Database Question Common Answer

A decrease in the amount of haemoglobin in

HP0002 the red blood cells leads to a condition hypoxia
called:-

The volume of oxygen in the atmosphere is

HP0003 21
approximately:-

the amount of oxygen required

HP0004 The breathing rate is determined by:-
by the body.

HP0005 Blood is pumped around the body by the:- right atrium of the heart

HP0006 Oxygen rich blood:- is found in the right ventricle.

The pumping or discharge chambers of the the left atrium and the right
HP0010
heart are:- atrium

When measuring blood pressure the lowest

HP0012 the systolic pressure
reading obtained is referred to as:-

A person suffering from sustained low blood

HP0013 dizziness or fainting
pressure may experience:-

the total pressure of the gas

In terms of the Gas laws, Dalton's Law states
HP0016 mixture is equal to the sum of
that:-
its partial pressures

increases with the consumption

HP0020 A pilot's susceptibility to hypoxia:-
of alcohol drugs and tobacco

an insufficient partial pressure

HP0021 Hypoxic hypoxia occurs as a result of:-
of oxygen

the time available to recognise

HP0022 The time of useful consciousness is:- the onset of hypoxia and take
breathing into a paper
corrective actionbag will
increase the body's level of
HP0024 In order to treat hyperventilation:- carbon dioxide which in turn
will return the breathing rate to
normal.
HP0025 Anaemic hypoxia may be caused by:- poor blood circulation

remaining at an altitude which

Prevention of hypoxia in a non-pressurised
HP0027 will provide an adequate
aircraft is best achieved by:-
oxygen pressure gradient.
 A consequence of hyperventilation is that a shortage of carbon dioxide in
HP0029
there will be:- the blood

Whilst using oxygen masks passengers

HP0033 should be cautioned against breathing hyperventilation
rapidly or deeply in order to avoid:-
the amount of oxygen in each
HP0034 According to Dalton's Law:- breath remains constant at any
altitude

As altitude is gained the amount of oxygen in

HP0035 remains constant
each breath:-

the period of time a pilot can

HP0036 The "time of useful consciousness" means:- function without oxygen before
losing consciousness
The "time of useful consciousness" at 25 000
HP0038 ft following rapid decompression is 5 minutes
approximately:-

The amount of light which enters the eye is

HP0039 iris
controlled by the:-

In order to correct long sightedness,

HP0040 a convex lens is used
(hypermetropia):-

In order to correct long sightedness,

HP0040 a convex lens is used
(hypermetropia):-

HP0041 With reference to the eye, the rods:- are used for peripheral vision

Vision in low levels of illumination or at night

HP0042 the rods
is dependant upon:-

Control over the light entering the eye is iris which expands increasing
HP0043
exercised by the:- the size of the pupil

looking to the side of the object

HP0045 Good night vision is best achieved by:- in order to focus the object on
the rods

In order to correct short sightedness,

HP0046 a concave lens is used
(myopia):-

change the size of the pupil to

HP0048 Accommodation is the ability of the eye:- allow more or less light into the
eye
 During the approach to land on an unfamiliar
HP0050 upward sloping runway a pilot may have a fly a high approach.
tendency to:-
During the approach to land on a very wide
HP0052 unfamiliar runway a pilot may have a fly a low approach.
tendency to:-

semi-circular canals and the

HP0053 The vestibular apparatus comprises the:-
Eustachian tube.

a decrease in hearing ability

HP0055 Presbycusis is the term used to define:-
with age

HP0058 Vertigo is:- a false sense of rotation

should be treated by looking at

Spatial disorientation is usually a temporary
HP0060 and believing the aircraft flight
condition which:-
instruments

Non-conductive, or noise-induced, hearing is associated with the inner ear

HP0063
loss:- and is usually irreversible

A deterioration in hearing with age is

HP0065 presbycusis
referred to as:-

A deterioration in hearing with age is

HP0065 tinnitus
referred to as:-

is associated with the inner ear

HP0066 Conductive hearing loss is:-
and is always temporary

the natural loss of hearing with

HP0067 The term tinnitus is used to define:-
age

A method which may be used to help have them fix their eyes in the
HP0069
passengers avoid airsickness is to:- distance on the natural horizon

HP0070 The symptoms of motion sickness include:- pale skin nausea and sweating

The best treatment for a pilot suffering from a restful uninterrupted natural
HP0071
acute fatigue is:- sleep

If a passenger is observed suddenly suffering

HP0072 from severe chest pains and then collapses, hypoxia
the cause is likely to be:-
HP0073 Fainting is caused by :- lack of oxygen at altitude

HP0075 Following scuba diving, a pilot:- may not fly within 24 hours

If a passenger is observed suffering from

mild chest pains, dizziness, breathlessness
HP0077 hyperventilation
and a pale complexion the cause is likely to
be:-
The symptoms of low blood glucose (blood
HP0078 sugar), include a sensation of dizziness and by eating regularly
shaking. This can be corrected:-

is best treated by a peaceful

HP0079 Acute fatigue:-
and uninterrupted sleep

occurs over a very long period

HP0080 Chronic fatigue:- and requires a prolonged
recovery period.

Sleep management is an important part of

personal fitness and the type of sleep
HP0081 paradoxical sleep.
associated with physical rejuvenation is
called:-

The type of sleep associated with brain rapid eye movement (REM)
HP0082
rejuvenation is called:- sleep

The most common symptoms of carbon

HP0084 tunnel vision.
monoxide poisoning are:-

A leaking aircraft engine exhaust may pose a increased amounts of carbon

HP0086
threat to aircrew and passengers because:- monoxide may enter the cabin

A method of processing information referred works independently of the

HP0089
to as a closed loop system:- central decision maker

Memory which deals with the storage of

HP0091 semantic memory
information in word form is called:-

The short term or working memory is 7 types of unrelated

HP0093
capable of dealing with a maximum of:- information

HP0094 Acute stress is considered to be:- a short-term condition

noise and vibration combined

The most likely causes of environmental, or
HP0095 with variations in temperature
physical stress in an aircraft are:-
and humidity
 condition which builds up over a
HP0097 Acute stress is usually a:- short period of time requiring a
very long recovery period.

HP0098 Chronic stress is usually a:- long term condition

“Environmental capture” is an error which is

HP0099 skill-based behaviour
associated with:-

a skill which is acquired by

HP0101 A motor programme is:-
practice

indicate the pressure of the

HP0105 The term “blood pressure” is used to:- blood against the walls of the
main arteries

Platelets are a type of blood cell which are

HP0106 the formation of blood clots
responsible for:-
Pilots who are suffering from blocked sinuses
and continue to fly may be subject to severe a climb in a non-pressurised
HP0108
pain, and even suffer ear damage, aircraft.
particularly during:-
When crossing time zones adjustment of the is easier when flying from west
HP0110
body clock:- to east

the ability to store information

Semantic memory is the term used to
HP0112 in the form of words language
describe:-
or numbers
A method of processing information which
HP0113 requires feedback to the central decision an open loop system
maker is called:-

The best method for an individual to acquire

HP0116 maintain a normal sleep period
sleep “credits” is to:-

HP0117 Chronic insomnia is often the result of:- disturbed body rhythms.

The tiny air sacs in the lungs which allow

HP0118 oxygen to diffuse into the blood and carbon alveoli
dioxide to diffuse into the lungs are called:-

Adaptation of the eye for night vision may

HP0120 30 minutes
take up to:-

It may be impossible to see a distant, faintly the light rays will be focused on
HP0121 lit object at night by looking directly at it the fovea which contains a
because:- concentration of rods
HP0125 Angina is characterised by:- severe chest pains and collapse

A situation in which a pilot makes a correct

HP0126 decision but initiates the incorrect reaction is environmental capture
referred to as:-

Skill-based behaviour consists of actions require the conscious

HP0129
that:- involvement of the brain

decisions made based on

Knowledge-based behaviour is associated
HP0130 knowledge stored in the long-
with:-
term memory.

The transfer of oxygen from the lungs to the the low levels of oxygen in the
HP0132
blood is a function of:- blood.

the transfer of oxygen into the

HP0136 As the partial pressure of oxygen decreases:-
blood decreases

the body’s demand for oxygen

HP0137 As the partial pressure of oxygen increases:-
increases

Permanent hearing loss may result from

HP0142 cochlea
damage to the:-

Constant and excessive exposure to loud

HP0144 noise may eventually lead to permanent cochlea
hearing loss as a result of damage to the:-

a natural loss of hearing as a

HP0145 Presbycusis is:-
result of age

the formation of bubbles of

Decompression sickness, associated with
HP0146 nitrogen in various parts of the
reduced air pressure, is characterised by:-
body
With regard to decompression sickness, the
pain experienced by the formation of
HP0147 the bends
nitrogen bubbles in the body’s joints is
referred to as:-
With regard to decompression sickness, the
itching sensation created by the formation of
HP0148 the creeps
nitrogen bubbles in the skin is referred to
as:-
With regard to decompression sickness, the
HP0150 formation of nitrogen bubbles in the lungs the chokes.
leads to a condition known as:-

In the human ear, angular accelerations are

HP0152 semi-circular canals
sensed by the:-
 In the human ear, linear accelerations are
HP0153 otolith or static organ.
sensed by the:-

The purpose of the otolith, or static, organ in

HP0154 sense linear accelerations
the human ear is to:-

According to Boyles Law, providing the as the pressure of a gas

HP0155 During a levelisturn, with no external
temperature constant:- increases the volume decreases
reference, a false
During a level sense
turn, withthat the aircraft is
no external
flying straight
reference, andsense
a false level may
that be
thefelt by the
aircraft is
HP0157 vertigo
pilot.
flying During
straightthe
androll outmay
level a sense of turning
be felt by the in
HP0157 the opposite direction may be felt. the coriolis illusion
pilot. During the roll out a sense of This is in
turning
referred to as:-
the opposite direction may be felt. This is
The “oculogravic
referred to as:- or somatogravic illusion” is the body rotating when in fact
HP0159
the sensation of:- no rotation is occurring.

The “oculogravic or somatogravic illusion” is

HP0159 tumbling backwards
the sensation of:-

At night a stationary light which is stared at

HP0161 for a few seconds may appear to move. This autokinesis.
illusion is known as:-

Autokinesis is a visual illusion which may the eye only focuses at a

HP0162
occur at night when:- distance of 1 to 2 metres ahead.

Autokinesis is a visual illusion which may a stationary light appears to

HP0162
occur at night when:- move

Equalisation of the pressure between the

HP0164 outer ear and the middle ear is achieved Eustachian tube
through the:-
The transmission of electrical signals, for
HP0167 conversion into sound, from the ear to the auditory nerve.
brain is achieved via the:-

In an effort to avoid motion sickness a fix their eyes in the distance on

HP0169
method which may help passengers is to:- the natural horizon

An increase in positive “g” may initially result

HP0170 grey out
in a condition known as:-

“Grey out” is a condition which may occur as

HP0171 positive “g” manoeuvres
a result of:-

A sudden increase in negative “g” may result

HP0172 red out
in a condition known as:-

“Red out” is a condition which may occur as excessive negative “g”

HP0173
a result of:- manoeuvres
 “Black out” is a condition which may occur as sustained positive “g”
HP0175
a result of:- manoeuvres

the blood rushes away from the

HP0176 During sustained positive “g” acceleration:- head causing loss of vision grey
out or black out.

An increase in the level of carbon dioxide in will cause a tingling sensation in

HP0178
the blood:- the finger tips.

The term “chunking” is used to define the transferring information into

HP0179
process of:- the long term memory

The condition known as cyanosis is

HP0181 high blood pressure
associated with:-

The ability to make a judgement based on

HP0185 cognitive judgment
learned skills or experience is referred to as:-

Cognitive judgement involves decision

HP0186 a complex thought process
making based on:-

Perceptual judgement is judgement based

HP0187 a complex thought process
on:-

excessive levels of carbon

HP0190 Hypoxia is caused by:-
dioxide in the body tissues

too little carbon dioxide in the

HP0191 Hyperventilation may be caused by:-
blood

The ability of the eye to change the

HP0197 curvature of the lens in order to focus on an accommodation
object is called:-

the ability of the eye to see

HP0198 Visual acuity is:-
clearly
 Right

anaemia

21

the level of carbon dioxide in

the blood

left ventricle of the heart.

is bright red in colour

the left ventricle and the right

ventricle.

the diastolic pressure

dizziness or fainting

the total pressure of the gas

mixture is equal to the sum of
its partial pressures

increases with the consumption

of alcohol drugs and tobacco

an insufficient partial pressure

of oxygen

the time available to recognise

the onset of hypoxia and take
breathing into a paper
corrective actionbag will
increase the body's level of
carbon dioxide which in turn
will return the breathing rate to
a reductionnormal.
in the amount of
circulating haemoglobin.

remaining at an altitude which

will provide an adequate
oxygen pressure gradient.
a shortage of carbon dioxide in
the blood

hyperventilation

the proportion of oxygen

remains at 21% throughout the
atmosphere

decreases.

the time taken by a pilot to

recognise the onset of hypoxia
and take corrective action.

2 – 3 minutes

iris

a convex lens is used

a convex lens is used

are used for peripheral vision

the rods

iris which expands increasing

the size of the pupil

looking to the side of the object

in order to focus the object on
the rods

a concave lens is used

change the curvature of the

lens in order to focus on an
object
 fly a low approach.

fly a high approach.

semi-circular canals and the

otolith organs

a decrease in hearing ability

with age

a false sense of rotation

should be treated by looking at

and believing the aircraft flight
instruments

is associated with the inner ear

and is usually irreversible

presbycusis

presbycusis

is associated with the outer ear

and is either temporary or can
be reversed

ringing in the ears

have them fix their eyes in the

distance on the natural horizon

pale skin nausea and sweating

a restful uninterrupted natural

sleep

a heart attack
a reduced flow of blood to the
brain.

may not fly within 24 hours

an angina attack

by eating regularly

is best treated by a peaceful

and uninterrupted sleep

occurs over a very long period

and requires a prolonged
recovery period.

slow wave sleep

rapid eye movement (REM)

sleep

headaches and nausea

increased amounts of carbon

monoxide may enter the cabin

requires feedback to the central

decision maker

semantic memory

7 types of unrelated
information

a short-term condition

noise and vibration combined

with variations in temperature
and humidity
 short term condition

long term condition

skill-based behaviour

a skill which is acquired by

practice

indicate the pressure of the

blood against the walls of the
main arteries

the formation of blood clots

a descent

is easier when flying from east

to west

the ability to store information

in the form of words language
or numbers

a closed loop system.

maintain a normal sleep period

long-term stress

alveoli

30 minutes

the light rays will be focused on

the fovea which contains a
concentration of cones
mild chest pains which subside
on resting.

an action slip

operates without the constant

attention of the brain.

decisions made based on

knowledge stored in the long-
term memory.

the pressure of the oxygen

the transfer of oxygen into the

blood decreases

the transfer of oxygen into the

blood increases.

cochlea

cochlea

a natural loss of hearing as a

result of age

the formation of bubbles of

nitrogen in various parts of the
body

the bends

the creeps

the chokes.

semi-circular canals
 otolith or static organ.

sense linear accelerations

as the pressure of a gas

increases the volume decreases

the leans
the leans

tumbling backwards

tumbling backwards

autokinesis.

a stationary light appears to

move

a stationary light appears to

move

Eustachian tube

auditory nerve.

fix their eyes in the distance on

the natural horizon

grey out

positive “g” manoeuvres

red out

excessive negative “g”

manoeuvres
 sustained positive “g”
manoeuvres

the blood rushes away from the

head causing loss of vision grey
out or black out.

will cause an increase in the

breathing rate

combining data to increase the

capacity of the working or short
term memory

hypoxia.

perceptual judgement

a complex thought process

experience.

a decrease in the partial

pressure of oxygen

anxiety caused by a stressful

situation.

accommodation

the ability of the eye to see

clearly
 Database Question Right

The volume of oxygen in the atmosphere is

met0001 0.21
approximately:-

An aircraft is flying at FL095, OAT +5°C. The

met0006 +9°C.
temperature deviation from ISA is:-

The layer between the troposphere and the

met0008 the tropopause.
stratosphere is called:-

out of an area of high pressure

met0009 Air has a tendency to flow from:-
and into an area of low pressure

met0011 The average height of the troposphere:- is greatest at the equator

the temperature increases with an

met0012 In a temperature inversion:-
increase height

Dewpoint temperature is the temperature at air will become saturated at a

met0014
which:- constant pressure

Instability in the atmosphere is associated a steep positive environmental

met0015
with: lapse rate

The term "insolation" or "solar radiation" is heating of the earth's surface by

met0017
used to define the:- the sun

In terms of visibility, the difference between fog has a visibility of less than
met0019
fog and mist is that:- 1000 metres

Adiabatic process is the term used to the cooling of air as it rises and
met0020
describe:- expands

decreases with an increase in

met0021 Relative humidity:-
temperature.

