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1 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

What is the range of the CARGO AIR COND
A) 10°C - 20°C.
B) 15°C - 30
C) 10°C - 25°C.
D) 5°C - 25

2 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

What is the preflight requirement for pressurization?
A) FMGS departure elevation set correctly and LDG ELEV set to AUTO.
B) LDG ELEV set
C) FMGS destination elevation entered manually.
D) FMGS destination elevation set correctly and LDG ELEV set to AUTO.

3 Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

If HOT AIR 1 pb sw is OFF due to a FAULT, what is lost
A) Bulk Cargo heat.
B) Forward Cargo heat.
C) Aft Cargo heat.
D) Forward electronic compartment ventilation.

4 8Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

An air conditioning truck is connected to the LP ground air supply connector. How can you regulate
the temperature?
A) With the recirculation fans
B) With the zone temperature selectors.
C) At the air conditioning truck.
D) At the FWD ATT panel

5 Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

The cabin temperature can be modified from:
A) The Aft overhead compartment.
B) The cockpit and FAP (Forward Attendant Panel +/-3°C (5.4°F).
C) The cockpit.
D) The cabin.

6 8Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

Both cabin fans have failed. How is the avionic equipment cooled now?
A) With fresh air from the packs.
B) With pneumatic air.
C) Cooling is not necessary.
D) With recirculated cabin air

7 Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

What is the recommended rate for climb/descent in MAN mode?
A) Climb/Descent - 500 fpm.
B) Climb/Descent - 300 fpm.
C) Climb 300 fpm/Descent 500 fpm
D) Climb - 500 fpm /Descent - 300 fpm.

8 Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

After engine start, with APU BLEED left ON:
A) APU BLEED valve closes automatically.
B) APU BLEED continues to supply packs
C) Both engine and APU bleeds supply packs.
D) Engine bleed valves open and supply respective packs.
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9 8Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

Which zone temperature controls the pack outlet temperature for both packs?
A) Zone with the highest temperature.
B) Zone with the lowest temperature.
C) Average temperature of both zones.
D) Cockpit zone temperature.

10 8Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

What are the modes of the pressurization system?
A) Automatic mode, semi-automatic mode and ditching mode.
B) Automatic mode, semi-automatic mode and manual mode.
C) Automatic mode and manual mode.
D) Automatic mode and semi-automatic mode.

11 8Question 11 (Multiple Choice)

At what altitude will outflow valves close automatically in AUTO mode?
A) 8,500
B) 10,000 ft.
C) 15,000 ft.
D) 11,000

12 8Question 12 (Multiple Choice)

What can cause the pack control valve to close?
A) Pressurization controller fault
B) Zone controller
C) Pack overheat.
D) Crossbleed valve closed.

13 Question 13 (Multiple Choice)

When does the cabin altitude on CRUISE page change
A) Cabin altitude exceeds 9,550 ft.
B) Cabin altitude exceeds 8,500 ft.
C) Cabin altitude is increasing at a rate of > 2000 fpm.
D) Cabin altitude exceeds 11,000 ft.

14 Question 14 (Multiple Choice)

What is the purpose of the DITCHING pb sw?
A) Closes outflow valves.
B) Sets landing elevation to sea level.
C) Closes outflow valves and all other valves below the flotation line.
D) Opens outflow valves.

15 Question 15 (Multiple Choice)

When selecting PACK FLOW LO, what is the
A) 120% of normal flow.
B) 80% of normal flow.
C) 75% of normal flow.
D) 90% of normal flow.

16 Question 16 (Multiple Choice)

When selecting PACK FLOW HI, what is the pack output?
A) 150% of normal flow.
B) 120% of normal flow.
C) 130% of normal flow.
D) 200% of normal flow.
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17 8Question 17 (Multiple Choice)

What is the temperature setting for COLD
A) 15°C.
B) 18°C
C) 24°C.
D) 30°C.

18 8Question 18 (Multiple Choice)

With the COOLING selector of the FWD CARGO AIR COND in MAX, what is the position of the cold
air valve?
A) Partially open.
B) Automatically opens when OAT is above
C) Closed.
D) Fully open.

19 Question 19 (Multiple Choice)

How is conditioned air from the mixer unit temperature-regulated for individual zones?
A) Via warm air controlled by the trim air valves.
B) Via hot bleed air tapped upstream of the pack valves.
C) Via hot air valves
D) Via hot bleed air tapped downstream of the pack valves.

20 Question 20 (Multiple Choice)

What is the temperature setting for MID?
A) 28°C.
B) 15°C
C) 30°C.
D) 24°C.

21 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following compartments are not pressurized?
A) The lavatories
B) The nose gear bay and the avionics compartment.
C) The radome and the tail cone compartment.
D) The tail cone and bulk cargo compartment.

22 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

What is the minimum required crew for the 330-200?
A) 2 flight crew and 6 flight
B) 3 flight crew and 5 flight
C) 2 flight crew and 5 flight
D) 3 flight crew and 6 flight

23 Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

With main gear bogies level and shock absorbers fully compressed, at what pitch angle does rear
fuselage contact runway?
A) 16°
B) 9.5°
C) 13
D) 11.5°

24 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

What is the Maximum number of passenger seats?
A) 298
B) 375
C) 360
D) 312
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25 8Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

Where is the potable water fill point located?
A) Below Door 2.
B) Below Door 1 .
C) Aft underside of fuselage.
D) Near Main Gear Bay.

26 Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

What is the maximum nose wheel steering angle without asymmetrical braking?
A) 66°
B) 75
C) 90°
D) 72°

27 Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

How many filling ports are there for gravity fuelling?
A) Two; on the left wing.
B) One on each wing.
C) One; on the left wing.
D) No option for over wing

28 8Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

How many gravity fill points are there?
A) L above left wing outer tank.
B) 4 above each outer and inner tank
C) 1 - above right wing outer tank.
D) 2 - above outer tanks.

29 Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

Which part of the aircraft requires the greatest clearance during a turn?
A) The engine.
B) The nose.
C) The rudder.
D) The wingtip

30 The Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

How many external power receptacles are installed on the aircraft?
A) 1
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2

31 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

When does the quantity of fuel used by the APU reset?
A) After the first engine start
B) After the second engine start
C) After one engine is shut down.
D) When the APU is shut down.

32 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

True or False: Use of APU bleed air for wing anti-ice is permitted:
A) True, at or below FL 350.
B) FALSE
C) TRUE.
D) True, below FL 250.
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33 8Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

Why does the APU continue running after the MASTER SW is off?
A) No external source available.
B) Normal operation. The shutdown sequence begins with a phase of thermal stabilization for the
APU
C) Master switch failure. You have to shut down the APU by using the APU fire pb.
D) Normal operation. The APU will not shut down until the APU generator is switched OFF.

34 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

If APU BLEED is set to ON and the APU is operating, when does the APU BLEED valve close?
A) Always
B) 23,000 ft when climbing.
C) 25,000 ft when climbing.
D) 41,000 ft and level off.

35 Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

What are the sources of fuel supply to the APU?
A) Left Outer Tank, Trim Tank.
B) Center Tank, Trim Tank, Trim Tank Pipe.
C) Center Tank, Trim Tank.
D) Engine 1 Collector Cells, Trim Tank, Trim Tank Pipe.

36 Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

What happens In case of fire in the APU compartment?
A) The APU shuts down and fire extinguisher discharges automatically in air.
B) The APU shuts down and fire extinguisher discharges automatically on ground.
C) APU continues to run.
D) The APU fire extinguisher needs to be activated manually.

37 8Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

With reference to the APU battery, which statement is true?
A) The APU battery is dedicated to starting the APU.
B) The APU battery is connected to the DC BAT bus.
C) The APU battery provides a backup to BAT 1 and 2.
D) The APU battery is the only battery which can be charged by the APU generator.

38 8Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

How long can a complete APU shutdown sequence last?
A) Until the fuel supply closes
B) Up to 2 minutes.
C) Up to 85 seconds.
D) Up to 2 minutes and 30 seconds.

39 Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

What is the maximum altitude the APU may be used for bleed air supply with 1 pack and generator
operating?
A) 17,500
B) 37,000 ft.
C) 22,500 ft.
D) 20,000 ft.
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40 Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following statements about the APU Air Intake is FALSE?
A) The FLAP OPEN message on the APU page flashes RED if the intake flap fails to close following a
shutdown.
B) The intake flap closes after the APU sutdown process is complete.
C) The intake flap remains open when the APU is running.
D) The intake flap opens after the APU MASTER SW is selected ON in preparation for an APU start.

41 Question 11 (Multiple Choice)

The starter engages if the MASTER SW and the START pushbutton are ON and the:
A) Fire detector loop operational.
B) Aircraft on ground.
C) Electrical external power connected.
D) Air intake is fully open

42 Question 12 (Multiple Choice)

It is the first flight of the day. Before performing the APU fire test, what should you check first?
A) The APU FIRE pb is in and guarded, and the APU is running
B) The APU FIRE pb is in and guarded, and the AGENT pb is extingished
C) The red disk APU fire overpressure indicator is not visible on the outside of the aircraft
D) The APU FIRE pb is in and guarded, and the AGENT light is illuminated.

43 Question 13 (Multiple Choice)

An APU low oil pressure is indicated by what?
A) A message on the upper ECAM
B) An auto shut-down and a fault light in the APU master switch.
C) A maintenance message.
D) An advisory indication on the ECAM APU page.

44 Question 14 (Multiple Choice)

How many consecutive start attempts are allowed before the crew must wait?
A) There is no limit
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

45 Question 15 (Multiple Choice)

Which function does the APU computer NOT control?
A) APU Fire sensing
B) Sequencing and monitoring of APU start and shutdown.
C) Bleed air monitoring.
D) Speed and temperature monitoring.

46 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

On the MCDU, what do the magenta stars (*) next to a speed/alt prediction at some waypoints
indicate
A) There is an assigned speed and/or altitude constraint.
B) There is a required radio call at that waypoint.
C) There is an A/THR mode change at that waypoint.
D) There is a conflict between ATC assigned altitude and altitude entered in FCU.

47 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

Until when can the autopilot be used on an approach with V/S or FPA mode
A) 50 ft AGL.
B) 200 ft AGL.
C) 100 ft AGL.
D) 150 ft AGL.
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48 8Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

What is the recommended procedure to disengage the Auto Pilot?
A) Turning OFF both FDs.
B) Moving a side stick harder than a given threshold.
C) Using the A/P take-over pb on the side stick.
D) Using the A/P pb on the FCU

49 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

Which flight control computers determine Vasw speed?
A) PRIMS compute Vs 1g
B) There is no stall speed, stall is determined by buffet
C) The SECs compute Vs 1g
D) PRIMS compute Vasw speeds through the full g-load regime

50 Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

Is it possible to display FD bars and FPV at the same time for cross-checking the PFDs?
A) Yes,
B) Only when engines not running.
C) Yes, on ground only.
D) No.

51 Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

With either AP engaged, which statement IS true?
A) Both side sticks are locked. By applying a certain force the lock can be overridden but the AP
remains engaged.
B) Both side sticks are deactivated until the AP is disengaged.
C) Both side sticks are locked. By applying a certain force the lock can be overridden and the AP is
disengaged
D) Both side sticks are locked. The lock cannot be overridden.

52 Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

For a LAND 3 DUAL autoland, which of the following is true?
A) You can have either 1 or 2 engaged
B) You must have both engines operating.
C) You must have 2 APs engaged.
D) You must have at least 1 AP engaged

53 Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

What are the allowable lateral/vertical modes selectable on the FCU?
A) Open Descent and Open Climb.
B) HDG-FPA and TRK-VS
C) HDG-VS and TRK-FPA
D) LOC and ILS

54 Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

With all engines operating, what is the active A/THR range of the throttle quadrant?
A) IDLE to MAX CONT detent.
B) IDLE to CL detent.
C) IDLE > 0 to CL detent.
D) IDLE > 0 to MAX CONT detent.

55 Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

With all engines operating, what speed does the SRS system maintain on takeoff?
A) V2 + 15 kts
B) V2.
C) V2 + 10 kts
D) V2 + 10-25 kts.
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56 8Question 11 (Multiple Choice)

When does MAN TOGA get replaced with THR CLB
A) At Acceleration Altitude.
B) At Level
C) At Thrust Reduction Altitude.
D) At 400 ft AGL.

