SRI VISWA IIT & MEDICAL ACADEMY

VISAKHAPATNAM
LT.NEET NEET Date: 31-03-25
Time: 03:00Hrs PT-1 Max Marks: 720
PHYSICS
A
1. What are the dimensions of in the relation F = A x +Bt2, where F is the
B
force, x is distance and t is time
1) [ML2T–2] 2) [L–1/2T2] 3) [L–1/2T–1] 4) [LT–2]
2. Assertion: Power of a engine depends on mass, angular speed, torque and
angular momentum, then the formula of power is not derived with the help of
dimensional method
Reason: In mechanics, if a particular quantity depends on more than three
quantities, then we cannot derive the formula of the quantity by the help of
dimensional method
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
   
3. The diagonals of a parallelogram are represented by vectors P  5 i  4 j  3 k
   
and q  3 i  2 j  k Then the area of the parallelogram is
1) 6 unit 2) 24 unit 3) 6 unit 4) 24 unit
4. The main scale of a vernier calipers has n divisions per cm. n divisions of
the vernier scale coincide with (n – 1) divisions of main scale. The least
count of the vernier calipers is,
1 1 1 1
1) cm 2) cm 3) 2 cm 4) cm
n  1n  1 n n n n  1
5. A potential difference V = (100±5) V, when applied across a resistance,
gives a current I = (10 ± 0.2) A. What is the percentage error in R
1) 2% 2) 5% 3) 7% 4) 8%

6. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its
circular scale. The pitch of the screw gauge is
1) 0.01 mm 2) 0.25 mm 3) 0.5 mm 4) 1.0 mm
7. A number of bullets are fired in all possible directions with the same initial
velocity u . The
maximum area of ground covered by bullets is
2 2 2 2
 u2   u2  u  u 
1)    2)    3)    4)   
 g   2g   g   2g 
8. The average velocity from point of projection to maximum height of a
projectile is .......
u Cos 2  1 uSin u
1) 3Cos 2  1 2) u 3) 4) Cos 2  1
2 2 2 2 +
3
9. The displacement equation of parabola y  9 x  x 2 .The maximum height
4
reached by the projectile is
1) 3m 2) 27m 3) 20m 4) 16
1
10. Water drops fall from a tap on to the floor 5.0m below at regular intervals
of time. The first drop strikes the floor when the fifth drop beings to fall.
The height at which the third drop will be from ground, at the instant
when the first drop strikes the ground is (Take g = 10ms -2)
1) 1.25m 2) 2.15m 3) 2.75m 4) 3.75m
11. A bullet travelling horizontally looses 1/20 of its velocity while piercing a
th

wooden plank. Number of such planks required to stop the bullet is

1) 6 2) 9 3) 11 4) 13
12. If a body is released from certain height above the ground, in the last
second of its fall it covers half of the total distance travelled by it. Then
total time of its fall is

1) 2  2 s  
2) 2  2 s  3) 2 s 4) 4 s
13. A bottle of soda water is rotated in a vertical circle with the neck held in
hand. The air bubbles are collected
1) near the neck 2) near the bottom
3) at the middle 4) uniformly in the bottle
14. A body is moving in a vertical of radius r such that the string is just taut at
its highest point.
(i) The speed of the body at the highest point is gr
(ii) The speed of the body at the lowest point its 5gr
(iii) The speed of the body when the string is horizontal is 3gr
(iv) The tension in the string is maximum when the body is in the lowest
position.
(1) (i),(ii) (2) (i),(ii),(iii)
(3) (i),(ii),(iv) (4) All options are correct
15. Assertion: When a vehicle takes a turn on the road, it travels along a nearly
circular path.
Reason: In circular motion, velocity of vehicle remains same.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
16. A flywheel gains a speed of 540 r.p.m in 6 sec. Its angular acceleration will
be
1) 3  rad/sec2 2) 9  rad/sec2 3) 18  rad/sec2 4) 54  rad/sec2
17. For a projectile ‘R” is range and ‘H’ is maximum height
List - I List – II
a) R = H e) Angle of projection tan–1 (1)
b) R = 2H f) Angle of projection tan–1 (4)
c) R = 3H g) Angle of projection tan–1 (2)
d) R = 4H h) Angle of projection tan–1 (4 / 3)
1) a - g, b - h, c - e, d – f 2) a - h, b - g, c - e, d - f
3) a - f, b - g, c - h, d – e 4) a - e, b - g, c - f, d - h
18. A particle is dropped from certain height. The time taken by it to fall
through successive distances of 1 m each will be
1) All equal, being equal to 2 / g second
2) in the ratio of the square roots of the integers 1,2, 3, ...........
3) in the ratio of the difference in the square roots of the integers, i.e.,
1,  
2 1 , 
3 2 , 
4  3 ,.........

2
 4) in the ratio of the reciprocals of the square roots of the integers, i.e.,
1 1 1
, , .......
1 2 3
19. A body of mass m is projected at an angle θ to the horizontal with a
velocity V. The projectile at the highest point breaks into two fragments of
equal masses. One of the fragments retraces its path to the point of
projection. The velocity of the other fragment just after explosion is
(1) VCosθ (2) 2Cosθ (3) 3VCosθ (4) (3v / 2) Cosθ
20. A boy of mass 40 kg climbs up a rope with an acceleration of 4 ms −2. What
is the tension in the rope? (g = 10m / s2)
(1) 480 N (2) 435 N (3) 232 N (4) 560 N
21. A block of mass 2 kg is pulled by a force of 4 N applied to the pulley as
shown in the figure. The acceleration of the block and tension in the string
(if pulley is massless) are

