Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

SBI CLERK MAINS MODEL TEST - 48

GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Recently, the Finance Ministry's annual report revealed that the United States

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Agency for International Development (USAID) funded 7 projects worth $750 million
in India during 2023-24, with an obligation of $97 million. Since when has USAID
been active in India?
1) 1951 2) 1956ha 3) 1962 4) 1974 5) 1969
2. In December 2024, which of the following organisation has released the revised
framework for setting up and operating of International Trade Financing Services
(ITFS) platforms in GIFT-IFSC, Gandhinagar (Gujarat)?

E
1) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
2) Indian Banks’ Association (IBA)
d
3) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
4) International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA)
ee

5) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)

3. What is the revised time period of Advance Reservation Period (ARP) of the Indian
C
Railways from November 1, 2024?
1) 90 days 2) 60 days 3) 150 days 4) 100 days 5) 120 days
Sr

4. In March 2025, PhonePe has launched the ‘insuring HEROES’ campaign. As part
of the initiative, the company is offering exclusive discounts of up to 30 per cent
on select term life and health insurance plans. Which group of people is the
‘Insuring HEROES’ campaign specifically targeted at?
1) Children 2) Senior citizens3) Women
4) Small businesses 5) Men
C
5. In February 2025, The Government of India (GoI) has expanded the list of
agricultural commodities traded on the electronic National Agricultural Market
(e-NAM) platform, adding 10 new commodities, including Dried Tulsi Leaves, Besan
(Chickpea Flour), Wheat Flour, Chana Sattu (Roasted Chickpea Flour), Water
Chestnut Flour, Asafoetida, Dried Fenugreek Leaves, Water Chestnut, Baby Corn,
and Dragon Fruit. When was e-NAM launched?
1) 14th April 2010 2) 14th April 2012 3) 14th April 2017
4) 14th April 2016 5) 14th April 2018
6. The Vietnam Indian Bilateral Army Exercise “VINBAX 2024,” the fifth edition, got
underway in Ambala, Haryana. Which state hosted the first-ever VINBAX, which
was founded in 2018?
1) Haryana 2) Odisha
3) Madhya Pradesh 4) Sikkim 5) Manipur

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

7. The Government of Andhra Pradesh entered into an agreement with which

company for conducting training sessions on Artificial Intelligence (AI)-related
services to industries, extending cooperation in delivering healthcare and
environmental sustainability solutions by integrating AI and Machine Learning
technologies?
1) X 2) Meta 3) IBM 4) Google 5) Microsoft
8. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has launched the ‘NTS’ to support
the tokenization of cards as an alternative to storing card details with merchants.
What does ‘S’ stand for in the acronym “NTS”?

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1) Securitization 2) System 3) Servicing
4) Settlement 5) Security
9. YES BANK launched the ‘Frictionless Finance Accelerator Programme’ in
collaboration with which of the following institutions?
ha
1) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) & Startup India
2) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) & World Bank (WB)

E
3) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) & National Institution for Transforming India Aayog
(NITI Aayog)
d
4) Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH) & S. P. Jain Institute of Management and
Research (SPJIMR)
ee

5) International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) & Indian Institute

of Technology Bombay (IIT Bombay)
10. Recently, which of the following city has emerged as the world’s top city brand in
C
the Brand Finance’s Global City Index 2024?
1) Paris, France 2) Tokyo, Japan 3) London, United Kingdom
Sr

4) Dubai, United Arab Emirates

5) New York, United States of America
11. The Contingency Fund (CF) is intended to protect it from depreciation of value in
securities and risks from monetary and forex operations. As per the RBI’s annual
report, what does RBI’s contingency risk buffer stand at?
C
1) 5.0% 2) 5.5% 3) 7.5% 4) 6.5% 5) 7.0%
12. A significant MoU was signed between National Highways Logistics Management
Limited (NHLML) and the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) to develop a
state-of-the-art Multi-Modal Logistics Park (MMLP). Where will the Multi-Modal
Logistics Park (MMLP) be located?
1) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh 2) Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh
3) Agra, Uttar Pradesh
4) Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh 5) Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh
13. Foreign portfolio investors Registered with SEBI at the GIFT International Financial
Services Centre and authorized to issue which type of notes?
1) Participatory notes 2) Unsecured notes 3) Convertible notes
4) Treasury notes 5) Promissory notes

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

14. ‘Manoj Mitra’, the famous Bengali playwright and actor, died at 86 in a Kolkata
hospital on November 12, 2024. He had been dealing with health issues related to
aging for several years. When did he receive the ‘Sangeet Natak Akademy Award
for Best Playwright’ and ‘Asiatic Society Award’?
1) 2019 & 2002 2) 1999 & 2023 3) 2009 & 2017
4) 2000 & 2011 5) 1985 & 2005
15. Which of the following rivers in Jammu & Kashmir are covered under the MoU
between Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) and the J&K Government for
river cruise tourism?

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1) Indus, Beas, Sutlej 2) Chenab, Jhelum, Ravi
3) Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri
4) Mahanadi, Narmada, Tapti 5) Ganga, Yamuna, Brahmaputra
16. National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Ltd. (NHIDCL)
ha
and All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) signed an MoU to provide
internship opportunities to Under Graduate (UG)/ Post Graduate (PG) students.
The MoU was signed for a period of how many years?

17.
1) 05 years

E
2) 03 years 3) 04 years 4) 08 years 5) 06 years
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has formed a committee to review
d
the ownership and economic structure of clearing corporations and suggest
measures. Who will chair this committee?
1) Nidhi Khatri Committee 2) Chandra Prakash Goyal Committee
ee

3) Sanjay Agrawal
4) Usha Thorat Committee 5) Sunil Bajpai Committee
C
18. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) reduced the currency timings of currency and debt
markets. What are the new timings?
Sr

1) 9:00 AM – 1:00 PM 2) 10:00 AM – 2:00 PM

3) 9:30 AM - 1:30 PM
4) 10:30 - 2:00 PM 5) 11:00 AM – 3:00 PM
19. Which edition of the AIM-ICDK Water Innovation Challenge 4.0 successfully
concluded at the 2024 Next Generation Digital Action (NGDA) in Copenhagen,
C
Denmark, in November 2024, marking a significant achievement in the growing
Indo-Danish Green Strategic Partnership?
1) Third 2) Second 3) Fourth 4) First 5) Fifth
20. Which of the following organization has imposed a penalty of Rs 66.60 lakh and Rs
33.10 lakh on The Hong Kong and Shanghai Banking Corporation Limited (HSBC)
and IIFL Samasta Finance, respectively, for violating norms?
1) NABARD 2) Ministry of Finance
3) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
4) National Stock Exchange (NSE)
5) Security Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
21. “Yamuna River” originates in which of the following Indian state?
1) Uttarakhand 2) Tamil Nadu 3) Karnataka
4) Chhattisgarh 5) Maharashtra

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

22. Which organisation has signed a MoU with the MS Swaminathan Research
Foundation (MSSRF) to launch the Rural Agriculture Innovation Programme (RAIN)?
1) Indian Institute of Soil Sciences
2) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
3) Centre for Cellular and Molecular Platforms
4) National Academy of Agricultural Research & Management
5) National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj
23. According to the Jana Small Finance Bank, it has launched the 'Liquid Plus Fixed
Deposit' plan. The Liquid Plus Fixed Deposit duration varies from 7 to how many

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days?
1) 90 days 2) 150 days 3) 100 days 4) 180 days 5) 120 days
24. The 2025 Women's Premier League (also known as WPL 2025 and branded as
TATA WPL 2025) is the third season of the Women's Premier League, a women's
franchise Twenty20 cricket league organized by the Board of Control for Cricket
ha
in India (BCCI). The tournament, featuring five teams, is being held from 14
February to 15 March 2025. Who became the youngest debutant in the WPL 2025
for Mumbai Indians (MI)?
1) Parshavi Chopra
4) VJ Joshitha

E 2) Shabnam Shakil
5) G Kamalini
3) Alice Capsey
d
25. In which year were the ‘Ajanta Caves’ designated as a United Nations Educational,
Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) World Heritage site?
1) 1979 2) 1983 3) 1987 4) 1991 5) 1995
ee

26. What is the theme of the 54th National Safety Week 2025?
1) Safety First, Progress Always 2) Ensure Safety, Ensure Growth
C
3) Safe Workplaces, Strong Nation
4) Industrial Safety for Sustainable Future
Sr

5) Safety & Well-being Crucial for Viksit Bharat

27. Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla has constituted a 31-member Select Committee to
examine the new Income Tax Bill. Who is the head of the Select Committee
examining the new Income Tax Bill?
1) Nirmala Sitharaman 2) Amit Shah 3) Baijayant Panda
4) Piyush Goyal 5) Rajnath Singh
C
28. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has approved HDFC Bank’s plan to acquire an
aggregate stake of up to 9.5% in Kotak Mahindra Bank, AU Small Finance Bank,
and Capital Small Finance Bank. Its approval is valid until _________.
1) December 31, 2025 2) October 12, 2026 3) June 15, 2025
4) January 2, 2026 5) March 31, 2025
29. In March 2025, the Centre declared the Madhav National Park in Madhya Pradesh
as the country’s 58th tiger reserve. How many tiger reserves are there in Madhya
Pradesh, excluding the newly added Madhav Tiger Reserve?
1) 08 2) 07 3) 09 4) 11 5) 10
30. Union Bank of India launched “Union Premier” branches for high-value customers
in rural and semi-urban (RUSU) markets. Designed to provide personalized banking
services, these branches will offer a wide range of products and services under
one roof for high-value customers in RUSU markets. Where is headquarter of
‘Union Bank of India (UBI)’?
1) New Delhi 2) Mumbai 3) Chennai 4) Kochi 5) Kolkata