57 Question 12 (Multiple Choice)

On which MCDU page do you enter V1, VR and V2 speed?
A) On the PERF page
B) On INIT-B page
C) On INIT-A page
D) On the RAD page

58 pageQuestion 13 (Multiple Choice,

What is required for RWY mode to engage on takeoff?
A) AP engaged at start of Takeoff Roll.
B) A/THR in TOGA mode
C) A Cat I1/Ill certified runway.
D) A valid LOC signal available for that runway.

59 Question 14 (Multiple Choice)

What is true about the Speed Reference System (SRS)?
A) It is only used during takeoff.
B) The SRS controls the speed via the stabilizer.
C) It is a managed vertical mode and used during a go-around.
D) It is a managed lateral mode.

60 8Question 15 (Multiple Choice)

What does VLS
A) Vs 1g and configuration
B) Vs 1g, bank angle and speed brake position.
C) Vs 1g, flight phase and speed brake position.
D) Vs 1g, flight phase and bank angle.

61 8Question 16 (Multiple Choice)

Is the use of AP or FD in OP DES or DES permitted if the AFS CP selected altitude is set below the
MDA(H)/ DA (H)
A) It may be used at crew discretion.
B) No, never.
C) It depends on the approach selected in the FMS.
D) Yes,

62Question 17 (Multiple Choice)

What are the basic modes of the AP?
A) HDG and SPD
B) HDG and NAV
C) ATL and NAV.
D) HDG and V/S

63 Question 18 (Multiple Choice)

When does a flashing "LEVER CLB" FMA
A) At Thrust Reduction Altitude.
B) At beginning of Open Climb.
C) At Level Off Altitude
D) At Acceleration Altitude.
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64 Question 19 (Multiple Choice)

When can the autopilot be used after lift-off?
A) In flight for more than 5 seconds and at least 100 ft AGL.
B) In flight for more that 3 seconds and at least 100 ft AGL.
C) In flight for more than 5 seconds.
D) In flight for more than 3 second

65 8Question 20 (Multiple Choice)

On which MCDU page can you enter the load sheet data?
A) Data page
B) PER page
C) INIT B page
D) INIT A page.

OXY/WATERWASTE QUESTIONARE

1 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

On the ground, an amber half frame appears at the oxygen pressure indication. What does it mean?
A) Less than 1,000 psi left in the oxygen bottle.
B) More than 2,000 psi in the oxygen bottle.
C) Less than 300 psi left in the oxygen bottle.
D) Overpressure in the system.

2 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

Under what circumstances is a flight crew mask supplied with oxygen under pressure?
A) Automatically when avionic smoke is detected.
B) When the valve on the oxygen bottle is opened.
C) During a cabin depressurization.
D) As soon as the left flap door of the oxygen mask housing opens.

3 Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

An amber half box appears around oxygen pressure when the pressure is < 1,000 psi. What should the
crew do?
A) Check table in QRH to determine if oxygen pressure is sufficient for flight duration.
B) Check with Maintenance to replace bottle.
C) Check table in Oxygen Limitations to determine if oxygen pressure is sufficient for passenger
count.
D) Check table in Oxygen Limitations to determine if oxygen pressure is sufficient for flight duration

4 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

If the automatic deployment of PAX oxygen masks fails, how can the oxygen masks be deployed?
A) With the MAN MASK ON switch on the overhead panel manually with a special tool.
B) By pushing the OXYGEN switch located in each PSU.
C) Connect people to portable oxygen to the PSU.
D) By turning the red release handle to open.

5 Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

What is the normal pressure of a full walk-around oxygen bottle?
A) 1,000 psi.
B) 1,800 psi.
C) 1,500
D) 2,000 psi.
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6 Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

What is the indication of a crew oxygen bottle overpressure?
A) Amber oxygen pressure indication on the SD.
B) Amber oxygen pressure indication on the STATUS page.
C) Missing green disc on the right forward fuselage.
D) Red oxygen pressure indication on the E/WD.

7 Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

Oxygen pressure on ECAM DOOR/OXY page shows 290 psi. What is the color of this indication?
A) Green
B) Amber
C) Blue
D) Pink

8 Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

If Oxygen pressure drops to O during mask check, what should the crew check first?
A) Crew Oxygen bottle shutoff valve in electronics bay.
B) Regulator position in 100% Position.
C) CREW SUPPLY pb sw on the overhead panel.
D) Call Maintenance for bottle replacement.

9 Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

What is the purpose of the EMER position of the mask oxygen regulator?
A) The mask needs to be purged of fog or contaminated air.
B) Provides 100% oxygen when aircraft above 30,000 ft and N/100% sw in N position.
C) Enables "hot mike" interphone.
D) Switches mask mike to emergency frequency for transmitting Mayday.

10 Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

What is the purpose of the PASSENGER SYS ON light on the
A) Iluminates when either an automatic or manual signal has been sent to deploy the masks in the
lavatories.
B) Iluminates red when either an automatic or manual signal has been sent to deploy the masks and
the masks have failed to deploy.
C) Iluminates amber when either an automatic or manual signal has been sent to deploy the masks
and oxygen flow has not started.
D) Illuminates white when either an automatic or manual signal has been sent to deploy the masks.

11 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

How does the precooler cool bleed air?
A) The precooler uses N1 fan bypass air, regulated by a fan air valve, to cool the bleed air.
B) The precooler uses N1 fan bypass air, regulated by the croosbleed duct valve, to cool the bleed air.
C) The precooler uses N2 bleed air, regulated by a bleed air valve, to cool the bleed air.
D) The precooler uses ram air to cool the bleed air.

12 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

What would cause the amber FAULT lights in the BLEED pbs to illuminates?
A) The bleed valve is not closed when the APU bleed valve is open.
B) Underpressure in the crossbleed duct.
C) Failure of one of the two Bleed Motoring Computers (BMCs).
D) ENG 1/2 BLEED pb sw selected OFF
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13 8Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

The leak detection system detects a pneumatic leak in the right wing. Which valves have to be closed
A) X-bleed valve, engine 2 bleed valve and HP valve.
B) Engine 2 bleed valve only.
C) Engine T bleed valve only.
D) X-bleed valve only.

14 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

With engines and APU running and the APU bleed selected to ON, which statement is correct?
A) Engine bleed valves open, X-bleed valves open and APU bleed valve closes.
B) Engine bleed valves close, X-bleed valve closes and APU bleed valve opens.
C) Engine bleed valves close, X-bleed valve opens and APU bleed valve opens.
D) Engine bleed valves open, X-bleed valves open and APU bleed valve opens.

15 Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

Which systems are supplied by the pneumatic system?
A) Shock absorbers on main landing gear.
B) Engine starting, antenna anti-icing and hydraulic reservoir
C) Air conditioning, emergency braking and engine starting.
D) Wing anti-icing, water pressurization and air conditioning.

16 Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

What sources can pressurize the pneumatic system?
A) Engine 2 bleed system and APU
B) Engine 2 bleed system
C) Engine 1 bleed systems
D) Engine bleed system, APU load compressor and two HP ground connections

17 Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

Is the engine bleed air temperature regulated before entering the pneumatic system?
A) Yes, it is cooled in a heat exchanger by cooling air from the fan section.
B) No, it is only cooled in the air conditioning part.
C) Yes, it is cooled with air
D) No, it is not cooled prior to being used by the systems.

18 Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

With ENG 1/2 BLEED pb sw ON, which of the following will not open the bleed valve?
A) The APU BLEED pb sw is OFF
B) Upstream pressure is below 8 psi
C) The ENG FIRE pushbutton is stowed
D) The ENG start valve is closed.

19 8Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

How is APU bleed supply is controlled?
A) The APU bleed supply is controlled by the AUTO position of the crossbleed valve.
B) The APU bleed supply is controlled by Bleed Monitoring Computer 2.
C) The APU bleed supply is controlled by the APU Electronic Control Box (ECB).
D) The APU bleed supply is controlled by Bleed Monitoring Computer 1

20 Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

Why is the crossbleed valve equipped with 2 electrical actuators?
A) One for the automatic mode and one for the manual mode.
B) Two for the automatic mode.
C) One for the automatic mode and one for the standby mode.
D) Two for the manual mode.
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21 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

What does the blue circle outside of the N1 indicator scale indicate?
A) Lower RPM in icing condition.
B) Reverse handle position.
C) N1 corresponding to the thrust level position.
D) Minimum N1 rpm

22 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

What is the time limit for continuous starter operation?
A) 2 mins.
B) 3 mins.
C) 5 mins.
D) 1 mins

23 Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

The FADEC has two modes of setting the power. What are they?
A) N1 and N3
B) N1 and N2
C) EPR and N1.
D) EPR and N2

24 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following FADEC idle modes is NOT a valid mode?
A) One Engine Inoperative (OEI) idle mode.
B) Modulated idle mode.
C) Approach
D) Reverse idle mode.

25 8Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

In case of a flameout detected in flight, what causes the Quick Relight function of the FADEC to
activate
A) ENG MASTER lever to OFF then ON within 20 secs and N3 above 10%.
B) ENG MASTER lever to OFF then ON within 10 secs and N3 above 20%.
C) ENG MASTER lever to OFF then ON within 20 secs and N3 above 20%.
D) ENG MASTER lever to OFF then ON within 30 secs and N3 above 10%.

26 Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

During an engine start sequence there is a grey background on N2. The indication disappears at about
63%. What does
A) That there is a start fault and a dry crank is in progress.
B) That the start valve air pressure has dropped.
C) That the start sequence has finished and all engine parameters have stabilized.
D) That the igniters are no longer being powered.

27 Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

Where is the start valve open position indicated during engine start?
A) On the lower part of the engine page on the lower ECAM SD.
B) On the upper ECAM display.
C) By the On light in the Manual Start Switch.
D) By the Amber light at the master switch on the Engine Start Panel.

28 Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

What system is used for the thrust reversers?
A) The yellow hydraulic system powers the doors on ENG 1.
B) The green hydraulic system powers the doors on ENG 1.
C) The pneumatic system for all engines.
D) The blue hydraulic system powers the doors on ENG 1.
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29 Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

To initiate the dry crank process with the ENG MAN START pb-sw to ON, what is the proper position
of the other controls?
A) ENGINE START selector to CRANK and ENGINE MASTER lever OFF
B) ENGINE START selector to CRANK and ENGINE MASTER lever ON
C) ENGINE START selector to IGN/START and ENGINE MASTER lever OFF
D) ENGINE START selector to IGN/START and ENGINE MASTER lever ON

30 Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

When does the oil temperature indication turn amber?
A) If temperature exceeds 120°C.
B) If temperature exceeds 190°C.
C) If temperature exceeds 110°C.
D) If temperature exceeds 160°C for more than 15 min.

31 8Question 11 (Multiple Choice)

What is NOT a condition that will illuminate the ENG MASTER FAULT light?
A) The automatic start sequence has aborted
B) There is a malfunction of the automatic thrust control
C) An engine FIRE warning has occurred
D) The position of the HP fuel shutoff valve is abnormal

32 8Question 12 (Multiple Choice)

Setting the ENG MASTER switch to OFF cause what components)
A) LP fuel shutoff
B) HP fuel shutoff
C) LP and HP fuel shutoff valves.
D) Engine start valve.

33 Question 13 (Multiple Choice)

What does CHECK E/WD message on E/D (Engine Warning Display) mean?
A) Brightness needs to be adjusted.
B) Discrepancy between engine 1 and engine 2.
C) Discrepancy between engine 2 and engine 1 .
D) Discrepancy between N1, N2, EGT, FF, values on FADEC DMC bus and corresponding displayed
information

34 Question 14 (Multiple Choice)

On the ground, when is the start sequence automatically aborted?
A) Only in case of no start or hung start.
B) Only in case of no light up.
C) In case of hot start, hung start, locked N1 or no light off.
D) There is no automatic abort sequence.

35 Question 15 (Multiple Choice)

The oil pressure indication appears in red below what reading?
A) 30 psi
B) 20 psi
C) 15 psi
D) 25 psi

36 Question 16 (Multiple Choice)

You are about to perform a take off. You have not inserted a FLEX temperature. Can you still take off
A) Yes, but only using the TOGA detent.
B) Yes, by setting the thrust levers to the CLIMB detent.
C) Not until a FLEX temperature is inserted.
D) Yes, by setting the thrust levers to the FLEX/MCT detent.
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37 Question 17 (Multiple Choice)

During the automatic start sequence of ENG 1, you notice that only igniter B is powered. Is this
normal
A) Yes, igniter A is only used for engine anti ice.
B) No, normally both igniters are used for all engine start.
C) Yes, igniter B is always used for ENG 1 start.
D) Yes, igniters are used alternatively for automatic engine start, in this case B

38 Question 18 (Multiple Choice)

Independent of the FADEC, the Overspeed Protection Unit (OPU) shuts down the engine in what
situation?
A) N2 reaches 110%
B) N3 reaches 117%
C) N1 reaches 117%.
D) N1 reaches 110%.

