SSC CGL 2025 Decoding PDF

The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) is set to commence the recruitment process for the Combined Graduate Level
(CGL) 2025 Examination. The SSC CGL exam provides an excellent opportunity for candidates aspiring to secure
Group B and C positions across various government departments. Interested candidates can apply online starting
22nd April 2025.

Recruitment Overview

Particulars Details
Recruitment Organization Staff Selection Commission
Post Name Various Group B & C Posts
Mode of Apply Online
Total Vacancies To be announced
Application Starts 22nd April 2025
Exam Date June-July 2025
Salary/Pay Rs. 25,500 to Rs. 1,51,100
Job Location All India
Official Website ssc.gov.in

Important Dates for SSC CGL 2025 Recruitment

Events Important Dates

Notification Release Date 22nd April 2025
Online Application Starts 22nd April 2025
Last Date to Apply 21st May 2025
Tier 1 Exam Date June-July 2025
Admit Card for Tier 1 To Be Announced
Tier 2 Exam Date To Be Announced

SSC CGL 2025 Vacancy Details

The exact number of vacancies for SSC CGL 2025 is yet to be announced. However, based on past trends, it is expected
to be significant. Below are vacancy details from previous years:

Year Total Vacancies

2024 17,727
2023 8,415
2022 37,409
2021 7,621

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Eligibility Criteria for SSC CGL 2025
Age Limit
Post Name Age Limit
Assistant Section Officer 20-30 years
Junior Statistical Officer (JSO) 18-32 years
Tax Assistant 18-27 years
Inspector 18-30 years
All Other Posts 18-27 years

• Age Relaxation:
o SC/ST: 5 years
o OBC: 3 years

Educational Qualification
Post Qualification
Junior Statistical Officer (JSO) Bachelor’s Degree with 60% in Mathematics in Class 12th OR Statistics in
graduation
Statistical Investigator Grade-II Bachelor’s Degree with Economics, Statistics, or Mathematics as compulsory
subjects
Research Assistant in NHRC Bachelor’s Degree (Desirable: One-year research experience)
All Other Posts Bachelor’s Degree in any discipline from a recognized university

Nationality
• Must be a citizen of India, Nepal, Bhutan, or a person of Indian origin who migrated from specific countries.

How to Apply for SSC CGL 2025

1. Visit the official website: ssc.gov.in.
2. Click on “New User? Register Now” and complete the registration process.
3. Fill out the application form with accurate personal, educational, and other required details.
4. Upload scanned copies of your photograph, signature, and supporting documents.
5. Pay the application fee online through Debit/Credit Card, Net Banking, or UPI.
6. Submit the form and save the confirmation page for future reference.

Application Fees
Category Fee
General/OBC Rs. 100/-
SC/ST/Ex-Serviceman/Female Exempted

Selection Process for SSC CGL 2025

The SSC CGL 2025 selection process consists of two tiers:
1. Tier 1 - Computer-Based Test (CBT)
2. Tier 2 - Computer-Based Test (CBT) with multiple papers

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Exam Pattern
Tier Type of Exam Duration Mode
Tier 1 Objective (MCQs) 1 hour CBT (Online)
Tier 2 Paper 1: Compulsory for all 2 hours 30 minutes CBT (Online)

Tier 1 Exam Pattern

Subject Questions Max Marks Duration
General Intelligence/Reasoning 25 50 1 hour
General Awareness 25 50
Quantitative Aptitude 25 50
English Comprehension 25 50
Total 100 200 1 hour

Tier 2 Exam Pattern

Paper Sections Duration
Paper 1 Mathematical Abilities, English, Reasoning 2 hours 30 minutes
Paper 2 Statistics 2 hours

SSC CGL 2025 Salary Structure

The SSC CGL posts are categorized under various pay levels as per the 7th Pay Commission. Below is the salary
structure:

Pay Level Pay Scale

Pay Level-8 Rs. 47,600 to Rs. 1,51,100
Pay Level-7 Rs. 44,900 to Rs. 1,42,400
Pay Level-6 Rs. 35,400 to Rs. 1,12,400
Pay Level-5 Rs. 29,200 to Rs. 92,300
Pay Level-4 Rs. 25,500 to Rs. 81,100

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 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 09/09/2024
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the father of B’,
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is the son of B’,
‘A % B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’,
‘A / B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
‘A = B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

Which of the following means A is the daughter of K?

i. A + K / J – P = D
ii. J % P = K + A = D
iii. K + A / P – D % J
iv. D + K = A / P – J
Ans 1. ii

2. i

3. iii

4. iv

Q.2 Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
No card is a parcel.
All cards are envelopes.
Some envelopes are bags.

Conclusions:
I. All envelopes can never be parcels.
II. No card is a bag.
III. At least some bags are postcards.
Ans 1. Only I follows

2. Only II and III follow

3. Only II follows

4. Only I and III follow

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘what where how’ is written as ‘aa dd ff’; ‘where there that’ is written as ‘dd zz pp’ and ‘which
what here’ is written as ‘ff kk ll’. How is ‘how’ written in that language?
Ans 1. kk

2. aa

3. ff

4. zz
Q.4 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.5 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
MEK: NVP :: GYT: TBG :: JWH:?
Ans 1. QDS

2. QDT

3. PCR

4. PCS

Q.6 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
1, 3, 10, 41, ?, 1237
Ans 1. 210

2. 202

3. 206

4. 200

Q.7 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
5 – 4 ÷ 9 + 80 × 10 = ?
Ans 1. 33

2. 30

3. 35

4. 31

Q.8 Select the option that represents the letters that when placed from left to right in the blanks below will complete the letter
series.
L_P_QS_K_P_S_KP_Q_L_ _PQS
Ans 1. KPLPQLPSKP

2. KPLPLQLSPK

3. KPLPQQLPSK

4. PKLPQPLSKP

Q.9 The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word ‘NIGHTMARES’ is re-arranged in
the English alphabetical order from left to right?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. Two

4. Four
Q.10 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
YZUW, ?, QTQU, MQOT, INMS
Ans 1. UWSV

2. WUSV

3. UWVS

4. USWV

Q.11 Identify the option figure that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.12 Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:

Some tears are drops.

Some drops are streams.
All streams are rivers.

Conclusions:

I. All tears can never be rivers.

II. Some drops are rivers.
III. All tears being streams is a possibility.
Ans 1. Both I and II conclusion follow

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Only conclusion III follows

4. Both II and III conclusion follow

Q.13 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.14 In a certain code language, 'NAME’ is written as 'FNBO' and 'NANO' is written as 'POBO’. How will 'NAIL’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. MJOB

2. MJBO

3. MOJB

4. MOBJ

Q.15 Which of the four options will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
UE 88, VG 84, WI 80, XK76, ?
Ans 1. YN73

2. YM72

3. ZN71

4. ZM72
Q.16 19 is related to 209 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 27 is related to 297. To which of the following is 61
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 653

2. 671

3. 571

4. 600

Q.17 Six letters Q, Z, V, T, L and A are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figures
below. Find the letter on the face opposite to Q.

Ans 1. T

2. V

3. Z

4. A

Q.18 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. In three of the four pairs, the same pattern is applied and hence they form a group. Select the number-pair that
DOES NOT belong to this group.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 335 - 119

2. 358 - 152

3. 317 - 101

4. 308 - 92
Q.19 Identify the figure from the given options, which when put in place of the question mark (?), will logically complete the
series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.20 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
4515 × 5 – 431 ÷ 3 + 821 = ?
Ans 1. 1575

2. 1335

3. 1375

4. 1775
Q.21 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 21

2. 20

3. 19

4. 18

Q.22 31 is related to 152 by certain logic. Following the same logic, 47 is related to 168. To which of the following is 66 related,
following the same logic? (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 180

2. 190

3. 185

4. 187

Q.23 The question contains pairs of words that are related to each other in a certain way. Three of the following four word pairs
are alike as these have the same relationship and thus form a group. Which word pair is the one that DOES NOT belong to
that group?

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Ans 1. Triangle - 3 sides

2. Pentagon - 5 sides

3. Square - 4 sides

4. Hexagon - 8 sides

Q.24 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of numbers.
(149, 213)
(168, 232)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (162, 222)

2. (137, 211)

3. (153, 217)

4. (144, 198)

Q.25 Six numbers 21, 22, 23, 24, 25 and 26 are written on different faces of a dice. Three positions of this dice are shown in the
figure. Find the number on the face opposite to 24.

Ans 1. 22

2. 21

3. 26

4. 25
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following has authored the play ‘Nil Darpan’?
Ans 1. Motilal Nehru

2. Chittaranjan Das

3. Dinabandhu Mitra

4. Sarojini Naidu

Q.2 Which of the following awards was won by Lata Mangeshkar in the year 2001?
Ans 1. Filmfare Lifetime Achievement Award

2. Padma Vibhushan

3. Dadasaheb Phalke Award

4. Bharat Ratna

Q.3 Which of the following is a correct order of basicity?

Ans 1. LiOH>NaOH>KOH>CsOH

2. LiOH>KOH>CsOH>NaOH

3. KOH>CsOH>NaOH>LiOH

4. CsOH>KOH>NaOH>LiOH

Q.4 Who founded the Prarthana Samaj in Mumbai in 1867?

Ans 1. Atmaram Pandurang

2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

3. Shri Ram Bajpai

4. Ram Mohan Roy

Q.5 Who among the following formed the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha in 1929?
Ans 1. Kunwar Singh

2. JM Sengupta

3. Jayprakash Narayan

4. Swami Sahajanand Saraswati

Q.6 In which city was the first golf club of India situated?
Ans 1. Shimla

2. Gulmarg

3. Mysore

4. Kolkata

Q.7 Which article has a similar provision to that of Article 32 and deals with writ jurisdiction?
Ans 1. Article 227

2. Article 228

3. Article 225

4. Article 226

Q.8 Mahendravarman I was the ruler of which of the following dynasties?

Ans 1. Pandya

2. Chola

3. Chalukya

4. Pallava
Q.9 What challenge does foreign investment often face in India?
Ans 1. Excessive foreign competition

2. Inconsistent regulatory environment

3. Lack of skilled labour

4. Lack of consumer base

Q.10 Who is Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology as of July 2023?
Ans 1. Ramesh Pokhriyal

2. Dharmendra Pradhan

3. Ashwini Vaishnaw

4. Jitendra Singh

Q.11 Lathmar Holi is primarily celebrated in the state of:

Ans 1. Karnataka

2. Arunachal Pradesh

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Himachal Pradesh

Q.12 Which of the following is NOT a condition for the President’s office in India?
Ans 1. He shall not be entitled, without payment of rent, to use his official residence.

2. He shall not be a member of either House of the Parliament.

3. The allowances shall not be diminished during his term of office.

4. He shall not hold any office of profit.

Q.13 Which Indian among the following has his name in Time Magazine’s list of ‘100 most influential people of 2021’?
Ans 1. Neeraj Chopra

2. Narendra Modi

3. Virat Kohli

4. Amit Shah

Q.14 When the analysis of population density is done by calculating it through net cultivated area, then the measure is termed as:
Ans 1. Agricultural density

2. Physiological density

3. Gross density

4. Net density

Q.15 Mohan Veena player, Pandit Vishwa Mohan Bhatt won the ____________ Award in the year 1994.
Ans 1. Sangita Kalanidhi

2. Oscar

3. Grammy

4. Sangeet Natak Akademi

Q.16 Which plateaus are very fertile because they are rich in black soil that is very good for farming?
Ans 1. African plateau

2. Ethiopian plateau

3. Katanga plateau

4. Deccan lava plateau

Q.17 Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT regarding the grade of organisation and its example?
Ans 1. Cellular grade organisation - Sycon

2. Protoplasmic grade organisation - Paramecium

3. Cell-tissue grade organisation - Jellyfish

4. Tissue-organ grade organisation - Euplectella

Q.18 Who is the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu as of July 2023?

Ans 1. Pinarayi Vijayan

2. M Yedurappa

3. KN Nehru

4. MK Stalin

Q.19 Which of the following states is the biggest producer of Pulses?

Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Haryana

3. Punjab

4. Bihar

Q.20 In which year was Project Tiger launched in India?

Ans 1. 1985

2. 1973

3. 1972

4. 1970

Q.21 The head office of Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) is located in ________.
Ans 1. Mumbai

2. Kolkata

3. New Delhi

4. Chennai

Q.22 Which of the following decomposition reactions is NOT a redox reaction?

Ans 1. Decomposition of dihydrogen monoxide

2. Decomposition of sodium hydride

3. Decomposition of potassium chlorate

4. Decomposition of calcium carbonate

Q.23 Which of the following statements best defines the monoecious?

Ans 1. A flower with both androecium and gynoecium

2. A flower with dithecous

3. A flower with gynoecium only

4. A flower with androecium only

Q.24 ___________ is an industry association and self-regulatory organisation (SRO) whose primary objective is to work towards
the robust development of the microfinance sector.
Ans 1. Self-help Group Association

2. Microfinance Institutions Network

3. Microfinance and Investments Regulatory Authority

4. NABARD
 Q.25 Details about Sudarshana lake is given in a rock inscription at Girnar (Junagarh), which was composed to record the
achievements of the Shaka ruler _________.
Ans 1. Rudrasimha III

2. Rudradaman I

3. Chashtana

4. Maues

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 Which of the following statements is sufficient to conclude that two triangles are congruent?
Ans 1. These have two equal sides and the same perimeter.

2. These have the same area and the same base.

3. One side and one angle of both triangles are equal.

4. These have the same base and the same height.

Q.2 The average marks (out of 100) of boys and girls in an examination are 75 and 80, respectively. If the average marks of all
the students in that examination are 78. Find the ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls.
Ans 1. 2 : 3

2. 3 : 4

3. 1 : 3

4. 1 : 2

Q.3 If the sum of two sides of an equilateral triangle is 16 cm, then find the third side.
Ans 1. 4 cm

2. 16 cm

3. Cannot be found

4. 8 cm

Q.4 The following table shows the total candidates appeared and number of candidates present, in different exam centres – P, Q
and R.
Study the table and answer the question that follows.

‘Total’ denotes total candidates applied for the centre,‘Present’ denotes the candidates appeared.
In which year was the number of absentees the second highest in total of all centres?
Ans 1. 2018

2. 2017

3. 2020

4. 2019

Q.5 Which of the following can be the value of ‘k’ so that the number 217924k is divisible by 6?
Ans 1. 4

2. 6

3. 2

4. 0
Q.6

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7

Ans 1. 1

2. 2

3. 4

4. 0

Q.8 The value of is:

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.9 An article is marked at ₹550. If it is sold at a discount of 40%, then the selling price becomes 10% more than its cost price.
What is the cost price (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 220

2. 330

3. 300

4. 200
Q.10

Ans 1. 3

2. 1

3. 0

4. 2

Q.11
Fill pipe P is 21 times faster than fill pipe Q. If Q can fill a cistern in 110
minutes, find the time it takes to fill the cistern when both fill pipes are
opened together.
Ans 1. 5 minutes

2. 4 minutes

3. 3 minutes

4. 6 minutes

Q.12 The radii of the two cones are in the ratio of 2 : 5 and their volumes are in the ratio of 3 : 5. What is the ratio of their heights?
Ans 1. 15 : 4

2. 11 : 15

3. 13 : 11

4. 4 : 11

Q.13

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.14

Ans 1. 1,10

2. 4,7

3. 3,10

4. 2,7
Q.15 Let O be the centre of the circle and AB and CD are two parallel chords on the same side of the radius. OP is perpendicular
to AB and OQ is perpendicular to CD. If AB = 10 cm, CD = 24 cm and PQ = 7 cm, then the diameter (in cm) of the circle is
equal to:
Ans 1. 26

2. 13

3. 12

4. 24

Q.16

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17 The distance between the centres of two circles of radii 22 cm and 10 cm is 37 cm. If the points of contact of a direct
common tangent to these circles are M and Q, then find the length of the line segment MQ.
Ans 1. 35 cm

2. 39 cm

3. 29 cm

4. 25 cm

Q.18 In a circular race of 840 m, A and B start running in the same direction at the same time from the same point at the speeds of
6 m/s and 12 m/s, respectively. After how much time will they meet next?
Ans 1. 140 s

2. 20 s

3. 40 s

4. 70 s

Q.19 R pays ₹100 to P with ₹5, ₹2 and ₹1 coins. The total number of coins used for paying are 40. What is the number of coins of
denomination ₹5 in the payment?
Ans 1. 16

2. 17

3. 18

4. 13

Q.20 In an election between two candidates, y% of the voters did not vote. 10% of the votes cast were declared invalid, while all
the valid votes were cast in favour of either of the two candidates. The candidate who got 59.375% of the valid votes cast
was declared elected by 2484 votes. If the number of people eligible to vote in that election was 16,000, what is the value of
y?
Ans 1. 7.2

2. 8.4

3. 8

4. 7.5

Q.21 Mohan borrows a sum of ₹4,22,092 at the rate of 20% per annum simple interest. At the end of the first year, he repays
₹21,679 towards return of principal amount borrowed. If Mohan clears all pending dues at the end of the second year,
including interest payment that accrued during the first year, how much does he pay (in ₹) at the end of the second year?
Ans 1. 556367

2. 558380

3. 561347

4. 564914
 Q.22

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.23

Ans 1. 60

2. 20

3. 54

4. 56

Q.24 A grocer professes to sell rice at the cost price, but uses a fake weight of 870 g for 1 kg. Find his profit percentage (correct
to two decimal places).
Ans 1. 15.11%

2. 14.94%

3. 18.21%

4. 11.11%

Q.25

Ans 1. Sumit

2. Mohit

3. Rohit

4. Tarun

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Ishika saw the tiger in the forest.

Ans 1. The tiger saw by Ishika in the forest.

2. The tiger was seen by the forest in Ishika.

3. The tiger was seen by Ishika in the forest.

4. The tiger sees Ishika in the forest.

Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Innuendo
Ans 1. Prose

2. Crude

3. Ragged

4. Insinuation

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

‘Spy Family’ is a graphic novel that is a narrative work in which the story is conveyed to the reader using uninterrupted art
in a traditional comics format.
Ans 1. sequential art in a traditional

2. existential art in a traditional

3. sedimental art in a traditional

4. longitudinal art in a traditional

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Fatal
Ans 1. Deadly

2. Additional

3. Jovial

4. Easy

Q.5 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.
Mr. Abhilash and his family / have received / no informations / about the incident.
Ans 1. have received

2. no informations

3. about the incident.

4. Mr. Abhilash and his family

Q.6 Select the option that expresses the opposite meaning of the underlined word.
The explosive used is of my own formulation, and I can vouch for its efficiency.
Ans 1. Maintain

2. Certify

3. Invalidate

4. Witness

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Vinod had a ________ escape in the car accident.

Ans 1. comfortable

2. full

3. narrow

4. wide

Q.8 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Embarrass

2. Connoisseur

3. Relevent

4. Bureaucracy
Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word in bold.
We’d better watch our step and not give him any excuse to harass us further.
Ans 1. betray

2. relish

3. soothe

4. intimidate

Q.10 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given phrase.

A short interesting story about a real person or event

Ans 1. Poem

2. Sketch

3. Anecdote

4. Narrative

Q.11 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.

She is proficient in speaking many languages.

Ans 1. Monolithic

2. Multilingual

3. Heterolinguistic

4. Bilingual

Q.12 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To have bigger fish to fry
Ans 1. To have an interest in cooking

2. To know different kinds of fishing techniques

3. To take calculated risks

4. To have bigger things to take care of than the menial task at hand

Q.13 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
My brother performed / extremely good / in the class test / held yesterday.
Ans 1. held yesterday

2. in the class test

3. My brother performed

4. extremely good

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Toxic
Ans 1. Laudatory

2. Lanky

3. Lethal

4. Licit

Q.15 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A person who likes to argue about anything
Ans 1. Reticent

2. Coward

3. Veracious

4. Contentious
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
She has been studying for two o’clock .
Ans 1. study from two o’clock

2. studying since two o’clock

3. study for two o’clock

4. studying two o’clock

Q.17 In the following sentence, four words are underlined out of which one word is misspelt. Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt
word.
After the recapture (A) of Tololing and the adjacent features, evacting (B) the enemy from this well-fortified (C) position
became a priority.(D)
Ans 1. B

2. D

3. A

4. C

Q.18 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
Lovely tunes are composed by Domnica.
Ans 1. Domnica composed lovely tunes.

2. Domnica composes tunes lovely.

3. Domnica will compose lovely tunes.

4. Domnica composes lovely tunes.

Q.19 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

Unit of weight for precious stones

Ans 1. Pure

2. Reliable

3. Carat

4. Accurate

Q.20 Select the most appropriate synonym to replace the underlined word in the given sentence.

No altruistic act is truly sincere.

Ans 1. philanthropic

2. phantasmal

3. phenomenal

4. phonotypical

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
There is a saying that coming events cast their shadows before. (1)________, it is not universally true. Something can happen within
a second, and one may not (2)________ it. (3)________, some instances show that predictions based on certain signs have gone
wrong. People generally say that natural calamities can be predicted by observing the animals. But what if animals are suffering from
some disease and don’t show any signs before the event appears? They may fail to make peculiar sounds or actions about the events
which are going to take place. (4)________, some unnatural calamities that are likely to appear may forecast their shadows by some
bad omens. (5)________, we should not completely cancel out the possibilities that animals can sense certain unnatural happenings.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. Moreover

2. Therefore

3. Furthermore

4. However
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
There is a saying that coming events cast their shadows before. (1)________, it is not universally true. Something can happen within
a second, and one may not (2)________ it. (3)________, some instances show that predictions based on certain signs have gone
wrong. People generally say that natural calamities can be predicted by observing the animals. But what if animals are suffering from
some disease and don’t show any signs before the event appears? They may fail to make peculiar sounds or actions about the events
which are going to take place. (4)________, some unnatural calamities that are likely to appear may forecast their shadows by some
bad omens. (5)________, we should not completely cancel out the possibilities that animals can sense certain unnatural happenings.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. legalise

2. foresee

3. rescind

4. affect

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
There is a saying that coming events cast their shadows before. (1)________, it is not universally true. Something can happen within
a second, and one may not (2)________ it. (3)________, some instances show that predictions based on certain signs have gone
wrong. People generally say that natural calamities can be predicted by observing the animals. But what if animals are suffering from
some disease and don’t show any signs before the event appears? They may fail to make peculiar sounds or actions about the events
which are going to take place. (4)________, some unnatural calamities that are likely to appear may forecast their shadows by some
bad omens. (5)________, we should not completely cancel out the possibilities that animals can sense certain unnatural happenings.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. Therefore

2. Moreover

3. Nevertheless

4. However

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
There is a saying that coming events cast their shadows before. (1)________, it is not universally true. Something can happen within
a second, and one may not (2)________ it. (3)________, some instances show that predictions based on certain signs have gone
wrong. People generally say that natural calamities can be predicted by observing the animals. But what if animals are suffering from
some disease and don’t show any signs before the event appears? They may fail to make peculiar sounds or actions about the events
which are going to take place. (4)________, some unnatural calamities that are likely to appear may forecast their shadows by some
bad omens. (5)________, we should not completely cancel out the possibilities that animals can sense certain unnatural happenings.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. Besides

2. Secondly

3. Therefore

4. Despite
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
There is a saying that coming events cast their shadows before. (1)________, it is not universally true. Something can happen within
a second, and one may not (2)________ it. (3)________, some instances show that predictions based on certain signs have gone
wrong. People generally say that natural calamities can be predicted by observing the animals. But what if animals are suffering from
some disease and don’t show any signs before the event appears? They may fail to make peculiar sounds or actions about the events
which are going to take place. (4)________, some unnatural calamities that are likely to appear may forecast their shadows by some
bad omens. (5)________, we should not completely cancel out the possibilities that animals can sense certain unnatural happenings.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. However

2. Nevertheless

3. Moreover

4. Therefore
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 09/09/2024
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 1:30 PM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 5

2. 3

3. 4

4. 6

Q.2 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

4 ÷ 6 + 91 × 7 − 5 = ?
Ans 1. 21

2. 16

3. 12

4. 17

Q.3 Three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster
pair that does NOT belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their positions in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. EJ - OT

2. PF - OI

3. KP - UZ

4. CH - MR
Q.4 In this question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements
to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
All fans are brown.
Some brown are chairs.
Some chairs are plastic.
Conclusions:
I.Some brown are fans.
II.Some chairs are brown.
III.No chair is plastic.
Ans 1. Only conclusions II and III follow.

2. None of the conclusions follows.

3. Only conclusions I and II follow.

4. Only conclusion III follows.

Q.5 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
1604 × 4 – 525 ÷ 5 + 73 = ?
Ans 1. 2395

2. 2935

3. 2953

4. 2539

Q.6 The position of how many letters will change, if each of the letters in the word ‘SYSTEM’ is arranged in the English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Five

2. Six

3. Three

4. Four

Q.7 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
99, 123, 150, 180, 213, ?
Ans 1. 259

2. 258

3. 248

4. 249

Q.8 Select the option that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
VO39, TM35, RK31, PI27, ?
Ans 1. OH24

2. NG23

3. MH24

4. MG22
Q.9 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given
statements

Statements:
No river is a mountain.
Some rivers are animals.
Some birds are mountains.

Conclusions:
I: No animal is a mountain.
II: No river is a bird.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

4. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.10 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘let it go’ is coded as ‘vc nt ap’ and ‘this is it’ is coded as ‘mq vc lh’. What is the code for ‘it’ in
that language?
Ans 1. mq

2. vc

3. lh

4. nt
Q.12 Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number
of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Egypt : Nile
Ans 1. Russia : Mississippi

2. South Korea : Mekong

3. Brazil : Colorado

4. Myanmar : Irrawaddy

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘It’s your life’ is written as ‘Ao Bo Co’ and ‘It’s your food’ is written as ‘Ba Co Bo’. How will ‘food’
be written in that language?
Ans 1. Bo

2. Co

3. Ba

4. Ao

Q.14 Select the option that represents the letters that when placed from left to right in the blanks below will complete the given
letter series.
N_BANA_A_ANANAB_NANABA_ANA
Ans 1. ANANB

2. NANAB

3. ANABN

4. ANBAN
Q.15 A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.16 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.17 Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series.
BVTO, DTVM, ?, HPZI, JNBG
Ans 1. RXFK

2. RFXK

3. FKXR

4. FRXK

Q.18 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(18, 378, 7)
(14, 210, 5)
Ans 1. (15, 405, 9)

2. (23, 230, 5)

3. (17, 204, 6)

4. (17, 272, 8)

Q.19 Select the triad in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following triads.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(2, 3, 17)
(5, 2, 21)
Ans 1. (3, 4, 23)

2. (5, 6, 72)

3. (1, 4, 17)

4. (2, 5, 42)
Q.20 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.22 The same operation(s) are followed in all the given number pairs except one. Find that odd number pair.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)bxs
Ans 1. 12 : 39

2. 15 : 48

3. 11 : 35

4. 13 : 42

Q.23 A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted lines successively in the directions shown and is then punched in the
last. How would the paper look when unfolded?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.
 Q.24 Select the triad in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given triads.
(16, 33, 67), (19, 39, 79)
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. (22, 45, 91)

2. (21, 45, 90)

3. (18, 36, 80)

4. (14, 27, 53)

Q.25 In a certain code language,

R + T means ‘R is the sister of T’.
R – T means ‘R is the father of T’.
R * T means ‘R is the wife of T’.
R ÷ T means ‘R is the mother of T’.
Based on the above, how is F related to C if ‘A + B – C ÷ D * E – F ÷ G’?
Ans 1. Daughter’s daughter

2. Wife

3. Daughter

4. Mother

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which condition, also known as icterus, causes a yellowing of your skin and the whites of your eyes?
Ans 1. Ichthyosis

2. Jaundice

3. Eczema

4. Pemphigus

Q.2 Under the leadership of which of the following revolutionaries was Chittagong Armoury Raid conducted?
Ans 1. Rash Behari Bose

2. Badal Gupta

3. Hemu Kalani

4. Surya Sen

Q.3 In which of the following states is Govindji Nartanalaya located?

Ans 1. Manipur

2. Assam

3. Nagaland

4. Tripura

Q.4 Which of the following celebrations is dedicated to Sun God and his wife Usha to thank them for sustaining life on earth and
for granting wishes?
Ans 1. Madai Festival

2. Chhath Puja

3. Vishwakarma Puja

4. Sorath Sabha

Q.5 Which of the following inscriptions of Rudradaman happened to be the first royal inscription of early India composed in
chaste Sanskrit?
Ans 1. Prayag

2. Girnar

3. Chirand

4. Mehrauli
Q.6 The first southern campaign of Alauddin Khilji in 1307-08 AD was led to which of the following regions?
Ans 1. Devagiri

2. Warangal

3. Dwar Samudra

4. Madura

Q.7 What is the IUPAC name of tertiarybutyl alcohol?

Ans 1. 2-Methylpropan-2-ol

2. 1-propylpropan-3-ol

3. 1-Methylpropan-3-ol

4. 1-ethylpropan-3-ol

Q.8 What is the relationship between interest rate and demand for money?
Ans 1. No relationship exists

2. Inverse

3. Direct

4. Proportionate

Q.9 When electricity is passed through water, what kind of chemical reaction occurs?
Ans 1. Decomposition

2. Displacement

3. Double displacement

4. Combination

Q.10 Which music-composer duo was honoured with the National Lata Mangeshkar Award for the year 2020?
Ans 1. Sachin–Jigar

2. Jatin-Lalit

3. Salim–Sulaiman

4. Anand-Milind

Q.11 Which of the following can be represented as a functional unit of nature?

Ans 1. Vehicles

2. Ecosystem

3. Humans

4. Plants

Q.12 In which state of India is Kund or Tanka used for water harvesting?
Ans 1. Rajasthan

2. Andhra Pradesh

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Punjab

Q.13 The inaugural match of the Women Premier League 2023 cricket was played in which of the following venues?
Ans 1. Delhi

2. Mumbai

3. Chennai

4. Kolkata
Q.14 Which of the following is NOT correct about Directive Principles of State Policy?
Ans 1. They ensure social and economic development.

2. They are justiciable in nature.

3. They provide guidelines for the governance of the country.

4. They are morally binding on the government.

Q.15 At what latitude does the easterly jet stream blow over peninsular India during the summer months?
Ans 1. 24°N

2. 30°N

3. 14°N

4. 28°N

Q.16 According to Census of India 2011, in rural India, which state has the maximum female workforce participation rate?
Ans 1. Arunachal Pradesh

2. Uttar Pradesh

3. Himachal Pradesh

4. Andhra Pradesh

Q.17 In 2021, in which of the following states did the Prime Minister lay the foundation stone for the Raja Mahendra Pratap Singh
State University?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Gujarat

3. Himachal Pradesh

4. Nagaland

Q.18 When was a Madrasa opened in Kolkata to promote the study of Arabic, Persian and Islamic law?
Ans 1. 1772 C.E.

2. 1783 C.E.

3. 1781 C.E.

4. 1774 C.E.

Q.19 Which Article of the Constitution explains that the executive power of every state shall be so exercised as not to impede or
prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union, and the executive power of the union shall extend to the giving
of such directions to a state as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose?
Ans 1. Article 261

2. Article 247

3. Article 257

4. Article 123

Q.20 Which of the following statements correctly defines the green revolution?
Ans 1. It is a new strategy in agriculture to produce food grains, especially wheat and rice.

2. It is a new strategy to increase the share of the forest.

3. It is a new strategy to use green colour for all purposes.

4. It is a new strategy to use only herbal products.

Q.21 In the year 1952, who among the following lent his voice for the film ‘Amar Bhupali’, which was being produced in two
languages simultaneously and he sang in both Bengali and Marathi ?
Ans 1. Kishore Kumar

2. Hemanta Mukherjee

3. Debabrata Biswas

4. Manna Dey
 Q.22 In which part of India does the hot wind ‘Loo’ blow?
Ans 1. West and Southwestern

2. North and Northwestern

3. East and Northeastern

4. South and Southwestern

Q.23 The government of which of the following states created a draft policy in 2022 for senior citizens on the basis of article 41,
which aims to form a directorate for the welfare of senior citizens?
Ans 1. Karnataka

2. Telangana

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Kerala

Q.24 When was the High Court and Supreme Court Judges (Salaries and Conditions of Service) Amendment Bill, 2021 introduced
in Lok Sabha?
Ans 1. 27 September 2021

2. 30 November 2021

3. 29 March 2021

4. 28 April 2021

Q.25 At which Olympics did Gagan Narang win a bronze medal?