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

31. The process by which the central bank of a country controls the supply of money
in the economy by exercising its control over interest rates in order to maintain
price stability and achieve high economic growth is known as?
1) Economic Policy 2) Fiscal Policy 3) Credit Policy
4) Budgetary Policy 5) Monetary Policy
32. Constitution Day, also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’, is celebrated every year on
November 26. This day marks the adoption of the Indian Constitution in 1949 by
the Constituent Assembly of India. The Government of India’s Ministry of Social
Justice and Empowerment declared November 26 Constitution Day in which year?
1) 2010 2) 2014 3) 2017 4) 2015 5) 2020

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33. The Consumer Confidence Survey (CCS) is a regular survey that the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI) conducts to find out how the public feels about the state of the
economy. How many cities frequently do the survey?
1) 19 cities 2) 12 cities 3) 17 cities 4) 25 cities 5) 08 cities
34. Which of the following schemes is a monetary policy intervention by the RBI to
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withdraw excess liquidity by selling government securities in the economy?
1) Market Intervention Scheme 2) Market Stabilization Scheme
3) Market capitalization Scheme

E
4) Market Segmentation Scheme
5) Market Development Assistance Scheme
d
35. ‘Mayor Radhakrishnan Hockey Stadium’ located in which of the following Indian
state?
1) Tamil Nadu 2) Odisha 3) Jharkhand
ee

4) Maharashtra 5) Karnataka
36. Who has been appointed as the new Managing Director (MD) & Chief Executive
Officer (CEO) of SBI Cards, effective April 1, 2025?
C
1) Abhijit Chakravorty 2) Dinesh Kumar Khara
3) Ashwini Kumar Tewari 4) Rajnish Kumar 5) Salila Pande
Sr

37. In March 2025, which country has conferred its highest civilian award, “The
Grand Commander of the Order of the Star and Key of the Indian Ocean,” to
Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
1) Maldives 2) Mauritius 3) Bhutan 4) USA 5) Russia
38. Which regulatory body has introduced the framework for Specialized Investment
Funds (SIFs)?
C
1) Ministry of Finance 2) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
3) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
4) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
5) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
39. For export of which geographical indication (GI) recognised agricultural commodity
has India recently introduced Harmonised System (HS) code under an amendment
to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 announced in the Union Budget 2025-26?
1) Rice 2) Wheat 3) Pineapple 4) Mangoes 5) Oranges
40. Who among the following eminent personalities have been conferred with the
“Padma Bhushan Award 2025” for their contributions and achievements in the
field of Science and Engineering?
1) Shri Pankaj Patel 2) Shri Vinod Dham
3) Smt. Sadhvi Ritambhara
4) Shri Nalli Kuppuswami Chetti
5) Shri Jose Chacko Periappuram

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

41. Which company has signed an MoU with the United Nations Environment
Programme’s flagship methane reporting and mitigation initiative – Oil & Gas
Methane Partnership (OGMP) 2.0, making it the first oil and gas producer in India
to commit to the effective reduction of methane emissions?
1) Cairn Oil & Gas 2) TP renewable Microgrid 3) JSW Energy
4) NTPC Limited 5) ReNew Power
42. Consider the following statements regarding the Bima Sakhi Yojana (BSY).
I) It is an initiative of the state-owned Life Insurance Corporation (LIC).
II) It is designed to empower women aged 18-65 years who have passed out of

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Class 10.
III) Under the scheme, female agents will get a stipend of Rs. 7,000 per month for
the first year, Rs. 6,000 per month in the second year, and Rs. 5,000 per month
in the third year.
IV) The plan is to appoint two lakh Bima Sakhi over a period of three years.

1) Only (I) & (II)

ha
Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?
2) Only (II) 3) Only (III) & (IV)
4) Only (IV) 5) All Options are correct
43.

E
What is the name of the financial grant scheme implemented by the Ministry of
Culture to support young artists, in March 2025?
d
1) National Talent Scholarship 2) Young Artists Grant Program
3) Traditional Art Development Fund
ee

4) Cultural Heritage Scholarship Scheme

5) Scholarships to Young Artists in Different Cultural Fields
44. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has notified that P2P lending platforms need to be
C
regulated and treated on par with Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).
P2P stands for _________.
Sr

1) Product-to-Product 2) Peer-to-Peer
3) Person-to-Person
4) Primary-to-Primary 5) Priority-to-Priority
45. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA), based in the United
States of America (USA), unveiled the prototype for six telescopes known as the
Engineering Development Unit Telescope. The telescope is expected to study
C
gravitational waves in outer space, which were first discovered by Albert Einstein
in 1916. When was the NASA founded?
1) 1938 2) 1945 3) 1958 4) 1963 5) 1978
46. In January 2025, Alexander Lukashenko has been re-elected for the seventh
consecutive time as the President of the tiny Eastern European nation of Belarus
for a term of five years. What is the currency of Belarus?
1) Belarusian Ruble 2) Belarusian Euro 3) Belarusian Dollar
4) Belarusian Krone 5) Belarusian Kyat
47. UAE President Sheikh Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan has announced 2025 as
the Year of Community, launching a national initiative aimed at fostering unity
and inclusion across society. What is the slogan of the UAE’s Year of Community
initiative?
1) Together We Rise 2) One Nation, One Vision 3) Hand in Hand
4) Unity in Diversity 5) Stronger Together

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

48. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the _______ edition of Financial Literacy
Week (FLW) 2025 with which theme “Financial Literacy: Women's Prosperity”.
1) 11th edition 2) 15th edition 3) 14th edition
4) 10th edition 5) 12th edition
49. Which of the following is/are NOT true regarding the Grammy Awards?
1) It is considered to be one of the most prestigious awards in the music industry
and is given annually by the National Academy of Recording Arts & Sciences in
the United States of America (USA).

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2) The 65th annual Awards function was held at [Link] Arena in Los Angeles,
the United States of America (USA).
3) Indian-born American musician Chandrika Tandon won her first Grammy award
in the ‘Best New Age Album, Ambient or Chant Album category’ for her album
Triveni at the Awards 2025.
4) Only (1) & (2)
ha 5) Only (2) & (3)
50. To encourage employees to create substantial value, the central government has

E
updated the PLI scheme for public sector bank (PSB) senior executives and whole-
time directors (WTDs). What percentage is the cap for the Chief Manager?
d
1) 90% 2) 50% 3) 70% 4) 40% 5) 80%
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
ee

Directions (51-53): In the below given questions three sentences are given with
two highlighted words. Select the correct option which makes the sentences
grammatically and contextually correct.
C
51. A. There are contortionists, acrobats, martial (A)/ marital (B) artists and plate
spinners, in a versatile but ultimately rather aimless display.
Sr

B. How did you feel about him writing about your marital (A)/ martial (B)/
problems in the book?
C. The soldier had a strong marital (A)/ martial (B) spirit and was highly
disciplined.
1) AAA 2) AAB 3) BBB 4) ABA 5) ABB
C
52. A. The experience had become pure music, each note tortuous (A)/ torturous (B)
yet unbearably sweet.
B. Never mind the tortuous (A)/ torturous (B) explanation; tell me in plain
English, are you coming or not?
C. Think of the tortuous (A)/ torturous (B) metaphors and similes that the
readers would be spared.
1) BAA 2) AAB 3) BAB 4) ABA 5) ABB
53. A. She was dreading having to Broach (A)/ Brooch (B) the subject of money to
her father.
B. he gold Broach (A)/ Brooch (B) shown here dates from the 1860s and is
encrusted with diamonds and garnets.
C. She treasured Broach (A)/ Brooch (B) because it was an heirloom.
1) ABA 2) BAB 3) AAB 4) AAA 5) ABB

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

54. In this question, a passage is given. From the following options, select the correct
option that summarizes the theme of the given passage without adding any
additional information. If none of the given sentences conveys the same meaning
to the context of the passage given, mark ‘None of those given as options’ as the
answer.
Genomic analyses of Neanderthals have previously provided insights into their
population history and relationship to modern humans, but the social organization
of Neanderthal communities remains poorly understood. This study presents
genetic data for 13 Neanderthals from two Middle Palaeolithic sites in the Altai
Mountains of southern Siberia—Chagyrskaya Cave and Okladnikov Cave—making

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it one of the largest genetic studies of a Neanderthal population to date.
1) This study provides the largest genetic data analysis of 13 Neanderthals from
two Middle Palaeolithic sites in Siberia, although their social organization remains
unknown.
2) Despite previous genomic studies providing insights into Neanderthal history
ha
and their link to modern humans, their social organization remains unclear; this
study presents genetic data from 13 Neanderthals in southern Siberia, making it
one of the largest Neanderthal genetic studies.

