MCQs on ALGORITHMS

1. The word ____________comes from the name of a Persian mathematician

Abu Ja’far Mohammed ibn-i Musa al Khowarizmi.
a) Flowchart
b) Flow
c) Algorithm
d) Syntax
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The word algorithm comes from the name of a Persian
mathematician Abu Ja’far Mohammed ibn-i Musa al Khowarizmi.
2. In computer science, algorithm refers to a special method usable by a
computer for the solution to a problem.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. This word algorithm refers to a special
method usable by a computer for the solution to a problem. The statement of the
problem specifies in general terms the desired input/output relationship.
3. This characteristic often draws the line between what is feasible and what is
impossible.
a) Performance
b) System Evaluation
c) Modularity
d) Reliability
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Algorithms help us to understand scalability. Performance often
draws the line between what is feasible and what is impossible.
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4. The time that depends on the input: an already sorted sequence that is easier
to sort.
a) Process
b) Evaluation
c) Running
d) Input
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The running time depends on the input: an already sorted sequence
is easier to sort. The running time is given by the size of the input, since short
sequences are easier to sort than the longer ones. Generally, we seek upper
bounds on the running time, because it is reliable.
5. Which of the following is incorrect?
Algorithms can be represented:
a) as pseudo codes
b) as syntax
c) as programs
d) as flowcharts
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Representation of algorithms:
-As programs
-As flowcharts
-As pseudo codes.
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6. When an algorithm is written in the form of a programming language, it
becomes a _________
a) Flowchart
b) Program
c) Pseudo code
d) Syntax
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An algorithm becomes a program when it is written in the form of
a programming language. Thus, any program is an algorithm.
7. Any algorithm is a program.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. An algorithm is represented in the form of a
programming language is called a program. Any program is an algorithm but
the reverse is not true.
8. A system wherein items are added from one and removed from the other end.
a) Stack
b) Queue
c) Linked List
d) Array
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a queue, the items are inserted from the rear end and deleted
from the front end.
9. Another name for 1-D arrays.
a) Linear arrays
b) Lists
c) Horizontal array
d) Vertical array
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Linear arrays are the 1-Dimensional arrays wherein only one row
is present and the items are inserted.
10. A data structure that follows the FIFO principle.
a) Queue
b) LL
c) Stack
d) Union
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is Queue. A Queue follows the FIFO principle. FIFO
stands for First In First Out.

1. The symbol denotes _______

a) I/O
b) Flow
c) Terminal
d) Decision
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The symbol denotes a terminal. It is used for indication of start and
stop nodes of a program.
2. In computer science, algorithm refers to a pictorial representation of a
flowchart.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The correct statement would be: In
computer science, flowchart refers to a pictorial representation of an algorithm.

3. The process of drawing a flowchart for an algorithm is called __________

a) Performance
b) Evaluation
c) Algorithmic Representation
d) Flowcharting
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is called as flowcharting. A flowchart is nothing but a pictorial
representation of an algorithm.
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4. Actual instructions in flowcharting are represented in __________
a) Circles
b) Boxes
c) Arrows
d) Lines
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The actual instructions are written in boxes. Boxes are connected
by using arrows to indicate the exact flow of a flowchart and the order in which
they are to be executed.
5. The following box denotes?

a) Decision
b) Initiation
c) Initialization
d) I/O
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A diamond shape box denotes the decision making statements. It
jumps to a truth value or a false value.
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6. A box that can represent two different conditions.
a) Rectangle
b) Diamond
c) Circle
d) Parallelogram
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A diamond shape box denotes either a truth value or a false value.
It jumps onto two different statements following it via flow lines.
7. There should be certain set standards on the amount of details that should be
provided in a flowchart.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. There should be no set standards on the
amount of details that should be provided in a flowchart.
8. A detailed flowchart is called ______
a) Stack
b) Macro
c) Micro
d) Union
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A detailed flowchart or a flowchart with more details is called as
micro flowchart. It represents all the components of the algorithm that is
followed.
9. Which of the following is not an advantage of a flowchart?
a) Better communication
b) Efficient coding
c) Systematic testing
d) Improper documentation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Flowcharts provide a proper documentation. It also provides
systematic debugging.