Ans 1. London 2012

2. Rio 2016

3. Athens 2004

4. Beijing 2008

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 Madhav purchased an item for ₹42,000 and sold it at a loss of 20%. With that amount, he purchased another item and sold it
at a gain of 30%. What is the overall gain (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 6720

2. 4200

3. 1680

4. 2520

Q.2

Ans 1. 2686

2. 2816

3. 2784

4. 2456

Q.3 Seven years ago, Prachi was four times as old as her daughter was at that time. Four years from now, Prachi will be two-
and-a-half times as old as her daughter would then be. Find the sum of the present ages (in years) of Prachi and her
daughter.
Ans 1. 69

2. 77

3. 49

4. 72
Q.4 From a circle with the radius of 15.75 cm, a sector with the arc length of 11 cm is cut off. Find the area (in cm2) of this sector.
Ans 1. 86.525

2. 86.625

3. 86.875

4. 86.125

Q.5

Ans 1. 30.2

2. 23.6

3. 28.7

4. 25.5

Q.6

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.8 The marked price of an article is 26% more than its cost price. If a discount of 32% is given, what will be the loss
percentage?
Ans 1. 18.64%

2. 15.25%

3. 12.26%

4. 14.32%

Q.9

Ans 1. 1 + sinA cosA

2. 1 – 3 sinA

3. 3 cosA - 1

4. sinA + cosA
Q.10 The given chart shows the production of different types of cars in the year 2021.
Study the given chart and answer the question that follows.

If the total production in the year 2021 was 2,00,00,000, then what will be the central angle of the sector representing the
production of type D cars in 2021?
Ans 1. 50°

2. 36°

3. 42°

4. 72°

Q.11 A right-angled isosceles triangle has an area of 50 square units. Its hypotenuse is (in units):
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.12 The pie chart given below shows the expenditure (in percentage) of Aditya. The monthly income of Aditya is₹54,000.

How much does he spend (in₹) on Food?

Ans 1. 12,240

2. 13,420

3. 11,240

4. 12,420

Q.13 A person earns ₹16,000 per month and spends 80% of his income and saves the remaining amount. If his income increases
by 20% and expenditure by 10%, find the percentage of increase in his savings.
Ans 1. 140%

2. 90%

3. 120%

4. 60%

Q.14 Without doing the actual division, find the remainder when 28735429 is divided by 9.
Ans 1. 4

2. 2

3. 8

4. 9

Q.15 The angles of triangle are such that one is average of other two, then the angles are:

Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 2

4. 1

Q.16 Let C be a circle with centre O and P be an external point to C. Let PA and PB be two tangents to C with A and B being the
points of tangency, respectively. If PA and PB are inclined to each other at an angle of 60°, then find∠ POA.
Ans 1. 40°

2. 60°

3. 80°

4. 30°
Q.17 At present, A is thrice as old as B. C is 5 years elder than B. The sum of the ages of A, B, C is 75 years. The ratio of the age
of B five years ago to the age of A three years from now is:
Ans 1. 2 : 3

2. 1 : 4

3. 4 : 7

4. 1 : 5

Q.18 The monthly wages (in ₹) of three mess workers, Rahul, Sunil and Vipin, of a boy’s hostel for three months are given in the
following table. Study the table carefully and answer the question given below.

In November, the wages of Sunil is what percentage of the wages of Rahul? (Correct up to two decimal places.)
Ans 1. 90.23%

2. 89.30%

3. 88.23%

4. 91.30%

Q.19 If x varies inversely as y and x = 2 when y = 6, then the value of y when x = 3 is:
Ans 1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

4. 6

Q.20 If a sum of ₹5,000 is taken at a simple rate of interest of 15% per annum for 3 years and another sum of ₹8,000 is taken at a
simple interest of 12% per annum for 4 years, the positive difference of the interests paid is:
Ans 1. ₹1,643

2. ₹1,590

3. ₹1,286

4. ₹1,378

Q.21 Varun and Sandeep started for a car race from the same point, in the same direction and at the same time on a circular track
of length 1635 m with the speeds of 90 km/h and 108 km/h, respectively. After how much time (in s) will they meet again for
the first time?
Ans 1. 324

2. 325

3. 327

4. 326

Q.22 Pipes M, N and S can fill a tank in 25, 50 and 100 minutes, respectively. Initially, pipes N and S are kept open for 10 minutes,
and then pipe N is shut while pipe M is opened. Pipe S is closed 15 minutes before the tank overflows. How much time (in
minutes) will it take to fill the tank if the three pipes work in this pattern?
Ans 1. 30

2. 33

3. 42

4. 27
 Q.23 Simplify the following:
21− 4.9 ÷ 7 + 3.9 × 0.4 + 0.9
Ans 1. 18.23

2. 24.12

3. 26.32

4. 22.76

Q.24 The given bar graph shows the number of students enrolled in Institutes A and B during 5 years (2018 to 2022).

What is the ratio of the total students enrolled in Institute B in 2019, 2020 and 2022 to that of the total students enrolled in
Institute A in 2018, 2020 and 2021?
Ans 1. 37 : 28

2. 11 : 28

3. 28 : 11

4. 28 : 37

Q.25 The average temperature of a city for the first sixteen days of January is 22°C, and the average temperature for the last
sixteen days of the same month is 26°C. If the average temperature for the entire month is 24°C, what is the temperature on
the sixteenth day?
Ans 1. 24°C

2. 25°C

3. 23°C

4. 22°C

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Abundant
Ans 1. Ample

2. Scarce

3. Barren

4. Difficult

Q.2 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
One who does not show response to good or bad
Ans 1. Stoic

2. Sceptic

3. Cynic

4. Phobic
Q.3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

If you want to be a good detective, it helps to have an inquisitive nature.

Ans 1. Comprehensive

2. Itemised

3. Intrusive

4. Disinterested

Q.4 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The meal was not prepared by us.
Ans 1. We had not prepare the meal.

2. We did not prepare the meal.

3. We did not preparing the meal.

4. We did prepare the meal.

Q.5 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The homework must be done by you.
Ans 1. You should have done the homework.

2. You do the homework.

3. You will do the homework.

4. You must do the homework.

Q.6 Select the correctly spelled sentence.

Ans 1. I will definitely attend the conference.

2. I will definitly attend the conference.

3. I will definetely attend the conference.

4. I will definately attend the conference.

Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

I would love to organise the farewell party at my house.

Ans 1. Derange

2. Disorder

3. Arrange

4. Confuse

Q.8 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
(O) as it was the last one of the evening
(P) the city bus was overcrowded
(Q) and this gave an opportunity
(R) to the pickpockets
(S) to try their skill
Ans 1. SRPOQ

2. PSORQ

3. POQRS

4. SROPQ

Q.9 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Every students in the hostel decided to travel to Delhi to witness the Republic Day parade.
Ans 1. Republic Day Parade.

2. to witness the

3. decided to travel to Delhi

4. Every students in the hostel

Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Break a leg
Ans 1. Give advice on maintaining physical health.

2. Encourage someone to engage in risky activities.

3. Suggest taking a short break during work.

4. Wish someone good luck before a performance.

Q.11 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct logical sequence.

A. These can turn around to track stars with the rotation of Earth.
B. Observatories are places to study place.
C. They are mostly built on the mountain tops.
D. Telescopes are placed in the dome-shaped roof of the building.
Ans 1. BCDA

2. DCBA

3. ACDB

4. CBDA

Q.12 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Allocation

2. Abismal

3. Allegation

4. Aversion

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Raju’s job as a clerk seemed to be bad at first because of the low salary, but resulted in something good happening later
because it saved him from being unemployed.
Ans 1. a boon in disguise

2. a blessing in disguise

3. a jolt in disguise

4. a gift in disguise

Q.14 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
(a) the use of animal research
(b) throughout the past century
(c) and it continues to be used to understand many diseases
(d) has been of considerable importance
(e) in the field of scientific and medical advancements
Ans 1. aecdb

2. ecdba

3. adebc

4. edcba

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.
Spreading awareness about the rights of the consumers and the relief open to them in case they did not get their money’s
worth of goods and service has rightly been identified as the first priority.
Ans 1. were unable to get their money’s worth

2. No substitution

3. did not getting their money’s worth

4. will not get their money’s worth

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
Pollution levels have increased so largely that they are almost killing us.
Ans 1. highly

2. slowly

3. primarily

4. chiefly

Q.17 Identify the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

Scary
Ans 1. bright

2. Pristine

3. awful

4. comforting

Q.18 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
By this time next year / I will had graduated from college / and starting my first job / in the field of marketing.
Ans 1. in the field of marketing

2. and starting my first job

3. By this time next year

4. I will had graduated from college

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in bold.

Elisabeth stood at the piano, which did nothing to allay his anxiety.
Ans 1. mitigate

2. simplify

3. mollify

4. aggravate

Q.20 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Berserk
Ans 1. Demented

2. Absurd

3. Stubborn

4. Lazy

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
From the beginning (1)_________ the eighteenth century, the ladies of European cities covered (2)_______ faces in layers of paint
and powder. This particular fashion was largely brought (3) __________ by the urgent need to disguise the ravages of smallpox,
(4)_________ left their faces pitted and scarred. During this same period, the ‘beauty spot’ was introduced to cover (5) __________ a
facial defect.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. in

2. on

3. of

4. about
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
From the beginning (1)_________ the eighteenth century, the ladies of European cities covered (2)_______ faces in layers of paint
and powder. This particular fashion was largely brought (3) __________ by the urgent need to disguise the ravages of smallpox,
(4)_________ left their faces pitted and scarred. During this same period, the ‘beauty spot’ was introduced to cover (5) __________ a
facial defect.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. their

2. there

3. them

4. they’re

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
From the beginning (1)_________ the eighteenth century, the ladies of European cities covered (2)_______ faces in layers of paint
and powder. This particular fashion was largely brought (3) __________ by the urgent need to disguise the ravages of smallpox,
(4)_________ left their faces pitted and scarred. During this same period, the ‘beauty spot’ was introduced to cover (5) __________ a
facial defect.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. within

2. around

3. to

4. about

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
From the beginning (1)_________ the eighteenth century, the ladies of European cities covered (2)_______ faces in layers of paint
and powder. This particular fashion was largely brought (3) __________ by the urgent need to disguise the ravages of smallpox,
(4)_________ left their faces pitted and scarred. During this same period, the ‘beauty spot’ was introduced to cover (5) __________ a
facial defect.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. that

2. which

3. when

4. who

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
From the beginning (1)_________ the eighteenth century, the ladies of European cities covered (2)_______ faces in layers of paint
and powder. This particular fashion was largely brought (3) __________ by the urgent need to disguise the ravages of smallpox,
(4)_________ left their faces pitted and scarred. During this same period, the ‘beauty spot’ was introduced to cover (5) __________ a
facial defect.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. on

2. to

3. for

4. up
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 09/09/2024
Exam Time 4:00 PM - 5:00 PM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.2 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the letter-
cluster that is different.
Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster.
Ans 1. BEHI

2. TWYZ

3. PSUV

4. FIKL

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘SILK’ is written as ‘TIML’ and ‘INSECT’ is written as ‘IOTEDU’. How will ‘CHANGE’ be written in
that language?
Ans 1. DOIHAE

2. DEIOHA

3. DEIHAO

4. DIAOHE

Q.4 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(19, 456, 6)
(16, 320, 5)
Ans 1. (18, 378, 7)

2. (14, 210, 5)

3. (21, 504, 8)

4. (18, 648, 9)

Q.5 The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letter in the word ‘JANITOR’ is arranged in English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. One

4. Zero
Q.6 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(12, 145)
(9, 82)
Ans 1. (16, 256)

2. (14, 197)

3. (22, 483)

4. (8, 69)

Q.8 Which of the four options will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
XF 11 , YI 15, ZL 19 , AO 23, ?
Ans 1. CQ 25

2. BP 26

3. CR 25

4. BR 27

Q.9 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
P _ A A _ _ Z A _V _ _ A _ _
Ans 1. VPZZPVAP

2. ZPVVAPVZ

3. ZVPAPZAV

4. VZAAPVPZ
Q.10 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 6

2. 8

3. 4

4. 5

Q.11 Study the given diagram carefully and answer the question that follows. The numbers in different sections indicate the
number of persons who have applied for different posts.

What is the total number of persons who have applied for more than one post?
Ans 1. 21

2. 113

3. 15

4. 18

Q.12 Three of the following numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 36 – 84

2. 72 – 168

3. 66 – 154

4. 33 – 72

Q.13 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
CWE:ZFX ::PYT:MDI :: KIL:?
Ans 1. PRO

2. RTQ

3. STQ

4. PQO
Q.14

Ans 1. 47

2. 34

3. 24

4. 23

Q.15 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
MFT, NIS, PLQ, SON, WRJ, ?
Ans 1. RUE

2. BUE

3. BVD

4. BUP
Q.16 Select the option that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17 Select the number from the given options to complete the series.
35, 38, 43, 50, 59, ___
Ans 1. 62

2. 68

3. 78

4. 70

Q.18 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(34, 47, 62)
(119, 142, 167)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. (27, 38, 51)

2. (48, 65, 82)

3. (64, 78, 99)

4. (79, 98, 119)

Q.19 Six letters P, Q, R, S, T and U are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure
below. Find the letter on the face opposite to R.

Ans 1. T

2. Q

3. U

4. S

Q.20 Which two numbers (not digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
24 ÷ 3 – 4 × 2 + 6 × 5 +12 = 50
Ans 1. 5 and 4

2. 4 and 3

3. 24 and 12

4. 3 and 2

Q.21 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
321 – 371 ÷ 22 + 216 × 6 = ?
Ans 1. 7848

2. 7884

3. 8747

4. 8447

Q.22 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A − B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A × B means ‘A is the brother of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the mother of B’.
Based on the above, how is T related to P if ‘P ÷ Q × R − M + T’?
Ans 1. Son

2. Brother

3. Father

4. Husband

Q.23 Six letters A, M, R, S, Y and Q are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figures
below. Find the letter on the face opposite to S.

Ans 1. Q

2. M

3. Y

4. A
 Q.24 In a certain code language, ‘SET’ is coded as ‘37’ and ‘MIX’ is coded as ‘35’. How will ‘WAR’ be coded in that language?
Ans 1. 39

2. 21

3. 32

4. 29

Q.25 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following devised the system of ‘Subsidiary Alliance’?
Ans 1. Lord Wellesley

2. Lord Canning

3. Lord William Bentinck

4. Lord Dalhousie

Q.2 At which Olympics was Kho-Kho featured in an exhibition in the main stadium?
Ans 1. 1936

2. 1932

3. 2008

4. 2016
Q.3 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Ans 1. Fats and oils get reduced over time and smell bad.

2. Fats and oils are oxidised, they become rancid.

3. Antioxidants are added to foods containing fats and oil to prevent oxidation.

4. Chips manufacturers usually flush bags of chips with Nitrogen to prevent the chips from getting ranicid.

Q.4 Hot local wind that flows over north India in summer is known as:
Ans 1. Loo

2. Chinook

3. Mango showers

4. Purga

Q.5 ‘Nuakhai’ is the state festival of:

Ans 1. Meghalaya

2. Odisha

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Bihar

Q.6 Which Article of the Indian Constitution prohibits providing of any religious instruction in the educational institutions
maintained by the State?
Ans 1. Article 29

2. Article 28

3. Article 30

4. Article 31

Q.7 As per the definition of Census of India, a ‘marginal worker’ is a person who works for:
Ans 1. less than 183 days (or six months) in a year

2. more than 183 days (or six months) in a year

3. eight months in a year

4. 83 days in a year

Q.8 In which year was the 'Naye Bharat Ke Sapne' campaign launched by Meta and the Ministry of Women?
Ans 1. 2022

2. 2023

3. 2020

4. 2021

Q.9 Under which of the following Acts was the power to rule India, transferred from the English East India Company to the
British Crown?
Ans 1. Charter Act of 1833

2. Regulating Act 1773

3. Pitt's India Act 1784

4. Government of India Act 1858

Q.10 Which of the following is an inactivated (killed) polio vaccine developed in 1952?
Ans 1. Salk vaccine

2. Imvanex vaccine

3. HDCV vaccine

4. TAB vaccine
Q.11 Which of the following statements is correct?.
Ans 1. The five-year plan focuses mostly on private intervention in the economy.

2. The five-year plan always focused on the growth of the tertiary sector.

3. The five-year plan permits long-term intervention by the government in the economy.

4. A five-year plan always stresses market-oriented activities.

Q.12 What is the length of Indian Railways network, according to Railway Yearbook 2019-20?
Ans 1. 67,956 km

2. 1,604 km

3. 63,950 km

4. 2,402 km

Q.13 In Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas yojana, the cost of unit assistance is shared between Central and State Governments in
the ratio ___________ in plain areas.
Ans 1. 60 : 40

2. 40 : 60

3. 90 : 10

4. 30 : 70

Q.14 Silappathikaram (the Jewelled Anklet), the earliest epic poem in Tamil was written in the 5th - 6th Century CE by _________.
Ans 1. Tolkappiyar

2. Ilango Adigal

3. Sittalai Sattanar

4. Tirumalisai Alwar

Q.15 Which of the following is the largest crustal plate on Earth with an area of over 103,000,000 km2?
Ans 1. South American plate

2. African plate

3. Eurasian plate

4. Pacific plate

Q.16 Which of the following personalities is a Padma Shri awardee folk singer from the state of Uttar Pradesh?
Ans 1. Ila Arun

2. Ajita Srivastava

3. Gurmeet Bawa

4. Teejan Bai

Q.17 Which of the following countries won the first men’s Asian Hockey Championship trophy?
Ans 1. Japan

2. China

3. India

4. Pakistan

Q.18 Which of the following goods needs further transformation in the economic process?
Ans 1. Consumer durable goods

2. Finished goods

3. Intermediate goods

4. Capital goods
 Q.19 In which of the following states is the Nrityagram, an Odissi dance institution, located?
Ans 1. Kerala

2. Karnataka

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Maharashtra

Q.20 Who among the following was the youngest instrumentalist to be awarded the Padma Bhushan, the third highest civilian
award of India in 2002?
Ans 1. Pandit Ravi Shankar

2. Ustad Zakir Hussain

3. Pandit Bhimsen Joshi

4. Ustad Bismillah Khan

Q.21 Who was the revenue minister during the reign of Akbar?
Ans 1. Todar Mal

2. Abdul Rahim

3. Mulla Do-Piyaza

4. Tansen

Q.22 Which of the following Illustrations shows the mitochondrion’s structural details?

Ans 1. d

2. b

3. c

4. a

Q.23 Which of the following is a straight-chain alkyl carboxylic acid with the chemical formula CH3CH2CH2CO2H?
Ans 1. Methanoic acid

2. Propionic acid

3. Ethanoic acid

4. Butyric acid

Q.24 Article 77 of the Indian Constitution deals with the __________.

Ans 1. term of office of the Vice-President

2. Vice-President of India

3. oath of office by the Vice-President

4. conduct of business of the Government of India

Q.25 The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 deals with subsistence allowance in which of the following
Sections?
Ans 1. Section 5

2. Section 6

3. Section 7

4. Section 4

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 A stock portfolio consists of four stocks. Stock A represents 20% of the portfolio and has a return of 6%. Stock B represents
30% of the portfolio and has a return of 8%. Stock C represents 20% of the portfolio and has a return of 4%. Stock D
represents the remaining 30% of the portfolio and has a negative-return of 5%. What is the average return of the portfolio?
Ans 1. 2.9%

2. 2.6%

3. 3.2%

4. 3.4%

Q.2

Ans 1. 13

2. 9

3. 0

4. 26

Q.3

Ans 1. 38,450

2. 42,577

3. 40,263

4. 39,376

Q.4 In a clearance sale, a sari whose marked price was ₹10,490 is now sold for ₹9,441. What is the discount percentage on the
sari?
Ans 1. 10%

2. 15%

3. 18%

4. 12%

Q.5 A pipe can fill an overhead tank in 12 hours. But due to a leak at the bottom, it is filled in 18 hours. If the tank is full, how
much time will the leak take to empty it?
Ans 1. 3.6 hours

2. 63 hours

3. 7.2 hours

4. 36 hours
Q.6 Two triangles EFG and HIJ are congruent. If the area of ΔEFG is 124 cm2, then the area of ΔHIJ will be:
Ans 1. 124 cm2

2. 248 cm2

3. 62 cm2

4. 31 cm2

Q.7 Let a + b = 2c, then which of the following expressions is true?

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.8 If the equations 4x + (k − 2)y + 3 = 0 and (k − 2)x + 9y − 5 = 0 (k > 0) are parallel, then find the value of k2 + 6.
Ans 1. 68

2. 70

3. 72

4. 64

Q.9 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The given table shows the production of T-shirts by four companies i.e., C1, C2, C3 and C4 over the four years.

Which company had the maximum average production of T-shirts during these four years?
Ans 1. C1

2. C3

3. C2

4. C4

Q.10

Ans 1. 7

2. 5

3. 9

4. 11
Q.11

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.12

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.13 Ramesh has ₹18,000. He deposited ₹7,000 in a bank at the rate of 5% per annum and ₹6,000 in other bank at the rate of 6%
per annum simple interest. If he received ₹1,160 as simple interest at the end of one year, then the rate of interest per annum
on rest of the capital is equal to:
Ans 1. 10%

2. 11%

3. 9%

4. 8%

Q.14 If the length, breadth, and height of a cuboid is 8 cm, 4 cm, and 6 cm, respectively, then the volume (in cm3) of the cuboid is:
Ans 1. 218

2. 192

3. 96

4. 172

Q.15

Ans 1. 25.93%

2. 26.39%

3. 28.26%

4. 27.62%
Q.16 Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.
The graph shows the production of refrigerators by three companies in 2018.

The refrigerators produced by company C form what percentage of the total production?
Ans 1. 34.35%

2. 32.56%

3. 30.25%

4. 31.25%

Q.17 What is the perimeter (in cm, rounded off to one decimal place) of the sector of a circle with a radius of 10 cm and of angle
30°?
(Use π = 3.14)
Ans 1. 20.4

2. 35.7

3. 82.8

4. 25.2

Q.18 If 7845K854 is divisible by 11, then what is the value of K?

Ans 1. 6

2. 9

3. 7

4. 8

Q.19

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.20 In aΔPQR, the bisectors of∠ Q and∠ R meet at point O, inside the triangle. If∠ QOR = 107°, then the measure of∠ P is:
Ans 1. 40°

2. 23°

3. 17°

4. 34°

Q.21
If then the value of is:

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 A number is first increased by 12% and then increased by 23%. The number, so obtained, is now decreased by 34%. What is
the net increase or decrease percent in the original number (nearest to an integer)?
Ans 1. 10% increase

2. 9% decrease

3. 10% decrease

4. 9% increase

Q.23 A dishonest shopkeeper claims to sell salt at a rate of ₹25/kg. The cost price of the salt is ₹25/kg. Not satisfied with this, he
tries to make profit by removing 200 gm from each kg. What is the shopkeeper’s gain percentage?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.24 A thief noticed a policeman at a distance of 600 metres. The thief started running and the policeman chased him. The thief
and policeman are running at speeds of 12 km/h and 15 km/h, respectively. Find the time (in minutes) required for the
policeman to catch the thief.
Ans 1. 8

2. 10

3. 12

4. 15
 Q.25

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Morbid compulsion to consume alcohol continuously
Ans 1. Satyromania

2. Maniac

3. Kleptomania

4. Dipsomania

Q.2 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The painting was admired by art enthusiasts from around the world.
Ans 1. The painting was being admired by art enthusiasts from around the world.

2. Art enthusiasts from around the world admired the painting.

3. Art enthusiasts from around the world have admired the painting.

4. The painting has been admired by art enthusiasts from around the world.

Q.3 Select the word segment that can substitute the bracketed word segment correctly and complete the sentence meaningfully.
(Each participant have) performed well.
Ans 1. Each participant was

2. Each participant has

3. Each participant have been

4. Each participant were

Q.4 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

Fatima was at her wits’ end trying to decide on a serene place for spending the holidays in.
Ans 1. So worried, confused or annoyed that she does not know what to do next

2. So worried, confused or annoyed that she became unconscious

3. So calm and composed that she knows what to do next

4. So worried, confused or annoyed that she insulted others for no reason

Q.5 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

P. having the opportunity of observing people’s

Q. we respect and appreciate their point of views
R. the advantage of travelling different places and
S. culture, custom and lifestyle, is that
Ans 1. RQPS

2. PSQR

3. RPSQ

4. SQPR
Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
Ans 1. Accommodate

2. Mischievious

3. Millennium

4. Privilege

Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Taut
Ans 1. Slack

2. Tight

3. Torn

4. Flaccid

Q.8 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
He will be made President by the people.
Ans 1. People will be making him the President.

2. The people will make him President.

3. By the people, he shall be made the President.

4. He will be made President by the people.

Q.9 Which of the following idioms means ‘to steal from a shop’?
Ans 1. Golden opportunity

2. Green thumb

3. Five-finger discount

4. Black sheep

Q.10 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
I are dancing with my husband at my sister’s wedding.
Ans 1. husband at my

2. sister’s wedding

3. with my

4. I are dancing

Q.11 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
The tea at this café is best than at the Costa Café in our office.
Ans 1. at the Costa Café

2. The tea at this café

3. is best than

4. in our office

Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Miserable
Ans 1. Melodious

2. Settled

3. Restrained

4. Cheerful

Q.13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Confiscate
Ans 1. Restock

2. Destroy

3. Seize

4. Titivate
Q.14 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given word.
Edible
Ans 1. noisome

2. mortal

3. noxious

4. nutritive

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
There are many factories in the operative area of the city.
Ans 1. industrial

2. serviceable

3. industrious

4. mechanical

Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of the bracketed word in the following sentence to fill in the blank.

The elaborate syllabi had to be ________(summarised) to make a presentation in the UGC assessment meeting.
Ans 1. expanded

2. recapitulated

3. prolonged

4. lengthened

Q.17 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the following sentence and select its correct spelling from the given options.
I receieved a parcel in the mail today.
Ans 1. received

2. recived

3. recieved

4. receaved

Q.18 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.
The question papers are placed in the lockers of the school in a way that they can’t be reached.
Ans 1. are irrepressible

2. are inaccessible

3. are affordable

4. are affable

Q.19 Select the most appropriate homophone to fill in the blank.

He has the ________ to express his thoughts.
Ans 1. right

2. ride

3. write

4. rite

Q.20 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
An order of law requiring people to remain indoors
Ans 1. Restriction

2. Curfew

3. Limit

4. Check in
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Tea prices in the domestic (1)__________ continue to rule high in the current year despite the expectation of a higher production as
compared to the previous year. During the past three months, tea prices have been (2)__________ with the prices of other
companies. Unlike last year, tea prices have generally shown (3) __________, when tea prices rose dramatically, this year, prices
seem to have (4) __________ at a rather high level. In the subsequent four months, the (5)__________ average price showed a
downtrend.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. market

2. area

3. zone

4. field

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Tea prices in the domestic (1)__________ continue to rule high in the current year despite the expectation of a higher production as
compared to the previous year. During the past three months, tea prices have been (2)__________ with the prices of other
companies. Unlike last year, tea prices have generally shown (3) __________, when tea prices rose dramatically, this year, prices
seem to have (4) __________ at a rather high level. In the subsequent four months, the (5)__________ average price showed a
downtrend.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. aligning

2. favouring

3. countering

4. encountering

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Tea prices in the domestic (1)__________ continue to rule high in the current year despite the expectation of a higher production as
compared to the previous year. During the past three months, tea prices have been (2)__________ with the prices of other
companies. Unlike last year, tea prices have generally shown (3) __________, when tea prices rose dramatically, this year, prices
seem to have (4) __________ at a rather high level. In the subsequent four months, the (5)__________ average price showed a
downtrend.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. an inflow

2. an innate

3. a reduction

4. an uptrend

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Tea prices in the domestic (1)__________ continue to rule high in the current year despite the expectation of a higher production as
compared to the previous year. During the past three months, tea prices have been (2)__________ with the prices of other
companies. Unlike last year, tea prices have generally shown (3) __________, when tea prices rose dramatically, this year, prices
seem to have (4) __________ at a rather high level. In the subsequent four months, the (5)__________ average price showed a
downtrend.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. stabilised

2. moderated

3. equated

4. abated
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Tea prices in the domestic (1)__________ continue to rule high in the current year despite the expectation of a higher production as
compared to the previous year. During the past three months, tea prices have been (2)__________ with the prices of other
companies. Unlike last year, tea prices have generally shown (3) __________, when tea prices rose dramatically, this year, prices
seem to have (4) __________ at a rather high level. In the subsequent four months, the (5)__________ average price showed a
downtrend.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. monthly

2. half yearly

3. weekly

4. yearly
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 10/09/2024
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Six letters S, T, M, P, R and C are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figures
below. Find the letter on the face opposite to M.

Ans 1. R

2. P

3. C

4. S
Q.2 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.3 ‘Blossom’ is related to ‘Wither’ in the same way as ‘Stagnate’ is related to ‘________’.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Ans 1. Stand

2. Rest

3. Languish

4. Flow

Q.4 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
18 − 23 × 455 ÷ 7 + 28 = 377
Ans 1. + and ×

2. − and ×

3. − and +

4. ÷ and −
Q.5 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘–’ are
interchanged?

4 − 12 + 3 ÷ 12 × 6 = ?
Ans 1. 13

2. 46

3. 11

4. 22

Q.6 The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word ‘PRANKED’ is arranged in the
English alphabetical order?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. None

4. Two

Q.7 10 is related to 15 following certain logic. Following the same logic, 42 is related to 63. To which of the following numbers is
22 related, following the same logic? (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking
down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can
be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 28

2. 30

3. 33

4. 31

Q.8 How many squares are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 14

2. 12

3. 15

4. 13

Q.9 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Temerity : Shyness :: Pique : ?
Ans 1. Resentment

2. Anger

3. Delight

4. Offence

Q.10 Select the option that represents the letters that when placed from left to right in the blanks below will complete the given
letter series.
LMBA_HOLMBAC_OLM_ACHOL_BACHOL_
Ans 1. CHMBM

2. CMHBM

3. CHBMM

4. CHMMB
Q.11 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(7, 9, 48)
(6, 8, 42)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (8, 10, 47)

2. (9, 11, 56)

3. (11, 13, 72)

4. (10, 12, 54)

Q.12 Three of the following four options are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the option that does NOT
belong to that group?
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed).
Ans 1. 2 – 4 – 8

2. 2 – 2 – 4

3. 3 – 2 – 5

4. 1 – 3 – 3

Q.13 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements: Some boxes are cartons. All cartons are papers. Some cartons are utensils.
Conclusion (I): No box is a utensil.
Conclusion (II): Some papers are utensils.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

3. Only conclusion (II) follows

4. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.14 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(79, 58, 62)
(54, 33, 37)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (59, 33, 43)

2. (47, 36, 41)

3. (66, 45, 49)

4. (43, 25, 30)

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘sit on chair’ is coded as 'sk mi cn' and ‘the chair broke’ is coded as ‘gm fr mi’. How is ‘chair’
coded in the given language?
Ans 1. sk

2. cn

3. mi

4. gm
Q.16 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.18 In a certain code language, 'BELL' is written as 'MKFA' and 'BOND' is written as 'EMPA'. How will 'BLEW’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. XMDA

2. XMAD

3. XDAM

4. XDMA
Q.19 A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.20 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is
different. The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster
Ans 1. LQV

2. DIN

3. PTX

4. AFK

Q.21 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
ZVRN, VSPM, RPNL, ?, JJJJ
Ans 1. RMLN

2. RNLL

3. RNLK

4. NMLK

Q.22 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
23, 27, 43, 79, 143, ?
Ans 1. 240

2. 243

3. 250

4. 200
 Q.23 In a certain code language,
A # B means A is the sister of B.
A @ B means A is the son of B.
A & B means A is the wife of B.
A % B means A is the father of B.
How is Q related to R if P & Q % L # R & K?
Ans 1. Sister

2. Wife

3. Father

4. Mother

Q.24 Select the option that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
FM61, EK58, DI55, CG52, ?
Ans 1. BE49

2. CE46

3. CD44

4. BF48

Q.25 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In which of the following cities of Manipur is the Jawaharlal Nehru Manipur Dance Academy located?
Ans 1. Imphal

2. Ukhrul

3. Chandel

4. Thoubal

Q.2 By which of the following state governments is the Tansen Music Festival organised?
Ans 1. Maharashtra Government

2. Madhya Pradesh Government

3. Rajasthan Government

4. Uttar Pradesh Government

Q.3 Which of the following places is related to Gandhi’s Satyagraha of the year 1917?
Ans 1. Kheda

2. Ahmedabad

3. Champaran

4. Bardoli
Q.4 Hubbardia heptaneuron, which has become endangered, is a species of which of the following?
Ans 1. Grass

2. Bamboo

3. Tiger

4. Crane

Q.5 Which of the following is in geographical proximity to Sri Lanka?