The dewpoint temperature is the

met0022 becomes saturated
temperature at which a particular air mass:-

standing with their back to the

wind in the Southern Hemisphere
met0023 According to Buys Ballots Law, an observer:-
will have low pressure on their
right.
 In the Southern Hemisphere, the wind clockwise with the area of lowest
met0024
around a low pressure blows:- pressure in the centre.

met0027 The Coriolis Force is created by: the rotation of the earth

met0028 A land breeze will be found at coastal areas:- at night

During summer in Southern Africa, the Inter

met0029 Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is generally in the southern hemisphere
located:-

The type of wind which flows upslope during

met0031 anabatic
the day is called:-

met0033 A "trough" is:- a wedge of low pressure

met0034 A sea breeze will be found at coastal areas:- during the day

the wind rotates anticlockwise

In a high pressure system in the southern
met0035 with an outwards and downwards
hemisphere:-
flow.

met0038 Cirrus type cloud refers to:- high thin cloud

The type of cloud which is formed by

met0039 cumulus
convection is called:-

commonly associated with a warm

met0040 Nimbostratus cloud is:-
front

met0041 Cumulonimbus cloud is characterised by:- severe turbulence

On a clear night, light winds and moist air

met0044 blowing over the land will most probably radiation fog
create:-

The ideal conditions for the formation of warm moist air blowing over a
met0046
advection fog are:- cold surface

met0049 Polar maritime air is characterised by:- stable conditions at its source.
 The factor most likely to cause a decrease in warming of the air mass from
met0050
the stability of an air mass is:- below

A cold front approaching South Africa will be

met0051 north westerly winds
characterised by:-

The type of clouds which typically

met0052 Cumulus and Cumulonimbus
characterise a cold front are:-

A front caused by cold air cutting under

met0053 a cold front.
warm air is referred to as:-

The indications of the approach of a warm cirrus followed by cirrostratus or

met0057
front:-
On landing, an aircraft's altimeter indicates altostratus type clouds.
the airfield elevation of 4500 ft with QNH
met0061 correctly set. During the pre-flight inspection the pressure has increased
the following morning the altimeter indicates
4200 ft. During the night:-
met0063 The symbol SCT is used to indicate:- 3 to 4 oktas of cloud

met0064 The symbol FEW is used to indicate:- 1 to 2 oktas of cloud

The term CAVOK is used in weather forecasts visibility 10 km or more and no

met0065
to indicate:- cloud below 5000 ft

The information which is provided by the the airfield's surface wind QNH
met0066
ATIS includes:- visibility and runway in use

In winter, an aeroplane which has been

met0068 parked outside during a night with clear skies hoar frost
may expect to be covered with:-
The presence of a coastal low, on the east
overcast conditions with light rain
met0074 coast of South Africa, may be characterised
or drizzle
by:-

The characteristics of the South African the presence of moist south

met0075
summer include:- easterly trade winds

A common characteristic of a stable air mass

met0077 the presence of stratiform clouds
is:-

With reference to the TAF for Port Elizabeth

(FAPE) on page 8 of the Meteorology
met0080 Manual, an aircraft that intends landing 3 to 4 oktas of cloud at 1500 ft
between 1300 and 1500 local time would
expect:-
 With reference to the TAF for Durban (FADN)
on page 8 of the Meteorology Manual, an
met0081 140/12.
aircraft landing between 1800 and 2000 local
time would expect the surface wind to be:-

With reference to the METAR for

the variation in the observed wind
met0083 Johannesburg (FAJS) on page 9 of the
direction is between 350° and 070°
Meteorology Manual:-
With reference to the METAR for
the variation in the observed wind
met0083 Johannesburg (FAJS) on page 9 of the
direction is between 350° and 070°
Meteorology Manual:-
With reference to the METAR for George
met0084 (FAGG) on page 9 of the Meteorology the dew point temperature is 15°
Manual:-

The characteristics of a moist, unstable air cumuliform clouds with rain

met0086
mass include:- showers

The characteristics of a stable air mass

met0087 poor surface visibility
include:-

The weather condition associated with a an increase in temperature with

met0090
surface temperature inversion is:- altitude.

A concave or almond-shaped cloud which

met0093 appears to be stationary in the vicinity of lenticular cloud
mountains or hills is called referred to as:-

Whilst flying in the vicinity of a mountain

met0094 range a pilot observes formations of static considerable turbulence
lenticular cloud. The pilot should expect:-

In stable conditions, with a strong wind

mountain wave turbulence is to be
met0095 blowing over a mountain range or high ridge
expected
of hills:-

The most hazardous type of thunderstorms thunderstorms embedded in

met0099
to aircraft are:- frontal clouds.

The greatest intensity of a thunderstorm

met0100 the mature stage
occurs during:-

When flying from an area of high pressure to the altimeter will tend to over
met0102
an area of low pressure:- read

a report of actual weather at an

met0104 A METAR is:-
aerodrome
 a weather forecast for an
met0105 A TAF is:-
aerodrome

decrease with an increase in

met0106 Air density will:-
humidity

a wind that is changing in a

met0107 The term veering refers to:-
clockwise direction

a wind that is changing in an

met0108 The term backing refers to:-
anticlockwise direction

The flow of air from a high to a low in the

met0109 southern hemisphere is deflected by the to the left
coriolis force:-

met0110 Following the passage of a cold front:- the pressure will begin to rise.

With reference to the Significant Weather

Chart 3 on page 15 of the Meteorology initially drizzle from stratocumulus
met0116 Manual. An aircraft intending to fly from Port cloud becoming rain towards Cape
Elizabeth (PE) along the coast towards Cape Town
Town (CT) would experience:-

With reference to the Winds and

Temperatures chart on page 16 of the
met0120 115° (T)
Meteorology Manual. The wind direction on
the Natal North Coast at 5000 ft is:-

With reference to Station 6 of the Synoptic

Station Models - 1, on page 5 of the
met0123 moderate intermittent drizzle
Meteorology Manual. The present weather
is:-

With reference to Station 2 of the Synoptic

Station Models - 1 on page 5 of the
met0125 falling then steady.
Meteorology Manual. The barometric
tendency during the past three hours was:-

With reference to Station 4 of the Synoptic

Station Models - 1 on page 5 of the
met0126 thick altostratus or nimbostratus
Meteorology Manual. The medium cloud
indicated is:-

With reference to Station 5 of the Synoptic

Station Models - 1 on page 5 of the
met0127 a fall in pressure of 3 hPa
Meteorology Manual. The pressure change
during the past three hours was:-
 With reference to Station 14 of the Synoptic
met0129 Station Models - 2 on page 6 of the the visibility is 200 metres in haze
Meteorology Manual.:-

According to ISA, the sea level density of the 1225 grammes per cubic metre
met0131
air is:- and decreases with altitude

decrease in temperature with

met0132 The term "lapse rate" is used to describe:-
altitude

In the southern hemisphere the wind is

met0133 coriolis force.
deflected to the left by the:-

In the southern hemisphere an aircraft which flying towards an area of low

met0134
is being subjected to left drift is:- pressure

The type of cloud which can be expected to

clouds with substantial vertical
met0138 form as a result of a moist unstable air mass
development
being forced upwards is:-

The weather conditions associated with a

met0139 air which is subsiding
ridge of high pressure include:-

Precipitation in the form of rain can be

met0142 altocumulus
expected from:-

Precipitation in the form of light drizzle can

met0143 stratus or stratocumulus clouds
be expected from:-

rain which evaporates before it

met0144 Virga is:-
reaches the surface

met0147 Frontal fog is found Ahead of a warm front

Rime ice may be expected to form on an when super-cooled drops of water

met0148
aircraft:- freeze on impact

met0149 Page 9 of Manual look at FAGM:

With reference to the METAR for Upington

met0150 (FAUP) on page 9 of the Meteorology there is no cloud below 5000 ft.
Manual:-
With reference to the METAR for George
the visibility is 1000 m with fog in
met0151 (FAGG) on page 9 of the Meteorology
the vicinity
Manual:-
 With reference to the TAF for George (FAGG) light rain temporarily becoming
met0153 on page 8 of the Meteorology Manual, the heavy rain between 1200 and
expected weather includes:- 2000 local time

With reference to the Winds and

Temperatures chart on page 16 of the
met0154 ISA+7°C.
Meteorology Manual. The temperature at 5
000 ft at S30° E015° is:-

With reference to the Winds and

Temperatures chart on page 16 of the
met0155 221/11
Meteorology Manual. The wind direction and
velocity (W/V) at 4000 ft at S25° E015° is:-

is indicated by a rough running

met0156 Carburettor icing:- engine and a gradual decrease in
RPM

Coastal lows along the South African coast a strong flow of air from the
met0158
are generally created by:- interior

Cooling of the earth's surface during the is greatest during clear skies over
met0165
night:- rocky or desert areas.

Air at the surface which is forced to rise as a

met0170 is generally unstable
result of convergence:-

A warm, dry wind blowing down a mountain

met0171 the föhn wind
during the day is a typical characteristic of:-

The type of wind which may be experienced

met0172 a sea breeze
at coastal areas during the day is:-

met0174 An anabatic wind:- flows up a slope during the day.

An air mass which is approaching South

met0179 polar maritime
Africa from the Antarctic is classified as:-

forms over the land and remains

met0180 A continental air mass:-
fairly dry throughout.

As a polar maritime air mass passes over absorb heat in the lower layers
met0182
South Africa during summer it will:- and become unstable

rising air and a low pressure system

met0184 Convergence is associated with:-
with instability
met0185 Divergence is associated with:-

When warm air is forced to rise up and over

met0186 a cold occlusion will form
cold air:-

Following the passage of a warm front in

met0188 back.
South Africa, the winds will:-

the pressure will continue to fall

Following the passage of a warm front in
met0189 but at a slower rate and then start
South Africa:-
to rise

Following the passage of a warm front in

met0190 the pressure will begin to rise
South Africa:-

a cold front overtakes a warm

met0191 An occluded front occurs when:-
front

The south westerly buster which affects the the anti-cyclonic flow of air from a
met0195 coast of KwaZulu-Natal (South Africa) is high pressure system ridging in
caused by:- behind a coastal low

there is a well developed high

The Black South Easter is a wind which pressure system to the west of
met0196
occurs in South Africa when:- Cape Town with strong pressure
gradients and a long sea track

The South African Berg Wind is generally a strong high pressure system over
met0198
caused by:- southern Africa

When the standard pressure setting, 1013

hPa, is set on the subscale of the altimeter of
met0199 pressure altitude
an aircraft on the ground at an aerodrome,
the altimeter will indicate:-

derived by correcting the pressure

met0200 Density altitude is:-
altitude for temperature.

When QFE is set on the subscale of the

met0201 altimeter of an aircraft on the ground at an zero
aerodrome, the instrument will read:-

When QNH has been set on the subscale of the aircraft's altitude above sea
met0204
an altimeter, the instrument will indicate:- level.
 Database Question Common Answer

The position which separates the laminar air

pof0002 flow from the turbulent air flow around an the transition point
aerofoil is called:-
In accordance with Bernoulli's theory when
the velocity increases and the
pof0003 air flows through the throat of a venturi
pressure decreases
tube:-
Bernoulli's principle states that if the velocity
pof0004 of air flowing through a venturi is increased, pressure energy must decrease
then the:-

The angle of attack of an aeroplane is at which the wing is mounted

pof0005
defined as the angle:- on the fuselage

The angle between an aerofoil's chord line

pof0007 the angle of attack
and the relative airflow is referred to as:-

The lift force produced by an aerofoil always perpendicular to the relative

pof0008
acts:- airflow.

An increase in the angle of attack of an increase the pressure below the

pof0010
aerofoil will:- wing and increase drag.

On an aerofoil, the point through which the

pof0014 centre of pressure
total lift acts is called the:-

As the angle of attack of an aerofoil in

pof0015 normal level flight is increased, the centre of move aft
pressure will:-
With reference to the lift formula. If an
aeroplane's speed is doubled whilst the
pof0016 be four times greater.
angle of attack remains constant, the
parasite drag will:-
On an aerofoil, the point through which the
pof0017 the centre of pressure.
total lift force acts is known as:-

there will be a greater increase

If the gross weight of an aircraft is
pof0021 in induced drag than in parasite
increased:-
drag

In respect of an aeroplane's wing, the term

pof0023 the wingspan to the wing tip
"aspect ratio" refers to the ratio of:-

Whilst maintaining level flight, a decrease in

pof0024 induced drag.
speed will result in an increase in:-
 Adverse aileron yaw, (aileron drag), will be
pof0025 at high speeds
most noticeable:-

A design feature which is used to reduce the use of a low aspect ratio
pof0026
induced drag is:- wing

An increase in induced drag can be when the angle of attack is

pof0028
expected:- increased

An aeroplane which has a high lift/drag will have poor climb

pof0030
ratio:- performance

pof0031 Induced drag is created by:- an increase in speed

pof0032 Induced drag is created by:- the lift produced by the wings.

In comparison to a high aspect ratio wing, a have increased longitudinal

pof0033
low aspect ratio wing will:- stability

In comparison to a high aspect ratio wing, a

pof0033 create less induced drag.
low aspect ratio wing will:-

When a wing has been given washout, it be narrower in width at the tip
pof0035
means that the wing will:- than it is at the

If, during level flight, altitude must be angle of attack must be

pof0037
maintained whilst reducing speed the:- increased

During normal level flight a reduction in

the thrust line acts horizontal to
pof0039 power will cause the nose of an aeroplane to
and above the d
drop because:-

pof0041 During a straight climb at a constant speed:- lift is greater than weight

The relationship between the four forces in lift is equal to weight and thrust
pof0042
level flight is that:- is equal to dra

In order to maintain elevator control

locate the centre of gravity at
pof0043 effectiveness, when loading an aeroplane it
the centre of pres
would be better to:-

The forces acting on an aeroplane in a climb the value of lift is greater than
pof0044
are so arranged that:- that of weight<
 the centre of pressure is located
pof0045 Whilst maintaining straight and level flight:-
at the centre of

During straight and level flight the centre of

pof0047 aft of the centre of pressure
gravity is normally located:-

The total lift produced by the wings during a the vertical component of lift
pof0049
balanced level turn, must equal:- and the centripetal

The total lift produced by the wings during a only the weight of the
pof0049
balanced level turn, must equal:- aeroplane

A change in pitch will cause an aircraft to

pof0050 lateral axis and centre of gravity
rotate around its:-

A change in bank will cause an aircraft to longitudinal axis and centre of

pof0051
rotate around its:- gravity
During entry into a left hand turn from
straight and level flight, rudder is normally correct the adverse yaw created
pof0054
applied in the same direction as ailerons in by lowering the ai
order to:-
Ailerons may have to be used to prevent the
pof0055 all turns.
aeroplane from underbanking during:-

If only rudder is applied during straight and yaw followed by roll and a spiral
pof0058
level flight the following will occur:- dive

In order to reduce the effect of aileron drag,

pof0059 is differential ailerons
a common design feature used:-

increases as the angle of attack

pof0060 Adverse aileron yaw (aileron drag):-
is increased.