10. A flowchart that outlines the main segments of a program.
a) Queue
b) Macro
c) Micro
d) Union
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is Macro Flowchart. A macro flowchart outlines the
important components of a program. It therefore shows fewer details.

1. A ______________ is diagram that depicts the flow of a program.

a) Algorithm
b) Hash Table
c) Graph
d) Flowchart
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A flowchart is a diagram that helps us determine the flow of the
program. Other options are irrelevant.
2. Terminals are represented by diagonals in a flowchart.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Terminals are represented by rounded
rectangles. They indicate the starting or ending point in a flowchart.
3. The operation represented by parallelograms.
a) Input/Output
b) Assignment
c) Comparison
d) Conditions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The input/output operations are represented by parallelograms.
They generally are used to display messages during input and output part of a
program.
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4. Which of the following is not a flowchart structure?
a) Process
b) Sequence
c) Repetition
d) Case
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are basically four flowcharting structures:
• Decision
• Repetition
• Case
• Sequence.
5. The action performed by a ___________ structure must eventually cause the
loop to terminate.
a) sequence
b) case
c) repetition
d) process
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The action performed by a repetition structure must eventually
cause the loop to terminate. Otherwise, an infinite loop is created.
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6. The following symbol denotes:

a) Module
b) Terminal
c) Process
d) i/o operation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This symbol is that of a module. The terminal is denoted by a
rounded rectangle. I/O operation by a parallelogram and process by a rectangle.
7. What type of structure is this?
a) sequence
b) case
c) repetition
d) process
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This is a repetition structure. The action performed by a repetition
structure must eventually cause the loop to terminate. Otherwise, an infinite
loop is created.
8. What type of a structure is this?

a) sequence
b) case
c) repetition
d) process
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This is a case structure. Certain cases are given along with a
default case in the case structure.
9. A _______ is a connector showing the relationship between the
representative shapes.
a) line
b) arrow
c) Process
d) box
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Arrows are the connectors that show the relationship between
different shapes. They also show the flow of the program.
10. The following box denotes?

a) Decision
b) Input/Output
c) Process
d) Module
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is decision. Conditions are given in this box and then
the result is checked accordingly if the condition is true or false.
1. Keep the statement language ______________ while writing a pseudo code.
a) Dependent
b) Independent
c) Case sensitive
d) Capitalized
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement’s language should be independent. Other rules are
to write only one statement per line and end multiline structures.
2. Capitalize initial keyword – This is a rule while writing a pseudo code.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. It is an important rule to capitalize the initial
keyword while writing a pseudo code.
3. Which of the following is not a keyword?
a) Read
b) Write
c) start
d) endif
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Start is not a Keyword. Other words like read, write, if, else, etc
are keywords and convey a special meaning.
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4. ______________ is used to show hierarchy in a pseudo code.
a) Indentation
b) Curly Braces
c) Round Brackets
d) Semicolon
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Each design structure uses a particular indentation pattern.
Indentation should be considered in the following cases:
Sequence
Selection
Loop.
5. The statement that tells the computer to get a value from an input device and
store it in a memory location.
a) read
b) write
c) READ
d) WRITE
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The READ statement is used to take the input. READ being a
keyword should be in capital letters.
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6. _____________ are identified by their addresses, we give them names (field
names / variable names) using words.
a) Memory variables
b) Memory Locations
c) Memory Addresses
d) Data variables
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Memory locations are identified by their addresses, we give them
names (field names/variable names) using words descriptive to us such as ctr as
opposed to a location addresses such as 19087.
7. ____________ begins with lower case letters.
a) Keywords
b) Variables
c) Tokens
d) Functions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Variables begin with a lowercase. They contain no spaces. They
also involve the consistent use of names.
8. Another notation for exponentiation.
a) *
b) **
c) ***
d) *^
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Double asterisk sign is also used for exponentiation. The general
notation is ^ sign.
9. A symbol used for grouping.
a) ()
b) {}
c) [].
d) ” ”
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Parenthesis is used for grouping while working with fields. There
are other symbols like *, +, -, **, etc.