E
3) The relationship between Neanderthals and modern humans has been analyzed
through previous genomic studies, but their social structure remains uncertain.
d
This study examines 13 Neanderthals from two Siberian sites, contributing
significantly to Neanderthal genetic research.
4) Genetic research has previously uncovered Neanderthal history and their link
ee

to modern humans, while this study expands knowledge by analyzing the genomes
of 13 Neanderthals from the Altai Mountains.
5) None of those given as options.
C
Directions (55-59): In each of the following sentence/s there are three blank
spaces. Below each five group of words have been given. Find out which group of
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words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence/s in the same sequence to
make the sentence/s meaningfully complete.
55. The __________ discipline and unwavering valour of the soldiers, as ____________
by their commander, were evident when they advanced into the treacherous
vicinity of enemy territory. Despite the looming threats, they held their ranks
with an unyielding resolve, embodying the very essence of military excellence
and strategic __________.
C
1) familiar, formed, scenario
2) prestigious, established, picturesque
3) popular, organized, plethora
4) fantastic, envisaged, brilliance
5) gorgeous, prepared, spectrum
56. The __________ negotiations between the two nations, as __________ by the
diplomats, were crucial in de-escalating tensions and paving the way for a
sustainable peace agreement. The meticulous planning and diplomatic finesse
exhibited throughout the process underscored a remarkable level of __________.
1) unstable, overlooked, fairness
2) extensive, orchestrated, diplomacy
3) trivial, mishandled, ambiguity
4) random, abandoned, solidarity
5) erratic, ignored, confrontation

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

57. The __________ implementation of technological advancements, as __________ by

industry leaders, has significantly improved operational efficiency across sectors.
This transformation underscores the increasing reliance on __________ solutions
to drive innovation.
1) abrupt, dismissed, traditional
2) systematic, advocated, digital
3) reluctant, ignored, obsolete
4) chaotic, mismanaged, conventional
5) fragmented, questioned, outdated

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58. At the ________ of the ceremony, the attendees rose to ______ as the organization
revealed the _________ donation of two million from his estate, a contribution
that was expected to transform the lives of many.
1) initiative , accelerate, pondered
ha
2) move, fasten, , proposed,
3) measure , quicken, , prolonged

E
4) step , hasten , perceived
5) commencement, applaud, purported
d
59. The __________ surge in inflation, as __________ by economic analysts, has raised
concerns over declining purchasing power and financial instability. Policymakers
are now under pressure to devise __________ measures to stabilize the economy.
ee

1) negligible, rejected, ineffective 2) moderate, unnoticed, reckless

3) rampant, predicted, corrective 4) trivial, exaggerated, redundant
C
5) stagnant, overlooked, counterproductive
Directions (60-64): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
Sr

given below it.

Artificial Intelligence (AI) is steadily revolutionizing the healthcare sector, bringing
forth unprecedented opportunities to enhance diagnostic accuracy, personalize
treatment strategies, and expedite medical research. As AI technologies continue
to evolve, they are increasingly poised to reshape the very fabric of healthcare
delivery, creating both remarkable potential and substantial challenges. One of
C
the most compelling advancements lies in AI’s ability to augment medical
diagnostics. Deep learning algorithms have demonstrated a remarkable capacity
to analyze complex medical data—such as radiographs, CT scans, and MRIs—
with greater precision than traditional methods. The ability to identify minute
anomalies that often elude human doctors can significantly improve early disease
detection, particularly in oncology, cardiology, and neurology. Furthermore, AI-
driven diagnostic tools can reduce the burden on healthcare professionals, enabling
them to focus on more complex aspects of patient care, while ensuring faster and
more accurate diagnoses.
Beyond diagnostics, AI is also revolutionizing the field of personalized medicine.
By synthesizing vast quantities of data—from genetic sequences to lifestyle
factors—AI systems can craft individualized treatment plans that are far more
precise than conventional methods. Personalized healthcare not only increases
treatment efficacy but also minimizes the risk of adverse effects, paving the way
for more effective, patient-centric approaches.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

AI’s role in drug discovery also offers transformative possibilities. Traditionally,

drug development has been a lengthy and expensive process, often taking years
to bring a new medication to market. However, AI can accelerate this process by
rapidly analyzing existing medical databases and predicting the molecular
interactions that are most likely to yield effective therapies. With its computational
power, AI can sift through immense datasets, uncovering novel drug candidates
in a fraction of the time it would take human researchers. Despite these promising
prospects, the integration of AI into healthcare is not without significant hurdles.
Data privacy and security concerns are paramount, as healthcare data is often
highly sensitive and susceptible to breaches. Additionally, ethical considerations

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must be addressed, particularly regarding the potential biases inherent in AI
algorithms, which could perpetuate disparities in care. The question also arises
as to whether AI can truly replicate the nuanced, empathetic decision-making
process that is intrinsic to the medical profession.
In summary, while AI is poised to bring about monumental improvements in
ha
healthcare—enhancing diagnostic accuracy, personalizing treatment, and
expediting medical research—the ethical, privacy, and regulatory challenges
surrounding its implementation must be carefully navigated. If executed

E
thoughtfully, AI has the potential to usher in a new era of healthcare, one where
technology and human expertise collaborate to deliver unprecedented outcomes
for patients worldwide.
d
60. How does the passage suggest AI could impact the future of medical diagnostics?
1) By making traditional diagnostic methods obsolete
ee

2) By enabling faster and more accurate disease detection

3) By eliminating the need for human doctors entirely
4) By focusing solely on improving radiograph analysis
C
5) None of these
61. According to the passage, what is one of the major challenges in integrating AI
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into healthcare?
1) The high cost of AI technology
2) The limited capacity of AI to handle large datasets
3) The potential biases in AI algorithms
4) The overdependence on technology in medical practice
5) The inability of AI to improve treatment efficacy
C
62. What does the passage imply about the relationship between AI and personalized
medicine?
1) AI will reduce the importance of individualized treatment plans
2) AI will make healthcare less patient-centric
3) AI will craft treatment plans based solely on genetic sequences
4) AI will help create more precise and patient-specific treatment strategies
5) All the above
63. What concern does the passage raise regarding data privacy in the use of AI in
healthcare?
1) Healthcare data will become less accessible to medical professionals
2) AI systems will not be able to protect sensitive patient information
3) The amount of medical data available will overwhelm AI systems
4) Sensitive healthcare data may be vulnerable to breaches
5) AI technology will eliminate the need for data protection

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

64. What does the passage suggest is a key factor in determining whether AI will
successfully transform healthcare?
1) AI’s ability to fully replace human doctors in all areas
2) Addressing the privacy, ethical, and regulatory challenges
3) The speed at which AI can process data
4) The universal adoption of AI across all healthcare settings
5) The reduction of human expertise in the medical field
Directions (65 - 69): In this question, a phrase and two sentences I & II are given

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which are not in correct position. Find out the correct option which suggests the
appropriate arrangement. Choose the option that will make the sentences
contextually meaningful.
65. Phrase: of new markets, new institutions, and new instruments, many of which
fall outside the purview
ha
I. of existing regulation by virtue of their location or definition or both
II. The dynamic tension and interplay between these forces have contributed

1) phrase, I,II

E
significantly to the growth
2) I, phrase, II 3) II, phrase ,I
d
4) Phrase, II,I 5) II, I, Phrase
66. Phrase: starting in the 1980s with the development of information and
ee

communications technologies,
I. as a primary means of communicating and of conducting business
C
II. businesses have increasingly come to rely on electronic channels
1) phrase, I,II 2) I, phrase, II 3) II, phrase ,I
Sr

4) II, I, Phrase 5) Phrase, II,I

67. Phrase: many universities and online companies have invested heavily in
I. a view to launching commercially viable e-learning programmes
II. their attempts to harness the power of technology in instructional design with
1) phrase, I,II 2) I, phrase, II 3) II, phrase , I
C
4) Phrase, II, I 5) II, I, Phrase
68. Phrase: microfinance, also termed microcredit, refers primarily to
I. small, development-oriented loans made to low-income borrowers with
II. the aim of helping them to develop commercial activities or start businesses
1) phrase, I,II 2) I, phrase, II 3) II, phrase ,I
4) Phrase, II,I 5) II, I, Phrase
69. Phrase: the implication is that managers, when constructing their
I. there exists a need for government-imposed constraint and control
II. portfolios, will assume more risk than is socially desirable; hence,
1) phrase, I,II 2) I, phrase, II 3) II, phrase ,I
4) Phrase, II,I 5) II, I, Phrase

11
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

Directions (70-77): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
The concept of work-life balance has existed for decades. But in recent
years, Americans not only have gotten more comfortable with discussing it openly
but also are demanding it become a reality. Instead, why don’t we talk about life-
work balance? This reconfiguration(1) puts the focus on quality of life. Advocating
for life-work balance reminds us that there’s more to life than putting work first.
Lori Chesser, a shareholder in the Dentons Davis Brown law firm in Des Moines,
Iowa, agrees with this rephrasing. After studying in Georgia, she returned to
Iowa to be closer to family and make a difference in her community—while also

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making the most of her life outside work. Lori landed in Des Moines not only
because of the opportunity with her firm but also because of the city’s high rankings
for work-life balance and as a top place to live in the U.S. She enjoys the
harmony(2) between its thriving downtown, scenic parks, and focus on collaboration
and community.
ha
Getting promoted at work doesn’t always go as hoped or happen on an ideal
schedule. But instead of just climbing the corporate ladder, professionals could
give their lives a __________with more spending money, more affordable homes,

E
more time to spend doing the things they love, and a better quality of life.
Iowa’s Cedar Valley region, including the cities of Waterloo and Cedar Falls, offers
a cost of living more than 13% more affordable(3) than the national average. It’s
d
also home to educational powerhouses like the University of Northern Iowa, along
with strong K-12 schools and community and private colleges that have infused
new energy into the area. The region’s diverse populations create a unique culture
ee

that includes eye-popping art installations and historic downtown districts. And a
short commute leaves more time for getting the most out of the day. The average
commute for Charles City residents is just 10 minutes; even in larger Des Moines,
C
it clocks in at just over 17 minutes. A short commute also leaves more money in
residents’ pockets and more time for family, friends, and hobbies—and for those
new to the area, that change in life-work balance may feel like a promotion.
Sr

The concept of quiet quitting introduced the idea of doing just enough to get
by at work, usually as a reaction to frustration and stress. A more zen approach is
quiet quieting. Iowa may bring to mind cornfields and farmland. But the state is
also home to stunning rolling hills, prairies, waterfalls, rivers, bluffs, and more
than 2,500 miles of trails—a tranquil retreat from the daily grind. “It’s so peaceful,”
said Roger White, volunteer coordinator with Cedar Valley Trail Partnership. “You
C
sit back, hear the birds and the insects, and enjoy nature.”
A combination of culture and nature makes a perfect backdrop for quiet
quieting. In Charles City, the picturesque Cedar River cuts through the center of
town, supporting stress-relieving activities such as fishing, paddleboarding, and
whitewater rafting and serving as a stunning backdrop for the community’s art
scene, with two inspiring art centers. The Mooney Art Gallery features works by
Rembrandt, Dali, and Picasso, and the city boasts an impressive collection of
public art. A number of firms are promoting a return to office (RTO) after many
workers went remote during the pandemic. But a return to outdoors is a more
appealing take on the acronym(4). With urban parks in Des Moines, a hundred
miles of trails in the Cedar Valley, and biking and riverside strolls in Charles
City, outdoor activities can be found in every region of Iowa, making it a draw for
cyclists, hikers, and anyone who likes fresh air and sunshine. The city of
Ames enjoys a robust economy and cultural scene and is home to the renowned
Iowa State University. This college town also offers 38 parks, 55 miles of bike
trails, more than 15 area golf courses, and nearly 200 wellness programs curated
by the city’s Parks and Recreation Department.