39 Question 19 (Multiple Choice)

During both automatic and manual starts, when does the engine start valve close?
A) 30% N3
B) 45% N3
C) 50% N3
D) 50% N2

40 Question 20 (Multiple Choice)

What are the maximum EGT limits for starting engines?
A) 850° C during engine start sequence on the ground, or 700 C inflight
B) 850° C during engine start sequence on the ground and inflight
C) 700° C during engine start sequence on the ground, or 850° C inflight
D) 700° C during engine start sequence on the ground and inflight

41 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

What is the capacity of the waste tank?
A) 350
B) 550
C) 100
D) 700

42 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

Where can you see how much water is contained in the water tanks?
A) On the water tanks.
B) On the cockpit overhead panel.
C) Indicators on the forward attendant's panel.
D) On the refuelling panel

43 Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

How is the vacuum created in the waste tank?
A) Always by a vacuum generator.
B) On ground and at altitudes below 16,000 ft with a vacuum generator.
C) Differential pressure above 6000 ft
D) Differential pressure below 11,000 ft.

44 8Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

Where is the water and waste control panel located?
A) In the cockpit
B) At the forward cabin attendant's panel.
C) In the e/e compartment.
D) In the aft galley area
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45 8Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

Where is the waste water from the galleys and lavatory sinks drained?
A) Drained to a separate grey water tank that drains automatically when the aircraft is on ground.
B) Drained to a tank located beneath each sink.
C) Drained to the toilet waste tank.
D) Drained overboard through two anti-iced drain masts.

COMM FUEL

1 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following is NOT an available method of transmitting after a transmitter has been
selected on the ACP?
A) Squeezing the trigger on the sidestick and speaking into the on-side boomset or oxygen mask
microphone
B) Holding the spring loaded INT/RAD switch on the ACP to the RAD position and speaking into an
on-side boomset or oxygen mask microphone.
C) Holding the push-to-talk pb on the hand microphone and speaking into the hand microphone.
D) Selecting INT on the ACP and speaking into the on-side boomset or oxygen mask microphone.

2 (Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

What is the function of the reset push button on the ACP?
A) Restart system operation.
B) Extinguish CALL, MECH and ATT lights and cancels the buzzes.
C) Reset to standard frequency.
D) Cancel previous selections.

3 8Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

How do you activate the cockpit voice recorder before engine start?
A) The CVR test pb.
B) Push in CVR circuit breaker.
C) The CVR ground control pb.
D) The CVR erase pb.

4 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the INT/RAD switch?
A) The switch may be left in the INT or neutral position and is spring loaded to return to neutral from
the RAD position.
B) Hot Mike is enabled when selected to the INT position.
C) The RAD position is used as a push-to-talk transmit key for the selected channel.
D) Hot Mike is enabled only on the ground with the switch in the neutral position.

5 Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

How can the flight crewmembers communicate with the ground crew?
A) With the Boomsets/headsets.
B) All can be used to communicate with the ground crew.
C) With the microphones on the oxygen masks.
D) With the hand microphones.

6 Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

What is the indication that the MECH station is attempting to contact the flight deck?
A) Siren sounds and Master Caution light illuminates.
B) Bell rings twice and pilot's handset vibrates.
C) Buzzer and flashing MECH light in INT key of ACP.
D) Master Caution light illuminates and ECAM message appears.
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7 Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

In EMER ELEC CONFIG, which RMP
A) RMP 1 or 2.
B) FAP
C) RMP 3
D) RMP 1 .

8 Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

Which RMPs can be used to tune NAVAIDS?
A) All three RMPs.
B) RMP 1 only.
C) RMP 1 and 2 only
D) RMPs cannot be used to tune NAVAIDS

9 Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

What happens if RMP 2 fails?
A) The whole system is inoperative.
B) VHF 2 and HF 2 frequencies can't be controlled.
C) All COM systems can be controlled by any other RMP.
D) Only VHF 2 frequencies can't be controlled.

10 Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

What can you do if you want to erase the CVR?
A) You push the erase pb for 2 seconds in flight.
B) CVR cannot be erased.
C) You push the erase pb for more than 2 seconds when on ground and parking brake set.
D) You push the erase pb once.

11 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

How many doors does the A330
A) Two passenger doors and six cabin emergency exits.
B) Eight passenger doors.
C) Four passenger doors and four cabin emergency exits.
D) Six passenger doors and two cabin emergency exits.

12 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

How can the avionics compartment be accessed from the flight deck?
A) Via the floor hatch behind the Captain's seat.
B) Via the forward cargo compartment.
C) cannot be accessed from the flight deck.
D) Via the access hatch in the forward galley.

13 Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

What does a flashing red light on the passenger door indicate?
A) Cabin differential pressure is above 2 hPa, with slides disarmed and both engines stopped.
B) A girt-bar has failed to engage into the
C) The evacuation signaling system has been activated.
D) Exit closed.

14 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

What happens if you open an entrance door from outside if the slide is armed?
A) The slide deploys.
B) The slide is automatically disarm
C) Ground horn gives a signal.
D) The door handle is locked to prevent opening.
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15 8Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

How man cabin doors are there on an Airbus A330?
A) 4 passenger doors and 4 emergency exit doors.
B) 3 passenger doors on the r/h side and 3 emergency exits on the l/h side.
C) 6 passenger doors and 2 emergency doors.
D) 8 passenger doors.

16 Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the operation of the flight deck door?
A) The flight crew controls the door locking mechanism using the COCKPIT DOOR toggle switch
located on the pedestal.
B) The flight crew controls the operation of the flight deck door using the key pad located on the
flight
C) The flight deck door has electric-locking latches that can only be controlled by the flight crew
D) The flight deck door will automatically unlock and open if cabin pressure sensors detect a
depressurization.

17 Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

What does the heating film between the external and the internal layer of the windows do?
A) The heating film is not between the external and internal layers.
B) Ensures defogging of the lateral and aft windows.
C) Ensures de-icing of the aft windows.
D) Ensures defogging and de-icing of all windows and windshields.

18 8Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

What is the ECAM indication of a closed cabin door with slide armed?
A) Amber box with SLIDE next to box.
B) Green box with SLIDE next to box
C) Green box.
D) Red

19 8Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

On ECAM DOOR/OXYGEN SD page what does an amber door
A) An amber "X" means the door is not closed.
B) The door is not closed.
C) The door requires maintenance action.
D) The door is not safe.

20 8Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

How is the bulk cargo
A) Manually
B) Green hydraulic system.
C) Electrical actuators
D) Pneumatic actuators

21 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

Selecting the COMMERCIAL pb sw to OFF turns off which of the following equipment?
A) Inflight Entertainment System.
B) Emergency Lighting.
C) ELT
D) CVR
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22 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

The emergency generator is capable of supplying power to which buses?
A) ESS AC and ESS DC busses.
B) DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2.
C) AC BUS 2 and DC BUS 2.
D) AC BUS 1 and DC BUS 1.

23 Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

When setting the batteries back to AUTO, during cockpit preparation, what should you check?
A) The battery charge is below 28 A and decreasing within 10 seconds.
B) The battery charge is below 28 A and decreasing within 20 seconds.
C) There is NO MINIMUM.
D) The battery charge is below 60 A and decreasing within 10 seconds.

24 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

In the event of AC BUS 1 failure, what powers the AC ESS BUS?
A) Static Inverter.
B) AC BUS 2.
C) DC ESS BUS.
D) BAT BUS 1.

25 8Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

What is the normal source of power for the DC APU BUS
A) APU TR via AC BUS 2
B) APU TR via AC BUS 1
C) DC BATT BUS
D) APU TR via AC ESS BUS

26 Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

With APU and Ext A available what powers the
A) APU powers AC BUS 2 and Ext A powers AC BUS 1
B) Ext A powers both AC busses
C) APU powers AC BUS 1 and Ext A powers AC BUS 2
D) APU powers both AC busses

27 8Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following statements is true about the AC Bus system?
A) AC BUS 1 is powered from the AC ESS BUS
B) AC ESS BUS is powered from the ESS TR
C) AC ESS BUS is powered from AC BUS 1
D) AC BUS 2 is powered from AC ESS BUS

28 Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

What is the priority for ECMU when selecting power source for AC 1 bus?
A) 1 . Engine 1 Gen 2. APU Gen 3. Ext B 4. Ext A 5. Engine 2 Gen
B) Engine 1 Gen 2. Engine 2 Gen 3. APU Gen 4. Ext A 5. Ext B
C) Engine 1 Gen 2. APU Gen 3. Ext A 4. Ext B Engine 2 Gen
D) 1. Engine 1 Gen 2. Ext B 3. Ext A 4. APU Gen 5. Engine 2 Gen

29 8Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

When coordinating external power disconnect with ground crew what is important to check?
A) Ensure OFF light is illuminated.
B) Ensure AVAIL light is illuminated
C) Ensure APU or engines are running.
D) Ensure ON light is illuminated.
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30 8Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

During cockpit preparation what are the only lights that should be illuminated on the electrical panel?
A) AC 1 and AC 2 OFF lights
B) BAT 1, BAT 2 and APU BAT OFF lights
C) GEN 1 and GEN 2 fault light
D) GEN 1 and GEN 2 OFF light

31 Question 11 (Multiple Choice)

Pushing the LAND RECOVERY pb
A) Disconnect AP 2.
B) Enable AP 1+2
C) Disconnect FD 1+2
D) Disconnect AP 1.

32 Question 12 (Multiple Choice)

What is AC ESS BUS normally
A) Emergency generator.
B) AC BUS 1.
C) Static
D) AC BUS 2

33 8Question 13 (Multiple Choice)

When turning on a battery while doing a battery check during preflight what is the correct amperage
after 10
A) Less than 60 A.
B) Less than 30 A.
C) More than 30 A.
D) Less than 90 A.

34 Question 14 (Multiple Choice)

What circuit breakers are located on the flight deck?
A) There are no circuit breakers on the flight deck.
B) Seat power circuit breakers.
C) Cockpit door circuit breakers.
D) Windshield heat circuit breakers.

35 Question 15 (Multiple Choice)

With loss of an engine generator, galley buses shed due to an overload can be reset by switching
GALLEY pb sw OFF, than AUTO
A) FALSE.
B) TRUE, with Emergency Generator available.
C) FALSE, unless Emergency Generator is also available.
D) FALSE, unless APU generator is also available.

36 Question 16 (Multiple Choice)

How is the emergency generator driven?
A) By the RAT.
B) By the blue hydraulic system.
C) By the number one engine.
D) By the green hydraulic system.

37 Question 17 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following statements is true about the DC Bus system?
A) DC BUS 1 is powered from ESS TR
B) DC ESS BUS is powered from the ESS TR
C) DC BUS 1 is powered from ESS BUS
D) DC BUS 2 is powered from BAT BUS 2
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38 Question 18 (Multiple Choice)

Can Galley buses shed during flight due to temporary overload (not due to generator loss) be reset?
A) YES
B) Galley buses cannot be reset except on the ground.
C) NO
D) There are no reset controls for Galley buses on the flight deck.

39 Question 19 (Multiple Choice)

What is the purpose of the LAND
A) To allow the recovery of systems necessary for approach and landing
B) It allows the RAT to be manually extended.
C) It inhibits the RAT to allow the slats to extend for landing.
D) It allows the ILS to be manually connected to the APU battery for approach and landing.

40 Question 20 (Multiple Choice)

Is the AC ESS bus still supplied even if there is a SHED indication?
A) Yes.
B) No.
C) Only after
D) Only in EMERG ELEC CONFIG

41 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

What required emergency equipment is not located on the flight deck?
A) Portable water fire extinguisher.
B) Portable halon fire extinguisher.
C) Crash axe.
D) Smoke hood

42 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

How is the position of the armrest adjustable?
A) Tilt only.
B) Height
C) Pitch only.
D) Height adjustment and pitch

43 Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

What do you need to do before closing a cocpit window?
A) Move control lever aft to unlock the window.
B) Push the Window Close pb.
C) Set the parking brake.
D) Nothing.