Differential ailerons are a means used on

pof0061 reduce aileron drag
some aeroplanes in order to:-

both ailerons travel through a

pof0062 The operation of frise ailerons is such that:-
greater arc up and

Frise ailerons are a design feature which may aerodynamically balance the
pof0063
be installed on some aeroplanes in order to:- controls

Frise ailerons are a design feature which may reduce the effort required by
pof0063
be installed on some aeroplanes in order to:- the pilot to operate
 During a level turn to the left, the ball of the
pof0064 slip indicator is deflected to the left of a slipping turn
centre. This indicates a:-

The initial effect of uncorrected aileron drag, cause an initial yaw to the left
pof0065
or adverse aileron yaw is to:- when rolling left

pof0066 The use of a Horn balance in an aeroplane:- increases aileron effectiveness

A mass balance, extending ahead of the

increase the control
pof0067 hinge line, is attached to the leading edge of
effectiveness
a control surface in order to:-

An aircraft which has its CG too far aft

pof0069 be difficult to control in pitch
would:-

In order to remove aerodynamic forces from

so that they remain neutral in
pof0070 the controls, balance tabs are adjusted by
relation to the con
the pilot in flight:-

An anti-balance, or anti-servo, tab which is move in the opposite direction

pof0071
incorporated in a stabilator will:- to the control surf

An anti-balance, or anti-servo, tab which is only move when activated by

pof0071
incorporated in a stabilator will:- the trim control in th

allow an aeroplane to glide at a

pof0074 Application of flap will:-
steeper angle<BR< span>

pof0075 Application of flaps during a turn will:- increase the stall speed

pof0075 Application of flaps during a turn will:- decrease the stall speed

pof0076 Application of trailing edge flaps will:- increase the Lift/Drag ratio

Flaps are provided on many light aeroplanes decrease the stalling angle of
pof0077
in order to:- attack at low speed

Trailing edge flaps are provided on an

pof0078 improve longitudinal stability
aeroplane in order to:-

During a flapless approach to land the nose

pof0079 position of the aeroplane will, in relation to a lower
normal approach with full flap, be:-
 increase the stalling angle of
pof0080 The application of trailing edge flaps will:-
attack

an increase in longitudinal
pof0081 Application of trailing edge flaps will cause:-
stability

exceeding the critical angle of

pof0082 An aeroplane will stall as a result of:-
attack

The stalling angle of attack of a particular will remain constant

pof0083
aerofoil:- irrespective of airspeed ban

remains constant regardless of

pof0084 The stalling angle of attack of an aeroplane:-
airspeed or weight

During a turn an aeroplane stalls at a higher because the critical angle of

pof0085
IAS than it does with the wings level:- attack is reached at

During the approach to a power off stall in control effectiveness decreases

pof0086
level flight:- at a steady rate.<

The effect of maintaining engine power at to cause a reduction in the

pof0088
the stall will be:- stalling angle o

The potential of a normal spin to develop

pof0090 an aft centre of gravity.
into a flat spin increases with:-

In order to initiate spin recovery the controls ailerons and elevator are
pof0091
should be used in the following manner:- applied simultaneously.<

A passenger carrying aeroplane is usually

pof0094 dynamic stability
designed to have:-

Longitudinal dihedral is a design feature

pof0096 in the pitching plane
which may be used to improve stability:-

Longitudinal dihedral is a design feature used

pof0097 about the lateral axis
as a method of improving stability:-

Longitudinal dihedral is a design feature used

pof0097 about the longitudinal axis
as a method of improving stability:-

Directional stability in an aeroplane is

pof0098 through the vertical fin.
achieved:-
 A design feature used in some aeroplanes to
pof0100 is washout
improve lateral stability:-

The force required by an aeroplane to make called centrifugal force and is

pof0102
it turn is:- produced by the wi

The primary and further effects of rudder roll then yaw followed by a
pof0104
are:- spiral dive.

An increase in the angle of attack of an decrease the pressure below

pof0106
aerofoil will:- the wing and increase

An increase in the angle of attack of an increase the pressure above the

pof0106
aerofoil will:- wing and reduce dr

During level flight, the centre of gravity is located forward of the centre of
pof0107
normally:- pressure

When lowering trailing edge flaps, the initial the centre of pressure generally
pof0111
effect is that:- moves aft

During a steady climb the arrangement of

pof0112 thrust is greater than drag
the four forces is such that:-

With reference to the figure below, Position

pof0113 B on the total drag curve indicated the minimum drag speed
represents:-

With reference to the figure below, Curve B

pof0115 parasite drag
on the graph indicated represents:-

only the power should be

pof0118 In order to maintain altitude during a turn:-
increased

The four forces acting on an aeroplane in an increase in thrust will cause

pof0119
level flight are normally arranged so that:- the nose to pitch

Wingtip stalling may be reduced by the

pof0122 washout
incorporation of:-

increase the surface area of a

pof0124 The primary purpose of Fowler flaps is to:-
wing

the centre of pressure moves

pof0128 At high angles of attack:-
aft of the centre of
 If the pressure of a parcel of air is kept temperature is decreased the
pof0129
constant and the:- density will decreas

If the pressure of a parcel of air is kept temperature is increased the

pof0129
constant and the:- density will decreas

pof0130 With regard to humidity and air density:- humid air is less dense

If the temperature of a dry parcel of air is an increase in pressure will

pof0131
kept constant:- result in a decrease

The layer of air in contact with the surface of

pof0132 the boundary layer
an aerofoil during flight is referred to as:-
The portion of the air flow over an aerofoil,
in flight, which comes into immediate
pof0133 skin friction
contact with the surface is slowed down due
to the effect of:-
The correct operation of a balance tab can
balance tab remains fixed in the
pof0134 be checked before flight by moving the
same position<BR< span>
elevator and observing that the:-
Dust which is on the surface of a wing before
pof0135 flight will often still be there at the end of streamlining
the flight because of:-
The correct operation of anti-balance tab can
anti-balance tab moves in the
pof0136 be checked before flight by moving the
opposite direction t
stabilator and observing that the:-

During the autorotation stage of a spin to the both wings are at the stalling
pof0137
left:- angle of attack<BR< span>

In an aircraft which is spinning to the left the may increase the lift on the
pof0138
application of ailerons to the right:- outboard section of t
In order to prevent the effects of gusts or
manouevring on the structural integrity of an
pof0139 Vne
aircraft, it should not be flown under normal
operating conditions above:-
the resultant of centripetal
pof0140 Load factor is the term given to:-
force and gross weigh

During a balanced, level turn at 60° angle of

pof0141 twice the gross weight
bank in an aeroplane, the load factor is:-

The force required to turn an aeroplane in

pof0142 centrifugal force
flight is called the:-
pof0144 The symbol V in the lift formula refers to:- IAS

In terms of the International Standard

1225 grammes per cubic metre
pof0147 Atmosphere (ISA), the sea level density of
and remains constant
the air is:-

pof0148 Newton's First Law refers to:- equilibrium.

pof0149 Newton's Second Law refers to:- acceleration

IAS corrected for temperature

pof0152 True airspeed (TAS) is:-
and altitude

pof0154 An increase in weight will:- decrease the glide angle

the rate of descent will

pof0155 When gliding into wind:-
decrease.

the range can be increased by

pof0157 During a glide:-
flying at a faster s

If power is reduced during a descent but the

pof0158 the range will increase.
speed is kept constant:-

When climbing to clear obstacles in the take- at the maximum rate of climb
pof0160
off path an aeroplane should climb:- speed

When climbing the maximum height gained by climbing at the best angle of
pof0162
in the shortest distance will be achieved:- climb speed

The position which separates the laminar air

pof0002 flow from the turbulent air flow around an the transition point
aerofoil is called:-

pof0032 Induced drag is created by:- the lift produced by the wings.

When a wing has been given washout, it have a decrease in the angle of
pof0035
means that the wing will:- attack towards the

pof0041 During a straight climb at a constant speed:- lift is greater than weight
 An aircraft which has its CG too far aft
pof0069 be difficult to control in pitch
would:-

During the aerodynamic stage of a spin the outer wing is partially

pof0092
known as autorotation:- unstalled whilst the i

In an aircraft which is spinning to the left the

pof0138 may delay the spin recovery.
application of ailerons to the right:-

pof0154 An increase in weight will:- decrease the glide angle

With reference to the figure below, the

pof0163 the best angle of climb speed
speed at point A indicates:-
 Right

the transition point TRUE

the velocity increases and the

pressure decreases TRUE

pressure energy must decrease TRUE

between the chord line and the

relative airflow FALSE

the angle of attack TRUE

perpendicular to the relative

airflow. TRUE

increase the pressure below the

wing and increase drag. TRUE

centre of pressure TRUE

move forward FALSE

be four times greater. TRUE

the centre of pressure. TRUE

there will be a greater increase

in induced drag than in parasite TRUE
drag

the wingspan to the mean

aerodynamic chord. FALSE

induced drag. TRUE

 at a high angle of attack FALSE

washout. FALSE

when the angle of attack is

increased TRUE

will have a shallow gliding angle FALSE

the pressure difference

between the top and bottom FALSE
surfaces

the lift produced by the wings. TRUE

create more induced drag FALSE

create more induced drag FALSE

have a decrease in the angle of

incidence towards the wingtip FALSE

angle of attack must be

increased TRUE

the centre of gravity is located

forward of the centre of FALSE
pressure

lift is less than weight FALSE

lift is equal to weight and thrust

is equal to drag FALSE

have a forward centre of gravity FALSE

the value of lift is less than that

of weight FALSE
the centre of pressure is located
behind the centre of gravity. FALSE

forward of the centre of

pressure FALSE

the vertical component of lift

and the centripetal force. FALSE

the vertical component of lift

and the centripetal force. FALSE

lateral axis and centre of gravity TRUE

longitudinal axis and centre of

gravity TRUE

correct the adverse yaw created

by lowering the aileron on the FALSE
right wing

a gliding turn FALSE

yaw followed by roll and a spiral

dive TRUE

is differential ailerons TRUE

increases as the angle of attack

is increased. TRUE

reduce aileron drag TRUE

the hinge line of both ailerons is

located slightly aft of their FALSE
leading edges.

reduce aileron drag FALSE

reduce aileron drag FALSE

 a slipping turn TRUE

cause an initial yaw to the right

when rolling left FALSE

improves the aerodynamic

balance of the controls FALSE

prevent control flutter. FALSE

be difficult to control in pitch TRUE

to operate in the opposite

direction to the primary control
surface to which they are FALSE
attached.
move in the same direction as
the control surface FALSE

move in the same direction as

the control surface FALSE

allow an aeroplane to glide at a

steeper angle FALSE

decrease the stall speed FALSE

decrease the stall speed TRUE

reduce the L/D ratio FALSE

increase both the lift and the

drag FALSE

increase the value of lift created

by the wing at a particular angle FALSE
of attack and airspeed

higher. FALSE
decrease the lift/drag ratio and
increase the glide angle. FALSE

FALSE

exceeding the critical angle of

attack TRUE

will remain constant

irrespective of airspeed bank FALSE
angle or weight

remains constant regardless of

airspeed or weight TRUE

because the critical angle of

attack is reached at a higher FALSE
IAS.

control effectiveness decreases

at a steady rate. FALSE

to cause a reduction in the

stalling speed FALSE

an aft centre of gravity. TRUE

rudder is applied before

elevator FALSE

dynamic stability TRUE

in the pitching plane TRUE

about the lateral axis TRUE

about the lateral axis FALSE

through the vertical fin. TRUE

 is dihedral FALSE

called centripetal force and is

created by the wings FALSE

yaw then roll followed by a

spiral dive FALSE

decrease the pressure above

the wing and increase drag FALSE

decrease the pressure above

the wing and increase drag FALSE

located forward of the centre of

pressure TRUE

the centre of pressure generally

moves aft TRUE

thrust is greater than drag TRUE

the minimum drag speed TRUE

parasite drag TRUE

the angle of attack must be

increased FALSE

an increase in thrust will cause

the nose to pitch up FALSE

washout TRUE

increase the surface area of a

wing TRUE

the effect of aileron drag will be

more noticeable FALSE
 temperature is increased the
density will decrease FALSE

temperature is increased the

density will decrease FALSE

humid air is less dense TRUE

an increase in pressure will

result in an increase in density FALSE

the boundary layer TRUE

skin friction TRUE

balance tab moves in the

opposite direction to the FALSE
elevator.

skin friction. FALSE

anti-balance tab moves in the

same direction as the elevator FALSE

the left wing will have a greater

angle of attack than the right FALSE
wing.