10. A statement used to close the IF block.
a) ELSE
b) ELSEIF
c) END
d) ENDIF
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The answer is ENDIF. It is used to close the IF block. ENDIF
statement should be in line with the IF statement.
1. Programming based on stepwise refinement process.
a) Structural
b) C programming
c) Procedural
d) Fine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Structured programming is based on the stepwise refinement
process-a method of problem decomposition common to all engineering
disciplines and the physical, chemical, and biological sciences.
2. Top-down approach is followed in structural programming.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Structural programming follows the top –
down approach. Each module is further divided into sub modules.
3. A ________ is a directed graph that describes the flow of execution control
of the program.
a) Flowchart
b) Flow graph
c) Complexity curve
d) Algorithm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A flowchart is a directed graph. It simply describes the flow of
execution control of the program.
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4. A program should be ________
a) Secure
b) Sequential
c) Ordered
d) Simple
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is natural to write a program as a sequence of program structures
such as sequences, choices and loops.
5. The following is the syntax for:

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____(condition)
action
a) Else
b) Elif
c) If
d) Switch
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The if statement follows that syntax. If is a choice statement. Else
is also a choice statement.
6. Which of the following is a loop statement?
a) IF
b) ELSE
c) WHILE
d) DO
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: WHILE is a loop statement.
Syntax : while(condition)
action.
7. What is the correct syntax of for statement?
a) for(initialization;condition;update)
b) for(initialization,condition,update)
c) for(condition;initialization;update)
d) for(initialization;condition;)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct syntax is : for(initialization;condition;update)
For is another loop statement.
8. Semicolon is used after :
a) Function definition
b) Function call
c) for loop
d) while loop
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Semicolon is used after function call otherwise it leads to compile-
time errors. It shouldn’t be used after definitions. It should also not be used after
loops.
9. The number of values a function can return at a time?
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) more than 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A function can return only one value at a time.
Syntax : return (x,12);
10. Which of the following isn’t a loop statement?
a) for
b) elif
c) while
d) do-while
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is elif. Elif isn’t a loop statement. It is a part of a
choice statement.
1. The language made up of binary coded instructions.
a) Machine
b) C
c) BASIC
d) High level
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The language made up of binary coded instructions built into the
hardware of a particular computer and used directly by the computer is machine
language.
2. Binary code comprises of digits from 0 to 9.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Binary as the word suggests contains only 2
digits : 0 and 1.
0 denotes false and 1 denotes a truth value.
3. The ___________ contains the address of the next instruction to be executed.
a) IR
b) PC
c) Accumulator
d) System counter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PC stands for program counter (It contains the address of the next
instruction to be executed).
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4. The memory unit is made up of _____ bytes.
a) 256
b) 124
c) 4096
d) 3096
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The memory unit is made up of 4,096 bytes. Memory unit is
responsible for the storage of data. It is an important entity in the computer
system.
5. A document that specifies how many times and with what data the program
must be run in order to thoroughly test it.
a) addressing plan
b) test plan
c) validation plan
d) verification plan
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Test plan is the A document that specifies how many times and
with what data the program must be run in order to thoroughly test it. It comes
under testing.
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6. An approach that designs test cases by looking at the allowable data values.
a) Maintenance
b) Evaluation
c) Data coverage
d) Validation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Data coverage is the term used. It is responsible for designing the
test cases.
7. The formal grammar rules governing the construction of valid instruction.
a) test case
b) syntax
c) program
d) semantics
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Syntax determines the grammatical rules in a code. Semantics give
meaning to the instructions.
8. A program that reads each of the instructions in mnemonic form and
translates it into the machine-language equivalent.
a) Machine language
b) Assembler
c) Interpreter
d) C program
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Assembler does this job. A language that uses mnemonic codes for
the representation of machine-language instructions is called assembly
language.
9. An approach that designs test cases by looking at the allowable data values.
a) Data coverage
b) Code Coverage
c) Debugging
d) Validation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Data coverage is an approach that designs test cases by looking at
the allowable data values. Code coverage is an approach that designs test cases
by looking at the code.
10. The rules that give meaning to the instructions.
a) Semantics
b) Syntax
c) Code
d) Cases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is semantics. They are the rules that give meaning to
the instructions. The syntax is the formal rules that ensure validation of code.
