centre of outer surface is at O.
Consider a point P outside the conductor as shown in the figure. The
magnitude of electric field at P
(A) due to charge induced on inner surface of the conductor is zero
(B) due to charge induced on inner surface of the conductor is kq/(r')2
(C) due to charge induced on outer surface of the conductor is kq/r2
(D) due to charge induced on surface of the conductor is kq/r2
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PART - IV : COMPREHENSION
COMPREHENSION # 1
A leaf electroscope is a simple apparatus to detect any charge on a body. It consists of two metal leaves
OA and OB, free to rotate about O. Initially both are very slightly separated. When a charged object is
touched to the metal knob at the top of the conducting rod, charge flows from knob to the leaves through
the conducting rod. As the leaves are now charged similarly, they start repelling each other and get
separated, (deflected by certain angle).
The angle of deflection in static equilibrium is an indicator of the amount of charge on the charged body.
1. When a + 20 C rod is touched to the knob, the deflection of leaves was 5°, and when an identical rod of
– 40 C is touched, the deflection was found to be 9°. If an identical rod of +30 C is touched, then the
deflection may be :
(A) 0 (B) 2° (C) 7° (D) 11°
(i) A positively charged rod is brought closer to initially uncharged knob (A)
+
++ +
++
(ii) Then the positively charged rod is touched to the knob (B)
- - --
--
(iii) Now the +vely charged rod is removed, and a negatively charged. (C)
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3. In an electroscope, both leaves are hinged at the top point O. Each leaf has mass m, length and gets
charge q. Assuming the charge to be concentrated at ends A and B only, the small angle of deviation ()
between the leaves in static equilibrium, is equal to :
1/ 3 1/ 3 1/ 2 1/ 3
4kq2 kq2 2kq2 64kq2
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 2
mg mg mg mg
COMPREHENSION # 2
A charged particle is suspended at the centre of two thin concentric spherical charged shells, made of
non conducting material. Figure A shows cross section of the arrangement. Figure B gives the net flux
through a Gaussian sphere centered on the particle, as a function of the radius r of the sphere.
COMPREHENSION # 3
A solid conducting sphere of radius ‘a’ is surrounded by a thin uncharged concentric conducting shell of
radius 2a. A point charge q is placed at a distance 4a from common centre of conducting sphere and
shell. The inner sphere is then grounded.
2a 4a
a q
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6. A disk of radius a/4 having a uniformly distributed charge 6C is placed in the x-y plane with its centre at
(–a/2, 0, 0). A rod of length a carrying a uniformly distributed charge 8C is placed on the x-axis from
x = a/4 to x = 5a/4. Two point charges –7C and 3C are placed at (a/4, –a/4, 0) and (–3a/4, 3a/4, 0),
respectively. Consider a cubical surface formed by six surfaces x = ± a/2, y = ± a/2, z = ±a/2. The electric
flux through this cubical surface is : [JEE 2009, 3/160, –1]
7. Three concentric metallic spherical shells of radii R, 2R, 3R, are given charges Q 1, Q2, Q3, respectively.
It is found that the surface charge densities on the outer surfaces of the shells are equal. Then, the ratio
of the charges given to the shells, Q1 : Q2 : Q3, is [JEE 2009, 3/160, –1]
(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 3 : 5 (C) 1 : 4 : 9 (D) 1 : 8 : 18
8. Under the influence of the Coulomb field of charge +Q, a charge –q is moving around it in an elliptical
orbit. Find out the correct statement(s). [JEE 2009, 4/160, –1]
(A) The angular momentum of the charge –q is constant.
(B) The linear momentum of the charge –q is constant.
(C) The angular velocity of the charge – q is constant.
(D) The linear speed of the charge –q is constant.
9. A solid sphere of radius R has a charge Q distributed in its volume with a charge density = kra, where
k and a are constants and r is the distance from its centre. If the electric field at r = R/2 is 1/8 times that
at r = R, find the value of a. [JEE 2009, 4/160, –1]
10. A few electric field lines for a system of two charges Q 1 and Q2 fixed at
two different points on the x-axis are shown in the figure. These lines
suggest that : [JEE 2010, 3/163]
(A) |Q1| > |Q2|
(B) |Q1 | < |Q2|
(C) at a finite distance to the left of Q1 the electric field is zero
(D) at a finite distance to the right of Q2 the electric field is zero
11. A uniformly charged thin spherical shell of radius R carries uniform surface charge density of per unit
area. It is made of two hemispherical shells, held together by pressing them with force F (see figure).
F is proportional to [JEE 2010, 5/163, –2]
F F
1 2 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
(A) R (B) R (C) (D)
0 0 0 R 0 R 2
12. A tiny spherical oil drop carrying a net charge q is balanced in still air with a vertical uniform electric field
81
of strength 105 Vm–1. When the field is switched off, the drop is observed to fall with terminal velocity
7
2 × 10–3 m s–1. Given g = 9.8 m s–2, viscosity of the air = 1.8 × 10–5 Ns m–2 and the density of
oil = 900 kg m –3, the magnitude of q is : [JEE 2010, 5/163, –2]
(A) 1.6 × 10–19 C (B) 3.2 × 10–19 C (C) 4.8 × 10–19 C (D) 8.0 × 10–19 C
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13. Consider an electric field E E0 xˆ , where E0 is a constant. The flux through the shaded area (as shown
in the figure) due to this field is : [JEE-2011, 3/160, –1]
E0 a 2
(A) 2E0a2 (B) 2 E0a2 (C) E0a2 (D)
2
14*. A spherical metal shell A of radius RA and a solid metal sphere B of radius RB (< RA) are kept far apart
and each is given charge ‘+Q’. Now they are connected by a thin metal wire. Then [JEE-2011, 4/160]
R
(A) Einside 0 (B) QA > QB (C) A B
on surface
(D) E A EBon surface
B R A
A
16. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? [JEE 2011, 4/160]
(A) If the electric field due to a point charge varies as r–2.5 instead of r–2, then the Gauss law will still be valid.
(B) The Gauss law can be used to calculate the field distribution around an electric dipole.
(C) If the electric field between two point charges is zero somewhere, then the sign of the two charges is
the same.
(D) The work done by the external force in moving a unit positive charge from point A at potential VA to
point B at potential VB is (VB – VA).
17. Consider a thin spherical shell of radius R with its centre at the origin,
carrying uniform positive surface
charge density. The variation of the magnitude of the electric field | E(r ) | and the electric potential V(r)
with the distance r from the centre, is best represented by which graph? [JEE 2012, Paper-1 : 3/70, –1]
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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18*. Six point charges are kept at the vertices of a regular hexagon of side L and
1 q
centre O, as shown in the figure. Given that K = , which of the
40 L2
following statement (s) is (are) correct? [JEE 2012, Paper-1 : 4/66]
(A) the elecric field at O is 6K along OD
(B) The potential at O is zero
(C) The potential at all points on the line PR is same
(D) The potential at all points on the line ST is same.
19*. Two non-conducting solid spheres of radii R and 2R, having uniform volume charge densities 1 and 2
respectively, touch each other. The net electric field at a distance 2R from the centre of the smaller
sphere, along the line joining the centres of the spheres, is zero. The ratio 1/2 can be ;
[JEE (Advanced)-2013; 3/60, –1]
32 32
(A) –4 (B) (C) (D) 4
25 25
20*. Two non–conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 and carrying uniform volume charge densities + and
–, respectively, are placed such that they partially overlap, as shown in the figure. At all points in the
overlapping region : [JEE (Advanced) 2013; 3/60, –1]
(A) the electrostatic field is zero (B) the electrostatic potential is constant
(C) the electrostatic field is constant in magnitude (D) the electrostatic field has same direction
21. Charges Q, 2Q and 4Q are uniformly distributed in three dielectric solid spheres 1, 2 and 3 of radii R/2,
R and 2R respectively, as shown in figure. If magnitudes of the electric fields at point P at a distance R
from the centre of spheres 1, 2 and 3 are E1 E2 and E3 respectively, then
[JEE (Advanced) 2014, 3/60, –1]
(A) E1 > E2 > E3 (B) E3 > E1 > E2 (C) E2 > E1 > E3 (D) E3 > E2 > E1
22. Let E1(r), E2(r) and E3(r) be the respective electric fields at a distance r from a point charge Q, an infinitely
long wire with constant linear charge density , and an infinite plane with uniform surface charge density
. if E1(r0) = E2(r0) = E3(r0) at a given distance r0, then [JEE (Advanced) 2014, P-1, 3/60]
(A) Q 4r02 (B) r0 (C) E1(r0/2) = 2E2(r0/2) (D) E2(r0/2) = 4E3(r0/2)
2
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23. Four charge Q1, Q2, Q3 and Q4 of same magnitude are fixed along the x axis at x = –2a –a, +a and +2a,
respectively. A positive charge q is placed on the positive y axis at a distance b > 0. Four options of the
signs of these charges are given in List-I. The direction of the forces on the charge q is given in List-II
Match List-1 with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
[JEE (Advanced)-2014, 3/60, –1]
List-I List-II
P. Q1, Q2, Q3, Q4 all positive 1. +x
Q. Q1, Q2 positive Q3, Q4 negative 2. –x
R. Q1, Q4 positive Q2, Q3 negative 3. +y
S. Q1, Q3 positive Q2, Q4 negative 4. –y
Code :
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
24. An infinitely long uniform line charge distribution of charge per unit length lies parallel to the y-axis in
3
the y-z plane at z = a (see figure). If the magnitude of the flux of the electric field through the
2
L
rectangular surface ABCD lying in the x-y plane with its centre at the origin is (0 = permittivity of
n 0
free space), then the value of n is : [JEE (Advanced) 2015 ; P-1, 4/88]
25. The figures below depict two situations in which two infinitely long static line charges of constant positive
line charge density are kept parallel to each other. In their resulting electric field, point charges q and
–q are kept in equilibrium between them. The point charges are confined to move in the x-direction only.
If they are given a small dispacement about their equilibrium positions, then the correct ststement(s) is
(are) : [JEE (Advanced) 2015 ; P-1 4/88, –2]
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26. Consider a uniform speherical charge distribution of radius R1 centred at the
origin O. In this distribution, a spherical cavity of radius R2, centred at P with
distance OP = a = R1 – R2 (see figure) is made. If the electric field inside the
cavity at position r is E(r) , then the correct statement(s) is(are)
[JEE (Advanced) 2015 ; P-2,4/88, –2]
(A) E is uniform, its magnitude is independent of R2 but its direction depends
on r
(B) E is uniform, its magnitude depends on R2 and its direction depends on r
(C) E is uniform, its magnitude is independent of a but its direction depends
on a
(D) E is uniform, and both its magnitude and direction depends on a
27. A point charge +Q is placed just outside an imaginary hemispherical surface of radius R as shown in the
figure. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? [JEE (Advanced) 2017 ; 4/61, –2]
+Q
(A) Total flux through the curved and the flat surface is Q/0
(B) The component of the electric field normal to the flat surface is constant over the surface
(C) The circumference of the flat surface is an equipotential
Q 1
(D) The electric flux passing through the curved surface of the hemisphere is – 1–
20 2
28*. An infinitely long thin non-conducting wire is parallel to the z-axis and carries a uniform line charge density
. It pierces a thin non-conducting spherical shell of radius R in such a way that the arc PQ subtends an
angle 120° at the centre O of the spherical shell, as shown in the figure. The permittivity of free space is
0. Which of the following statements is (are) true? [JEE (Advanced) 2018 ; 4/60, –2]
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29. A particle, of mass 10–3kg and charge 1.0 C, is initially at rest. At time t = 0, the particle comes under the
influence of an electric field E(t) E sin tiˆ where E0 = 1.0 NC–1 and = 103 rad s-1. Consider the effect of
0
only the electrical force on the particle. Then the maximum speed, in ms–1, attained by the particle at
subsequent times is ____________. [JEE (Advanced) 2018 ; 3/60]
30. The electric field E is measured at a point P(0, 0, d) generated due to various charge distributions and
the dependence of E on d is found to be different for different charge distributions. List-I contains different
relations between E and d. List-II describes different electric charge distributions, along with their
locations. Match the functions in List-I with the related charge distributions in List-II.