may delay the spin recovery. FALSE

Vno FALSE

the resultant of centrifugal

force and gross weight during a FALSE
turn

twice the gross weight TRUE

centripetal force FALSE

 TAS FALSE

1225 grammes per cubic metre

and decreases with altitude FALSE

equilibrium. TRUE

acceleration TRUE

CAS/RAS corrected for

temperature and altitude. FALSE

have no effect on the glide

angle FALSE

the glide angle will increase FALSE

application of flap will reduce

the best L/D ratio. FALSE

the rate of descent will increase FALSE

at the best angle of climb speed FALSE

by climbing at the best angle of

climb speed TRUE

the transition point TRUE

the lift produced by the wings. TRUE

FALSE

FALSE
be difficult to control in pitch TRUE

the outer wing is partially

unstalled whilst the inner wing FALSE
is stalled

may delay the spin recovery. TRUE

have no effect on the glide

angle FALSE

the best angle of climb speed TRUE

 eu
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Database Question m
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tin
cu
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yb
es
acgen0001 If cyclic is moved forward: w
d
lxi
eci
n
m
rn
ego
d
eskv
The horizontal stabiliser on the tail xw eis Helps generate aerodynamic lift to prevent
eh
heli cirsed
boom: tailboom from dipping
isev
p
cse
u
fih
ssto
m
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The primary purpose of cowl flaps ieh rh
p
tvy cylinders in order to maintain the correct
acgen0001 d
is to:- ew
reo
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ao
srr
tn
rvtd
to
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The cylinder head temperature esru
acgen0002 gauge usually obtains its reading sra cylinder which tests show runs the hottest
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from:- esai
rw
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h
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Engine cylinder barrels and heads eh go
acgen0003 are usually fitted with fins in order aeiw w
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to:- n
m
elel
h
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The most likely cause of the over eru iti
acgen0005 extension of an oleo in an ccn high air pressure.
d
h
o
io
undercarriage leg is:- sit
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o
an
afr
lti excessive tread wear in the centre of the
acgen0006 An over-inflated tyre may result in:- sn ileh
n
th
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acn
eh
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The purpose of a torque link on a elip lh
acgen0007 nosewheel shock strut assembly is o eyr keep the nosewheel correctly aligned with
o
etcw the airframe
to:- n
eth
eaw
aten
acrh
A semi-monocoque fuselage design leo vrt the shape and rigidity of the fuselage is
acgen0008 eiai provided by formers and stringers whilst the
is one in which:- rsn
lrlo
gtr stressed skin carries part of the load
o
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vrse
p
h
te
The most important structural ceo
red
acgen0009 is the main spar
component of a wing:- taw
fet
th
u
srh
w
o
xetso
The part of a wing to which the iei
acgen0010 ailerons and flaps are usually p
eh
u
b rear or auxiliary spar.
tb
lelr
attached is the:- srh
ire
tea
tr.t
acgen0011 Tyre creep may cause:- rayt the inflation valve to break away from the
eh
kyir inner tube
se
n
es
asg
A shimmy in the nosewheel whilst .ew a
p
acgen0012 p
iat the torque links are worn or have failed
d
taxying indicates that:-
rr
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sf.
m
skr
fp
sia
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m
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aec
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 b
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tw
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-
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A shimmy in the nosewheel whilst n lin
acgen0012 the torque links are worn or have failed
taxying indicates that:- so
2
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A fuselage which is constructed to 0 sto
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acgen0013 allow the skin to take some of the °u lh
q a semi-monocoque structure
load is:- o
ro
eu
au
iw
eo
The primary load carrying n
tm
acgen0014 component of an aluminium id
gas is the main spar
stressed skin wing:- lio
t
2
f
trn
The most likely cause of the under- i5 h
u
acgen0016 extension of an oleo in an s°eb
p
sc low air pressure
undercarriage leg is:- arp
ts
b
elau
n
teao
sr
Tyre creep may be expected to o
fln
acgen0017 rse during the normal landing.
occur:- ro
cu
m
ern
ar
xeb
d
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In a Truss, or Girder-type fuselage leyh
acgen0018 e longeron
the main structural component is a: iaT
rlc
u
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p
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b
a
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The timing of the ignition of the srm
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fuel and air mixture in an internal o nbetween 20° and 25° before TDC during the
ted
acgen0020
combustion engine is arranged to p h
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occur:- ri
aep
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A condition which may occur in n
gu
srg
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acgen0022 only one cylinder of an engine as a em d
n
is. pre-ignition
result of too a lean mixture is:- n
gii
p
ito
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Valve overlap in the four stroke in
o
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acgen0031 d
n
o
ip
gt exhaust and induction strokes
engine will occur between the:-
elu
n
h
rea
ecan
In a piston engine, the piston will tsfr
d
acgen0033 have passed BDC and be moving irsc the compression and exhaust strokes.
u
towards TDC during:- m
oau
tp
rn
p
mryo
The type of pump utilised in a ep
acgen0034 piston engine to provide high ew gear type pump.
astre
pressure oil lubrication is a:- tah
n
re
o
ersn
d ip
Lubrication of the main bearings
lo
sus by both high pressure oil and splash
acgen0035 and crankshaft of the engine is kd
sim
it lubrication.
provided:- ieu
o
ap
rn
sm
Dry sump piston engine lubrication n .o
d
tp
acgen0036 systems make use of a scavenge d
ikpump oil from the sump back to the oil tank
rsce
pump to:- ib
sta
b
tap
r oil is stored in the engine sump and
In a wet sump piston engine u
co
il distributed throughout the engine by a
acgen0037
lubrication system:- tkao
pressure pump
esn
d
th
A high oil temperature coupled o
acgen0039 o are an indication of low oil supply.
with low oil pressure:- tlf
h
tu
rh
b
l
o
er
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i
w
go
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iao
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u
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 so
as
tis
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p
lp
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rp
ero
ergo
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The oil in a wet sump lubrication n
tgt
acgen0040 system passes through the oil h
n
giw before being fed to the engine components
cooler:- ietd
eire
re
o
n
en
An oil pressure gauge is usually p
etn between the pressure relief valve and the
acgen0041 located in the oil line of a wet sump tlh ra
eei
h sump
system:- w
rtia
gsid
h
gvs
The purpose of the pressure relief lfh eh
ibmaintain a constant oil pressure over a range
acgen0042
valve in a lubrication system is to:- u led
n of engine power changes
ero
vp
rgo
le
The temperature of the oil in a wet csrsl
acgen0043 sump lubrication system is usually o et
p
ip
fsa
tn after leaving the oil cooler
measured:- h
sru
iatsr
aen
gm
oiku
The function of the distributor in a n cgm
ep
n
ro provide high voltage to the spark plugs
acgen0045 ru
magneto is to:- eti
eiste
sln
h
tau
go
p
u
The purpose of baffles in an ech
trtu prevent the fuel from surging about during
n
acgen0047 acre
aircraft’s fuel tank is to:- igto
lm flight
so
ed
tih
p
lau
o
en
iry
The purpose of an impulse coupling m lsn
b
gu
o
ap produce a strong retarded spark usually in
acgen0049 eygn
in a magneto is to: si the left magneto for easier starting
riap
d
n
tan
b
aw
p
The electrical current produced by o h
eo
itr
acgen0050 is created by a rotating magnet
a magneto:- ru
ed
kth
w
ao
iseth
eflt
srp
If the earth wire from a magneto to u cald
tlp the engine will continue to run with the
acgen0053 lo
eth
the aircraft structure is broken:- u
rd
h
erw magneto switch in the off position
ilatu
rgef
n
rist
w
sgn
im
sa draws fuel from a position higher than the
The fuel supply line from the fuel u egau
n
m
acgen0054 tp
gm sump to allow water or other impurities to
tank to the engine normally:- rae
atfn
p settle at the bottom of the tank
egr
go
ld
sen
In some magneto ignition systems yn d
itfe
o
irageo producing a strong retarded spark during the
acgen0055 an impulse coupling is used as a itr
t low RPM of engine start.
method of:- rh
ulo
o
in
ts
o
o
The presence of carburettor icing w etf the engine starting to run rough and a
n
acgen0056 rw
io
rh
would be indicated by:- ao decrease in RPM
itr
elu
tc
When the throttle is opened crgh
eac
acgen0058 quickly, the throttle accelerator fh
aria discharge additional fuel into the venturi
pump will:- u
cis
m
b
reau
n
iu
p
An accelerator pump is often b
ln
re provide extra fuel when the throttle is
acgen0060 incorporated in a carburettor in ru
d
rtr
reie opened rapidly.
order to:- h
iten
aes
An engine which starts to run tt
acgen0061 rough and then slowly loses power to tid carburettor icing.
o
aro
is probably suffering from:- eefr
srtcr
ft
ih
ro
icd
tem
p
n
o
iu
ao
gn
rvsts
gsieh
 to
ftx
h
lu
tr
fru
d
u
u
isr
ep
et
rlb
acgen0063 When leaning the fuel/air mixture:- eu b
p the ratio of fuel to air is reduced
stte
ro
stc
o
u
ead
The application of carburettor rau will also richen the mixture because of the
acgen0064 u
heat:- eifs higher air temperature
cr
lee
sy
Carburettor icing is most likely to d eio at the venturi butterfly valve or inlet
acgen0065
occur:- tsvf manifold
it
aw
sri
The blade angle of a propeller alti ensure that the thrust produced is constant
acgen0070 e
n
varies from hub to tip in order to:- vh lcd
gsel along the propeller blade
o
u
m
The correct sequence for increasing n caio
gsh
eln richen the mixture increase the RPM then
acgen0074 power in an aeroplane with a riet increase the manifold pressure setting
Constant Speed Unit (CSU) is:- cd
lgn
ar
eih
tn
During take-off in an aeroplane enrb
eth
equipped with a Constant Speed lraea
acgen0076 saet a small blade angle
Unit (CSU), it would be most m
ae
beneficial to have:- atseal
d
teiio
tm
r
ah
n
If an aeroplane, with a fixed pitch h aieg
propeller, is placed in a shallow en
tD
n
c
acgen0078 dive so that forward speed giem
C increase
o
increases with no change in power tR fw
lm
fin
setting, the RPM will:- h
P
ieo
p
rsxe
M
leu
o
t
After starting an engine black ld
rm
p
at
u
acgen0079 smoke is seen coming from the arn
h
p that the mixture is too rich
h
ceto
fylt
exhaust. This indicates:- eu
o
d
yu
p
n
n
rei
An operational advantage of the to
elswill still produce electrical power at low RPM
acgen0083 w
alternator is that it:- rici
li
n
h
tle
cu
lo
The correct level of electrolyte in a eh rh
eo
acgen0085 lead acid battery should be ao distilled water
ekru
maintained by the addition of:- b
tn
itsrl
o
cia
One of the advantages of refuelling tw u
cdfull tanks will minimise condensation forming
acgen0086 an aeroplane with full tanks after h p
asih
eve overnight
flight is that:- lrci
o
iln
m
ld
g
tiu
bdoes not rely on battery power to bring it on
One of the benefits of the DC axcea
acgen0087
generator is that it:- gte line.
eu
rm
ro
Control of the voltage output from p e
recr
acgen0089 a DC generator is achieved through o .ew voltage regulator
a:- et
gei
u
ref
lai
ase
tir
o
l.
rly
o
w
n
 eh
o
c
sto
sd
p
en
u
ercv
rcetta
eo
The use of fuel with a lower octane rsrm
n
rating than that recommended by estp rh
acgen0092 detonation
the aircraft manufacturer may lead au e
esrtetr
to:- leih
e
The storage capacity of a battery is io ice-
acgen0093 etn
aih
n ampere-hours.
usually expressed in:-
fh
id
rA
o
erciC
u
A rectifier is required in an cvu
r
acgen0099 aap
tio convert the AC output into DC
alternator in order to:- s
lrth
u
.
A reverse current cut-out relay, or veret
circuit breaker, is used in a eso
fp
acgen0100 tsuprevent the flow of current from the battery
generator supplied electrical trh to the generator
system to:- w
u
tgeo
o
h
The purpose of the engine driven ih rem
vacuum pump used in an aircraft's vn iei
acgen0101 ad
e3
cfsb remove air from the instrument case
gyroscopic instrument system is n
to:- l
r
h
i
wlm
et
The purpose of the engine driven t-cio a
vacuum pump used in an aircraft's riaitlw n decrease the pressure within the instrument
acgen0102 m
e5
gyroscopic instrument system is gtsh
lD case.
to:- aeeio
C
td
iln
fjo
Over-speeding of vacuum driven ren
acgen0105 teo
evb
a pressure relief valve which is located just
gyro rotor is prevented by:- rch
tecm before the vacuum pump.
eh
asr
eu
acet
The suction required to operate rli
avseo
rn
acgen0106 vacuum driven gyroscopes is ro
u 3 - 5 inches of mercury
usually between:- d
in
ea
so
ln
td
n
u
p
efjttso
A left-zero ammeter is en
et indicate the flow of current from the
acgen0108 incorporated in an electrical system au d
aetm
s
g
r
t alternator.
to:- fih
d
etu
h
fn
ertm
ee
ie
icb
o
ccu
A voltmeter may be incorporated in n eg
n
trf indicate the voltage in the electrical system
acgen0109 d
o
an electrical system to:- tyea
icyto
rd
n
ckrh
co
d
ap
eau
tisr
The instruments that would be o
n
o
teothe altimeter airspeed indicator and vertical
acgen0112 affected by a static vent blockage lu rlh
.te speed indicator.
are:- p
eo
sar
co
rs
en
v
If the alternate static vent, located tfsd a
in the aircraft's cockpit, is opened rtsc
acgen0113 in flight in response to a blocked ith over-read because the cockpit pressure is
vu usually lower than the outside pressure
external static vent, the altimeter ch eru
will:- ae
relm
at
If the alternate static vent, located b ii
in the aircraft's cockpit, is opened sp arc
acgen0113 in flight in response to a blocked tca over-read because the cockpit pressure is
syu
usually lower than the outside pressure
external static vent, the altimeter sm rtlu
will:- tp
aes.
erf
su
m
ytp
a
le
ile
syd