12
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

70. What motivations might have influenced Lori Chesser’s decision to relocate back
to Iowa after completing her studies in Georgia?
A) To seek better financial opportunities
B) To strengthen family ties and contribute to her local community
C) To follow a hectic urban lifestyle
1) Only A 2) only B 3) only C 4) A and C 5)A, B and C
71. What can be inferred about the general attitude toward work-life balance in the
United States?
1) Most Americans are satisfied with their current work-life balance.

r’s
2) There is a growing trend of prioritizing personal life over work.
3) Americans prefer longer working hours for better pay.
4) Work-life balance is not a topic of discussion among professionals.
5) All the above
72.
ha
Based on the passage, how might the natural environment of Iowa contribute to
residents’ overall quality of life?

E
I. It offers recreational activities that promote relaxation and well-being.
II. It fosters a sense of community and collaboration.
d
III. It encourages people to spend more time in urban settings.
1) Only I 2) only II 3) only III 4) I and III 5) I, II and III
73. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?
ee

1) Lori Chesser values her quality of life and prioritizes her family and community.
2) The Cedar Valley region offers a lower cost of living compared to the national
C
average.
3) The average commute time in Charles City is notably shorter than in many
Sr

urban areas.
4) Iowa is home to diverse recreational activities that support relaxation and
stress relief.
5) All those given options are true
74. In the above passage ,four bolded words are denoted by the numbers 1,2,3 and 4.
Choose the best synonym to one of the bolded words.
C
1) leash 2) edifice 3) concord 4) tilt 5) none
75. Pick out the word from the passage which is opposite in meaning to the word
‘leads’.
1) trails 2) boasts 3) grind 4) retreat 5) none
76. Choose the best options that fits in the blank given in the passage.
1) imposition 2) promotion 3) abomination 4) proclamation 5) emanation
77. What would be an appropriate title for the passage?
1) Balancing Work and Life: The New American Dream
2) The Corporate Ladder: Climbing to Success
3) Quiet Quitting: A Response to Workplace Stress
4) The Hidden Costs of Commuting
5) Embracing Nature: A Retreat from Urban Life

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

Direction (78-80): Which of the following phrases (I), (II) and (III) given below each
sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence
grammatically correct. Choose the best option among the five given alternatives
that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct
sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (5) I.e., “No replacement required”
as the answer
78. It’s advisable for job seekers to have been tailored theirs resumes to match the
specific job requirements.
I. seekers to have tailored their resumes
II. seekers to had tailored theirs resumes

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III. seeker to have tailors their resumes
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III
4) None of these 5) No replacement required
79. The organization have had a longstanding commitment to corporate social
responsibility, evidenced by its philanthropic endeavors, sustainable practices,
ha
and ethical business conduct.
I. has had a longstanding commitment
II. will had a longstanding commitment

4) None of these

E
III. would had a longstanding commitment
1) Only I 2) Only II
5) No replacement required
3) Only III
d
80. It was surprising to learn that, in the 19th century, some regions did not even
has formal diplomatic protocols for addressing cross-border disputes.
I. did not even has formally diplomatic
ee

II. did not even have formally diplomatic

III. did not even have formal diplomatic
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III
C
4) None of these 5) No replacement required
Direction (81-85): In this question, two statements are given, in statement I
Sr

three words (A), (B), (C) and in statement II three words (L), (M), (N) are given in
bold and swapped. Identify the pair which will make the statements meaningful
and grammatically correct.
81. I. When the installed (A) was first completed (B), pneumatic tubes and telephones
were building (C)
II. on the parts (L) floor and other facilitate (M) of the building to trading (N)
C
communications.
1) BAC: MNL 2) CBA: NLM 3) ACB: LNM 4) BCA: MLN 5) CAB: LMN
82. I. Florence Bullard gave (A) her French star (B) with a bronze medal (C) to the
Sisters of Saint Marys,
II. believing (L) that her teachings (M) deeds were a reflection of their heroic (N)
1) ACB: LNM 2) BCA: MLN 3) BAC: MNL 4) CAB: LMN 5) CBA: NLM
83. I. Machine learning is a type (A) of artificial intelligence that enables (B) computer
systems to classify, cluster, identify and analyze (C)
II. vast and explicit (L) sets of data while eliminating (M) the need for complex
(N) instructions and programming.
1) CAB: LMN 2) BCA: MLN 3) ABC: NML 4) ACB: LNM 5) CBA: NLM
84. I. In addition to protestors (A) for increased rights for women, the demands (B)
have demanded the overthrow (C) of the Republic,
II. setting them apart from previous (L) major protest woes (M), which have
focused on election results or economic movements (N).
1) CBA: NLM 2) BCA: MLN 3) BAC: LNM 4) ACB: LNM 5) CAB: LMN

14
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

85. I. novel (A) by Jonathan Cape in the summer (B) of 1968, Figures in a Landscape
was Barry England’s first published (C)
II. which was hailed (L) by critics as a/an literature (M) addition to the exemplary
(N) of escape.
1) ACB: LNM 2) BCA: MLN 3) BAC: MNL 4) CAB: LMN 5) CBA: LNM
Directions (86-90) Read the following sentences and find out the sentence which
is grammatically correct.
86. A. The company is currently exploring opportunities to expand in international
markets, with an aim to increasing its global presence.
B. The burglar destroyed several items in the room , again the carpet has been

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torn.
C. Don’t worry you may leave your purse in staff room yesterday.
D. As soon as the teacher entering the classroom, the boys will stand up.
E. Especially when markets drop, people often fails to trust their own judgment
and instead follow the hype.

87.
1) A 2) B
ha 3) C 4) D 5) E
A. The keys were hanged on a key rack near the entrance for easy access.
B. He has been travelled to over twenty countries in his lifetime, gaining valuable
insights along the way.

E
C. The company would announced record profits last quarter, exceeding analysts’
D. The software offers a unique solution to the problem, streamlining processes
d
and increasing efficiency.
E. Hating filled her heart when she discovered the betrayal of her closest friend.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
ee

88. A. We don’t take action now, the problem will only worsen over time.
B. From the new manager took over, there have been significant improvements in
productivity.
C
C. Clergies are involved in social justice initiatives, advocating for equality and
fairness.
Sr

D. there isn’t an answer, is there?

E. Sahara Desert is a hottest place on the planet, with temperatures reaching
extreme highs.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
89. A. Every summer, families flocks to the beach to soak up the sun and enjoy
quality time together.
C
B. If the team had practiced more diligently, they would have win the
championship.
C. The bird built its nest between the branches of the old oak tree in the backyard.
D. As I had been walking home, I bumped into an old friend I hadn’t seen in years.
E. If we had booked the hotel in advance, we would have saved money on
accommodations.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
90. A. The negotiations were conducted effectively, leading to a mutually beneficial
agreement.
B. Maintaining a healthy work-life balance is essential for achieving the most
healthiest overall well-being.
C. We only get to see our relatives from abroad bite the bullet, so we cherish the
time we spend together.
D. You’ve met John before, have you?
E. She loves a book you gave her.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

15
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
91. The amount of work in a company has increased by 25%. Since it is mandatory to
complete the work on time, by what percentage should the number of workers be
increased, if the productivity of newly hired workers is 25% higher than that of
the current workers?
1) 40 2) 25 3) 30 4) 20 5)10
92. A pack of cards contains total 10 cards (either brown or blue). Both colored cards
are in equal number. If four cards are drawn together at random, find the probability
that brown cards are not in majority? (At least one card of each color is drawn)

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5 5 20 5 4
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
7 33 33 14 21
93. In two bottles, there are mixtures of milk and water. The respective ratios in the
first and second bottles are 4:5 and 5:3, respectively. 90 ml mixture from the first
bottle and 80 ml mixture from the second bottle are poured into a bowl. Then,
ha
some additional water is added. The final mixture has milk and water in the ratio
of 3:4. How much additional water was added to the bowl? (In ml)
1) 40 2) 50 3) 30 4) 60 5) 25

E
Directions (94-96): Read the following data carefully and answer the following
questions.
d
Two series, Series X and Series Y are given, and both follow the same pattern.
Series X: 428, 564, 715, 881, 1062, A
A
ee

Series Y: B, C, D, , _, _
2
94. Which of the following statements is correct?
C
A
I. is equal to 157.25.
8
Sr

II. The sum of D and the 6th term of series Y is 1469.

III. 5B – 7C + 4D = 548.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III
4) all are correct 5) Only I and III
95. Find the respective difference between 7th term of series Y and the value of A.
1) 41 2) 48 3) -56 4) 60 5) -41
C
D
96. What is the value of (B+C+ )?
2
1) 709.5 2) 729.5 3) 740 4) 719.5 5) 645
97. A group of 18 men can complete a piece of work in 48 days, while 54 children can
finish the same work in 32 days. Initially, 12 men and 24 children started the
work but left after 24 days. The remaining work was then assigned to 36 women.
Find the number of days required for 36 women to complete the remaining portion
of the work.
Which of the following statements alone is sufficient to answer the question?
1) 36 men can complete the piece of work in 12 days.
2) 18 children can complete the piece of work in 48 days.
3) 5 men and 38 children together can complete the work in 36 days.
4) Efficiency of a man is thrice the efficiency of a child.
5) 18 men and 54 women together can complete the given work in 24 days.