(1) 1ms–2, 4N (2) 2ms–2, 2N (3) 2ms–2, 4N (4) 1ms–2, 2N

22. The force F in newton acting on a bullet is given by F = 6 – 2t where t is in
seconds. The net impulse imparted to the bullet in first three seconds is
(1) 3 Ns (2) 6 Ns (3) 9 Ns (4) 12 Ns
23. A cyclist moves in a circular track of radius 100 m. If the coefficient of
friction is 0.2, then the maximum velocity with which the cyclist can take
the turn with leaning inwards is
(1) 9.8 m/s (2) 1.4 m /s (3) 140 m/s (4) 14 m/s
24. The co-efficient of friction between a chain & a table is  . If a chain is
placed on a horizontal table so that a part of it is hanging from one end,
the minimum fraction of length of the chain that can be on the table, so
that the chain may not slip off is
 1
1) 2) 3) 1 4) Zero
 1 1 
25. A block of mass ‘m’ is kept on a frictional surface with '' the minimum
force ‘F’ to be applied as shown to move the block

 mg  mg
1) 2)  mg (1   2 ) 3) 4) mg
1 1 2 1  2
26. (A) :The friction gives the necessory certripetal force at the unbanked
curved path
(R) :Below the maximum safe velocity friction has self adjusting nature
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) (A) is false but (R) is true

3
27. A body is released from the top of a smooth inclined plane of inclination  .
It reaches the bottom with velocity v . If the angle of inclination is doubled
for the same length of the plane, what will be the velocity of the body on
reaching the ground
1 1
1)v 2) 2v 3)  2 cos   2 v 4)  2sin   2 v
28. Matching block type
LIST-I LIST-II
a) Frictional force e) Zero
b) Gravitational force f) Non- conservative force
c) When a body on a rough inclined g) mg sin 
plane is just ready to move, then
the net force acting on the body
d) The force acting on a body placed h) Conservative force
on smooth inclined plane
1) a-h, b-f, c-g, d-e 2) a-f, b-h, c-e, d-g
3) a-e, b-g, c-f, d-h 4) a-g, b-e, c-h, d-f
29. 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up an inclined plane of height
10 m. Work done against friction is (g = 10 ms –2)
1) 300 J 2) 200 J 3) 100 J 4) zero
30. A lorry and a car moving with the same KE are brought to rest by applying
the same retarding force. Then
1) lorry will come to rest in a shorter distance
2) car will come to rest in a shorter distance
3) both come to rest in same distance
4) any of above
31. A pump is used of deliver water at a certain rate from a given pipe. To
obtain n times water from the same pipe in the same time, by what factor,
the power of the motor should be increased?
1
1) n times 2) n2 times 3) n3 times 4) times
n
32. Statement A: Energy is the cause for doing work and work is the effect
Statement B: Energy is a scalar but power is a vector quantity.
1) A & B is correct 2) A & B are wrong
3) A is correct and B is wrong 4) A is wrong & B is correct
33. Assertion (A): Water at the foot of the water fall is always at different
temperature from that at the top.
Reason (R): The potential energy of water at the top is converted into heat
energy during falling
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
34. A ball is dropped from height ‘H’ on to a horizontal surface. If the
coefficient of restitution is ‘e’ then the total time after which it comes to
rest is
2H  1  e  2H  1  e  2H  1  e2  2 H  1  e2 
1)   2)   3)   4)  
g 1 e  g  1 e  g  1  e2  g  1  e2 
35. A particle strikes a horizontal friction less floor with a speed ‘u’ at an angle
 with the vertical and rebounds with a speed ‘v’ at an angle ' ' with the
vertical. Find the value of ‘v’ if ‘e’ is the coefficient of restitution.
1) v  u e 2 sin 2   cos 2  2) v  u e 2 cos   sin 2 
4
 3) v  u e 2 cos 2   tan 2  4) v  u cot 2   e 2 cos 2 
36. A particle moves along x-axis under the action of a position dependent
force F  (5 x 2  2 x ) N . Work done by forces on the particle when it moves
from origin to x = 3m is
1) 45 J 2) 36 J 3) 32 J 4) 42 J
37. The potential energy function for the force between two atoms in a
a b
diatomic molecule is approximately given by U ( x)  12  6 , where a and b
x x
are constants and x is the distance between the atoms. If the dissociation
energy of the molecules
D  U ( x  )  U at equilibrium  , D is
b2 b2 b2 b2
1) 2) 3) 4)
6a 2a 12a 4a
38. A solid sphere is rotating with an angular velocity  . It is of moment is
inertia ‘I’ about its diametrical axis and is of linear expansion coefficient  .
When temperature is increased by T , the fractional change in its angular
velocity is
 T 2T
1) 2 T 2) T 3) 4)
2 5
39. If the radius of gyration of a solid disc of mass 10 kg about an axis is
0.40m, then the moment of inertia of the disc about that axis is
1) 1.6kg m2 2) 3.2kg m2 3) 6.4 kg m2 4) 9.5kg m2
40. (A): A particle in non uniform circular motion has both radial and
tangential acceleration.
(R): In non uniform circular motion velocity changes both in magnitude
and direction.
1) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’
2) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’
3) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
4) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
41. The ratio of radii of two solid spheres of same material is 1 : 2. The ratio of
moments of inertia of smaller and larger spheres about axes passing
through their centres is
1) 1 : 4 2) 1 : 8 3) 1 : 16 4) 1: 32
42. (A): The dimensions of torque and work are same
(R): Torque is a vector but work is a scalar
1) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’
2) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’
3) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
4) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
43. Three identical particles each of mass m are arranged at the corners of a
triangle of side length a. If the mass of one of the particle is doubled, the
shift in the centre of mass is
6a a a
1) a 2) 3) 4)
7 4 3 3
44. A cylinder is completely filled with water. If 1/4 of the volume of water
leaks out, its centre of mass.
1) Moves up 2) Moves down
3) Does not change 4) Moves towards vertical surface

5
45. Four identical blocks of length L are arranged one over the other as shown.
The maximum distance of the uppermost block from the edge
of the lowermost block is x such that no block tumbles. Then x is

4L 3L 11L
1) 2) 3) 4) 2L
3 4 12
CHEMISTRY
46. The de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in the first excited state of He +
is
1) 33.3 pm 2) 3.33 pm 3) 0.333 pm 4) 333 pm
47. Number of nodal planes in 4 p orbital is
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
48. Match list – I with List – II
List – I List – II
(Quantum numbers) (Information provided)
A) ml I) Shape of orbital
B) ms II) Size of orbit
C) l III) Orientation of orbital
D) n IV) Orientation of spin of electron
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I 2) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D - III
3) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV 4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D - II
49. Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound?