lp
i
 n
l
d
t
ii
cm
ae
tt
ee
The instruments which would be
r
acgen0115 affected by a blockage in both pitot t the altimeter VSI and ASI
tube and static vent are:- ih
o
V
evS
n
d
eI
iatr
A blockage of the static vent during cl-ch as
acgen0117 over-read
a descent would cause the ASI to:- ap etran
tit
elad
etin
at
ru
d
o
A
b
ied
If, during a descent, the static vent trScm
eaIcontinue to indicate the altitude at which the
am
acgen0119 becomes blocked the altimeter
will:- iap
aetp blockage occurred.
riael
xrsen
td
es
p
If, during level flight, the static vent p o
asces
acgen0121 becomes blocked the ASI reading w p
o
sn remain constant
o
eh
will:- ru
edu
n
ri
d
rsec
arce
The green arc on an airspeed tcth
acgen0124 ea the normal operating speed range
indicator represents:- o
ic
irsn
u
ttn
strth
igi
b
acgen0126 In a simple airspeed indicator:- efef
h pitot pressure is fed to the capsule
face
n
tsieg
tb
d
ep
wd
eled
acgen0127 In a simple airspeed indicator:- ttd
o static pressure is fed to the case.
eh
th
cd
o
n
aeo
fkei
tasr indicated airspeed corrected for instrument
o
acgen0128 Calibrated or Rectified airspeed is:- itgerh tsan
h and position error
n
eap
segi
tet
o
in
ierccalibrated or rectified airspeed corrected for
acgen0129 True airspeed is:- sccd
n
aetsc
u temperature and density
p
m
rtu
as
The basic principle of operation of ceu rh
n
acgen0130 an airspeed indicator is to measure o u
n
rd
am
u between static and pitot pressure
the differential between:- rtl
sem
re
ed
np
et
As altitude is increased the capsule b .cexpand causing the instrument to shown an
itn
acgen0136 o
ett
inside an altimeter will:- increase in altitude
eao
es
n
ctd
As altitude is decreased the capsule h d
acontract causing the instrument to shown a
acgen0137 o
o
sf
inside an altimeter will:- p decrease in altitude
w
p
ero
n
eo
The presence of black oily deposits ers
rd
sathat oil is slipping past the piston rings and is
acgen0140 in the firing end cavity of a spark iasep being burnt in the combustion chamber
plug would probably indicate:-
tn
u
o
c
During a descent the pressure in eirs
id
o
acgen0144 the capsule of a vertical speed ein increase
indicator (VSI) will:- n
atc
w
sir
ieo
ee
trn
ah
r
so
ee
trr
o
 ie
td
r
h
a
tets
ih
e
n
ect
During a climb the pressure inside c
arhdecrease at a slower rate than that inside the
acgen0145 the case of a vertical speed gs
ey capsule
indicator (VSI) will:- ea
rtp
During a descent the pressure so
o
rincrease at a slower rate than that inside the
eh
acgen0146 inside the case of a vertical speed fe capsule
indicator (VSI) will:- rs
ie
tp
s
n
m
h
ru
The instantaneous vertical speed aer decrease the static pressure of the capsule
acgen0147 indicator (IVSI) utilises an sm
ise
tn during the initiation of a descent.
accelerometer to:- taisa
n
sn
h
tu
wo
esir
eat
During the initiation of a climb the erctu
trh cause a rapid decrease in static pressure in
b
acgen0148 accelerometer in an instantaneous iva
u
w
igr the capsule.
vertical speed indicator (IVSI) will:- p
lm
rin
ieli
etd
eg-
n
h
tis
An operational problem of the sh
tih
st
tn
h
acgen0149 conventional VSI which does not n
eyd
u manoeuvre-induced error
occur in the Instantaneous VSI is:- o
d
rau
u
taecc
ln
rh
an
ed
giep
The two properties associated with id
ln
acgen0151 sn rigidity and precession.
a spinning gyroscope are:- V
tegcu
m
p
eo
sh
artl
With reference to the Attitude vcetp
eterh
Indicator or Artificial Horizon, as an eah
es.cio the gyro remains in the vertical relative to
acgen0154 h
u
reu
aircraft changes its pitch attitude or eecrts the earth.
bank:- o
lsia
tite
o
n
lsp
h
n
as.i
The gyroscope used in a direction o
tgeit
acgen0155
indicator is a:- iao
h
itn Horizontal axis gyro
rn
exaro
i.u
tein
am
Apparent wander in a Direction serlat
acgen0157 erc the rotation of the earth
Indicator is caused by:- elo
in
grfo
tw
tyan
Wear in the bearings and gimbals riaft
acgen0159 as well as air turbulence will have co
latn causing real wander of a gyro
the effect of:- o
h
al.’
n
d
efs
se
d
The indications on a turn indicator es
acgen0162 during a turn to the right whilst rea the ball should move to the left and the
h
tla needle should show a right turn.
taxying are:- o
h
rd
w
n
eft
If the rotor speed of a turn rgh
s the pointer will show a higher rate of turn
acgen0164 an
indicator increases above normal:- aic
te
elgu
n
acgen0166 The turn indicator makes use of a:- ed
yt rate gyro
gslri
yseo
n
rea
o
rls
h
ro
a
au
x
tli
ed
s
 xt
tw
u
te
rh
e
en
Control of the precession of the sat the tension of a spring mounted between
acgen0167 gyro in a turn indicator is achieved h
n the gimbal and the case of the instrument
by:- o
ge
u
l
The needle of a turn co-ordinator b leg
acgen0168 ad the rate of turn
shows:- i
lo
m
ab
f
n
ea
cb
l
eia
acgen0169 The diagram below indicates a:- sd balanced turn
n
al
kn
it
td
p
u
h
p
ret
in
h
n
afe
acgen0170 The diagram below indicates a:- g
n slipping turn.
u
lct
iela
u
sas
ar
le
The type of gyro used in an attitude etn ef.
acgen0172 an earth gyro.
indicator is:- rh
ao
ie
n
fx
cg
During take-off the error which eyt
may be expected from an air- p
t
d
acgen0173 irh is a temporary error in both pitch and roll
driven Artificial Horizon, or Attitude o
o
sep
Indicator:- .i
n
o
p
ti
During flight the gyro in a Direction eirn
acgen0174 ro a fixed point in space
Indicator aligns itself with:- est
-rn
t
io
irr
An aircraft engine is designed to
gn
operate on a specific octane rating. u
acgen0177 n lead fouling of the spark plugs
Using fuel of a higher octane than n m
ites
recommended may result in:- stin
p
h
ilta
o
A manually operated primer pump cw nthe primer is more effective than the throttle
acgen0179 should always be used to prime a te accelerator pump and will pump more fuel
cold engine for start because:- h into the venturi as a result
ae
n
e
an
When attempting to start an p the mixture should be in the full lean
g
acgen0182 engine which has been over- p position until the engine fires and then
i
primed or flooded:- anrichened slowly to keep the engine running
re
e
n
f
In the southern hemisphere, an
ti
aircraft is to maintain a constant
heading of 090° (M) on a magnetic r
acgen0186 te show an apparent turn to the south
compass. If the aircraft speed is
u
s
increased from 80 kts to 110 kts
r
the compass would:-
n
a
n
td
o
t
th
h
 aa
sg
o
ein
u
d
set
tp
o
aiu
The deviation error found in a n
ct is caused by local magnetic fields within the
acgen0187 f
magnetic compass:- aircraft
au
ifo
sxif
When executing a turn from 160° ce1
through south to 210°, in the osd
la9
southern hemisphere, using only a n
d
acgen0189 0
n 190°
magnetic compass, the most fav°s
appropriate heading to roll out on ia
would be:- an
clw
le
u
tid
o
ete
m
Compass deviation in a particular h
m
rv
acgen0192 varies with each heading
aircraft:- fin
u
o
to
nal
art
u
to
am
eh the power output of an alternator will be
acgen0195 In comparison to a generator:- o
lreae
rl greater at a lower rpm
cw
o
oth
ai
w
fM
il
o
The operating principle of a DC rlit is self-excited and does not require the use
Sh
acgen0197 tLfe
generator is that it:- of a battery
ch
lo
arb
eu
tan
d
ei
evif
ad
tg when pressure is increased on a confined
m
A hydraulic system operates on the en
d
ep
acgen0199 gerr volume of fluid the increased pressure will
basic principle that:- ret
cteo be transmitted by the fluid
h
ra
p
eaeD
ltt
The pilot of an aircraft which is aC
eai
equipped with manifold pressure u
srn
acgen0200 n
reis a decrease in manifold pressure
gauge would be able to identify the ece
presence of carburettor icing by:- n
ar
p
ittlt
eo
n
With reference to the figure below, ia
o
acgen0201 the trailing edge flap type indicated fta a split flap
sR
A
af
is:- e1
C
P
lfld
5
.o
FM
yl°
o
aw
p
C
w
ear
p
ltr
With reference to the figure below, ee
acgen0203 the trailing edge flap type indicated asr a Fowler flap.
an
s
is:- p
u
d
fm
h
rl
ile
ag
ap
h
w
p
.e
is
rle allow the aeroplane to fly at a higher angle
acgen0204 The effect of slats is to:-
l of attack and a lower airspeed
ar
According to the International n
b
a
acgen0205 Standard Atmosphere (ISA) there is get MSL temperature of 15°C and lapse rate of
le 1.98°C /1000 ft up to 36 090 ft
a:-
et
r
o
o
af
fn
s
1
a
 a
p
m
tim
d
u
p
ei
ab
esr
es
et
According to the International p
cu
acgen0206 Standard Atmosphere (ISA), the m
fet 1225 grammes per cubic metre
density of air at sea level is:- b
o
rl
eu
ry
n
c feeds air from within the engine cowling to
Application of “alternate air” in a m
th
acgen0208 u
ip
fuel injection system:- o
eb the induction system
n
o
u
d
ait
sn
tco
An aircraft’s pitot tube is usually iti
acgen0210 directly into the airflow
mounted:- ten
im
ttid
w
igeih
o
tt
acgen0211 Pitot pressure is taken from:- ieb
tn
rsh a tube mounted in the relative airflow
h
n
seeai
h
eh
o
fi
n
rto
u
Normal static pressure is taken rrrlh
acgen0212 eua port located in an area of undisturbed air
from:- fto
ed
llelh
rad
The effect of having two static o
eb
rte
acgen0213 vents located one on either side of w
w
ein position error will be reduced
b
ailvt
an aircraft’s fuselage is that:- eri
lap
e
eru
ltr
The alternate static valve draws air m
acgen0214 csaii within the aircraft cockpit.
from:- ear
b
vin
h
p
iw
aeerg
lan
If the speed of an aeroplane fitted affd
an
with a fixed pitch propeller tralt
acgen0215 ct decrease
decreases, but the throttle setting eb
n
io
h
eah
remains constant the RPM will:- icd
raw
ed
cen
o
u
fc
cgcl
The component of a hydraulic ko
iu
skeo
acgen0219 system which stores hydraulic fluid n
m an accumulator
lap
d w
id
lu
under pressure is called:- im
n
yu
legt
ca
Loss of pressure in a hydraulic .h
o
acgen0220
system is indicated to the pilot:- tth
o
tn
a warning light usually red
in
o
al
o
cvr
u
yen
In the event that a fuse in an isit should be replaced only once with a fuse of
acgen0222 n
electrical circuit has blown:- u
o
sg the same rating
w
an
yi
lcts
In the event that a circuit breaker ale it should be pushed back in only once after
acgen0223 t
h
in an electrical circuit has tripped:- ye allowing a cooling off period
h
am
ai
rf.
get
Control of the precession of the fh the tension of a spring mounted between
gyro in a turn indicator is achieved ed
u the gimbal and the case of the instrument
by:- rs
r
eo
a
tl
o
o
lf
ro
w
ts
ih
p
n
ee
g
e
sd
aa
m
ce
 Database Question

An aircraft is flying from A (32° E) in an westerly direction to B (12° W) along

nav0003
the equator. The aircraft:-

nav0005 On the earth:-

nav0007 Convergency is defined as being:-

When applied to an aeronautical chart, the term “topographical chart”

nav0010
means:-

The scale of a chart is expressed as 15 cm to 25 nm. As a representative

nav0014
fraction, this is:-

An aeronautical chart which portrays the earth's features with a very little
nav0015
distortion, is known as:-

An aeronautical chart which portrays the earth's features with a very little
nav0015
distortion, is known as:-

nav0024 The scale of a Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection is correct:

nav0025 On a chart constructed using the Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection:

nav0026 On a chart constructed using the Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection:-

On a chart constructed using the Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection, a

nav0029
rhumb line track:-

nav0031 When magnetic variation is indicated as "West", it means that:-

nav0032 When magnetic variation is indicated as "East", it means that:-

An aircraft on a cross country flight is to maintain a heading of 290° (M). From

nav0034 the figures extracted from the compass correction card in the figure below, the
compass heading to steer is:-
 An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is to maintain a constant heading of
nav0035 270° (M) on a magnetic compass. If the aircraft's speed is increased the
compass would:-
An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is to maintain a constant heading of
nav0038 360° (M) using a magnetic compass. If the airspeed is decreased the compass
would:-

nav0040 Compass deviation:-

nav0045 One kilometre is defined as:-

Overhead HEIDELBERG VOR (HGV), (S26° 42' E028° 18'), en route DURBAN
nav0047 INTERNATIONAL, (S29° 58' E030° 58'), TAS 120, W/V 100/15. The mean
magnetic heading to steer is:-
Overhead PILANESBERG, (S25° 32, E027° 12'), at 0730 UTC, en route MAPUTO,
nav0049 (S25° 55' E032° 34'), FL095, OAT -5°C, RAS 103 kts, W/V 240/10. The ETA for
MAPUTO is:-

With reference to the figure below, the symbol, appearing on a South African
nav0065
1:1000 000 aeronautical chart, indicates:-

With reference to the figure below, the symbol, appearing on a South African
nav0070
1:1000 000 aeronautical chart, indicates that:-

An aircraft flies from A to B, distance 133 nm, in 1 hour and 12 minutes. If

nav0075
there is a headwind of 12 kts the TAS is:-

Track 183° (T), Heading 209° (M), TAS 110 kts, Groundspeed 118 kts, variation
nav0078
19° W. The W/V is:-

Track 115° (T), Heading 110° (T), TAS 115 kts, Groundspeed 105 kts. The W/V
nav0081
is:
 Track 184° (T), Drift 5° left, Variation 22°W, deviation 4° West. The compass
nav0082
heading is:-

At 1415 an aircraft was overhead a VOR maintaining radial 215° en route for
nav0083 B, heading 210° (M). At 1430, the pilot decides to return to the VOR. The
heading to steer is:-
An aircraft is flying from Alpha to Bravo, total distance 96 nm. After flying for
nav0084 40 nm a fix is obtained which places the aircraft 3 nm right of track. The track
error is:-
An aircraft is flying from EAST LONDON, (S33° 03' E027° 50'), to COOKHOUSE
nav0086 NDB, (S32° 45' E025° 49'), drift 8°L. The relative bearing required from the
COOKHOUSE NDB to maintain the track is:-

Track 145° (T), W/V 220/20, TAS 125 kts, variation 22°W. The magnetic
nav0089
heading to steer is:-

An aircraft with a TAS of 110 kts, flies from A to B, distance 148nm, in 1 hr 14

nav0090
mins. The TAS required to fly from B back to A in 1 hr 20 mins is:-

nav0091 FL105, temperature ISA + 1°, RAS 85 kts. The TAS will be:-

Track 002° (T), W/V 315/15, TAS 115 kts, variation 18°W, deviation 2° West.
nav0094
The compass heading to fly is:-

nav0099 Official day is defined as the period:-

nav0102 Sunset is defined as:-

nav0103 Sunrise is defined as:-

nav0104 South Africa uses a standard time factor of:-

Aircraft heading 175° (C), variation 18° W, Deviation 4° W. The aircraft’s true
nav0106
heading is:-

nav0108 When compass deviation is indicated as "West", it means that:-

An aircraft is to fly from A to B, distance 235 nm, TAS 90 kts, tailwind 5 kts,
cruise fuel flow 8.5 USG/Hr, assume 3 USG is required to take-off and climb to
nav0111
cruising altitude and the reserve fuel requirement is 9 USG. The total fuel
required is:-
 If the local mean time at airfield A, longitude E018° 45', is 0818 then, if both
nav0112 positions are in South Africa, the time, UTC, at airfield B, longitude E021° 45'
will be:-

nav0114 Distance 185 nm, GS 95, fuel flow 6.8 USG/hr. The trip fuel is:-

nav0121 Distance flown 88 nm, flight time 43 minutes. The groundspeed is:-

nav0123 W/V 290/15, TAS 90 kts, Track 320° (T). The heading is:-

nav0125 When referring to direction on the earth the cardinal points are:-

Aircraft heading 008° (T), variation 24° W, Deviation 4° West. The aircraft’s
nav0129
compass heading is:-

nav0132 TAS 110 kts, W/V 155/15, Track 085° (T). The drift is:-

nav0167 40 US gallons equals:-

nav0171 Airfield elevation 2800 ft, QNH 1023. The pressure altitude is:-

nav0172 Airfield elevation 3000 ft, QNH 1003. The pressure altitude is:-

nav0173 Airfield elevation 4150 ft, QNH 1018. The pressure altitude is:-

Airfield elevation 1090 ft, QNH 1016, temperature +22°C. The density altitude
nav0174
is:-

Airfield elevation 1090 ft, QNH 1016, temperature +22°C. The density altitude
nav0174
is:-

nav0184 Using the following information, W/V 220/10, Hdg 176° (T), TAS 100 kts:-

nav0188 W/V 045/12, Track 101° (T), drift 6° right, TAS 95 kts. The groundspeed is:-
nav0195 If official night ends at 0500, the time of sunrise is:-

nav0197 If official night in South Africa starts at 1645 UTC, the local time of sunset is:-

nav0198 If official day in South Africa starts at 0325 UTC, the local time of sunrise is:-

If the time of sunset in South Africa is given as 1615 UTC, official night begins
nav0199
at:-

nav0202 The axis about which the earth rotates is between:-

nav0203 The longitude of a position refers to its location:-

nav0206 The reference for the measurement of latitude is:-

nav0208 Convergency:-

nav0213 The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is called:-

With reference to the figure below, the symbol, appearing on a South African
nav0214
1:1000 000 aeronautical chart, indicates:-

nav0218 Flight time A to B = 1 hour 15 minutes, fuel flow 7.3 USG/hr. The trip fuel is:-

The mean magnetic track and distance from BISHO (S32° 55’ E027° 16’) to
nav0224
BURGERSDORP (S30° 58’ E026° 20’) is:-

An aircraft, maintaining a heading of 295° (C), obtains a relative bearing of

nav0231 345° from an NDB. If the aircraft’s variation is 20° W and deviation is 3° E, the
bearing to plot from the NDB is:-
At 0830 an aircraft was overhead NELSPRUIT (S25° 30’ E030° 55’) on track for
nav0233 PILANESBURG (S25° 22’ E027° 12’). At 0924 the aircraft crosses radial 020 WIV
(S25° 50’ E029° 12’). The groundspeed is:-
 An aircraft climbs from 2500 ft to 9500 ft at a constant rate of climb of 350
nav0243 fpm. If the mean climb groundspeed is 85 kts the distance covered during the
climb is:-

nav0251 When referring to direction on the earth the quadrantal points are:-

nav0252 When referring to direction on the earth the cardinal points are:-

nav0255 When magnetic variation is indicated as "East":-

nav0256 When magnetic variation is indicated as "West":-

nav0265 Pressure altitude 5000 ft, temperature ISA +23°C. The density altitude is:-

nav0266 Rectified airspeed (RAS) or Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:-

nav0270 Runway 16 in use, surface wind 270/12. The aircraft would have a:-

The significance of the two standard parallels on a Lambert’s Conformal Conic

nav0296
projection is that:-

The type of chart projection which is constructed by placing a cone around an

nav0299 imaginary earth, so that it cuts the earth at two different parallels of latitude is
called a:-

The type of chart on which meridians of longitude and parallels of latitude are
nav0011
at 90° to each other is called:-

An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is to maintain a constant heading of

nav0035 270° (M) on a magnetic compass. If the aircraft's speed is increased the
compass would:-

nav0130 TAS 100 kts, W/V 005/15, Track 345° (T). The groundspeed is:-

nav0266 Rectified airspeed (RAS) or Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:-

 Right

flying both a great circle and

rhumb line track

a parallel of latitude is a rhumb

line

the angle between adjacent

meridians.

that the earth’s features are

represented with a minimum of
distortion

1: 308 833 308833.333

orthomorphic

orthomorphic

only at the standard parallels.

convergency is constant
throughout the chart but
correct only at the parallel of
origin
a rhumb line will cut each
meridian at the same angle

will always cut every meridian

at the same angle

magnetic north is located to

the west of true north

magnetic north is located to

the east of true north

288° (C)
 show an apparent turn to the
south

continue to show the same

heading.

usually varies on all headings in

the same aircraft

one ten thousandth of the

distance from the equator to
either pole

160° (M)

0948 UTC

a VOR facility co-located with a

compulsory reporting point

the aerodrome does not have

runway lights

123 kts

306/16

069/14
 215° (C)

040° (M)

4.5°.

352°

176° (M)

TAS 121

100 kts

017° (C)

from 15 minutes before sunrise

to 15 minutes after sunset

being 15 minutes before the

start of official night

when the very first part of the

sun appears above the horizon

UTC +2

153° (T)

compass north is to the west of

magnetic north.

33 USG
 0630 UTC

13.3 USG

123 kts

315° (T).

north east south and west

036° (C)

7° left

151 litres

2500 ft

3300 ft.

4000 ft

2080 ft.