[JEE (Advanced) 2018 ; 3/60, –1]
List-I List-II
P. E is independent of d 1. A point charge Q at the origin
Q. E 1/d 2. A small dipole with point charges Q
at (0, 0, ) and –Q at (0, 0, –)
Take 2 << d
R. E 1/d2 3. An infinite line charge coincident with
the x-axis, with uniform linear charge
density .
S. E 1/d3 4. Two infinite wires carrying uniform
linear charge density parallel to the
x-axis. The one along (y = 0, z = )
has a charge density + and the one
along (y = 0, z = –) has a charge
density –. Take 2 << d
5. Infinite plane charge coincident with
the xy-plane with uniform surface
charge density.
(A) P → 5 ; Q → 3, 4 ; R → 1 ; S → 2 (B) P → 5 ; Q → 3 ; R → 1, 4 ; S → 2
(C) P → 5 ; Q → 3 ; R → 1, 2; S → 4 (D) P → 4 ; Q → 2, 3 ; R → 1 ; S → 5
2. Two points P and Q are maintained at the potentials of 10 V and –4 V respectively. The work done in
moving 100 electrons from P to Q is : [AIEEE-2009, 4/144]
–17 –16 –16
(1) 9.60 × 10 J (2) –2.24 × 10 J (3) 2.24 × 10 J (4) –9.60 × 10–17 J
3. A charge Q is placed at each of the opposite corners of a square. A charge q is placed at each of the
other two corners. If the net electrical force on Q is zero, then Q/q equals: [AIEEE-2009, 4/144]
1
(1) –1 (2) 1 (3) (4) 2 2
2
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4. STATEMENT 1 : For a charged particle moving from point P to point Q, the net work done by an electrostatic
field on the particle is independent of the path connecting point P to point Q. [AIEEE 2009, 6/144]
STATEMENT 2 : The net work done by a conservative force on an object moving along a closed loop is
zero.
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(4) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
Q
5. Let (r) = r be the charge density distribution for a solid sphere of radius R and total charge Q. For
R 4
a point ‘P’ inside the sphere at distance r1 from the centre of sphere, the magnitude of electric field is :
[AIEEE 2009, 4/144]
Q Qr12 Qr12
(1) (2) (3) (4) 0
40r12 40R 4 30R 4
6. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive charge q distributed uniformly over it. The net field E at
the centre O is : [AIEEE 2010, 4/144]
q q q q
(1) ĵ (2) – ĵ (3) – ĵ (4) ĵ
4 2 0 r 2 4 2 0 r 2 2 2 0 r 2 2 2 0 r 2
Let there be a spherically symmetric charge distribution with charge density varying as (r) 0
5 r
7.
4 R
upto r = R, and (r) = 0 for r > R, where r is the distance from the origin. The electric field at a distance r
(r < R) from the origin is given by [AIEEE 2010, 4/144]
40r 5 r 0r 5 r 40r 5 r 0r 5 r
(1) (2) 3 R (3) (4)
30 3 R 40 30 4 R 30 4 R
8. Two identical charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. The strings make an angle of
30º with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.8 g cm –3, the angle remains the same.
If density of the material of the sphere is 1.6 g cm –3, the dielectric constant of the liquid is
[AIEEE 2010, 8/144]
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
9. The electrostatic potential inside a charged spherical ball is given by = ar2 + b where r is the distance
from the centre; a,b are constants. Then the charge density inside the ball is : [AIEEE 2011, 4/120, –1]
(1) –24 a0r (2) –6 a0r (3) –24 a0 (4) –6 a0
10. Two positive charges of magnitude ‘q’ are placed at the ends of a side (side 1) of a square of side ‘2a’.
Two negative charges of the same magnitude are kept at the other corners. Starting from rest, if a charge
Q moves from the middle of side 1 to the centre of square, its kinetic energy at the centre of square is :
[AIEEE 2011, 11 May; 4, –1]
1 2qQ 1 1 2qQ 2 1 2qQ 1
(1) zero (2) 1 (3) 1– (4) 1–
40 a 5 40 a 5 40 a 5
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11. In a uniformly charged sphere of total charge Q and radius R, the electric field E is plotted as function of
distance from the centre. The graph which would correspond to the above will be :
[AIEEE 2012 ; 4/120, –1]
E
R r
12. This question has statement-1 and statement-2. Of the four choices given after the statements, choose
the one that best describes the two statements. [AIEEE 2012 ; 4/120, –1]
An insulating solid sphere of radius R has a unioformly positive charge density . As a result of this
uniform charge distribution there is a finite value of electric potential at the centre of the sphere, at the
surface of the sphere and also at a point out side the sphere. The electric potential at infinite is zero.
STATEMENT-1 : When a charge ‘q’ is taken from the centre to the surface of the sphere its potential
energy changes by q/30.
STATEMENT-2 : The electric field at a distance r (r < R) from the centre of the sphere is r/30.
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is true Statement-2 is false.
(3) Statement-1 is false Statement-2 is true.
(4) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1.
13. Two charges, each equal to q, are kept at x = – a and x = a on the x-axis. A particle of mass m and charge
q0 = q/2 is placed at the origin. If charge q0 is given a small displacement (y <<a) along the y-axis, the
net force acting on the particle is proportional to : [JEE (Main) 2013, 4/120, –1]
(1) y (2) –y (3) 1/y (4) – 1/y
14. A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a long rod AB of length L as shown in the figure. The electric
potential at the point O lying at distance L from the end A is : [JEE (Main) 2013, 4/120, –1]
O A B
L L
Q 3Q Q Qln2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 0 L 4 0 L 4 0 Lln2 4 0 L
15. Assume that an electric field E 30x 2 î exists in space. Then the potential difference VA – VO, where VO
is the potential at the origin and VA the potential at x = 2 m is : [JEE (Main) 2014, 4/120, –1]
(1) 120 J (2) –120 J (3) – 80 J (4) 80 J
16. A long cylindrical shell carries positive surface charge in the upper half and negative surface charge
– in the lower half. The electric field lines around the cylinder will look like figure given in : (figures are
schematic and not drawn to scale) [JEE (Main) 2015; 4/120, –1]
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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17.* A uniformly charged solid sphere of radius R has potential V0 (measured with respect to ) on its surface.
3V0 5V0 3V0 V
For this sphere the equipotential surfaces with potentials , , and 0 have radius R1, R2, R3
2 4 4 4
and R4 respectively. Then [JEE (Main) 2015; 4/120, –1]
(1) R1 = 0 and R2 > (R4 – R3) (2) R1 0 and (R2 – R1) > (R4 – R3)
(3) R1 = 0 and R2 < (R4 – R3) (4) 2R < R4
18. The region between two concentric spheres of radii 'a' and 'b', respectively
(see figure), has volume charge density = A/r, where A is a constant and r
a
is the distance from the centre. At the centre of the spheres is a point charge
Q. The value of A such that the electric field in the region between the Q
b
spheres will be constant, is : [JEE (Main) 2016 ; 4/120, –1]
Q 2Q 2Q Q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2(b2 a2 ) (a2 b2 ) a2 2a2
19. An electric dipole has a fixed dipole moment p , which makes angle with respect to x-axis. When
subjected to an electric field E1 Eiˆ , it experiences a torque T1 kˆ . When subjected to another electric
field E2 3E1ˆj it experiences a torque T2 T1 . The angle is : [JEE (Main) 2017; 4/120, –1]
(1) 90° (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 60°
20. Three concentric metal shells A, B and C of respective radii a, b and c (a < b < c) have surface charge
densities +, – and + respectively. The potential of shell B is : [JEE (Main) 2018; 4/120, –1]
b2 c 2 b2 c 2 a 2 b2 a 2 b2
(1)
0 b a (2)
0 c a (3)
0 a c (4)
0 b c
21. A positive point charge is released from rest at a distance r0 from a positive line charge
with uniform density. The speed () of the point charge, as a function of instantaneous r0
distance r from line charge, is proportional to : [JEE (Main) 2019; 4/120, –1]
r r r
(1)
(2) n n (3) (4) e r / r0
r0 r0 r0
22. Shown in the figure is a shell made of a conductor. It has inner radius a and outer radius b, and carries
charge Q. At its centre is a dipole P as shown. In this case : [JEE (Main) 2019; 4/120, –1]
P
(1) electric field outside the shell is the same as that of a point charges at the centre of the shell
(2) surface charge density on the inner surface of the shell is zero everywhere
( Q / 2)
(3) surface charge density on the inner surface is uniform and equal to
4a 2
(4) surface charge density on the outer surface depends on | P |
23. Let a total charge 2Q be distributed in a sphere of radius R, with the charge density given by (r) = kr,
where r is the distance from the centre. Two charges A and B, of –Q each, are placed on diametrically
opposite points, at equal distance, a, from the centre. If A and B do not experience any force, then :
[JEE (Main) 2019; 4/120, –1]
(1) a = 3R/21/4 (2) a = 2–1/4R (3) a = 8–1/4R (4) a = R / 3
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Solution & Colligative Properties
Marked questions are recommended for Revision.
PART - I : SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
Section (A) : General Introduction & types of solution
A-1. What are the characteristics of the supersaturated solution.
A-2. What do you mean by Hygroscopic compound ?
A-3. Why are some solution processes exothermic whereas others are endothermic ?
B-1. Calculate the concentration of NaOH solution in g/ml which has the same molarity as that of a solution
of HCl of concentration 0.0365 g/ml.
B-2. The density of 3M solution of sodium thiosulphate (Na 2S2O3) is 1.58 g/ml. Calculate
(i) amount of Na 2S2O3 in % w/w
(ii) mole fraction of Na 2S2O3
(iii) molality of Na + and S 2O32– ions.
B-3. Calculate the molality and molarity of a solution made by mixing equal volumes of 30% by weight of
H2SO4 (density = 1.20 g/mL) and 70% by weight of H 2SO4 (density = 1.60 g/mL).
C-1. The vapour pressure of water at 80ºC is 355 torr. A 100 ml vessel contained water saturated oxygen at
80º C, the total gas pressure being 760 torr. The contents of the vessel were pumped into a 50.0 ml,
vessel at the same temperature. What were the partial pressures of oxygen and of water vapour and
the total pressure in the final equilibrium state? Neglect the volume of any water which might condense.
C-2. A vessel has nitrogen gas and water vapours in equilibrium with liquid water at a total pressure of 1
atm. The partial pressure of water vapours is 0.3 atm. The volume of this vessel is reduced to one third
of the original volume, at the same temperature, then find total pressure of the system. (Neglect volume
occupied by liquid water)
Solution & Colligative Properties
Section (D) : Solutions of Solid and Gases in Liquids
Commit to memory :
* Henry’s law : The solubility of gas in a liquid at a given temperature is directly proportional to its partial
pressure above liquid in which it is dissolved.
P = KHx (where x is mole fraction of unreacted, dissolved gas and P is its partial pressure above liquid.)
D-1. The partial pressure of ethane over a solution containing 6.56 × 10 –3 g of ethane is 1 bar. If the solution
contains 5.00 × 10 –2 g of ethane, then what shall be the partial pressure of the gas ?
D-2. If N 2 gas is bubbled through water at 293 K, how many millimoles of N 2 gas would dissolve in 300 mole
of water, if N 2 exerts a partial pressure of 1 bar. Given that Henry's law constant for N 2 at 293 K is 75.00
kbar.
E-1. A mixture of an organic liquid A and water distilled under one atmospheric pressure at 99.2ºC. How
many grams of steam will be condensed to obtain 1.0 g of liquid A in the distillate ? (Vapour pressure of
water at 99.2ºC is 739 mm Hg. Molecular weight of A = 123)
E-2. Boiling point of a mixture of water and nitrobenzene is 99°C, the vapour pressure of water is 733 mm of
Hg and the atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of Hg. The molecular weight of nitrobenzene is 123. Find
the ratio of weights of the components of the distillate.