1) 2) 3) 4)
50. The correct order in which the O-O bond length increases in the following
is
1) H2O2 < O2 < O3 2) O3 < H2O2 < O2
3) O2 <O3 < H2O2 4) O2 < H2O2 < O3
51. According to Fajan's rule, polarization is more when :
1) Small cation and large anion 2) Small cation and small anion
3) Large cation and large anion 4) Large cation and small anion
52. Which of the following diagram represents zero overlapping?

1) 2)

3) 4)
53. Assertion: H2O is liquid while H2S is gas at room temperature.

6
 Reason: In H2O intra molecular hydrogen bonding is present but in H 2S does
not have hydrogen bonds
1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true, but R is false.
4) A is false, but R is true.

54. Formal charge of central nitrogen atom in is

1) Zero 2) -1 3) +1 4) +2
55. By M.O.T the double bond in C2 consists of
1) Both  bonds 2) 1  bond and 1  bond
3) Both  bonds 4) Hydrogen bond
56. In BF3, B−F bond length is 1.3Å, when BF 3 is allowed to be treated with
(CH3)3N, it forms an adduct (addition product) , (CH3)3N→BF3, the bond
length of B−F in the adduct is:
1) Greater than 1.3 Å 2) Smaller than 1.3Å
3) Equal to 1.3 Å 4) Equal to zero Å
57. Which of the following statements is false?
1) Heisenberg’s uncertainity principle rules out he existence of definite paths or
trajectories of electrons
2) Probability of finding an electron at a point within an atom is proportional to
 2 at that point
3) Schrodinger equation can be solved exactly for a multielectron atom.
4) The energy of an electron in an atom is quantized according to quantum
mechanical model
  
58. The hybridizations of atomic orbitals in NO 2 , NO 3 and NH 4 respectively
are
1) SP, SP2, SP3 2) SP, SP3, SP2 3) SP2, SP3, SP 4) SP2, SP, SP3
59. Maximum number of atoms present in one plane of ethylene(C2H4)
molecule is :
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 2
60. The dissociation constant of a weak acid is 10 . In order to prepare a
–4

buffer solution with PH = 5, the [salt]/[acid] ratio should be

1) 1 : 1 2) 10:1 3) 4 : 5 4) 2 : 1
61. The P of a dibasic acid is 3.699. It molarity is
H

1) 2 x 10–4 M 2) 4 x 10–4 M 3) 2 x 10–3 M 4) 1 x 10–4 M

62. 
The equilibrium constant for the reversible reaction N 2  3H 2  2NH 3
1 3 
is K and for reaction N 2  H 2  NH 3 , the equilibrium constant is
2 2
K’. The K and K’ will be related as
1) K  K '  1 2) K  K ' 3) K ' 
K 4) K  K '
63. 
In the following equilibrium reaction 2A  B  C , the equilibrium
concentrations of A, B and C are 1 x 10–3M, 2 x 10–3 M and 3 x 10–3M
respectively at 300 K. The value of KC for this equilibrium at the same
temperature is
1 1
1) 2) 6 3) 4) 36
6 36
64. Two moles of PCl5 were heated in a closed vessel of 2L. At equilibrium 40%
of PCl5 is dissociated into PCl3 and Cl2. The value of equilibrium constant
(KC)is
7
 1) 0.53 2) 0.267 3) 2.63 4) 5.3
65. Which of the following is free radical addition reaction?
1) CH 3  CHO  HCN  CH 3 OH  CN
2) CH 3  CH  CH 2  HBr  CH 3  CH  Br   CH 3
3) CH 3  CH 3  Cl 2 
 CH 3  CH 2  Cl
hv

4) CH 3  CH 3  CH 2  HBr  CH 3  CH 2  CH 2Br

Perioxide

66. The equilibrium which remains unaffected by pressure change is


1) N 2 (g )  O 2 (g )  2NO (g ) 
2) 2SO 2 (g )  O2 (g )  2SO3 (g )

3) 2O 3 (g )  3O2 (g ) 
4) 2NO 2 (g )  N 2O 4 (g )
67. The most stable canonical structure among the following is

1) I 2) II
3) III 4) All are equally stable
68. In a reversible chemical reaction having two reactants, in equilibrium if
the concentration of the reactants are doubled, then the equilibrium
constant will
1) Also be doubled 2) Be halved
3) Become one-fourth 4) Remain the same
69. The correct relationship between free energy change in a reaction and the
corresponding equilibrium constant, KC is
1) ΔG = RT ln KC 2) –ΔG = RT ln KC
3) ΔG0 = RT ln KC 4) –ΔG0 = RT ln KC
70. IUPAC name for following compound

1) 4 – Methyl – hex – 1 – ene – 5 – yne

2) 3 – Methyl – hex – 5 – en – 1 – yne
3) 4 – Ethynylpent – 1 – ene
4) 2 – Ethynylpent – 4 – ene
71. Given below are two statements:
Statement - I: Some organic liquids can be purified by steam distillation.
Statement - II: Principle involved in steam distillation is that liquids immiscible
in water possessing high boiling point and are steam volatile.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
72. A and B are separated using thin layer chromatography. The retardation
factor of A is

8
 1) 0.6 2) 0.3 3) 0.5 4) 0.4
73. If 0.75 g of an organic compound in Kjeldahl's method neutralized 30 ml of
0.25N H2SO4, the percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
1) 28 2) 50 3) 80 4) 14
74. Geometrical isomerism is shown by
1) CH2 = C(Br)I 2) CH3CH = C(Br)I
3) (CH3)2C = C(Br)I 4) CH3CH = CCl2
75. Shifting of electrons of a multiple bond under the influence of a attacking
reagent is called
1) I-effect 2) M-effect 3) E-effect 4) Both 1 & 2
76. The most stable methylated alkene is