Ans 1. Only Karaikal

2. Karaikal and Yanam

3. Mahe

4. Only Yanam

Q.6 Which Five-Year Plan primarily focused on the 'Garibi Hatao' initiative?
Ans 1. Sixth Five-Year Plan

2. Fourth Five-Year Plan

3. Fifth Five-Year Plan

4. Third Five-Year Plan

Q.7 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Ans 1. They promote welfare of individuals. Hence, they are personal and individualistic.

2. These have moral and political sanctions.

3. They aim at establishing social and economic democracy in the country.

4. They are positive, as they require the State to do certain things.

Q.8 After the death of Humayun, the 13 year-old Akbar was coronated in 1556 at Kalanaur in ________.
Ans 1. Rajasthan

2. Gujarat

3. Bengal

4. Punjab

Q.9 The climate of a place is NOT affected by which of the following?

Ans 1. Relief

2. Type of soil

3. Location

4. Distance from the sea

Q.10 In which musical note did Newland put the metals Co and Ni with halogens?
Ans 1. Fa

2. Do

3. Re

4. Mi

Q.11 Which of the following is NOT correct with regards to the history of calculating National Income (NI) in India?
Ans 1. First attempt to compute NI was made by Dadabhai Naoroji.

2. First official attempt to compute NI was made by PC Mahalanobis.

3. Dadabhai Naoroji divided the Indian economy into two parts: primary sector and secondary sector.

4. First scientific method to compute NI was used by Dr VKRV Rao.

Q.12 According to the Indian Railways (2019-2020), which state has the largest railway track in India?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Haryana

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.13 Which government honoured a distinguished percussionist named Pandit Anindo Chatterjee with the Banga Vibhushan
Award in 2022?
Ans 1. Assam

2. Tripura

3. West Bengal

4. Jharkhand

Q.14 Which of the following festivals is celebrated as the birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev?
Ans 1. Hola Mohalla

2. Baisakhi

3. Gurpurab

4. Chappar Mela

Q.15 Who was appointed as India’s 28th Controller General of Accounts (CGA) in March 2023?
Ans 1. Arun Goel

2. Praveen Sharma

3. Vikram Devdutt

4. SS Dubey

Q.16 The Parliament passed the Marine Aids to Navigation Bill, 2021 to repeal and replace which of the following Acts?
Ans 1. The Dangerous Machines (Regulation) Act, 1983

2. The Personal Injuries (Emergency Provisions) Act, 1962

3. The Lighthouse Act, 1927

4. The Dourine Act, 1910

Q.17 Which of the following is a non-perishable food?

Ans 1. Pulses

2. Meat

3. Curds

4. Milk

Q.18 How many awards were presented at the National Sports and Adventure Awards-2022 ceremony held at Rashtrapati Bhavan
on 30 November 2022?
Ans 1. 32

2. 44

3. 52

4. 28

Q.19 Which Governor-General of British India helped Raja Ram Mohan Roy legally abolish the sati practice?
Ans 1. Lord Ripon

2. Lord Curzon

3. Lord Cornwallis

4. Lord William Bentinck

 Q.20 When was the 1st Asian Kabaddi Championship held?
Ans 1. 1970

2. 1985

3. 1980

4. 1975

Q.21 The decomposition of gaseous Ammonia on a hot platinum surface is a _______________ order reaction at high pressure.
Ans 1. two

2. zero

3. three

4. one

Q.22 Which of the following was the mascot of the FIH men’s Hockey World Cup – 2023?
Ans 1. Jitu

2. Bheema

3. Olly

4. Asha

Q.23 The Indian Constitution has established _________.

Ans 1. partial Judicial system

2. dual judicial system

3. independent judicial system

4. plural judicial system

Q.24 Which organisms are classified as Aves?

Ans 1. Fishes

2. Frogs

3. Snakes

4. Birds

Q.25 Mahabalipuram emerged as an important centre of temple architecture under which of the following kingdoms of south
India?
Ans 1. Pallava

2. Chola

3. Chera

4. Chalukya

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 The ages of two friends, Ram and Ravi, differ by 7 years. Ram’s mother Mayadevi is three times as old as Ram, and Ravi is
four times as old as his brother Soham. The ages of Mayadevi and Soham differ by 65 years. Find the age of Mayadevi (in
years).
Ans 1. 69

2. 36

3. 85

4. 45
Q.2

Ans 1. 14 : 9

2. 7 : 6

3. 6 : 7

4. 9 : 14

Q.3

Ans 1. 56

2. 48

3. 45

4. 42

Q.4 By applying which of the following criteria can two triangles NOT be proved congruent?
Ans 1. angle-side-angle

2. angle-angle-angle

3. side-side-side

4. side-angle-side

Q.5 Two circles of radii 18 cm and 12 cm touch each other externally. Find the length (in cm) of their direct common tangent.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.6

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7 Kiran lent ₹4,000 to two persons such that one part of it at the rate of 8% per annum and the remaining part at the rate of
10% per annum. He got an annual simple interest of ₹352. Then the sum lent at 10% is:
Ans 1. ₹1,800

2. ₹2,200

3. ₹2,400

4. ₹1,600

Q.8 X, Y, and Z are three points on a plane with XY = 11 cm, YZ = 13 cm, and XZ = 24 cm. The number of circles that travel
through points X, Y, and Z is:
Ans 1. 0

2. 2

3. 1

4. 3

Q.9
Ans 1. 8

2. 5

3.

4.

Q.10 If, on a marked price, the difference between selling prices with a discount of 65% and with two successive discounts of
30% and 40% is ₹105, then the marked price (in ₹) is:
Ans 1. 1,650

2. 1,050

3. 1,500

4. 1,320

Q.11 A pole 10 m long rests slantly against a vertical wall AB making an angle 30° with the horizontal (ground). Find how far the
foot of the pole is from the wall (in metres).
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.12 The bar graph given below shows the sales of books from six schools during two consecutive years, 2013 and 2014.

What percentage of the average sales of the schools A, B, and C in 2014 is the average sales of schools A, C, and F in 2013?
Ans 1. 81.08%

2. 81%

3. 80%

4. 80.08%

Q.13 A money bag contains one rupee, 5 rupee and 10 rupee coins in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7 respectively. If the total amount in the
bag is ₹980,then find the number of coins of ₹10.
Ans 1. 69

2. 70

3. 71

4. 68

Q.14 Which of the following is the largest 5-digit number divisible by 47?
Ans 1. 99999

2. 98888

3. 99969

4. 10000

Q.15

Ans 1. 806 cm2

2. 704 cm2

3. 904 cm2

4. 608 cm2

Q.16 Let 0° < t < 90°. Then which of the followings is true?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
 Q.17 Ramesh purchased some items from a dealer on 19 November 2019. The bill generated was for ₹5,480. He had also
purchased some items on 10 November 2019 having the bill value of ₹9,800. He cleared both the bills this time and paid the
total amount in cash. If the dealer gives a scheme of 2% discount on the payments done within 10 days and 5% for the
payments made in cash at the time of purchase, then find the amount paid by Ramesh on 19 November 2019.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.1
8

An 1. 30%
s
2. 20%

3. 15%

4. 40%

Q.19

Ans 1. 144

2. 146

3. 142

4. 140

Q.20 The side of an equilateral triangle is 28 cm. Taking each vertex as the centre, a circle is described with a radius equal to half
the length of the side of the triangle. Find the area of that part of the triangle which is not included in the circles (use =

and ).

Ans 1. 30.89 cm2

2. 38.08 cm2

3. 31.08 cm2

4. 39.08 cm2

Q.21

Ans 1. 238.5

2. 271.25

3. 314.75

4. 284.55
 Q.22 In a circular race of 750 m, X and Y start from the same point and at the same time with speeds of 9 km/h and 13.5 km/h,
respectively. If they are running in the same direction then, when will they meet again for the first time on the track?
Ans 1. 750 seconds

2. 900 seconds

3. 500 seconds

4. 600 seconds

Q.23
A bus travels of the distance initially at a speed of 40 km/h, the next of the distance 50 km/h, and the final of the
distance at 60 km/h. Find the average speed of the bus for the entire journey.

(Rounded off to two decimal places)

Ans 1. 48.65 km/h

2. 51.43 km/h

3. 54.13 km/h

4. 46.85 km/h

Q.24 Three pipes P, Q and R can fill a cistern in 40 minutes, 80 minutes and 120 minutes, respectively. Initially, all the pipes are
opened. After how much time (in minutes) should the pipes Q and R be turned off so that the cistern will be completely filled
in just half an hour?
Ans 1. 14

2. 10

3. 16

4. 12

Q.25 If the sum of three numbers is 18 and the sum of their squares is 36, then find the difference between the sum of their cubes
and three times of their product.
Ans 1. 1449

2. −1944

3. −1494

4. 4149

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Identify the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

Timid
Ans 1. Meek

2. Anxious

3. Daring

4. Spooky

Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

On the ball
Ans 1. Unaware of any changes or developments and lazy to react to them

2. Aware of any changes or developments but slow to react to them

3. Aware of any changes or developments and quick to react to them

4. Aware of any changes or developments but doing nothing

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
I have been living in Hyderabad since I am born .
Ans 1. since I have born

2. since I will be born

3. since I born

4. since I was born

Q.4 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who sells and arranges cut flowers.

Ans 1. Horticulturist

2. Botanist

3. Gardener

4. Florist

Q.5 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
After the concert was over, / they go to a restaurant, / had dinner together / and talked until midnight.
Ans 1. had dinner together

2. they go to a restaurant,

3. After the concert was over,

4. and talked until midnight

Q.6 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A small group of people who spend their time together and do not welcome other people into that group
Ans 1. Squad

2. Clique

3. Employees

4. Lobby

Q.7 The following sentence contains a word with a spelling error. Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling of the
identified word from the given options.

He has to be conscious of his public manners as he is a decendent of a reputed family in this region.
Ans 1. Dicsendent

2. Descendant

3. Discendent

4. Decendant

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
The Morbi bridge mishap has left Gujarat in a deplorable state.
Ans 1. Jubilation

2. Despicable

3. Complaining

4. Rejoicing

Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

He was trembling with fear.

Ans 1. Shivering

2. Weeping

3. Running

4. Intrepid
Q.10 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.
A. More children go to school than at any time in the past. But more children today are out of school than any time in the
past.
B. But it is not enough to blame the high birth rate for this state of affairs.
C. Indeed, it can be reasonably argued that continued mass illiteracy is not the result but the cause of the high birth rate.
D. There are more literate people in India today than ever before. But there are also more illiterates than ever before.
Ans 1. ABCD

2. CBAD

3. DABC

4. BADC

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the bold word in the following sentence.
He tried to alleviate the sufferings of his neighbours.
Ans 1. Swell

2. Add

3. Intensify

4. Relieve

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Renewable energy / sources like solar and wind power / will replaced traditional fossil fuels / and help reduce carbon
emissions.
Ans 1. and help reduce carbon emissions

2. Renewable energy

3. will replaced traditional fossil fuels

4. sources like solar and wind power

Q.13 Identify from the given options the word which is similar in meaning to the following word.
Equivocal
Ans 1. Clear

2. Ambiguous

3. Representative

4. Balanced

Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

She was elated about her promotion, but her colleague felt quite disheartened.
Ans 1. cheerful

2. proud

3. discouraged

4. delighted

Q.15 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The contract was grabbed by the biggest telecom company in India.
Ans 1. The biggest telecom company in India grabbed the contract.

2. The biggest telecom company in India grabs the contract.

3. The biggest telecom company in India will grab the contract.

4. The biggest telecom company in India has grabbed the contract.

Q.16 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

I'm _______________ about whether to accept the job offer or continue freelancing. Both options have their advantages.
Ans 1. on the fence

2. cutting corners

3. left out in cold

4. up in arms
Q.17 Select the correctly spelt word.
Ans 1. Conscensus

2. Entrepreneurship

3. Collaegue

4. Bizzaire

Q.18 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
By whom was grammar taught to you?
Ans 1. Did he teach you grammar?

2. Who had taught you grammar?

3. You were taught grammar by whom?

4. Who taught you grammar?

Q.19 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A place where fruit trees are grown

Ans 1. Orchard

2. Garden

3. Quay

4. Museum

Q.20 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A government by the officials
Ans 1. Autocracy

2. Bureaucracy

3. Monarchy

4. Plutocracy

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The third National Wildlife Action Plan for 2017- 2031, underlying India’s plan for wildlife conservation, was unveiled (1)______ the
Global Wildlife Programme conference. The plan recognises (2)________ addresses concerns pertaining to climate changes and its
impact on wildlife .
The plan details the importance of ecosystems for food production, health and other aspects of (3)______ survival and sustainable
development. It also emphasises preservation of genetic (4)_______ and sustainable utilisation of species and ecosystems which has
direct bearing on our scientific advancements and support to millions of rural communities.
The plan underscores rehabilitation of threatened wildlife species (5)_______ inland aquatic, coastal and marine ecosystems while
conserving their habitats.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. at

2. for

3. in

4. to
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The third National Wildlife Action Plan for 2017- 2031, underlying India’s plan for wildlife conservation, was unveiled (1)______ the
Global Wildlife Programme conference. The plan recognises (2)________ addresses concerns pertaining to climate changes and its
impact on wildlife .
The plan details the importance of ecosystems for food production, health and other aspects of (3)______ survival and sustainable
development. It also emphasises preservation of genetic (4)_______ and sustainable utilisation of species and ecosystems which has
direct bearing on our scientific advancements and support to millions of rural communities.
The plan underscores rehabilitation of threatened wildlife species (5)_______ inland aquatic, coastal and marine ecosystems while
conserving their habitats.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. to

2. and

3. in

4. for

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The third National Wildlife Action Plan for 2017- 2031, underlying India’s plan for wildlife conservation, was unveiled (1)______ the
Global Wildlife Programme conference. The plan recognises (2)________ addresses concerns pertaining to climate changes and its
impact on wildlife .
The plan details the importance of ecosystems for food production, health and other aspects of (3)______ survival and sustainable
development. It also emphasises preservation of genetic (4)_______ and sustainable utilisation of species and ecosystems which has
direct bearing on our scientific advancements and support to millions of rural communities.
The plan underscores rehabilitation of threatened wildlife species (5)_______ inland aquatic, coastal and marine ecosystems while
conserving their habitats.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. group

2. human

3. species

4. breed

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The third National Wildlife Action Plan for 2017- 2031, underlying India’s plan for wildlife conservation, was unveiled (1)______ the
Global Wildlife Programme conference. The plan recognises (2)________ addresses concerns pertaining to climate changes and its
impact on wildlife .
The plan details the importance of ecosystems for food production, health and other aspects of (3)______ survival and sustainable
development. It also emphasises preservation of genetic (4)_______ and sustainable utilisation of species and ecosystems which has
direct bearing on our scientific advancements and support to millions of rural communities.
The plan underscores rehabilitation of threatened wildlife species (5)_______ inland aquatic, coastal and marine ecosystems while
conserving their habitats.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. conflict

2. diversity

3. focus

4. rejection
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The third National Wildlife Action Plan for 2017- 2031, underlying India’s plan for wildlife conservation, was unveiled (1)______ the
Global Wildlife Programme conference. The plan recognises (2)________ addresses concerns pertaining to climate changes and its
impact on wildlife .
The plan details the importance of ecosystems for food production, health and other aspects of (3)______ survival and sustainable
development. It also emphasises preservation of genetic (4)_______ and sustainable utilisation of species and ecosystems which has
direct bearing on our scientific advancements and support to millions of rural communities.
The plan underscores rehabilitation of threatened wildlife species (5)_______ inland aquatic, coastal and marine ecosystems while
conserving their habitats.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. including

2. gathering

3. counting

4. mixing
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 10/09/2024
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 1:30 PM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’.
A − B means ‘A is the father of B’.
A × B means ‘A is the mother of B’.
A ÷ B means ‘A is the wife of B’.
Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P × Q + R ÷ S − T’?
Ans 1. Sister

2. Wife

3. Mother

4. Mother’s mother

Q.2 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
543, 518, 495, 474, 455, ?
Ans 1. 444

2. 442

3. 440

4. 438

Q.3 104 is related to 13 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 136 is related to 17. To which of the following is 232
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 29

2. 31

3. 33

4. 27

Q.4 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some bags are purses.
All purses are wallets.
All wallets are sacks.
Conclusions:
(I) All purses are sacks.
(II) Some wallets are bags.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) are follow

2. Only conclusion (II) is follow

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is follow

4. Only conclusion (I) is follow

Q.5 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
No bench is chair.
All sofas are benches.
All tables are sofas.

Conclusions:
I. No table is a chair.
II. Some sofas are chairs.
III. All tables are benches.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Only conclusions I and II follow

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Only conclusions I and III follow

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘COWS’ is coded as ‘7935’ and ‘OILY’ is coded as ‘2568’. What is the code for ‘O’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 8

3. 2

4. 9

Q.7 Three of the following number-pairs are alike in some manner and hence form a group. Which number-pair does not belong
to that group?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 21 – 420

2. 22 – 462

3. 18 – 306

4. 15 – 240

Q.8 Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that
group? The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster
Ans 1. DHK

2. EIM

3. BFJ

4. IMQ

Q.9 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
BACK : CCBI : : TEST : UGRR : : WORK : ?
Ans 1. YQQJ

2. XQSI

3. YQPI

4. XQQI

Q.10 Select the pair in which the numbers are related to each other in the same way as are the numbers in the given pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
12 : 25
11 : 23
Ans 1. 15 : 29

2. 25 : 49

3. 21 : 43

4. 18 : 35
Q.11 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.12 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.13 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(25, 300, 6)
(19, 342, 9)
Ans 1. (17, 476, 7)

2. (24, 600, 5)

3. (18, 288, 8)

4. (14, 364, 7)

Q.14 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.15 Six letters A, T, M, P, S and R are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure below.
Find the letter on the face opposite to the one having R.

Ans 1. S

2. T

3. A

4. M

Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘TIZZ’ is written as ‘VKBB’ and ‘QOPH’ is written as ‘SQRJ’. How will ‘CKAU’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. EMCW

2. DNBV

3. ENCV

4. DMBW
Q.17 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 16

2. 17

3. 14

4. 15

Q.18 Each vowel in the word ‘SIMILAR’ is changed to the following letter in the English alphabetical order and each consonant is
changed to the preceding letter in the English alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical
order between the letter which is the second from the left end and the third from the left end in the group of letters thus
formed?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. One

4. Four

Q.19 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?
ICT, FES, CGR, ZIQ, ?
Ans 1. XLO

2. WKP

3. XKP

4. WJP
Q.20 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
DOY:PAK ::BQM:NCY :: ILU:?
Ans 1. TYG

2. UYG

3. TXG

4. UXG

Q.22 Which two numbers (not digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
116 - 92 ÷ 4 + 25 × 2 - 20 = 150
Ans 1. 116 and 92

2. 25 and 20

3. 2 and 4

4. 20 and 92
 Q.23 Six letters U, V, W, X, Y and Z are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure
below. Find the letter on the face opposite to Z.

Ans 1. W

2. Y

3. X

4. U

Q.24 Which two numbers (not digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
72 – 6 + (18 ÷ 4) + 17 – (22 × 2) = 44
Ans 1. 2 and 4

2. 22 and 18

3. 6 and 22

4. 6 and 4

Q.25 Select the option that represents the letters that when placed from left to right in the blanks below will complete the given
letter series.
DF_IJOD_HIJO_FHIJODF_IJOD_
Ans 1. HFFDH

2. FHDHF

3. HFHDF

4. HFDHF

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 As of March 2023, how many High Courts are there in India?
Ans 1. 25

2. 35

3. 30

4. 20

Q.2 Harela is a festival of greenery, peace, prosperity, and environmental conservation, primarily celebrated in which of the
following states?
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Haryana

3. Assam

4. Uttarakhand

Q.3 Which species is known as black lipped pearl oyster found in the Indo-Pacific, within tropical coral reefs?
Ans 1. Aplysia dactylomela

2. Dentalium neohexagonum

3. Chaetopleura apiculata

4. Pinctada margaritifera
Q.4 The CSO adopted the concept of Gross Value Added in ______.
Ans 1. January 2012

2. January 2015

3. January 2017

4. January 2013

Q.5 Which of the following social reformers of 19th century India was the author of ‘Stree Purush Tulana’?
Ans 1. Tarabai Shinde

2. Swarnakumari Devi

3. Pandita Ramabai

4. Usha Mehta

Q.6 How many medals did India win in International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) World Cup 2022, which was held in Cairo,
Egypt?
Ans 1. 9

2. 6

3. 7

4. 8

Q.7 Ustad Vilayat Ali Khan is a maestro in ________.

Ans 1. Tabla

2. Mridangam

3. Sitar

4. Flute

Q.8 Which physical feature of India prevents the cold winds from central Asia from entering the Indian subcontinents?
Ans 1. Indian plains

2. Indian desert

3. Coastal area

4. Himalayas

Q.9 Which state initiated the implementation of the Mid-day Meal scheme in elementary schools?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Karnataka

Q.10 In the 7th Century AD, a new religion called Islam was born in _________.
Ans 1. Malaysia

2. South Africa

3. Arabia

4. Indonesia

Q.11 Who among the following freedom fighters of India is the author of the book, ‘The Indian Struggle’?
Ans 1. Mahatma Gandhi

2. Motilal Nehru

3. Vallabhbhai Patel

4. Subhas Chandra Bose

Q.12 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentions about the organisation of ‘Village Panchayats’?
Ans 1. Article 31

2. Article 38

3. Article 36

4. Article 40

Q.13 Sitar maestro, Pandit Ravi Shankar was awarded which of the following awards by the Government of India in 1999?
Ans 1. Padma Shri

2. Padma Bhushan

3. Bharat Ratna

4. Padma Vibhushan

Q.14 ‘Au’ is the symbol for which of the following elements?

Ans 1. Gold

2. Aluminium

3. Silver

4. Argon

Q.15 Which of the following options is associated with the class of cold-blooded animals?
Ans 1. Chameleon

2. Pavo

3. Macropus

4. Psittacula

Q.16 Which Article of the Constitution of India grants power to the President to appoint Judges of the Supreme Court?
Ans 1. Article 124(2)

2. Article 123(1)

3. Article 127(3)

4. Article 128(4)

Q.17 In which year was the International Olympic Committee formed?

Ans 1. 1896

2. 1892

3. 1898

4. 1894

Q.18 To which group do the alkaline earth metals such as radium, barium and strontium belong?
Ans 1. Group 5A

2. Group 2A

3. Group 1A

4. Group 3A

Q.19 In which of the following games is one player known as the Wicketkeeper?
Ans 1. Football

2. Basketball

3. Cricket

4. Hockey
 Q.20 Which of the following is the transboundary river between India and Pakistan?
Ans 1. Indus

2. Ravi

3. Beas

4. Jhelum

Q.21 According to the Agricultural and Processed food products Export Development Authority (APEDA) 2020-2021, which state
of India has the first rank in grapes production?
Ans 1. Maharashtra

2. Karnataka

3. Bihar

4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.22 Gautamiputra Satakarni titled Rajaraja and Maharaja is related to which of the following dynasties?
Ans 1. Shunga

2. Pandya

3. Satavahana

4. Shaka

Q.23 Which of the following has the highest salinity?

Ans 1. Great salt lake

2. Lake Van

3. Red sea

4. Dead sea

Q.24 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution contains Fundamental Duties?
Ans 1. 32A

2. 45A

3. 62B

4. 51A

Q.25 Mohiniyattam is associated with which of the following traditional dance styles?
Ans 1. Samapadam

2. Tribhanga

3. Chowk

4. Lasya style

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 Find the values of x, y and z, so as to satisfy the equations given below:
x + y + z = 12; x + y – z = 6; x – y + z = 4
Ans 1. x = 5, y = 4, z = – 3

2. x = 5, y = – 4, z = 3

3. x = 5, y = 4, z = 3

4. x = 5, y = – 4, z = – 3
Q.2 A policeman noticed a thief at a distance of 500 metres. The policeman started running and the thief also started running at
the same time. The thief is running at a speed of 15 km/h. It took 15 minutes for the policeman to catch the thief. Find the
speed of the policeman (in km/h).
Ans 1. 11

2. 17

3. 12

4. 10

Q.3 The given table shows the number of books on different subjects.

What is the ratio of the number of books for subject B1 to the average number of books per subject?
Ans 1. 3 : 5

2. 10 : 11

3. 4 : 5

4. 2 : 5

Q.4 If A:B = 6 : 8 and B:C = 5 : 12, then A:B:C is:

Ans 1. 11:32:44

2. 10:23:14

3. 14:31:28

4. 15:20:48

Q.5

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.6

Ans 1. 2

2. 4

3. 1

4. 3
Q.7 ΔEFG and ΔHIJ are similar. Also, ∠ E = ∠ H and ∠ F = ∠ I. If 3EF = HI and FG = 9 cm, then IJ is equal to ____.
Ans 1. 9 cm

2. 27 cm

3. 3 cm

4. 18 cm

Q.8 Study the given bar-graph and answer the question that follows.
The bar-graph shows the sales of books (in thousands) from six branches (B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6) of a publishing
company during two consecutive years 2000 and 2001.

The total sales of branch B6 for both the years is what percentage of the total sales of branch B3 for both the years (correct
up to two decimal places)?
Ans 1. 70.69%

2. 73.17%

3. 69.25%

4. 82.26%

Q.9 Places A and B are 20 km apart on the highway. A car starts from A and another from B at the same time. If the cars travel in
the same direction at different speeds, they meet in one hour. If they travelled towards each other, they met in 12 minutes.
What are the speeds (in km/h) of two cars?
Ans 1. 60, 40

2. 52, 48

3. 51, 49

4. 55, 45

Q.10 If 45° and 65° are the angles of a triangle, then find the exterior angle of the third angle (remaining angle).
Ans 1. 110°

2. 120°

3. 70°

4. 100°

Q.11 A right triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm is rotated about the sides of 3 cm to form a cone. The volume of the cone so
formed is:
Ans 1. 20π cm3

2. 16π cm3

3. 25π cm3

4. 28π cm3
Q.12 Pipe L can fill a pool in 30 hours and pipe M in 45 hours. If both the pipes are opened in an empty pool,
how much time will they take to fill it?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.13

Ans 1. 47

2. 49

3. 51

4. 45

Q.14 A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at a 10% profit and the rest at a 40% profit. He gains 20% on the
whole. The quantity sold at 40% profit is:
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.15

Ans 1. 4

2. 6

3. 5

4. 7

Q.16 The concentrations of three acids, A, B, and C, are specified as 20%, 30%, and 40%, respectively. They are blended in a ratio
of 3 : 5 : a, yielding a solution with a concentration of 30%. What is the value of 'a'?
Ans 1. 3

2. 1

3. 2

4. 4

Q.17

Ans 1. 0.48

2. 0.28

3. 0.37

4. 0.42
Q.18 Ravi's salary was increased by 50%. After some time, his new salary was also increased by 50%. Find his gain percentage of
salary.
Ans 1. 125%

2. 100%

3. 200%

4. 150%

Q.19 The given bar graph shows the production of bikes by a company (in thousands) over the years.

In how many of the given years was the production of bikes more than the average production of bikes over the years?.
Ans 1. 1 year

2. 2 years

3. 3 years

4. 4 years

Q.20

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21 If (7777+77) is divided by 78, then the remainder will be:

Ans 1. 76

2. 77

3. 78

4. 1

Q.22 Two successive discounts of 40% and 30% are equal to a single discount of:
Ans 1. 70%

2. 35%

3. 58%

4. 60%

Q.23 In a circle of radius 5√13 cm, a chord is at a distance of 10 cm from the centre of the circle. Find the length (in cm) of the
chord.
Ans 1. 30

2. 28

3. 36

4. 15
 Q.24 What annual instalment will discharge a debt of ₹26,160 due in 4 years at 6% simple interest p.a.?
Ans 1. ₹4,500

2. ₹5,500

3. ₹6,000

4. ₹5,800

Q.25
Simplify
​21 −[6 + 7 − {3.22 − (1.1 × 0.2)}].
Ans 1. 13

2. 12

3. 11

4. 10

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Their sporting achievements at the highest level are being utterly ignored.
Ans 1. Extremely

2. Correctly

3. Minimally

4. Totally

Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Stationary
Ans 1. Motile

2. Portable

3. Swindle

4. Still

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.
Rare species of frogs were very quicker identified by Stella.
Ans 1. to frogs were very quickly

2. of frogs were very quickly

3. in frogs were very quicker

4. of frogs were very quicklier

Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the following sentence to fill in the blank.
Most of the flowers bloom in the spring season but they start to ________ during summer.
Ans 1. flush

2. wither

3. flourish

4. blossom

Q.5 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

O. delicious
R. she
Q. a
P. baked
S. chocolate cake
Ans 1. RPQOS

2. QOSRP

3. OPQRS

4. SRPQO
Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the phrase in bold.
Your so-called friend has cooked your goose.
Ans 1. To complete a lot of work or a wide range of things

2. When something develops completely and reaches maturity; when a child becomes an adult

3. To spend a lot of time and energy but achieve nothing

4. To interfere with, disrupt or ruin something for someone

Q.7 Select the option that can be used as a one word substitute for the given group of words.
An often-imaginary place or state of utter perfection and happiness
Ans 1. Inferno

2. Dystopia

3. Euphoria

4. Utopia

Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Risible
Ans 1. Serious

2. Curious

3. Droll

4. Giddy

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.
He was an irresponsible person to the matter of taking up responsibilities.
Ans 1. at the matter of taking up

2. in the matter of taking up

3. by the matter of taking up

4. along the matter of taking up

Q.10 Select the correct spelling to fill in the blank.

Subir’s long absence is likely to have _____ for employees in the office.
Ans 1. repercusions

2. repercussions

3. reperrcussions

4. rapercussions

Q.11 Select the correctly spelt word.

Ans 1. Privelege

2. Priviledge

3. Privilege

4. Privilej

Q.12 Select the option that correctly expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The shareholders will elect him a director.

Ans 1. He will be elected as director by the shareholders.