D-3. According to Henry’s law, the solubility of a gas in a given volume of liquid increases with increase in :
(A) Temperature (B) Pressure (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
D-4. Some of the following gases are soluble in water due to formation of their ions :
I : CO 2 ; II : NH 3 ; III : HCl ; IV : CH 4 ; V : H2
Water insoluble gases can be :
(A) I, IV , V (B) I, V (C) I, II, III (D) IV, V
D-5. The solubility of N2(g) in water exposed to the atmosphere, when its partial pressure is 593 mm is
5.3 × 10 –4 M. Its solubility at 760 mm and at the same temperature is :
(A) 4.1 × 10 –4 M (B) 6.8 × 10 –4 M (C) 1500 M (D) 2400 M
I-2. Relative decrease in vapour pressure of an aqueous NaCl is 0.167. Number of moles of NaCl present
in 180g of H 2O is :
(A) 2 mol (B) 1 mol (C) 3 mol (D) 4 mol
I-3. The vapour pressure of pure benzene, C 6H6 at 50°C is 268 Torr. How many moles of non-volatile solute
per mol of benzene is required to prepare a solution of benzene having a vapour pressure of 167 Torr
at 50°C?
(A) 0.377 (B) 0.605 (C) 0.623 (D) 0.395
I-4. If relative decrease in vapour pressure is 0.4 for a solution containing 1 mol NaCl in 3 mol H 2O, NaCl is
.... % ionised.
(A) 60% (B) 50% (C) 100% (D) 40%
I-5. The vapour pressure of a solution of a non-volatile solute B in a solvent A is 95% of the vapour
pressure of the solvent at the same temperature. If the molecular weight of the solvent is 0.3 times the
molecular weight of the solute, what is the ratio of weight of solvent to solute.
(A) 0.15 (B) 5.7 (C) 0.2 (D) none of these
I-6. Relative decrease in vapour pressure of an aqueous solution containing 2 moles [Cu(NH 3)3Cl]Cl in 3
moles H 2O is 0.50. On reaction with AgNO 3, this solution will form(assuming no change in degree of
ionisation of substance on adding AgNO 3)
(A) 1 mol AgCl (B) 0.25 mol AgCl (C) 0.5 mol AgCl (D) 0.40 mol AgCl
J-2. Elevation in boiling point was 0.52 °C when 6 g of a compound x was dissolved in 100 g of water.
Molecular weight of x is : (K = 0.52 kg mol –1)
(A) 120 (B) 60 (C) 100 (D) 342
J-3. A solute’S’ undergoes a reversible trimerization when dissolved in a certain solvent. The boiling point
elevation of its 0.1 molal solution was found to be identical to the boiling point elevation in case of a
0.08 molal solution of a solute which neither undergoes association nor dissociation. To what percent
had the solute ‘S’ undergone trimerization?
(A) 30% (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 60%
J-4. A complex of iron and cyanide ions is 100% ionised at 1m (molal). If its elevation in b.p. is 2.08. Then
the complex is (K b = 0.52° mol –1 kg) :
(A) K3[Fe(CN) 6] (B) Fe(CN) 2 (C) K 4[Fe(CN) 6] (D) Fe(CN) 4
J-5. PtCl4.6H2O can exist as a hydrated complex 1 molal aq. solution has depression in freezing point of
3.72°. Assume 100% ionisation and K f(H2O) = 1.86° mol –1 kg, then complex is -
(A) [Pt(H 2O)6]Cl4 (B) [Pt(H 2O)4Cl2]Cl2 . 2H 2O
(C) [Pt(H 2O)3Cl3]Cl . 3H 2O (D) [Pt(H 2O)2Cl4] . 4H 2O
J-6. How many moles of sucrose should be dissolved in 500 g of water so as to get a solution which has a
difference of 104°C between boiling point and freezing point.
(Kf = 1.86 K Kg mol –1, Kb = 0.52 K Kg mol –1)
(A) 1.68 (B) 3.36 (C) 8.40 (D) 0.840
Solution & Colligative Properties
J-7. Which of the following has been arranged in order of decreasing freezing point?
(A) 0.05 M KNO 3 > 0.04 M CaCl 2 > 0.140 M sugar > 0.075 M CuSO 4
(B) 0.04 M BaCl 2 > 0.140 M sucrose > 0.075 M CuSO 4 > 0.05 M KNO 3
(C) 0.075 M CuSO 4 > 0.140 M sucrose > 0.04 M BaCl 2 > 0.05 M KNO 3
(D) 0.075 M CuSO 4 > 0.05 M NaNO 3 > 0.140 M sucrose > 0.04 M BaCl 2
J-8. A solution of x moles of sucrose in 100 grams of water freezes at 0.2ºC. As ice separates the freezing
point goes down to – 0.25ºC. How many grams of ice would have separated?
(A) 18 grams (B) 20 grams (C) 25 grams (D) 23 grams
J-9. Sea water is found to contain 5.85 % NaCl and 9.50% MgCl 2 by weight of solution. Calculate its normal
boiling point assuming 80% ionisation for NaCl and 50% ionisation of MgCl 2 (K b(H2O) = 0.51 kgmol
–1
K).
(A) T b = 101.9°C (B) T b = 102.3°C (C) T b = 108.5°C (D) T b = 110.3°C
K-2. Osmotic pressure of blood is 7.40 atm at 27°C. Number of moles of glucose to be used per litre for an
intravenous injection that is to have the same osmotic pressure as blood is :
(A) 0.3 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.1 (D) 0.4
K-3. The total concentration of dissolved particles inside red blood cells is approximately 0.30 M and the
membrane surrounding the cells is semipermeable. What would the osmotic pressure (in atmosphere)
inside the cells become if the cells were removed from the blood plasma and placed in pure water at
298 K ?
(A) 7.34 atm (B) 1.78 atm (C) 2.34 atm (D) 0.74 atm
4. A sample of air is saturated with benzene (vapor pressure = 100 mm Hg at 298 K) at 298K, 750mm Hg
pressure. If it is isothermally compressed to one third of its initial volume, the final pressure of the
system is
(A) 2250 torr (B) 2150 torr (C) 2050 torr (D) 1950 torr
5. Water and chlorobenzene are immiscible liquids. Their mixture boils at 89ºC under a reduced pressure
of 7.7 × 10 4 Pa. The vapour pressure of pure water at 89ºC is 7 × 10 4 Pa. Weight percent of
chlorobenzene in the distillate is:
(A) 50 (B) 60 (C) 78.3 (D) 38.46
6. If two liquids A (Pº A =100 torr) and B (Pº B = 200 torr) are completely immiscible with each other, each
one will behave independently of the other, are present in a closed vessel. The total vapour pressure of
the system will be:
(A) less than 100 torr (B) less than 200 torr (C) between 100 to 200 torr (D) 300 torr
7. Given P-x curve for a non-ideal liquid mixture (Fig.). Identify the correct T-x curve for the same mixture.
8. If vapour pressures of pure liquids ‘A’ & ‘B’ are 300 and 800 torr respectively at 25°C. When these two
liquids are mixed at this temperature to form a solution in which mole percentage of ‘B’ is 92, then the
total vapour pressure is observed to be 0.95 atm. Which of the following is true for this solution.
(A) Vmix > 0 (B) Hmix < 0 (C) Vmix = 0 (D) Hmix = 0
Solution & Colligative Properties
9. Barium ions, CN¯ and Co 2+ form an ionic complex. If that complex is supposed to be 75% ionised in
water with vant Hoff factor ‘i’ equal to four, then the coordination number of Co 2+ in the complex can be:
(A) Six (B) Five (C) Four (D) Six and Four both
10. In the following aqueous solutions (a) 1 m sucrose, (b) 1 m potassium ferricyanide and (c) 1 m
potassium sulphate
Maximum value of vapour pressure of solution is that of :
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) equal
11. When only a little quantity of HgCl 2(s) is added to excess KI(aq) to obtain a clear solution, which of the
following is true for this solution? (no volume change on mixing).
The reaction is 4KI(aq.) + HgCl 2(s) — K2[HgI 4] (aq.) + 2KCl (aq.)
(A) Its boiling and freezing points remain same (B) Its boiling point is lowered
(C) Its vapour pressure become lower (D) Its boiling point is raised
(E) Its freezing point is lowered.
12. x mole of KCI and y mole of BaCl 2 are both dissolved in 1 kg of water. Given that x + y = 0.1 and K f for
water is 1.85 K/molal, what is the observed range of Tf, if the ratio of x to y is varied ?
(A) 0.37º to 0.555º (B) 0.185º to 0.93º (C) 0.56º to 0.93º (D) 0.37º to 0.93º
13. FeCl3 on reaction with K 4[Fe(CN) 6] in aq. solution gives blue colour. These
are separated by a semipermeable membrane PQ as shown. Due to osmosis
there is-
(A) blue colour formation in side X
(B) blue colour formation in side Y
(C) blue colour formation in both of the sides X and Y
(D) no blue colour formation
14. Two beakers, one containing 20 ml of a 0.05 M aqueous solution of a non volatile, non electrolyte and
the other, the same volume of 0.03 M aqueous solution of NaCl, are placed side by side in a closed
enclosure. What are the volumes in the two beakers when equilibrium is attained ? Volume of the
solution in the first and second beaker are respectively.
(A) 21.8 ml and 18.2 mL (B) 18.2 mL and 21.8 mL
(C) 20 mL and 20 mL (D) 17.1 mL and 22.9 mL
Py = 200 torr)
0
(A) 600 torr (B) 400 torr (C) 800 torr (D) 1000 torr
7. Which is/are true about ideal solutions ?
(A) The volume change on mixing is zero (B) The enthalpy of mixing is zero
(C) The entropy of mixing is zero (D) The enthalpy of mixing is negative
8. At 40ºC, vapour pressure in Torr of methanol and ethanol solution is P = 119x + 135 where x is the
mole fraction of methanol. Hence
(A) vapour pressure of pure methanol is 119 Torr
(B) vapour pressure of pure ethanol is 135 Torr
(C) vapour pressure of equimolar mixture of each is 127 Torr
(D) mixture is completely immiscible
9. Which is/are correct statement(s) ?
(A) When mixture is more volatile than both pure components, there is positive deviation from Raoult’s
law.
(B) When mixture is less volatile than both pure components, there is negative deviation from Raoult’s
law.
(C) Ethanol and water form ideal solution
(D) CHCl 3 and water form ideal solution
10. At 35°C, the vapour pressure of CS 2 is 512 mm Hg, and of acetone is 344 mm Hg. A solution of CS 2
and acetone in which the mole fraction of CS 2 is 0.25, has a total vapour pressure of 600 mm Hg.
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(A) A mixture of 100 mL of acetone and 100 mL of CS 2 has a volume of 200 mL
(B) When acetone and CS 2 are mixed at 35°C, heat must be absorbed in order to produce a solution at
35°C.
(C) Process of mixing is exothermic
(D) Entropy of mixing is zero
11. For the given electrolyte A xBy, the degree of dissociation ' ' can be given as
i 1 1 i
(A) = (B) i = (1 – ) + x + y (C) = (D) None
x y 1 1 x y
12. In which of the following pairs of solutions will the values of the vant Hoff factor be the same?
(A) 0.05 M K 4 [Fe(CN) 6] and 0.10 M FeSO 4
(B) 0.10 M K 4[Fe(CN) 6] and 0.05 M FeSO 4 (NH 4)2SO4. 6H2O
(C) 0.20 M NaCl and 0.10 M BaCl 2
(D) 0.05 M FeSO 4 (NH 4)2SO4.6H2O and 0.02 M KCl.MgCl 2.6H2O
13. 2 g of non-volatile hydrocarbon solute dissolved in 100 g of hypothetical organic solvent (molar mass =
50) was found to lower vapour pressure from 75.50 to 75 mm of Hg at 20°C. Given that hydrocarbon
contains 96% of C. Then which of the following are true ?
(A) molecular wt of solute = 150 (B) molecular formula = C 12H6
(C) molecular wt. of solute = 132 (D) none of these
14. In the depression of freezing point experiment, it is found that the :
(A) Vapour pressure of the solution is less than that of pure solvent
(B) Vapour pressure of the solution is more than that of pure solvent
(C) Only solute molecules solidify at the freezing point
(D) Only solvent molecules solidify at the freezing point
Solution & Colligative Properties
15. Consider following solutions :
I : 1 M aqueous glucose solution
II : 1M aqueous sodium chloride solution
III : 1M aqueous ammonium phosphate solution
IV : 1M benzoic acid in benzene
Select correct statements for the above solutions :
(A) All are isotonic solutions (B) III is hypertonic of I, II and IV
(C) IV is hypotonic of I, II and III (D) II is hypotonic of III but hypertonic of I and IV
16. Which facts are true when we use van’t Hoff equation PV = nST for osmotic pressure P of dilute
solutions?