1. Each personal computer has a _________ that manages the computer’s
arithmetical, logical and control activities.
a) Microprocessor
b) Assembler
c) Microcontroller
d) Interpreter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Microprocessor handles all these activities. Each family of
processors has its own set of instructions for handling various operations like
getting input from keyboard, displaying information on a screen and performing
various other jobs.
2. Assembly Language requires less memory and execution time.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true.
Advantages of using assembly language are:
• It requires less memory and execution time.
• It allows hardware-specific complex jobs in an easier way.
• It is suitable for time-critical jobs.
3. The data size of a word is _________
a) 2-byte
b) 4-byte
c) 8-byte
d)16-byte
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The processor supports the following data sizes:
• Word: a 2-byte data item
• Double word: a 4-byte (32 bit) data item, etc.
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4. A direct reference of specific location.
a) Segment Address
b) Absolute Address
c) Offset
d) Memory Address
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two kinds of memory addresses:
• An absolute address – a direct reference of specific location.
• The segment address (or offset) – starting address of a memory segment with
the offset value.
5. A Borland Turbo Assembler.
a) nasm
b) tasm
c) gas
d) asm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tasm is the borland turbo assembler. Nasm is used with linux
generally. Gas is the GNU assembler.
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6. The instructions that tell the assembler what to do.
a) Executable instructions
b) Pseudo-ops
c) Logical instructions
d) Macros
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The executable instructions or simple instructions tell the
processor what to do. Each instruction consists of an operation code (opcode).
Each executable instruction generates one machine language instruction.
7. The segment containing data values passed to functions and procedures
within the program.
a) Code
b) Data
c) Stack
d) System
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The stack segment contains data values passed to functions and
procedures within the program. The code segment defines an area in memory
that stores the instruction codes.
8. To speed up the processor operations, the processor includes some internal
memory storage locations, called ___________
a) Drives
b) Memory
c) Units
d) Registers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The processor has some internal memory storage locations, known
as registers. The registers stores data elements for processing without having to
access memory.
9. To locate the exact location of data in memory, we need the starting address
of the segment, which is found in the DS register and an offset value. This
offset value is also called?
a) Effective Address
b) Direct offset address
c) Memory address
d) General Address
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When operands are specified in memory addressing mode, direct
access to main memory, usually to the data segment, is required. This way of
addressing results in slower processing of data. To get the exact location of data
in memory, we need segment start address, which is found in the DS register
and an offset value. This offset value is called an effective address.
10. Each byte of character is stored as its ASCII value in _______
a) Hexadecimal
b) Binary
c) Octal
d) Decimal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Assembly language deals with hexadecimal values only. Each
decimal value is automatically converted to its 16-bit binary equivalent and
stored as a hexadecimal number.
1. Prolog comes under ___________
a) Logic Programming
b) Procedural Programming
c) OOP
d) Functional
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Prolog stands for Programming in Logic. The options mentioned
are the four categories of programming. Prolog is a type of logic programming.
2. Java is procedural programming.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Java is a type of object oriented
programming language. It involves solving real-life problems as well.
3. A program that can execute high-level language programs.
a) Compiler
b) Interpreter
c) Sensor
d) Circuitry
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Interpreter is a program that can execute high-level language
programs “directly,” without first being translated into machine language.
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4. Executables might be called ________
a) native code
b) executable code
c) complex code
d) machine code
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The executables are sometimes called native code. HLL are
translated to Machine language called the native code.
5. Source program is compiled to an intermediate form called ___________
a) Byte Code
b) Smart code
c) Executable code
d) Machine code
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Source program is compiled to an intermediate form called
byte code. For each supported platform, write a “virtual machine” emulator that
reads byte code and emulates its execution.
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6. _______________ is the assembly language for an imaginary architecture.
a) Byte code
b) Machine code
c) Native code
d) Executable code
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Source program is compiled to an intermediate form – byte code.
Byte code is the assembly language for an imaginary architecture.
7. JIT stands for?
a) Just in time
b) Jump in time
c) Jump in text
d) Jump in terms
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: JIT stands for Just in time. JVMs actually compile each bytecode
instruction to native code the first time it is used.