2. The shareholders have elected him a director.

3. The shareholders elected him a director.

4. He will be elected a director.

Q.13 What does the idiom ‘Bite the bullet’ mean?
Ans 1. Enjoy a delicious meal

2. Face a difficult situation with courage

3. Avoid confrontation

4. Give someone a piece of advice

Q.14 In the given question, a statement divided into different segments is given. Rearrange all the segments to form a coherent
statement.
O: its first constitution
P: and soon got himself elected
Q: the administration of the country
R: general Ayub Khan took over
S: after Pakistan framed
Ans 1. SORQP

2. SPORQ

3. POSRQ

4. ROPQS

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Pugnacious
Ans 1. Ally

2. Belligerent

3. Sly

4. Dogmatic

Q.16 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.
A. It is also called a nuclear family.
B. It is good to be in a small family because there is better management of resources.
C. A small family is one with parents and a maximum of two children.
D. The advantages of a small family are numerous.
Ans 1. CADB

2. BACD

3. CBDA

4. ACBD

Q.17 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
No other place in this country is so better as Gulmarg, Kashmir.
Ans 1. No other place

2. in this country is

3. so better as

4. Gulmarg, Kashmir

Q.18 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in active voice.
The letter will be delivered by the postman tomorrow.
Ans 1. The postman delivered the letter tomorrow

2. The postman will have delivered the letter tomorrow.

3. The postman will deliver the letter tomorrow.

4. The postman will be delivering the letter tomorrow.

Q.19 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Our family is planning / a trip to Europe next summer / where we should visit several famous / landmarks and enjoy local
cuisine.
Ans 1. where we should visit several famous

2. Our family is planning

3. landmarks and enjoy local cuisine

4. a trip to Europe next summer

Q.20 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the following sentence to fill in the blank.
Most of the land near the town is barren, but the efforts of the farmers have turned it ________.
Ans 1. sterile

2. infertile

3. fertile

4. unfruitful

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Americans have been arguing about pandemic (1) ________________ for two years, and the debate is particularly fraught among
parents of small children, for good reasons. While (2) ____________ such as masking and isolation mean temporary discomfort or
inconvenience for most people, their (3) _______________ for still-developing young children are more mysterious, and possibly
more significant and lasting.
Children with speech or language disorders offer perhaps the (4) _____________ example of these murky trade-offs. Pandemic
restrictions vary by state, county and school district, but I spoke with parents in California, New York, Massachusetts, Washington,
New Jersey, Iowa and Maryland, who said their children’s speech therapy has been (5) ______________: first by the loss of in-person
therapy and then by masking requirements, in places that have them.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1
Ans 1. restrictions

2. intemperance

3. advantages

4. handicap

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Americans have been arguing about pandemic (1) ________________ for two years, and the debate is particularly fraught among
parents of small children, for good reasons. While (2) ____________ such as masking and isolation mean temporary discomfort or
inconvenience for most people, their (3) _______________ for still-developing young children are more mysterious, and possibly
more significant and lasting.
Children with speech or language disorders offer perhaps the (4) _____________ example of these murky trade-offs. Pandemic
restrictions vary by state, county and school district, but I spoke with parents in California, New York, Massachusetts, Washington,
New Jersey, Iowa and Maryland, who said their children’s speech therapy has been (5) ______________: first by the loss of in-person
therapy and then by masking requirements, in places that have them.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2
Ans 1. brandings

2. measures

3. models

4. sluggishness
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Americans have been arguing about pandemic (1) ________________ for two years, and the debate is particularly fraught among
parents of small children, for good reasons. While (2) ____________ such as masking and isolation mean temporary discomfort or
inconvenience for most people, their (3) _______________ for still-developing young children are more mysterious, and possibly
more significant and lasting.
Children with speech or language disorders offer perhaps the (4) _____________ example of these murky trade-offs. Pandemic
restrictions vary by state, county and school district, but I spoke with parents in California, New York, Massachusetts, Washington,
New Jersey, Iowa and Maryland, who said their children’s speech therapy has been (5) ______________: first by the loss of in-person
therapy and then by masking requirements, in places that have them.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3
Ans 1. marginalisation

2. foundations

3. disapproval

4. consequences

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Americans have been arguing about pandemic (1) ________________ for two years, and the debate is particularly fraught among
parents of small children, for good reasons. While (2) ____________ such as masking and isolation mean temporary discomfort or
inconvenience for most people, their (3) _______________ for still-developing young children are more mysterious, and possibly
more significant and lasting.
Children with speech or language disorders offer perhaps the (4) _____________ example of these murky trade-offs. Pandemic
restrictions vary by state, county and school district, but I spoke with parents in California, New York, Massachusetts, Washington,
New Jersey, Iowa and Maryland, who said their children’s speech therapy has been (5) ______________: first by the loss of in-person
therapy and then by masking requirements, in places that have them.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans 1. clearest

2. vague

3. indistinct

4. nebulous

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Americans have been arguing about pandemic (1) ________________ for two years, and the debate is particularly fraught among
parents of small children, for good reasons. While (2) ____________ such as masking and isolation mean temporary discomfort or
inconvenience for most people, their (3) _______________ for still-developing young children are more mysterious, and possibly
more significant and lasting.
Children with speech or language disorders offer perhaps the (4) _____________ example of these murky trade-offs. Pandemic
restrictions vary by state, county and school district, but I spoke with parents in California, New York, Massachusetts, Washington,
New Jersey, Iowa and Maryland, who said their children’s speech therapy has been (5) ______________: first by the loss of in-person
therapy and then by masking requirements, in places that have them.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans 1. disrupted

2. regulated

3. measured

4. normalised
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 10/09/2024
Exam Time 4:00 PM - 5:00 PM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(121, 93, 214)
(115, 87, 202)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (135, 117, 259)

2. (110, 94, 224)

3. (84, 99, 189)

4. (97, 112, 209)

Q.2 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.3 Two different positions of the same dice with faces 3, 7, 8, 2, 9 and 4 are shown below. Select the number that will be on the
face opposite to the one having 4.

Ans 1. 8

2. 3

3. 9

4. 2

Q.4 How many squares are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 11

2. 10

3. 12

4. 13

Q.5 Select the word pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below. (The
words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Presence : Abundance
Ans 1. Nourish : Neglect

2. Infinite : Cosmic

3. Abstract : Concrete

4. Concise : Verbose

Q.6 Six letters K, L, M, N, O and P are written on different faces of a dice. Three positions of this dice are shown in the figure.
Find the letter on the face opposite to M.

Ans 1. P

2. N

3. K

4. L

Q.7 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘÷’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged?

15 × 9 + 7÷ 26 – 13 = ?
Ans 1. 68

2. 72

3. 76

4. 84
Q.8 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’;

‘A − B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’;
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

Based on the above, how is 5 related to 3 if ‘5 − 2 × 4 ÷ 3’?

Ans 1. Father’s sister

2. Mother’s brother

3. Father’s brother

4. Mother’s sister

Q.9 Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that
group? ( Note :The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster)
Ans 1. EJM

2. DIM

3. FKN

4. CHK

Q.10 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.11 62 is related to 79 following certain logic. Following the same logic, 98 is related to 119. To which of the following numbers
is 14 related, following the same logic? (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking
down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can
be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 24

2. 23

3. 19

4. 21

Q.12 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?
NUT, RYX, VCB, ZGF, ?
Ans 1. EKJ

2. DKL

3. EKL

4. DKJ

Q.13 Which of the following numbers will replace the question marks (?) in the given series?
4, ?, ?, 49, 121, 169, 289
Ans 1. 9, 16

2. 9, 25

3. 3, 9

4. 16, 25

Q.14 All of the letters in the word ‘WISDOM’ are arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English
alphabetical series between the letter which is third from the left end and the one which is second from the right end in the
new letter-cluster thus formed?
Ans 1. Three

2. Six

3. Five

4. Two

Q.15 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.16 Select the number that will come in the place of the question mark(?), if ‘+’ and ‘ – ‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged
11 ÷ 12 – 78 × 6 + 57 = ?
Ans 1. 74

2. 95

3. 83

4. 88
Q.17 Three of the following four options are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong
to that group?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 81 – 118 – 91

2. 52 – 68 – 51

3. 99 – 104 – 71

4. 21 – 38 – 31

Q.18 The sequence of folding a paper and the manner in which the folded paper is cut is shown in the following figures. How
would this paper look when unfolded?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.19 Select the option that represents the letters that when placed from left to right in the blanks below will complete the given
letter series.
PQ_S_PPQP_APPQ_SAP_Q
Ans 1. QPASP

2. PQSAP

3. PASPP

4. QSPAP
Q.20 Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the fourth
term is related to the third term.
SWEET : WSETE :: SALTY : ASLYT :: DRINK : ?
Ans 1. RDIKN

2. ESJOL

3. RDNIK

4. DRIKN

Q.21

Ans 1. 11

2. 17

3. 29

4. 18

Q.22 In a certain code language, ‘make some more’ is coded as ‘pb gq st’ and ‘need more time’ is coded as ‘ru ek gq’. What is the
code for ‘more’ in that language?
Ans 1. st

2. ek

3. gq

4. pb

Q.23 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(173, 246)
(148, 196)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. (142, 176)

2. (169, 247)

3. (127, 194)

4. (154, 208)

Q.24 In a certain code language, ‘VERY’ is written as ‘6314’ and ‘VARY’ is written as ‘1438’. How will ‘A’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 8

3. 4

4. 1
 Q.25

Ans 1. 19

2. 63

3. 12

4. 7

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Rudrasena II of which of the following dynasties married Prabhavatigupta, the daughter of Chandragupta II of the Gupta
dynasty?
Ans 1. Pushyabhuti

2. Vakataka

3. Chalukya

4. Pallava

Q.2 Madhuri Barthwal, a folk singer and Padma Shri 2022 awardee, belongs to which of the following states of India?
Ans 1. Uttarakhand

2. Himachal Pradesh

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Maharashtra

Q.3 Which of the following options is the legislative organ of the Union government?
Ans 1. Judiciary

2. Legislative assembly

3. Executive

4. Parliament

Q.4 Which of the following elements is a metalloid?

Ans 1. Iron

2. Oxygen

3. Sodium

4. Silicon

Q.5 Which country has the Republic feature of the Indian Constitution been borrowed from?
Ans 1. French Constitution

2. Irish Constitution

3. British Constitution

4. Australian Constitution
Q.6 Which of the following States has declared a social security scheme for registered newspaper hawkers in the State in 2021
considering the losses they faced during the pandemic and that they are a part of the unorganised sector?
Ans 1. Gujarat

2. Maharashtra

3. Odisha

4. Tamil Nadu

Q.7 Which of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh?
Ans 1. Intensive use of manure

2. Over-irrigation

3. Deforestation due to mining

4. Overgrazing

Q.8 The Accelerated Female Literacy Programme was initiated in districts where the female literacy rate, based on the 2001
census, was _______.
Ans 1. below 35%

2. below 45%

3. below 30%

4. below 50%

Q.9 As of 2021, which is the world's largest drainage basin with an area of ​about 70,00,000 km2?
Ans 1. Congo basin

2. Amur basin

3. Amazon basin

4. Nile basin

Q.10 National Sports University is situated in ________.

Ans 1. Mizoram

2. Tripura

3. Meghalaya

4. Manipur

Q.11 Which of the following characteristics is NOT of Aves?

Ans 1. They have four-chambered heart.

2. They give birth to live young ones with some exceptions those lay eggs.

3. These are warm-blooded animals.

4. They breathe through the lungs

Q.12 In which of the following states is the development of rail transport less, due to its geographical conditions?
Ans 1. Sikkim

2. Haryana

3. Bihar

4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.13 Which of the following books is INCORRECTLY paired with its respective author?
Ans 1. Hind Swaraj – Mahatma Gandhi

2. Gitanjali – Rabindranath Tagore

3. The Discovery of India – Subhash Chandra Bose

4. Why I am an Atheist – Bhagat Singh

Q.14 Who among the following was a poet who won Nobel Prize for literature in 1913?
Ans 1. Aurobindo Ghose

2. Rudyard Kipling

3. Bankin Chandra Chattopadhyay

4. Rabindranath Tagore

Q.15 In which year was the National Institute of Kathak Dance established?
Ans 1. 1964

2. 1961

3. 1954

4. 1969

Q.16 As for the year 2020-21, which of the following states had the lowest unemployment rate among persons aged 15 years and
above?
Ans 1. Sikkim

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Gujarat

4. Chhattisgarh

Q.17 When was the Indian Hockey Federation established?

Ans 1. 1925

2. 1955

3. 1945

4. 1935

Q.18 Which cell organelle is defined as the small round organelle that undergoes oxidation reaction to produce hydrogen
peroxide?
Ans 1. Centrosome

2. Vacuole

3. Nucleus

4. Peroxisomes

Q.19 The cause of a redox reaction is the:

Ans 1. transfer of electrons between two reactants

2. transfer of electrons between two products

3. transfer of neutrons between two reactants

4. exchange of halogens between two reactants

Q.20 ‘Sangken’ is a festival celebrated in Arunachal Pradesh by people of which of the following religions?
Ans 1. Islam

2. Buddhism

3. Jainism

4. Hinduism

Q.21 Which group of people will be benefited by the Mukhya Mantri Sukh Ashray Yojana approved by Himachal Pradesh?
Ans 1. Students and teachers

2. Orphans, specially abled children, destitute women and senior citizens

3. Unemployed youth

4. Farmers and agricultural labourers

 Q.22 What is the aim of the PM Ujjwala 2.0 Yojna launched in August 2021?
Ans 1. Free LPG connections for commercial use

2. 20 million LPG connections will be provided to the beneficiaries

3. 10 million LPG connections will be provided to the beneficiaries

4. Free gas stove for BPL Households

Q.23 MG Music Awards is presented annually by which of the following states?

Ans 1. Mizoram

2. Nagaland

3. Manipur

4. Chhattisgarh

Q.24 If assets of a bank are greater than liabilities, it will be recorded as:
Ans 1. liabilities

2. net worth

3. reserves

4. assets

Q.25 Which of the following departments of Delhi Sultanate was reorganized by Balban?
Ans 1. Diwan-i-Ishtiaq

2. Diwan-i-Arz

3. Diwan-i-Risalat

4. Diwan-i-Mustakhraj

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 ​If 45 ÷ 3 + 4 × A – 48 ÷ 24 + 4 = 1, then the value of A is:

Ans 1. −2

2. 4

3. 2

4. −4
Q.2

Ans 1. 13 : 12

2. 12 : 11

3. 11 : 12

4. 13 : 11

Q.3 If the length of a common external tangent to two circles is 9 and that of a common internal tangent is 5, then the product of
the radii of the two circles is:
Ans 1. 12

2. 8

3. 14

4. 10

Q.4 If ∆PQR≅ ∆MON such that ∠ PQR = 82°,∠ QRP = 47°,∠ RPQ = 51°,∠ MON = (5y - 8)°,QR = 24 and ON = 3x + y,then find (x + y).
Ans 1. 14

2. 18

3. 16

4. 20

Q.5 Which digits should come in the place of * and #, respectively, if the 7-digit number 62684*# is divisible by both 8 and 5?
Ans 1. 2 and 0

2. 4 and 0

3. 5 and 0

4. 0 and 5

Q.6

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.7 The average of the squares of the first 45 natural numbers is
Ans 1. 698.67

2. 699.67

3. 697.67

4. 696.67

Q.8 A rectangular piece of paper is 50 cm long and 22 cm wide. If a cylinder is formed by rolling the paper along its breadth,
then the volume of the cylinder is:
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.9

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.10 The speed of a boat in still water is 18 km/h and the speed of the stream is 3 km/h. How much time (in hours) will it take to
cover a distance of 105 km in downstream and in coming back?
Ans 1. 12

2. 10

3. 15

4. 9

Q.11 Simple interest on a certain sum is one-fifth of the sum and the interest rate per cent per annum is 5 times the number of
years. If the rate of interest increases by 3%, then how much will the simple interest (in ₹) be on ₹5,600 for 6 years?
Ans 1. 4668

2. 4168

3. 4268

4. 4368

Q.12 A bronze article having a marked price of ₹1,000 is sold during a festive season sale after three successive discounts of
20% and 30% and 10%. What will be the amount (in ₹) to be paid by a customer if she buys the article during the festival
season?
Ans 1. 508

2. 564

3. 504

4. 496
Q.13 Pipes P and Q can completely fill a water tank in 10 hours and 15 hours, respectively. A pipe R can empty a tank filled
completely with water in 12 hours. Initially, the tank is empty and only pipes P and Q are opened at 6 a.m. and pipe R is also
opened at 9 a.m. By what time will the tank be completely filled?
Ans 1. 1 p.m.

2. 2 p.m.

3. 11 a.m.

4. 3 p.m.

Q.14 For what value of k will the lines 2x + 7ky – 8 = 0 and x + y – 9 = 0 have no solution?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.15 The radii of two circle are 5 cm and 10 cm and the distance between their centres is 17 cm. Find the length
of the transverse common tangent.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.16 The pie chart given below shows the number of hours spent by a student for different activities on a working day.
The percentage of hours spent at school in a day is _____.

Ans 1. 25%

2. 35%

3. 40%

4. 30%

Q.17 In an election between Sunita and Mamata, 85% of voters cast their votes but 2% of votes were invalid. If Sunita got 64,974
votes which is 78% of valid votes, then the total number of voters enrolled in the election was:
Ans 1. 1,25,000

2. 1,00,000

3. 1,65,000

4. 1,80,000
Q.18

Ans 1. 2019

2. 2018

3. 2015

4. 2016

Q.19

Ans 1. 0

2. 2

3. 3

4. 1

Q.20

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
 Q.21

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 If one man adds 6 litres of water to 10 litres of milk and another man adds 4 litres of water to 8 litres of milk. Find the ratio of
milk in the two mixtures.
Ans 1. 16 : 15

2. 12 : 11

3. 16 : 17

4. 15 : 16

Q.23 A shopkeeper allows a discount of 20% on the marked price of an item and thus gains 10%. What is the ratio of the cost
price to the marked price of the item?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.24

Ans 1. 302.42%

2. 402.42%

3. 102.42%

4. 202.42%

Q.25 What is the central angle of a sector of a circle whose area and perimeter are, respectively, equal to 209 cm2 and 63 cm if it
is given that its radius is a non-negative integer (roundup to one decimal place)?
Ans 1. 55.5°

2. 53.5°

3. 49.5°

4. 51.5°

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Fear of closed spaces
Ans 1. Photophobia

2. Optophobia

3. Agoraphobia

4. Claustrophobia

Q.2 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Historians tell us how this country was divided into three.
Ans 1. We are told by historians how this country has been divided into three.

2. We are told by historians how this country divided into three.

3. We are told by historians how this country was divided into three.

4. We have been told by historians how this country was divided into three.

Q.3 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank.

The transistors are used as the main _________, which are built into computer chips.
Ans 1. components

2. cumponents

3. kamponents

4. kumponents

Q.4 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the parts in the correct sequence to
form a meaningful sentence.
(P) technology has revolutionised
(Q) and it has transformed the way
(O) every aspect of our lives
(R) we communicate and connect
Ans 1. RPQO

2. RPOQ

3. POQR

4. ORQP

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in the brackets to fill in the blank.

The ______ to the venue was decorated with beautiful lights. [exit]
Ans 1. house

2. road

3. entry

4. ceremony

Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Care a hang
Ans 1. Hanging clothes to dry

2. Putting an outfit on a hanger

3. Caring too much

4. Showing no interest
Q.7 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The company will launch the new product next month, and they are already promoting it through various marketing
channels.
Ans 1. The new product will be launched by the company next month, and it is already being promoted through various marketing
channels.
2. The new product were been launched by the company next month, and it already was promoting through various marketing
channels.
3. The new product was launched by the company next month, and it is already promoted through various marketing channels.

4. The new product will have been launched by the company next month, and it was already being promoted through various
marketing channels.

Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Mechanical
Ans 1. Surrogate

2. Automatised

3. Yielding

4. Manual

Q.9 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

Solomon’s reputation as an accountant is taintless .
Ans 1. flawed

2. faultless

3. dubious

4. inconsistent

Q.10 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

My sister, Juliet, / got married / as her / was 23.

Ans 1. was 23.

2. as her

3. My sister, Juliet,

4. got married

Q.11 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

a short section (as of a book) that leads to or explains the main part.
Ans 1. Foreword

2. Conclusion

3. Postscript

4. Paraphrase

Q.12 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Verminous

2. Vomitus

3. Voluptuous

4. Verifibility

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
Mayra has the ability for mathematics.
Ans 1. astute

2. altitude

3. aptitude

4. attitude
Q.14 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

Choice between two unsatisfactory alternatives

Ans 1. Dilemma

2. Problem

3. Confusion

4. Difficulty

Q.15 Parts of the following sentence have been underlined and given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
The supermarket is open from 10 a.m. still 10 p.m.
Ans 1. open

2. from 10 a.m.

3. The supermarket

4. still 10 p.m.

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
To tell others secret information only for enjoyment is not a good practice.
Ans 1. spill the words

2. spill the cat

3. spill the onions

4. spill the beans

Q.17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the bracketed word in the following sentence to fill in the blank.

The media, these days, constructs ________(misleading) narratives on politics and celebrities to increase the viewership.
Ans 1. sincere

2. true

3. candid

4. mendacious

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The group of travellers were wonderstruck by the ___________ of the coin.

Ans 1. wait

2. white

3. wide

4. weight

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Evaluate
Ans 1. Misjudge

2. Assess

3. Unity

4. Misquote

Q.20 Select the option that can substitute/replace the bracketed word correctly and complete the sentence.

They could (always) stay in, or go for a walk.

Ans 1. had better

2. not only

3. either

4. neither
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
As a result of Covid-19, the quick (1) ______ to digital training has exposed the hazards of student disengagement and the resulting
consequences of lower student performance across (2) ______ courses.
The latest (3) ______ has altered the education of millions of people around the world. New approaches and improvements in the
school system are urgently required. Considering the increasing digital divide, the strategy may exacerbate existing inequality
disparities. More than 500 million students, at various levels, around the world were forced to (4) _______ their studies. These
changes have caused and will continue to cause some inconvenience, but they will also foster innovation and future reforms inside
this education system.
During a global Covid-19 pandemic, the 'pile-on effect' of the coronavirus can have long-term consequences for schooling, notably for
the most vulnerable. Children, (5) ________ basic, core learning (reading, math, languages, etc.) was weak to begin with, face a
significant risk of regression. During Covid-19, millions of children whose right to education has already been violated, particularly
girls, are exposed to greater health and well-being hazards (both psychosocial and physical).

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. end

2. transition

3. set

4. stagnation

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
As a result of Covid-19, the quick (1) ______ to digital training has exposed the hazards of student disengagement and the resulting
consequences of lower student performance across (2) ______ courses.
The latest (3) ______ has altered the education of millions of people around the world. New approaches and improvements in the
school system are urgently required. Considering the increasing digital divide, the strategy may exacerbate existing inequality
disparities. More than 500 million students, at various levels, around the world were forced to (4) _______ their studies. These
changes have caused and will continue to cause some inconvenience, but they will also foster innovation and future reforms inside
this education system.
During a global Covid-19 pandemic, the 'pile-on effect' of the coronavirus can have long-term consequences for schooling, notably for
the most vulnerable. Children, (5) ________ basic, core learning (reading, math, languages, etc.) was weak to begin with, face a
significant risk of regression. During Covid-19, millions of children whose right to education has already been violated, particularly
girls, are exposed to greater health and well-being hazards (both psychosocial and physical).

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. numerous

2. fewer

3. particular

4. limit

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
As a result of Covid-19, the quick (1) ______ to digital training has exposed the hazards of student disengagement and the resulting
consequences of lower student performance across (2) ______ courses.
The latest (3) ______ has altered the education of millions of people around the world. New approaches and improvements in the
school system are urgently required. Considering the increasing digital divide, the strategy may exacerbate existing inequality
disparities. More than 500 million students, at various levels, around the world were forced to (4) _______ their studies. These
changes have caused and will continue to cause some inconvenience, but they will also foster innovation and future reforms inside
this education system.
During a global Covid-19 pandemic, the 'pile-on effect' of the coronavirus can have long-term consequences for schooling, notably for
the most vulnerable. Children, (5) ________ basic, core learning (reading, math, languages, etc.) was weak to begin with, face a
significant risk of regression. During Covid-19, millions of children whose right to education has already been violated, particularly
girls, are exposed to greater health and well-being hazards (both psychosocial and physical).

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. local

2. endemic

3. epidemic

4. pandemic
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
As a result of Covid-19, the quick (1) ______ to digital training has exposed the hazards of student disengagement and the resulting
consequences of lower student performance across (2) ______ courses.
The latest (3) ______ has altered the education of millions of people around the world. New approaches and improvements in the
school system are urgently required. Considering the increasing digital divide, the strategy may exacerbate existing inequality
disparities. More than 500 million students, at various levels, around the world were forced to (4) _______ their studies. These
changes have caused and will continue to cause some inconvenience, but they will also foster innovation and future reforms inside
this education system.
During a global Covid-19 pandemic, the 'pile-on effect' of the coronavirus can have long-term consequences for schooling, notably for
the most vulnerable. Children, (5) ________ basic, core learning (reading, math, languages, etc.) was weak to begin with, face a
significant risk of regression. During Covid-19, millions of children whose right to education has already been violated, particularly
girls, are exposed to greater health and well-being hazards (both psychosocial and physical).

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. suspend

2. resume

3. reopened

4. carry on

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
As a result of Covid-19, the quick (1) ______ to digital training has exposed the hazards of student disengagement and the resulting
consequences of lower student performance across (2) ______ courses.
The latest (3) ______ has altered the education of millions of people around the world. New approaches and improvements in the
school system are urgently required. Considering the increasing digital divide, the strategy may exacerbate existing inequality
disparities. More than 500 million students, at various levels, around the world were forced to (4) _______ their studies. These
changes have caused and will continue to cause some inconvenience, but they will also foster innovation and future reforms inside
this education system.
During a global Covid-19 pandemic, the 'pile-on effect' of the coronavirus can have long-term consequences for schooling, notably for
the most vulnerable. Children, (5) ________ basic, core learning (reading, math, languages, etc.) was weak to begin with, face a
significant risk of regression. During Covid-19, millions of children whose right to education has already been violated, particularly
girls, are exposed to greater health and well-being hazards (both psychosocial and physical).

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. which

2. whose

3. whom

4. who
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 11/09/2024
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
14014 × 14 – 10 ÷ 8 + 14 = ?
Ans 1. 1062

2. 1063

3. 1067

4. 1064

Q.2 The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if all the letters in the word ‘MEADOW’ are arranged in English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. None

2. Two

3. One

4. Three

Q.3 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(280, 140)
(186, 93)
Ans 1. (118, 59)

2. (92, 51)

3. (86, 48)

4. (166, 84)
Q.4 A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.5 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.6 Which two numbers (not digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
48 ÷ 3 + 12 × 4 – 6 × 7 + 21 = 27
Ans 1. 3 and 4

2. 3 and 6

3. 4 and 7

4. 12 and 21

Q.7 The question contains pairs of words that are related to each other in a certain way. Three of the following four word pairs
are alike as these have the same relationship and thus form a group. Which word pair is the one that DOES NOT belong to
that group?

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters / number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Ans 1. Bone – orthopaedic

2. Uterus – urologist

3. Stomach – gastroenterologist

4. Eye – ophthalmologist

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘CONFUSED’ is coded as ‘7’ and ‘CHAIN’ is coded as ‘4’. How will ‘ADULTHOOD’ be coded in that
language?
Ans 1. 9

2. 7

3. 8

4. 6

Q.9 The same operation(s) are followed in all the given number pairs except one. Find that odd number pair.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 151 : 19

2. 128 : 16

3. 135 : 17

4. 103 : 13
Q.10 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.11 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
qp_r_rq_p_rp_q_pr_p_q
Ans 1. r p q r r p r q

2. r p q r r q r r

3. r p q q r q r p

4. r p q r r q r p

Q.12 16 is related to 112 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 26 is related to 182. To which of the following is 44
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 308

2. 312

3. 310

4. 302

Q.13 ‘Summer’ is related to ‘Season’ in the same way as ‘Cotton’ is related to ‘________’.
Ans 1. Cloth

2. Grain

3. Dye

4. Tree
Q.14 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All bottles are jugs.
Some bottles are flasks.
All flasks are bins.

Conclusions:
I. Some bottles are bins.
II. Some jugs are bins.
III. Some flasks are jugs.
Ans 1. All conclusions I, II and III follow

2. Either conclusion I or II follows

3. Only conclusions II and III follow

4. Only conclusions I and II follow

Q.15 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A − B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A × B means ‘A is the brother of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the mother of B’.
Based on the above, if ‘P + Q ÷ R − T × M’, which of the following is true?
Ans 1. M is the sister of T.

2. P is the brother of R.

3. Q is the mother of M.

4. T is the brother of P.

Q.16 Figure X is followed by four figures numbered (1), (2), (3), (4). Identify the figure among the four in which figure X is
embedded (i.e. contains figure X in the same form).

Ans 1. 2

2. 4

3. 1

4. 3
Q.17 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.18 A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.19 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 11

2. 8

3. 9

4. 10

Q.20 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
RATE : SCWI : : HIGH : IKJL : : OPEN : ?
Ans 1. PRIS

2. PQHR

3. PSIR

4. PRHR
 Q.21 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
GASM, CCOO, YEKQ, ? , QICU
Ans 1. UGGS

2. UCGS

3. UGGT

4. TGFS

Q.22 8 is related to 512 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 12 is related to 1728. To which of the following is 15
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 2275

2. 2725

3. 3375

4. 3735

Q.23 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
17, 38, 84, ?, 376, 772
Ans 1. 190

2. 200

3. 180

4. 150

Q.24 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Acrimony : Humanity :: Wield : ?
Ans 1. Exert

2. Forgo

3. Use

4. Apply

Q.25 In a certain code language, 'DEMAND' is written as ‘410132144' and 'SUPPLY' is written as '194216161225'.How will
'PRODUCT' be written in that language?
Ans 1. 161830442320

2. 323615821640

3. 161542320

4. 161815421320

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 What kind of radiation is absorbed by the ozone layer?

Ans 1. Green radiation

2. Infrared radiation

3. Visible radiation

4. Ultraviolet radiation

Q.2 Which of the following organisations, divided into two branches, was established by Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak and
Annie Besant?
Ans 1. Indian Association

2. Theosophical society

3. East Indian Association

4. Home Rule League

Q.3 In which of the following years did India NOT host the ICC Cricket World Cup Tournament?
Ans 1. 2011

2. 1996

3. 1983

4. 1987

Q.4 Match the following books with their respective authors.

Ans 1. a-iii; b-i; c-iv; d-ii

2. a-ii; b-iv; c-iii; d-i

3. a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii

4. a-i; b-iii; c-ii; d-iv

Q.5 Which of the following options is mostly caused by overpopulation?

Ans 1. Land and other renewable resources are under pressure

2. Adequate natural resource storage

3. Reduction in the scarcity of water

4. Increase in the area covered by forests

Q.6 Which of the following types of direct tax collection increased as of 10 February 2023 budget?
Ans 1. Personal income tax

2. Octroi duties

3. Corporate tax

4. Commercial tax

Q.7 Palladium on barium sulphate (Pd/BaSO4) is also known as:

Ans 1. a Hillman reaction catalyst

2. a Cannizzaro reaction catalyst

3. the Rosenmund catalyst

4. an aldol reaction catalyst

Q.8 Ebony and Mahogany trees are found in which type of forests?
Ans 1. Mangrove forests

2. Tropical deciduous forests

3. Tropical evergreen forests

4. Montane forests

Q.9 Which party formed the government in Britain in the year 1945?
Ans 1. Democratic Party

2. Labour Party

3. Socialist Party

4. Liberal Party
Q.10 When was the Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) Scheme for Least Developed Countries (LDCs) announced by India?
Ans 1. 2010

2. 2009

3. 2006

4. 2008

Q.11 Which Ghazal singer was conferred with the prestigious Deenanath Mangeshkar Award in April 2023?
Ans 1. Talat Aziz

2. Ghazal Srinivas

3. Pankaj Udhas

4. Bhupinder Singh

Q.12 In which year was the PM Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission launched?
Ans 1. 2020

2. 2022

3. 2021

4. 2023

Q.13 Which of the following categories does Gonyaulax belong to?

Ans 1. Euglenoids

2. Chrysophytes

3. Protozoans

4. Dinoflagellates

Q.14 Valabhi, a city of ancient India was the capital of the _________ dynasty from the 5th to 8th Century CE.
Ans 1. Maitraka

2. Chalukya

3. Pallava

4. Vakataka

Q.15 Bharatanatyam dance style is associated with which of the following states?
Ans 1. Karnataka

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Bihar

4. Manipur

Q.16 Which type of radiation has very short (<10–3 nm) wavelengths, produced by nuclear explosions, lightning and less
dramatic activity of radioactive decay?
Ans 1. Gamma

2. Infra-red

3. Microwave

4. Ultraviolet

Q.17 Which of the following pairs do NOT share any borders?

Ans 1. Bhutan and Arunachal Pradesh

2. Bhutan and Meghalaya

3. Bhutan and West Bengal

4. Bhutan and Assam

Q.18 On which of the following dates does India celebrate its Constitution Day?
Ans 1. 26th January

2. 26th November

3. 15th August

4. 2th October

Q.19 The organisation that Comptroller and Auditor General heads is known as ___________.
Ans 1. Indian Civil Accounts Organisation

2. Controller General of Accounts

3. Indian Audit and Accounts Department

4. Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

Q.20 Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement(s) from the following:

1. The UDAN scheme has completed five years since its implementation in 2017.
2. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Science and Technology.
3. The Airports Authority of India is the implementing agency of this scheme.
Ans 1. Only statement 3

2. Only statement 2

3. Only statements 2 and 3

4. Only statements 1 and 3

Q.21 Which Indian marathon event is considered the largest marathon in Asia?
Ans 1. Kaveri Trail Marathon

2. Pinkathon

3. Delhi Half Marathon

4. Mumbai Marathon

Q.22 Shab-e-Barat is celebrated by which religious group?

Ans 1. Muslim

2. Buddhist

3. Jain

4. Parsi

Q.23 Consider the following statements associated with the India Infrastructure Project Development Fund (IIPDF).
1. IIPDF was set up in 2017.
2. The funds for IIPDF are provided by the Central Government’?
3. This scheme is notified under the Department of Economic Affairs.
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
Ans 1. Only 2 and 3

2. Only 1

3. Only 1 and 2

4. Only 3

Q.24 Who among the following was one of the Navratnas of Akbar?
Ans 1. Purandar Das

2. Swami Haridas

3. Tansen

4. Amir Khusro
 Q.25 Who has written the book ‘Fearless Governance’, published in January 2021, describing her stint as Governor?
Ans 1. Draupadi Murmu

2. Baby Rani Maurya

3. Kiran Bedi

4. Anandi ben Patel

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 Find the smallest number to be added to 999, so that 99 divides the sum exactly.
Ans 1. 99

2. 0

3. 90

4. 9

Q.2

Ans 1. 221

2. 234

3. 198

4. 216

Q.3 In an election between two candidates P and Q, P got 78% of the total valid votes. If the total votes of the electorate were
75,60,000, then what was the number of valid votes that Q got if 10% of the voters did not cast their vote and 15% of the
votes polled were declared invalid?
Ans 1. 1,41,372

2. 1,41,732

3. 12,72,348

4. 1,47,312

Q.4 In a circle, two chords MN and PQ intersect at O. If MO = 9 cm, ON = 5 cm and OQ = 6 cm, then the value of OP (in cm) is:
Ans 1. 7.5

2. 6.5

3. 6

4. 7

Q.5

Ans 1.