2080 ft.

the track is 172° (T) and the

groundspeed is 93 kts

88 kts
 515

1830 LMT

0540 LMT.

1830 LMT.

true north and true south

east or west of the prime

meridian

the equator.

is greater at high latitudes than

it is at low latitudes

variation

an isogonal.

9.1 USG

001° (M) and 127 nm.

083°. 83

102 kts
 28 nm

045° 135° 225° 315°

360° 090° 180° and 270°

the value of variation must be

subtracted from a true heading
to obtain a magnetic heading
the value of variation must be
added to a true heading to
obtain a magnetic heading

7760 ft.

IAS corrected for instrument

and position errors

4 kt tailwind

they are the points where the

cone of the projection cuts
through the imaginary earth’s
surface and therefore the scale
of the chart is only correct at
these points

Lambert conformal conic

projection

orthomorphic.

show an apparent turn to the

south

86 kts

IAS corrected for instrument

and position errors
 Database Question

A loaded aircraft's CG is 88.8", weight 2300 lbs, MAUW 2500 lbs. The pilot
fppa0003 decides to add an additional 22 USG of fuel, SW 6 lbs/USG, (arm 93.0"). The new
CG is:-
A loaded aircraft's CG is 88.8", weight 2300 lbs, MAUW 2500 lbs. The pilot
fppa0003 decides to add an additional 22 USG of fuel, SW 6 lbs/USG, (arm 93.0"). The new
CG is:-

A loaded aircraft's CG is 88.3", weight 2450 lbs. During flight the aircraft will
fppa0005
burn off 280 lbs of fuel (arm 93.0"). The landing CG is:-

A loaded aircraft's CG is 89.2", weight 2470 lbs. During flight the aircraft burns
fppa0009
off 173 lbs of fuel (arm 93.0"). The landing CG will have:-

fppa0016 Airfield elevation 1200 ft, QNH 1003 hPa. The pressure altitude is:-

fppa0028 An increase in temperature at a particular airfield would have the effect of:-

With reference to Figure 1-3: Flaps Up Take-off Ground Roll. OAT +20°C,
fppa0047 pressure altitude 5000 ft, weight 2400 lbs, 10 kts headwind. The ground roll
required is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-3: Flaps Up Take-off Ground Roll. OAT +30°C,
fppa0050 pressure altitude 2500 ft, 10 kts headwind, runway length available 1200 ft. The
maximum weight for this take-off is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-8: Time, Distance and Fuel to Climb. Departure
fppa0061 airfield pressure altitude 3000 ft, OAT +30°C, cruising level FL095, OAT 0°C. The
distance covered during the climb is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-9: Engine Performance. Pressure altitude 8 500 ft,
fppa0065
OAT ISA+2°C, 65% power. The RPM required is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-9: Engine Performance. Pressure altitude 6 500 ft,
fppa0066
OAT +10°C, 60% power. The RPM required is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-9: Engine Performance. Pressure altitude 4 500 ft,
fppa0069
temperature ISA. The RPM at 70% power is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-10: Speed Power - Performance Cruise. Pressure

fppa0071
altitude 7 500 ft, OAT+5°C, 65% power. The TAS is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-11: Speed Power - Economy Cruise. Pressure altitude
fppa0076
10 500 ft, OAT 0°C, 55% power. The TAS is approximately:-
 With reference to Figure 1-13: Range – EconomyCruise. Pressure altitude 10 500
fppa0085
ft, temperature ISA, 55% power. The range with no reserve is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-15: Time, Fuel and Distance to Descend. Cruising
fppa0092 pressure altitude 9 500 ft, OAT -5°C, destination pressure altitude 2 500 ft, OAT
+15°C. The time taken for the descent is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-2: Stall Speeds. Gross Weight, 25° Flaps, 30° bank.
fppa0112
The Indicated stall speed is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-2: Stall Speeds. Weight 2350 lbs, 40° Flaps. The
fppa0113
Indicated stall speed in straight and level is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-2: Stall Speeds. Weight 2350 lbs, 40° Flaps. The
fppa0113
Indicated stall speed in straight and level is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-2: Stall Speeds. Weight 2250 lbs, 25° Flaps, 15° bank.
fppa0116
The Indicated stall speed is approximately:-

fppa0123 300 litres of fuel, SG 0.72. The weight of the fuel in lbs is:-

fppa0130 SG 0.73, fuel weight 108 kg. The volume of fuel in litres is:-

An aircraft achieves a performance of 3.8 air nautical miles/litre. If the fuel flow
fppa0133
is 7.8 USG/hr the TAS is:-

An aircraft’s performance is 2.0 ground nautical miles/lb. If the fuel flow is 8.5
fppa0134
USG/hr (SG .71), and there is a headwind component of 8 kts the TAS is:-

An aircraft achieves a performance of 3.5 air nautical miles/litre, fuel flow is 8.5
fppa0135
USG/hr, tailwind component 7 kts. The groundspeed is:-

fppa0138 The term “utility category” means that an aircraft:-

fppa0139 The maximum zero fuel weight of an aircraft is the empty weight of the aircraft:-

An aircraft flies from A to B with 27 USG of fuel on board. The trip fuel is 14 USG
fppa0140 and alternate and reserve fuel is 9 USG. If the holding fuel flow is 6.5 USG/hr,
the aircraft could hold overhead B, without using the reserve fuel, for:-

fppa0146 The maximum ramp weight of an aircraft:-

fppa0148 A stopway:-

fppa0149 A clearway:-

Runway length 1550 metres, displaced threshold 30 metres. The take-off

fppa0150
distance available (TODA) is:-

With reference to Figure 1-6. 25° Flaps Take-off Performance. Pressure altitude
fppa0153 4000 ft, temperature +20°C, 5 kts headwind, take-off distance available 1650 ft.
The maximum weight at which take-off can be made is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 2-2: Loading Graph. If the combined weight of the pilot
fppa0156
and front passenger is 145 Kg, the moment/1000 is:-

With reference to Figure 2-2: Loading Graph. If the total fuel loaded in the
fppa0160
aircraft is 35 USG, the moment/1000 is:-

An aircraft in level flight covers a distance of 158 nm at a groundspeed of 95 kts,

fppa0171
consuming 12.5 USG. The fuel flow is:-

On final approach to land an aircraft encounters a sudden decrease in the

fppa0177
headwind component. The aircraft:-

On final approach to land an aircraft encounters a sudden increase in the

fppa0182
tailwind component. The aircraft:-

In order to avoid the wake turbulence when landing behind a heavy aircraft
fppa0185
which has just landed, a lighter aircraft should:-

In order to avoid the wake turbulence whilst following a heavy aircraft during
fppa0187
the approach to land, a lighter aircraft should:-

With reference to Figure 1-3: Flaps Up Take-off Ground Roll. Airfield elevation
fppa0189 650 ft, QNH 1018, OAT +25°C, weight 2500 lbs, 5 kts tailwind. The ground roll
required is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-17: Landing Performance. Airfield pressure altitude
fppa0202 5000 ft, OAT +32°C, weight 2500 lbs, 13 kts headwind. The landing distance over
a 50ft barrier is approximately:-

Runway 09 threshold 2250 ft, Runway 27 threshold 2200 ft, length 4300 ft. The
fppa0214
percentage slope of runway 27 is:-

fppa0215 The runway length available for take-off:-

 Aircraft empty weight 1500 lbs, crew, passengers and baggage 900 lbs, trip and
fppa0218 reserve fuel 180 lbs, taxi fuel 5 lbs, maximum take-off weight 2580 lbs. The
maximum ramp weight is:-
With reference to Figure 2-3: CG Range and Weight of the Aeroplane Manual.
fppa0220 Empty weight 1490 lbs, CG 84.7 inches, pilot and instructor 350 lbs located at
77.8 inches, fuel 180 lbs located at 93 inches. The aeroplane:-
Aeroplane empty weight 1490 lbs, CG 84.7 inches, pilot and front passenger 350
fppa0221 lbs located at 77.8 inches, fuel 210 lbs located at 93 inches, aft passenger 100 lbs
located at 116.6 inches, no baggage. The loaded CG of the aeroplane is:-

A loaded aircraft's CG is 91.0", weight 2400 lbs. A passenger weighing 160 lbs
located in a front seat (arm 77.8") changes place with a passenger weighing 100
fppa0224
lbs located in a rear seat (arm 116.6"), the pilot loads an additional 50 lbs of fuel
(arm 93.0”). The new CG is:-

With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 500 ft,
fppa0240
Weight 2400 lbs, temperature +10°C, the required ground roll is:-

With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 4000 ft,
fppa0241 Weight 2400 lbs, temperature +15°C, the take-off distance required to clear 50 ft
is:-
With reference to Figure 1-24: Landing Distance. Weight 2400 lbs, airfield
fppa0256 elevation 2650 ft, QNH 1018 hPa, temperature +24°C, the landing distance to
clear 50 ft is:-
Aeroplane empty weight 1380 lbs, CG 84.5 inches, pilot and front passenger 310
fppa0266 lbs located at 77.8 inches, fuel 275 lbs located at 94 inches, aft passenger 80 lbs
located at 116.5 inches, no baggage. The loaded CG of the aeroplane is:-

Runway length 1020 metres, stopway 30 metres. The landing distance available
fppa0284
is:-

Runway length 1150 metres, stopway 30 metres, displaced threshold 25 metres.

fppa0286
The landing distance available is:-

fppa0287 The presence of a permanently displaced threshold:-

fppa0288 The presence of a stopway:-

Runway 31 threshold 725 ft, Runway 13 threshold 800 ft, length 3400 ft. The
fppa0292
percentage slope of runway 13 is:-

With reference to Figure 1-4: Flaps Up Take-off Performance. Airfield elevation

fppa0305 4090 ft, QNH 1016 hPa, OAT -2°C, weight 2360 lbs, zero wind. The take-off
distance required over a 50 ft barrier is approximately:-
 With reference to Figure 1-6. 25° Flaps Take-off Performance. Airfield elevation
fppa0309 1410 ft, QNH 1010 hPa, temperature +24°C, weight 2340 lbs, 7 kts headwind.
The take-off distance required over a 50 ft barrier is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-8: Time, Distance and Fuel to Climb. Departure
fppa0314 airfield elevation 2410 ft, QNH 1010 hPa, temperature ISA, cruise pressure
altitude 8500 ft,
With reference to Figure 1-10: Speed Power - Performance Cruise. Pressure
fppa0326 altitude 2 500 ft, temperature ISA +4°C, groundspeed 111 kts, headwind 9 kts.
The % power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-11: Speed Power - Economy Cruise. Pressure altitude
fppa0330
4 000 ft, temperature is standard, TAS 110 kts. The % power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-12: Range – Performance Cruise. Pressure altitude 4

fppa0338 000 ft, temperature ISA +5°C, the range with no reserve is 620 nm. The % power
is:-
An aircraft flies from A to B, distance 225 nm, GS 100 kts, fuel flow 8.5 USG/hr.
fppa0377 Taxi, take-off and climb fuel is 3.3 USG. If the total fuel on board is 35 USG, the
reserve fuel is:-

fppa0381 Aquaplaning is more likely to occur on a wet runway at:-

fppa0382 A factor which may increase the possibility of aquaplaning is:-

fppa0383 The basic empty weight of an aircraft is:-

The empty weight of an aircraft including unusable fuel, full oil and fixed
fppa0397
equipment is referred to as:-

With reference to Figure 1-23: Cruise Performance Table. Pressure altitude 3000
fppa0403
ft, 2400 RPM. The fuel flow is:-

With reference to Figure 1-23: Cruise Performance Table. Pressure altitude 5000
fppa0405
ft, 2500 RPM. The % BHP is:-

With reference to Figure 1-23: Cruise Performance Table. Pressure altitude 5000
fppa0407
ft, RPM 2400, the range is:-

With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 1000 ft,
fppa0411 Weight 2400 lbs, temperature +10°C, 5 kt headwind. The take-off distance
required to clear 50 ft is:-
With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 4500 ft,
fppa0414 Weight 2400 lbs, temperature +10°C, dry, grass runway, zero wind. The take-off
distance required to clear 50 ft is:-
 With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 5000 ft,
fppa0415 Weight 2400 lbs, temperature +30°C, dry, grass runway, 5 kts headwind. The
take-off distance required to clear 50 ft is:-
With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 3000 ft,
fppa0416 Weight 2400 lbs, temperature +10°C, dry, grass runway, 2 kts tailwind. The take-
off distance required to clear 50 ft is:-
With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 5000 ft,
fppa0420 Weight 2400 lbs, temperature +15°C, dry, grass runway, 10 kts headwind. The
required ground roll is:-

With reference to Figure 1-23: Cruise Performance Table. Pressure altitude 5000
ft, RPM 2400, the range is:-
 Right

89.0"

87.7"

moved forward

1500 ft

increasing the density altitude

2490 RPM

2380 RPM

117 kts

103 kts
 25 minutes

54 KIAS

48 KIAS

48 KIAS

48.5 KIAS

476 lbs

148 litres

109 kts

120 kts

plus crew, passengers, baggage

and any cargo

37 minutes

is the maximum take-off weight

of the aircraft plus taxi fuel
 includes the stopway

1550 metres

24.8

19.5

7.5 USG/hr

attempt to land after the point

at which the heavy aircraft
landed

1290 ft

1.16% up
 2585 lbs

may be operated in the utility

category

85.87 inches

885 ft

2265 ft

86.01 inches

1020 metres

reduces the landing distance

available

will not affect the landing

distance available

2.2% down

1700 ft
 0.75

0.65

0.65

high groundspeeds

under-inflated tyres

the empty weight of an aircraft

including unusable fuel, full oil
and fixed equipment

the basic empty weight

7.5 gph

2428 ft
2650 ft

2306 ft

1223 ft
Database Question

LAW0002 “Day” is the period between:-

The period of validity of a Class 2 medical for a private pilot under the age of 40
LAW0003
is:-

LAW0004 A private pilot may act as co-pilot on an aircraft:-

LAW0008 No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft:-

For an aeroplane flying VFR in uncontrolled airspace between 1 500 ft and 5 000
LAW0017
ft above the ground by day, the required weather minima is:-

Unless otherwise directed by ATC, compliance with the semi-circular rule is

LAW0022
required for all flights operating above:-

An aircraft which is following a railway line within one nautical mile shall, unless
LAW0024
otherwise instructed by ATC:-

The minimum height at which an aircraft may fly across an aerodrome without
LAW0028
conforming to the traffic pattern is:-

The visual ground signal as shown in figure below, when displayed in the signal
LAW0029
area at an aerodrome indicates that:-

LAW0031 "Night" is the period between:-

LAW0033 No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft:-

A private pilot, who is not the holder of an instrument rating, may not act as a
LAW0034 flight crew member if, prior to each flight, their flight time exceeds, or is likely to
exceed:-

The take-off visibility required for an aeroplane on a VFR flight departing from an
LAW0035
Aerodrome Traffic Zone is:-

The navigation and associated equipment required for aircraft operated under
LAW0037
VFR includes:-
 Unless instructed to do otherwise by an ATSU, an aircraft flying at or below 1500
LAW0040
ft above the surface following a line feature:-

LAW0043 To an aircraft on the ground at an aerodrome, a series of red flashes shall mean:-

The symbol indicated in figure below, when displayed in a signal area indicates
LAW0045
that:-

An aircraft is to maintain a track of 344° (T), drift 6° right, Variation 20° W, high
LAW0046 ground 4300 ft above sea level. The most appropriate VFR flight level to be used
is:-
Except with the prior written approval of the Commissioner, no aircraft shall
LAW0047 circle over, or do repeated flights over an open-air assembly of persons at a
height less than:-

LAW0049 The mass and centre of gravity of an aircraft must be established at least:-

If an intercepting aircraft, rocking its wings, appears in front and to the right of
LAW0051
an intercepted aircraft, this means:-

The pilot-in-command of an aircraft may propose an amendment to an air traffic

LAW0052
control clearance. The amendment:-

For an aircraft to be operated by day, a serviceable rotating beacon or strobe

LAW0055
light:-

A pilot-in-command, subject to ATC approval, may conduct special VFR flight

LAW0056
operations:-

Every VFR flight shall be so conducted that the aircraft is flown with visual
LAW0057
reference to the surface and at no time above more than:-