16
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

98. A boat was supposed to cover 20 km downstream in 2 hours, with the stream
flowing at 4 km/hr. However, it stopped halfway due to a technical issue and took
20 minutes for repairs. By what percentage should its still-water speed be increased
to reach the destination on time?

1 1 1 2
1) 30 2) 83 3) 62 4) 82 5) 66
3 2 3 3
99. A train moving at 108 km/h crosses a stationary man in 4.5 seconds. It will cross
a ___ m long bridge in __ seconds. Which of the following values can we fill in the
same order?

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I. 270, 13.5
II. 315, 15
III. 420, 12.5
IV- 400, 22
1) Only I
4) Only I and II
ha2) Only II and IV
5) Only I and III
3) Only III

E
Direction (100-104): Read the data and answer the given following questions.
There are 4 fans P, Q, R, and S and each fan has 3 steps. The rotation per
minute (RPM) of each fan at each step is different and Table given below shows
d
RPM of each fan at each step.
ee

Fans P Q R S

Step 1 150 RPM 160 R PM

C
Step 2 260 RPM
Sr

Step 3 300 RPM

Note:
I: Ratio of RPM of fan P at step 3 to RPM of fan Q at step 3 is 6 : 5 and ratio of RPM
C
of fan P at step 2 to that at step 3 is 2 : 3.
II: Average of RPM of fan P at step 1 and that of fan Q at step 1 is 165 and RPM of
fan Q at step 2 is 70 more than that at step 1.
III: RPM of fan R at step 2 and RPM of fan S at step 1 are equal and RPM of fan S at
step 3 is double of that at step 1.
IV: RPM of fan R at step 3 is double of that at step 1 and RPM of fan R at step 2 is
62.5% of that at step 3.
100. If fan Q rotates at step 1 for 5 minutes and rotates at step 3 for 4 minutes, then
find the difference between number of rotations made by fan Q at step 1 and step
3?
1) 400 2) 250 3) 500 4) 360 5) 300
101. Find the ratio of number of rotations made by fan R at step 2 in 39 minutes to that
made by fan S at step 2 in 16 minutes.
1) 8 : 15 2) 9 : 17 3) 15 : 8 4) 27 : 8 5) 19 : 16

17
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

102. Which of the following is correctly matched?

Column I Column II
A. The average of the RPM of fan R J.80
in step 1 and step 3 is what
percentage of the RPM of fan P in
step 3
B. RPM of fan R in step 2 K. 200
C. The difference between the RPM L. 345

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of fan Q in step 1 and RPM of fan S
in step 2
D. The average of the RPM all the 200
M.
fans in step 3 ha 3

1) Only AM and BK 2) AM, BK and DL

3) AM , BK ,DL and CJ 4) Only AM and CK 5) Only DM and BK
103. At step 2, if fan P, Q, R and S rotate for 23 minutes, 29 minutes,37 minutes, and

E
43 minutes respectively, then which two fans will make equal number of rotations
at step 2?
d
1) P and R 2) P and Q 3) Q and R 4) None 5) S and P
104. The number of rotations made by fan Q at step 2 in 46 minutes is what percent of
the number made by fan R at step 3 in 23 minutes?
ee

1) 145.50 2) 156.25 3) 120.65 4) 249.5 5) 180.25

105. Nimisha's present age is ‘A’ years. When ‘A’ is divided by 3, we get ‘B’ as the
quotient and 1 as the remainder. When ‘B’ is divided by 5, we get 2 as the quotient
C
X
and ‘C’ as the remainder. The value of C = , where ‘X’ is the present age of
6
Sr

Namitha, which is 12 years. Find the age of Nimisha after 3 years.

1) 50 years 2) 35 years 3) 40 years 4) 42 years 5) 49 years
106. A shopkeeper gives one piece free with hundred pieces of an article. A man took
home a total of 500 pieces of the article from the shop. Another woman took
home a total of 750 pieces from the shop. If the difference in the amounts paid by
them is Rs. 3211, then what is the loss incurred by the shopkeeper on both the
C
purchases together? (Consider the shopkeeper's free article as a loss)
1) Rs. 130 2) Rs. 260 3) Rs. 117 4) Rs. 143
5) None of those given as options
107. A 6-digit number can be formed with the digits 1, 4, 5, 7, 6 and 3. If all the digits
can be used only once, then what is the probability that the number is even?
2 4 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
3 3 6 7 3
108. Ratio of the monthly salaries of Anil and Kiran is 4:5 respectively. Anil spends
20% on household, 10% on children's education and 20% of the rest on investment
and rest of the salary he saves. Kiran spends 5% on games, 15% on household
and 10% of the rest on children's education and rest of the salary he saves. If
ratio of their savings is 28:45, find the difference between the expenditures of
Anil and Kiran.
1) Cannot be determined 2) Rs.20000 3) Rs.60000
4) Rs.72000 5) Rs.10500

18
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

109. Ravi borrowed Rs. P from Siva at the rate of 5% p.a. for three years at S.I. Out of
4
the total amount he borrowed, he invested th part of the amount at the rate of
5
10% p.a. on compound interest for three years, and the rest was spent on shopping.
If after three years Ravi has to pay Siva Rs. 25560 after deducting the total
amount received from the investment, then what is the value of 'P'?
1) Rs. 200000 2) Rs. 400000 3) Rs. 300000 4) Rs. 100000 5) Rs. 500000
Direction (110-114): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.

r’s
The following Bar graph shows the percentage of female passengers and the
percentage of passengers below 30 years old in five train coaches (B1, B2, B3, B4
and B5) out of the total passengers in coach of the train.

90
80
70
ha
60
50

E Percentage of female
passengers
d
40 Percentage of passengers
below 30 years old
30
20
ee

10
0
C
B1 B2 B3 B4 B5
Sr

Note:
1. Total number of passengers in coach B1 is 80.
2. Total number of passengers in coach B3 and coach B4 at 10% less and 10%
more than the total number of passengers in coach B1 respectively.
3. The ratio of the total number of passengers in coach B2 to the total number of
passengers in coach B3 is 25 : 24.
4. The total number of passengers in coach B5 is 50% of the total number of
C
passengers in coach B1.
5. The Cost of a ticket per person is Rs.370.
110. What is the total cost of tickets female passengers in all the given coaches?
1) Rs. 78500 2) Rs. 48500 3) Rs. 68450 4) Rs. 55600 5) Rs. 72500
111. What is the total number of female passengers above 30 years old in the all the
given coaches?
1) 212 2) 143 3) 150
4) 145 5) Insufficient data
112. If a 40% discount is given on tickets to all passengers below 30 years, then how
much amount is collected from passengers below 30 years old? (in Rs.)
1) 32416 2) 35065 3) 31426 4) 31746 5) 36500
113. The average number of total passengers in all the coaches is approximately what
percentage of the total number of male passengers in coaches B1, B2, B5, and
B4?
1) 77 2) 52 3) 35 4) 62 5) 47

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

114. What is the ratio of all female passengers in all 5 coaches together to the
passenger, who are 30 and above 30 years old from all five coaches together?
1) 185:232 2) 185:212 3) 175:212 4) 185:106 5) 106:150
115. A closed wooden box of thickness 2 cm. If outer length, breadth and height of the
wooden box are 24 cm, 20 cm and 20 cm respectively, if inner surface area of the
wooden box is painted with black color and the rate of cost of painting is Rs.9.5
per cm2, then what is the total cost of painting?
1) Rs. 14480 2) Rs. 13460 3) Rs. 16740 4) Rs. 17024 5) None of these
Direction (116-120): Study the following information carefully and answer the

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questions given below.
The following Scatter Graph depicts two axes: the x-axis and the y-axis.
Here, the x-axis represents the women population, and the y-axis represents the
total students (men + women) in all six schools: A, B, C, D, E, and F.
ha
4500
B D
4000
3500

E E
TOTAL POPULATION

d
3000
C
2500
A
ee

2000
1500
F
1000
C
500
0
Sr

0 500 1000 1500 2000 2500 3000

WOMEN POPULATION

116. The total number of women in all the villages is approximately how much
C
percentage more or less than the men population in all the villages together?
1) 10% 2) 20% 3) 14% 4) 12% 5) 4%
117. The number of women population in villages B, C, and E is what percentage of the
total population of that villages? (approximately)
1) 45% 2) 40% 3) 35% 4) 48% 5) 54%
118. If the value of ‘x’ is the total population of the given villages, then find the value of
4 (x-12239) .
1) 81 2) 21 3) 11 4) 41 5) 9
119. In village E each women and men buy a gift coupon for Rs. 200 and Rs. 350,
respectively. In village F each woman and each man received 35% more and 40%
less amount than those in village E, respectively. Find the difference between
collected money of gift coupons of men and women in village F.
1) Rs.1,54,000 2) Rs.14,400 3) Rs.1,20,000 4) Rs.1,44,000 5) Rs.1,53,000

20
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

1
120. If the equation x2-ax+c = 0 here the value of ‘a’ is of the total men population of
24
79
the given villages and the value of ‘c’ is of the total women population of the
368
given villages. Then find the roots of the given quadratic equation.