(A) The equation is identical to that of ideal gas equation
(B) The solute particles in solution are analogous to the gas molecules and the solvent is analagous to
the empty space between the gas molecules
(C) Solute molecules are dispersed in the solvent the way the gas molecules are dispersed in empty
space
(D) The equation is not identical to that of ideal gas equation
PART - IV : COMPREHENSIONS
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions.
Comprehension # 1
PA = x AP A & PB = xBPB
PT = x AP A + xBPB (Note : PA > PB ; A is more volatile than B)
Vapour pressure of mixtures of Benzene (C 6H6 ) & toluene (C 7H8) at 50ºC are given by P M = 179 X B +
92, where X B is mole fraction of C 6H6.
1. What is vapour pressure of pure liquids ?
(A) PB = 92 mm, PT = 179 mm (B) PB = 271 mm, PT = 92 mm
(C) PB = 180 mm, PT = 91 mm (D) none of these
2. Vapour pressure of liquid mixture obtained by mixing 936 g C 6H6 & 736 g tolene is :
(A) 300 mm Hg (B) 250 mm Hg (C) 199.4 mm Hg (D) 180.6 mm Hg
Comprehension # 2
Comprehension # 4
Let us consider a binary solution of two volatile liquids 'A' and 'B', when taken in a closed container.
Both the components would evaporate and an equilibrium would be established between vapour phase
and liquid phase. Let the total vapour pressure at this stage be p total and p A and p B are partial pressures
of A and B. Mole fractions of these components in liquid solution are x A and x B, that of vapour phase
º º
are yA and y B respectively pA & pB are vapour pressure of pure A & pure B.
Column-I Column-II Column-III
Vapour Pressure
Liquid V.P
x
Liquid + vapour
(i) Ideal solution (a) pT = pºAxA pBºxB (P) vapour
y
O Mole fraction of A 1
Solution & Colligative Properties
A—A
(ii) Non ideal solution (b) interactions
A—B (Q) P T = P°A + P° B
(Positive deviation) B—B
interactions interactions
(iii) Non ideal solution
(negative deviation)
(c) Form azeotropic mixture (R) Ssurrounding = +ve
Vapour Pressure of A
(d) solution having vapours of
(iv) Immiscible liquids (S)
fixed composition
PAº
O Mole fraction of A 1
fraction of N 2 in air is 0.8. The number of moles of N 2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of water of 298 K
and 5 atm pressure is : [JEE 2009, 3/160]
(A) 4 × 10 –4 (B) 4.0 × 10 –5 (C) 5.0 × 10 –4 (D) 4.0 × 10 –6
13. The freezing point (in ºC) of a solution containing 0.1 g of K 3[Fe(CN) 6] (Mol. Wt. 329) in 100 g of water
(Kf = 1.86 K kg mol –1) is : [JEE 2011, 3/180]
(A) – 2.3 × 10 –2 (B) – 5.7 × 10 –2 (C) – 5.7 × 10 –3 (D) – 1.2 × 10 –2
14. For a dilute solution containing 2.5 g of a non- volatile non- electrolyte solute in 100 g of water, the
elevation in boiling point at 1 atm pressure is 2ºC. Assuming concentration of solute is much lower than
the concentration of solvent, the vapour pressure (mm of Hg) of the solution is (take Kb = 0.76 K
kg mol –1) [IIT 2012, 3/136]
(A) 724 (B) 740 (C) 736 (D)718
Solution & Colligative Properties
15.* Benzene and naphthalene form an ideal solution at room temperature. For this process, the true
statement(s) is (are) : [JEE(Advanced) 2013, 4/120]
(A) G is positive (B) Ssystem is positive
(C) Ssurroundings = 0 (D) H = 0
16. MX 2 dissociates into M 2+ and X – ions in an aqueous solution, with a degree of dissociation ( ) of 0.5.
The ratio of the observed depression of freezing point of the aqueous solution to the value of the
depression of freezing point in the absence of ionic dissociation is [JEE(Advanced) 2014, 3/120]
17. If the freezing point of a 0.01 molal aqueous solution of a cobalt(III) chloride-ammonia complex (which
behaves as a strong electrolyte) is –0.0558ºC, the number of chloride(s) in the coordination sphere of
the complex is [K f of water = 1.86 K kg mol –1] [JEE(Advanced) 2015 4/168]
18*. Mixture(s) showing positive deviation from Raoult's law at 35ºC is(are) [JEE(Advanced) 2016, 4/124]
(A) carbon tetrachloride + methanol (B) carbon disulphide + acetone
(C) benzene + toluene (D) phenol + aniline
19.* For a solution formed by mixing liquids L and M, the vapour pressure of
L plotted against the mole fraction of M in solution is shown in the
following figure. Here xL and xM represent mole fractions of L and M,
Z
respectively, in the solution. The correct statement(s) applicable to this
system is (are) [JEE(Advanced) 2017, 4/122] p
(A) The point Z represents vapour pressure of pure liquid M and Raoult's lawL
is obeyed from xL = 0 to xL = 1.
(B) Attractive intermolecular interactions between L-L in pure liquid L
and M-M in pure liquid M are stronger than those between L-M when
mixed in solution
(C) The point Z represents vapour pressure of pure liquid M and 1 XM 0
Raoult's law is obeyed when x L 0
(D) The point Z represents vapour pressure of pure liquid L and
Raoult's law is obeyed when x L 1
20. Pure water freezes at 273 K and 1 bar. The addition of 34.5 g of ethanol to 500 g of water changes the
freezing point of the solution. Use the freezing point depression constant of water as 2 K kg mol –1. The
figures shown below represent plots of vapour pressure (V.P.) versus temperature (T).
[molecular weight of ethanol is 46 g mol –1] [JEE(Advanced) 2017, 3/122]
Among the following, the option representing change in the freezing point is
Water Water
V.P./bar
V.P./bar
(A) 1 (B) 1
Ice Ice
Water + Ethanol Water + Ethanol
V.P./bar
(C) 1 (D) 1
760
1. Solvent X
Pressure(mmHg)
Temperature (K)
On addition of equal number of moles of a non-volatile solute S in equal amount (in kg) of these
solvents, the elevation of boiling point of solvent X is three times that of solvent Y. Solute S is known to
undergo dimerization in these solvents. If the degree of dimerization is 0.7 in solvent Y, the degree of
dimerization in solvent X is ____. [JEE(Advanced) 2018, 3/120]
23. On dissolving 0.5 g of a non-volatile non-ionic solute to 39 g of benzene, its vapor pressure decreases
from 650 mm Hg to 640 mm Hg. The depression of freezing point of benzene (in K) upon addition of the
solute is ______ (Given date : Molar mass and the molal freezing point depression constant of benzene
are 78 g mol –1 and 5.12 K kg mol –1, respectively) [JEE(Advanced) 2019, 3/124]
6. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and propyl alcohol has a vapour pressure of 290 mm at 300 K. The vapour
pressure of propyl alcohol is 200 mm. If the mole fraction of ethyl alcohol is 0.6, its vapour pressure (in
mm) at the same temperature will be : [AIEEE-2007, 3/120]
(1) 700 (2) 360 (3) 350 (4) 300
7. A 5.25% solution of a substance is isotonic with a 1.5% solution of urea (molar mass = 60g mol –1) in the
same solvent. If the densities of both the solutions are assumed to be equal to 1.0 g cm –3, molar mass
of the substance will be [AIEEE-2007, 3/120]
(1) 105.0 g mol –1 (2) 210.0 g mol –1 (3) 90.0 g mol –1 (4) 15.0 g mol –1
8. The vapour pressure of water at 20ºC is 17.5 mm Hg. If 18 g of glucose (C 6H12O6) is added to 178.2g
of water at 20°C, the vapour pressure of the resulting solution will be : [AIEEE-2008, 3/105]
(1) 15.750 mm Hg (2) 16.500 mm Hg (3) 17.325 mm Hg (4) 17.675 mm Hg
9. At 80ºC, the vapour pressure of pure liquid 'A' is 520 mm Hg and that of pure liquid 'B' is 1000 mm Hg.
If a mixture solution of 'A' and 'B' boils at 80ºC and 1 atm pressure, the amount of 'A' in the mixture is
(1 atm = 760 mm Hg) [AIEEE-2008, 3/105]
(1) 34 mol percent (2) 48 mol percent (3) 50 mol percent (4) 52 mol percent
10. A binary liquid solution is prepared by mixing n-heptane and ethanol. Which one of the following
statement is correct regarding the behaviour of the solution ? [AIEEE-2009, 4/144]
(1) The solution is non-ideal, showing +ve deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(2) The solution in non-ideal, showing –ve deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(3) n-heptane shows +ve deviation while ethanol shows –ve deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(4) The solution formed is an ideal solution.
11. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. At 300K, vapour pressure of the solution containing 1 mol of
X and 3 mol of Y is 550 mmHg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of Y is further added to this solution,
vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mmHg. Vapour pressure (in mmHg) of X and Y in their
pure states will be, respectively : [AIEEE-2009, 8/144]
(1) 300 and 400 (2) 400 and 600 (3) 500 and 600 (4) 200 and 300
12. If sodium sulphate is considered to be completely dissociated into cations and anions in aqueous
solution, the change in freezing point of water ( Tf), when 0.01 mole of sodium sulphate is dissolved in
1 kg of water, is (K f = 1.86 K kg mol –1) [AIEEE-2010, 4/144]
(1) 0.0372 K (2) 0.0558 K (3) 0.0744 K (4) 0.0186 K
13. On mixing, heptane and octane form an ideal solution. At 373 K, the vapour pressures of the two liquid
components (heptane and octane) are 105 kPa and 45 kPa respectively. Vapour pressure of the
solution obtained by mixing 25.0 g of heptane and 35 g of octane will be (molar mass of heptane = 100
g mol –1 and of octane = 114 g mol –1) [AIEEE-2010, 4/144]
(1) 72.0 kPa (2) 36.1 kPa (3) 96.2 kPa (4) 144.5 kPa
14. Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol –1. If your automobile radiator holds 1.0 kg of water, how may grams of
ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) must you add to get the freezing point of the solution lowered to –2.8ºC ?
[AIEEE 2012, 4/120]
(1) 72 g (2) 93 g (3) 39 g (4) 27 g
15. Consider separate solution of 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq), 0.100 M Mg3(PO 4)2(aq), 0.250 M KBr(aq) and
0.125 M Na 3PO4(aq) at 25 C. Which statement is true about these solution, assuming all salts to be
strong electrolytes ? [AIEEE 2014, 4/120]
(1) They all have the same osmotic pressure.
(2) 0.100 M Mg 3(PO 4)2(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.
(3) 0.125 M Na 3PO4(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.
(4) 0.500 M C 2H5OH(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.