44 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

A GREEN light flashes on the cockpit door keypad. What does it mean?
A) The door has been unlocked either by a flight a crew action, or
B) The flight crew has denied access.
C) Door will open within 3 seconds.
D) An emergency request to enter the cockpit has been made.

45 Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

How can the pilot adjust the seat?
A) Mechanically only.
B) Pneumatically.
C) Electrically
D) Electrically or mechanically
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46 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following does NOT happen when pushing and releasing an ENG FIRE pb?
A) Disharges the fire extinguisher bottle.
B) Silences the Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC).
C) Deactivates the engine generator
D) Arms the fire extinguisher squibs.

47 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

Which statement is FALSE concerning the lavatory smoke detectors?
A) The lavatory smoke warning message is displayed on the E/WD.
B) The MASTER WARN lights if flash if smoke
C) The cabin crew activates the lavatory fire extinguisher from the CIDS panel.
D) A lavatory smoke chime sounds in the cabin.

48 Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

When does the cargo DISCH light come on AMBER?
A) Bottle is ready to discharge.
B) Discharge circuit
C) Associated bottle is empty.
D) Parallel discharge is available.

49 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

What happens if an APU Fire is detected on the ground?
A) APU shuts down automatically but fire extinguishing agent must be discharged manually.
B) APU shuts down automatically and fire extinguishing agent is discharged.
C) APU must be manually shut down from flight deck or from ground crew station at nosewheel.
D) Fire warning and bell on flight deck and at nosewheel, but APU continues to run.

50 Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

With respect to an engine fire warning, which of the following statements concerning the engine fire
detection unit is FALSE?
A) Either loop senses a high temperature.
B) One loop detects a high temperature and the other loop is faulty.
C) Both loops sense a high teperature.
D) Both loops fail within five secs of each other

51 .Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following does NOT occur if an engine fire is detected?
A) The red ENG 1(2) FIRE pb is illuminated.
B) The MASTER WARN lights flash.
C) The Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC) sounds.
D) The fire extinguisher squibs are armed.

52 Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

If smoke is detected in the cargo compartment, when is the smoke warning triggered?
A) Aircraft in air only
B) One detector in any cavity detects smoke
C) Both smoke detectors in one cavity detect smoke.
D) Aircraft on ground only.

53 8Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following does not occur when pushing the ENG 1 (2) FIRE pb sw?
A) Disconnects FADEC
B) Discharges fire extinguisher
C) Closes hydraulic fire
D) Closes low-pressure fuel valve.
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54 8Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

What is the backup source of power to the engine fire bottle squibs?
A) Hot Battery Bus.
B) DC ESS BUS.
C) BAT BUS 1
D) AC ESS BUS.

55 Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

Where are the lavatory smoke detectors located?
A) In the air extraction duct of each lavatory.
B) Beneath the sink in each lavatory.
C) On the wall in each lavatory.
D) In the roof in each lavatory.

56 Question 11 (Multiple Choice)

Which statement is TRUE in the event of an AVNCS
A) Automatic discharge of the Avionics compartment halon extinguisher.
B) ECAM directs crew to push the AVNCS SMOKE pb to discharge the halon extinguisher.
C) Automatic closure of the underfloor extract valve and partial opening of the overboard extract
valve.
D) ECAM directs crew to push the EXTRACT pb to OVRD.

57 Question 12 (Multiple Choice)

When does the avionics smoke warning trigger?
A) One smoke detector detects smoke for more than 10 seconds.
B) Aircraft on ground only.
C) Both smoke detectors detect smoke for more than 5 seconds.
D) Aircraft in air only.

58 Question 13 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning pushing the APU FIRE TEST pb?
A) The Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC) sounds.
B) The APU will shutdown.
C) The MASTER WARN lights flash.
D) The APU FIRE pb illuminates.

59 8Question 14 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following statements is TRUE for the engine fire protection system?
A) There is 1 halon bottle per engine.
B) There are 2 halon bottles for each engines
C) There are 3 halon bottles shared by both engines.
D) There are 2 halon bottles shared by both engines.

60 8Question 15 (Multiple Choice)

What do the engines and the APU fire and overheat detection system consist of?
A) One gas detection loop.
B) Two optical sensors.
C) Two identical gas detection loops (A and B) mounted in parallel.
D) Two semiconductor loops (A and B) mounted in parallel.

61 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

What is the bank angle beyond which pitch correction is required to maintain altitude?
A) 15°s angle of bank.
B) 33°s angle of bank.
C) 25°s angle of bank.
D) 45°s angle of bank.
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62 8Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

During normal operation, when are the outboard ailerons activated?
A) The IAS is above 190 kts.
B) The lAS is below 190 kts.
C) The landing gear gravity extension has been initiated.
D) When the flight controls are operated with only one hydraulic system.

63 8Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

What is the purpose of the wing tip brakes?
A) They block the respective drive shaft system in case of slats or flaps asymmetry.
B) They prevent extension if the IAS is to high.
C) They prevent the slats and flaps from changing position due to loads in case of hydraulic failure.
D) They brake the drive shaft system, if the slats and flaps reached the selected position.

C
64 8Question 4 (Multiple Choice)
There are 3 PRIM and 2 SEC flight control computers. How many are required for safe flight?
A) None.
B) 1 PRIM and 1 SEC.
C) 1 PRIM or 1 SEC.
D) 2 PRIMs and 1 SEC

65 8Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

What are the load factor protections in Normal Law?
A) Slats retracted - +2.5 g to - 1 g Slats extended - +2 g to 0 g.
B) +2 g to 0 g.
C) +2.5 g to 0 g.
D) +2 g to -1 g.

66 Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following spoiler indications on the F/CTL SD pagei is NOT correct?
A) An amber X indicates an unknown position.
B) Amber triangle indicates the spoiler is not retracted.
C) Red triangle indicates electrical control failure
D) An amber number indicates the spoiler has failed and is retracted.

67 Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

What is the purpose of aileron droop?
A) Aids in roll control during takeoff and landing
B) When flaps are extended, ailerons are deflected down to aid in low speed lift generation.
C) Prevents wing overload in high g situations.
D) Prevents overstress of outboard wing on takeoff or landing.

68 8Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

With GND SPOILERS ARMED for landing, when will they automatically extend?
A) At or below 10
B) Both thrust levers at idle and both main landing gear down.
C) At least one thrust lever in reverse or at least one main landing gear down.
D) When AUTO/BRK LO or MED DECEL light Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

69 What happens to an extended spoiler in case of electric control failure?

A) It is pressed down partially by aerodynamic forces.
B) It goes to mid position.
C) It stays in its last position.
D) It retracts and remains retracted.
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70 Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

What do you command to the pitch channel if you deflect the sidestick in normal flight?
A) Attitude
B) Pitch
C) Drift from
D) Load factor.

71 Question 11 (Multiple Choice)

With GND SPOILERS ARMED for takeoff, when will they automatically extend?
A) When AUTO/BRK MAX engages >
B) Speed > 60 kts and at least one engine thrust lever in Idle.
C) When MASTER WARN light illuminates.
D) Speed > 72 kts and all engine thrust levers to Idle.

72 Question 12 (Multiple Choice)

When the aircraft exits A.FLOOR what message replaces A. FLOOR
A) TOGA LK
B) TOGA.
C) flashing "LEVER CLIMB".
D) A/THR LOCK.

73 Question 13 (Multiple Choice)

What is the only indication of ground spoiler extension during landing or rejected takeoff?
A) "Speed Brake, Speed Brake" is enunciated aurally.
B) SPEED BRAKE green message appears on ECAM E/D page.
C) ECAM WHEEL SD page will automatically display during landing or rejected takeoff.
D) SPEED BRAKE handle moves to extended position.

74 Question 14 (Multiple Choice)

Where is the THS position displayed?
A) ECAM HYD
B) Scale next to flap lever.
C) MCDU F/CTL page 1.
D) Scale next to pitch trim wheel.

75 Question 15 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following is an aileron function?
A) Assist when turning on the ground.
B) Increasing the effect of the speed brakes.
C) Increasing the effect of the ground spoilers.
D) Alleviation of wing load in case of high load factors.

76 Question 16 (Multiple Choice)

What drives the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer?
A) Electrical motor driven by AC ESS BUS.
B) Mechanical screwjack driven by GREEN hydraulic system
C) Electrical motor driven by AC BUS 1
D) Mechanical screwjack driven by BLUE or YELLOW hydraulic system.

77 Question 17 (Multiple Choice)

How are the sidesticks connected?
A) Electrically connected to mimic deflection of one sidestick to other sidestick.
B) Mechanically connected and spring loaded to neutral.
C) Mechanically connected.
D) Each sidestick independently sends signals to the flight control computers.
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78 Question 18 (Multiple Choice)

How can sidestick input be overridden?
A) By use of sidestick priority pb
B) By disconnecting AP.
C) By deflecting opposite sidestick to override.
D) By turning off PRIM 1.

79 Question 19 (Multiple Choice)

You have moved the flaps lever from 1 to 0. On the E/WD you see A LOCK flashing green. What does it
mean?
A) The slats cannot retract because the associated SFCC has failed. The flaps are not affected.
B) The slats cannot retract because the AOA is too high. The flaps are not affected.
C) The slats and flaps are locked in CONFIG 1+F because your airspeed in too low.
D) Slats and flaps are locked due to over speed.

80 Question 20 (Multiple Choice)

When does Pitch Normal Law change from Ground to Flight Mode?
A) At > 200
B) At VR on takeoff.
C) At > 100
D) Over a period of several seconds after lift off

O
81 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)
What purpos of the inner tank collector boxes?
A) The collector boxes receive fuel transferred from the oter tanks
B) The collector boxes maintain a reservoir of approximately 1,000 lb (450 kg) of fuel and are the
ource of fuel to the APU.
C) The collector boxes maintain a reservoir of approximately 2,200 lb (1000 kg) of fuel and prevent
fuel starvation to the pumps during negative g maneuvers.
D) The collector boxes prevent fuel tank surge during refuelling.

82 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

Which statement is FALSE concerning the ECAM FUEL S/ D display?
A) In the event of a fuel imbalance of more than 6,600 lb. between the left and right sides, the fuel
quantities for the inner and outer tanks pulse amber.
B) If an inner tank fuel quantity reaches a low level, the inner tank fuel indications are amber.
C) If any tank contains unusable fuel, the FOB indication is displayed with an amber partial box.
D) If fuel in the outer or trim tank is unusable, it is displayed in an amber box.

83 Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following is most TRUE regarding the inner tanks?
A) The inner tanks contain two main fuel pumps and an identical standby pump.
B) The inner tanks contain two main fuel pumps.
C) The inner tanks contain one main fuel pump and an identical standby pump.
D) The inner tanks contain two main fuel pumps and two identical standby pumps.

84 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following is most TRUE regarding the trim tank?
A) A trim line allows for trim tank fulling and transfer of fuel between the trim tank and the center
and inner wing tanks.
B) A trim line allows for trim tank fuelling and transfer of fuel between the trim tank and the outer
and inner wing tanks.
C) A trim line allows for trim tank fulling and transfer of fuel between the trim tank and the center
and outer wing tanks.
D) A trim line allows for trim tank fuelling and transfer of fuel between the trim tank and the center
tank.
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85 Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

What tanks is the fuel AFT XFR pumped out of?
A) CTR tank and OUTR tank
B) OUTR tanks.
C) Trim
D) INR tanks and CTR tank.

86 Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

When is Forward trim transfer initiated?
A) When outer wing tanks are empty.
B) When the stand-by pump operates.
C) When the center tank becomes empty.
D) When descending through FL245

87 Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

Which fuel tanks can be partially emptied with pump pressure by the Jettison System?
A) Both INR tanks and the CTR tank.
B) All tanks.
C) CTR and T tank.
D) Outer tanks.

88 Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

What is the purpose of the Surge Tanks?
A) Fuel that is vented into the surge tanks drains back to the center tank.
B) Fuel that is vented into the surge tanks drains back to the outer tanks.
C) Fuel that is vented into the surge tanks is vented overboard through the Overpressure Relief Port.
D) Ventilation pipes in each fuel tank open to the surge tanks to allow for pressure equalization
and limit fuel expansion without spillage.

89 Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

Which is TRUE regarding the WING X
A) The crossfeed valve opens automatically during emergency electrical configuration.
B) The croosfeed valve is used to transfer fuel between inner wing tanks.
C) The crossfeed valve is used to transfer fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks.
D) The crossfeed valve is used to transfer fuel from the trim tank to the wing tanks.