2. 1

3. 0

4. 2

Q.6 A rectangular courtyard is 4m 95cm long and 16m 65cm broad. It is to be paved with the square tiles of the same size. Find
the least number of such square tiles required to pave the rectangular courtyard.
Ans 1. 877

2. 944

3. 388

4. 407
Q.7

Ans 1. 15,421

2. 13,992

3. 11,229

4. 17,355

Q.8 There are two pipes to fill a tank. Together, they can fill the tank in 15 minutes. If one pipe can fill the tank in one and a half
times as fast as the other, the faster pipe alone can fill the tank in:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.9

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.10 If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 36 units, then its area is (in square units):
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.11 If asin3 X + bcos3 X = sinXcosX and asinX = bcosX, then find the value of a2 + b2, provided that x is neither 0° nor 90°.
Ans 1. 0

2. 1

3. a2 - b2

4. a2 + b2

Q.12 A dishonest merchant sells his grocery using weights that are 12% less than the true weights and makes a profit of 10%.
Find his total gain percentage.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.13 Atul gives Vishu a head-start of 20 seconds in a 900 m race and beats him by 135 m. While running the same race again Atul
gives a start of 189 m and beats him by 8 seconds. In how much time can Vishu complete the full race of 900 m?
Ans 1. 3 minutes 30 seconds

2. 2 minutes 50 seconds

3. 3 minutes 20 seconds

4. 3 minutes 10 seconds

Q.14 The following pie chart shows the distribution of the percentage of students in various courses at the university. The total
number of students (boys and girls only) in the university is 7000.

In B.Com, there are 60% girls and in B.Sc. C.Sci, there are 40% boys. The total number of girls who took admission in B.Sc
C.Sci and B.Com courses is what percentage of the total students admitted to the university?
Ans 1. 25%

2. 29%

3. 23%

4. 27%

Q.15 In a division problem, the divisor is 4 times the quotient and 2 times the remainder. If the remainder is 32, then find the
dividend.
Ans 1. 1056

2. 1650

3. 3240

4. 1065

Q.16 The interest accrued on a sum of ₹16,000 lent at a simple interest rate of 14% p.a. for the time in those many years, which
gives a simple interest of three-fifths of a certain sum at 10% p.a., is:
Ans 1. ₹13,440

2. ₹12,970

3. ₹15,360

4. ₹14,280

Q.17 A group of 30 students appeared in a test. The average score of 12 students is 62, and that of the rest is 62. What is the
average score of the group?
Ans 1. 62

2. 63

3. 60

4. 61
Q.18 In a rhombus ABCD, O is any interior point such that OA = OC. What is five-ninths of the degree measure of ∠ DOB?
Ans 1. 120°

2. 150°

3. 100°

4. 90°

Q.19 The bar graph below shows the production of coffee (in lakh tons) by four companies A, B, C and D over a period of four
years from 2010 to 2013. Study the graph and answer the question that
follows.

The combined average production for four years of companies A and C is what percentage (rounded off to 2 decimal places)
more/less than the combined average production for four years of companies B and D?
Ans 1. Less, 7.81%

2. More, 10.51%

3. More, 7.81%

4. Less, 10.51%

Q.20 Solve the given set of three equations to get the value of the unknowns:
x + 2z = 3
x + 2y + 3z = 5
3x - 5z = -13
Ans 1. x = 0,y = -1,z = 2

2. x = -1,y = 0,z = 2

3. x = -1,y = 2,z = 0

4. x = 2,y = 0,z = -1

Q.21 Mrudula starts her job with a certain monthly salary and earns a fixed increment every year. If her salary was ₹28,400 after
six years of service and ₹52,997 after fifteen years, find her annual increment.
Ans 1. ₹12,002

2. ₹1,200

3. ₹2,733

4. ₹1,824

Q.22 A sum of money is divided among P, Q, R and S in the proportion of 4 : 9 : 2 : 3. If Q gets ₹560 more than R, then the share of
S is:
Ans 1. ₹140

2. ₹340

3. ₹240

4. ₹440
 Q.23

Ans 1. 83

2. 80

3. 85

4. 84

Q.24

Ans 1. 360

2. 480

3. 640

4. 540

Q.25 A shopkeeper, on the eve of Diwali, allowed a series of discounts on television sets. Find the selling price of a television set,
if the marked price of television is ₹1,200 and successive discounts are 15% and 10%.
Ans 1. ₹945

2. ₹918

3. ₹975

4. ₹965

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words in the following sentence.
Despite recent superficial moves toward political reconciliation, Libya remains in the grip of a bloodstained corrupt military
exclusive circle of people with a common purpose.
Ans 1. oblique

2. pique

3. clique

4. antique

Q.2 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

An instrument for viewing distant objects in space.

Ans 1. Microscope

2. Spectrograph

3. Telescope

4. Binoculars

Q.3 The following sentence contains a word with a spelling error. Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling of the
identified word from the given options.

I was upstaires when somebody rang the doorbell.

Ans 1. Upstares

2. Upstaire

3. upsatires

4. Upstairs

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Adversity
Ans 1. Success

2. Misfortune

3. Pleasure

4. Advantage

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the following word.

Forbid
Ans 1. Prohibit

2. Allow

3. Call

4. Forsake

Q.6 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
(A) while the employees
(B) meeting on time
(C) the boss arrived at the
(D) despite the heavy traffic
(E) were late
Ans 1. DCBAE

2. DACEB

3. BACED

4. ACEDB
Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Charles Darwin is renowned for his book on evolution, ‘On the Origin of Species’, which laid down a treasure of
substantiation that evolution occurs, and projected a mechanism, that is, natural selection, for how it does so.
Ans 1. laid into a treasure of substantiation

2. laid about a treasure of substantiation

3. laid away a treasure of substantiation

4. laid out a treasure of substantiation

Q.8 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
It is he who work for the company for more than a decade.
Ans 1. for more than a decade

2. who work

3. for the company

4. It is he

Q.9 Select the option that correctly expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
The teachers of our school have already taken this training.
Ans 1. This training has already been taken by the teachers of our school.

2. This training has been taken by the teachers of our school.

3. This training has already been taken by the our school teachers.

4. This training was already taken by the teachers of our school.

Q.10 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

He was very cruel in dealing with the students.

Ans 1. Skittish

2. Kind

3. Malevolent

4. Kingly

Q.11 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
(A) he had to take the bus
(B) his friend, who used to give
(C) to his office because he had
(D) him a lift, was on vacation
(E) never learned to drive and
Ans 1. DACEB

2. ACEBD

3. EBADC

4. BADEC

Q.12 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice.
Ravi will play the match.
Ans 1. The match is played by Ravi.

2. The match will have been played by Ravi.

3. The match will be playing by Ravi.

4. The match will be played by Ravi.

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
Our legal system must frame proper legal rules for juvenile criminals.
Ans 1. senile

2. dotage

3. old

4. young
Q.14 Substitute the underlined word-segment with most appropriate idiom.

The doctors tried very hard to save his mother but they were unsuccessful.
Ans 1. faced the music

2. drew the line

3. moved heaven and earth

4. ran like clockwork

Q.15 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Hit the nail on the head

Ans 1. They are experiencing a headache.

2. They have accurately identified or explained something.

3. They're uncertain about a decision.

4. They hit a nail with a hammer.

Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The windows / violent banged / during the / storm yesterday.
Ans 1. during the

2. The windows

3. storm yesterday.

4. violent banged

Q.17 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the following sentence and select its correct spelling from the given options.
His acquiantance with the author led to many fruitful collaborations.
Ans 1. acuiantance

2. acquaintance

3. acquaintence

4. aquaintance

Q.18 Identify the correct synonym of the word given below.

FATIGUE
Ans 1. Mission

2. Tiredness

3. Vigour

4. Obese

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

She was overstrung before her dance performance.
Ans 1. Cheerful

2. Calm

3. Placid

4. Nervous

Q.20 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Awkward in movement or manner
Ans 1. Alert

2. Imbalanced

3. Clumsy

4. Clownish
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav is an (1) _________ by the Government of India to celebrate and remember 75 years of independence and
the beautiful history of its people, culture and achievements. This Mahotsav is (2) _________ to the people of India, who have not only
been instrumental in bringing India this far in its evolutionary journey but also (3) _________ the power and potential to realise Prime
Minister, Narendra Modi's (4) _________ of activating India 2.0, fuelled by the spirit of Aatmanirbhar Bharat. The formal journey of
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav began on 12 March 2021, beginning a (5)______ to our 75th anniversary of independence and will finish a
year later on 15 August 2023.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate answer for blank number 1.%
Ans 1. associate

2. initiative

3. obligation

4. occult

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav is an (1) _________ by the Government of India to celebrate and remember 75 years of independence and
the beautiful history of its people, culture and achievements. This Mahotsav is (2) _________ to the people of India, who have not only
been instrumental in bringing India this far in its evolutionary journey but also (3) _________ the power and potential to realise Prime
Minister, Narendra Modi's (4) _________ of activating India 2.0, fuelled by the spirit of Aatmanirbhar Bharat. The formal journey of
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav began on 12 March 2021, beginning a (5)______ to our 75th anniversary of independence and will finish a
year later on 15 August 2023.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate answer for blank number 2.%
Ans 1. dedicated

2. alienated

3. refused

4. withhold

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav is an (1) _________ by the Government of India to celebrate and remember 75 years of independence and
the beautiful history of its people, culture and achievements. This Mahotsav is (2) _________ to the people of India, who have not only
been instrumental in bringing India this far in its evolutionary journey but also (3) _________ the power and potential to realise Prime
Minister, Narendra Modi's (4) _________ of activating India 2.0, fuelled by the spirit of Aatmanirbhar Bharat. The formal journey of
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav began on 12 March 2021, beginning a (5)______ to our 75th anniversary of independence and will finish a
year later on 15 August 2023.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate answer for blank number 3.%
Ans 1. clarifies

2. possess

3. concludes

4. obtains
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav is an (1) _________ by the Government of India to celebrate and remember 75 years of independence and
the beautiful history of its people, culture and achievements. This Mahotsav is (2) _________ to the people of India, who have not only
been instrumental in bringing India this far in its evolutionary journey but also (3) _________ the power and potential to realise Prime
Minister, Narendra Modi's (4) _________ of activating India 2.0, fuelled by the spirit of Aatmanirbhar Bharat. The formal journey of
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav began on 12 March 2021, beginning a (5)______ to our 75th anniversary of independence and will finish a
year later on 15 August 2023.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate answer for blank number 4.%
Ans 1. graphics

2. vision

3. design

4. control

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav is an (1) _________ by the Government of India to celebrate and remember 75 years of independence and
the beautiful history of its people, culture and achievements. This Mahotsav is (2) _________ to the people of India, who have not only
been instrumental in bringing India this far in its evolutionary journey but also (3) _________ the power and potential to realise Prime
Minister, Narendra Modi's (4) _________ of activating India 2.0, fuelled by the spirit of Aatmanirbhar Bharat. The formal journey of
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav began on 12 March 2021, beginning a (5)______ to our 75th anniversary of independence and will finish a
year later on 15 August 2023.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate answer for blank number 5.%
Ans 1. allocation

2. countdown

3. custom

4. breakdown
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 11/09/2024
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 1:30 PM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘÷’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged?

8 + 6 ÷ 51 – 17 × 13 = ?
Ans 1. 32

2. 58

3. 63

4. 71

Q.2 Select the triad in which the numbers are related to each other in the same way as the numbers in the following triads.
8-17-35
23-47-95
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 9-20-41

2. 12-25-51

3. 13-29-55

4. 16-32-62

Q.3 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which conclusion/s logically follow/s from the given
statements.
Statements:
All apples are mangoes.
All mangoes are lemons.
All lemons are kiwis.
Conclusions:
(I) All apples are lemons.
(II) All mangoes are kiwis.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follow.

2. Only conclusion I follows.

3. Only conclusion II follows.

4. Both conclusions I and II follow.

Q.4 Three of the following numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 90 – 144

2. 75 – 120

3. 45 – 70

4. 65 – 104
Q.5 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(34, 15, 64)
(29, 17, 63)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (44, 32, 98)

2. (31, 23, 54)

3. (25, 14, 53)

4. (24, 28, 76)

Q.6 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
DBOI, FEQL, ?, JKUR, LNWU
Ans 1. HISP

2. IHSP

3. HHSO

4. HISO

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘BUZZY’ is coded as ‘10’ and ‘KING’ is coded as ‘8’. How will ‘ABROAD’ be coded in that
language?
Ans 1. 10

2. 7

3. 9

4. 12
Q.9 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of numbers.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

186 : 103
156 : 73
Ans 1. 83 : 1

2. 208 : 127

3. 119 : 35

4. 95 : 12

Q.10 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
3, 20, 121, 604, 2417, ?
Ans 1. 7275

2. 7250

3. 7200

4. 7300

Q.11 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.12 Select the number that will come in the place of the question mark(?), if ‘+’ and ‘ – ‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged
41 – 54 × 6 ÷ 9 + 7 = ?
Ans 1. 108

2. 119

3. 104

4. 115
Q.13 Three statements are followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to consider these statements to be true,
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s
from the given statements.

Statements:
All pens are pages.
Some pages are pins.
Some pins are boards.

Conclusions:
(I) Some pins are pens.
(II) Some boards are pages.
(III) Some pens are boards.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows.

2. None of the conclusions follow.

3. Only conclusion II follows.

4. Either conclusion I or conclusion III follows.

Q.14 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the wife of B’.
A − B means ‘A is the son of B’.
A × B means ‘A is the husband of B’.
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.
Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P − Q + R ÷ S × T’?
Ans 1. Son’s son

2. Father

3. Husband’s brother

4. Father-in-law

Q.15 ‘Lavish’ is related to ‘Austere’ in the same way as ‘Prejudiced’ is related to ‘________’.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Ans 1. Impartial

2. Compromised

3. Thoughtful

4. Careful
Q.16 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17 The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word ‘JEALOUS’ is arranged in the
English alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Two

2. One

3. Three

4. Four

Q.18 Select the option that represents the letters that when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below will complete
the letter series.

_C_W___C_W__
Ans 1. WCCWWWCC

2. WWCWWWCW

3. CWCWWCCW

4. CCWWCCWW
Q.19 Two different positions of the same dice are given below. Which is the number on the face opposite the face containing 1?

Ans 1. 6

2. 5

3. 4

4. 3

Q.20 Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and fourth
term is related to third term.
TRAINER : VTCIQHU :: RADIANT : TCFIDQW :: CUSHION : ?
Ans 1. EWUHLRQ

2. FWUHLRQ

3. FXUHLRQ

4. EXUHLRQ

Q.21 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 11

2. 9

3. 12

4. 10

Q.22 In a certain code language, 'VAIN' is written as 'OKBY’ and 'VAST' is written as 'UUBY'. How will 'VERB’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. CFTY

2. CTFY

3. CTYF

4. CFYT
Q.23 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.24 Four letter-clusters have been given out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is
different.
Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster
Ans 1. GDI

2. XUZ

3. LKP

4. SPU
 Q.25 A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Taxus wallichiana Zucc (Himalayan yew) is a medicinal plant found in which of the following states?
Ans 1. Goa

2. Jharkhand

3. Himachal Pradesh

4. Bihar

Q.2 Which of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched?

Ans 1. Nucleus: Lipid metabolism

2. Lysosomes: Suicidal bags

3. Mitochondria: Power house of the cell

4. Ribosomes: Protein factory

Q.3 Which of the following battles is considered the formal beginning of the British Raj in India?
Ans 1. First Carnatic War

2. Battle of Plassey

3. Battle of Wandiwash

4. Battle of Buxar
Q.4 Which of the following Indian states has the least number of operational airports as of 2022?
Ans 1. Bihar

2. Maharashtra

3. Mizoram

4. Karnataka

Q.5 Who among the following, while praising the amending feature of the Indian Constitution said that ‘This variety in the
amending process is wise but is rarely found’?
Ans 1. Granville Austin

2. Ivor Jennings

3. K C Wheare

4. HM Seervai

Q.6 Tabla player, Ustad Zakir Hussain was awarded which of the following awards by the Government of India in 2023?
Ans 1. Bharat Ratna

2. Padma Shri

3. Padma Vibhushan

4. Padma Bhushan

Q.7 Gangu bai Hangal and Prabha Atre were exponents of the ___________ Gharana.
Ans 1. Rampur

2. Jaipur

3. Kirana

4. Mewati

Q.8 Which of the following famous Indian athletes won the Zurich Diamond League final 2022 in September 2022?
Ans 1. Bajrang Punia

2. Mirabai Chanu

3. Neeraj Chopra

4. PT Usha

Q.9 Which of the following Table Tennis World Championship events was held in India?
Ans 1. 19th World Championships, 1952

2. 17th World Championships, 1950

3. 20th World Championships, 1953

4. 18th World Championships, 1951

Q.10 Match the concepts in column A with their respective descriptions in column B.

Ans 1. a-5, b-1, c-2, d-3

2. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

3. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

4. a-5, b-3, c-2, d-1

Q.11 When haloalkanes and aryl and vinyl halides react with magnesium metal they yield which reagent?
Ans 1. Hinsberg reagent

2. Grignard reagent

3. Tollens’ reagent

4. Fehling reagent

Q.12 How many chambers are there in the heart of fishes?

Ans 1. 1

2. 2

3. 4

4. 3

Q.13 As per the report of the NITI Aayog in 2023, which among the following states in India has the lowest percentage of the total
population that is multidimensionally poor?
Ans 1. Goa

2. Kerala

3. Sikkim

4. Uttarakhand

Q.14 What is the unit of measurement for optical power of the lens?
Ans 1. Yotta

2. Katal

3. Radian

4. Diopter

Q.15 The Government of India allowed automatic approval of _____% of FDI by Reserve Bank of India in nine categories of
industries.
Ans 1. Up to 51

2. Up to 60

3. Up to 41

4. Up to 74

Q.16 Who among the following was the last sultan of Delhi sultanate?
Ans 1. Firoz Shah Tughlaq

2. Sikandar Lodi

3. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

4. Ibrahim Lodi

Q.17 Which of the following cups/trophies is NOT related to the Indian domestic cricket?
Ans 1. Duleep Trophy

2. Durand Cup

3. Deodhar Trophy

4. Ranji Trophy

Q.18 In the context of water bodies, Neap Tides occur:

Ans 1. when the earth, moon and sun line up in a straight line

2. when the sun and moon are on the opposite sides

3. when there is so much interference by continents

4. when the sun and moon are at right angles to each other
 Q.19 Chittani Ramachandra Hegde was associated with which of the following dances?
Ans 1. Chhau dance

2. Chappeli dance

3. Yakshagana dance

4. Huttari dance

Q.20 The idols of which three Gods are installed in Jagannath Temple, Puri?
Ans 1. Brahma, Vishnu and Mahesh

2. Radha, Krishna and Balram

3. Jagannath, Balabhadra and Subhadra

4. Ram, Lakshman and Janaki

Q.21 Anna Chandy, the first Indian woman to serve as a judge at a high court was oppointed in which High Court?
Ans 1. West Bengal

2. Kerala

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Andhra Pradesh

Q.22 As in July 2021,The NIPUN Bharat Scheme was launched by which of the following Ministries?
Ans 1. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

2. Ministry of Education

3. Ministry of Corporate Affairs

4. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers

Q.23 Which Article of the Constitution of India expressly provides that the President is eligible for re-election?
Ans 1. Article 58

2. Article 56

3. Article 59

4. Article 57

Q.24 In which of the following cities did Mahatma Gandhi lead the peasant movement against the imposed indigo cultivation by
the British planters?
Ans 1. Kheda

2. Gorakhpur

3. Bardoli

4. Champaran

Q.25 According to the Ashrama system of Vedic life, which of the following was the third stage of life?
Ans 1. Grihastha

2. Sanyasa

3. Brahmacharya

4. Vanaprastha

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 In ∆ PQR, M, N, and S are the mid-points of sides PQ, PR and QR, respectively. If the area of the ∆ PQR is 46 cm2, what is the
area (in cm2) of the quadrilateral MNRQ?
Ans 1. 39

2. 27.6

3. 23

4. 34.5
Q.2 The salary of a worker is first increased by 25%, then it is decreased by 12%. The percentage change in his salary is:
Ans 1. 10% increase

2. 13% increase

3. 10% decrease

4. 13% decrease

Q.3 Pipe A usually fills a tank in 6 hours. But due to a leak at the bottom of the tank, it takes extra 2 hours to fill the tank. If the
tank is full, then how much time will it take to get emptied due to the leak?
Ans 1. 16 hours

2. 20 hours

3. 12 hours

4. 24 hours

Q.4
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.5

Ans 1. 12000

2. 18000

3. 14000

4. 16000
Q.6

Ans 1. IT

2. English

3. Hindi

4. Mathematics

Q.7 How many years will it take for ₹8,400 to amount to ₹11,928 at a simple interest rate of 7% per annum?
Ans 1. 8

2. 5

3. 2

4. 6

Q.8 Find the area of a square, one of whose diagonals is 4.8 m long.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.9 Which of the following numbers is divisible by both 2 and 5?

Ans 1. 63840

2. 20792

3. 37915

4. 37254

Q.10

Ans 1. 49

2. 42

3. 21

4. 36
Q.11

Ans 1. 3.2%

2. 2.4%

3. 2.9%

4. 3.8%

Q.12

Ans 1. 28

2. 36

3. 17

4. 31

Q.13 If the ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is 25 : 144, the ratio of their corresponding sides is:
Ans 1. 5 : 12

2. 5 : 144

3. 25 : 12

4. 12 : 5
Q.14

Ans 1. 86,100

2. 96,100

3. 90,500

4. 80,500

Q.15 Find the average of the prime numbers lying between 50 and 76.
Ans 1. 66

2. 60

3. 62

4. 64

Q.16

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17

Ans 1. 2

2. 3

3. 1

4. 5
Q.18 If 0.4x + 0.16y = 1.7 and 0.3x + 0.12y = 3.4, then which of the following is correct?
Ans 1. The system has finitely many solutions but not unique.

2. The system has infinitely many solutions.

3. The system has no solution.

4. The system has unique solution.

Q.19 S borrowed some amount from R and promised to pay him 8% interest. Then S invested the borrowed amount in a scheme,
upon which he earned a profit of 5% after paying R, the principal amount with interest. How much percentage R would have
gained, if he would have invested in the scheme directly?
Ans 1. 13.4%

2. 13%

3. 14.4%

4. 14%

Q.20

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 The cost price of a bat is 75% of the marked price. Calculate the gain percentage after allowing a discount of 15%.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.23 △ ABC and △ RPQ are congruent, then the side of △ ABC that corresponds to PQ is:
Ans 1. AB

2. CA

3. AR

4. BC

Q.24 A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 200 m. The thief starts running and the policeman chases him. The thief
and the policeman run at the rate of 10 km/h and 11 km/h, respectively. What is the distance (in metres) between them after 9
minutes?
Ans 1. 40

2. 50

3. 30

4. 60
 Q.25

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
Neither my brother nor my brothers-in-law / attended the meeting / as his health is not more good.
Ans 1. Neither my brother nor my brothers-in-law

2. attended the meeting

3. No error

4. as his health is not more good

Q.2 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the parts in the correct sequence to
form a meaningful sentence.
(P) kindness and empathy
(Q) in a world that can be
(O) bring light and positivity
(R) harsh and challenging
Ans 1. PORQ

2. ROQP

3. QRPO

4. QROP

Q.3 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence .

She recieved an award for her outstanding performance.

Ans 1. recieved

2. award

3. performance

4. outstanding

Q.4 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To read between the lines
Ans 1. To underline some words

2. To read differently

3. To read aloud to public

4. To understand more than what the words suggest

Q.5 Select the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word.

Deficient
Ans 1. Skimpy

2. Broken

3. Ample

4. Terrible
Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Meander
Ans 1. Ramble

2. Deputise

3. Confirm

4. Direct

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the following sentence.
In Shakespeare's The Merchant of Venice, Shylock's connivance aimed to jeopardise Antonio's life.
Ans 1. Safeguard

2. Risk

3. Peril

4. Jape

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Two of the fugitives managed to remain free by adeptly avoiding the____________ of the police.
Ans 1. following

2. repression

3. pursuit

4. discovery

Q.9 Select the correctly spelt word.

Ans 1. Conscientous

2. Conscencious

3. Conscientious

4. Conscietious

Q.10 Select the option that can replace the underlined phrase and make the sentence grammatically correct.
The programme on TV was now shown the blurring faces of the inmates of the rehabilitation centre .
Ans 1. were now showing the blurred faces of the inmates of the rehabilitation centre.

2. was now showing the blurred faces of the inmates of the rehabilitation centre

3. were now showing the blurring faces of the inmates from the rehabilitation centre

4. was now showing the blurred faces of the inmates upon the rehabilitation centre

Q.11 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct logical sequence.

A. It contains high levels of Vitamin A and D.

B. Cod liver oil is thus used to treat arthritis.
C. This supplement is made from the liver of cod fish.
D. Cod liver oil is a nutritional supplement.
Ans 1. ABCD

2. CBAD

3. DCAB

4. BACD

Q.12 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who is trained to travel in a spacecraft.

Ans 1. Astronaut

2. Anthropologist

3. Alchemist

4. Curator
Q.13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Merit
Ans 1. Fatigue

2. Oblique

3. Virtue

4. Residue

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Jovial
Ans 1. Miserable

2. Solemnity

3. Cheerful

4. Profane

Q.15 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Each candidate was making tall promises.
Ans 1. Tall promises were being made by each candidate.

2. Tall promises are made by each candidate.

3. Tall promises will be made by each candidate.

4. Tall promises are being made by each candidate.

Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Jump the gun

Ans 1. To start all over again

2. Using a gun for sports

3. To stop a process

4. To do something too soon and too quickly

Q.17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
Layla is the Sultan’s consort.
Ans 1. Foe

2. Alcoholic

3. Enemy

4. Partner

Q.18 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Rahul thinks he is as smarter as his friends in the class.
Ans 1. his friends

2. he is as smarter as

3. Rahul thinks

4. in the class

Q.19 In the given question, a statement divided into different segments is given. Rearrange all the segments to form a coherent
statement.
O: population is expected to triple in
P: the next 50 years
Q: among the world’s poorest countries
R: population shrinkage in that period
S: whereas many rich countries will see
Ans 1. POSQR

2. RSOPQ

3. SPORQ

4. QOPSR
Q.20 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in active voice.
The car was repaired by the mechanic.
Ans 1. The mechanic repairs the car.

2. The mechanic has repaired the car.

3. The mechanic is repairing the car.

4. The mechanic repaired the car.

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Appearances may not reveal the man. So, you shouldn't make (1) _________ about a man's character based on how he (2)
_________ . People smile and smile, yet prove to be (3) _________ . On the other hand, people with rough exteriors prove to be the
(4) _________ and most considerate people on earth. They are the people who are beautiful from (5) _________ .

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.(
Ans 1. ascend

2. derivations

3. deficient

4. assumptions

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Appearances may not reveal the man. So, you shouldn't make (1) _________ about a man's character based on how he (2)
_________ . People smile and smile, yet prove to be (3) _________ . On the other hand, people with rough exteriors prove to be the
(4) _________ and most considerate people on earth. They are the people who are beautiful from (5) _________ .

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.(
Ans 1. admits

2. shows

3. glitters

4. looks

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Appearances may not reveal the man. So, you shouldn't make (1) _________ about a man's character based on how he (2)
_________ . People smile and smile, yet prove to be (3) _________ . On the other hand, people with rough exteriors prove to be the
(4) _________ and most considerate people on earth. They are the people who are beautiful from (5) _________ .

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.(
Ans 1. grumpy

2. ecstatic

3. joyful

4. sparkling
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Appearances may not reveal the man. So, you shouldn't make (1) _________ about a man's character based on how he (2)
_________ . People smile and smile, yet prove to be (3) _________ . On the other hand, people with rough exteriors prove to be the
(4) _________ and most considerate people on earth. They are the people who are beautiful from (5) _________ .

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.(
Ans 1. bitterest

2. strangest

3. gloomiest

4. kindest

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Appearances may not reveal the man. So, you shouldn't make (1) _________ about a man's character based on how he (2)
_________ . People smile and smile, yet prove to be (3) _________ . On the other hand, people with rough exteriors prove to be the
(4) _________ and most considerate people on earth. They are the people who are beautiful from (5) _________ .

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.(
Ans 1. within

2. personality

3. style

4. exterior
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 11/09/2024
Exam Time 4:00 PM - 5:00 PM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.2 A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.3 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
304 × 19 − 101 + 23 ÷ 5 = ?
Ans 1. 21

2. 12

3. 2

4. 6

Q.4 The same operation(s) are followed in all the given number pairs except one. Find that odd number pair.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 56 : 9

2. 44 : 7

3. 68 : 11

4. 72 : 12
Q.5 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some rats are mouse.
No mouse is a rodent.
Some rats are kittens.
Conclusions:
I. No rodent is a kitten.
II. Some rats are rodent.
III. No kitten is a mouse.
Ans 1. Only conclusion III follows

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Neither conclusion follows

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.6 Two different positions of the same dice with faces R, P, T, S, M and B are shown below. Select the letter that will be on the
face opposite to the one having S.

Ans 1. B

2. T

3. M

4. R

Q.7 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is
different.
Note : The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster
Ans 1. ONM

2. BCD

3. RST

4. JKL

Q.8 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will logically complete the
series.
BYN_J_YNF_X_NFJVY_FJ
Ans 1. FZJYN

2. FNJYV

3. FZYVJ

4. FJZNY

Q.9 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
164 – 173 ÷ 110 + 140 × 5 = ?
Ans 1. 19616

2. 11619

3. 19166

4. 11916
Q.10 In a certain code language,
R + T means ‘R is the sister of T’.
R – T means ‘R is the father of T’.
R * T means ‘R is the wife of T’.
R ÷ T means ‘R is the mother of T’.
Based on the above, how is M related to Q if ‘M * N – P + Q ÷ R +T’?
Ans 1. Mother’s mother

2. Mother

3. Sister

4. Mother’s sister

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘MAN’ is coded as ‘15316’ and ‘SHE’ is coded as ‘21107’. How will ‘OUT’ be coded in that
language?
Ans 1. 152120

2. 172121

3. 172322

4. 152222

Q.12 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.
Men, Engineers and Fathers
Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.13 Select the figure from among the given options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically completethe
series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.14 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.15 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
12, 25, 49, ?, 197, 395
Ans 1. 100

2. 121

3. 99

4. 96

Q.16 All of the letters in the word ‘JUNGLE’ are arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English
alphabetical series between the letter which is second from the left end and the one which is third from the right end in the
new letter-cluster thus formed?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. Five

4. Four
Q.17 What is the number of triangles in the following figure?

Ans 1. 10

2. 11

3. 8

4. 9

Q.18 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
OUR : NPTVQS : : BIG : ACHJFH : : FOR : ?
Ans 1. EGNPQS

2. GENPRS

3. EGNOQR

4. GEPNSQ

Q.19 Select the word pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below. (The
words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Calcium : Osteomalacia
Ans 1. Stomach : Blindness

2. Iron : Anaemia

3. Heart : Cardiovascular

4. Lungs : Tuberculosis

Q.20 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of numbers.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

17 : 253
19 : 271
Ans 1. 21 : 289

2. 23 : 207

3. 31 : 400

4. 32 : 387
Q.21 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(66, 57, 48)
(94, 85, 76)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (85, 77, 64)

2. (81, 72, 63)

3. (98, 90, 83)

4. (79, 70, 59)

Q.23 In a certain code language, BRING is coded as ‘7149182’ and SMILE is coded as ‘51291319’. What will be the code for
FORGIVE?
Ans 1. 5229179156

2. 5228717156

3. 5219717166

4. 5229718156
 Q.24 Two sets of numbers are given below. In each set of numbers, certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number
result(s) in the second number. Similarly, certain mathematical operation(s) on the second number result(s) in the third
number and so on. Which of the given options follows the same set of operations as in the given sets?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

14 – 196 – 186 – 172; 15 – 225 – 215 – 200

Ans 1. 9 – 81 – 71 – 62

2. 3 – 9 – 19 – 14

3. 8 – 64 – 54 – 40

4. 6 – 36 – 26 – 22

Q.25 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will
complete the letter series.
R F _ G T R _V G _ R F V _ T _ F V G T
Ans 1. VFTGR

2. VFTGG

3. VTTGR

4. VFVGR

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who developed the theory of combustion as a chemical reaction with oxygen in the 18th century, that excluded phlogiston
theory?
Ans 1. Antoine Lavoisier

2. Robert Boyle

3. Friedrich Wöhler

4. Johann Becher

Q.2 What do we mean by Allen’s rule?