16. The vapour pressure of acetone at 20ºC is 185 torr. When 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was
dissolved in 100 g of acetone at 20ºC, its vapour pressure was 183 torr. The molar mass (g mol –1) of
ONLINE PROBLEMS
1. Choose the correct statement with respect to the vapour pressure of a liquid among the following :
[JEE(Main) 2014 Online (19-04-14), 4/120]
(1) Increases linearly with increasing temperature
(2) Increase non-linearly with increasing temperature
(3) Decreases linearly with increasing
(4) Decreases non-linearly with increasing temperature
2. The observed osmotic pressure for a 0.10 M solution of Fe(NH 4)2(SO4)2 at 25ºC is 10.8 atm
experimental (observed) and theoritical values of Van't Hoff factor (i) will be respectively : (R = 0.082 L
atm k –1 mol–1) [JEE(Main) 2014 Online (19-04-14), 4/120]
(1) 5 and 4.42 (2) 4 and 4.00 (3) 5 and 3.42 (4) 3 and 5.42
3. For an ideal solution of two components A and B, which of the following is true ?
[JEE(Main) 2014 Online (19-04-14), 4/120]
(1) Hmixing < 0 (zero)
(2) Hmixing > 0 (zero)
(3) A–B interaction is stronger than A–A and B–B interactions
(4) A–A, B–B and A–B interactions are identical
4. A solution at 20ºC is composed of 1.5 mol of benzene and 3.5 mol of toluene. If the vapour pressure of
pure benzene and pure toluene at this temperature are 74.7 torr and 22.3 torr, respectively, then the
total vapour pressure of the solution and the benzene mole fraction in equilibrium with it will be,
respectively : [JEE(Main) 2015 Online (10-04-15), 4/120]
(1) 35.0 torr and 0.480 (2) 30.5 torr and 0.389 (3) 38.0 torr and 0.589 (4) 35.8 torr and 0.280
5. Determination of the molar mass of acetic acid in benzene using freezing point depression is affected
by : [JEE(Main) 2015 Online (10-04-15), 4/120]
(1) partial ionization (2) dissociation (3) complex formation (4) association
6. The solubility of N 2 in water at 300 K and 500 torr partial pressure is 0.01 g L –1. The solubility (in g L –1)
at 750 torr partial pressure is : [JEE(Main) 2016 Online (09-04-16), 4/120]
(1) 0.02 (2) 0.015 (3) 0.0075 (4) 0.005
7. An aqueous solution of a salt MX 2 at certain temperature has a van’t Hoff factor of 2. The degree of
dissociation for this solution of the salt is : [JEE(Main) 2016 Online (10-04-16), 4/120]
(1) 0.67 (2) 0.33 (3) 0.80 (4) 0.50
8. 5 g of Na 2SO4 are was dissolved in x g of H 2O. The change in freezing point was found to be 3.82ºC. If
Na2SO4 is 81.5% ionised, the value of x (K f for water = 1.86ºC kg mol –1) is approximately :
(molar mass of S = 32 g mol –1 and that of Na = 23 g mol –1) [JEE(Main) 2017 Online (08-04-17), 4/120]
(1) 45 g (2) 65 g (3) 25 g (4) 15 g
Solution & Colligative Properties
9. A solution is prepared by mixing 8.5 g of CH 2Cl2 and 11.95 g of CHCl 3. If vapour pressure of CH 2Cl2
and CHCl 3 at 298 K are 415 and 200 mmHg respectively, the mole fraction of CHCl 3 in vapour form is :
(Molar mass of Cl = 35.5 g mol –1) [JEE(Main) 2017 Online 09-04-17), 4/120]
(1) 0.675 (2) 0.162 (3) 0.486 (4) 0.325
10. Two 5 molal solutions are prepared by dissolving a non-electrolyte non-volotatile solute separately in
the solvents X and Y. The molecular weights of the solvents are M X and M Y, respectively where M X =
3
MY. The relative lowering of vapour pressure of the solution in X is "m" times that of the solution in Y.
4
Given that the number of moles of solute is very small in comparison to that of solvent, the value of "m"
is : [JEE(Main) 2018 Online 15-04-18), 4/120]
4 3 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 4 2 4
11. The mass of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute (molar mass = 50 g mol –1) needed to be dissolved in
114 g octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 75 %, is : [JEE(Main) 2018 Online 16-04-18), 4/120]
(1) 37.5 g (2) 75 g (3) 150 g (4) 50 g
12. Which one of the following statements regarding Henry's law is not correct ?
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online 09-01-19), 4/120]
(1) Different gases have different K H (Henry' law constant) values at the same temperature.
(2) The value of K H increases with increase of temperature and K H is function of the nature of the gas
(3) The partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas in the
solution.
(4) Higher the value of K H at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas in the liquids.
13. A solution containing 62 g ethylene glycol in 250 g water is cooled to –10ºC. If K f for water is 1.86 K kg
mol –1, the amount of water (in g) separated as ice is: [JEE(Main) 2019 Online 09-01-19), 4/120]
(1) 16 (2) 32 (3) 48 (4) 64
14. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the entire composition range. At 350 K, the vapor pressures of
pure A and pure B are 7 × 10 3 Pa and 12 × 10 3 Pa, respectively. The composition of the vapor in
21. For the solution of the gases w, x, y and z in water at 298 K, the Henrys law constants (K H) are 0.5, 2,
35 and 40 k bar, respectively. The correct plot for the given data is :
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (08-04-19)S2, 4/120]
partial y
(1) (2) pressure x
w
(0,0) mole fraction
of water
z
partial z partial
(3) pressure (4) pressure y
y x
x
w w
(0,0) mole fraction (0,0) mole fraction
of water of water
22. 0.27 g of a long chain fatty acid was dissolved in 100 cm 3 of hexane. 10 mL of this solution was added
dropwise to the surface of water in a round watch glass. Hexane evaporates and a monolayer is
formed. The distance from edge to cenre of the watch glass is 10 cm. What is the height of the
monolayer? [Density of fatty acid = 0.9 g cm –3, = 3] [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (08-04-19)S2, 4/120]
(1) 10 –2 m (2) 10 –6 m (3) 10 –8 m (4) 10 –4 m
23. The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution of an ionic compound XY in water is four times that of a
solution of 0.01 M BaCl2 in water. Assuming complete dissociation of the given ionic compounds in
water, the concentration of XY (in mol L –1) in solution is: [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (09-04-19)S1, 4/120]
(1) 6 × 10 –2 (2) 4 × 10 –2 (3) 16 × 10 –4 (4) 4 × 10 –4
24. Liquid 'M' and liquid 'N' form an ideal solution. The vapour pressures of pure liquids 'M' and 'N' are 450
and 700 mmHg, respectively, at the same temperature. Then correct statement is :
(xM = Mole fraction of 'M' in solution; x N = Mole fraction of 'N' in solution;
yM = Mole fraction of 'M' in vapour phase; y N = Mole fraction of 'N' in vapour phase)
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (09-04-19)S1, 4/120]
x y
(1) M M (2) (x M – yM) < (x N – yN)
xN yN
xM yM xM yM
(3) (4)
xN yN xN yN
Solution & Colligative Properties
25. Molal depression constant for a solvent is 4.0 K kg mol –1.The depression in the freezing point of the
solvent for 0.03 mol kg –1 solution of K 2SO4 is : (Assume complete dissociation of the electrolyte)
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (09-04-19)S2, 4/120]
(1) 0.12 K (2) 0.24 K (3) 0.36 K (4) 0.18 K
26. At room temperature, a dilute solution of urea is prepared by dissolving 0.60 g of urea in 360 g of water.
If the vapour pressure of pure water at this temperature is 35 mm Hg, lowering of vapour pressure will
be : (molar mass of urea = 60 g mol –1) [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (09-04-19)S1, 4/120]
(1) 0.027 mmHg (2) 0.028 mmHg (3) 0.017 mmHg (4) 0.031 mmHg
27. 1 g of a non volatile non electrolyte solute is dissolved in 100 g of two different solvents A and B whose
Tb A
ebullioscopic constants are in the ratio of 1 : 5. The ratio of the elevation in their boiling points
Tb B
is : [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (10-04-19)S2, 4/120]
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 10 : 1 (3) 1 : 0.2 (4) 5 : 1
28. A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.6 g of urea (molar mass = 60g mol –1) and 1.8g of glucose (molar
mass = 180 g mol –1) in 100 mL of water at 27°C. The osmotic pressure of the solution is: (R = 0.08206
L atm K –1 mol –1) [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (12-04-19)S2, 4/120]
(1) 8.2 atm (2) 1. 64 atm (3) 2.46 atm (4) 4.92 atm
Solution & Colligative Properties
EXERCISE - 1
PART - I
A-1. Some of the characteristics of supersaturated solution are given below
(i) If a crystal of solute is added to supersaturated solution, crystallisation occurs rapidly.
(ii) Supersaturated solutions contain more solute than they should have at a particular temperature.
A-2. Certain compounds combine with the moisture of atmosphere and are converted into hydroxides or
hydrates. Such substances are called hygroscopic. e.g., anhydrous CuSO 4, quick lime (CaO),
anhydrous Na 2CO3 etc.
A-3. The overall energy change associated with dissolution depends on the relative magnitude of the solute–
solute, solvent–solvent and solute–solvent interactions. The process is exothermic if the new interaction
release more energy than disrupting the old interactions requires, it is endothermic if opposite is true.
B-1. 0.04 g/mL B-2. (i) 30%, (ii) 0.046 (iii) Na + = 5.42 m, S 2O32– = 2.71 m
B-3. Molality = 11.44 m, Molarity = 7.55 M
C-1. PO2 = 810 mm Hg, PH2O = 355 mm Hg , P total = 1165 mm Hg C-2. 2.4 atm
WW
D-1. 7.62 bar D-2. 4 mmol. E-1. 5.15 g E-2. = 3.973
WN
PART - II
A-1. (B) A-2. (B) B-1. (B) C-1. (B) C-2. (C)
C-3. (B) C-4. (B) D-1. (C) D-2. (A) D-3. (B)
D-4. (D) D-5. (B) E-1. (C) F-1. (B) F-2. (C)
F-3. (C) F-4. (A) F-5. (A) G-1. (C) G-2. (A)
G-3. (A) G-4. (C) G-5. (A) G-6. (C) H-1. (C)
Solution & Colligative Properties
H-2. (A) H-3. (B) H-4. (B) I-1. (B) I-2. (B)
I-3. (B) I-4. (C) I-5. (B) I-6. (A) J-1. (D)
J-2. (B) J-3. (A) J-4. (A) J-5. (C) J-6. (D)
J-7. (A) J-8. (B) J-9. (B) K-1. (C) K-2. (A)
PART - III
1. (A) – (r); (B) – (s); (C) – (q); (D) – (p) 2. (A) – (p,s,r); (B) – (p,q,t); (C) – (p); (D) – (p,q,t)
EXERCISE - 2
PART - I
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D)
PART - II
1. 18 2. 5 3. 21 4. 20 5. 27
6. 4 (A,B,C,D) 7. 2 8. 48 9. 43 10. 2
PART - III
1. (ABD) 2. (ABCD) 3. (ABD) 4. (ABCD) 5. (AC)
11. (ABC) 12. (BD) 13. (AB) 14. (AD) 15. (BCD)
16. (ABC)
PART – IV
EXERCISE – 3
PART - I
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (BCD)
PART – II
JEE-MAIN (OFFLINE)
11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (1)
JEE-MAIN (ONLINE)
11. (Bonus) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (4)
16. (4) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1)
21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (3) 25. (3)
Marked questions are recommended for Revision.
PART - I : SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
Section (A) : General Introduction & types of solution
A-1. What are the characteristics of the supersaturated solution.
A-2. What do you mean by Hygroscopic compound ?
A-3. Why are some solution processes exothermic whereas others are endothermic ?
B-1. Calculate the concentration of NaOH solution in g/ml which has the same molarity as that of a solution
of HCl of concentration 0.0365 g/ml.
B-2. The density of 3M solution of sodium thiosulphate (Na 2S2O3) is 1.58 g/ml. Calculate
(i) amount of Na 2S2O3 in % w/w
(ii) mole fraction of Na 2S2O3
(iii) molality of Na + and S 2O32– ions.
B-3. Calculate the molality and molarity of a solution made by mixing equal volumes of 30% by weight of
H2SO4 (density = 1.20 g/mL) and 70% by weight of H 2SO4 (density = 1.60 g/mL).
C-1. The vapour pressure of water at 80ºC is 355 torr. A 100 ml vessel contained water saturated oxygen at
80º C, the total gas pressure being 760 torr. The contents of the vessel were pumped into a 50.0 ml,
vessel at the same temperature. What were the partial pressures of oxygen and of water vapour and
the total pressure in the final equilibrium state? Neglect the volume of any water which might condense.
C-2. A vessel has nitrogen gas and water vapours in equilibrium with liquid water at a total pressure of 1
atm. The partial pressure of water vapours is 0.3 atm. The volume of this vessel is reduced to one third
of the original volume, at the same temperature, then find total pressure of the system. (Neglect volume
occupied by liquid water)
Solution & Colligative Properties
Section (D) : Solutions of Solid and Gases in Liquids
Commit to memory :
* Henry’s law : The solubility of gas in a liquid at a given temperature is directly proportional to its partial
pressure above liquid in which it is dissolved.