90 Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the center tank?
A) Fuel from the center tank cannot be transferred.
B) Fuel from the center tank can only be transferred to and from the trim tank.
C) Fuel from the center tank can be transferred to the inner tanks, and to and from the trim tank.
D) Fuel from the center tank can be transferred to the outer tanks, and to and from the trim tank.

91 Question 11 (Multiple Choice)

Which statement regarding the surge tanks is TRUE
A) Fuel that is vented into the surge tanks is drained back into the center tank.
B) Fuel that is vented into the surge tanks drains back into the outer tanks.
C) Fuel that is vented into the surge tanks drains back into the inner tanks.
D) Fuel that is vented into the surge tanks below the standpipe is vented overboard.
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92 Question 12 (Multiple Choice)

Which statement concerning trim tank transfer is FALSE?
A) Normal operation is automatic, but the crew can manually select a forward fuel
B) When the aircraft is in cruise, the system optimizes the CG position to increase fuel economy by
reducing drag.
C) The system transfer fuel to the center tank (forward transfer) or from the center tank
D) The Fuel Control and Monitoring Computer (FCMC) calculates the aircraft's CG and compares it to
a target value.

93 Question 13 (Multiple Choice)

Which tanks have overpressure protection?
A) Each main tank of the aircraft.
B) Each wing surge tank, in the trim surge tank, and between the center and the right outer tanks.
C) Each wing surge tank, in the trim surge tank, and between the center and the right inner tanks.
D) Each wing surge tank, in the trim surge tank, and between the center and the left inner tanks.

94 Question 14 (Multiple Choice)

Normally, where can you check the fuel quantity of each tank?
A) On FAP (Forward Attendant Panel).
B) On ECAM fuel page.
C) On ECAM engine page.
D) On ECAM upper display

95 8Question 15 (Multiple Choice)

In the event of a FWD APU pump failure, what will happen?
A) The APU will suck fuel from the APU Auxiliary fuel tank.
B) The APU will stop operating, maintenance action required.
C) The CTR pump will automatically start in the event FWD APU pump failure
D) The pump will automatically start in the event of the FWD APU pump failure.

HYDRALIC

1 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

What are the conditions under which each electric hydraulic pump operates automatically?
A) The BLUE electric pump operates automatically when operating the cargo doors
B) The YELLOW pump operates automatically if the flaps are being retracted following an ENG failure
C) The GREEN electric pump runs automatically to assist with gear retraction following an engine
failure
D) The GREEN electric pump runs automatically to assist in flap retraction following an engine failure.

2 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

What is the source of hydraulic pressure for ALTERNATE brakes?
A) YELLOW
B) GREEN system.
C) BLUE
D) EMER GEN.

3 Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

What is normal hydraulic power provided by?
A) Engine driven pumps for green and blue system, electrical pump for yellow system.
B) Engine driven pumps for all system
C) Electrical pumps for blue and yellow system, electrical pump for green system.
D) Engine driven pumps for green and yellow system, electrical pump for blue system.
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4 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

The GREEN hydraulic system provides pressure to which component?
A) Parking Brake
B) BCM.
C) Engine 1 Reverse
D) N/W steering

5 Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

How is hydraulic fluid transferred between the GREEN and YELLOW systems?
A) Fluid cannot be transferred between hydraulic systems.
B) By use of the WING X FEED pb SW.
C) Via the LAND RECOVERY pb sw prior to gear extension.
D) Only on the ground via the hydraulic service panel in the main gear wheel well.

6 Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

What components of the hydraulic system does the priority valve isolate to protect pressure for flight
controls and normal braking?
A) Ground spoilers and anti-skid system.
B) Nosewheel steering, landing gear and alternate brakes.
C) Flap and slat normal power.
D) Nosewheel steering, landing gear and emergency generator.

7 Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following statements concerning the RAT is FALSE?
A) The RAT can be manually deployed from the overhead panel.
B) When the RAT pressurizes the GREEN system, the aileron, elevator, and spoiler servo controls
operate normally.
C) The RAT flow varies between 15% and 45% of an engine-driven pump flow capability, depending
on the aircraft's
A) The RAT can only be stowed when the aircraft is on the ground.

8 Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

The RAT hydraulic pump powers which system?
A) The YELLOW
B) The BLUE
C) The GREEN
D) There is no RAT hydraulic pump, only an electrical generator.

9 Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

What is the normal operating pressure of the GREEN hydraulic system?
A) 3,000 psi.
B) 2,500 psi.
C) 5,000 psi.
D) 1,000

10 Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following is TRUE concerning the RAT?
A) The RAT deploys automatically in the event of failure of either engine or a low level in the GREEN
or BLUE or YELLOW
B) The RAT deploys automatically in the event of dual engine failure or a low level in the GREEN and
YELLOW or GREEN and BLUE
C) The RAT deploys automatically in the event of dual engine failure or a low level in the GREEN or
BLUE or YELLOW
D) The RAT deploys automatically in the event of failure of either engine or a low level in the GREEN
and YELLOW or GREEN and BLUE
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11 Question 11 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the Leak Measurement Valves?
A) They are for ground test purposes only.
B) The yellow valve is open during cargo door operation.
C) They shut off hydraulic supply to the primary
D) They are inhibited above 100 kts.

12 8Question 12 (Multiple Choice)

Why are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized?
A) Because the reservoir is also used as an accumulator.
B) To prevent ice building up in
C) To avoid reservoir implosion.
D) To avoid foam development.

13 Question 13 (Multiple Choice)

What is TRUE regarding the GREEN hydraulic system?
A) When the RAT pressurizes the GREEN system, the aileron, elevator, and spoiler servo controls
operate normally.
B) The GREEN system is normally powered by the Engine 1 hydraulic pump and backed up by Engine
2 standby pump.
C) An electric pump is manually selected ON prior to takeoff to support gear retraction.
D) If one engine fails, the electric pump runs automatically in flight, for 25 secs, when the landing
gear lever iS selected up.

14 Question 14 (Multiple Choice)

What is the capacity of the electric pumps vs. the engine driven pumps?
A) 50%
B) 18
C) 25
D) 100%

15 Question 15 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the electric hydraulic pumps?
A) If an electric pump is selected ON using the ON pb, the pump is commanded to run.
B) On each system, the electric pump flow is about 50% of the engine-driven pump flow.
C) Pushing the ON pb again returns the pump to AUTO or STBY mode (lights out) as appropriate. 8
D) Each electric pump can also automatically activate under certain conditions particular to each
Pump

16 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

What happens if WING A/I valve selected ON during ground operation?
A) Wing anti-ice valves open until WING A/I pb sw selected OFF.
B) Wing anti-ice test (valves open for 30 seconds, then close).
C) MASTER WARN light illuminates.
D) Wing anti-ice system is disabled on ground.

17 8Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

Which statement is TRUE regarding the rain repellent system?
A) Use of windshield wipers in combination with rain repellent is prohibited.
B) In moderate to heavy rain, the flight crew can spray a rain repellent liquid on the windshield to
improve visibilty
C) In moderate to heavy icing, the flight crew can spray a rain repellent liquid on the windshield to
improve deicing.
D) Use of the rain repellent system is permissible during ground operations.
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18 Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

When the aircraft is on the ground, the flight crew can initiate a wing anti ice test by turning the
system ON. How long will the test take?
A) 45 seconds.
B) 60 seconds.
C) 25 sec
D) 30 sec

19 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

What is the position of the Engine A/I valve if engine is shutdown?
A) Impossible to determine.
B) Closed, regardless of ENG ANTI-ICE pb sw position
C) Depends on ENG ANTI-ICE pb sw position
D) Open, regardless of ENG ANTI-ICE pb sw position

20 8Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

What air source is used for engine anti ice?
A) No air source is used. The anti ice is electric.
B) Pneumatic air system.
C) APU bleed.
D) An independent air bleed from its own high pressure compressor.

21 Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

How are the four outboard leading-edge slats of each wing anti-iced?
A) Mechanically.
B) Electrically
C) They are not.
D) With Hot air.

22 Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

When does WINDOW HEAT operate
A) When ENG ANTI-ICE is ON
B) When at least one engine is running or aircraft is in flight.
C) When flaps are set to CONF 1+F
D) Whenever BAT BUS 1+2

23 8Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

When does ICE NOT DET memo ECAM
A) When WING A/I or ENG A/I selected ON and no ice detected on probe after 30 second delay.
B) When WING A/l or ENG A/I selected ON and no ice detected on probe after 130 second delay.
C) When WING A/I or ENG A/I selected ON and no ice detected on probe after 60 second delay.
D) When WING A/l or ENG A/I selected ON and no ice detected on probe after 240 second delay.

24 Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

When does SEVERE ICE DETECTED
A) Inflight >1,500 ft AGL.
B) TAT > 10°C with ice accretion of higher than normal rate.
C) WING A/l pb is ON
D) Ice Detection pb sw OFF.

25 Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

What power setting is used for the windshield heating on the ground?
A) No heating on the ground.
B) The windshield heating operates at low power on the ground.
C) The windshield heating operates at high power on the ground.
D) The windshield has only one power setting.
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26 8Question 11 (Multiple Choice)

When PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb sw is in AUTO, what probes are not heated on the ground?
A) All probes are heated.
B) Only Capt.'s probes are heated.
C) No probes are heated until aircraft
D) TAT probe.

27 Question 12 (Multiple Choice)

When does window heating come on?
A) As soon as external power is connected to the aircraft.
B) Automatically when OAT is below +15°C.
C) When batteries are set to on.
D) Manually when the flight crew switches ON the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton switch or
automatically when at least one engine is running or in flight.

28 Question 13 (Multiple Choice)

What does electrical heating not protect
A) VHF antennas
B) Total Air Temperature probes
C) Angle-Of-Attack probes
D) Pitot probes and static probes.

29 Question 14 (Multiple Choice)

When does the amber FAULT light in the WING ANTI-ICE pb sw come on?
A) Electrical power is lost to the WING ANTI-ICE pb sw
B) The position of the anti-ice control valve is not in the required position, or low pressure is detected
C) There is a bleed leak in the wing anti
-

D) There is an overtemp in the wing anti-ice duct

30 Question 15 (Multiple Choice)

What is TRUE regarding the use of ENG ANTI-ICE?
A) When an engine anti-ice valve is open, the N1 or EPR limit for that engine is automatically
increased, and the idle N1 or EPR is automatically reduced.
B) When an engine anti-ice valve is open, the N1 or EPR limit for that engine is automatically
increased, and the idle N1 or EPR is automatically increased.
C) When an engine anti-ice valve is open, the N1 or EPR limit for that engine is automatically reduced,
and the idle N1 or EPR is automatically increased.
D) When an engine anti-ice valve is open, the N1 or EPR limit for that engine is automatically
reduced, and the idle N1 or EPR iS automatically reduced.

31 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

When is 'T.O. INHIBIT active
A) Takeoff flaps set to 1,000 ft AGL.
B) Takeoff thrust set to 1,500 ft AGL.
C) Takeoff flaps set to 1,500 ft AGL.
D) Takeoff thrust set to 800 ft AGL.

32 8Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

What does the CAVALRY CHARGE audio
A) SELCAL
B) Mode reversion.
C) AP Disconnect.
D) Cabin Crew requests entry.
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33 Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

You are solving a level 2 failure (amber caution) when the FWC notices a level 3 failure (red warning).
What happens?
A) After finishing your level 2 failure, the level 3 failure
B) On A330 we only know level 1 and level 2 failures.
C) The level 3 failure is put on top of of the list
D) The level 3 warning is put in the queue below the level 2 fault.

34 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

Which statement is TRUE?
A) If a PFDU fails, the system automatically transfers the PFD to the upper ECAM DU.
B) If a PFDU fails, the system automatically transfers the PFD to the pilot's MCDU.
C) If a PFDU fails, the system automatically transfers the PFD to the NDU.
D) If a PFDU fails, the system automatically transfers the PFD to the lower ECAM DU.

35 Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

An ECAM Warning is enunciated by which of the following?
A) A Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC).
B) The Cavalry charge.
C) A single chime.
D) A continuous horn.

36 Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

When is "LAND INHIBIT" active?
A) 1,500 ft AGL until 80 kts.
B) 800 ft AGL until 80 kts
C) 1,000 ft AGL until 100 kts.
D) 800 ft AGL until 100 kts.