1) 395,5 2) 385,15 3) 275,125 4) 225,175 5) 350,50

Direction(121-125): Study the following information carefully and answer the

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questions given below.

There are five shops P, Q, R, S, and T. Each shop sells a different number of
Keyboards and Bluetooth. The number of Bluetooth sold in shop P is 50% more
than the number of Keyboards sold in the same shop. The number of Keyboards
sold in shop Q is half the number of Bluetooth sold in shop P. The Average number
ha
of items Keyboards and Bluetooth sold in shop T is 130. The ratio of the number of
Bluetooth sold in shop R to S is 11:9. The number of Bluetooth sold in shop R is 20

E
more than the number of Keyboards sold in the same shop. The number of
Keyboards sold in shop T is twice the number of Keyboards sold in shop S. The
Ratio of the number of Keyboards sold in shop R to S is 9:7. The number of
d
1
Bluetooth sold in shop R is 8 % less than the number of Bluetooth sold in shop
3
ee

P. The difference between the number of Keyboards and Bluetooth sold in shop P
is 40. The ratio of the number of Keyboards to Bluetooth sold in shop Q is 3:2.
C
121. The ratio of the number of Keyboards from brand X to Y sold by shop S is 4:3 and
the ratio of the number of Bluetooth sold by the same shop from brand X to Y is
3:2. What is the difference between the total items of Keyboards and Bluetooth
Sr

from brand X and Y sold by shop S?

1) 38 2) 45 3) 60 4) 28 5)10

122. Selling price of each Keyboard in shop S is Rs.420 and each Bluetooth is Rs.590
in shop S. Find the total revenue earned by shop S? (in Rs.)
C
1) 72500 2) 82500 3) 83500 4) 72800 5)75600

123. What is the difference between the total numbers of bluetooth’s sold in shops P, R
and T together and the total number of Keyboards sold in shops Q, S and T
together?

1) 70 2) 60 3)75 4) 80 5)55

124. Find the average number of Keyboards sold in the given shops together.

1) 88 2) 85 3)72 4) 82 5) 92

125. If the total number of Bluetooth’s sold in the all the shops is ‘X’. then find the
value of 3
x  32

1) 24 2) 5 3)8 4) 9 5) 12

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

Direction (126-128): Each question below is followed by two statements I and II.
You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for
answering the question.
126. What is the actual fraction?
Statement I: When 3 is added to the denominator of a fraction and 8 is subtracted
1 th
from its numerator, then the new fraction becomes of the actual fraction.
4
Statement II: When numerator of number is decreased by 30% and denominator
7 th

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is increased by 20%, then the new fraction becomes of the actual fraction.
12
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in II alone
is not sufficient.
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in I alone
is not sufficient.
ha
3) The data in both statements together is sufficient to answer.
4) The data in both statements together is not sufficient to answer.

E
5) The data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer.
d
127. Liam, Rowan and Aswer entered into a partnership with investment of Rs.2P,
Rs.(P + 20000) and Rs. (2P - 20000) respectively. After one year, Liam invested
Rs.10000 more. At the end of two years from the start of partnership, they earned
ee

a total profit of Rs.2,48,000. Find the share of Aswer in the profit.

Statement I: Share of Aswer in the profit is Rs. 80000.
Statement II: Ratio of the shares of Rowan and Aswer in the profit is 5:4
C
respectively.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in II alone
Sr

is not sufficient.
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in I alone
is not sufficient.
3) The data in both statements together is sufficient to answer.
4) The data in both statements together is not sufficient to answer.
5) The data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
C
answer.
128. Pens sold by a shopkeeper are 35% of the pencils available at the shop. How many
pens are available things (Available things = pencils + pens)?
Statement I: Pens sold are 20% of the total available things. Total pencils sold
are 50 more than pens sold.
Statement II: Ratio of pencils sold to total available things is 17:35, respectively.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in II alone
is not sufficient.
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in I alone
is not sufficient.
3) The data in both statements together is sufficient to answer.
4) The data in both statements together is not sufficient to answer.
5) The data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

Direction (129-131) : Study the data carefully and answer the given question:
The following data gives the number of migrants that migrated to three countries
X, Y and Z in 2023 and 2024. The total number of migrants in all three countries in
2023 was 13700. The total number of migrants in country Y was 9600.
Country X: The ratio of the number of migrants in 2023 and 2024 was 13:10
respectively.
Country Y: The number of migrants in 2024 was 100 less than the number of
migrants in X in 2023.
Country Z: The number of migrants in 2024 was 62.5% less than that in 2023.
The total number of migrants was 500 more than that of country X in 2024.
129. What is the percentage of migrants in countries Y and Z together in 2023 out of
the total migrants in all three countries in 2023? (Rounded off to two decimals)

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1) 45.73% 2) 66.75% 3) 56.75% 4) 75.73% 5) 52.55%
130. What is the difference between the total number of migrants in all the given
countries in 2023 and 2024?
1) 800 2) 600 3) 1200 4) 840 5) 750
131. If the total number of migrants from the given countries is ‘P’. Then find the value
of 2
P -4100 .
1) 225 2) 150 3) 15
ha 4)125 5) 175
Direction (132-136): What approximate value will come in place of the question

132. 3
10646 ×

E
mark (?) in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)
982
1368 + 3 = ? % of 3199 + 540.99
d
1) 19 2) 15 3) 5 4) 25 5) 23
133. 1762 + 16.66% of 779.99 - 99.99 = 7 × ? - (12.99 × 13.99)
ee

1) 27 2) 34 3) 45 4) 25 5) 37
134. 3
5831.99 × 22.02 × 5
242.75 ÷ 3
1330.55 = ? × 17.95
C
1) 10 2) 6 3) 20 4) 25 5) 15
3 2 ?
135. (38.85)  14.02  42.02  12.5%of 439.6   56.85
Sr

4.92
1) 500 2) 450 3) 250 4) 505 5) 350
136. 6560.15  5041.05  (15.90)  63.95 = 18.90 × 27.85 + ?
1) 412 2) 312 3) -312 4) 332 5) -412
Direction (137-139) :Read the following data carefully and answer the following
questions.
C
I. P2 - (S+ 2 144 ) × P + (11S + 2T2) = 0

3S
II.Q + + (33T + 2
225 )/Q = (S + 2
16 )
Q
9T×T 179
III.R + - = (2S - 2
529 )
R R
Note:
S is a two-digit even number, the unit digit of S is half of the tens digit of S.
The sum of digits of S is 6.
T = 8X- 9Y + 1, where X and Y are roots of Z2 – 31Z + 238 = 0, where T is a positive integer.
137. Which of the following statements is correct?
I. L.C.M of the largest root of equations I and II is 224.
II. The sum of the smallest root of equations I and II is 42.
III. The value of X is 14.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III
4) Both I and II 5) None

23
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

138. What is the product of the largest root of equation I and the smallest root of
equation II?
1) 476 2) 576 3) 684 4) 332 5) 466
139. What is the value of 23T – 29S + (14 × largest root of equation II)?
1) -570 2) 575 3) 570 4) 573 5) -573
140. Vijay aims to finish a task. Based on his assessment, he believes that working 9
hours a day would allow him to complete the task within 36 days. However, due to
his constrained timetable, Vijay is restricted to dedicating a maximum of 1 hour
on weekdays and 2 hours on weekends. Assuming he initiates the task on a
Monday, in how many days did he complete the task (in terms of days) within

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which he can complete the task given that Saturday and Sunday count as
weekends?
1) 216 2) 225 3) 250 4) 240 5) 252
REASONING
Direction: (141-145) Study the given information and answer the given questions:
ha
Step – 1: Five people - A, B, C, D, and E have different weights. C is heavier than
D. E is lighter than B. A is heavier than D, but not the heaviest. C is lighter than
E.

E
Step – 2: Five people - F, G, H, I, and J got different marks in an exam. H got more
marks than only J. G got more marks than I. F got more Marks than H but not the
highest marks.
d
Step – 3: Five people - K, L, M, N, and O have different heights. L is shorter than
only N. M is shorter than L. O is taller than M.
As many people taller than L as lighter than A. As many people got highest marks
ee

than J as taller than K. As many people got more marks than I as heavier than E.
· They travel in five different cars numbered Car-1, Car-2, Car-3, Car-4, and Car-
5.
C
· At least two people and not more than four people are travelling in each car.
· P, Q, R, S, T, are teachers. Five teachers travel in five different cars.
Sr

· Same group people not travel in same car (e.g. A, B, C, D, E is related to

same group (weight) so, they won’t travel in same car).
· Cars are moving according to the serial number (e.g. Car-2 moves after Car-
1 and Car-3 moves after Car-2 and so on... Car-5 moves after Car-4).
(Note: A travels with B means both A and B travels in same car).
T travels with O in an even numbered car. Only two cars travel between T
travels and G travels. Q travels with F. S travels with J in an odd numbered car
C
after T travels. F travels before O. A travels with N and he travels immediately
before P. R travels after A travels and with least number of people. The number of
people travelling in a car along with R is not equal to any other car. H travels with
M. C travels before B. E travels after N. Not more than 16 people are travelling.
141. E travels with teacher _____.
1) R 2) P 3) T 4) Q 5) S
142. The tallest person travels in which of the following car?
1) Car 4 2) Car 5 3) Car 1 4) Car 2 5) Car 3
143. Who amongst the following people travel with P as per the given arrangement?
1) MHB 2) JNA 3) FC 4) G 5) HME
144. As many people lighter than C as taller than ________.
1) K 2) L 3) O 4) M 5) N
145. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) SN 2) TB 3) QC 4) RE 5) PM

24
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

146. Read the paragraph carefully and answer the given question:
A group of Indian innovators is working hard on bringing into the market, a
wide range of patient-care products which are effective and affordable. The Jaipur
foot and the lenses used during cataract surgeries are the outcomes of such
innovation. India has the right kind of expertise for such researches but finance
has always been an issue.
Which of the following can be the best course of action with regard to the problem
presented in the given information?
1) The senior researchers involved in such researches must also contribute to
other projects along with these

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2) Indian venture capitalists and the Government must make some arrangements
for funding such researches
3) The doctors and surgeons who use these products on their patients should go
on a strike until any action is taken regarding the funds
4) The innovators should make high end products instead of affordable ones
ha
5) The innovators must stop their research and start contributing to other ongoing
projects which are adequately sponsored
Direction (147-150): A number arrangement machine arranges two digit numbers

E
in a certain manner. Step-1 is obtained by taking the difference of the numbers
given in Input on the basis of given arrows. Each step is obtained by applying an
operation different from the previous step. Each step gives output taking input
d
from the previous step.
Input:
ee
C
Sr
C

Step 4 is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the
above steps, Find out in each of the following questions.