1) 2) 3) 4)
77. The solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M NaCl is (KSP of AgCl = 1.2 × 10–10)
1) 0.1 2) 1.2 x 10–5 3) 1.2 x 10–7 4) 1.2 x 10–9
78. The pH of 10 M mono acidic base, if it is 1% ionized is
–3

1) 5 2) 8 3) 3 4) 9
79. Solubility of a salt M2X3 is y mol dm . The solubility product of the salt
–3

will be
1) 36y5 2) 108y5 3) 64y4 4) 6y4
80. At 90°C, the P of a neutral solution is 13.5. It’s P value at the same
kw H

temperature is
1) 7.15 2) 6.75 3) 6.92 4) 7.0
81. Consider the following sets of quantum number

Which of the following sets of quauntum numbers is not possible?

1) (i), (ii), and (iv) 2) (ii), (iv) and (v)
3) (i) and (iii) 4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
82. Which of the following will make a basic buffer solution
1) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH+100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
2) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl+100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
3) 50 mL of 0.1 M KOH + 25 mL of 0.1M CH3COOH
4) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M NH4OH

9
83. 
For equilibrium A(g )   B (g ), the variation of rate of forward (a) and
reverse (b) reaction with time is given by

1) 2)

3) 4)
84. For which of the following sets, all the compounds are ionic
1) NaF, BF3, MgF2 2) NaBr, MgBr2, MgO
3) Al2O3, MgO, SO 4) NCl3, BeCl2, AlCl3
85. In BCl3 molecule, the Cl-B-Cl bond angle is
1) 90° 2) 120° 3) 109°.28 4) 180°
86. Match the species in Column I with the type of hybridization in Column-II
Column-I Column-II
(a) SF4 (i) sp3d2
(b) IF5 (ii) d2sp3
(c) BeCl2 (iii) sp3d

(d) NH 4 (iv) sp3
(v) sp
1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii) 2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v)
3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(i) 4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(v), (d)-(iv)
87. Assertion (A): Ionization of NH4OH decreases in the presence of NaOH.
Reason (R): Due to an increase in common ion [OH–] concentration on the
product side, the equilibrium in the case of NH4OH shifts in a backward
direction.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
3) (A) is false and (R) is true
4) Both (A) and (R) is false
88. Statement-I: Velocity of electron in 2nd orbit of H - atom is greater than in
1st orbit of H – atom.
Statement-II: Ratio of radii of first two orbits in H - atom is 1 : 4.
1) Both statement I and statement II are true.
2) Both statement I and statement II are false
3) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
4) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
89. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) According to VSEPR theory, the shape of a molecule depends upon the
number of valence shell electron pairs (bonded or nonbonded) around the
central atom

10
 2) The repulsive interaction of electron pairs decreases in the order lp – lp > lp
– bp > bp – bp.
3) The VSEPR theory is able to predict geometry of BF 3 a large number of
molecules
4) The molecular geometry of molecule is linear according to VSEPR theory.
90. The enegy difference between the two orbits of hydrogen atom is
1 1
E  Rhc  2  2  .If (n1  n 2 )  5 and (n 2  n1 )  1 then it belongs to
 n1 n 2 
1) H  in balmer series, red line 2) H  in balmer series, red line
3) H  in balmer series, blue green line
4) H  in balmer series, blue line
BOTANY
91. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Growth is observed in both living and non-living beings and cannot be taken
as a defining properties of living organisms.
II. Metabolism is a defining feature of all living organisms without an exception.
III. Living organisms are self-replicating, evolving, and self-regulating interactive
systems capable of responding to external stimuli
IV. Cellular organisation of the body of an organism is the defining feature.
V. Growth and reproduction are not synonymous to each other in unicellular
organisms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1) I, II, IV and V 2) I, III, IV and V 3) I, II, III and V 4) I, II, III and IV
92. Which of the following statements regarding nomenclature is correct?
A) Generic name always begins with capital letter whereas specific name with
small letter.
B) Scientific name should be printed in italics.
C) Scientific name when handwritten should be underlined separately
D) Each genus may have one or more than one specific epithets representing
different organisms
1) (A) and (B) only 2) (A), (B) and (C) only
3) (A) and (D) only 4) All are correct
93. Storage stems are found in
1) Sweet potato 2) Potato 3) Radish 4) Opuntia
94. Identify the incorrect statement from the following
1) Indica, tuberosum and leo, all represent, specific epithets
2) Genus comprises a group of related species having more number of common
characters
3) Family constitutes a group of related genera with more number of similarities
as compared to genus and species
4) Families are characterized on the basis of both vegetative and reproductive
features of plant species
95. Which of the following statement(s) does not hold(s) true for order?
I. Assemblage of families exhibiting few similar characters
II. Order, as a higher taxonomic category, is identified based on the aggregates
of characters
III. Plant families like Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae, are included in order-
Polymoniales.
IV. Order being a lower category, share significantly more number of similar
characters.
11
 1) I and II 2) III and IV 3) II and III 4) IV only
96. Consider the Venn diagram and choose the correct answer from the
options given below