37 8Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

In normal operation, which of these statements is not TRUE?
A) DMC 1 supplies data to the Captain's PFD and ND.
B) DMC 3 supplies data to the upper and lower ECAM DU.
C) DMC 4 supplies information to the ACMS.
D) DMC 2 supplies data to the First Officer's PFD and ND.

38 Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

Both ECAM DUs have failed. Both pilots can:
A) Use the ECAM/ND XFR switch to display the E/WD page on the NDU.
B) Use the ECAM/ND XFR switch to display the E/WD page on the PFDU.
C) Use the PFD/ND XFR switch to display the E/WD page on the NDU.
D) Use the ECAM/ND XFR switch to display the E/D page on the MCDU

39 Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

Which condition will not trigger a T.O. CONFIG warning when takeoff power is set?
A) Flaps/slats not in takeoff range.
B) Hot brakes.
C) Pitch trim not in takeoff range.
D) Cockpit door unlocked.

40 Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

What will cause a "CHECK HDG" message on the PFDs
A) Heading discrepancy of at least 3°.
B) Heading discrepancy of at least 8°.
C) Heading discrepancy of at least 5
D) Heading discrepancy of at least 10°.
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41 Question 11 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following is TRUE concerning the Central Maintenance System (CMS)?
A) The CMS automatically reports system failures through the ATSU system.
B) Class 1 failures are not indicated to the flight crew.
C) Class 1 failures are indicated to the flight crew through the ECAM, panel annunciator light, or
instrument flags.
D) There are three fully redundant Central Maintenance Computers (CMCs).

42 Question 12 (Multiple Choice)

What is the indication of a secondary failure on the ECAM
A) The Flight Warning Computer initiates a triple click for one minute.
B) The DU identifies a secondary failure by putting a box around the title of the affected system.
C) The DU identifies a secondary failure by putting a partial box around the title of the affected
system
D) The DU identifies a secondary failure by putting a star in front of the title of the affected system.

43 Question 13 (Multiple Choice)

When does the SD display the ENG system page?
A) From Engine Takeoff thrust to Flaps Up.
B) From Landing gear extended (below 15,000 ft Alt) to last engine shutdown.
C) From Engine Takeoff thrust to lift off
D) From Engine Takeoff thrust to 1,000 AGL.

44 8Question 14 (Multiple Choice)

The ECAM display uses a color code that indicates the importance of the failure or the indication.
What statement is correct?
A) RED: The configuration or failure requires immediate action.
B) GREEN: The item is not operating normally.
C) WHITE: Maintenance only.
D) AMBER: The flight crew can relax.

45 Question 15 (Multiple Choice)

What will cause a "CHECK ALT" message on
A) Discrepancy between the altitude values greater than 250 ft when the flight crew selects a QNH
different from STD, or 500 ft when the flight crew selects a QNH STD.
B) Discrepancy between the altitude values greater than 100 ft when the flight crew selects a QNH
different from STD, or 200 ft when the flight crew selects a QNH STD.
C) Discrepancy between the altitude values greater than 150 ft when the flight crew selects a QNH
different from STD, or 300 ft when the flight crew selects a QNH STD.
D) Discrepancy between the altitude values greater than 50 ft when the flight crew selects a QNH
different from STD, or 100 ft when the flight crew selects a QNH STD.

46 Question 16 (Multiple Choice)

Which of the following is not a Flight Warning Computer (FWC) function?
A) SELCAL
B) Landing speed increments.
C) Radio height callouts.
D) Decision height callouts.

47 Question 17 (Multiple Choice)

What is an independent fault?
A) failure that affects an isolated system or item of equipment without degrading the performance of
others in the aircraft
B) A failure that has no effect at all
C) A failure that has an effect on a single components system.
D) A failure that is indicated by a white box surrounding the caution.
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48 Question 18 (Multiple Choice)

Which condition cannot be extinguished by pushing the CLR key or pushing the MASTER WARN light
A) ENG FIRE
B) EXCESSIVE
C) Overspeed
D) ENG FAIL

49 Question 19 (Multiple Choice)

What will cause a "CHECK ATT" message on
A) Discrepancy of at least 3° between the attitude values, pitch and/or roll.
B) Discrepancy of at least 5° between the attitude values, pitch and/or roll.
C) Discrepancy of at least 10° between the attitude values, pitch and/or roll.
D) Discrepancy of at least 15° between the attitude values, pitch and/or roll.

50 8Question 20 (Multiple Choice)

What happens if the upper ECAM DU fails, or is switched off?
A) The E/WD page automatically replaces the SD page on the lower ECAM DU.
B) The upper page automatically replaces the First Officer's MCDU page.
C) The upper ECAM DU remains off until DMC SWITCHING is selected to MANUAL.
D) The upper ECAM DU page information is no longer available.

INST/NAV

1 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

What is the definition of VLS?
A) Stall speed
B) Lowest selectable speed (top of amber band on speed scale).
C) Lowest selectable flap speed for next flap setting.
D) Stall speed +5 kts at 1g.

2 8Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

When does LDG INHIBIT appear on E/WD?
A) Descending through 1,000
B) Descending through 800 ft RA.
C) Descending through 800 ft AGL.
D) Descending through 1,000 ft AGL.

3 Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

What is Cross Track Error (XTE) and how is it displayed?
A) Distance in nautical miles L or R of course.
B) Difference between heading and track in degrees.
C) Distance in statute miles L or R of course.
D) Distance in feet L or R of course.

4 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

When does the Radio Altitude (RA) appear on the PFD?
A) Below 3,000 ft RA.
B) Below 2,500 ft RA.
C) Below 2,000 ft AGL.
D) Below 2,500 ft AGL

5 8Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

When does TO INHIBIT disappear on E/WD
A) 1,000 ft AGL or 2 minutes airborne.
B) 1,500 ft AGL or 3 minutes airborne.
C) 1,500 ft AGL or 2 minutes airborne.
D) 1,000 ft AGL or 3 minutes airborne.
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6 8Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

What is the definition of Alpha Protection Speed (VaPROT)?
A) Speed = to AOA (Angle of Attack) at which a protection becomes active in direct law (top of black
and amber band).
B) Speed = to AOA (Angle of Attack) at which a protection becomes active inalternate law (top of
black and amber band).
C) Speed = to AOA (Angle of Attack) at which a protection becomes active in normal law (top of black
and amber band).
D) Speed = to max AOA reached in pitch normal law (top of red strip).

7 Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

What does the speed trend arrow indicates?
A) Predicted speed in 10 secs if aircraft is accelerating /decelerating at constant rate.
B) Predicted speed in 15 secs if aircraft is accelerating /decelerating at constant rate.
C) Predicted speed in 20 secs if aircraft is accelerating /decelerating at constant rate.
D) Predicted speed in 5 secs if aircraft is accelerating /decelerating at constant rate.

8 Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

What is V2 (Takeoff Safety Speed)?
A) A speed depicted by a magenta triangle that is automatically inserted into the MCDU.
B) A speed depicted by an amber triangle that is manually inserted into the MCDU.
C) A speed depicted by an amber triangle that is automatically inserted into the MCDU.
D) A speed depicted by a magenta triangle that is manually inserted into the MCDU.

9 Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

How is Stall Warning Speed (VSW) displayed?
A) Stall warning airspeed (VSW) is displayed as the top of the amber and black strip along the
airspeed scale when the flight controls are not in normal law.
B) Stall warning airspeed (VSW) is displayed as the top of the red and black strip along the airspeed
scale when the flight controls are in normal law.
C) Stall warning airspeed (VSW) is displayed as the top of the amber and black strip along the
airspeed scale when the flight controls are in normal law.
D) Stall warning airspeed (VSW) is displayed as the top of the red and black strip along the airspeed
scale when the flight controls are not in normal law.

10 Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

How is Radio Altitude displayed below Decision Height (DH)?
A) When the aircraft reaches the DH, the letters DH are displayed in red and flash for a few seconds
then remain steady.
B) When the aircraft reaches the DH, the letters DH are displayed in red and flash until touchdown.
C) When the aircraft reaches the DH, the letters DH are displayed in amber and flash for a few
seconds then remain steady.
D) When the aircraft reaches the DH, the letters DH are displayed in amber and flash until
Touchdown

11 Question 11 (Multiple Choice)

When will the barometric Altimeter Setting flash?
A) STD is selected and the aircraft is below the local transition level.
B) STD is selected when below 3,500 ft RA and a transition level is not available.
C) Above the local transition altitude in climb and STD has been selected.
D) Below the local transition altitude in climb and STD has not been selected.
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12 Question 12 (Multiple Choice)

How is the target speed displayed in FU
A) Cyan triangle.
B) Magenta square.
C) Magenta triangle.
D) Cyan square.

13 Question 13 (Multiple Choice)

What is the function of the Ground Roll Guidance Command Bar?
A) Provide yaw commands to keep aircraft on runway centreline when on ground or <30 ft RA.
B) Provides guidance to keep wings level during crosswind takeoffs.
C) Provides guidance to keep taxi speed at no more than 30 kts.
D) Provides aural warnings when aircraft drifts from centerline.

14 Question 14 (Multiple Choice)

What is VREF
A) Speed used for normal final approach equal to 1.05 VS for configuration FULL.
B) Speed used for normal final approach equal to 1.1 VS for configuration FULL.
C) Speed used for normal final approach equal to 1.23 VS for configuration FULL.
D) Speed used for normal final approach equal to 1.3 VS for configuration FULL.

15 Question 15 (Multiple Choice)

When will STATUS page appear automatically during descent?
A) When altimeter set through transition level or when slats extended.
B) When altimeter set during descent check or when flats extended.
C) When altimeter set during descent check or when slats extended.
D) When altimeter set through transition level or when flaps extended.

16 Question 16 (Multiple Choice)

When is the altitude alert NOT inhibited?
A) After glide slope capture
B) When the slats are out with the landing gear selected down.
C) When the landing gear is locked down.
D) When flying away from an altitude selected in the FCU altitude window

17 Question 17 (Multiple Choice)

What is the Flight Path Angle (FPA)?
A) Difference between the horizon and the AOA.
B) Difference between the AOA and the FPV (Flight Path Vector) or "bird".
C) Difference between the horizon and the FPV (Flight Path Vector) or “bird”
-

D) Difference between the heading and track.

18 8Question 18 (Multiple Choice)

How are Approach Minimums alerted?
A) If the MDA has been entered via the MCDU, the current aircraft altitude indication pulses blue
when the aircraft descends below the MDA.
B) If the MDA has been entered via the MCDU, the current aircraft altitude indication pulses green
when the aircraft descends below the MDA.
C) If the MDA has been entered via the MCDU, the current aircraft altitude indication pulses red
when the aircraft descends below the MDA.
D) If the MDA has been entered via the MCDU, the current aircraft altitude indication pulses amber
when the aircraft descends below the MDA.
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19 Question 19 (Multiple Choice)

What is the definition of Alpha Max Speed (VaMAX)?
A) It represents the speed corresponding to the maximum angle of attack that the aircraft can attain
in alternatel law.
B) It represents the speed corresponding to the maximum angle of attack that the aircraft can attain
in normal law.
C) It represents the speed corresponding to the mimimum angle of attack that the aircraft can attain
in normal law.
D) It represents the speed corresponding to the maximum airspeed that the aircraft can attain in
normal law

20 Question 20 (Multiple Choice)

How is Decision Speed (V1) represented on the airspeed scale?
A) Blue symbol (numeral one) that the crew inserts manually via the MCDU.
B) Blue symbol (numeral one) that the FMGEC inserts automatically after TOGW is calculated.
C) Green symbol (numeral one) that the crew inserts manually via the MCDU.
D) Green symbol (numeral one) that the FMGEC inserts automatically after TOGW is calculated.

21 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

With A/SKD N/W STRG switch OFF what powers the
A) The brakes are not powered with the A/SKD N/W STRG switch OFF.
B) YELLOW hydraulic system pressure, as shown on the brake pressure indicator.
C) BLUE hydraulic system pressure, as shown on the brake pressure indicator.
D) GREEN hydraulic system pressure, as shown on the brake pressure indicator.

22 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

During landing, when is the Nose Wheel Steering effective with rudder pedals?
A) Possible below 100 kts, the steering angle is a function of the aircraft speed.
B) Not possible.
C) Independent from the aircraft speed.
D) Only possible during take off.