147. What is the sum of the digits in step 3?

1) 11 2) 13 3) 10 4) 9 5) 8

25
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

148. What is the difference between the first digit of third pair box and second digit of
the first pair box in step 1 of given input?
1) 5 2) 7 3) 6 4) 2 5) 4
149. Which among the following digit will appear in the step 2 of the given input?
1) 2 2) 6 3) 9 4) 7 5) both (3) and (4)
150. If the digit of the step 4 is added to the second digit of step 3 then what will be the
resultant?
1) 8 2) 10 3) 9 4) 7 5) 11
Directions: (151-152) Study the following information carefully and answer the

r’s
questions given below
FAN SIM CUT BAG LOW HEN
151. If the positions of first and last alphabets of each word are interchanged, then
write next letter to first letter and write previous letter to third letter of each
word according to the alphabetical order then how many words can have the
more than one vowel?
1) Two
ha
2) Three 3) Six 4) Five 5) Four
152. If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary

E
from left to right, then what is the second letter of the word formed with the
letters, third letter of first word, third letter of second word, first letter of third
d
word and second letter of sixth word from left to right? If no such word can be
formed give answer as Z. If more than one word can be formed give answer as X.
1) X 2) Z 3) I 4) F 5) G
ee

Direction (153-155): Study the given information and answer the question:
A senior professor from College Z refused to take print-outs or soft copies of an
assignment from his students. He insisted on handwritten assignments. Later,
C
he agreed to extend the deadline for this particular assignment by three days so
that the students had enough time to re-do the assignment.
Sr

(A) Many students copy material from internet websites, change the language
here and there and do not make efforts to actually understand the assignment.
(B) Some students tried to submit the soft-copies and printouts of the assignment
on the submission date which was decided initially.
(C) Students were more comfortable with completing their assignment on computers
than writing it down.
C
(D) Students complained against the professor to the Principal of College Z.
(E) There were other assignments that had to be completed and wasting three
more days on this one was not feasible for the students.
(F) Submitting a print-out or a soft copy of the assignment is better because it
saves time and factors like handwriting do not come into play.
153. Which statements out of (A), (B), (E) and (F) can strengthen the professor’s stand?
1) Only (F) 2) Both (A) and (E) 3) Only(B)
4) only (A) 5) Only(E)
154. Which statements out of (A), (B), (D), (E) and (F) can work as an argument from
the students’ side?
A senior professor from College Z refused to take print-outs or soft copies of an
assignment from
1) Both (E) and (F) 2) Only (A) 3) Only (B)
4) Both (A) and (D) 5) Both (D) and (E)

26
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

155. Which statements out of (A), (B), (C), (D) and (F) can be a consequence derived
from the given information?
1) only (D) 2) only (A) 3) Only(B) 4) Only(C) 5) Only(F)
Direction (156-160): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
Eight people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a square table
in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the table while four of them
sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The one who is sitting in the middle of

r’s
the sides are facing outside(i.e. opposite to the center) and the one who is sitting
at the corners are facing the center of the table. They all were born in different
years the eldest person was born in 1959 and the second youngest person was 38
years old. They all belong to different countries. The person’s ages are calculated
based on the year 2023.
ha
G sits second to the left of the youngest person. The one who was born in
1985 sits third to the left of D. The sum of the ages of C and the one who is from
Austria is 96 years. The age of G is more than 45 years, and D and G face opposite

E
directions. The one who is from Cuba is immediate left of D. One person sits
between one who is from Cuba and one’s age is 64 years. The age difference
d
between G and A is 35 years. The one from Belgium sits third to the right of A.
The one who is from Germany sits immediate right of B. As many people sit
between A and B (to the left of A)as between G and one who is 6 years younger
ee

than G (to the right of G). C is younger than E. F is not from Belgium and one
person sits between F and one who is from Japan. F was 5 years older than one
C
who is from Germany. H sits second to the right of one who is from Australia. The
age difference between H and A is 13 years. The one who is from Austria and one
who is from France are immediate neighbors. The one who is from Malaysia sits
Sr

immediate right of one who is 7 years elder than H. B was older than H but not to
D. The one who is from Malaysia is facing away from the center.
156. What will be the age of one who is from Australia?
1) 52years 2) 41 years 3) 49 years 4) 47years 5) 42 years
157. The second eldest person is from ___________.
C
1) Australia 2) Malaysia 3) Austria 4) France 5) Belgium
158. The one from Japan was born in _________.
1) 1972 2) 1970 3) 1981 4) 1974 5) 1982
159. What is the position of E from one who is from Malaysia?
1) Second to the left 2) Second to the right
3) Third to the right 4) Third to the left
5) Fourth to the right
160. Which among the following pair is correct based on the given above arrangement?
1) A – Japan 2) H – 1981 3) France – 1965
4) Australia – 1959 5) D – 53 years

27
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

Directions: (161-163) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below. In the following questions, assuming the given conclusion
to be true, find which of the statements given them is/are definitely true.
161. Conclusions: I. Q  B II. H > R
1) Statements: H > Y = M  Q = V; R  C = Y  T = B
2) Statements: R < Q  M = C  Z; V = H  M = G  B
3) Statements: F < Q  T  H > M; B  U = T  R= J
4) Statements: C  K = Q  T > L > H; V < B = J  T  R = S
5) Statements: D  H < C = F  Q = L; R = Y  C > M  B = P

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162. Conclusions: I. F > D II. G  M
1) Statements: M  Y = Z  Q < F; D < T  Z  R = G  H
2) Statements: F > L = G  H = Y  B > D; R = V  Y = Q  M
3) Statements: S  F  Q > T = G  L; Y > M = R  T  D= B
ha
4) Statements: Y = G  V = J < R > T < F; D < H = S  R = C  M
5) Statements: Q  G  V = H > D; F > J = S  V > Y = M  L
163. Conclusions: I. K  G II. R < B

E
1) Statements: K  S = T < R = F  G; R = L  M = P < Z = B
2) Statements: S  D = K  H < B = L; Q < G  H < R = U
d
3) Statements: Q  M = K  L > V > R; T = H  L  G; H > Y < B
4) Statements: T= K  V = P > R=S; F > G = C  P  L; D = G < M  B
ee

5) Statements: H = O  K > P  R = N; B > C = O  G = S

Direction (164-168): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
C
question:
Eight people - J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q were born in two different years 1998
and 1999. The number of people born in 1998 is more than the number of people
Sr

born in 1999. The people who were born in the same year were not born in the
same month. They all belong to different cities viz. Ranchi, Delhi, Kolkata, Varanasi,
Bhopal, Kochi, Mumbai, and Chennai.
Note: If given that two people were born in the same month means they weren’t
born in the same year.
L was born in the month which has the odd number of days but not before
C
June. One person was born between L and Q. As many people were born before Q
as after P. Both P and Q were not born in the same year. Even number of people
was born before O. O belongs to either Ranchi or Kochi. Q was just older than O.
No one was born in August. The one who belongs to Mumbai was just younger
than L. Four people were born between one who was born in November and K. N
and M were born in the same month. Two people were born between N and one
who belongs to Bhopal. Three people were born between J and one born in March.
As many people were born between M and one who belongs to Mumbai as P and
one who born in Kochi. Two people were born between one who was born in April
and one who belongs to Delhi. Three months between one who was born in
September and one who belongs to Chennai. No one is born between one who is
born in January and one who belongs to Bhopal. The one who belongs to Varanasi
is older than the one who belongs to Kolkata.
164. O was born in which month?
1) March 2) April 3) May 4) June 5) July

28
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

165. How many months between P’s born month and J’s born month?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Seven 5) Eight
166. The one who born in November was belongs to _________.
1) Mumbai 2) Delhi 3) Chennai 4) Kolkata 5) Both 1 and 4
167. Who is the youngest person, who born in 1998?
1) J 2) N 3) M 4) P 5) K
168. The people born in 1999 was born in which months?
1) September, November, and December 2) May, September, November
3) May, November 4) July, October, and November

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5) May, September
Direction (169): Read the paragraph carefully and answer the given question.
The arrival of big retailers has no doubt had an effect on the Kirana Stores -
a place where most of the buying used to happen until the early 2000s. In place of
5 kirana stores that used to co-exist in a typical residential area now there are
ha
one or two. It has been found that people usually buy unique situation products
and low shelf-life products from the local Kirana, while planned grocery and
high-value products are typically purchased in supermarkets that offer better

E
bargains and quality assurance. The market is appealing to big retail players, the
kirana stores have good reason to worry about their position.
169. Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An inference
d
is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given
information)
ee

1) if there are more than two or three kirana stores in a typical residential area,
the competition among them gets very high.
2) Kirana store owners are vying to acquire franchisee of supermarkets as the
C
local shops have lost their charm and business.
3) People tend to trust retail outlets and supermarkets when it comes to buying
Sr

high-value products as opposed to buying them from local shops.