1) X is Carnivora, an order representing assemblage of families with more

similar characters
2) X is class-Mammalia
Mammalia which includes families like Felidae and Canidae
3) X is order-Carnivora,
Carnivora, which includes species that are morphologically same
the
4) X is order-Carnivora
Carnivora that includes families like Felidae and Canidae and
which possess few similar characters
97. Archegoniate with ovule is
1) Cycas 2) Pisuum 3) Pteris 4) All of the above
98. Consider the given ranks or positions.
Asteraceae, Species, Genus, Division, leo, Solanum, Kingdom, Phylum,
tigris, Class, Poales, Angiospermae. How many of the above hold true for a
taxonomic category?
1) 5 2) 4 3) 6 4) 1
99. Consider the following situations.
I. Two animals belong to same kingdo kingdom, but different classes.
II. Two organisms are present in sarne class, but not in the same family.
III. Two organisms belonging to two different divisions/phylum.
Identify the most appropriate taxon related to these situations.
I II III
1) Species Division Genus
2) Family Class Order
3) Order Family Division
4) Phylum Order Kingdom
100. Choose the correct set of statements out of the ones given below.
I. Genus comprises a group of related families having more characters in
common.
II. Among animals, for example, genus genus-Panthera
Panthera is put along with genus genus-Felis in
the family-Felidae
III. Order being a higher category, is the assemblage of families showing
maximum number of similar characters.
IV. Order-Primata,
Primata, which comprises of animals like monkey, cats and dogs, is
placed in Mammalia.
V. Higher the taxa, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationship to
other taxa at the same level.
Codes
1) I, III and V 2) III and V 3) II and V 4) II, III and IV
101. Given below are some statements with respect to bacteria. Read them
carefully and choose the correct option.
I. Bacteria can survive in extreme habitats.
II. They show the most extensive metabolic diversity.
III. Their body structure is very complex and so their behaviour
IV. They can synthesize their own food or can obtain their food from others.
1) Statements
tatements I and II are correct 2) Staternents III and IV are correct
3) Statements
ments I, II and IV are correct 4) Statements nts II, III and IV are correct
102. Which of the following statement incorrect regarding the class- class
Basidiomycetes?
1) They usually grow in so soil,
il, logs, tree stumps and in living plant bodies
2) Their commonly known forms are mushrooms, bracket fungi or puffballs
3) These are the only class of fungi which are not parasitic in nature
4) They lack sex organs, but plasmogamy takes place by the fusion of two
vegetative cells
103. Consider the following examples of fungi.
Ustilago, Colletotrichum,
letotrichum, Albugo, Aspergillus, Neurospora, Mucor, Agaricus,
Alternaria
How many of the above have septate mycelium?
1) Five 2) Six 3) Eight 4) Seven
104. Which of these best describe the sporophytic generation in plant's life
cycle?
1) The haploid generation
2) Generation that produces gametes
3) Generation that produces spores
4) Generation that has xylem and phloem
105. The non-living characteristic
aracteristic of viruses is
1) Ability to multiply only inside the host
2) Ability to cause diseases in the host
3) Ability to undergo mutation
4) ability of crystallization
106. On the basis of the information given below, place the organism A in the
most appropriate kingdom.
(i) Cell type-Eukaryotic
(ii) Cell wall-Present,
Present, but non
non-cellulosic
(iii) Nuclear membrane-Present
Present
(iv) Body organisation-Multicellular/Lack
Multicellular/Lack tissue
(v) Mode of nutrition-Heterotrophic
Heterotrophic (Saprophytic/parasitic)
1) Plantae 2) Monera 3) Fungi 4) Protista
107. Observe the classification in the flowchart given below. Based on your
understanding, select the correct option with respect to the given
information.

(i) (ii) (iii)

1) Phycomycetes Deuteromycetes Ascomycetes
2) Deuteromycetes Phycomycetes Ascomycetes
3) Ascomycetes Deuteromycetes Phycomycetes
4) Ascomycetes Phycomycetes Deuteromycetes
108. Read the given statements about algae carefully and select the incorrect
statement
1) These are chlorophyll bearing, simple, thalloid organisms
2) The form and size of algae is variable, ranging from colonial Volvox to
filamentous forms like Spirogyra
 3) Kelps are freshwater forms that form massive plant bodies and belong to
class- Phaeophyceae
4) Algae reproduce asexually with the help of different types of spores, called
zoospores
109. Refer to the given statements regarding different modifications of roots.
X. Roots develop from the large horizontal aerial branches.
Y. Roots develop from the basal nodes of the stem near the soil.
Z. Roots possess minute pores on tips to bring out gaseous exchange.
X. Y and Z roots modifications are found in
1) Ficus benghalensis, Zea mays, Rhizophora, respectively
2) Pandanus tectorius,
ctorius, Trapa, Duranta, repectively
3) Orchids, Bombax, Asparagus, respectively
4) Dendrobium, Vanda, Jussiaea, respectively
110. The unique feature of bryophytes in comparison to other green plant
groups is that
1) They produce spores
2) They lack vascular tissue
3) They lack roots
4) Their
heir sporophyte is attached to the gametophyte
111. In mosses, the second gametophytic stage is leafy stage. Consider the
following statements about leafy stage.
I. Leafy stage is produced from the s secondary
econdary protonema as a lateral bud.
II. They consist of upright, slender axis
axis bearing spirally arranged leaves.
III. They are attached to the soil through unicellular rhizoids.
IV. This leafy stage bears the sex organ.
Which of the statements give given above are correct?
1) I, II and III 2) I, III and IV 3) II, III and IV 4) I, II and IV
112. Which of the following plant groups is considered as first terrestrial plants
to possess the vascular tissues, ie. xylem and phloem?
1) Salvinia, Funaria 2) Salvinia, Selaginella
3) Spirogyra, Equisetum 4) Marchantia, Fern
113. Identify A, B and C in the following figure and choose the correct option.