P = KHx (where x is mole fraction of unreacted, dissolved gas and P is its partial pressure above liquid.)
D-1. The partial pressure of ethane over a solution containing 6.56 × 10 –3 g of ethane is 1 bar. If the solution
contains 5.00 × 10 –2 g of ethane, then what shall be the partial pressure of the gas ?
D-2. If N 2 gas is bubbled through water at 293 K, how many millimoles of N 2 gas would dissolve in 300 mole
of water, if N 2 exerts a partial pressure of 1 bar. Given that Henry's law constant for N 2 at 293 K is 75.00
kbar.
E-1. A mixture of an organic liquid A and water distilled under one atmospheric pressure at 99.2ºC. How
many grams of steam will be condensed to obtain 1.0 g of liquid A in the distillate ? (Vapour pressure of
water at 99.2ºC is 739 mm Hg. Molecular weight of A = 123)
E-2. Boiling point of a mixture of water and nitrobenzene is 99°C, the vapour pressure of water is 733 mm of
Hg and the atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of Hg. The molecular weight of nitrobenzene is 123. Find
the ratio of weights of the components of the distillate.
D-3. According to Henry’s law, the solubility of a gas in a given volume of liquid increases with increase in :
(A) Temperature (B) Pressure (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
D-4. Some of the following gases are soluble in water due to formation of their ions :
I : CO 2 ; II : NH 3 ; III : HCl ; IV : CH 4 ; V : H2
Water insoluble gases can be :
(A) I, IV , V (B) I, V (C) I, II, III (D) IV, V
D-5. The solubility of N2(g) in water exposed to the atmosphere, when its partial pressure is 593 mm is
5.3 × 10 –4 M. Its solubility at 760 mm and at the same temperature is :
(A) 4.1 × 10 –4 M (B) 6.8 × 10 –4 M (C) 1500 M (D) 2400 M
I-2. Relative decrease in vapour pressure of an aqueous NaCl is 0.167. Number of moles of NaCl present
in 180g of H 2O is :
(A) 2 mol (B) 1 mol (C) 3 mol (D) 4 mol
I-3. The vapour pressure of pure benzene, C 6H6 at 50°C is 268 Torr. How many moles of non-volatile solute
per mol of benzene is required to prepare a solution of benzene having a vapour pressure of 167 Torr
at 50°C?
(A) 0.377 (B) 0.605 (C) 0.623 (D) 0.395
I-4. If relative decrease in vapour pressure is 0.4 for a solution containing 1 mol NaCl in 3 mol H 2O, NaCl is
.... % ionised.
(A) 60% (B) 50% (C) 100% (D) 40%
I-5. The vapour pressure of a solution of a non-volatile solute B in a solvent A is 95% of the vapour
pressure of the solvent at the same temperature. If the molecular weight of the solvent is 0.3 times the
molecular weight of the solute, what is the ratio of weight of solvent to solute.
(A) 0.15 (B) 5.7 (C) 0.2 (D) none of these
I-6. Relative decrease in vapour pressure of an aqueous solution containing 2 moles [Cu(NH 3)3Cl]Cl in 3
moles H 2O is 0.50. On reaction with AgNO 3, this solution will form(assuming no change in degree of
ionisation of substance on adding AgNO 3)
(A) 1 mol AgCl (B) 0.25 mol AgCl (C) 0.5 mol AgCl (D) 0.40 mol AgCl
J-2. Elevation in boiling point was 0.52 °C when 6 g of a compound x was dissolved in 100 g of water.
Molecular weight of x is : (K = 0.52 kg mol –1)
(A) 120 (B) 60 (C) 100 (D) 342
J-3. A solute’S’ undergoes a reversible trimerization when dissolved in a certain solvent. The boiling point
elevation of its 0.1 molal solution was found to be identical to the boiling point elevation in case of a
0.08 molal solution of a solute which neither undergoes association nor dissociation. To what percent
had the solute ‘S’ undergone trimerization?
(A) 30% (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 60%
J-4. A complex of iron and cyanide ions is 100% ionised at 1m (molal). If its elevation in b.p. is 2.08. Then
the complex is (K b = 0.52° mol –1 kg) :
(A) K3[Fe(CN) 6] (B) Fe(CN) 2 (C) K 4[Fe(CN) 6] (D) Fe(CN) 4
J-5. PtCl4.6H2O can exist as a hydrated complex 1 molal aq. solution has depression in freezing point of
3.72°. Assume 100% ionisation and K f(H2O) = 1.86° mol –1 kg, then complex is -
(A) [Pt(H 2O)6]Cl4 (B) [Pt(H 2O)4Cl2]Cl2 . 2H 2O
(C) [Pt(H 2O)3Cl3]Cl . 3H 2O (D) [Pt(H 2O)2Cl4] . 4H 2O
J-6. How many moles of sucrose should be dissolved in 500 g of water so as to get a solution which has a
difference of 104°C between boiling point and freezing point.
(Kf = 1.86 K Kg mol –1, Kb = 0.52 K Kg mol –1)
(A) 1.68 (B) 3.36 (C) 8.40 (D) 0.840
Solution & Colligative Properties
J-7. Which of the following has been arranged in order of decreasing freezing point?
(A) 0.05 M KNO 3 > 0.04 M CaCl 2 > 0.140 M sugar > 0.075 M CuSO 4
(B) 0.04 M BaCl 2 > 0.140 M sucrose > 0.075 M CuSO 4 > 0.05 M KNO 3
(C) 0.075 M CuSO 4 > 0.140 M sucrose > 0.04 M BaCl 2 > 0.05 M KNO 3
(D) 0.075 M CuSO 4 > 0.05 M NaNO 3 > 0.140 M sucrose > 0.04 M BaCl 2
J-8. A solution of x moles of sucrose in 100 grams of water freezes at 0.2ºC. As ice separates the freezing
point goes down to – 0.25ºC. How many grams of ice would have separated?
(A) 18 grams (B) 20 grams (C) 25 grams (D) 23 grams
J-9. Sea water is found to contain 5.85 % NaCl and 9.50% MgCl 2 by weight of solution. Calculate its normal
boiling point assuming 80% ionisation for NaCl and 50% ionisation of MgCl 2 (K b(H2O) = 0.51 kgmol
–1
K).
(A) T b = 101.9°C (B) T b = 102.3°C (C) T b = 108.5°C (D) T b = 110.3°C
K-2. Osmotic pressure of blood is 7.40 atm at 27°C. Number of moles of glucose to be used per litre for an
intravenous injection that is to have the same osmotic pressure as blood is :
(A) 0.3 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.1 (D) 0.4
K-3. The total concentration of dissolved particles inside red blood cells is approximately 0.30 M and the
membrane surrounding the cells is semipermeable. What would the osmotic pressure (in atmosphere)
inside the cells become if the cells were removed from the blood plasma and placed in pure water at
298 K ?
(A) 7.34 atm (B) 1.78 atm (C) 2.34 atm (D) 0.74 atm
4. A sample of air is saturated with benzene (vapor pressure = 100 mm Hg at 298 K) at 298K, 750mm Hg
pressure. If it is isothermally compressed to one third of its initial volume, the final pressure of the
system is
(A) 2250 torr (B) 2150 torr (C) 2050 torr (D) 1950 torr
5. Water and chlorobenzene are immiscible liquids. Their mixture boils at 89ºC under a reduced pressure
of 7.7 × 10 4 Pa. The vapour pressure of pure water at 89ºC is 7 × 10 4 Pa. Weight percent of
chlorobenzene in the distillate is:
(A) 50 (B) 60 (C) 78.3 (D) 38.46
6. If two liquids A (Pº A =100 torr) and B (Pº B = 200 torr) are completely immiscible with each other, each
one will behave independently of the other, are present in a closed vessel. The total vapour pressure of
the system will be:
(A) less than 100 torr (B) less than 200 torr (C) between 100 to 200 torr (D) 300 torr
7. Given P-x curve for a non-ideal liquid mixture (Fig.). Identify the correct T-x curve for the same mixture.
8. If vapour pressures of pure liquids ‘A’ & ‘B’ are 300 and 800 torr respectively at 25°C. When these two
liquids are mixed at this temperature to form a solution in which mole percentage of ‘B’ is 92, then the
total vapour pressure is observed to be 0.95 atm. Which of the following is true for this solution.
(A) Vmix > 0 (B) Hmix < 0 (C) Vmix = 0 (D) Hmix = 0
Solution & Colligative Properties
9. Barium ions, CN¯ and Co 2+ form an ionic complex. If that complex is supposed to be 75% ionised in
water with vant Hoff factor ‘i’ equal to four, then the coordination number of Co 2+ in the complex can be:
(A) Six (B) Five (C) Four (D) Six and Four both
10. In the following aqueous solutions (a) 1 m sucrose, (b) 1 m potassium ferricyanide and (c) 1 m
potassium sulphate
Maximum value of vapour pressure of solution is that of :
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) equal
11. When only a little quantity of HgCl 2(s) is added to excess KI(aq) to obtain a clear solution, which of the
following is true for this solution? (no volume change on mixing).
The reaction is 4KI(aq.) + HgCl 2(s) — K2[HgI 4] (aq.) + 2KCl (aq.)
(A) Its boiling and freezing points remain same (B) Its boiling point is lowered
(C) Its vapour pressure become lower (D) Its boiling point is raised
(E) Its freezing point is lowered.
12. x mole of KCI and y mole of BaCl 2 are both dissolved in 1 kg of water. Given that x + y = 0.1 and K f for
water is 1.85 K/molal, what is the observed range of Tf, if the ratio of x to y is varied ?
(A) 0.37º to 0.555º (B) 0.185º to 0.93º (C) 0.56º to 0.93º (D) 0.37º to 0.93º
13. FeCl3 on reaction with K 4[Fe(CN) 6] in aq. solution gives blue colour. These
are separated by a semipermeable membrane PQ as shown. Due to osmosis
there is-
(A) blue colour formation in side X
(B) blue colour formation in side Y
(C) blue colour formation in both of the sides X and Y
(D) no blue colour formation
14. Two beakers, one containing 20 ml of a 0.05 M aqueous solution of a non volatile, non electrolyte and
the other, the same volume of 0.03 M aqueous solution of NaCl, are placed side by side in a closed
enclosure. What are the volumes in the two beakers when equilibrium is attained ? Volume of the
solution in the first and second beaker are respectively.
(A) 21.8 ml and 18.2 mL (B) 18.2 mL and 21.8 mL
(C) 20 mL and 20 mL (D) 17.1 mL and 22.9 mL
Py = 200 torr)
0
(A) 600 torr (B) 400 torr (C) 800 torr (D) 1000 torr
7. Which is/are true about ideal solutions ?
(A) The volume change on mixing is zero (B) The enthalpy of mixing is zero
(C) The entropy of mixing is zero (D) The enthalpy of mixing is negative
8. At 40ºC, vapour pressure in Torr of methanol and ethanol solution is P = 119x + 135 where x is the
mole fraction of methanol. Hence
(A) vapour pressure of pure methanol is 119 Torr
(B) vapour pressure of pure ethanol is 135 Torr
(C) vapour pressure of equimolar mixture of each is 127 Torr
(D) mixture is completely immiscible
9. Which is/are correct statement(s) ?
(A) When mixture is more volatile than both pure components, there is positive deviation from Raoult’s
law.
(B) When mixture is less volatile than both pure components, there is negative deviation from Raoult’s
law.
(C) Ethanol and water form ideal solution
(D) CHCl 3 and water form ideal solution
10. At 35°C, the vapour pressure of CS 2 is 512 mm Hg, and of acetone is 344 mm Hg. A solution of CS 2
and acetone in which the mole fraction of CS 2 is 0.25, has a total vapour pressure of 600 mm Hg.
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(A) A mixture of 100 mL of acetone and 100 mL of CS 2 has a volume of 200 mL
(B) When acetone and CS 2 are mixed at 35°C, heat must be absorbed in order to produce a solution at
35°C.