4) Most supermarket and retail outlet owners choose to set up businesses in
areas that have very few kirana stores.
5) Kirana stores do not sell the products which consumers have on their
regular shopping lists, so they have to depend on supermarkets.
Direction (170-172): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
C
P@Q means P is the child of Q.
P$Q means P is brother of Q
P*Q means P is wife of Q
P ! Q means P is son-in-law of Q
P&Q means P is Father of Q
P%Q means P is Paternal Aunt of Q
170. How is S related to M in the given expression “S%R@T*Q$V@M”?
1) Daughter-in-law 2) Daughter 3) Sister-in-law
4) Sister 5) Mother-in-law
171. How is F related to V in the given expression “F&D*G!K%R@V”?
1) Brother 2) Mother 3) Father 4) Cousin 5) Brother-in-law
172. Which of the following expression is definitely true based on the given expression
“K!T&R@B%S$V”?
1) T&S 2) K!B 3) V%B 4) T@R 5) V$S

29
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

Direction (173-177): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
Six people are living in twelve floors of a building in alternatively with men
and women as three men and three women and same gender people don’t live
one after one immediately living floors. They like different colours. There are an
even number of floors are above the D’s floors. At least two people live below D.
Two people live between D and one who likes Blue. No one lives between one who
likes Blue and S. As many people are live above S as below one who likes Yellow.
S likes either Green or Pink. T lives above one who likes Yellow. F lives below K
and she likes Pink. At least one person lives between S and T. The number of
people live above A is two more than the number of people lives below the one who
likes Violet. K doesn’t like Orange.

r’s
173. If the one who likes Orange and the one who likes Blue are siblings D is the
spouse of one who is not immediate to D then how is D related to T?
1) Brother 2) Sister 3) Sister-in-law
4) Brother-in-law 5) Can’t be determined
174. If K shifts his/her position to his/her opposite gender person, who is not immediate
to K, then how many people live below K?
175.
1) One
Who likes Blue?
1) S
2) Two

2) T
ha 3) Three

3) A
4) Four

4) F
5) either 1 or 3

5) D
176. Who among the following group is a female member?

177.
1) ASD 2) FAK

E 3) TDS 4) TDA 5) Data inadequate

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
d
not belong to that group?
1) T – Violet 2) 10th floor – pink 3) 1st floor – Green
th th
4) 9 floor – Orange 5) 4 floor – Blue
ee

Direction (178-180): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
PACKAGE VALUE GROWTH DEPENDS is coded as CG# FC$ ST@ TC$
WORK DEPENDS RATHER APPRECIATE is coded as DC# SR% CG# QQ@
C
MULTIPLE MARKETING PRODUCTS THERE is coded as MC$ ST# KW$ QJ#
178. What is the code for the word “BUTTERFLY”?
1) KW# 2) JV$ 3) JW# 4) KV$ 5) KX#
Sr

179. What is the code for the word “PRESENTATION”?

1) MT% 2) BT$ 3) NT% 4) CR& 5) MS&
180. Which among the following word and code combination is true?
1) COLOUR – TR$ 2) PLACE – BO# 3) DEVELOPE – OG%
4) DIRECT – BK# 5) REVENGE – FH#
Direction (181-182) : Study the given information and answer the question:
In a safety drive, conducted by the railways, last week around 100 passengers
were caught crossing the railway tracks at different local stations in the city.
C
Such irresponsible behaviour on the part of the passengers is one of the main
reasons for the increasing number of railway accidents.
(A) It takes a really long time for the passengers to come out of the railway
stations via foot-over bridges and subways as they are usually very crowded so
they take a shortcut and cross tracks
(B) The railway authorities must build fences and walls along the railway tracks
in order to discourage such crossing.
(C) Most of the passengers who cross the railway tracks are usually the ones who
are hurrying to their offices and do not have the time to climb the foot-over
bridges situated far away
(D) Such offenders should be fined and the guards should be more vigilant.
(E) A majority of these offenders were men
(F) Around 30% of railway related deaths can be attributed to the crossing of
railway tracks
181. Which of the following statements out of (A), (B), (C), and (E) can be a justification
for the passengers crossing the railway tracks?
1) Both (B) and (C) 2) Both (A) and (C) 3) Only (B)
4) Both (A) and (E) 5) Only (C)

30
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

182. Which of the following statements out of (A), (C), (E), and (F) may be the reason
behind the railways conducting the safety drive?
1) Only (C) 2) Both (A) and (E) 3) Both (A) and (C)
4) Only (A) 5) only (F)
Directions: (183-185) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below

letter C U D R I V T N L B E K Y A S

Number % 1 & 8 4 7 $ 5 2 3 6 @ # 9 ^

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Conditions:
I) If in a group of letters the second last letter alphanumeric value is even then it
is coded as code of first letter.
ha
II) If the fourth letter of the word is vowel then first and last letters codes are
interchanged.

E
III) If the last letter alphanumeric value is more than 10 then second letter from
left is coded as ‘¥’.
d
Conditions applied one after another from I to III.
183. What is the code for the word “ADVENTURE”?
1) 9¥765$196 2) 6&765$199 3) 9&765$186 4) 9&765$196 5) 9¥765$196
ee

184. What is the code for the word ‘CALARITY’?

1) #92984%% 2) %92984$# 3) #92984%% 4) #¥2984%% 5) %92984%#
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185. Which among the following word and code combination is true?
I. DESIRE - 66^4&&
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II. DECLINE - 66%245&

III. BASKET – 3¥^@6$
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III 4) Only II and III 5) Only I and III
Direction (186-187): Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
C
First twenty-five natural numbers are written from bottom to top. The letters
of the word ‘RADIUS’ are written in alphabetical order against the multiples of
four such that one letter is written against one number from bottom to top. Only
nine numbers are left blank and against rest of the numbers, letters viz. Y, J, K,
L, T, M, O, B, F, and P were written against rest of the numbers. No two immediate
numbers are blank.
There is only one letter placed between R and M. I is exactly between M and
O. As many numbers between M and S as between R and J. J is below R. Only one
letter between J and L. K is immediately above S. The top most number was not
left blank. Three letters are between K and Y. As many numbers between L and A
as between K and F. T placed below L. One number is between F and P. B is
exactly between R and S. Y is at odd numbered place.
186. How many letters are written below ‘Y’?
1) Nine 2) Eight 3) Six 4) Four 5) Ten

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 48

187. How many meaningful words can be formed by using the letters which are placed
at 2, 6, 11, and 25 positions (each letter using only once)?
1) Two 2) Three 3) One 4) None 5) More than three
Direction:(188-190) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below it:
& - Either the hour or minute hand of clock on 2
@ - Either the hour or minute hand of clock on 4
# - Either the hour or minute hand of clock on 3

r’s
% - Either the hour or minute hand of clock on 9
$ - Either the hour or minute hand of clock on 6
© - Either the hour or minute hand of clock on 8
Note - The first symbol represents the hours and second symbol represents the
minutes.
ha
Example: Time “$#” represents 6 hours 15 minutes.

E
188. A vehicle starts at “@$” and journey time takes 3 hrs 10 min, without stoppage,
but it stops for 40 min at what time it will reach destination?
d
1) ©@ 2) $& 3) $$ 4) @& 5) Data inadequate
189. A train arriving to Hyderabad at “#%”. It takes 5 hrs 15 min to reach Hyderabad
from Vijayawada. At what time it should depart from Vijayawada to arrive
ee

Hyderabad at least 45 min before the actual time of it?

1) $& 2) %$ 3) %& 4) @& 5) %%
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190. If a person takes for travel 1 hr 45 min to reach office and his work should starts
at “©@”. He wants to reach office 20 min before the work starting time. Then at
Sr

what time he has to start from home?

1) $# 2) @# 3) $@ 4) ©@ 5) %$

KEY
1.1 2.4 3.2 4.3 5.4 6.3 7.4 8.2 9.4 10.3
11.4 12.2 13.1 14.5 15.2 16.1 17.4 18.2 19.3 20.3
21.1 22.3 23.4 24.5 25.2 26.5 27.3 28.4 29.1 30.2
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31.5 32.4 33.1 34.2 35.1 36.5 37.2 38.3 39.1 40.2
41.1 42.2 43.5 44.2 45.3 46.1 47.3 48.4 49.2 50.3 SCAN QR FOR
51.2 52.3 53.5 54.2 55.4 56.2 57.2 58.5 59.3 60.2 OUR RESULTS
61.3 62.4 63.4 64.2 65.3 66.5 67.4 68.1 69.4 70.2
71.2 72.1 73.5 74.3 75.1 76.2 77.1 78.1 79.1 80.3
81.2 82.1 83.3 84.3 85.5 86.1 87.4 88.4 89.5 90.1
91.4 92.1 93.1 94.4 95.5 96.4 97.5 98.2 99.4 100.5
101.3 102.3 103.4 104.2 105.3 106.4 107.5 108.1 109.3 110.3
111.5 112.4 113.5 114.2 115.4 116.5 117.2 118.5 119.4 120.1
121.4 122.2 123.4 124.1 125.3 126.4 127.5 128.3 129.5 130.1
131.2 132.1 133.5 134.2 135.5 136.5 137.1 138.2 139.5 140.5
141.2 142.5 143.5 144.3 145.4 146.2 147.3 148.1 149.3 150.2
151.5 152.3 153.4 154.1 155.1 156.4 157.3 158.4 159.1 160.2
161.1 162.3 163.4 164.2 165.3 166.2 167.1 168.5 169.3 170.2
171.5 172.2 173.4 174.1 175.3 176.2 177.5 178.1 179.3 180.4
181.2 182.5 183.2 184.4 185.5 186.2 187.1 188.1 189.5 190.1

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