When two heavier-than-air aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the

LAW0058
purpose of landing the:-

A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, carrying a passenger by

LAW0061
night, unless such pilot has carried out at least:-

LAW0065 A night rating is valid for:-

A applicant for an aeroplane night flight rating shall have completed not less
LAW0069
than:-
 "Date of application" when used in connection with the issuing, renewal or
LAW0076
reissuing of a licence, certificate or rating means:-

No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft if, prior to each flight,
LAW0079
the flight time exceeds or is likely to exceed:-

No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft if, prior to each flight,
LAW0080
the flight time exceeds or is likely to exceed:-

The signal shown in figure below, when displayed in the signal area of an
LAW0082
aerodrome indicates:-

LAW0083 An aircraft which is taxying across the apron:-

The holder of a medical certificate who is unable to comply with the appropriate
LAW0085
medical requirements and standards of the certificate:-

When operating outside of an aerodrome circuit area, an aircraft which is

LAW0087
overtaking a slower aircraft at the same height and heading:-

Unless otherwise authorised by an ATSU, for a flight departing into controlled or

LAW0088
advisory airspace an air traffic service flight plan must be filed at least:-

LAW0089 A record of each fuel and oil uplift must be kept:-

A pilot-in-command may conduct special VFR operations, subject to ATC

LAW0090
approval, within a:-

LAW0091 An aircraft flight folio must be retained by the owner or operator for a period of:-

In terms of the Civil Aviation Regulations, an air traffic service flight plan must be
LAW0092
filed for:-

Prior to undergoing the revalidation skill test a private pilot must have flown a
LAW0096
minimum of:-

LAW0099 The applicant for a private pilot licence must undergo the skill test within:-

An incident involving an aircraft within the Republic shall be reported as soon as

LAW0104
possible to the:-
 The pilot-in-command, surviving an accident involving an aircraft within the
LAW0105
Republic, shall report such accident as soon as possible to the:-
If because of duty in a State or territory outside the Republic, deferral of the
issuing of a South African medical certificate for a private pilot has to be made,
LAW0106
such deferral shall, subject to an acceptable medical report being obtained
locally, not exceed -
If because of duty in a State or territory outside the Republic, deferral of the
issuing of a South African medical certificate for a private pilot has to be made,
LAW0106
such deferral shall, subject to an acceptable medical report being obtained
locally, not exceed -
The pilot-in-command of a non-pressurised aircraft shall ensure that breathing
LAW0107 oxygen is available for passengers and crew for all flights between 10 000 ft and
12 000 ft:-

LAW0109 An air traffic service flight plan shall be filed for:-

In an aircraft in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses which must be
LAW0110
carried is equal to at least:-

An aerodrome that is not equipped with night flying facilities may not be used by
LAW0112
an aircraft to take-off and land by night:-

In terms of the Civil Aviation Regulations, an air traffic service flight plan must be
LAW0115
filed for:-

LAW0118 A pilot may fly through a declared restricted area provided that:-

For flights conducted in accordance with Part 91, or flying training, operations
LAW0120
the relevant entries in a pilot's logbook must be made within:-

In order to change to another type of aeroplane, not previously flown, within

LAW0122
one class rating:

Unless two-way communication has already been established, the frequency to

LAW0124
be used by an intercepted aircraft and the intercepting aircraft is:-

An aircraft, operating VFR, is maintaining a track of 359° (M). Another aircraft,

LAW0126
also VFR, is maintaining a track of 180° (M). The two aircraft:-

Away from built-up areas or open-air assemblies of persons, the minimum height
LAW0128
at which an aircraft may be flown is:-

Information regarding the latest restricted areas which may affect flights may be
LAW0133
found:-
LAW0134 "Cloud ceiling" means:-

LAW0136 An applicant for a night rating must have completed:-

An applicant for a private pilot licence (aeroplane) who is also the holder of a
LAW0137
glider pilot licence may:

LAW0139 To an aircraft in the air at an aerodrome a series of white flashes means:-

LAW0144 Electronic logbooks may be used to record flight time, provided that:

LAW0148 An aircraft which has been involved in an accident may be moved:-

LAW0150 The equipment required in an aircraft to be operated by night includes:-

The holder of a pilot licence must submit to the Commissioner a certified copy of
LAW0200
the summary of his or her logbook at least:-

A licence holder must notify the Commissioner of any change of postal address
LAW0202
within:-
 Common Answer Right

15 minutes before sunrise to 15 15 minutes before sunrise to 15

minutes after sun minutes after sunset

twenty four months twenty four months

on which a co-pilot is not a on which a co-pilot is not a

requirement requirement

within 72 hours following blood within 72 hours following blood

donation donation

5 km visibility distance from cloud: 2

5 km visibility distance from cloud: 2
000 ft horizontally and 500 ft
000 ft ho
vertically

1 500 ft AGL 1 500 ft AGL

if flying at or below 1500 ft AGL fly to if flying at or below 1500 ft AGL fly to
the rig the right of the railway line

2000 ft. 2000 ft.

landings are prohibited landings are prohibited

15 minutes after sunset to 15 15 minutes after sunset to 15

minutes before sunr minutes before sunrise

within 72 hours of blood donation within 72 hours of blood donation

100 hours during the preceding 30 1000 hours during the preceding 12
days. months

5 km 5 km

an airspeed indicator and a clock or an airspeed indicator and a clock or

watch showing the time in hours watch showing the time in hours
minutes and seconds minutes and seconds
 shall fly to the right of the line shall fly to the right of the line
feature feature

taxi clear of landing area in use taxi clear of landing area in use

aircraft are required to land take-off

aircraft are required to land take-off
and taxi on runways and taxiways
and taxi
only

FL075. FL075.

3000 ft above the surface 3000 ft above the surface

every 5 years every 5 years

“follow me to a landing terrain” “follow me to a landing terrain”

may not be applied by the pilot may not be applied by the pilot
without ATC appro without ATC approval

is required is not required

within a CTR with a cloud ceiling of at

within a CTR with a cloud ceiling of at
least 600 ft and visibility at least 1
least 60
500 m

3/8 of cloud within a radius of 5 nm 3/8 of cloud within a radius of 5 nm

of the aircr of the aircraft

the aircraft at the lower level has the aircraft at the lower level has
right of way right of way

three take-offs and landings by night

three take-offs and landings by night
within the 90 days immediately
within the
preceding the flight

as long as the pilot licence of the

12 months
holder of the rating is valid
10 hours of instrument flight time at
10 hours of instrument flight time at least 5 take-offs and 5 landings by
least 5 tak night and a dual night cross country
of not less than 150 nm
 the date on which the application is
the date on which the application is
received in the prescribed form by
received in
the Commissioner

400 hours during the preceding 90 400 hours during the preceding 90
days days

1000 hours during the preceding 12 1000 hours during the preceding 12
months. months.

shall give right of way to a vehicle shall give right of way to a vehicle
which is tow which is towing an aircraft

must furnish proof to the designated

may not exercise the privileges of the medical body or institution that he or
licence un she has recovered from the decrease
in medical fitness.

shall pass the aircraft on the right shall pass the aircraft on the right

30 minutes before departure 30 minutes before departure

in the aircraft flight folio. in the aircraft flight folio.

control zone (CTR) control zone (CTR)

5 years calculated from the date of 5 years calculated from the date of
the last entr the last entry therein.

a flight from a manned aerodrome to

a flight from a manned aerodrome to an aerodrome traffic zone where no
an aerodrome other controlled or advisory airspace
will be entered during the flight

3 hours as pilot-in command in the 3 hours as pilot-in command in the

preceding 6 mon preceding 6 months

6 months of passing the theoretical 6 months of passing the theoretical

knowledge exam knowledge examinations

Commissioner or an air traffic service Commissioner or an air traffic service

unit unit
 Commissioner Commissioner

two consecutive periods each of two consecutive periods each of

three months three months

two consecutive periods each of

a single period of six months
three months

in excess of 120 minutes. in excess of 120 minutes.

a flight between two aerodrome

a flight from an unmanned traffic zones even though no
aerodrome to an aerodro controlled or advisory airspace will be
entered en route

10% or three whichever is the

5% or three whichever is the greater
greater.

unless the pilot-in-command is

except in an emergency
familiar with the

a flight crossing an international

a flight crossing an FIR boundary boundary even though no landings
will be made

permission from the appropriate permission from the appropriate

authority is obta authority is obtained

7 days 7 days

the pilot must undergo differences or the pilot must undergo differences or
familiarisat familiarisation training

1215 MHz 1215 MHz

could be at the same flight level. could be at the same flight level.

1000 ft above the highest obstacle

500 ft above the ground or water
within 2000 ft

in the latest AIP AIP SUP AIC's and in the latest AIP AIP SUP AIC's and
NOTAMS. NOTAMS.
 the height above the surface of the
the height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below
base of the l 20000 feet covering more than half
the sky
10 hours of instrument instruction of
10 hours of instrument instruction of which not more than 5 hours may
which not mo have been acquired in an approved
FSTD.
be credited with a maximum of 10
be credited with a maximum of 10
glider hours towards the issue of the
glider hours towa
private pilot licence.

land at this aerodrome and proceed land at this aerodrome and proceed
to the apron to the apron

the data is printed on paper at least the data is printed on paper at least
every 90 day every 90 days

only if authority to move it has been only if authority to move it has been
granted by granted by the investigator in charge.

an electrical torch for each crew an electrical torch for each crew
member member

every 12 months every 12 months

14 days 14 days
 Database Question

hpof0005 The angle of attack of an aerofoil is defined as the angle:-

As the angle of attack of an aerofoil is increased, the centre of pressure

hpof0015
will:-

With reference to the lift formula. If the speed is doubled whilst the angle
hpof0022
of attack remains constant, the lift will:-

hpof0026 A design feature which is used to reduce induced drag is:-

hpof0029 Washout is incorporated in some blade designs in order to:-

hpof0044 The effect of blow-back (flap-back) is to:-

hpof0045 The coning angle is determined:-

hpof0049 In a turn, rotor thrust need to overcome:

hpof0053 Rotor drag (rotor torque) is that force which acts:-

When a helicopter, maintaining a constant height above ground whilst

hpof0057
hovering, is subjected to translational lift:-

hpof0061 The correct method of recovering from retreating blade stall is to:-

Translating tendency in a helicopter with anti-clockwise rotating rotor

hpof0064
blades is corrected by:-

When power is applied, a helicopter with an anti-clockwise rotating main

hpof0065
rotor will tend to:-

hpof0070 Lowering the collective lever will:-

hpof0086 Lead-lagging (dragging) is:-

hpof0090 Lateral stability in a helicopter refers to stability in the:-

hpof0092 During autorotation:-

hpof0097 If high rotor RPM is experienced during autorotation from high altitude:-

hpof0098 Directional stability in a helicopter refers to stability in the:-

hpof0101 The effect of the driven, or propeller region during autorotation is to:-

hpof0110 The effect on a helicopter's performance of an increase in humidity is:-

With reference to the figure below, when the cyclic control is operated so
hpof0125 as to create an increase in the pitch angle of the rotor blade in position B,
the rotor disc will:-

As the angle of bank during a level turn is increased, additional engine

hpof0129
power must be applied in order to:-

hpof0134 Rectified airspeed (RAS) or Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:-

If you need to descend quickly (another aircraft coming toward you),

hpof0162
what's the best way to do so?
hpof0164 In comparison to a straight climb, during a climbing turn:-

pof0041 During a straight climb at a constant speed:-

 Common Answer Right

between the chord line and the between the chord line and the
relative airflow relative airflow

move forward move forward

be four times greater be four times greater

washout. washout.

reduce induced drag reduce induced drag

reduce the helicopter's forward reduce the helicopter's forward

speed speed

by the combined effect of the by the combined effect of the

centripetal force and the rotor rotor thrust and centrifugal
thrust force.
vertical component of lift and
centripetal/centrifugal
force/gross weight
in the plane of rotation and
perpendicular to the relative
opposite to the direction of
airflow
blade travel.

the collective lever must be the collective lever must be

lowered to maintain height lowered to maintain height

lower the collective lower the collective

applying the left anti-torque

moving the cyclic to the left
pedal.

yaw to the right which must be yaw to the right which must be
corrected with the left pedal corrected with the left pedal

simultaneously decrease the simultaneously decrease the

blade angle all the rotor blades blade angle all the rotor blades
by the same amount by the same amount
the forward or aft movement of the forward or aft movement of
a blade in the plane of rotation a blade in the plane of rotation

rolling plane rolling plane

collective is used to control collective is used to control

rotor RPM rotor RPM

the collective pitch lever should the collective pitch lever should
be raised to reduce it be raised to reduce it

yawing plane. yawing plane.

produce rotor drag which

provide a good rotational force.
opposes the rotor RPM

to decrease the lift to decrease the lift

tilt aft tilt left

compensate for the increased

counter the increased
induced drag because of greater
centrifugal force
blade angles

TAS corrected for instrument IAS corrected for instrument

and position errors. and position errors

Cyclic forward, Collective down,

Reduce engine power
the rate of climb will remain the
the rate of climb will reduce
same.

lift is greater than weight lift is less than weight

 Database Question

A loaded helicopter's CG is 96.4", weight 2100 lbs, MAUW 2150 lbs. One
passenger weighing 180 lbs seated in the rear (arm 86.6") disembarks. The
fpph0004
pilot decides to add an additional 10 USG of fuel, SW 6 lbs/USG, (arm 94.0").
The new CG is:-

A loaded helicopter's CG is 97.3", weight 2150 lbs. During flight the aircraft
fpph0005
will burn off 165 lbs of fuel (arm 94.0"). The landing CG is:-

A loaded helicopter's CG is 93.0", weight 1950 lbs. A late passenger, weighing

175 lbs is seated in a rear seat (arm 86.6"), 30 lbs of baggage is loaded into
fpph0010
the forward baggage compartment (arm 70.5"), MAUW 2180 lbs. The new CG
is:-

The floor loading of a helicopter's baggage compartment is 40 kg/sq m. The

fpph0012 maximum weight which can be evenly loaded in an area measuring 0.6 m x
0.5 m is:-

The floor loading of a helicopter's baggage compartment is 15 lbs/sq ft. The

fpph0014 maximum weight which can be evenly loaded in an area measuring 2 ft x 1.5
ft is:-

A decrease in a helicopter's take-off and climb performance can be expected

fpph0018
when there is:-

fpph0021 Airfield elevation 1800 ft, QNH 1010. The pressure altitude is:-

fpph0023 The symbol Vy is used to indicate the:-

If the temperature at pressure altitude 9500 ft is ISA +7°C the outside air
fpph0027
temperature is:-