Ans 1. Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss.

2. Desert lizards lack the physiological ability that mammals have to deal with the high temperatures of their habitat.

3. Some plants have no leaves – they are reduced to spines – and the photosynthetic function is taken over by the flattened
stems.
4. The body compensates low oxygen availability by increasing red blood cell production, decreasing the binding affinity of
haemoglobin and by increasing the breathing rate.

Q.3 Which of the following schemes enables students mobility across Higher Education Institutions?
Ans 1. National Educational Technology Forum

2. PM Umeed scheme

3. Structured Assessment for Analysing Learning Levels (SAFAL)

4. Academic Bank of Credits

Q.4 Which of the following Constitutions inspired the law-making process in India?
Ans 1. Irish Constitution

2. British Constitution

3. US Constitution

4. Canadian Constitution
Q.5 Which of the following definitions best describes the concept of microfinance?
Ans 1. A microfinance institution is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956, and engaged in the business of loans and
advances and acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by the government.
2. Microfinance is a banking service provided to unemployed or low-income individuals or groups, who otherwise would have no
other access to financial services.
3. A microfinance institution is a digital-only and mobile-first bank.

4. Microfinance refers to providing banking services to individuals living in rural areas.

Q.6 Ernest Rutherford used about ________ thick gold foil for alpha scattering experiments.
Ans 1. 500 atoms

2. 1000 atoms

3. 900 atoms

4. 700 atoms

Q.7 In May 2022, Then President Ram Nath Kovind appointed _________ as the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi.
Ans 1. Kiran Bedi

2. Anil Baijal

3. Vijai Kapoor

4. Vinai Kumar Saxena

Q.8 How many players are there on each side of the Kabaddi Team in the field?
Ans 1. 9

2. 7

3. 8

4. 10

Q.9 Which of the following events took place in the United Provinces in February, 1922?
Ans 1. Quit India

2. Chauri Chaura

3. Khilafat Movement

4. Kakori Incident

Q.10 The Mahalanobis model was the basis for which Five-Year Plan?
Ans 1. Fourth Five-Year Plan

2. Second Five-Year Plan

3. Sixth Five-Year Plan

4. First Five-Year Plan

Q.11 In which state of India was the Neeru-Meeru programme introduced for construction of water harvesting structures?
Ans 1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Rajasthan

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Punjab

Q.12 Lata Mangeshkar was honoured with the Bharat Ratna in the year ________.
Ans 1. 2001

2. 2003

3. 2004

4. 2002
Q.13 In which of the following districts of Rajasthan are the ‘Barchans’ found?
Ans 1. Udaipur

2. Jaisalmer

3. Bhilwara

4. Alwar

Q.14 Which of the following types of unemployment is found in India when people are employed for a certain period of a year in
tourist resorts and various tourism-related activities in the mountain regions, but are unemployed in off-seasons?
Ans 1. Seasonal unemployment

2. Under employment

3. Disguised unemployment

4. Cyclical unemployment

Q.15 When was the Jawaharlal Nehru Manipur Dance Academy established?
Ans 1. 1951

2. 1953

3. 1954

4. 1952

Q.16 ’Poush Mela’ is a unique festival celebrated in which of the following Indian states?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Himachal Pradesh

3. West Bengal

4. Madhya Pradesh

Q.17 According to which of the following foreign travellers, people of Delhi used to write letters containing abuses to the Sultan,
therefore, in order to punish them Sultan decided to shift the capital?
Ans 1. Isami

2. Hasan Nizami

3. Ibn Batuta

4. Al Biruni

Q.18 In 2022, which of the following railway stations has been selected for the ‘One Station One Product’ scheme launched by
Indian Railways, which identifies Kanchipuram sarees as the chosen product?
Ans 1. Howrah

2. Visakhapatnam

3. Chennai Central

4. Patna Jn

Q.19 With reference to Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909, consider the following statements.
a) They are also called the Indian Councils Act, 1909.
b) They increased the strength of Legislative Councils.
c) The right to separate electorate was given to the Muslims.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Ans 1. b, c

2. a, b, c

3. c, a

4. a, b
 Q.20 How long will a sound wave take to travel 1.5km, which has a frequency of 5 kHz and wavelength of 6 cm?
Ans 1. 2.5 seconds

2. 50 seconds

3. 5 seconds

4. 25 seconds

Q.21 Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the conduct of business of the Government of a state?
Ans 1. Article 177

2. Article 167

3. Article 164

4. Article 166

Q.22 Hariprasad Chaurasia, an Indian flutist in the Hindustani classical tradition, was awarded with which of the following awards
in 2000?
Ans 1. Padma Shri

2. Padma Vibhushan

3. Bharat Ratna

4. Padma Bhushan

Q.23 Which of the following terms is NOT related to cricket?

Ans 1. Wide Ball

2. Wicket

3. No Ball

4. Deuce

Q.24 Vasudeva I who issued coins in gold (dinars and quarter dinars) and copper (single denomination) was a _________king.
Ans 1. Shunga

2. Vakataka

3. Shaka

4. Kushana

Q.25 What is the reason for the similar size of the vascular bundle in monocot leaves?
Ans 1. Cubical venation

2. Radial venation

3. Rectangular venation

4. Parallel venation

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 Naman bought few apples for ₹720 from a shop. He negotiated the price and the shopkeeper reduced it by ₹2 per apple. Due
to this Naman could buy four more apples than what he had bought earlier. How many apples did he originally buy?
Ans 1. 48

2. 44

3. 36

4. 40
Q.2 The tank is filled by three pipes with different uniform flow rates. While the first two pipes are operating simultaneously, they
fill the tank in the same duration that the third pipe takes to fill it alone. The second pipe can fill the tank 5 hours quicker
than the first pipe, yet 4 hours slower than the third pipe. What is the time (in hours) needed for the first pipe to fill the tank?
Ans 1. 18

2. 12

3. 9

4. 15

Q.3

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.4 Sohan borrows a sum of ₹1,41,545 at the rate of 11% per annum simple interest. At the end of the first year, he repays
₹25,490 towards return of principal amount borrowed. If Sohan clears all pending dues at the end of the second year,
including interest payment that accrued during the first year, how much does he pay (in ₹) at the end of the second year?
Ans 1. 1,44,391

2. 1,36,453

3. 1,41,222

4. 1,37,407

Q.5 The table given here represents the distance (in km) travelled by two athletes X and Y in the same direction.

Y’s average speed (km/hour) during the first five hours is:
Ans 1. 33

2. 31

3. 34

4. 32

Q.6 Express sin 74° + tan 74° in terms of trigonometric ratios of angles between 0° and 45°.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7 A cuboid of dimensions 50 cm, 150 cm, 175 cm can be divided into how many identical largest cubes?
Ans 1. 75

2. 84

3. 85

4. 90
Q.8

Ans 1. 1471 : 1367

2. 1230 : 1331

3. 1367 : 1471

4. 1331 : 1230

Q.9 If Ram purchases a fan, he gets 8% discount, however, if he purchases three fans he gets 6% on the first, 10% on the
second and 12% on the third. If the price paid by the Ram for three fans is ₹6,800, then what will be the marked price of each
fan?
Ans 1. ₹2,400

2. ₹2,500

3. ₹2,450

4. ₹2,550

Q.10 A boat can go 54 km upstream in 6 hours. If the speed of the stream is 4.8 km/h, then how much time (in hours) will the boat
take to cover a distance of 279 km downstream?
Ans 1. 20

2. 15

3. 18

4. 16

Q.11 P and Q are centres of two circles whose radii are 7 cm and 3 cm, respectively. If the direct common tangents to the circles
meet PQ extended at A, then A divides PQ _________.
Ans 1. externally in the ratio 3 : 7

2. internally in the ratio 3 : 7

3. externally in the ratio 7 : 3

4. internally in the ratio 7 : 3

Q.12 Consider the given table for total imports of goods of 5 companies over 5 years (in lakhs),
and answer the question that follows.

If the total exports of all companies together in the year 2013 is ₹300 lakh, then the profit/loss
of all companies together in year 2013 is:
(Assume: Profit = Exports – Imports)
Ans 1. loss of ₹27 lakh

2. loss of ₹18 lakh

3. profit of ₹30 lakh

4. profit of ₹35 lakh

Q.13

Ans 1. 27

2. 63

3. 81

4. 54
 Q.14

Ans 1. 42,150

2. 43,250

3. 40,150

4. 41,250

Q.15

Ans 1. 87

2. 81

3. 77

4. 79

Q.
16

A 1. 20%
ns
2. 30%

3. 25%

4. 5%

Q.17 A class of 30 students appeared in a test. The average score of 12 students is 62, and that of the rest is 74. What is the
average score of the class?
Ans 1. 70.2

2. 69.2

3. 68.2

4. 67.2

Q.18

Ans 1. 1

2. -1

3. 2

4. 0

Q.19 What is the ratio of the mean proportional of 1.21 and 0.09 with the mean proportional of 0.16 and 0.36?
Ans 1. 11 : 8

2. 13 : 8

3. 13 : 12

4. 11 : 13
 Q.20 Replace * by the smallest digit so that 723*56* is divisible by 6.
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 2

4. 1

Q.21
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 In a ΔLMN, ∠ L = 118° and LM = LN. Find ∠ N.

Ans 1. 42°

2. 31°

3. 65°

4. 62°

Q.23

Ans 1. 6%

2. 3%

3. 5%

4. 4%

Q.24 In ∆ABC, two medians AD and BE intersect at G at right angles. If AD = 12 cm and BE = 9 cm, then the length of AB is equal
to:
Ans 1. 14 cm

2. 16 cm

3. 12 cm

4. 10 cm

Q.25

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank.

All the chefs in the world are famous because of their _____________ skills.
Ans 1. kulinary

2. kolinary

3. culinary

4. colinary

Q.2 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
When I saw him, I will ask him to return the book he borrowed.
Ans 1. shall see him

2. have seen him

3. had seen him

4. see him

Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Paramount
Ans 1. inferior

2. collateral

3. supreme

4. trivial

Q.4 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Failing to give proper care and attention

Ans 1. Lax

2. Cautious

3. Wild

4. Provident

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Brittle
Ans 1. Crunchy

2. Resilient

3. Delicate

4. Aloof

Q.6 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.
Out of those group members, Rohan is the one who opposes others, no matter what they tell him.
Ans 1. antagonist

2. agonist

3. anatomist

4. protagonist

Q.7 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

The letter was being typed by the secretary when the phone rang.
Ans 1. The secretary will type the letter when the phone rings.

2. The secretary types the letter when the phone rings.

3. The secretary was typing the letter when the phone rang.

4. The secretary is typing the letter when the phone rings.

Q.8 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
A dime a dozen
Ans 1. Variety of amenities

2. Something common and not special

3. Very wealthy

4. A fair trade

Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Expertise
Ans 1. Proficiency

2. Ignorance

3. Clumsiness

4. Lack

Q.10 In the following sentence, four words are underlined out of which one word is misspelt. Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt
word.
I took out a water tumbler(A) for a drink, but found the water in the metal container (B) had frozen so I couldn't quanch (C)
my thirst. I ate some biscuits and offered (D) some to Hillary.
Ans 1. C

2. D

3. B

4. A

Q.11 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the parts in the correct sequence to
form a meaningful sentence.
(P) an open mind
(Q) seek it with
(O) for personal growth and development
(R) knowledge is a powerful tool
Ans 1. PQRO

2. ORPQ

3. QROP

4. ROQP

Q.12 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Solutions to the country’s interior problems are still a long way away.
Ans 1. problems are still

2. a long way away.

3. Solutions to

4. the country’s interior

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
Success is not a destination, it’s a journey.
Ans 1. Sensation

2. Opulence

3. Victory

4. Failure

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the bold word in the following sentence.
His eloquent speech always persuades people to work for their betterment.
Ans 1. Vague

2. Inarticulate

3. Articulate

4. Short
Q.15 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.

A. A big fancy dress ball was arranged to celebrate their homecoming.

B. It must have been a terrible shock for a young girl.
C. They had been married a month, just home from their honeymoon.
D. Just as the guests were starting to arrive, Charnley locked himself into his bedroom and shot himself.
Ans 1. BCDA

2. ABCD

3. BCAD

4. DACB

Q.16 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
He must deliver pizza.
Ans 1. Pizza has to be delivered by him.

2. Pizza have to be delivered by him.

3. Pizza must be delivered by him.

4. Pizza can be delivered by him.

Q.17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word in brackets to fill in the blank.
The________(crux) of his argument was that education should continue throughout life.
Ans 1. essence

2. proposal

3. etiquette

4. draft

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
She believed she had been blamed for the mistakes of others for what happened.
Ans 1. Made a sceptic

2. Made a scapegoat

3. Made a spinster

4. Made a savage

Q.19 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Nobody’s fool
Ans 1. Not easily deceived

2. The wisest person

3. A complete fool

4. All are fools

Q.20 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.
They secret / decided / to leave / the town.
Ans 1. They secret

2. decided

3. the town

4. to leave
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Now, we have Mr. X as the President of India. It has come as a surprise (1)______ Scheduled Tribes who are (2)______ the most
marginalised groups of the country. The Adivasis of India have been (3)______ socially, economically and culturally. Despite various
efforts taken by the Government of India, they are still under (4)______ and suffering. Therefore, the (5)______ a leader from a
marginalised community or group does not indicate that now the entire community will be uplifted. However, this kind of move may
bring certain changes in the status of the Adivasis.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no.1
Ans 1. off

2. in

3. to

4. at

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Now, we have Mr. X as the President of India. It has come as a surprise (1)______ Scheduled Tribes who are (2)______ the most
marginalised groups of the country. The Adivasis of India have been (3)______ socially, economically and culturally. Despite various
efforts taken by the Government of India, they are still under (4)______ and suffering. Therefore, the (5)______ a leader from a
marginalised community or group does not indicate that now the entire community will be uplifted. However, this kind of move may
bring certain changes in the status of the Adivasis.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no.2
Ans 1. through

2. therefore

3. onto

4. among

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Now, we have Mr. X as the President of India. It has come as a surprise (1)______ Scheduled Tribes who are (2)______ the most
marginalised groups of the country. The Adivasis of India have been (3)______ socially, economically and culturally. Despite various
efforts taken by the Government of India, they are still under (4)______ and suffering. Therefore, the (5)______ a leader from a
marginalised community or group does not indicate that now the entire community will be uplifted. However, this kind of move may
bring certain changes in the status of the Adivasis.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no.3
Ans 1. censored

2. marginalised

3. elevated

4. uplifted

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Now, we have Mr. X as the President of India. It has come as a surprise (1)______ Scheduled Tribes who are (2)______ the most
marginalised groups of the country. The Adivasis of India have been (3)______ socially, economically and culturally. Despite various
efforts taken by the Government of India, they are still under (4)______ and suffering. Therefore, the (5)______ a leader from a
marginalised community or group does not indicate that now the entire community will be uplifted. However, this kind of move may
bring certain changes in the status of the Adivasis.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no.4
Ans 1. abundance

2. forest

3. river

4. poverty
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Now, we have Mr. X as the President of India. It has come as a surprise (1)______ Scheduled Tribes who are (2)______ the most
marginalised groups of the country. The Adivasis of India have been (3)______ socially, economically and culturally. Despite various
efforts taken by the Government of India, they are still under (4)______ and suffering. Therefore, the (5)______ a leader from a
marginalised community or group does not indicate that now the entire community will be uplifted. However, this kind of move may
bring certain changes in the status of the Adivasis.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no.5
Ans 1. rejection of

2. president of

3. exclusion of

4. elevation of
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 12/09/2024
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All pages are diaries.
Some diaries are books.
All books are notebooks.

Conclusions:
I. No page is a notebook.
II. All pages are notebooks.
III. All diaries being notebooks is a possibility.
Ans 1. Both conclusion I and II follow

2. Only conclusions I and III follow

3. Only conclusion III follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.2 The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if all the letters in the word BINDER are arranged in English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. None

2. One

3. Two

4. Three

Q.3 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’;

‘A − B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’;
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

Based on the above, how is 4 related to 2 if ‘4 + 3 ÷ 2 ÷ 1 − 5’?

Ans 1. Father’s father

2. Father’s mother

3. Mother’s father

4. Mother’s mother
Q.4 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ‘?’ will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.5 ‘WISK’ is related to ‘DRHP’ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ‘LENT’ is related to
‘OVMG’. To which of the following is ‘BANG’ related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. ZYLU

2. ZYNS

3. YZNU

4. YZMT

Q.6 Two sets of numbers are given below. In each set of numbers, certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number
result(s) in the second number. Similarly, certain mathematical operation(s) on the second number result(s) in the third
number and so on. Which of the given options follows the same set of operations as in the given sets?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

18 – 36 – 72 – 107; 15 – 30 – 60– 95
Ans 1. 22 – 44 – 88 – 123

2. 25 – 50 – 100 – 125

3. 11 – 22 – 66 – 101

4. 30 – 60 – 90 – 115

Q.7 Select the number from the given options to complete the series.
25, 30, 40, 55, 75, ___
Ans 1. 105

2. 85

3. 80

4. 100
Q.8 The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if all the letters in the word ‘ENTOMB’ are arranged in English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. None

2. Two

3. One

4. Three

Q.9 Six words Eat, Cry, Play, Sleep, Run and Bath are written on different faces of a dice. Three positions of this dice are shown
in the figure. Find the word on the face opposite to Eat.

Ans 1. Play

2. Cry

3. Sleep

4. Run

Q.10 Two different positions of the same dice with faces T, O, B, L, Y and V are shown below. Select the letter that will be on the
face opposite to the one having L.

Ans 1. Y

2. B

3. V

4. O

Q.11 Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number
of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Virus : Parasite
Ans 1. Fungus : Jasmine

2. Amaltas : Tree

3. Fenugreek : Micro organism

4. Algae : Flower

Q.12 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets.
(213, 157), (185, 129)
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. (171, 123)

2. (189, 141)

3. (164, 108)

4. (192, 152)
Q.13 Three of the following four options are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong
to that group?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 540 – 188 – 128

2. 72 – 284 – 266

3. 81– 101– 92

4. 90 – 22– 12

Q.14 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
IMHP, MPJQ, QSLR, UVNS, ?
Ans 1. YYPT

2. YYOT

3. YXPT

4. XYPT

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘FACED’ is written as ‘GZDDE’ and ‘VACAY’ is written as ‘WZDZZ’. How will ‘LABOR’ be written in
that language?
Ans 1. MZCNS

2. MBCPS

3. MBDPS

4. MADMS

Q.16 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
247 ÷ 13 + 16 × 3 − 148 = 119
Ans 1. + and ×

2. − and +

3. − and ×

4. ÷ and ×

Q.17 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 18

2. 16

3. 21

4. 20
Q.18 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.19

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.20 In a certain code language, 'FIVE' is written as '12184410' and FOUR is written as '12304236'. How will 'THREE' be written in
that language?
Ans 1. 4016361110

2. 4016361310

3. 4016361212

4. 4016361010
Q.21 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 In the following series, only one letter-cluster is incorrect. Select the incorrect letter-cluster.

YCG IMQ SVZ CGK MQU

Ans 1. SVZ

2. MQU

3. CGK

4. IMQ

Q.23 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a
group. Which is the one that DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. KJE

2. JHD

3. FDZ

4. AYU

Q.24 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
342 × 18 + 79 − 45 ÷ 3 = ?
Ans 1. 65

2. 75

3. 85

4. 55

Q.25

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following is the world renowned exponent of the bamboo flute?
Ans 1. MS Subbulakshmi

2. Ravi Shankar

3. Hariprasad Chaurasia

4. Bismillah Khan

Q.2 What is net investment?

Ans 1. Sum of all the investments in a country

2. Gross investment + depreciation

3. Gross capital investment - indirect taxes

4. Gross investment - depreciation

Q.3 India won the ICC Men Cricket World Cup for the first time in which of the following years?
Ans 1. 1996

2. 1992

3. 1987

4. 1983

Q.4

Ans 1. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

2. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

3. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

4. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

Q.5 Kathakali, one of the classical dances of India, is predominantly performed in which of the following states of India?
Ans 1. Assam

2. Manipur

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Kerala

Q.6 Identify the oldest iron and steel company of India from the following options.
Ans 1. Tata Iron & Steel Company(TISCO)

2. Visvesvaraiya Iron & Steel Works

3. Indian Iron & Steel Company (IISCO)

4. Mysore Iron & Steel Works

Q.7 The magnificent Kailasa temple at Ellora was built during the reign of which Rashtrakuta king?
Ans 1. Krishna I

2. Indra III

3. Govinda III

4. Amoghavarsha
Q.8 In which state/UT is the Hemis festival celebrated?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Sikkim

3. Lakshadweep

4. Ladakh

Q.9 Which of the following is the largest artificial lake of Asia?

Ans 1. Naini Lake

2. Bhopal Lake

3. Dal Lake

4. Chilika Lake

Q.10 In 2002, Zakir Hussain became the youngest percussionist to be honoured with which award?
Ans 1. Sangeet Natak Akademi Award

2. Grammy Award

3. Padma Bhushan

4. National Heritage Fellowship

Q.11 Microbes like Rhizobium, Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are used for:
Ans 1. nitrogen cycling

2. carbon cycling

3. water cycling

4. sulphur cycling

Q.12 With reference to Sepoy Mutiny of 1857, on which of the following dates did the soldiers at Meerut start their journey to
Delhi?
Ans 1. 10 May

2. 19 April

3. 2 June

4. 29 March

Q.13 Who among the following was selected as the Sherpa for India’s G20 hosted in 2022-23?
Ans 1. Piyush Goyal

2. Ashwini Vaishnav

3. Shaktikanta Das

4. Amitabh Kant

Q.14 Purvanchal Himalayas does NOT comprise of:

Ans 1. Naga hills

2. Pir Panjal range

3. Manipur hills

4. Mizo hills

Q.15 In which year did India make its Olympic debut in hockey?
Ans 1. 1936

2. 1932

3. 1924

4. 1928
Q.16 A student, on his school assignment, is taking a session on how to make compost at home for using it at a park. Which
fundamental duty is he performing?
Ans 1. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

2. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence

3. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry

4. To protect and improve the natural environment

Q.17 In August 2022, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched the ________ scheme, with an aim to provide
comprehensive rehabilitation services to people engaged in begging in 75 municipalities.
Ans 1. TWINKLE-75

2. BEAM-75

3. SMILE-75

4. RISE-75

Q.18 Which is the National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, a basic savings and
deposits accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, pension in an affordable manner?
Ans 1. Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana

2. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana

3. Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana

4. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

Q.19 Which of the following plays was NOT written by Harshavardhana?

Ans 1. Vikramorvasiyam

2. Ratnavali

3. Nagananda

4. Priyadarshika

Q.20 The organisms that do not have a defined nucleus or organelles are classified in to _______ Kingdom.
Ans 1. Fungi

2. Protista

3. Monera

4. Plantae

Q.21 Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that ‘there shall be a Vice President of India’?
Ans 1. Article 61

2. Article 63

3. Article 65

4. Article 62

Q.22 A javelin thrown by an athlete is in ________ motion.

Ans 1. oscillatory

2. periodic

3. rectilinear

4. curvilinear

Q.23 The green revolution technology resulted in an increase in production of cereal production from 72.4 million tons in 1965-66
to ________ million tons in 1978-79.
Ans 1. 150.8

2. 165.9

3. 131.9

4. 141.2
 Q.24 Calculate the oxidation number of ‘S’ in H2S2O7 .
Ans 1. 3

2. 7

3. 6

4. 2

Q.25 Which of the following is NOT an amendment made to the Airport Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA) Amendment Act,
2021?
Ans 1. The government can call any airport a major airport just by notification.

2. The government will club together profit-making and loss-making airports.

3. The government can offer airports as a package in PPP mode to the prospective bidders.

4. A major airport is one which has an annual traffic of minimum 35 lakh passengers.

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 Which digits should come in place * and $,respectively, if the number 72864*$ is divisible by both 8 and 5?
Ans 1. 4 and 0

2. 2 and 0

3. 2 and 5

4. 4 and 5

Q.2

Ans 1. 75%

2. 90%

3. 65%

4. 80%

Q.3 In a triangle PQR, S is a point on the side QR such that PS⊥ QR, then which of the following options is true?
Ans 1. PS2 + PR2 = PQ2 + QR2

2. PR2 + QS2 = PQ2 + SR2

3. PQ2 + PR2 = QS2 + SR2

4. PS2 + QS2 = PQ2 + PR2

Q.4 Simplify
15.5 − [3 − {7 − (5 − (14.5 − 13.5))}].
Ans 1. 15.5

2. 13.5

3. 12.5

4. 14.5

Q.5 The incomes of P, Q and R are in the ratio 10 : 12 : 9 and their expenditures are in the ratio 12 : 15 : 8. If Q saves 25% of his
income, then what is the ratio of the savings of P, Q and R?
Ans 1. 15 : 14 : 21

2. 14 : 15 : 21

3. 21 : 15 : 14

4. 21 : 14 : 15

Q.6 The classification of 100 students based on the marks obtained by them in English and Mathematics in an examination is
given in the table below. Study the table and answer the question that follows.
MARKS OUT OF 50
SUBJECT 40 and above 30 and above 20 and above 10 and above 0 and above
ENGLISH 10 31 80 92 100
MATHEMATICS 3 23 65 81 100
AGGREGATE 7 27 73 87 100

If at least 40% marks in Mathematics are required for pursuing higher studies in Mathematics, how many students will be
eligible to pursue higher studies in Mathematics?
Ans 1. 55

2. 65

3. 70

4. 50

Q.7 In triangles ABC and DEF, AB = FD and ∠ A = ∠ D. The two triangles are congruent by SAS criterion if:
Ans 1. BC = DE

2. AC = EF

3. BC = EF

4. AC = DE

Q.8 Two pipes, A and B, can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 20 minutes, respectively. The pipe C can empty the tank in 30 minutes.
All the three pipes are opened at a time in the beginning. However, pipe C is closed 2 minutes before the tank is filled. In
what time, will the tank be full (in minutes)?
Ans 1. 12

2. 10

3. 8

4. 6

Q.9 A payment of ₹120 is made with ₹10, ₹5 and ₹2 coins. A total of 25 coins are used. Which of the following is the number of
₹10 coins used in the payment?
Ans 1. 6

2. 4

3. 10

4. 8
Q.10 If 28.9 : x :: x : 36.1, and x > 0, then find the value of x.
Ans 1. 38.3

2. 32.3

3. 30.4

4. 35

Q.11

Ans 1. 698

2. 1048

3. 1074

4. 1047

Q.12 The height of a cylinder is 20 cm. The lateral surface area is 1760 cm2. Its volume is:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.13 Raj divides ₹1,200 in the ratio 2 : 1 : 3 among three of his friends. The amount equal to the sum of three times the largest
share and two times the smallest share is:
Ans 1. ₹2,400

2. ₹1,800

3. ₹2,200

4. ₹2,000
Q.14 A shopkeeper marked an article at ₹5,000. The shopkeeper allows successive discounts of 20%,15% and 10%. The selling
price of the article is:
Ans 1. ₹2,750

2. ₹3,000

3. ₹2,800

4. ₹3,060

Q.15 The average of 12 numbers is 48. The average of the first 5 numbers is 45 and the average of next 4 numbers is 52. If the
10th number is 10 less than the 11th number and is 5 more than the 12th number, then the average of the 11th and 12th
numbers is:
Ans 1. 50.5

2. 46.5

3. 47.5

4. 48.5

Q.16 Find the value of the following expression.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17
The value of is:

Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 0

4. −1

Q.18

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.19 M and N walk along a circular track. They start at 5:00 a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions. M and N walk at a
speed of 5 rounds per hour and 2 rounds per hour, respectively. How many times will they cross each other before 6.30 a.m.
on the same day?
Ans 1. 10

2. 3

3. 5

4. 7
Q.20

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The given table shows the production of different types of refrigerators in a company.
Types of Refrigerators
Years
A B C
2011 2018 1800 1932
2012 2040 1890 1800
2013 2035 1910 1890
2014 2020 1940 1978
2015 1997 1960 1900
In which of the given year(s) was the production of B type refrigerator closest to its average production over the given
years?
Ans 1. Both 2012 and 2013

2. Both 2013 and 2015

3. 2014

4. Only 2012

Q.23 The measures of the three angles of a triangle are in the ratio 17 : 13 : 15. Find the positive difference between the greatest
and the smallest of these three angles.
Ans 1. 16°

2. 24°

3. 20°

4. 12°

Q.24
Ans 1. 45°

2. 90°

3. 30°

4. 75°
 Q.25 A certain sum of money becomes seven times itself when invested at a certain rate of simple interest, in 14 years. How
much time (in years, rounded off to 2 decimal places) will it take to become 18 times itself at the same rate?
Ans 1. 27.33

2. 39.67

3. 42.78

4. 35.5

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that can be used as a one-word-substitute for the given group of words.

A false idea or belief

Ans 1. Reticence

2. Atrophy

3. Fallacy

4. Entropy

Q.2 Identity the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Secure
Ans 1. Succeed

2. Save

3. Attack

4. Trundle

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Gourav was no good than a foolish person.
Ans 1. no better

2. not good

3. no best

4. not best

Q.4 Select the option that corrects the error in the given sentence.
He ran quick to catch the bus.
Ans 1. quiet

2. rapid

3. insipid

4. quickly

Q.5 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Acquiesce
Ans 1. Desist

2. Cease

3. Thwart

4. Concur

Q.6 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

That which cannot be conquered

Ans 1. Invisible

2. Indelible

3. Ineffable

4. Invincible
Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym for the underlined word in the given sentence.
His ambition in life is to become a happy and satisfied man.
Ans 1. Apathy

2. Satisfaction

3. Eagerness

4. Amend

Q.8 Read the sentence carefully and select the most suitable idiom to fill in the blank.

The renowned publisher decided to withdraw a book from the market. No one was interested in the book as the arguments
presented were ____________.
Ans 1. high and mighty

2. out of the woods

3. beside the mark

4. under the rose

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Receive
Ans 1. Admit

2. Exile

3. Reward

4. Fund

Q.10 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice.
Sonam does not like bananas.
Ans 1. Banana is not liked by Sonam.

2. Bananas have not been liked by Sonam.

3. Bananas are not liked by Sonam.

4. Bananas had not been liked by Sonam.

Q.11 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.
A. The genuine beliefs, though not unconsciously acquired by most children; and even if they depart from these beliefs in
later life
B. Something of them remains deeply implanted, ready to emerge in a time of stress of crisis
C. The importance of education in forming character and opinion is very great and well recognised by all
D. Education is, as a rule, the strongest force on the side of what exists and again fundamental change
Ans 1. DCAB

2. DABC

3. CBAD

4. CABD

Q.12 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.

In Indian mythology, most of the Asuras wish to be never able to die.

Ans 1. Invincible

2. Impervious

3. Invisible

4. Immortal

Q.13 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice
Someone has taken my secret diary.
Ans 1. My secret diary had been taken by someone.

2. My secret diary has to be taken by someone.

3. My secret diary has been taken by someone.

4. My secret diary will have been taken by someone.

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the bracketed word in the following sentence to fill in the blank.

During Covid times, many organisations made ________(sentimental) appeals to raise funds for migrant workers.
Ans 1. mawkish

2. sincere

3. cynical

4. practical

Q.15 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence.
He is an atheist, although he respects everyone’s belief.
Ans 1. One who believes in God

2. One who believes in nature

3. One who is extremist

4. One who does not believe in God

Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the following sentence.
In my new office, all employees were different, so I felt like a fish out of water.
Ans 1. Uncomfortable

2. Homeless

3. Frustrated

4. Disappointed

Q.17 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Embarrass

2. Occurrence

3. Exhilerate

4. Accommodate

Q.18 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.
Mrs. Sreelakshmi’s / musical intelligence / is superior than / Mrs. Suma’s.
Ans 1. Mrs. Suma’s.