8. JVM stands for?
a) Java virtual machine
b) Java visual machine
c) JRE virtual machine
d) JRE visual machine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: JVM stands for Java Virtual Machine. Other related terms are JRE
which is java runtime environment and JDK which is java development kit.
9. A language supported by MS. Net platform.
a) C
b) C++
c) java
d) C#
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: C# is supported by MS. Net platform. JAVA was originally
designed for web purposes.
10. Which of the following isn’t a characteristic of High level languages?
a) machine code
b) platform independent
c) interactive execution
d) user-friendly
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: HLL isn’t in machine language. It is converted to machine
language for further processing.
1. Which is interpreted language?
a) C++
b) C
c) MATLAB
d) Fortran
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: MATLAB is an interpreted language. All the other languages are
compiled languages. In the case of Interpreted language, the translation to
machine-language is performed incrementally at run-time.
2. In compiled language, the translation to machine-language is performed
incrementally at run-time.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The translation is performed once, then
executable file is run as frequently as needed without further translation.
3. The first widely-used high level language developed in 1957.
a) C
b) Java
c) Fortran
d) Cobol
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fortran which stands for Formula Translation was the first widely-
used high level language. It was developed by IBM for scientific applications.
The program was entered as punch cards.
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4. A text file that contains our program is called as __________
a) Exe file
b) Doc file
c) Obj file
d) Source file
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A file that contains the code or the main program is called as the
source file. Source code must be processed by a compiler to create an
executable file.
5. First statement in a fortran code is _________
a) include statement
b) import statement
c) program statement
d) @data statement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is the program statement. program statement is followed by the
program name.
Syntax : program xyz
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6. A Fortran is not ___________
a) System supported
b) Source supported
c) Case Sensitive
d) Programmer supported
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fortran is not a case sensitive language. For e.g. PROGRAM xyz
also works. Also, multiple consecutive blank spaces are ignored.
7. The delimiter in a FORTRAN code.
a) Semicolon
b) Blank space
c) Colon
d) Comma
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Delimiter separates the tokens we use in our code. In a FORTRAN
code, single blank space serves as a delimiter. Though, multiple blank spaces
are ignored.
8. A program that reads the source code and converts it to a form usable by the
computer.
a) Interpreter
b) Compiler
c) Linker
d) Assembler
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A compiler does this task. Internally, 3 steps are performed:
preprocessing, checking and compiling. Further, assembler and linker do the
work.
9. A valid variable declaration in FORTRAN is __________
a) real :: Celsius
b) real Celsius;
c) Celsius real;
d) real : Celsius
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A variable declaration has the following syntax:
Data type :: variable name
10. In FORTRAN, the declarations of variables can be modified using the
_____ parameter.
a) kind
b) make
c) select
d) change
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Kind can be used for this purpose. It can often be used for the
precision of reals. If you want to change the precision, it can easily be done
using one line of code.
1. COBOL stands for _________
a) Common Business Oriented Language
b) Common Business Object Language
c) Common Beneficial Oriented Language
d) Common Beneficial Object Language
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: COBOL stands for Common Business Oriented Language. It is
designed for business purpose. It is fast and relatively simple to learn.
2. COBOL is a language that keeps evolving.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. COBOL has billions of lines of existing
code with more added each year. It thus keeps updating itself.
3. Which of the following is not a part of the program division in COBOL?
a) Identification
b) Environment
c) Procedure
d) Compilation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: COBOL has 4 basic parts in the division section: Identification,
Environment, data and procedure. Each program is organized like a book.
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4. Which of the following is not a part of the Identification division?
a) Paragraphs
b) Entries
c) Phrases
d) Clauses
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The order of identification division is:
Paragraphs
Entries
Clauses.
5. D in COBOL stands for _________
a) Data
b) Draft
c) Debugger
d) Debugging lines
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It stands for debugging lines. Compiler fills in with the sequence
numbers. There are certain coding rules that must be followed in COBOL.
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6. Comment in COBOL is denoted by ________
a) *
b) /
c) //
d) ;
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Comment is denoted by asterisk. (*) It denotes the comment line.
Hyphen – denotes continuation.