23 Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

In case of green hydraulic system loss, what is the correct statement?
A) Gear extension is done by gravity, nose wheel steering and braking are unaffected.
B) Gear extension is done by gravity, nose wheel steering is lost but braking is unaffected.
C) Gear extension is not possible.
D) Gear extension is done using the BLUE hydraulic system, nose wheel steering is lost.

24 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

Why must the parking brake be set during preliminary cockpit inspection?
A) To allow charging of the brake sytem accumulators.
B) To prevent inadvertent control surface movement.
C) To enable arming of the autobrake sytem.
D) To allow proper check of brake wear indicators during exterior inspection.

25 Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

Rudder Pedal NWS effectiveness decreases to O° when the aircraft is above what speed?
A) Airspeed > 100 kts on takeoff.
B) Airspeed > 150 kts on takeoff.
C) Airspeed > 120 kts on takeoff.
D) Airspeed > 80 kts on takeoff.
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26 8Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

What is the maximum tire speed?
A) 190 kts
B) 200 kts
C) 250 kts
D) 204 kts.

27 Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

What does the amber L/G CT indication on the ECAM wheel page mean?
A) Normal gear operation not available.
B) LGCIU 1 and 2 u/s
C) Disagreement between landing gear position and gear lever position.
D) Landing gear control inoperative.

28 Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

When selecting MAX mode before takeoff what triggers autobrake engagement a during takeoff?
A) Autobrake system senses ground spoiler deployment (speed > 40 kts).
B) Pilot moving Speed Brake Lever to Up.
C) Thrust levers going to Idle.
D) Thrust levers going into Reverse.

29 Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

What are the maximum speeds for landing gear extension/retraction?
A) 300 kts/ 0.55 Mach.
B) 250 kts/ 0.55 Mach.
C) 250 kts/ 0.65 Mach.
D) 350 kts/ 0.55 Mach.

30 8Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

Can you arm the autobrake system without green hydraulic pressure?
A) Yes.
B) No
C) Yes but only if the speedbrake is disarmed.
D) Only LOW can be selected.

31 8Question 11 (Multiple Choice)

What supplies hydraulic pressure for parking brake?
A) Pressure from the GREEN system or from the accumulators through the dual shuttle valve.
B) Pressure from the YELLOW system through
C) Pressure from the GREEN system through the BSCU.
D) Pressure from the BLUE system or from the accumulators through the dual shuttle valve.

32 Question 12 (Multiple Choice)

Why is the nose wheel steering inoperative after gravity extension?
A) No hydraulic pressure available for nose wheel steering.
B) Nose wheel steering is inoperative
C) The gear level is not down.
D) Nose landing gear doors are still open.

33 Question 13 (Multiple Choice)

Why will the three red UNLK lights come on immediately if the gear lever is moved?
A) They indicate that the respective gear is no longer down and locked.
B) They indicate that the brakes are hot.
C) They indicate gear doors are unlocked.
D) They indicate that the respective gear is not locked in the selected position.
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34 Question 14 (Multiple Choice)

What is the maximum speed for landing gear gravity extension?
A) 250 kts.
B) 200 kts
C) 220 kts.
D) 300 kts

35 8Question 15 (Multiple Choice)

What happens when LDG GEAR GRVTY EXTN selector is moved
A) Main and nose gear extend by gravity.
B) Main and nose gear doors unlock mechanically.
C) Brakes now powered by
D) The Cutout Valve closes to isolate BLUE system.

36 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

What does the BEACON switch operate?
A) All flashing lights
B) The emergency beacon in case of ditching.
C) The two flashing red lights, one on top and one on bottom of the fuselage.
D) The wingtip beacons.

37 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

What does the NAV & LOGO switch in position
A) The first set of navigation lights. LOGO lights are on when the flaps are extended at 15° or more.
B) The first set of navigation lights. LOGO lights are on when the main gear struts are compressed or
the flaps are extended at 15° or more.
C) NAV and LOGO lights activate when aircraft is in flight.
D) The first set of navigation lights

38 Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

With the EMER EXIT LT selector at ARM, cabin emergency lights come on automatically if:
A) Emergency light switch on the FAP is switched to off.
B) Lavatory smoke detectors detect smoke.
C) Cabin lights are switched off.
D) DC ESS BUS fails, or normal aircraft electrical power fails.

39 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

What is the function of the WING switch on the EXT LT panel?
A) The wing tip position lights are turned ON/OFF.
B) Two single beam lights illuminate the wing trailing edge and the engine intake.
C) Two single beam lights illuminate the wing leading edge and the engine intake.
D) The wing tip strobe lights are turned ON/OFF.

40 Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

When will the TAXI and TO lights automatically turn off with switch in TO position?
A) When landing gear is retracted.
B) When flaps are retracted.
C) Only when switch is turned OFF.
D) When slats are retracted.

41 Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

What is required to activate PWS windshear warning if radar transceiver selector switch is OFF?
A) PWS selector switch in ON.
B) Aircraft below 2,500 ft AGL
C) PWS selector switch in AUTO.
D) No windshear warning possible.
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42 Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

When is "RETARD" announcement made if A/T active and one AP in LAND mode?
A) 20 ft RA
B) 10 ft RA
C) 30 ft RA
D) At main gear touchdown.

43 8Question 3 (Multiple Choice)

What does a HDG flag in the DDRMI mean?
A) The GPS signal has been lost.
B) The Flight director
C) The FMGEC has failed.
D) The heading signal from the supplying ADIRS is not valid.

44 Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

When is TA automatically selected in flight?
A) During final approach below 1,500 ft.
B) During engine failure.
C) During windshear warning/alert
D) During Resolution Advisory (RA)

45 8Question 5 (Multiple Choice)

What is the minimum number of satellites tracked by GPS MMR required to enter NAV mode?
A) 8
B) 6
C) 4
D) 3

46 Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

When are reactive windshear warnings active on takeoff?
A) 3 secs after T/O up to 1,000 ft RA
B) 3 secs after T/O up to 1,300 ft RA.
C) 5 secs after T/O up to 1,300 ft RA.
D) 5 secs after T/O up to 1,000 ft RA.

47 8Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

When is a navigation accuracy check not required?
A) When on final approach.
B) When GPS is primary means of navigation
C) When in TRUE heading mode
D) When GPS PRIMARY is displayed on PROG page

48 Question 8 (Multiple Choice)

Where can you check GPS status?
A) MCDU DATA key- Position monitor key 1L.
B) MCDU DATA key- IRS monitor key 2L.
C) MCDU DATA key- GPS monitor key 3L.
D) ADIRS light in overhead panel.

49 Question 9 (Multiple Choice)

When is "RETARD" announcement made if A/T active and AP disconnected?
A) 30 ft RA
B) At main gear touchdown.
C) 10 ft RA
D) 20 ft RA
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50 Question 10 (Multiple Choice)

In the WX/TURB mode how is turbulence area displayed on the ND?
A) In magenta, if within 40 NM.
B) In magenta, if within 80 NM.
C) In red, if within 40 NM.
D) In amber, if within 40 NM.

51 Question 11 (Multiple Choice)

During FMGC preflight, how are stored WPTs, RTEs, RWYs and navaids erased if necessary?
A) On the STATUS page, select inactive, then active, data base.
B) Enter a new route on the MCDU.
C) Delete Company Routes from MCDU.
D) Turn of, then turn on again, all IRs

52 Question 12 (Multiple Choice)

What information does the IR portion of the ADIRS provide to the various aircraft computers?
A) Barometric altitude.
B) Flight Path Vector (FPV)
C) GPS position
D) Mach Number.

53 Question 13 (Multiple Choice)

What is the altitude tolerance for PFD altimeters on the ground?
A) + 50 ft
B) + 25 ft
C) + 75 ft
D) + 100 ft

54 8Question 14 (Multiple Choice) on PFD of Outer Marker (OM)?

What is the indication
A) White OM
B) Amber OM
C) Blue OM
D) Red OM

55 Question 15 (Multiple Choice)

How can ISIS (Integrated Standby Instrument System) be re-aligned?
A) Pulling ISIS C/B on overhead panel.
B) ATT RST pb on ISIS
C) Reset pb on EFIS panel
D) Selecting ADR 3 on switching panel.

56 8Question 16 (Multiple Choice)

On the ADIRS panel on the overhead panel, what does an ON BAT
A) Time to change batteries.
B) Comes on amber when one of aircraft batteries is below 25.5 volts.
C) Comes on amber when one or more IRS is supplied only by its own internal batteries.
D) Comes on amber when one or more IRS is supplied only by the aircraft battery.

57 Question 17 (Multiple Choice)

ATT HDG switch has been selected to CAPT ON 3. What supplies IR information to PFD/ND 1 and
ATC1?
A) ADIRU 3
B) GPS 3
C) Battery 3
D) ADR 3
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58 Question 18 (Multiple Choice)

Where can the ILS 1 indication
A) Left side PFD and right side ND.
B) Left side PFD and the left side ND.
C) Right side PFD and right side ND.
D) Right side PFD and the left side ND.

59 Question 19 (Multiple Choice)

Where do you activate the Predictive Windshear System (PWS)?
A) On the MCDU
B) On the PWS panel
C) On the weather radar control panel.
D) On the RPM

60 Question 20 (Multiple Choice)

Where do the Air Data Modules (ADM) supply pressure information come from?
A) All pilot probes and static ports
B) The captain and first officer pilot probes and static
C) The pilot probes only
D) The static ports only
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ADDITIONAL QUESTIONARE

The Flap Load Relief System automatically retracts the flaps to the next higher postion when the
speed exceeds what value?
A) VFE + 2.5 kts
B) VFE + 5 kts
C) VFE + 10 kts
D) 180 kts

2 What drives the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer

A) Electrical motor driven by AC BUS 1
B) Electrical motor driven by AC ESS BUS
C) Mechanical screwack driven by GREEN hybdraulic system
D) Mechanical screwack driven by BLUE or YELLOW hydraulic system

3 What is the rate of Rudder Trim adjustment with slats/flap extended?

A) 3 degree per second
B) 1 degree per second for 3 seconds, then 1.5 degree per second
C) 1 degree per second for 1.5 seconds, then 3 degree per second above 1.5 second
D) 1.5 degree per second

4 Which statements is TRUE regarding the Fuel Control and Monitoring Computers (FCMCs)
A) The FCMCs control transfers of fuel to and from the outer tanks for CG control
B) The FCMCs measure the fuel quantity and indicate it on the external fueling panel
C) The FCMCs control transfers of fuel to the inner tank for engine feed
D) The FCMCs control transfers of fuel to and from the center tank for CG control

5 In case of green resevoir LO LEVEL the following hydraulic valave is closed automatically
A) All leak measurement valve
B) Both engine green hydraulic fire shut of valve
C) Engine 2 fire shut off valve
D) Engine 1 fire shut off valve

6 What is the capacity of elec pump vs engine driven pump

A) 100%
B) 50%
C) 18%
D) 25%

7 Which flight condition will NOT cause the barometric altimeter setting to flash?
A) STD is selected and the aircraft is below the local transition level
B) STD is selected when below 2500 RA and transition level is not available
C) When the aircraft is above the local transition altitude in clm and STD as not been selected
D) When the crew has selected METRIC ALT on FCU

8 What cause the side slip indicator to turn blue?

A) Any flap config except 0 or EPR > 1.3 and difference > 0.25
B) Any flap config or EPR>1.3 and difference >0.25
C) Any flap config or EPR>1.5 and difference >0.30
D) Any flap config except 0 or EPR>1.5 and difference >0.30

9 What conditions must be met to open safety valve that allow GREEN system pressure to operate
landing gear
A) Landing gear lever ot down
B) LDG GEAR GRVTY EXTN selector in reset
C) Main landing gear on ground
D) Airspeed < 280 kts
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10 When are reactive windshear warnings active on final app?