(C) Process of mixing is exothermic
(D) Entropy of mixing is zero
11. For the given electrolyte A xBy, the degree of dissociation ' ' can be given as
i 1 1 i
(A) = (B) i = (1 – ) + x + y (C) = (D) None
x y 1 1 x y
12. In which of the following pairs of solutions will the values of the vant Hoff factor be the same?
(A) 0.05 M K 4 [Fe(CN) 6] and 0.10 M FeSO 4
(B) 0.10 M K 4[Fe(CN) 6] and 0.05 M FeSO 4 (NH 4)2SO4. 6H2O
(C) 0.20 M NaCl and 0.10 M BaCl 2
(D) 0.05 M FeSO 4 (NH 4)2SO4.6H2O and 0.02 M KCl.MgCl 2.6H2O
13. 2 g of non-volatile hydrocarbon solute dissolved in 100 g of hypothetical organic solvent (molar mass =
50) was found to lower vapour pressure from 75.50 to 75 mm of Hg at 20°C. Given that hydrocarbon
contains 96% of C. Then which of the following are true ?
(A) molecular wt of solute = 150 (B) molecular formula = C 12H6
(C) molecular wt. of solute = 132 (D) none of these
14. In the depression of freezing point experiment, it is found that the :
(A) Vapour pressure of the solution is less than that of pure solvent
(B) Vapour pressure of the solution is more than that of pure solvent
(C) Only solute molecules solidify at the freezing point
(D) Only solvent molecules solidify at the freezing point
Solution & Colligative Properties
15. Consider following solutions :
I : 1 M aqueous glucose solution
II : 1M aqueous sodium chloride solution
III : 1M aqueous ammonium phosphate solution
IV : 1M benzoic acid in benzene
Select correct statements for the above solutions :
(A) All are isotonic solutions (B) III is hypertonic of I, II and IV
(C) IV is hypotonic of I, II and III (D) II is hypotonic of III but hypertonic of I and IV
16. Which facts are true when we use van’t Hoff equation PV = nST for osmotic pressure P of dilute
solutions?
(A) The equation is identical to that of ideal gas equation
(B) The solute particles in solution are analogous to the gas molecules and the solvent is analagous to
the empty space between the gas molecules
(C) Solute molecules are dispersed in the solvent the way the gas molecules are dispersed in empty
space
(D) The equation is not identical to that of ideal gas equation
PART - IV : COMPREHENSIONS
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions.
Comprehension # 1
PA = x AP A & PB = xBPB
PT = x AP A + xBPB (Note : PA > PB ; A is more volatile than B)
Vapour pressure of mixtures of Benzene (C 6H6 ) & toluene (C 7H8) at 50ºC are given by P M = 179 X B +
92, where X B is mole fraction of C 6H6.
1. What is vapour pressure of pure liquids ?
(A) PB = 92 mm, PT = 179 mm (B) PB = 271 mm, PT = 92 mm
(C) PB = 180 mm, PT = 91 mm (D) none of these
2. Vapour pressure of liquid mixture obtained by mixing 936 g C 6H6 & 736 g tolene is :
(A) 300 mm Hg (B) 250 mm Hg (C) 199.4 mm Hg (D) 180.6 mm Hg
Comprehension # 2
Comprehension # 4
Let us consider a binary solution of two volatile liquids 'A' and 'B', when taken in a closed container.
Both the components would evaporate and an equilibrium would be established between vapour phase
and liquid phase. Let the total vapour pressure at this stage be p total and p A and p B are partial pressures
of A and B. Mole fractions of these components in liquid solution are x A and x B, that of vapour phase
º º
are yA and y B respectively pA & pB are vapour pressure of pure A & pure B.
Column-I Column-II Column-III
Vapour Pressure
Liquid V.P
x
Liquid + vapour
(i) Ideal solution (a) pT = pºAxA pBºxB (P) vapour
y
O Mole fraction of A 1
Solution & Colligative Properties
A—A
(ii) Non ideal solution (b) interactions
A—B (Q) P T = P°A + P° B
(Positive deviation) B—B
interactions interactions
(iii) Non ideal solution
(negative deviation)
(c) Form azeotropic mixture (R) Ssurrounding = +ve
Vapour Pressure of A
(d) solution having vapours of
(iv) Immiscible liquids (S)
fixed composition
PAº
O Mole fraction of A 1
fraction of N 2 in air is 0.8. The number of moles of N 2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of water of 298 K
and 5 atm pressure is : [JEE 2009, 3/160]
(A) 4 × 10 –4 (B) 4.0 × 10 –5 (C) 5.0 × 10 –4 (D) 4.0 × 10 –6
13. The freezing point (in ºC) of a solution containing 0.1 g of K 3[Fe(CN) 6] (Mol. Wt. 329) in 100 g of water
(Kf = 1.86 K kg mol –1) is : [JEE 2011, 3/180]
(A) – 2.3 × 10 –2 (B) – 5.7 × 10 –2 (C) – 5.7 × 10 –3 (D) – 1.2 × 10 –2
14. For a dilute solution containing 2.5 g of a non- volatile non- electrolyte solute in 100 g of water, the
elevation in boiling point at 1 atm pressure is 2ºC. Assuming concentration of solute is much lower than
the concentration of solvent, the vapour pressure (mm of Hg) of the solution is (take Kb = 0.76 K
kg mol –1) [IIT 2012, 3/136]
(A) 724 (B) 740 (C) 736 (D)718
Solution & Colligative Properties
15.* Benzene and naphthalene form an ideal solution at room temperature. For this process, the true
statement(s) is (are) : [JEE(Advanced) 2013, 4/120]
(A) G is positive (B) Ssystem is positive
(C) Ssurroundings = 0 (D) H = 0
16. MX 2 dissociates into M 2+ and X – ions in an aqueous solution, with a degree of dissociation ( ) of 0.5.
The ratio of the observed depression of freezing point of the aqueous solution to the value of the
depression of freezing point in the absence of ionic dissociation is [JEE(Advanced) 2014, 3/120]
17. If the freezing point of a 0.01 molal aqueous solution of a cobalt(III) chloride-ammonia complex (which
behaves as a strong electrolyte) is –0.0558ºC, the number of chloride(s) in the coordination sphere of
the complex is [K f of water = 1.86 K kg mol –1] [JEE(Advanced) 2015 4/168]
18*. Mixture(s) showing positive deviation from Raoult's law at 35ºC is(are) [JEE(Advanced) 2016, 4/124]
(A) carbon tetrachloride + methanol (B) carbon disulphide + acetone
(C) benzene + toluene (D) phenol + aniline
19.* For a solution formed by mixing liquids L and M, the vapour pressure of
L plotted against the mole fraction of M in solution is shown in the
following figure. Here xL and xM represent mole fractions of L and M,
Z
respectively, in the solution. The correct statement(s) applicable to this
system is (are) [JEE(Advanced) 2017, 4/122] p
(A) The point Z represents vapour pressure of pure liquid M and Raoult's lawL
is obeyed from xL = 0 to xL = 1.
(B) Attractive intermolecular interactions between L-L in pure liquid L
and M-M in pure liquid M are stronger than those between L-M when
mixed in solution
(C) The point Z represents vapour pressure of pure liquid M and 1 XM 0
Raoult's law is obeyed when x L 0
(D) The point Z represents vapour pressure of pure liquid L and
Raoult's law is obeyed when x L 1
20. Pure water freezes at 273 K and 1 bar. The addition of 34.5 g of ethanol to 500 g of water changes the
freezing point of the solution. Use the freezing point depression constant of water as 2 K kg mol –1. The
figures shown below represent plots of vapour pressure (V.P.) versus temperature (T).
[molecular weight of ethanol is 46 g mol –1] [JEE(Advanced) 2017, 3/122]
Among the following, the option representing change in the freezing point is
Water Water
V.P./bar
V.P./bar
(A) 1 (B) 1
Ice Ice
Water + Ethanol Water + Ethanol
V.P./bar
(C) 1 (D) 1
760
1. Solvent X
Pressure(mmHg)
Temperature (K)
On addition of equal number of moles of a non-volatile solute S in equal amount (in kg) of these
solvents, the elevation of boiling point of solvent X is three times that of solvent Y. Solute S is known to
undergo dimerization in these solvents. If the degree of dimerization is 0.7 in solvent Y, the degree of
dimerization in solvent X is ____. [JEE(Advanced) 2018, 3/120]
23. On dissolving 0.5 g of a non-volatile non-ionic solute to 39 g of benzene, its vapor pressure decreases
from 650 mm Hg to 640 mm Hg. The depression of freezing point of benzene (in K) upon addition of the
solute is ______ (Given date : Molar mass and the molal freezing point depression constant of benzene
are 78 g mol –1 and 5.12 K kg mol –1, respectively) [JEE(Advanced) 2019, 3/124]
6. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and propyl alcohol has a vapour pressure of 290 mm at 300 K. The vapour
pressure of propyl alcohol is 200 mm. If the mole fraction of ethyl alcohol is 0.6, its vapour pressure (in
mm) at the same temperature will be : [AIEEE-2007, 3/120]
(1) 700 (2) 360 (3) 350 (4) 300
7. A 5.25% solution of a substance is isotonic with a 1.5% solution of urea (molar mass = 60g mol –1) in the
same solvent. If the densities of both the solutions are assumed to be equal to 1.0 g cm –3, molar mass
of the substance will be [AIEEE-2007, 3/120]
(1) 105.0 g mol –1 (2) 210.0 g mol –1 (3) 90.0 g mol –1 (4) 15.0 g mol –1
8. The vapour pressure of water at 20ºC is 17.5 mm Hg. If 18 g of glucose (C 6H12O6) is added to 178.2g
of water at 20°C, the vapour pressure of the resulting solution will be : [AIEEE-2008, 3/105]
(1) 15.750 mm Hg (2) 16.500 mm Hg (3) 17.325 mm Hg (4) 17.675 mm Hg
9. At 80ºC, the vapour pressure of pure liquid 'A' is 520 mm Hg and that of pure liquid 'B' is 1000 mm Hg.
If a mixture solution of 'A' and 'B' boils at 80ºC and 1 atm pressure, the amount of 'A' in the mixture is
(1 atm = 760 mm Hg) [AIEEE-2008, 3/105]
(1) 34 mol percent (2) 48 mol percent (3) 50 mol percent (4) 52 mol percent
10. A binary liquid solution is prepared by mixing n-heptane and ethanol. Which one of the following
statement is correct regarding the behaviour of the solution ? [AIEEE-2009, 4/144]
(1) The solution is non-ideal, showing +ve deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(2) The solution in non-ideal, showing –ve deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(3) n-heptane shows +ve deviation while ethanol shows –ve deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(4) The solution formed is an ideal solution.
11. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. At 300K, vapour pressure of the solution containing 1 mol of
X and 3 mol of Y is 550 mmHg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of Y is further added to this solution,
vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mmHg. Vapour pressure (in mmHg) of X and Y in their
pure states will be, respectively : [AIEEE-2009, 8/144]
(1) 300 and 400 (2) 400 and 600 (3) 500 and 600 (4) 200 and 300
12. If sodium sulphate is considered to be completely dissociated into cations and anions in aqueous
solution, the change in freezing point of water ( Tf), when 0.01 mole of sodium sulphate is dissolved in
1 kg of water, is (K f = 1.86 K kg mol –1) [AIEEE-2010, 4/144]
(1) 0.0372 K (2) 0.0558 K (3) 0.0744 K (4) 0.0186 K
13. On mixing, heptane and octane form an ideal solution. At 373 K, the vapour pressures of the two liquid
components (heptane and octane) are 105 kPa and 45 kPa respectively. Vapour pressure of the
solution obtained by mixing 25.0 g of heptane and 35 g of octane will be (molar mass of heptane = 100
g mol –1 and of octane = 114 g mol –1) [AIEEE-2010, 4/144]
(1) 72.0 kPa (2) 36.1 kPa (3) 96.2 kPa (4) 144.5 kPa
14. Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol –1. If your automobile radiator holds 1.0 kg of water, how may grams of
ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) must you add to get the freezing point of the solution lowered to –2.8ºC ?