7. The data division is used to ________
a) Declare program id
b) Declare variables
c) File control
d) Input-Output section
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The data division is used to declare and create variables and
constant fields. There are 3 basic data types in COBOL.
8. Which is not a data type in COBOL?
a) numeric
b) alphanumeric
c) alphabetic
d) float
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There is no data type called as float in COBOL. It has only 3 basic
data types: numeric, alphabetic and alphanumeric. Variables are created in the
data division.
9. What does S denote in a picture clause?
a) A symbol
b) A character
c) A sign
d) Alphanumeric sign
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It denotes a sign in a picture clause. Picture clause values usually
use 9, X, V, S, A.
10. _____________ denotes the format in which data is stored in memory.
a) kind
b) attach
c) select
d) usage
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Usage denotes the format in which data is stored in the memory.
Normally the phrase usage is omitted in COBOL.
1. ______________ is done in the development phase by the developers.
a) Deployment
b) Debugging
c) Verification
d) Validation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Debugging is done in the development phase by the developer. In
development phase developer fixes the bug (i.e) called debugging.
2. Testing is conducted by the developers in testing phase.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Testing is conducted by the testers in
testing phase. Testing is a process of finding the defects from a user
perspective(Black Box Testing).
3. Process of evaluating a system to verify whether or not it is meeting its
objectives.
a) System Maintenance
b) System Evaluation
c) System validation
d) System authorization
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Process of evaluating a system (after it is put in operation) to
verify whether or not it is meeting its objectives is called as system evaluation.
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4. A point not considered in system evaluation.
a) Process control
b) Performance evaluation
c) User Satisfaction
d) Failure Rate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Points considered for evaluating a system are:
-> Performance evaluation
-> Cost analysis
-> Time analysis
-> User satisfaction
-> Ease of modification
-> Failure rate.
5. A type of testing that is conducted at the software interface.
a) gray box
b) black box
c) red box
d) white box
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Black box testing is conducted at the software interface. White box
testing is predicated on close examination of procedural details.
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6. Incorporating changes in an existing system to enhance, update, or upgrade
its features.
a) Maintenance
b) Evaluation
c) Deployment
d) Validation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Process of incorporating changes in an existing system to
enhance, update, or upgrade its features is called system maintenance. On an
average, maintenance cost of a computerized system is two to four times more
than the initial development cost.
7. _____________ Conducted at developer’s site.
a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Unit testing
d) System testing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Alpha testing is conducted at the developer’s site. It is conducted
by a customer (end users) in developer’s presence before software delivery.
8. ___________ Conducted at customers’ site.
a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Unit testing
d) System testing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Beta testing is conducted at the customer’s site. Generally,
developer is not present. Customer records all problems (defects) and reports it
to developer.
9. The probability of failure-free operation of a software application in a
specified environment for a specified time.
a) Software Reliability
b) Software Quality
c) Software availability
d) Software Safety
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is software reliability. It is estimated using historical
and development data.
10. The probability that a software application is operating according to
requirements at a given point in time.
a) Software Reliability
b) Software Quality
c) Software availability
d) Software Safety
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Software availability marks the proper functioning of the software
at a given point of time. Reliability, availability and safety are three important
factors.
1. A __________is a set of instructions which is prepared to perform a specific
assignment if executed by a computer.
a) Browser
b) Internet
c) Program
d) Code
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A set of meaningful instructions is called a program. A program is
basically designed to perform any function assigned to it.
2. A program is an active entity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. A program is not an active entity. It is
completely passive.
3. What is responsible for creating a process from a program?
a) OS
b) Web
c) Internet
d) Firewall
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: OS is responsible for creating a process from a program. OS
stands for operating system. A process is created in order to be executed by
using computer facilities.
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4. This cycle, of going through __________ states of running and input/output,
may be repeated over and over until the job is completed.
a) evaluation
b) process
c) program
d) data
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is process states. The cycle of going through process
states can be repeated over and over again until the job is completed or the
process gets aborted.
5. The wait fraction is represented by __________
a) w
b) #
c) Q
d) &
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wait fraction of a processor is represented by w. It is also known
as the processor wait ratio.