2. musical intelligence

3. is superior than

4. Mrs. Sreelakshmi’s

Q.19 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
If I was the queen, I would give a handsome sum towards education.
Ans 1. will be the queen

2. were the queen

3. have been the queen

4. would be the queen

Q.20 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Exceed

2. Proceed

3. Succeed

4. Preceed
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The beginning of the story is (1)______ in its presentation but (2)______ the style eases out and becomes haunting in its simplicity.
The author brings out the human elements in his story. This common element of sympathy and sacrifice is given a new (3)_____ by
the old artist who shows by his last desperate act that one can be a hero for one day if only one cares (4)______. O Henry’s treatment
of his material is balanced and controlled, a fine (5)______ of humour and pathos.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. prone

2. delectable

3. quaint

4. habitual

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The beginning of the story is (1)______ in its presentation but (2)______ the style eases out and becomes haunting in its simplicity.
The author brings out the human elements in his story. This common element of sympathy and sacrifice is given a new (3)_____ by
the old artist who shows by his last desperate act that one can be a hero for one day if only one cares (4)______. O Henry’s treatment
of his material is balanced and controlled, a fine (5)______ of humour and pathos.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. hardly

2. recently

3. initially

4. gradually

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The beginning of the story is (1)______ in its presentation but (2)______ the style eases out and becomes haunting in its simplicity.
The author brings out the human elements in his story. This common element of sympathy and sacrifice is given a new (3)_____ by
the old artist who shows by his last desperate act that one can be a hero for one day if only one cares (4)______. O Henry’s treatment
of his material is balanced and controlled, a fine (5)______ of humour and pathos.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. supervision

2. condition

3. dimension

4. infection

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The beginning of the story is (1)______ in its presentation but (2)______ the style eases out and becomes haunting in its simplicity.
The author brings out the human elements in his story. This common element of sympathy and sacrifice is given a new (3)_____ by
the old artist who shows by his last desperate act that one can be a hero for one day if only one cares (4)______. O Henry’s treatment
of his material is balanced and controlled, a fine (5)______ of humour and pathos.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. through

2. though

3. tough

4. enough
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The beginning of the story is (1)______ in its presentation but (2)______ the style eases out and becomes haunting in its simplicity.
The author brings out the human elements in his story. This common element of sympathy and sacrifice is given a new (3)_____ by
the old artist who shows by his last desperate act that one can be a hero for one day if only one cares (4)______. O Henry’s treatment
of his material is balanced and controlled, a fine (5)______ of humour and pathos.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. legend

2. ascend

3. blend

4. amend
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 12/09/2024
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 1:30 PM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Three of the following numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 12 – 7 – 209

2. 19 – 11 – 330

3. 23 – 8 – 343

4. 15 – 9 – 264
Q.2 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below and complete the pattern.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘talk to me’ is coded as ‘aq yt bl’ and ‘do not talk’ is coded as ‘yt me wc’. What is the code for
‘talk’ in that language?
Ans 1. yt

2. wc

3. bl

4. aq

Q.4 ‘NGRP’ is related to ‘JCNL’ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ‘FKLT’ is related to
‘BGHP’. To which of the following is ‘SQUO’ related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. ONQL

2. OMQK

3. PNRL

4. PMRK
Q.5 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.

E_GHEI_GELK_ _OME
Ans 1. IGFE

2. IFGE

3. FIFE

4. FGEI

Q.6 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A − B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A × B means ‘A is the brother of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’.
Based on the above, how is P related to R if ‘P × S ÷ M − T + R’?
Ans 1. Brother

2. Son’s son

3. Father’s mother

4. Daughter

Q.7 346 is related to 245 by certain logic. Following the same logic, 580 is related to 479. To which of the following is 613 related,
following the same logic? (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 720

2. 460

3. 512

4. 630

Q.8 How many squares are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 8

2. 9

3. 10

4. 7

Q.9 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
HPL, KLQ, NHV, QDA, TZF, ?
Ans 1. WVK

2. XVK

3. WDK

4. XWK
Q.10 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.11 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(11, 16.5, 22)
(14.5, 20, 25.5)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (14, 18.5, 23.5)

2. (21.5, 25, 31.5)

3. (18, 23.5, 29)

4. (24.5, 30, 36.5)

Q.12 Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number
of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Duleep Trophy : Cricket
Ans 1. Burdwan Trophy : Polo

2. Agha Khan Cup : Hockey

3. Dhyan Chand Trophy : Badminton

4. Durand Cup : Cricket

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘BOOK’ is written as ‘ZNNI’ and ‘SHOP’ is written as ‘QFNN’. How will ‘NOTES’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. LRDQN

2. LNRDQ

3. LDNQR

4. QDRNL

Q.14 Two sets of numbers are given below. In each set of numbers, certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number
result(s) in the second number. Similarly, certain mathematical operation(s) on the second number result(s) in the third
number and so on. Which of the given options follows the same set of operations as in the given sets?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

10 – 12 – 8 – 15; 12 – 14 – 10 – 19
Ans 1. 11 – 13 – 9 – 17

2. 8 – 6 – 10 – 18

3. 6 – 8 – 12 – 16

4. 15 – 13 – 9 – 19
Q.15 Six letters U, V, W, X, Y and Z are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure. Find
the letter on the face opposite to V.

Ans 1. X

2. Y

3. Z

4. W

Q.16 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

16 ÷ 4 + 8 × 8 − 4 = ?
Ans 1. 11

2. 67

3. 42

4. 36

Q.17 Which of the following operations should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
12 + 12 − 4 × 4 ÷ 2 = 22
Ans 1. + and ÷

2. ÷ and −

3. − and +

4. × and −

Q.18 Six letters J, K, L, M, N and O are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure
below. Find the letter on the face opposite to J.

Ans 1. M

2. O

3. L

4. N
Q.19 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.20 Which of the following numbers will replace the question marks (?) in the given series?
16, 36, 64, ?, ?, 196, 256, 324
Ans 1. 81, 121

2. 100, 121

3. 100, 144

4. 81, 100

Q.21 Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:

All cards are postcards.

Some postcards are books.
All books are novels.

Conclusions:

I. Some postcards are novels.

II. No card is a book.
III. All cards are novels.
Ans 1. Only II and III conclusion follow

2. Only conclusion III follows

3. Only I and II conclusion follow

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.22 In a certain code language, ‘can we play’ is coded as ‘ae tc nx’ and ‘play in school’ is coded as ‘tc rm ef’. How is ‘play’ coded
in that language?
Ans 1. rm

2. ef

3. ae

4. tc

Q.23 Each vowel in the word ‘STAMINA’ is changed to the preceding letter in the English alphabetical order and each consonant
is changed to the following letter in the English alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical
order between the letter which is the third from the right and the fourth from the left in the group of letters thus formed?
Ans 1. Five

2. Seven

3. Four

4. Six

Q.24 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a
group. Which is the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. MPT

2. ACG

3. DGK

4. HKO
 Q.25 Identify the figure from the given options, which when put in place of the question mark (?), will logically complete the
series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following is an example of public sector industry in India?

Ans 1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

2. Bajaj Auto

3. Dabur

4. Tata Iron Steel Company

Q.2 In which of the following years was Pro Kabaddi League established in India?
Ans 1. 2015

2. 2016

3. 2013

4. 2014

Q.3 The Vedangas are Hindu auxiliary disciplines that originated in ancient times and are linked to the study of the Vedas. These
are _________ in number.
Ans 1. five

2. seven

3. four

4. six
Q.4 What was the actual growth rate of the first five-year plan?
Ans 1. 4.2%

2. 2.6%

3. 3.6%

4. 2.1%

Q.5 What are the five Fs of indirect transmission?

Ans 1. Flies, fingers, fomites, food and fluid

2. Fruit, fingers, flu, food and fluid

3. Flies, fingers, friends, food and fruit

4. Flies, fingers, fomites, food and fruit

Q.6

Ans 1. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

2. i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d

3. i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d

4. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

Q.7 The Election Laws Amendment Bill passed in the Parliament recently seeks to implement certain electoral reforms. One of
them is the eligibility date. Till now, only one date – 1 January was considered for deciding eligibility with respect to age.
What reform does the Bill seek in this regard?
Ans 1. Introducing two dates – 1 January and 1 June

2. Eliminating the idea of eligibility date – enrolment throughout the year

3. Introducing four dates – 1 January, 1 April, 1 July, 1 October

4. Introducing three dates – 1 January, 1 May, 1 September

Q.8 In July 2020, which state initiated the 'Ashirwad Scheme' to extend financial support for a daughter's marriage who belongs
to a family earning a lower income?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Bihar

3. Punjab

4. Rajasthan

Q.9 In the state legislative assembly, the Money bill can be introduced with the prior permission of __________.
Ans 1. Governor

2. Auditor General

3. Finance Minister

4. CAG

Q.10 According to Census of India 2011, what is the gap between male and female literacy rate in India?
Ans 1. 21.59%

2. 18.30%

3. 24.84%

4. 16.68%
Q.11 In which year was the Digital India mission launched?
Ans 1. 2014

2. 2016

3. 2015

4. 2017

Q.12 Who among the following players is related to table tennis?

Ans 1. Manish Narwal

2. Manika Batra

3. K Srikanth

4. Pankaj Advani

Q.13 Which of the following gases emits red light when electricity is passed through it?
Ans 1. Neon

2. Hydrogen

3. Argon

4. Helium

Q.14 Chand Bardai’s famous literary work ________, mentions Prithviraj Chauhan‘s love story and heroic deeds.
Ans 1. Harakeli Nataka

2. Abhidhana Chintamani

3. Prithviraj Raso

4. Rajamartanda

Q.15 Who among the following freedom fighters is known as ‘Deshbandhu’?

Ans 1. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

2. Bhagat Singh

3. Subhas Chandra Bose

4. Chittaranjan Das

Q.16 Buddhadev Dasgupta is famous for playing which of the following musical instruments?
Ans 1. Sarod

2. Sarangi

3. Bansuri

4. Mridangam

Q.17 Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty of the Indian citizens?
Ans 1. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.

2. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

3. To cherish and follow the noble ideas that inspired our national struggle for freedom.

4. Mandatory national service of 5 years.

Q.18 What is the product formed when zinc and sulphuric acid react?
Ans 1. Zinc sulphate

2. Zinc hydroxide

3. Zinc sulphide

4. Zinc oxide
 Q.19 Hindustani singer Pandit Venkatesh Kumar was honoured with 'Kalidas Samman-2022' by which state government?
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Maharashtra

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Gujarat

Q.20 In which form of exchange are goods used as medium of exchange?

Ans 1. Online exchange

2. Credit exchange

3. Currency exchange

4. Barter exchange

Q.21 Gangaur Festival, Pushkar Fair, Nagaur Fair and Urs Fair are the popular fairs and festivals of which state?
Ans 1. Rajasthan

2. Tripura

3. Punjab

4. Maharashtra

Q.22 ______ leaves are used to make bidis.

Ans 1. Neem

2. Champa

3. Betel

4. Tendu

Q.23 Which of the following hills is located in the Eastern Ghats?

Ans 1. Naga hills

2. Khasi hills

3. Shevaroy hills

4. Anamudi hills

Q.24 Who established Shantiniketan and when?

Ans 1. Mahatma Gandhi, 1910

2. Ravindranath Tagore, 1901

3. Ravindranath Tagore, 1905

4. Devendranath Tagore, 1915

Q.25 Which of the following institutes was founded by Mrinalini Sarabhai who was a Bharatanatyam and Kathakali dancer?
Ans 1. Sri Thyagaraja College of Music and Dance

2. Nrityanjali Institute of Performing Arts

3. Darpana Academy of Performing Arts

4. Nalanda Nritya Kala Mahavidyalaya

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1

Ans 1. 20% p.a.

2. 18% p.a.

3. 17% p.a.

4. 19% p.a.

Q.2 Every month, a man consumes 20 kg of rice and 8 kg of wheat. The price of rice is 20% of the price of wheat, resulting in a
total expenditure of ₹300 per month for rice and wheat combined. If the price of wheat is increased by 20%, what percentage
reduction in rice consumption is needed to maintain the same expenditure of ₹300? (Given that price of rice and
consumption of wheat is constant.)
Ans 1. 40%

2. 38%

3. 24%

4. 22%

Q.3 A thief pursued by a policeman was 150 m ahead at the start. If the ratio of the speed of the policeman to that of the thief
was 5 : 4, then how far (distance in metres) could the thief go before he is caught by the policeman?
Ans 1. 350

2. 200

3. 600

4. 400

Q.4

Ans 1. 9 : 5

2. 12 : 5

3. 1 : 2

4. 5 : 12

Q.5

Ans 1. 0

2. 81

3. 27.1

4. 63
Q.6 Find the area of a sector with an arc length of 44 cm, which subtends a central angle of 30°.
Ans 1. 1488 cm2

2. 1584 cm2

3. 1848 cm2

4. 1884 cm2

Q.7 The following pie chart shows the study time of different subjects of a student in a day. Study the pie chart and answer the
question.

If the student studied English for 3 hours, then he studied Mathematics for:
Ans 1. 2 hours

2. 1 hour

3. 7 hours

4. 5 hours

Q.8 Two cylinders have the radii of their bases in the ratio 4 : 5 and their heights are in the ratio 5 : 7. Find the ratio of their
curved surface areas.
Ans 1. 5 : 4

2. 4 : 7

3. 1 : 2

4. 4 : 5

Q.9 Solve the following:

Ans 1. 2cosec2θ

2. 2sin2θ

3. 2sec2θ

4. 2tan2θ
Q.10 Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 48 minutes and 66 minutes, respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously,
then after how many minutes should pipe B be closed so that the tank gets filled in 32 minutes?
Ans 1. 18

2. 16

3. 22

4. 20

Q.11

Ans 1. 7

2. 5

3. 8

4. 6

Q.12

Ans 1. 3,10,000

2. 4,50,000

3. 5,00,000

4. 4,10,000
Q.13 The given pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of 20,000 employees in a company.

Study
the given
chart and
answer
the
question
that
follows.
If 30% of the employees in department D are females, then how many male employees are there in that
department?
Ans 1. 4200

2. 4500

3. 5000

4. 4000

Q.14 In triangle ABC, the length of side BC is 2 cm less than twice the length of side AB. The length of side AC exceeds the length
of side AB by 10 cm. The perimeter of the triangle is 40 cm. Determine the length (in cm) of the smallest side of the triangle.
Ans 1. 12

2. 14

3. 10

4. 8

Q.15
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.16 The average of the squares of the first 46 natural numbers is

Ans 1. 729.5

2. 728.5

3. 727.5

4. 730.5
Q.
17

A 1. 20%
ns
2. 35%

3. 25%

4. 5%

Q.18 For the following equations, what are the values of a and b to have infinitely many solutions?
ax + by = 2
3x - (5 - 2a)y = 6
Ans 1. a = - 1,b = - 1

2. a = - 1,b = 1

3. a = 1,b = - 1

4. a = 1,b = 1

Q.19 Which of following numbers is NOT divisible by 11?

Ans 1. 109153

2. 5445

3. 128041

4. 80124

Q.20

Ans 1. 0

2. 40

3. 576

4. 320

Q.21 In ΔDEF, the bisector of ∠ D intersects side EF at point N. If DE = 36 cm, DF = 40 cm and EF = 38 cm, then the length (in cm)
of NF is ________.
Ans 1. 16

2. 20

3. 18

4. 12

Q.22 The ratio between male and female members in a club is 2 : 3. If the number of male members is increased by 200, the ratio
becomes 5 : 6. How many female members are there in the club?
Ans 1. 1200

2. 900

3. 1400

4. 1000

Q.23 The MP of an article was Rs.180 and it was sold at a discount of 15%, the discount in Rs. is:
Ans 1. 12

2. 15

3. 27

4. 18
 Q.24 In a garden, there are 6 daisy plants the first year. Each year, a gardener adds 3 new daisy plants. He has 26 jasmine plants
the first year and loses 2 each year. When will the number of daisy plants equal to the number of jasmine plants after the
first year?
Ans 1. 5 years

2. 4 years

3. 2 years

4. 6 years

Q.25 From a point T, the length of the tangent to a circle is 32 cm and the distance of T from the centre is 40 cm. The diameter (in
cm) of the circle is:
Ans 1. 36

2. 16

3. 32

4. 48

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Many people love to visit enchanting hills.
Ans 1. alluring

2. cool

3. risky

4. echoing

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in brackets to fill in the blank.
She has _______ (witty) remarks about everything.
Ans 1. sorry

2. whimsical

3. unamusing

4. woeful

Q.3 Select the sentence that does NOT have a spelling error.
Ans 1. The paintings are structured chronologically, starting from cubism to surealism.

2. The artist received recognition for her impressive etchings, buclic landscapes, and recreation of natural scenes around her.

3. The insouciance of the rock star considering the importance of the occasion, came as a shock to the audience who expected
stressful moments.
4. The focus of the exibition is to reinforce versatility and creative thinking.

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Repulse
Ans 1. Repel

2. Substitute

3. Recover

4. Reprove

Q.5 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error.
The employees were comfortable / with me and they talked about / their problems since / I has worked there as a manager.
Ans 1. I has worked there as a manager.

2. with me and they talked about

3. their problems since

4. The employees were comfortable

Q.6 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the parts in the correct sequence to
form a meaningful sentence.
(P) the sun
(Q) to our planet, Earth
(O) provides essential energy
(R) sustaining life and warmth
Ans 1. POQR

2. QROP

3. ROQP

4. ORPQ

Q.7

Ans 1. a, c, g, b, h, i, f, e, d, j

2. a, b, d, c, e, f, h, g, i, j

3. a, b, d, c, g, e, f, h, i, j

4. a, g, b, c, i, d, e, f, h, j

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word in brackets to fill in the blank.
Listening to the same lecture everyday appeared very ___________ to him. (boring)
Ans 1. monotonous

2. furious

3. nervous

4. monolithic

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
My sisters wished me good luck before I went on the stage to sing.
Ans 1. Told me to sit on the fence

2. Told me to break a leg

3. Told me to break the ice

4. Told me to break an arm

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Five years later, I was eating this same dish at the same restaurant.
Ans 1. will have be eating

2. has been eating

3. am eating

4. had been eating

Q.11 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

O. went
P. yesterday
Q. we
R. to the
S. park
Ans 1. RQOSP

2. OPQRS

3. PSROQ

4. QORSP
Q.12 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

One must be confident of winning and gaining one’s goals and must face situations, disasters, trials and setbecks of life
with confidence.
Ans 1. Trials

2. Disasters

3. Confident

4. Setbecks

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Paralysed
Ans 1. Demure

2. Stifled

3. Sultry

4. Healthy

Q.14 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The list of subjects to be discussed at a meeting

Ans 1. Minutes

2. Objectives

3. Agenda

4. Menu

Q.15 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The drug pedlar was arrested by the narcotics team.
Ans 1. The narcotics team was arrested the drug pedlar.

2. The narcotics team arrest the drug pedlar.

3. The narcotics team arrested the drug pedlar.

4. The narcotics team has arrested the drug pedlar.

Q.16 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an adverbial usage error.
Mr. Arun / will pay dear / for his / financial mistake.
Ans 1. will pay dear

2. Mr. Arun

3. for his

4. financial mistake

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

We have postponed this movie outing too many times, so we are going tomorrow, come _____ or shine.
Ans 1. rain

2. mountain

3. hail

4. thunder
Q.18 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

A. needs to be
B. the shelf in
C. a piece of wood
D. the kitchen
E. need to buy
F. replaced, so I will
Ans 1. BEFCAD

2. ACDBFE

3. DEBACF

4. BDAFEC

Q.19 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Scientists were conducting experiments on the newly discovered species.

Ans 1. Experiments on the newly discovered species had been conducted by the scientists.

2. The newly discovered species has been conducting experiments by scientists.

3. The newly discovered species has been experimented on by scientists.

4. Experiments were being conducted on the newly discovered species by scientists.

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

He had ________ the ________ into smaller clips.

Ans 1. clipping, clips

2. clipping, clipped

3. clips, clipping

4. clipped, clipping

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
People often say that the stars govern their fate but they forget the fact that success or failure is the result of one’s own (1)________.
If we sow chaff, we can’t reap grain; and the result or consequence of an action depends on what one does and to the extent he
(2)________ it. If we work hard, we succeed only to the extent that we work. People who think that the law of karma is (3)________
may feel that if one is destined to get something he will always get it whether he strives for it or not. But experience tells us that reward
and punishments are the direct result of our action. Honesty and hard work never go unrewarded and (4)________ and evil deeds
never go (5)________. In fact even the law of karma, in its proper sense, means that the fruit we get is decided by whatever actions
we did in the past.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. power

2. incidents

3. case

4. actions
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
People often say that the stars govern their fate but they forget the fact that success or failure is the result of one’s own (1)________.
If we sow chaff, we can’t reap grain; and the result or consequence of an action depends on what one does and to the extent he
(2)________ it. If we work hard, we succeed only to the extent that we work. People who think that the law of karma is (3)________
may feel that if one is destined to get something he will always get it whether he strives for it or not. But experience tells us that reward
and punishments are the direct result of our action. Honesty and hard work never go unrewarded and (4)________ and evil deeds
never go (5)________. In fact even the law of karma, in its proper sense, means that the fruit we get is decided by whatever actions
we did in the past.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. does

2. have

3. create

4. put

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
People often say that the stars govern their fate but they forget the fact that success or failure is the result of one’s own (1)________.
If we sow chaff, we can’t reap grain; and the result or consequence of an action depends on what one does and to the extent he
(2)________ it. If we work hard, we succeed only to the extent that we work. People who think that the law of karma is (3)________
may feel that if one is destined to get something he will always get it whether he strives for it or not. But experience tells us that reward
and punishments are the direct result of our action. Honesty and hard work never go unrewarded and (4)________ and evil deeds
never go (5)________. In fact even the law of karma, in its proper sense, means that the fruit we get is decided by whatever actions
we did in the past.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. supreme

2. greatest

3. more

4. most

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
People often say that the stars govern their fate but they forget the fact that success or failure is the result of one’s own (1)________.
If we sow chaff, we can’t reap grain; and the result or consequence of an action depends on what one does and to the extent he
(2)________ it. If we work hard, we succeed only to the extent that we work. People who think that the law of karma is (3)________
may feel that if one is destined to get something he will always get it whether he strives for it or not. But experience tells us that reward
and punishments are the direct result of our action. Honesty and hard work never go unrewarded and (4)________ and evil deeds
never go (5)________. In fact even the law of karma, in its proper sense, means that the fruit we get is decided by whatever actions
we did in the past.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. horribly

2. badly

3. dishonesty

4. fairness
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
People often say that the stars govern their fate but they forget the fact that success or failure is the result of one’s own (1)________.
If we sow chaff, we can’t reap grain; and the result or consequence of an action depends on what one does and to the extent he
(2)________ it. If we work hard, we succeed only to the extent that we work. People who think that the law of karma is (3)________
may feel that if one is destined to get something he will always get it whether he strives for it or not. But experience tells us that reward
and punishments are the direct result of our action. Honesty and hard work never go unrewarded and (4)________ and evil deeds
never go (5)________. In fact even the law of karma, in its proper sense, means that the fruit we get is decided by whatever actions
we did in the past.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. unpunished

2. vile

3. punished

4. waste
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 12/09/2024
Exam Time 4:00 PM - 5:00 PM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘RIVAL’ is coded as ‘PKTCJ’ and ‘TEXTS’ is coded as ‘RGVVQ’. How will ‘POINT’ be coded in the
given language?
Ans 1. NRGOR

2. OQGPO

3. NQGPR

4. OQGOQ

Q.2 A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.3 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
No lotus is a daisy.
All lotuses are tulips.
All tulips are sunflowers.

Conclusions:
I. All daisies are tulips.
II. Some sunflowers are daisies.
III. No sunflower is a daisy.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Either conclusion II or III follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Only conclusion III follows

Q.4 Which of the following interchanges of numbers (not digits) would make the given equation correct?

Ans 1. 2 and 4

2. 56 and 57

3. 57 and 64

4. 33 and 44

Q.5 Which letter cluster can replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
AZFX, EWHW, ?, MQLU, QNNT
Ans 1. IJTV

2. JITV

3. ITJV

4. JTIV

Q.6 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7 In a certain code language, 'MUTUAL' is written as '12121202113', 'MARKET' is written as '2051118113', how will 'MODULE' be
written in that language?
Ans 1. 1315421125

2. 5122141513

3. 5122141613

4. 14122361522

Q.8 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
ALW: NYJ :: CNY :PAL :: DEP:?
Ans 1. QRD

2. QRC

3. SRC

4. SRD

Q.9 Which number will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’
and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
49 × 7 − 6 ÷ 2 + 15 = ?
Ans 1. 2

2. 5

3. 8

4. 4

Q.10 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 13

2. 12

3. 15

4. 14

Q.11 Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that
group? The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster
Ans 1. JOR

2. AFI

3. MRU

4. LQS
Q.12 All of the letters in the word ‘FROWNED’ are arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English
alphabetical series between the letter which is fourth from the left end and the one which is second from the right end in the
new letter-cluster thus formed?
Ans 1. Five

2. Two

3. Three

4. Four

Q.13 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.14 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
FISH : DKQJ :: POND : NQLF :: SIZE : ?
Ans 1. QGXG

2. UGXC

3. UKXC

4. QKXG

Q.15 Identify the figure from among the given options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the
series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.16 Three of the following number-pairs are alike in some manner and hence form a group. Which number-pair does not belong
to that group?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 14 – 121

2. 21 – 361

3. 18 – 256

4. 11 – 81

Q.17 A cube is constructed by folding the given sheet along the lines shown. In the cube so formed, what would be the symbol
on the opposite side of ‘#’?

Ans 1. @

2. ∞

3. €

4. %

Q.18 Select the option that represents the letters which, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will
complete the letter series.
fd_e_ef_dd_d_ff_d_d_f
Ans 1. d d f e e d e d

2. d d f e f d e e

3. d d f d e d e f

4. d d f e e d e e

Q.19 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
3 — 5 — 30
2 — 4 — 16
NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 5 — 5 — 45

2. 6 — 6 — 72

3. 9 — 5 — 27

4. 9 — 4 — 7

Q.20 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’;

‘A – B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’;
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

Based on the above, how is K related to O if ‘K ÷ L − M + N × O’?

Ans 1. Sister’s daughter

2. Father’s sister

3. Mother’s sister

4. Father’s mother

Q.21 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(34, 17, 27)
(42, 21, 31)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (38, 16, 36)

2. (54, 27, 37)

3. (46, 23, 35)

4. (64, 34, 54)

Q.22 44 is related to 1936 by certain logic. Following the same logic, 59 is related to 3481. To which of the following is 77 related,
following the same logic? (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 5824

2. 5929

3. 7642

4. 4469

Q.23 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
7, 13, ?, 145, 721, 4321
Ans 1. 23

2. 36

3. 25

4. 37
 Q.24

Ans 1. 85

2. 66

3. 28

4. 75

Q.25 Two different positions of the same dice are given below. Which is the number on the face opposite the face containing 5?

Ans 1. 6

2. 3

3. 1

4. 2

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 What was Antoine-Laurent Lavoisier's most important contribution to chemistry in 1789?
Ans 1. Law of Conservation of Mass

2. Law of Multiple Proportions

3. Law of Definite Proportions

4. Law of Conservation of Energy

Q.2 An electric iron requires a ________ fuse to prevent short circuiting.

Ans 1. 4 A

2. 3 A

3. 2 A

4. 5 A

Q.3 Who among the following is primarily connected to the World’s Parliament of Religions convened in Chicago, 1893?
Ans 1. Dayanand Saraswati

2. Swami Vivekananda

3. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

4. Ramakrishna Paramhansa

Q.4 Khuallam is a famous dance of:

Ans 1. Bihar

2. Andhra Pradesh

3. Mizoram

4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.5 The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in _______________.

Ans 1. Switzerland

2. Iceland

3. USA

4. New Zealand

Q.6 Thrissur Pooram is one of the famous temple festivals celebrated in _______.
Ans 1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Kerala

3. Karnataka

4. Tamil Nadu

Q.7 Identify the group of districts that are NOT an example of industrial districts of India.
Ans 1. Cuttack and Kota

2. Kanpur and Agra

3. Alwar and Bhiwani

4. Jabalpur and Bhopal

Q.8 Match the concepts in column A with their respective descriptions in column B.

Ans 1. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4

2. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4

3. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

4. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

Q.9 Ustad Zia Mohiuddin Dagar was a ___________ player of profound depth, favouring sparse and slow realisations of ragas.
Ans 1. Sitar

2. Violin

3. Flute

4. Rudra veena

Q.10 The headquarters of the second Green Revolution cell was in ________.
Ans 1. Raipur

2. Patna

3. Kolkata

4. Bhubaneswar

Q.11 Who was the Viceroy of India when Mahatma Gandhi started Dandi March on 12 March 1930?
Ans 1. Lord Chelmsford

2. Lord Minto II

3. Lord Irwin

4. Lord Willingdon

Q.12 Who is the world’s most popular leader as per Global Leader Approval Ratings released by US-based Morning Consult in
February 2023?
Ans 1. Xi Jinping

2. Vladimir Putin

3. Joe Biden

4. Narendra Modi

Q.13 In which year was Smart Cities Mission launched?

Ans 1. 2015

2. 2013

3. 2019

4. 2018

Q.14 Which of the following nations won the seven times women’s Asia Cup cricket Championship?
Ans 1. Pakistan

2. Bangladesh

3. India

4. Sri Lanka

Q.15 Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides that the State must secure a social order to promote the welfare of people?
Ans 1. Article 37

2. Article 38

3. Article 39

4. Article 36

Q.16 Identify a water-harvesting system found in Jaisalmer.

Ans 1. Guls

2. Johads

3. Khadins

4. Kuls

Q.17 The _________ were tributary chiefs of the Gupta dynasty. They established an independent kingdom in western India.
Dhruvasena II was the most important ruler of this kingdom.
Ans 1. Maitrakas

2. Maukharis

3. Pushyabhutis

4. Gurjara Pratiharas

Q.18 As of 31 May 2021, only 47% of total routes and 39% of airports (unserved and underserved) have been operationalised
under UDAN, according to ICRA. What is the full form of UDAN?
Ans 1. Udtha Desh Ka Aam Nayak

2. Ude Desh Ka Aam Naagrik

3. Unnath Desh Ka Aam Naagrik

4. Ujwal Desh Ka Aam Naagrik

 Q.19 Which of the following options is the most appropriate cause for unemployment in India?
Ans 1. Over population

2. Environment conditions

3. High educational systems

4. Lack of labour force

Q.20 As of the June 2021, how many biosphere reserves are established in India?
Ans 1. 18

2. 20

3. 26

4. 15

Q.21 In which of the following battles did Muhammad of Ghor defeat Jayachandra of Gahadavala dynasty in 1194 AD?
Ans 1. First battle of Tarain

2. Battle of Chandawar

3. Battle of Anhilwara

4. Second battle of Tarain

Q.22 The growth form of a plant, comprising its size, shape and orientation is known as:
Ans 1. habit

2. environment

3. habitat

4. growth pattern

Q.23 When and where did India win its first World Championships medal in Athletics?
Ans 1. 2009, Germany

2. 2005, Finland

3. 2007, Japan

4. 2003, France

Q.24 Tabla maestro, Bickram Ghosh, was awarded with which of the following awards in 2023 in the Contemporary Category?
Ans 1. Padma Shri

2. Padma Bhushan

3. Sangeet Natak Akademi

4. Sangeet Kalanidhi

Q.25 According to the Census of India 2011, the percentage of adolescent population (10-19 years) from the total population is
how much?
Ans 1. 22.9%

2. 21.9%

3. 20.9%

4. 19.9%

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 A pair of straight lines from an external point F intersects a circle at A and B (FA < FB), and touches the circle at C. O is the
centre of the circle. Given that ∠ ACF = 50° and ∠ AFC = 30°, find ∠ AOB.
Ans 1. 80°

2. 90°

3. 100°

4. 40°

Q.2 The difference between a discount of 25% and two successive discounts of 15% and 20% on a certain bill was ₹28. Find the
amount of the bill.
Ans 1. ₹500

2. ₹400

3. ₹450

4. ₹550

Q.3 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 2, 5, 10 and 11?

Ans 1. 203467

2. 830942

3. 589270

4. 1234560

Q.4 Which of the following is the sum of the values of a and b if the equations 2x + y = a, 8x + by = 12 have infinite solutions?
Ans 1. 16

2. 9

3. 7

4. 18

Q.5 How much simple interest will ₹6,700 earn in 13 months at a 12% interest rate per annum?
Ans 1. ₹871

2. ₹889

3. ₹821

4. ₹813
Q.6

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7 Study the given chart and answer the question that follows.
The following chart shows the production of textbooks in thousands in the years
2018, 2020 and 2022 from the print houses A, B and C, respectively.

The ratio of textbooks produced by Print house B in the year 2018 to the
textbooks produced by Print house C in the year 2020 is ______.

Ans 1. 4 : 5

2. 3 : 4

3. 4 : 3

4. 2 : 3

Q.8

Ans 1. 2 : 3

2. 1 : 2

3. 2 : 5

4. 2 : 1

Q.9 The following pie chart shows the percentage distribution of a total of 1600 employees in different departments of a
company. The table shows the ratio of male to female employees in different departments. Study the information and answer
the question that follows.

What is the percentage of the number of employees in production department to the number of female employees of all the
departments taken together? (correct to one decimal place)
Ans 1. 64.3%

2. 50.7%

3. 44.9%

4. 59.1%

Q.10 Find the smallest value that must be assigned to number ‘a’ in order for 91876a2 to be divisible by 8.
Ans 1. 3

2. 0

3. 1

4. 2
Q
.
1
1
A
n 1.
s
2.