[AIEEE 2012, 4/120]
(1) 72 g (2) 93 g (3) 39 g (4) 27 g
15. Consider separate solution of 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq), 0.100 M Mg3(PO 4)2(aq), 0.250 M KBr(aq) and
0.125 M Na 3PO4(aq) at 25 C. Which statement is true about these solution, assuming all salts to be
strong electrolytes ? [AIEEE 2014, 4/120]
(1) They all have the same osmotic pressure.
(2) 0.100 M Mg 3(PO 4)2(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.
(3) 0.125 M Na 3PO4(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.
(4) 0.500 M C 2H5OH(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.
16. The vapour pressure of acetone at 20ºC is 185 torr. When 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was
dissolved in 100 g of acetone at 20ºC, its vapour pressure was 183 torr. The molar mass (g mol –1) of
ONLINE PROBLEMS
1. Choose the correct statement with respect to the vapour pressure of a liquid among the following :
[JEE(Main) 2014 Online (19-04-14), 4/120]
(1) Increases linearly with increasing temperature
(2) Increase non-linearly with increasing temperature
(3) Decreases linearly with increasing
(4) Decreases non-linearly with increasing temperature
2. The observed osmotic pressure for a 0.10 M solution of Fe(NH 4)2(SO4)2 at 25ºC is 10.8 atm
experimental (observed) and theoritical values of Van't Hoff factor (i) will be respectively : (R = 0.082 L
atm k –1 mol–1) [JEE(Main) 2014 Online (19-04-14), 4/120]
(1) 5 and 4.42 (2) 4 and 4.00 (3) 5 and 3.42 (4) 3 and 5.42
3. For an ideal solution of two components A and B, which of the following is true ?
[JEE(Main) 2014 Online (19-04-14), 4/120]
(1) Hmixing < 0 (zero)
(2) Hmixing > 0 (zero)
(3) A–B interaction is stronger than A–A and B–B interactions
(4) A–A, B–B and A–B interactions are identical
4. A solution at 20ºC is composed of 1.5 mol of benzene and 3.5 mol of toluene. If the vapour pressure of
pure benzene and pure toluene at this temperature are 74.7 torr and 22.3 torr, respectively, then the
total vapour pressure of the solution and the benzene mole fraction in equilibrium with it will be,
respectively : [JEE(Main) 2015 Online (10-04-15), 4/120]
(1) 35.0 torr and 0.480 (2) 30.5 torr and 0.389 (3) 38.0 torr and 0.589 (4) 35.8 torr and 0.280
5. Determination of the molar mass of acetic acid in benzene using freezing point depression is affected
by : [JEE(Main) 2015 Online (10-04-15), 4/120]
(1) partial ionization (2) dissociation (3) complex formation (4) association
6. The solubility of N 2 in water at 300 K and 500 torr partial pressure is 0.01 g L –1. The solubility (in g L –1)
at 750 torr partial pressure is : [JEE(Main) 2016 Online (09-04-16), 4/120]
(1) 0.02 (2) 0.015 (3) 0.0075 (4) 0.005
7. An aqueous solution of a salt MX 2 at certain temperature has a van’t Hoff factor of 2. The degree of
dissociation for this solution of the salt is : [JEE(Main) 2016 Online (10-04-16), 4/120]
(1) 0.67 (2) 0.33 (3) 0.80 (4) 0.50
8. 5 g of Na 2SO4 are was dissolved in x g of H 2O. The change in freezing point was found to be 3.82ºC. If
Na2SO4 is 81.5% ionised, the value of x (K f for water = 1.86ºC kg mol –1) is approximately :
(molar mass of S = 32 g mol –1 and that of Na = 23 g mol –1) [JEE(Main) 2017 Online (08-04-17), 4/120]
(1) 45 g (2) 65 g (3) 25 g (4) 15 g
Solution & Colligative Properties
9. A solution is prepared by mixing 8.5 g of CH 2Cl2 and 11.95 g of CHCl 3. If vapour pressure of CH 2Cl2
and CHCl 3 at 298 K are 415 and 200 mmHg respectively, the mole fraction of CHCl 3 in vapour form is :
(Molar mass of Cl = 35.5 g mol –1) [JEE(Main) 2017 Online 09-04-17), 4/120]
(1) 0.675 (2) 0.162 (3) 0.486 (4) 0.325
10. Two 5 molal solutions are prepared by dissolving a non-electrolyte non-volotatile solute separately in
the solvents X and Y. The molecular weights of the solvents are M X and M Y, respectively where M X =
3
MY. The relative lowering of vapour pressure of the solution in X is "m" times that of the solution in Y.
4
Given that the number of moles of solute is very small in comparison to that of solvent, the value of "m"
is : [JEE(Main) 2018 Online 15-04-18), 4/120]
4 3 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 4 2 4
11. The mass of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute (molar mass = 50 g mol –1) needed to be dissolved in
114 g octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 75 %, is : [JEE(Main) 2018 Online 16-04-18), 4/120]
(1) 37.5 g (2) 75 g (3) 150 g (4) 50 g
12. Which one of the following statements regarding Henry's law is not correct ?
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online 09-01-19), 4/120]
(1) Different gases have different K H (Henry' law constant) values at the same temperature.
(2) The value of K H increases with increase of temperature and K H is function of the nature of the gas
(3) The partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas in the
solution.
(4) Higher the value of K H at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas in the liquids.
13. A solution containing 62 g ethylene glycol in 250 g water is cooled to –10ºC. If K f for water is 1.86 K kg
mol –1, the amount of water (in g) separated as ice is: [JEE(Main) 2019 Online 09-01-19), 4/120]
(1) 16 (2) 32 (3) 48 (4) 64
14. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the entire composition range. At 350 K, the vapor pressures of
pure A and pure B are 7 × 10 3 Pa and 12 × 10 3 Pa, respectively. The composition of the vapor in
21. For the solution of the gases w, x, y and z in water at 298 K, the Henrys law constants (K H) are 0.5, 2,
35 and 40 k bar, respectively. The correct plot for the given data is :
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (08-04-19)S2, 4/120]
partial y
(1) (2) pressure x
w
(0,0) mole fraction
of water
z
partial z partial
(3) pressure (4) pressure y
y x
x
w w
(0,0) mole fraction (0,0) mole fraction
of water of water
22. 0.27 g of a long chain fatty acid was dissolved in 100 cm 3 of hexane. 10 mL of this solution was added
dropwise to the surface of water in a round watch glass. Hexane evaporates and a monolayer is
formed. The distance from edge to cenre of the watch glass is 10 cm. What is the height of the
monolayer? [Density of fatty acid = 0.9 g cm –3, = 3] [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (08-04-19)S2, 4/120]
(1) 10 –2 m (2) 10 –6 m (3) 10 –8 m (4) 10 –4 m
23. The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution of an ionic compound XY in water is four times that of a
solution of 0.01 M BaCl2 in water. Assuming complete dissociation of the given ionic compounds in
water, the concentration of XY (in mol L –1) in solution is: [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (09-04-19)S1, 4/120]
(1) 6 × 10 –2 (2) 4 × 10 –2 (3) 16 × 10 –4 (4) 4 × 10 –4
24. Liquid 'M' and liquid 'N' form an ideal solution. The vapour pressures of pure liquids 'M' and 'N' are 450
and 700 mmHg, respectively, at the same temperature. Then correct statement is :
(xM = Mole fraction of 'M' in solution; x N = Mole fraction of 'N' in solution;
yM = Mole fraction of 'M' in vapour phase; y N = Mole fraction of 'N' in vapour phase)
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (09-04-19)S1, 4/120]
x y
(1) M M (2) (x M – yM) < (x N – yN)
xN yN
xM yM xM yM
(3) (4)
xN yN xN yN
Solution & Colligative Properties
25. Molal depression constant for a solvent is 4.0 K kg mol –1.The depression in the freezing point of the
solvent for 0.03 mol kg –1 solution of K 2SO4 is : (Assume complete dissociation of the electrolyte)
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (09-04-19)S2, 4/120]
(1) 0.12 K (2) 0.24 K (3) 0.36 K (4) 0.18 K
26. At room temperature, a dilute solution of urea is prepared by dissolving 0.60 g of urea in 360 g of water.
If the vapour pressure of pure water at this temperature is 35 mm Hg, lowering of vapour pressure will
be : (molar mass of urea = 60 g mol –1) [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (09-04-19)S1, 4/120]
(1) 0.027 mmHg (2) 0.028 mmHg (3) 0.017 mmHg (4) 0.031 mmHg
27. 1 g of a non volatile non electrolyte solute is dissolved in 100 g of two different solvents A and B whose
Tb A
ebullioscopic constants are in the ratio of 1 : 5. The ratio of the elevation in their boiling points
Tb B
is : [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (10-04-19)S2, 4/120]
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 10 : 1 (3) 1 : 0.2 (4) 5 : 1
28. A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.6 g of urea (molar mass = 60g mol –1) and 1.8g of glucose (molar
mass = 180 g mol –1) in 100 mL of water at 27°C. The osmotic pressure of the solution is: (R = 0.08206
L atm K –1 mol –1) [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (12-04-19)S2, 4/120]
(1) 8.2 atm (2) 1. 64 atm (3) 2.46 atm (4) 4.92 atm
Solution & Colligative Properties
EXERCISE - 1
PART - I
A-1. Some of the characteristics of supersaturated solution are given below
(i) If a crystal of solute is added to supersaturated solution, crystallisation occurs rapidly.
(ii) Supersaturated solutions contain more solute than they should have at a particular temperature.
A-2. Certain compounds combine with the moisture of atmosphere and are converted into hydroxides or
hydrates. Such substances are called hygroscopic. e.g., anhydrous CuSO 4, quick lime (CaO),
anhydrous Na 2CO3 etc.
A-3. The overall energy change associated with dissolution depends on the relative magnitude of the solute–
solute, solvent–solvent and solute–solvent interactions. The process is exothermic if the new interaction
release more energy than disrupting the old interactions requires, it is endothermic if opposite is true.
B-1. 0.04 g/mL B-2. (i) 30%, (ii) 0.046 (iii) Na + = 5.42 m, S 2O32– = 2.71 m
B-3. Molality = 11.44 m, Molarity = 7.55 M
C-1. PO2 = 810 mm Hg, PH2O = 355 mm Hg , P total = 1165 mm Hg C-2. 2.4 atm
WW
D-1. 7.62 bar D-2. 4 mmol. E-1. 5.15 g E-2. = 3.973
WN
PART - II
A-1. (B) A-2. (B) B-1. (B) C-1. (B) C-2. (C)
C-3. (B) C-4. (B) D-1. (C) D-2. (A) D-3. (B)
D-4. (D) D-5. (B) E-1. (C) F-1. (B) F-2. (C)
F-3. (C) F-4. (A) F-5. (A) G-1. (C) G-2. (A)
G-3. (A) G-4. (C) G-5. (A) G-6. (C) H-1. (C)
Solution & Colligative Properties
H-2. (A) H-3. (B) H-4. (B) I-1. (B) I-2. (B)
I-3. (B) I-4. (C) I-5. (B) I-6. (A) J-1. (D)
J-2. (B) J-3. (A) J-4. (A) J-5. (C) J-6. (D)
J-7. (A) J-8. (B) J-9. (B) K-1. (C) K-2. (A)
PART - III
1. (A) – (r); (B) – (s); (C) – (q); (D) – (p) 2. (A) – (p,s,r); (B) – (p,q,t); (C) – (p); (D) – (p,q,t)
EXERCISE - 2
PART - I
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D)
PART - II
1. 18 2. 5 3. 21 4. 20 5. 27
6. 4 (A,B,C,D) 7. 2 8. 48 9. 43 10. 2
PART - III
1. (ABD) 2. (ABCD) 3. (ABD) 4. (ABCD) 5. (AC)
11. (ABC) 12. (BD) 13. (AB) 14. (AD) 15. (BCD)
16. (ABC)
PART – IV
EXERCISE – 3
PART - I
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (BCD)
PART – II
JEE-MAIN (OFFLINE)
11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (1)
JEE-MAIN (ONLINE)
11. (Bonus) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (4)
16. (4) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1)
21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (3) 25. (3)