A) AGL
B) From 1300 ft RA to 100 ft RA
C) From 1000 ft RA to 100 ft RA
D) From 1000 ft RA to 50 ft RA

11 If the aricraft decends during the initial TO CLB or during GA, GPWS lights come on and th aural
alert DON’T SINK sound repeatedly
A) The lower cut off limit is 30ft RA
B) The lower cut off limit is 20ft RA
C) The lower cut off limit is 10ft RA
D) The lower cut off limit is 50ft RA

12 The aircraft has 2 DMEs. The Frequency set automatically on the DME coresponds to that set on
the
A) VOR
B) ILS
C) VOR or ILS

13 The TCAS interrogates the transponder of intruders. From the transponder reply the TCAS
determines _____ from each intruders
A) Its relative bearing
B) Its range and closure rate
C) Its relative altitude if available (ATC mode C or S)
D) All the option

14 The BUS TIE pb sw is normally in the ____ position

A) AUTO
B) OFF
C) ON
D) FAULT

15 TCC improves engine performance by controlling the ____ turbine blade tip clearance
A) HP
B) LP
C) IP
D) None of the option

16 Overspeed protection is accomplished by closing the ____

A) HP and LP shutoff valve
B) LP shutoff valve
C) HP shutoff valve
D) MVF

17 When both side couplings are used refueling time at maximum pressure of ____psi is approx
____ min.
A) 40/30
B) 35/30
C) 50/33
D) 50/25
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18 On the ECAM FUEL page when the computed value is considered errineous by more than ____the
isplay value is crossed by 2 amber bars?
A) 136 kg/300 lbs
B) 147 kg/323 lbs
C) 159 kg/350 lbs
D) 272 kg/600 lbs

19 Pitch attitue is limited to ___ nose up progressively reduced to ___ at lw speed and is limited to
___ nose dwn
A) 45/33/15
B) 35/20/10
C) 15/25.30
D) 30/25/15

20 When CONF 1+F is selected auto retraction of flaps to 0 occur at ___ kts
A) 185
B) 210
C) 200
D) 215

21 Tha max speed to use windshield wipers is?

A) 200
B) 210
C) 220
D) 230

22 The CREW SUPPLY switch on the overhead panel controls what?

A) The pressure selector
B) The supply solenoid valve
C) The distribution manifold
D) The cockpit sub distribution manifold

23 REGUL LO PR is displayed in amber on the ECAM DOOR/OXY page if oxygen pressre drops to 50 psi
or lower on wat?
A) The low pressure circuit
B) The high pressure circuit
C) The modulator upstream of the pressure regulator
D) The sensor between supply valve and the distribution manifold

24 The vacuum generator forces tilet sewage into the storage tank on the ground up to ___ft?
A) 16 000
B) 17 000
C) 18 000
D) 20 000

25 How does crew switch active CPC if they suspect a aulty controller?
A) Re enter destination landing field elevation in FMGS
B) Set MODE SEL TO MAN for min 3 sec than back to AUTO
C) Set MODE SEL to MAN for min 5 sec than back to AUTO
D) Set LDG ELEV to MAN momentarily then back to AUTO

26 When are outboard ailerons controlled to zer0 deflection?

A) Flaps < CONF 1
B) Speed < 300 kts
C) Speed > 190 kts with flaps up
D) Speed > 250 kts
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27 Which of the ollowing s most TRU regarding the trim tank?

A) A trim line allow for trim tank fuelling and transfer of fuel between the trim tank and the center
and outer wing tanks
B) A trim line allow for trim tank fuelling and transfer of fuel between the trim tank and the outer
and innerr wing tanks
C) A trim line allow for trim tank fuelling and transfer of fuel between the trim tank and the center
and inner wing tanks
D) A trim line allow for trim tank fuelling and transfer of fuel between the trim tank and the center
tanks

28 What tanks is the fuel AFT XFR pumped out of?

A) INR tanks and CTR tank
B) OUTR tank
C) CTR tank and OUTR tanks
D) Trim Tanks

29 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the center tank?

A) Fuel from the center tank can only be transferred to and from the trim tank.
B) Fuel from the center tank cannot be transferred
C) Fuel from the center tank can only be transferred to the outer tanks and to and from the trim tank
D) Fuel from the center tank can only be transferred to the inner tanks and to and from the trim tank.

30 Which tanks have verpressure protection?

A) Each wing surge tank, in the trim surge tank, and between the center and the right outer tanks.
B) Each wing surge tank, in the trim surge tank, and between the center and the right inner tanks.
C) Each wing surge tank, in the trim surge tank, and between the center and the left inner tanks.
D) Each main tank of the aircraft

31 What is control and monitoring of electric hydraulic pumps performed by?

A) The FADEC
B) The HSMU
C) The ABSE
D) A spring loaded device.

32 What is the purpose of ALL pb on the ECAM control panel?

A) The SD successively display all the system pages at 3 sec intervals.
B) The SD successively display all the system pages at 5 sec intervals.
C) The SD successively display all the system pages at 1 min intervals.
D) The SD successively display all the system pages at 10 sec intervals.

33 Both ECAM DUs have failed. Both ilot can?

A) Use the PFD/ND XFR swithch to display the E/WD page on the NDU
B) Use the ECAM/ND XFR swithch to display the E/WD page on the PFDU
C) Use the ECAM/ND XFR swithch to display the E/WD page on the MCDU
D) Use the ECAM/ND XFR swithch to display the E/WD page on the NDU

34 When does LDR INHIBIT dissapear on E/WD

A) Speed < 40 kts durng landing rollout
B) Speed < 60kts durng landing rollout
C) Speed < 100 kts durng landing rollout
D) Speed < 80 kts durng landing rollout
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35 Rudder pedal NWS effectiveness dereases to 0 then the aircraft is above what speed?
A) Airspeed > 100 kts on takeoff
B) Airspeed > 120 kts on takeoff
C) Airspeed > 80 kts on takeoff
D) Airspeed ) 150 kts on takeoff

36 Below what speed is the antiskid system deactivated?

A) Active to zero kts
B) 10 kts
C) 20 kts
D) 5 kts

37 What condition must be met to open safety valve that allow GREEN system pressure to operate
landing gear?
A) Landing gear lever not down
B) LDR GEAR GRVT ETN selector in Reset
C) Main landing gear on ground
D) Airspeed <280kts

38 What is the indication on PFD of Middle Marker (MM)

A) White MM
B) Red MM
C) Amber MM
D) Blue MM

39 When is RETARD announcement made if AT active and AP disconnect

A) 30ft RA
B) 10ft RA
C) 20ft RA
D) At main ldg gear touchdown

LATEST SET
1 How are the lavatory and galley areas using re circulated cabin air switched on?
A) The system is fully automatic due to the differential pressure and the fan runs only if on ground or
Differential Pressure is less than 1 psi
B) The system is fully automatic and the fan runs whenever the aircraft is pressurized
C) The system is fully automatic and is controled by a weight on micro switch on the gear
D) By selecting VENT EXTRACT on the VENTIALTION panel

2 Each ADIRU is divided in two parts either of which can work separately in case of failure of the other.
What are they called?
A) The ADR (Air Data Reference) part and te IR ( Inertial Reference) part
B) The ADR (Actual Date Retriver) part and the IR (Instant Reference) part
C) The ADR (Aerodrome Date Retriever) part and the IR (Inertial Reference) part
D) The ADR (Air Data Reference) part and the IR (Initial Route) part

3 What is maximum speed with FLAPs Full

A) 185
B) 190
C) 205
D) 180

4 What are the maximum and minimum permited GS angle for autoland
A) 2.5 to 3.25
B) 2.5 to 3.5
C) 2.0 to 3.0
D) 2.75 to 3.25
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5 Flight manuvering load acceleration limits in clean config are -1g to 2.5g
A) Only in Direct law
B) True
C) Only in alternate law
D) False

6 The A330 Max Landing weight

A) 230 000
B) 182 000
C) 220 000
D) 170 000

7 Given the following condition at destination airport RWY WET PA 1000ft an ISA no slope and no
wind ELW 160 000kg A/THR ON flaps FULL no REV and Auto Brake MED what is the fatored landing
distance?
A) 1932m
B) 1630m
C) 1660m
D) 1760m

8 Leaving FL350 during an emergeny descend Vmo/Mmo what is the pressure altitude of the
aircraft when it reaches an IAS of 330kt
A) 34 000
B) 32 000
C) 30 000
D) 28 000

9 What is the approach climb limit weight for the following conditions One Engine Inop (OEI) GA
thrust on remaining engine OAT=30 PA=1000ft AC on AI OFF CONF 2 V=1.23VS?
A) 242 800kg
B) 249 200kg
C) 248 200kg
D) 245 600kg

10 We are holding at FL140 during 30min in clean configuration at green dot speed, actual weight 150
000 kg ISA condition normal air conditioning and no icing conditions. What is the fuel burn?
A) 3 785 kg
B) 1 945 kg
C) 939 kg
D) 1 974 kg

11 What is the One ENgine Inop Ceiling rounded to the next lowest FL for the following conditions
Long Range Cruise LRC GW=180T ISA +10 Engine A/I ON
A) FL230
B) FL250
C) FL240
D) FL220

12 Intending to land in config FULL what is the Aproach CLimb limiting weight in case of go around
with one engine out? Destination airport data PA 2000ft OAT 36c A/C ON A/I OFF and V=1.23Vs
A) 227.6t
B) 218.9t
C) 236.7t
D) 224.7t
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13 What is the Air distance in NM for the following conditions M.80 Ground distance 3000nm TW=50
kt?
A) 2 707 nm
B) 2 465 nm
C) 3 365 nm
D) 3 158 nm

14 Now we are going to fly an ILS CAT II app with autoland. RWY contamination is 2mm of Dry SNow
and the last PIREP reports GOOD to MED. WHat is the landing performance level and the max
crosswind limit for this landing?
A) Good and 27 kts
B) Good to Medium and 20 kts
C) Good to Medium and 27 kts
D) Medium an 27 kts

15 For flight planning purposes the fuel quantity for startup and taxi (taxi fuel) based on consumption
25 kg/min during an average time of 12 min. WHat should the Taxi Fuel QTY be?
A) 1000 kgs
B) 300 kgs
C) 660 kgs
D) 900 kgs

16 For the A330 what is the Standard Descend Speed Profile?

A) M.80/280/210
B) M.84/330/280
C) M.80/300/250
D) M.82/330/250

17 Given the following conditions at destination aurport, RWY 4mm water, PA 1000ft and ISA no slope
and no wind ELW 170 000kg A/THR off, Flaps 3, 1 reverser inoperative and ELEC DC BUS 2 FAULT what
is the Vapp speed?
A) 140 kts
B) 145 kts
C) 137 kts
D) 142 kts

18 For quick deterination of the cost index for long range cruise speed, with all engine remaining we
mayuse CI=40kg/min in the FMGC
A) Only below FL100
B) True
C) Only above FL300
D) False

19 System Reset procedure are found in which manual?

A) FCOM supplementary proc
B) MMEL
C) FCTM
D) QRH

20 As general rule, procedure displayed on the ECAM are not provided in the QRH
A) Only the HDY procedure
B) False
C) Only the ELEC procedure
D) True
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21 Inflight when is reset of a CB permited?

A) When directed by maintainance
B) Always permited
C) Never permited
D) When the captain judge it necessary for the safe continuation of the flight

22 RADIO NAV whenever a NAVAID ident is correctly decoded in agreement with that published the
audio check is mandatory
A) False
B) True
C) Ony in delta air space
D) Only when flying at night

23 FMGES intialization Cycling the database deletes the active and secondary flight plan.
A) False
B) True
C) You can not cycle the database
D) You can not use active and secondary flight plan

24 CLB or DES modes are not available in HDG/TRK mode

A) True
B) False
C) CLB mode is never available
D) CLB mode is always available

25 If HDG/TRK is engaged the guidance does not consider any F-PLN constrain. Therefore if the pilot
disengage NAV, CLB mode reverts to OP CLB
A) Only in ALTERNATE law
B) True
C) Only in DIRECT law
D) False

26 Which of the following function are carried ot by the flight control computers?
A) Simulation of the artificial force for the side stick
B) Restriction of sidestick movement at high speed
C) Maintaining a safe flight envelope
D) Conversion of rudder pedal inputs in electrical control signals for the rudder

27 what is the purpose of the safety valves in the pressurization system?

A) To protect against water ingress in the event of ditching
B) To protect against a differential pressure from going too high or too low in the cabin
C) To protect against excessive cabin altitude
D) To protect against excessive cabin V/S in manual mode

28 In case of double FWC failure MASTER CAUTION light aural warning and ECAM caution and
warning are lost
A) MASTER CAUTION light is still available
B) ECAM CAUTION and warning are never lost
C) True
D) False

29 After an ND failure, what is the correct statement?

A) The navigation display is lost on that side of the aircraft
B) The navigation display will automatically transfer to the PFD as it has priority
C) The navigation display can be manually transfer to the PFD
D) The navigation display can not be manually transfer to the PFD
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