3.

4.

Q.12

Ans 1. 0

2. 2

3. 4

4. 1

Q.13 A boatman goes 2 km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1 km along with the current in 10 minutes. How
long will it take to go 6 km in stationary water?
Ans 1. 1 hr 30 min

2. 1 hr 15 min

3. 2 hr 30 min

4. 1 hr 45 min

Q.14 Find the values of x, y and z, so as to satisfy the equations given below:
5x – 3y + 7z = 22; 3x – 5y – 2z = – 46; 2x – 2y + 5z = 24
Ans 1. x = – 5, y = 3, z = – 8

2. x = 5, y = – 8, z = 3

3. x = – 5, y = 3, z = 8

4. x = – 5, y = – 3, z = 8

Q.15

Ans 1. 20

2. 38

3. 32

4. 28

Q.16

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17 Find the exact value of

Ans 1. 1.5

2. 0.5

3. 0.75

4. -0.5

Q.18 The mean proportional of 2 and 32 is _____.

Ans 1. 16

2. 8

3. 12

4. 6

Q.19 The profit gained on selling a certain product is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 10% but the selling price remains
constant, then what percentage of the selling price is the profit (correct to one decimal place)?
Ans 1. 70.2%

2. 73.8%

3. 75.7%

4. 63.8%
 Q.20 A circular arc whose radius is 12 cm makes an angle of 30° at the centre. Find the perimeter (in cm) of the sector formed.
(Use π = 3.14)
Ans 1. 32.38

2. 30.28

3. 28.64

4. 26.24

Q.21 A merchant mixes two varieties of sugar of 5 kg and 3 kg, which costs him ₹4 and ₹6 per kg, respectively. What is the cost
price (in ₹) of the mixture per kg?
Ans 1. 4.35

2. 4.45

3. 4.75

4. 4.21

Q.22 The proportion of Suresh's spending to saving is 3 : 1. His salary rises by 25%. What percentage of his expenditure will
increase if his saving grows by 10%?
Ans 1. 40%

2. 20%

3. 10%

4. 30%

Q.23

Ans 1. 36.6%

2. 26.6%

3. 28.4%

4. 25.5%

Q.24
If , then the numerical value of is:

Ans 1. 1

2. 0

3. 13

4. −13

Q.25 If the sectorial angle with radius 9.6 units is 75°, what is the length of the arc?
Ans 1. 2π

2. 4π

3. π

4. 3π

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that correctly expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
I will never overlook this creativity.
Ans 1. This creativity will never be overlooked by me.

2. This creativity will be overlooked by me.

3. This creativity will being overlooked by me.

4. This creativity will not never be overlooked by me.

Q.2 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A place where birds are kept
Ans 1. Zoo

2. Aviary

3. Sanctuary

4. Hive

Q.3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Catastrophe
Ans 1. Success

2. Nurture

3. Immaculate

4. Disaster
Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Beyond skills, experience, and training, companies search for applicants who display excitement — those they believe shall
carry out allocated responsibilities cheerfully and cooperatively.
Ans 1. shall take up any designated obligations

2. will execute assigned duties

3. will demonstrate non-biased work

4. should pick up all skills and works

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

After years of fights with his neighbour Ram, Shekhar decided to hold out the _______ and invited Ram for tea.
Ans 1. poker face

2. comparing apples to oranges

3. chip on shoulder

4. olive branch

Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Centenary

2. Consumerist

3. Capitalist

4. Countemptible

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
One must be very strong to lift this box of glass jars.
Ans 1. Mighty

2. Weak

3. Complicated

4. Rugged

Q.8 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

Anand personally believes in the motto, “When life gives you lemons, make lemonade.”
Ans 1. Earn the maximum out of business

2. Nourish health

3. Enjoy the most when the season is favourable

4. Make the best out of difficult situations

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Monotonous
Ans 1. Tiresome

2. Tedious

3. Engrossing

4. Rational

Q.10 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the following sentence.

You need to be concious enough to listen to the question.
Ans 1. concious

2. enough

3. question

4. listen

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym to replace the underlined word in the given sentence.

How did we end up in this rapturous situation?

Ans 1. ecstatic

2. terrifying

3. misleading

4. disastrous

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The mother asked the child, “Will you tell me who did accompany you to the airport?”
Ans 1. who accompanies you

2. who does accompany you

3. who accompanied you

4. who must be accompanied you

Q.13 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the sentences in the correct
sequence to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A)This past summer, my dream finally came true.
B)Strange lands, exciting places, and new cultures have always fascinated me.
C)Ever since I was a little girl, I dreamed about travelling overseas.
D)I got to travel to England, France, Switzerland, and Germany.
Ans 1. DCBA

2. CBAD

3. ABCD

4. BADC
Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Rectify
Ans 1. mar

2. amend

3. corrupt

4. upset

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

To __________ the ticket, Amith had to visit the travel agency many times.
Ans 1. contract

2. confirm

3. conform

4. convention

Q.16 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
My brother received / his MBA degree into / the university last year.
Ans 1. the university last year

2. his MBA degree into

3. No error

4. My brother received

Q.17 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.
A. Mobile phones or smartphones are becoming popular all over the world.
B. But at the same time, it also harms us in many ways.
C. It is the most widely used means of communication today.
D. Today, it is very affordable and available to everyone.
Ans 1. ABCD

2. DACB

3. CABD

4. ACDB

Q.18 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given phrase.

Incapable of being defeated

Ans 1. Invisible

2. Unavoidable

3. Invincible

4. Ineluctable

Q.19 Select the option that correctly expresses the following sentence in passive voice.
Who invited you to this party?
Ans 1. By whom you are invited to this party?

2. By whom are you invited to this party?

3. By whom you were invited to this party?

4. By whom were you invited to this party?

Q.20 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error in the usage of the
interjection.
He replied / in a dry tone, / “Ouch! I will not work / for you anymore.”
Ans 1. in a dry tone,

2. He replied

3. for you anymore.”

4. ''Ouch! I will not work

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Gandhi, (1)_________ father of the Indian nation, practiced ‘ahimsa’ in his personal and political life. He firmly believed that non-
violence is not meant merely for monks, saints and priests; it is for commoners too. If violence is the law of the (2)_______-beasts,
non-violence is the law of the civilised human species. ‘The spirit of the brute is inactive and so he knows no law; he knows only
physical might. The dignity of man requires obedience to a higher law, to strength of the spirit,’ Gandhi said. Ahimsa, to Gandhiji,
meant that one should love all; even (3)________ enemies. And the expression of love, ahimsa, should be in such a manner that it
impresses itself indelibly upon the so-called enemy, and then the enemy must return that love. It is a practically (4)________
philosophy. Gandhi was realistic; he believed that non-violence provides the fullest protection to one’s self-respect and sense of
humour. It won’t work in the defence of (5)_______ gains and immoral acts. He called his marches off when people indulged in
violence during protests for India’s freedom. His faith in ‘ahimsa’ played an influential role in enabling the creation of an independent
India in 1947, with minimum bloodshed, breaking the shackles framed by the British.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. an

2. for

3. the

4. a
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Gandhi, (1)_________ father of the Indian nation, practiced ‘ahimsa’ in his personal and political life. He firmly believed that non-
violence is not meant merely for monks, saints and priests; it is for commoners too. If violence is the law of the (2)_______-beasts,
non-violence is the law of the civilised human species. ‘The spirit of the brute is inactive and so he knows no law; he knows only
physical might. The dignity of man requires obedience to a higher law, to strength of the spirit,’ Gandhi said. Ahimsa, to Gandhiji,
meant that one should love all; even (3)________ enemies. And the expression of love, ahimsa, should be in such a manner that it
impresses itself indelibly upon the so-called enemy, and then the enemy must return that love. It is a practically (4)________
philosophy. Gandhi was realistic; he believed that non-violence provides the fullest protection to one’s self-respect and sense of
humour. It won’t work in the defence of (5)_______ gains and immoral acts. He called his marches off when people indulged in
violence during protests for India’s freedom. His faith in ‘ahimsa’ played an influential role in enabling the creation of an independent
India in 1947, with minimum bloodshed, breaking the shackles framed by the British.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. forest-living

2. life

3. forest-lived

4. alive

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Gandhi, (1)_________ father of the Indian nation, practiced ‘ahimsa’ in his personal and political life. He firmly believed that non-
violence is not meant merely for monks, saints and priests; it is for commoners too. If violence is the law of the (2)_______-beasts,
non-violence is the law of the civilised human species. ‘The spirit of the brute is inactive and so he knows no law; he knows only
physical might. The dignity of man requires obedience to a higher law, to strength of the spirit,’ Gandhi said. Ahimsa, to Gandhiji,
meant that one should love all; even (3)________ enemies. And the expression of love, ahimsa, should be in such a manner that it
impresses itself indelibly upon the so-called enemy, and then the enemy must return that love. It is a practically (4)________
philosophy. Gandhi was realistic; he believed that non-violence provides the fullest protection to one’s self-respect and sense of
humour. It won’t work in the defence of (5)_______ gains and immoral acts. He called his marches off when people indulged in
violence during protests for India’s freedom. His faith in ‘ahimsa’ played an influential role in enabling the creation of an independent
India in 1947, with minimum bloodshed, breaking the shackles framed by the British.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. her

2. its

3. one’s

4. one

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Gandhi, (1)_________ father of the Indian nation, practiced ‘ahimsa’ in his personal and political life. He firmly believed that non-
violence is not meant merely for monks, saints and priests; it is for commoners too. If violence is the law of the (2)_______-beasts,
non-violence is the law of the civilised human species. ‘The spirit of the brute is inactive and so he knows no law; he knows only
physical might. The dignity of man requires obedience to a higher law, to strength of the spirit,’ Gandhi said. Ahimsa, to Gandhiji,
meant that one should love all; even (3)________ enemies. And the expression of love, ahimsa, should be in such a manner that it
impresses itself indelibly upon the so-called enemy, and then the enemy must return that love. It is a practically (4)________
philosophy. Gandhi was realistic; he believed that non-violence provides the fullest protection to one’s self-respect and sense of
humour. It won’t work in the defence of (5)_______ gains and immoral acts. He called his marches off when people indulged in
violence during protests for India’s freedom. His faith in ‘ahimsa’ played an influential role in enabling the creation of an independent
India in 1947, with minimum bloodshed, breaking the shackles framed by the British.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. prove

2. approved

3. proven

4. proving

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Gandhi, (1)_________ father of the Indian nation, practiced ‘ahimsa’ in his personal and political life. He firmly believed that non-
violence is not meant merely for monks, saints and priests; it is for commoners too. If violence is the law of the (2)_______-beasts,
non-violence is the law of the civilised human species. ‘The spirit of the brute is inactive and so he knows no law; he knows only
physical might. The dignity of man requires obedience to a higher law, to strength of the spirit,’ Gandhi said. Ahimsa, to Gandhiji,
meant that one should love all; even (3)________ enemies. And the expression of love, ahimsa, should be in such a manner that it
impresses itself indelibly upon the so-called enemy, and then the enemy must return that love. It is a practically (4)________
philosophy. Gandhi was realistic; he believed that non-violence provides the fullest protection to one’s self-respect and sense of
humour. It won’t work in the defence of (5)_______ gains and immoral acts. He called his marches off when people indulged in
violence during protests for India’s freedom. His faith in ‘ahimsa’ played an influential role in enabling the creation of an independent
India in 1947, with minimum bloodshed, breaking the shackles framed by the British.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. relevant

2. ill-gotten

3. ill-will

4. moral
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 13/09/2024
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Which of the following interchanges of numbers (not digits) would make the given equation correct?

Ans 1. 500 and 190

2. 0.3 and 1.6

3. 27 and 480

4. 5 and 9

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘mountain stand tall’ is coded as ‘33 66 44’; ‘rocky is tall’ is coded as ‘44 55 11’ and ‘rocky is
mountain’ is coded as ‘33 55 11’. How is ‘stand’ coded in that language?
Ans 1. 33

2. 66

3. 44

4. 11

Q.3 Six letters A, B, C, E, F and G are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure
below. Find the letter on the face opposite to A.

Ans 1. F

2. E

3. C

4. G

Q.4 The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if all the letters in the word ‘GRIMACE’ are arranged in English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Two

2. Zero

3. One

4. Three
Q.5 Select the option that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
AH21, CJ18, EL15, GN12, ?
Ans 1. J8

2. IP9

3. HR11

4. HQ10

Q.6 ‘Ample’ is related to ‘Abundant’ in the same way as ‘Substantial’ is related to ‘________’.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Ans 1. Considerable

2. Meager

3. Scarce

4. Venerable

Q.7 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
30, 20, ?, 60, 140
Ans 1. 30

2. 35

3. 40

4. 25

Q.8 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.9 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the letter-
cluster that is different.
Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster.
Ans 1. LKF

2. YXT

3. NMI

4. SRN

Q.10 Select the pair in which the numbers are related to each other in the same way as are the numbers in the given pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
3 : 25
4 : 62
Ans 1. 9 : 731

2. 5 : 123

3. 7 : 345

4. 6 : 218

Q.11 Three of the following numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 31 – 5 – 160

2. 27 – 9 – 243

3. 21 – 4 – 89

4. 13 – 8 – 109

Q.12 Select the option that represents the letters that when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below will complete
the letter series.

_X_F___XT_X_
Ans 1. FXXTFXT

2. FTXTFFT

3. XFTTXFX

4. XTTFXFX

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘HUSBAND’ is written as ‘JVUDBPF’ and ‘SISTER’ is written as ‘UJUVFT’. How will ‘BROTHER’ be
written in that language?
Ans 1. DJTFPTV

2. DTPVJFT

3. TFVJTPD

4. FJPVDTT

Q.14 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
315 × 15 − 93 + 16 ÷ 7 = ?
Ans 1. 4

2. 8

3. 2

4. 12
Q.15 In a certain code language,
X + Y means ‘X is the father of Y’,
X − Y means ‘X is the brother of Y’,
X × Y means ‘X is the sister of Y’,
X ÷ Y means ‘X is the wife of Y’.
Based on the above, how is D related to H if ‘D × E ÷ F + G − H’?
Ans 1. Sister

2. Father’s sister

3. Mother’s sister

4. Mother’s mother

Q.16 Figure X is followed by four figures numbered (1), (2), (3), (4). Identify the figure among the four in which figure X is
embedded (i.e. contains figure X in the same form).

Ans 1. 1

2. 3

3. 2

4. 4

Q.17 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
KES, MIQ, PMN, TQJ, YUE, ?
Ans 1. EXY

2. FYX

3. EYY

4. EXZ
Q.18

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.19 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
7 — 14 — 23
4 — 11 — 20
NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 7 — 15 — 22

2. 15 — 30 — 20

3. 5 — 12 — 21

4. 9 — 12 — 22
Q.20 A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively along the directions shown and is then punched in the
last as shown. How would the paper look when unfolded?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21 Select the option that represents the letters that, when placed from left to right in the blanks below, will complete the letter
series.
D_FD_F_F_D_F
Ans 1. D F F D D

2. F D D F F

3. D F D D F

4. F F D F F
Q.22 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(27, 405, 3)
(23, 690, 6)
Ans 1. (14, 364, 7)

2. (22, 616, 7)

3. (16, 448, 7)

4. (24, 600, 5)

Q.23 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.24 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Frivolous : Big :: Deride : ?
Ans 1. Jeer

2. Detest

3. Taunt

4. Encourage
 Q.25 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 7

2. 6

3. 9

4. 8

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following is the hero of the Sanskrit historical poem, the 'Ramacharita' written by Sandhyakar Nandi?
Ans 1. Gopala

2. Devapala

3. Ramapala

4. Dharmapala

Q.2 According to the Census of India 2011, which group of Union Territories recorded the highest sex ratio?
Ans 1. Puducherry, Delhi, Andaman and Nicobar Islands

2. Puducherry, Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar Islands

3. Chandigarh, Puducherry, Lakshadweep

4. Chandigarh, Puducherry, Delhi

Q.3 Which of the following two quantities have the same dimensions?
Ans 1. Work and torque

2. Power and moment of inertia

3. Work and angular displacement

4. Power and radius of circular motion

Q.4 The Doctrine of Lapse was an annexation policy devised by which of the following Governor-Generals of India?
Ans 1. Lord Wellesley

2. Lord Dalhousie

3. Lord Mayo

4. Lord Canning

Q.5 Which of the following is a man-made ecosystem?

Ans 1. Aquarium

2. Dessert

3. Forest

4. Grassland

Q.6 Who among the following famous Indian women cricketers announced retirement in June 2022?
Ans 1. Smriti Mandhana

2. Jhulan Goswami

3. Anjum Chopra

4. Mithali Raj
Q.7 Which state government honoured Vani Jairam with the MS Subbulakshmi Award for 2019?
Ans 1. Maharashtra

2. Karnataka

3. Odissa

4. Tamil Nadu

Q.8 Which region in India receives less rainfall in summer, but heavy rainfall in winter season due to the retreating north easterly
winds?
Ans 1. Southern coastal region

2. Western coastal region

3. Northern coastal region

4. Eastern coastal region

Q.9

Ans 1. A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii

2. A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

3. A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

4. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

Q.10 Which of the following are the two basic categories of an ecosystem?
Ans 1. Forest and Aquatic

2. Terrestrial and Aquatic

3. Lakes and Ponds

4. Forest and Rivers

Q.11 For which of the following states was the Constitution (Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) Orders (Second
Amendment) Bill, 2022, introduced in the Parliament?
Ans 1. Odisha

2. Bihar

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Madhya Pradesh

Q.12 Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution was borrowed from Irish Constitution?
Ans 1. Directive Principles of State Policy

2. Concurrent List

3. Fundamental Rights

4. Rule of Law

Q.13 The Supreme Court of India comprises the Chief Justice and not more than ______ other Judges appointed by the President
of India.
Ans 1. 37

2. 35

3. 38

4. 33
Q.14 Ranjana Gauhar was awarded the Padma Shri Award (2003) for her contribution to which of the following Indian dance
forms?
Ans 1. Kuchipudi

2. Sattriya

3. Odissi

4. Manipuri

Q.15 Who won the paralympic bronze medal in archery for India at Tokyo in 2020?
Ans 1. Atanu Das

2. Pravin Jadhav

3. Deepika Kumari

4. Harvinder Singh

Q.16 Which of the following statements is correct about the composition of the agriculture sector and employment in GDP post-
independence?
Ans 1. The proportion of employment has declined significantly but not the share of the agriculture sector in GDP.

2. The proportion of both the agriculture sector and employment in GDP has increased significantly.

3. The proportion of both the agriculture sector and employment in GDP has declined significantly.

4. The proportion of GDP contributed by the agricultural sector declined significantly but not the employment depending on the
agriculture sector.

Q.17 Which port is developed as a satellite port?

Ans 1. Mormugao

2. Jawaharlal Nehru

3. Haldia

4. New Mangalore

Q.18 Which polyatomic ionic compound is a white, crystalline powder used in fire extinguishers and to neutralise acids and
bases?
Ans 1. Sodium Bisulphite

2. Sodium Thiosulphate

3. Sodium Chromate

4. Sodium Bicarbonate

Q.19 Chhath Puja is the main festival of which state?

Ans 1. Bihar

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Karnataka

4. Assam

Q.20 Vindhyashakti was the founder of which of the following dynasties?

Ans 1. Pallava

2. Maukhari

3. Vakataka

4. Chalukya

Q.21 Which Indian singer wrote ‘Raag Sarita’?

Ans 1. Kesarbai Kerkar

2. Balasaheb Poonchwale

3. Kumar Gandharva

4. Chintaman Raghunath Vyas

 Q.22 In which of the following areas did the Uprising of Khurda in 1817 take place?
Ans 1. United Province

2. Odisha

3. Madras

4. Bengal

Q.23 The central bank of India or Reserve Bank of India was created before Independence, in the year 1934. The recommendation
to create a central bank was made by a commission called:
Ans 1. Dr. Raja Chelliah Committee

2. Kothari Commission

3. Narasimham Committee

4. Hilton Young Commission

Q.24 Sundari trees are found in which type of forests in India?

Ans 1. Mangrove forests

2. Tropical deciduous forests

3. The thorn forests and scrubs

4. Tropical evergreen forests

Q.25 Which team won the T20 cricket event, Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy 2022-2023?
Ans 1. Mumbai

2. Punjab

3. Vidarbha

4. Himanchal Pradesh

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.2 The given table shows the marks obtained by a student in class 9.

What is the percentage of marks obtained by the student?

Ans 1. 89.2%

2. 88.8%

3. 90%

4. 88%
Q.3 One-quarter of a circular pizza of radius 21 cm was removed from the whole pizza. What is the perimeter (in cm) of the
remaining pizza? (Use

Ans 1. 99

2. 141

3. 128

4. 131

Q.4 A shopkeeper mixes two types of rice costing ₹250/5 kg and ₹280/5 kg in the ratio 7 : 8. Find the net cost of the resultant
mixture (per kg).
Ans 1. ₹32.50

2. ₹53.20

3. ₹52.30

4. ₹25.30

Q.5

Ans 1. 94%

2. 98%

3. 95%

4. 96%

Q.6

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.7 In an election between R and S, R gets 110% of the votes of S and beats S by 770 votes. If there were no invalid votes, then
the total number of votes polled is:
Ans 1. 17610

2. 17160

3. 16170

4. 16710

Q.8 If 321y72 is a multiple of 6, where y is a digit, what is the least value of y?

Ans 1. 3

2. 0

3. 7

4. 2

Q.9 An article is sold at a profit of 250%. What is the ratio of its cost price to selling price?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.10 The solution of the following equations is:

5x + 4y - 8z = 1
7x - 9y + z = - 1
2x + 3y - 4z = 1
Ans 1. x = - 1,y = 1,z = 1

2. x = 1,y = 1,z = 1

3. x = 1,y = - 1,z = 1

4. x = 1,y = 1,z = - 1

Q.11 Pranav borrows a sum of ₹6,23,305 at the rate of 10% per annum simple interest. At the end of the first year, he repays
₹16,390 towards return of principal amount borrowed. If Pranav clears all pending dues at the end of the second year,
including interest payment that accrued during the first year, how much does he pay (in ₹) at the end of the second year?
Ans 1. 7,25,903

2. 7,29,025

3. 7,38,700

4. 7,29,937

Q.12

Ans 1. 27

2. 9

3. 18

4. 54

Q.13 If A:B = 6 : 8 and B:C = 5 : 10, then A:B:C is:

Ans 1. 3:4:8

2. 1:3:4

3. 4:3:2

4. 1:2:4
Q.14 Simplify the following expression.
[{70 − 60÷ 2 of 6} + (20− 10)÷ 10] + 600÷ 25 of (2 ×3)× (2 of 3) + 2 of 5.
Ans 1. 90

2. 100

3. 99

4. 110

Q.15 The pie chart below shows the per cent sale of different fruits in a day for a shop.
If the total number of fruits sold by a fruit seller in a day is 1200, what is the combined central angle in the pie chart for
oranges and apples?

Ans 1. 220°

2. 90°

3. 180°

4. 160°

Q.16 A boat can travel 78 km upstream and back in a total of 32 hours. It can travel 15 km upstream and 52 km downstream in a
total of 9 hours. How much distance will the boat cover in 12 hours in still water?
Ans 1. 92 km

2. 96 km

3. 104 km

4. 100 km

Q.17 A and B are centres of two circles with radii 2 cm and 1 cm respectively, where AB = 5 cm. C is the centre of another circle of
radius r cm, which touches each of the above two circles externally. If ∠ ACB=90° , then the value of r is:
Ans 1. 5 cm

2. 2 cm

3. 3 cm

4. 4 cm

Q.18

Ans 1. 3

2. 1

3. 0

4. 2
Q.19 From a circle of radius 7 units, an arc length is cut by a chord of length 7 units. What is the arc length of the smaller portion
(in units)?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.20 If the successive discount by 10%,15%, then the single equivalent rate of discount is:
Ans 1. 32.3%

2. 24.2%

3. 43.4%

4. 23.5%

Q.21 There are two pipes used to fill a tank and when operated together, they can fill the tank in 20 minutes. If one pipe can fill the
tank two and a half times as quickly as the other, then the faster pipe alone can fill the tank in:
Ans 1. 30 min

2. 32 min

3. 34 min

4. 28 min

Q.22 The given bar graph shows the turnover of five companies (in crores).

What is the difference between the average sales turnover of all the companies put together between the years 2018-2019
and 2019-2020?
Ans 1. ₹5 crore

2. ₹2 crore

3. ₹6.5 crore

4. ₹3.5 crore
 Q.23

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.24 If then the value of is:

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.25 At a cafe, Rama bought drinks for her 7 friends at ₹240. Some of them wanted coffee, while others wanted black tea. A
regular cup of coffee cost ₹40 and a regular cup of black tea cost ₹ 30. How many cups of tea did she purchase?
Ans 1. 5

2. 4

3. 3

4. 6

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is
required, select ‘No substitution’.
Satya is always great to his friends who helped him when he was in trouble.
Ans 1. greatful

2. thanked

3. no substitution

4. grateful

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Epitome
Ans 1. Exhort

2. Expansion

3. Lucid

4. Precise

Q.3 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.
Mr. Surya / have no interior / motive in offering / you support.
Ans 1. Mr. Surya

2. you support.

3. motive in offering

4. have no interior
Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The team always anticipate a bowling friendly pitch on their easy victory in the T20 matches.
Ans 1. pitch over their easy victory

2. pitch for their easy victory

3. pitch to their easy victory

4. pitch of their easy victory

Q.5 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
The team will announce the winner tomorrow.
Ans 1. The team will announce tomorrow the winner.

2. The winner will announce tomorrow by the team.

3. The winner will be announced by the team tomorrow.

4. Tomorrow will be announced the winner by the team.

Q.6 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
By the end of / this month, he / will been working / for five years.
Ans 1. for five years

2. will been working

3. By the end of

4. this month, he

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Kamal is not willing to purchase a house on the 12th floor of a sea-side apartment, as she is fearful of heights. She is
suffering from ___________.
Ans 1. heliophobia

2. claustrophobia

3. sociophobia

4. acrophobia

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The homophone for the word ‘there’ is _________.

Ans 1. that

2. their

3. those

4. clear

Q.9 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Turned a deaf ear to
Ans 1. Disregarded

2. At intervals

3. By any means

4. Rebuked

Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

A bad patch
Ans 1. A path that is untravelled

2. A period of time when a person faces lots of troubles

3. A person who takes a difficult path

4. A dangerous road to walk on

Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
An elephant is a large mammal.
Ans 1. Bumper

2. Gigantic

3. Tiny

4. Heroic

Q.12 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Cannot be corrected
Ans 1. Illegible

2. Incorrigible

3. Incredible

4. Ineligible

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in bold to fill in the blank.
The modern work is deliberately ________ (ambiguous).
Ans 1. puzzling

2. certain

3. dubious

4. vague

Q.14 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
A. Smoking in
B. Your youth stunts
C. The body and
D. Clouds the brain
Ans 1. ABCD

2. CABD

3. DCBA

4. DBCA

Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Barbarity
Ans 1. Callous

2. Compromise

3. Compassion

4. Rivalry

Q.16 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

A written statement made under oath

Ans 1. Testimony

2. Affirmation

3. Affidavit

4. Statement

Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in bold.

His mother never held a grudge against his father.
Ans 1. rancour

2. benevolence

3. revulsion

4. malevolence
Q.18 In the following sentence, four words have been underlined, out of which one word is MISSPELT. Select the option with the
MISSPELT word.
In spite of the dilemma that preveiled during the discussion sessions, the committee remained committed to finding an
amicable solution to the issue.
Ans 1. amicable

2. committee

3. preveiled

4. dilemma

Q.19 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Don’t let Dylan fool you!
Ans 1. Do not be fooled by Dylan.

2. Do not ever be fooled by Dylan.

3. Do not be fool by Dylan.

4. Do not have been fooled by Dylan.

Q.20 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Reinforcement

2. Opportunity

3. Atributes

4. Motivational

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Sleeping, dreaming and waking are three important (1)_______ for ordinary humans. But for those who have (2)_______
transcendental knowledge, all three are almost same and there is not much difference among these three. ‘The world and life is a
myth and it keeps on changing’ (3)_______ Adi Shankaracharya, the greatest ‘Advaita’ preacher. Ramana Maharshi observed no
difference between dreaming and waking states. What he said is that it is from one unreal world to another (4)_______ world. There is
no difference between the images one sees when waking up and the images he/she sees during dreams. According to this great sage
of the modern century, the first one is daydream and the second one is a night dream. The usual philosophers say that mind and body
are the two elements and mind is the source of all diverse thoughts. In the waking up state, the mind is active with all tensions and
dissatisfactions, so happiness is missing: during sleep as the mind is absent and so is the physical world, the real happiness
(5)______. It is said that deep sleep, where there is no feeling of body, mind and the world, is the natural state of human beings.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. problems

2. aspects

3. methods

4. angles

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Sleeping, dreaming and waking are three important (1)_______ for ordinary humans. But for those who have (2)_______
transcendental knowledge, all three are almost same and there is not much difference among these three. ‘The world and life is a
myth and it keeps on changing’ (3)_______ Adi Shankaracharya, the greatest ‘Advaita’ preacher. Ramana Maharshi observed no
difference between dreaming and waking states. What he said is that it is from one unreal world to another (4)_______ world. There is
no difference between the images one sees when waking up and the images he/she sees during dreams. According to this great sage
of the modern century, the first one is daydream and the second one is a night dream. The usual philosophers say that mind and body
are the two elements and mind is the source of all diverse thoughts. In the waking up state, the mind is active with all tensions and
dissatisfactions, so happiness is missing: during sleep as the mind is absent and so is the physical world, the real happiness
(5)______. It is said that deep sleep, where there is no feeling of body, mind and the world, is the natural state of human beings.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. large

2. deep

3. superficial

4. depth
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Sleeping, dreaming and waking are three important (1)_______ for ordinary humans. But for those who have (2)_______
transcendental knowledge, all three are almost same and there is not much difference among these three. ‘The world and life is a
myth and it keeps on changing’ (3)_______ Adi Shankaracharya, the greatest ‘Advaita’ preacher. Ramana Maharshi observed no
difference between dreaming and waking states. What he said is that it is from one unreal world to another (4)_______ world. There is
no difference between the images one sees when waking up and the images he/she sees during dreams. According to this great sage
of the modern century, the first one is daydream and the second one is a night dream. The usual philosophers say that mind and body
are the two elements and mind is the source of all diverse thoughts. In the waking up state, the mind is active with all tensions and
dissatisfactions, so happiness is missing: during sleep as the mind is absent and so is the physical world, the real happiness
(5)______. It is said that deep sleep, where there is no feeling of body, mind and the world, is the natural state of human beings.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. tells by

2. was said

3. saying

4. says

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Sleeping, dreaming and waking are three important (1)_______ for ordinary humans. But for those who have (2)_______
transcendental knowledge, all three are almost same and there is not much difference among these three. ‘The world and life is a
myth and it keeps on changing’ (3)_______ Adi Shankaracharya, the greatest ‘Advaita’ preacher. Ramana Maharshi observed no
difference between dreaming and waking states. What he said is that it is from one unreal world to another (4)_______ world. There is
no difference between the images one sees when waking up and the images he/she sees during dreams. According to this great sage
of the modern century, the first one is daydream and the second one is a night dream. The usual philosophers say that mind and body
are the two elements and mind is the source of all diverse thoughts. In the waking up state, the mind is active with all tensions and
dissatisfactions, so happiness is missing: during sleep as the mind is absent and so is the physical world, the real happiness
(5)______. It is said that deep sleep, where there is no feeling of body, mind and the world, is the natural state of human beings.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. confused

2. reality

3. unreal

4. unimaginary

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Sleeping, dreaming and waking are three important (1)_______ for ordinary humans. But for those who have (2)_______
transcendental knowledge, all three are almost same and there is not much difference among these three. ‘The world and life is a
myth and it keeps on changing’ (3)_______ Adi Shankaracharya, the greatest ‘Advaita’ preacher. Ramana Maharshi observed no
difference between dreaming and waking states. What he said is that it is from one unreal world to another (4)_______ world. There is
no difference between the images one sees when waking up and the images he/she sees during dreams. According to this great sage
of the modern century, the first one is daydream and the second one is a night dream. The usual philosophers say that mind and body
are the two elements and mind is the source of all diverse thoughts. In the waking up state, the mind is active with all tensions and
dissatisfactions, so happiness is missing: during sleep as the mind is absent and so is the physical world, the real happiness
(5)______. It is said that deep sleep, where there is no feeling of body, mind and the world, is the natural state of human beings.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. is gained

2. gains

3. gained

4. was gained