With reference to Figure 1-1: Airspeed System Calibration of the Helicopter

fpph0034 Performance Manual. Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) 100 kts, the Indicated
Airspeed (IAS) is approximately:-
 With reference to Figure 1-1: Airspeed System Calibration of the Helicopter
fpph0040 Performance Manual. Indicated Airspeed (IAS) 97 kts, the Calibrated Airspeed
(CAS) is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-2: Density Altitude Chart of the Helicopter

fpph0049 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 2500 ft, temperature ISA +20° C, the
density altitude is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-4: IGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the
fpph0054 Helicopter Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 3500 ft, temperature +25°
C, the gross weight is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-4: IGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the
fpph0055 Helicopter Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 2500 ft, temperature +25°
C, the gross weight is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-4: IGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the
fpph0059 Helicopter Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 2500 ft, gross weight 2270
lbs. The maximum allowable temperature is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the
fpph0062 Helicopter Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 2000 ft, temperature +20°
C, the gross weight is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the
fpph0066 Helicopter Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, gross weight 1900
lbs, the maximum allowable temperature is:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the
fpph0067 Helicopter Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 3000 ft, gross weight 2050
lbs, the maximum allowable temperature for hovering is:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the
fpph0068 Helicopter Performance Manual. Gross weight 1950 lbs, the maximum
pressure altitude for lift off on a standard day is:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the
fpph0069 Helicopter Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 1500 ft, temperature ISA
+19° C, the gross weight is:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the
fpph0070 Helicopter Performance Manual. Helipad elevation 2800 ft, QNH 1023, gross
weight 2150 lbs, the maximum allowable temperature for lift off is:-
 With reference to Figure 1-6: Airspeed Limitations (VNE) of the Helicopter
fpph0071 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, temperature +30° C, the Vne
is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-6: Airspeed Limitations (VNE) of the Helicopter

fpph0075 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 5500 ft, the maximum temperature
for a Vne of 105 KIAS is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-6: Airspeed Limitations (VNE) of the Helicopter

fpph0080 Performance Manual. Temperature 0° C, Vne 108 KIAS, the pressure altitude
is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-7: Maximum Normal Operating Speed (VNO) of

fpph0089 the Helicopter Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 6000 ft, temperature
ISA -3° C, the Vno is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-8: Maximum Continuous Power of the Helicopter

fpph0092 Performance Manual. Outside air temperature +35° C, pressure altitude 2000
ft. The manifold pressure for maximum continuous power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-8: Maximum Continuous Power of the Helicopter

fpph0095 Performance Manual. Outside air temperature +25° C, pressure altitude 4000
ft. The manifold pressure for maximum continuous power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-8: Maximum Continuous Power of the Helicopter

fpph0096 Performance Manual. Outside air temperature +25° C, pressure altitude 2000
ft. The manifold pressure for maximum take-off power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-8: Maximum Continuous Power of the Helicopter

fpph0099 Performance Manual. Outside air temperature +25° C, pressure altitude 1000
ft. The manifold pressure for maximum continuous power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-9: Autorotational Performance of the Helicopter

Performance Manual. A helicopter is carrying out an autorotation from a
fpph0103
pressure altitude of 6500 ft to a pressure altitude of 1500 ft. The horizontal
distance covered during the descent is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-9: Autorotational Performance of the Helicopter

Performance Manual. A helicopter is carrying out an autorotation from a
fpph0104
pressure altitude of 8000 ft to a pressure altitude of 4000 ft. The horizontal
distance covered during the descent is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-3: Wind Component Graph, of the Helicopter

Performance Manual. The angle between the runway and the wind direction
fpph0111
is 30° and the wind speed is 20 knots. The crosswind component is
approximately:-
 With reference to Figure 1-3: Wind Component Graph, of the Helicopter
Performance Manual. The angle between the runway and the wind direction
fpph0113
is 60° and the wind speed is 25 knots. The crosswind component is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-3: Wind Component Graph, of the Helicopter

Performance Manual. The angle between the runway and the wind direction
fpph0115
is 20° and the wind speed is 15 knots. The crosswind component is
approximately:-

After loading passengers and baggage the pilot has 175 lbs available for fuel.
fpph0121
If the SG is 0.71 the volume of fuel in USG which can be loaded is:-

fpph0122 SG 0.73, fuel weight 105 kg. The volume of fuel in US Gallons is:-

fpph0126 SG 0.71, fuel weight 240 lbs. The volume of fuel in litres is:-

fpph0127 34 USG of fuel, SG 0.72. The weight of the fuel in lbs is:-

A helicopter achieves a performance of 12 ground nautical miles/USG. If the

fpph0131
fuel flow is 48 lbs per hour (SW 6lbs/USG) the groundspeed is:-

A helicopter achieves a performance of 3.5 air nautical miles/litre, fuel flow is

fpph0135
8.5 USG/hr, tailwind component 7 kts. The groundspeed is:-

A helicopter has a total moment of 182465 (lbs/inches) with a centre of

fpph0137
gravity of 94.5 inches. The weight of the aircraft is:-

A helicopter has consumed 18.5 USG at 7.3 USG/hr, GS 100. The distance
fpph0145
flown is:-

The floor loading of a helicopter's baggage compartment is 20 lbs/sq ft. The

fpph0161 maximum weight which can be loaded in a box measuring 2 ft x 2 ft and
weighing 12 lbs is:-
 A helicopter in level flight covers a distance of 158 nm at a groundspeed of 95
fpph0171
kts, consuming 12.5 USG. The fuel flow is:-

During the climb out after lift-off a helicopter encounters a sudden decrease
fpph0179
in the headwind component. The helicopter:-

In order to avoid the wake turbulence when landing behind a heavy aircraft
fpph0186
which has just taken off, a lighter aircraft should:-

In order to avoid the wake turbulence whilst following a heavy aircraft during
fpph0187
the approach to land, a lighter aircraft should:-

fpph0191 The symbol Vne is used to define the:-

fpph0193 The total weight of a loaded helicopter may be determined by:-

fpph0169 A helicopter burns 18 USG of fuel in 2 hours 18 minutes. The fuel flow is:-

fpph0190 The symbol Vno is used to define the:-

 Common Answer Right

98.32" 97.22"

97.57" 97.57"

92.55" 92.17"

12.0 kg 12.0 kg

35 lbs 30 lbs

a high temperature combined a high temperature combined

with a high density al with a high density altitude

1890 ft 1890 ft

best rate of climb speed best rate of climb speed

+3°C +3°C

104 kts 104 kts

 97 kts 94 kts

4800 ft 4500 ft

2180 lbs 2180 lbs

2300 lbs 2260 lbs

+20 °C +20 °C

2100 lbs 2100 lbs

+25° C +15° C

+20° C +15° C

5000 ft 5000 ft

2150 lbs 2100 lbs

+25° C, +25° C,
106 KIAS 106 KIAS

+30° C +30° C

7500 ft 7500 ft

106 KIAS 106 KIAS

23.7” 23.7”

22.9” 22.9”

23.4” 24.5”

23.6” 23.6”

3.5 nm 3.5 nm

2.75 nm 2.75 nm

10 kts 10 kts
 22 kts 22 kts

5 kts 5 kts

29.5 USG 29.5 USG

33 USG 38 USG

153 litres 153 litres

204 lbs 204 lbs

100 kts 96 kts

106 kts 120 kts

1931 lbs 1931 lbs

253 nm 253 nm

78 lbs 68 lbs
 7.5 USG/hr 7.5 USG/hr

will start to overshoot will start to undershoot

attempt to land before the

attempt to land before the
point where the heavy aircraft
point where the heavy a
lifted off

remain above the heavier

remain below the heavier aircraft’s flight path and land
aircraft’s flight path after the point at which the
heavy aircraft landed

never exceed speed never exceed speed

dividing the total moment by dividing the total moment by

the centre of gravity the centre of gravity

7.8 USG/hr 7.8 USG/hr

maximum structural cruising maximum structural cruising

speed at which a helicopter speed at which a helicopter
may be flown may be flown
 C
o
m
m
o
n
Database Question
A
n
s
What the 'distress' signal? w
e
r
Which airspace has the following separation rules? IFR flights are separated from
IFR and VFR VFR is separated from IFR VFR receives traffic information about
other VFR

In class C airspace. . .

How long is a flight plan that has not being activated, valid for?

What is the meaning of the phrase "Acknowledge"?

Choose the correct order

What is the abbreviation for a Control Area?

What direction is the wind related to, when it's direction is given from the
tower?

What is the callsign for the "Area Control Centre" unit/service?

How soon must a flight plan be filed, when not in flight?

If intercepted by another aircraft that is rocking its wings and to the right you
you, it means. . .

On what altimeter setting will you fly at or below the transition altitude?

If a marshaller has his arms above his head in a vertical position it means. . .

How much visibility do you require for VFR in a CTR/ATC/ATA?

When are the altimeter setting procedures found in AIC 20-2 applicable?

If you lose radio communications, how many times must you transmit 'blind'
transmissions?

What quality would a strength 5 transmission be?

What does QNH refer to?

What keyword is used when you fix an error in a transmission?

A horizontal white or orange T indicates?

If intercepted by another aircraft that is rocking its wings and to the left you you,
it means. . .

What is The meaning of the phrase "Go Ahead"?

What is the transponder code for an emergency?

What squawk code is used to indicate radio failure

What is the 'urgency' signal?

What quality would a strength 3 transmission be?

When must you notify ATC when your ETA's change?

SAR/Normal

What will the altimeter show when QNE is set?

What keyword is used when you fix an error in a transmission?

The semi-circular rule shall apply when flying at...

What does QFE refer to?

When must the IDENT button be used?

A horizontal white or orange T indicates?

When flying 1 500ft or higher, what will you indicated your intended height with
on a flight plan?

What will the altimeter show when QNH is set?

Choose the correct order

The VHF Navigation band is. . .

What will the altimeter show when QNH is set?

Which one of the following is correct?

What type of airspace my only be entered with permission?

If you required assistance, what letter would you lay your signal strips to look
like.

What is the callsign for the "Aerodrome Control" unit/service

For which airports may SAR/Normal be filed?

The equipment on board you aircraft is: VHF RT/F, ADF, VOR ILS and mode C
transponder. What would you put on the flight plan under equipment?

What is the meaning of the phrase "Acknowledge"?

When are the altimeter setting procedures found in AIC 20-2 applicable?

What would you squawk if your radio fails?

What does QFE refer to?

What is the meaning of the word AFFIRM

When flying 1 500ft or higher, what will you indicated your intended height with
on a flight plan?

What is a 'distress' condition?

Where is flight level zero?

What does QNE refer to?

What is The meaning of the phrase "Go Ahead"?

What is the callsign for the "Aerodrome Flight Information Service" unit/service?

If a marshaller has his arms above his head in a vertical position it means. . .

On what altimeter setting will you fly at or below the transition altitude?

If a marshaller has his arms extended, bent at the elbows and is moving them up
and down from chest height to head height it means. . .
How soon must a flight plan be filed, when in flight?

What is the direction is a standard circuit?

What is the meaning of the phrase "Confirm"?

What type of airspace may never be entered?

What is the transponder code for unlawful interference?

What keyword is used when you fix an error in a transmission?

A white dumb-bell displayed in a signal area at an airfield means. . .

On what altimeter setting will you fly at or below the transition altitude?

ow much visibility do you require for VFR in a CTR/ATC/ATA?

Which one of the following is correct?

If a marshaller has his arms extended sideways and is slowly moving them up to
his head until they cross, it means. . .

What is the abbreviation for a Control Area?

Which airspace only allows IFR flights?

If a marshaller has his arms above his head in a vertical position it means. . .

What keyword is used when you fix an error in a transmission?

Alerting services is provided by ATSUs to all aircraft requiring

For a flight requiring an ATS Flight plan, at least how long prior to departure
must the flight plan be filled

referring to the picture above, FAR082 has an upper limit of

Select the correct statement

Select the correct order of priority (most to least) for the categories of the
messages below:
1. Flight regularity messages
2. metereological messages
3. flight safty messages
4. direction finding messages
5. urgency messages
6. distress messages

in accordance with the geodetic reference system, to convert Local South African
time to UTC, one must

The route designator R987D found on an aeronautical chart indicates

Standard equipment "S" as entered in item 10 of an ATS flight plan represents

which of the following

in VMC, flights intended to land at a point beyond 25nm from any aerodrome
with a published transition altitude must observe a height of

An aircraft with QNH Set on its altimeter, will have its vertical position indicated
as

Which of the following would be classifies as a Clas A airspace

Select the correct defenition which refers to the stadard setting of 1013.2 hpa

an aircraft with a standard altimeter setting set on subscale window, will have its
vertical position indicated as
Select the 3 official Search and Rescue phases

The defenition of "Classes of airspace" within the Republic can be found in

Select a factor affecting the range of VHF transmissions

Which of the following would be classified as Class C Airspace

A pilot on a VFR Cross Country flight to a controlled aerodrome, experiences

radio failure outside of a controlled airspace, unless otherwise published in the
AIP, the pilot should

The term "Confirm" used in radiotelephony is best described as meaning that

If Search and Rescue was requested on a ATS Flight plan to an uncontrolled

aerodrome, when will the Search and rescue be cancelled

when is it mandatory to file an ATS Flight Plan

select the mandatory reporting points in a circuit at acontrolled airfield

when should a pilot change the altimiter setting from the local QNH to
1013.25hpa

when can SAR/NORMAL be indicated in item 18 of a flight plan

The term "VHF" refers to which of the following

in an attempt to correct a suspected radio failure, a pilot should check

Aerodrome Control shall be responsible for issuing information and instructions

to aircraft under its control in order to achieve

The semicircular rule is based on an aircraft flying a

Select the correct abbreviation for the following airspace:
Class C, controlled airspace established around an aerodrome for the
protection of IFR flights, which extends from ground level to a specific upper
limit

referring to the picture above, FAD129, has an upper limit of

An ATS flight plan needs to be ammended on flight when

Which of the following best describes an airspace where ATC may make use of
rader to provide positive control to aircraft

An ATS flight plan needs to be ammended on flight when

According to the AIP, when shall a pilot report position

As stated in the AIP, the official methods to file an ATS flight plan are via

When the number of passengers for your flight is not yet known at the time of
filing an ATS flight plan, which designator should you place in Item 19

The aeronautical abbreviation "FIR" denotes

When can SAR/NIL be indicated in item 18 of the flight plan

Select the correct abbreviation for the following airspace:

A controlled airspace which extends from a specific lower limit to a specific
upper limit and is normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the
viccinity of one or more major aerodromes
 Right

MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY

Class C

IFR flights are separated from IFR and VFR

60 minutes after estimated time of departure

Let me know that you have received and understood

this message.

Aviate - Navigate - Communicate

CTA

Magnetic

Control

30 minutes before departure

Follow me to a landing terrain

QNH

Park in this bay

5km
 All flights 1 500ft AGL and above

Twice

Perfectly readable

Height above mean sea level.

Correction

The take off and landing direction, which is along the

bar towards the crossbar.

Follow me away from a prohibited area

Proceed with your message

7700

7600

PAN-PAN-PAN

Readable with difficulty

A change of 3 min

Can only be filed for flights where the destination is

controlled

Pressure Altitude
 Correction

1 500ft AGL and above

Height above airfield elevation.

When instructed to do so by ATC.

The take off and landing direction, which is along the

bar towards the crossbar.

Flight levels

Altitude

Aviate - Navigate - Communicate

108 - 117.975 MHz

Altitude

You can use IFR in both VMC and IMC

Restricted

Tower

Controlled Airports
 S/C

Let me know that you have received and understood

this message.

All flights 1 500ft AGL and above

7600

Height above airfield elevation.

Yes

Flight levels

A condition of being threatened by serious and/or

imminent danger and/or requiring immediate
assistance.

1013.2hPa pressure level

Height above the 1013.2 pressure level.

Proceed with your message

Radio

Park in this bay

QNH

Move Straight Ahead

 10 minutes before entering controlled or advisory
airspace.

Left

Have I correctly received the following ...? or Did you

correctly receive the message?

Prohibited

7500

Correction

Aircraft may only use the runways and taxiways

QNH

5km

You can use IFR in both VMC and IMC

 Search and Rescua (SAR)

30 minutes

FL105

a VFR pilot flying on a magnetic of 090 may elect to fly

at FL075 to conform to the semi-circular rule

6,5,4,3,2,1

subtract 2 hours from local time to obtain UTC

an advisory route

VHF Radio, ILS, ADF, and VOR

3000ft as the transition level

Altitude

All controlled airspace FL200 and above

the altimetre subscale setting in hectopascals to obtain

flight levels

Flight Level
 Uncertainty, Alert and Distress phase

The AIP's and SARCARS

Aircraft Altitude

All controlled airspace below FL200

remain cleared of controlled airspace and land at an

unmanned aerodrome

I wish to verify the last transmission or instruction from

the transmitting party

When the pilot notifies ATC

for a flight for which alerting action is required

downwind and final approach

on the climb passing through the transition altitude for

that area

only when the destination is a controlled

Very High Frequency

The colume control, selected frequency, and aircraft

electrical system

A safe, orderly and expeditious flow of traffic

magnetic track
 CTR

7500ft AMSL

TAS changes by 5% or more

TMA

ETA changes by 3 mins or more

When flying in controlled advisory airspace or on a

flight for which alerting action is being provided

Telephone, facsmile or internet

TBN

Flight Information Region

only when the destination is an uncontrolled

TMA