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6. Processor wait ratio is given by ________
a) w=b/e+b
b) w=b/e-b
c) #=b/e-b
d) #=b/e+b
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Processor wait ratio is represented by w. It is given by :
w=b/e+b.
7. What does ‘b’ represent in a processor wait ratio?
a) input ratio
b) output ratio
c) average time
d) average I/O time
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It represents the average I/O time. Average execution time with
single programming is given by e.
8. A technique that allows more than one program to be ready for execution and
provides the ability to switch from one process to another.
a) multitasking
b) multiprocessing
c) multitasking
d) multiprogramming
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Multiprogramming is the concept implemented for execution and
provides the ability to switch from one task to the other.
9. Multiprogramming is mainly accomplished by:
a) os
b) software
c) hardware
d) program
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The OS is mainly responsible for multiprogramming. The
hardware provides the specific circuitry that may be used by the operating
system.
10. The technique that increases the system’s productivity.
a) multiprogramming
b) multitasking
c) multiprocessing
d) single-programming
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Multiprogramming increases the productivity. By increasing the
CPU utilization other devices’s utilization is also increased.
1. Multithreading is also called as ____________
a) Concurrency
b) Simultaneity
c) Crosscurrent
d) Recurrent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Concurrency is often used in place of multithreading. Multitasking
allows multiple threads to run at a time.
2. Multiprocessing allows single processor to run several concurrent threads.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is false. Multitasking allows single processor to run
several concurrent threads.
3. A single sequential flow of control within a program is ________
a) Process
b) Task
c) Thread
d) Structure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A thread is a sequential flow of control within a program. Single-
threaded program can handle one task at any time.
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4. Both client and server release _________ connection after a page has been
transferred.
a) IP
b) TCP
c) Hyperlink
d) Network
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is TCP. TCP stands for Transmission Control
Protocol. Servers receive requests from clients.
5. Java extension used in threads?
a) java.lang.Thread
b) java.language.Thread
c) java.lang.Threads
d) java.Thread
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: java.lang.Thread is the class that is extended if any user wants to
extend threads.
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6. A method that must be overridden while extending threads.
a) run()
b) start()
c) stop()
d) paint()
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: run()method must be overridden (It is similar to main method of
sequential program).
7. An interface that is implemented while using threads.
a) java.lang.Run
b) java.lang.Runnable
c) java.lang.Thread
d) java.lang.Threads
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: java.lang.Runnable is correct. Any thread class implements
runnable.
8. A thread becomes non runnable when?
a) Its stop method is invoked
b) Its sleep method is invoked
c) Its finish method is invoked
d) Its init method is invoked
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A thread becomes Not Runnable when one of these events occurs:
• Its sleep method is invoked.
• The thread calls the wait method to wait for a specific condition to be satisfied.
• The thread is blocking on I/O.
9. A method used to temporarily release time for other threads.
a) yield()
b) set()
c) release()
d) start()
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: We can use the yield() method to temporarily release time for
other threads. It is static by default.
10. A method used to force one thread to wait for another thread to finish.
a) join()
b) connect()
c) combine()
d) concat()
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is join(). We can use the join() method to force one
thread to wait for another thread to finish.
1. A task carried out by the OS and hardware to accommodate multiple
processes in main memory.
a) Memory control
b) Memory management
c) Memory sharing
d) Memory usage
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Memory management is carried out by the OS and hardware to
accommodate multiple processes in main memory.
2. An HTML file is a text file containing small markup tags.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. HTML stands for Hyper Text Markup
Language. It is a text file containing small markup tags.
3. Secondary memory is the long term store for programs and data while main
memory holds program and data currently in use. What kind of an organization
is this?
a) Physical
b) Logical
c) Structural
d) Simple
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The secondary memory is the long term store for programs and
data while main memory holds program and data currently in use. This is a
physical organization.
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4. Memory organization in which users write programs in modules with
different characteristics.
a) Physical
b) Logical
c) Structural
d) Simple
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is Logical. To handle user programs properly, the
operating system and the hardware should support a basic form of module to
provide protection and sharing.
5. An executing process must be loaded entirely in main memory. What kind of
a memory organization is this?
a) Physical
b) Logical
c) Structural
d) Simple
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This is simple memory organisation. An executing process must
be loaded entirely in main memory (if overlays are not used).