1) A-Strobilus, B-Node, C--Leaves 2) A-Strobilus, B-Node, C--Branch

3) A-Sporophyll, B-Node,
Node, CC-Internode 4) A-Sporophyll, B-Internode,
Internode, C
C-Node
114. Which one of the following is not the feature of Cycas?
1) Unbranched stem
2) Pinnate leaves
3) The microsporophylls and megasporophylls
 4) Archegonium is absent
115. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms.
I. In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent
existence.
II. The multicellular female gametophyte is retained within the megasporangium
for cariable periods
III. The gymnosperms are heterosporous.
IV. These are seed bearing plants in which seeds are produced via cone like
structures.
V. Conifers are gymnosperms with acicular (needle like) leaves
Choose the set of incorrect statement(s) from the following options.
1) I and II 2) II, III and IV 3) I, II, III and V 4) Only I
116. Identify the correct statements.
I. Marchantia and Pinus are monoecious.
II. Mosses have an elaborate mechanisms of spore dispersal and the sporophyte
in mosses is more elaborate than that in liverworts.
III. Sexual reproduction in Fucus and Volvox is oogamous while in Eudorina,
isogamous type of sexual reproduction is observed.
IV. Cycas and Pinus are heterosporous, dioecious gymnosperms.
V. Gametophytes are free-living in ferns, mosses and liverworts.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) I, II, III and V 2) II, III and V 3) II and V 4) I, III and IV
117. Read the following statements carefully.
I. Funaria possesses unicellular and unbranched rhizoids.
II. Gemmae are asexual buds, which originate from small receptacles called
gemma cups.
III. The Sphagnum plants have magnificient property of retaining water.
IV. Pteridophytes are vascular cryptogams and possess vascular tissues.
V. Both bryophytes and algae possess well differentiated body.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1) I, II and III 2) I and III 3) II, III and IV 4) I and II
118. Identify the incorrect statements from the following.
I. The chloroplast may be discoid, plate-like, reticulate, cup-shaped, spiral or
ribbon-shaped in different species of bryophytes.
II. Asexual reproduction in red algae occurs by non-motile spores, while sexual
reproduction is oogamous.
III. In Selaginella and Equisetum, sporophylls may form distinct compact
structures called strobili.
IV. Equisetum, Psilotum and Lycopodium produce the spores of dissimilar
kinds.
V. In Cycas, male cones and megasporophylls are borne on different trees,
however, in case of Pinus, male or female cones may be borne on same trees.
1) I, II and V 2) II, III and IV 3) I and IV 4) I, IV and V
119. A student of class XI observed some plant specimens in biology and write
their characteristic features in a tabulated form as given below.
Plant group X Plant group Y
Plant body is gametophyte Plant body is gametophyte.
Thallus-like and dorsiventrally Main body is differentiated into stem-like
flattened main body. and leaf like structures.
Spores do not form a protonema, Spores form filamentous protonema, which
but directly grow into a flat thallus. gives rise to gametophyte.
Which of the following group of species correctly represents the plant
group X and plant group Y?
15
 Plant group X Plant group Y
1) Chlamydomonas Porphyra
2) Marchantia Funaria
3) Funaria Riccia
4) Porphyra Fucus
120. How many of the following characteristics are related to genus Selaginella?
I. Amphibian plant.
II. Sporophyte differentiated into true root, stem and leaves.
III. Main plant body is gametophyte.
IV. Sporophylls form strobili.
V. Seeds are naked.
VI. Produce two kinds of spores.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1) 3 2) 2 3) 4 4) 5
121. Refer to the given table.
Vascular tissues Seeds Fruits Naked ovule
Plant P ✓ ✓ ✓ x
Plant Q ✓ ✓ x x
Plant R x x x x
Plant S ✓ x x x
Identify plants P, Q, R and S and select the correct option regarding them.
1) Plant P could be a gymnosperm which is known as flowering plants
2) Plant Q could be a angiosperm possessing haploid endosperm
3) Plant R could be a pteridophyte with heterospory
4) Plant S could be a pteridophyte with true root, stem and leaves
122. Which amongst the following options contains mismatched pair?
1) Direct elongation of radicle - Primary root
2) Root system originating from the stem's base-Fibrous roots
3) Roots arising from the radicle-Stilt roots
4) Bears lateral roots of several orders -Primary root
123. Which of the following is the smallest region of the/root?
1) Root cap 2) Region of elongation
3) Region of meristematic activity 4) Region of maturation
124. All the given are the modifications of stem except
1) thorns of Citrus
2) fleshy cylindrical structures in Euphorbia
3) supporting structures coming out from the lower nodes of maize
4) tendrils in cucumber
125. Which among the following pairs are incorrect regarding stem modification
with their examples?
I. Colocasia Storage stem
II. Water melon Stem thorn
III. Strawberry Reproduction
IV. Euphorbia Climbing
1) I and III 2) II and IV 3) II and III 4) I and IV
126. Given below are some functions of the part of leaf
I. helps to hold the leaf blade
II. allows leaf blades to flutter in wind
III. helps in cooling the leaf
Which of the following leaf part is responsible for the above mentioned
functions?
1) Stipules 2) Pulvinus 3) Petioles 4) Leaf base

16
127. Onn the basis of relative position of different floral parts on the thalamus, a
flower can be hypogynous, perigynous or epigynous. With respect to the
given figures (A, B, C and D), select the correct option.

A B C D
1) Hypogynous Perigynous Perigynous Epigynous
2) Hypogynous Epigynous Epigynous Perigynous
3) Epigynous Hypogynous Hypogynous Perigynous
4) Hypogynous Hypogynous Hypogynous Epigynous
128. Based on the arrangement of sepals and petals on the thalamus, flowers are
described as imbricate, vexillary, twisted and many more. Which of the
following aestivation from A to D could represent Pisum and gulmohar?

1) A and D 2) A and D 3) D and C 4) B and C

129. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram and read the statements given
below

I. B is bulky and stores food.

II. C encloses the radicle part.
III. A is the proteinous layer which separates the embryo from endosperm
IV. D is a short axis with a plumule and radicle.
Choose the correct options.
1) Statements I and III are correct 2) Statements II and IV are correct
3) Statements II and III are correct 4) Statements III and IV are correct
130. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the given
floral diagram?

I. This flower is actinomorphic and has 4 fused sepals.

II. The androecium consists of 6 stamens in 2 whorls of 2 and 4 each.
III. The ovary is superior in apocarpous condition.
 IV. The floral formula represents cotton plant of Brassicaceae family.
Choose the correct option.
1) Both statements I and IV are correct
2) Only statement II is correct
3) Both statements III and IV are correct
4) Only statement I is correct
131. Read the given features carefully.
I. Bicarpellary, obliquely placed II. Syncarpous, superior ovary
III. Swollen placenta with many ovules IV. Axile placentation
Based on your understanding choose the correct option which have all
these features.
1) Soyabean 2) China rose 3) Brinjal 4) Sunflower
132. Leaf sheath encircling the whole or a part of the internode is the
characteristic feature of
1) Panicum 2) Carthamus 3) Gossypium 4) Lupinus
133. Identify the correct feature of the family to which given floral formula
belongs.

Epi38 K 5 C
 5 A   G  2 

1) 5 petals with vexillary aestivation

2) Crotalaria and Sesbania are used to obtain fibres
3) Zygomorphic, bisexual and epigynous flower
4) A whorl of bracteoles
134. Select the option that correctly identifies the family of mustard plant and
its main characters.
1) Malvaceae- Pentamerous flowers, six stamens, monocarpellary gynoecium,
siliqua fruit
2) Cruciferae- Tetramerous flowers, six stamens, bicarpellary gynoecium,
siliqua fruit
3) Solanaceae- Pentamerous flowers, five stamens, bicarpellary gynoecium,
berry fruit
4) Compositae -Trimerous flowers, five stamens, bicarpellary gynoecium,
berry fruit
135. Identify the missing words from the following tabbile and select the correct
option
Androecium Gynoecium Fruit
Gramineae Polyandrous A Caryopsis
Leguminosae B Monocarpellary C
A B C
1) Bicarpellary Polyandrous Legume
2) Monocarpellary Diadelphous Legume
3) Polycarpellary Polyandrous Cypsela
4) Monocarpellary Tetradynamous Cypsela
ZOOLOGY
136. Consider the following features.
I. Cellular level of body organization II. Bilateral symmetry
III. Acoelomate IV. Presence of metamerism
Which of the following features correctly represents the phylum-Porifera?
1) I and II 2) I and III 3) II and III 4) II and IV
137. Consider the following statements.
I. Central gastrovascular cavity
II. Tissue level of organization
III. Water canal system
18
 IV. Skeleton composed of spicules
Among the given features, which of the following correctly represents the
brain coral?
1) I and II 2) II and III 3) III and IV 4) I and IV
138. Comb jellies have
1) Triploblastic body organization with radial symmetry
2) Five external rows of flagellated comb plates
3) Both extracellular and intracellular digestion
4) Asexual mode of reproduction
139. In which of the following pair of fish, the skin is tough containing
minuteplacoid scales?
1) Scoliodon and Betta 2) Labeo and Exocoetus
3) Pristis and Carcharodon 4) Pterophyllum and Trygon
140. Identify the incorrect pair from the following options.
1) Statocysts- balancing organ
2) Antennae- sensory organ
3) Second largest animal phylum- Mollusca
4) Proboscis gland - respiratory organ
141. Identify the incorrect pair from the following options.
1) Protochordates - Urochordates and cephalochordates
2) Cyclostomata - Gnathostomata
3) Amphibia - Tetrapoda
4) Chondrichthyes – Pisces
142. Identify the correct pair from the following options.
1) Chiton chitinous exoskeleton
2) King crab excretion through flame cells
3) Tusk shell rasping organ for respiration
4) Sea lily External fertilisation with direct development
143. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Neophron?
1) Four-chambered heart
2) Digestive tract with additional chambers
3) Internal fertilisation with indirect development
4) Air sacs connected to the lungs
144. Which of the following is not the characteristic feature of Crocodilus?
1) Oviparity and direct development
2) Three-chambered heart
3) Creeping and crawling mode of locomotion
4) Body is covered with dry and cornified skin
145. In which of the following organisms jaws, scales and paired fins are absent?
1) Scoliodon and Trygon 2) Pteromyzon and Myxine
3) Betta and hag fish 4) Carcharodon and dog fish
146. Assertion (A) All vertebrates are chordates, but all chordates are not
vertebrates.
Reason (R) Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in all the adult
vertebrates.
1) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
2) A is true, but R is false
3) A is false, but R is true
4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
147. Identify the incorrect pair from the following options.
1) Blood Secrete collagen or elastin
2) Areolar tissue Contains fibroblast
3) Adipose tissue Present beneath the skin
19
 4) Fibroblast - Cells that produce and secrete fibres
148. The kind of tissue that is found in tip of the nose is also found in
1) outer ear joints 2) ear ossicles
3) Vertebral column 4) nails
149. Identify the correct pair from the following options.
1) Neuroglia cells - Fundamental unit of neurons
2) Neural tissue - Control over body's responsiveness to changing conditions.
condition
3) Neurons - Cell body without nucleus
4) Dendrites - Contractile tissue
150. Statement I Intercalated disc at some fusion points allow the cardiac muscle
cells to contract as a unit.
Statement II The nutrients which are not immediately utilised arare converted
into proteins and stored in adipose tissue as excess.
Choose the correct option.
1) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
3) Both statements I and II are correct
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
151. Identify the incorrect pair from the following options.
1) Tergites dorsally found sclerite
2) Labium upper lip of cockroach
3) Hypopharynx tongue of cockroach
4) Anal cerci - occurs at the 10th segment
152. Identify the incorrect match from the following options with respect to
cockroach.
1) Gastric caecae - Present between the junction of midgut and hindgut
2) Malpighian tubules - Help in removal of excretory product
3) Hindgut - Differentiated
tiated into ileum, colon and rectum
4) Haemolymph - Composed of colourless plasma and haemocytes
153. Identify A, B, C and D in a given figure related to mouth parts of the
cockroach.

1) A-Mandible, B-Labium,
Labium, C C-Labrum, D-Maxilla
2) A-Labrum, B-Mandible,
ible, C-Labium,
C D-Maxilla,
3) A-Labrum, B-Mandible,
Mandible, C-Maxilla,
C D-Labium
4) A-Maxilla, B-Labium,
Labium, CC-Labrum, D-Mandible
154. Identify the incorrect pair of sensory organs found in frog.
1) Organs of touch - Sensory papillae
2) Taste - Taste buds
3) Hearing - Tympanum without internal ear
4) Smell - Nasal epithelium
155. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of frog?
1) The skin is moist and slimy
2) Each of the forelimbs and hindlimbs end in five digits
3) Hepatic portal
al and renal portal systems are present
4) Skin, buccal cavity and lungs are the respiratory organs
156. Identify the correct pair from the following options with respect to Rana
tigrina.
1) Cloaca - Opens to the interior through cloacal aperture
2) Microvilli - Present on the outer wall of intestine
3) Lungs - Present in the upper part of the trunk region
4) Lymphatic system - Absent
157. Which of the following statement is correct for the nervous system of
cockroach?
1) Six ganglia lie in thorax and three in the abdomen
2) In the head region, the brain is represented by supra-oesophageal ganglion
that supplies nerves to eyes and antenna
3) Totally it is restricted to the head region
4) Three pairs of ganglia lie in the thorax and six pairs in the abdomen
158. Following are different components of external genitalia in female EXCEPT
1) Mons pubis 2) Labia minora 3) Labia majora 4) Vagina
159. The lack of menstruation may be due to
1) Pregnancy 2) poor health 3) Stress 4) all of these
160. Seminal plasma is contributed by:
(I) Seminal vesicle (II) Prostate
(III) Urethra (IV) Bulbourethral gland
1) I and II 2) II, III and IV 3) I, II and IV 4) I and IV
161. Secretions of which structures are essential for maturation and motility of
sperms?
a. Epididymis b. Seminal vesicle
c. Vas deferens d. Prostate gland
1) a, b only 2) a, d only 3) b, c only 4) a, b, c, d
162. What change(s) occur in ovary and/or uterus during follicular phase of
menstrual cycle?
1) Formation of Graafian follicle 2) Formation of corpus luteum
3) Regeneration of endometrium 4) Both (1) and (3)
163. Implantation usually occurs at
1) Morula stage 2) Blastocyst stage
3) Zygote stage 4) First cleavage stage
164. Assertion:All copulations do not lead to fertilization and pregnancy
Reason:Fertilization can only occur if the ovum and sperms are transported
simultaneously to the ampulla region
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is false
4) Both the A and R are false
165. The hormone(s) that is/are produced during pregnancy only
1) Hcg 2) hP 3) relaxin 4) all of these
166. Breast feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by
doctors for bringing up a healthy baby because it contains
1) High amount of iron 2) Low amount of cholesterol
3) Almost all vitamins 4) Several antibodies
167. Egg is liberated from ovary in
1) Secondary oocyte stage 2) Primary oocyte stage
3) Oogonial stage 4) Mature ovum stage

21
168. Immediately after implantation, which part of blastocyst differentiates into
ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm?
1) Trophoblast 2) Inner cell mass
3) Chorionic villi 4) Both 1 & 2
169. Read the following statements about major features of embryonic
development at various months of pregnancy.
Choose the incorrect statement(s) about it.
(I) The embryo’s heart is the first formed organ.
(II) Most of the major organ systems are formed by the end of 2nd month of
pregnancy.
(III) The first movement of foetus is observed during 7th month of pregnancy.
(IV) The eyelashes are formed by the end of second trimester.
1) II and III 2) I and II 3) III and IV 4) Only IV
170. The consequences of delayed treatment of STIs include
1) Ectopic pregnancy 2) still births
3) Pelvic inflammatory diseases 4) Cancer
Select the most appropriate option.
1) (1) and (2) are correct 2) (3) and (4) are correct
3) (1), (2), (3) and (4) are correct 4) (1), (2) and (3) are correct
171. All the listed contraceptives are effective during emergency to avoid
pregnancy, except
1) progestasert 2) progestogen pills
3) vaults 4) progesterone-estrogen pills
172. How many among following are viral diseases that can be transmitted by
sharing of needless?
Syphilis, Genital herpes, Chlamydiasis,
Hepatitis-B, Genital warts, HIV
1) One 2) Three 3) Two 4) Five
173. In which of the following techniques does fusion of gametes occurs inside
female’s reproductive tract?
1) GIFT 2) ZIFT 3) ICSI 4) IUT
174. Which method of contraception has high failure rate?
1) Barrier method 2) Sterilization
3) IUD 4) Traditional method
175. Medical termination of pregnancy can be performed in all given cases
except
1) Pregnancy can be fatal to foetus and mother as she met with an accident
2) Unwanted pregnancy resulting from rape
3) Conception due to failure of the contraceptive
4) Pregnancy has reached middle of third trimester
176. Statement-A: Contraceptives are practiced against a natural reproductive event
Statement-B: One can choose to use contraceptives to space pregnancy due to
personal reasons.
Statement-C: Widespread use of contraceptives has a significant role in
uncontrolled growth of population From above statements
1) A and B are correct 2) B and C are correct
3) A and B are incorrect 4) B and C are incorrect
177. Statement -A: Ban on amniocentesis helped to reduce the female foeticides in
India.
Statement-B: Amniocentesis helps to determine the genetic abnormalities of
unborn child.
1) Both the statements are correct 2) Both the statements are incorrect
3) Only statement A is correct 4) Only statement B is correct
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178. Population explosion can be credited to
I. Rapid increase in IMR
II. Rapid decrease in MMR
III. Decrease in number of people in reproductive age
IV. Increased health facilities
1) I and II 2) II and III 3) III and IV 4) II and IV
179. Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?
1) Vasa differentia is cut and tied
2) Poor reversibility
3) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
4) No sperm occurs in epididymis
180. Medical assistance and care to people is required in reproduction related
problems like:
A. Pregnancy B. Delivery C. STDs D. Abortion
E. Contraception F. Menstrual problems G. Infertility
1) A, C, E and F 2) B, D and G
3) A, B, C, D, E and G 4) all of these

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