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6. FTP stands for?
a) File Text Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) Firm Transfer Protocol
d) File Transplant Protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. It is a type of internet
service use for the transmission of files.
7. A set of overlapping divisions in the main memory are called _______
a) Partitions
b) Divisions
c) Blocks
d) Modules
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Partition main memory into a set of non overlapping regions called
partitions. Partitions can be of equal or unequal sizes.
8. Any program, no matter how small, occupies an entire partition. This is
called ____________
a) fragmentation
b) prior fragmentation
c) internal fragmentation
d) external fragmentation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is called as internal fragmentation. Main memory use is
inefficient. Any program, no matter how small, occupies an entire partition.
This is called internal fragmentation.
9. __________ is used to shift processes so they are contiguous and all free
memory is in one block.
a) Fragmentation
b) Compaction
c) External Fragmentation
d) Division
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Use compaction to shift processes so they are contiguous and all
free memory is in one block.
10. _______ searches for smallest block. The fragment left behind is small as
possible.
a) best fit
b) first fit
c) next fit
d) last fit
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Best fit searches for the smallest block. The fragment left behind is
as small as possible.
1. Separation of user logical memory and physical memory is ___________
a) Memory control
b) Memory management
c) Memory sharing
d) Virtual memory
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The separation of user logical memory and physical memory is
called virtual memory. Only part of the program needs to be in memory for
execution.
2. Logical Address space can be larger than physical address space.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Since, a part of the program needs to be in
memory for the process of execution, the logical space can therefore be much
larger than the physical address space.
3. Virtual Memory can be implemented via __________
a) Demand Paging
b) Logical paging
c) Structural way
d) Simple division
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Demand paging can implement virtual memory. Another way is
demand segmentation.
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4. COW stands for?
a) Control over write
b) Convert over write
c) Count over write
d) Copy over write
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: COW stands for Copy over write. COW allows both parent and
child processes to share the same pages initially.
5. LRU stands for?
a) Least Recently used
b) Less Recently used
c) Least Recurrently used
d) Least Randomly used
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: LRU stands for Least Recently used. LRU is least recently used. It
replaces page with the smallest count.
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6. An allocation that uses a proportional allocation scheme using priorities
rather than size.
a) Priority allocation
b) File allocation
c) Preference allocation
d) Simple allocation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Priority allocation uses a proportional allocation scheme using
priorities rather than size.
7. A process selects a replacement frame from the set of all frames.
a) Local replacement
b) Global replacement
c) Block replacement
d) Module replacement
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Global replacement process selects a replacement frame from the
set of all frames; one process can take a frame from another.
8. Any program, no matter how small, occupies an entire partition. This is
called _____________
a) fragmentation
b) prior fragmentation
c) internal fragmentation
d) external fragmentation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is called as internal fragmentation. Main memory use is
inefficient. Any program, no matter how small, occupies an entire partition.
This is called internal fragmentation.
9. A process is busy swapping pages in and out.
a) Thrashing
b) Compaction
c) External Fragmentation
d) Division
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thrashing is the term used whenever a process is busy swapping
pages in and put.
10. ____________ is one or more physically contiguous pages.
a) Slab
b) Cache
c) Object
d) Allocator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Slab is one or more physically contiguous pages. Cache consists of
one or more slabs.
1. A basic element of data in a file.
a) Memory
b) Record
c) Field
d) Value
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fields are the basic elements of data in a file. e.g. student’s last
name. It contains a single value.
2. Records are treated as a unit.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Records are a collection of related fields.
They are treated as a unit.
3. __________________ refers to the logical structuring of records.
a) Physical organisation
b) Logical organisation
c) Structural organisation
d) File organisation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: File organisation refers to the logical structuring of records. It is
determined bi the way in which files are accessed.
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4. Which of the following is not an appropriate criterion for file organisation?
a) Larger access time
b) ease of update
c) simple maintenance
d) economy of storage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is Larger access time. The access time should be short.
It is an important criteria for file organisation.
5. ___________ itself is a file owned by the operating system
a) Logical file
b) Record
c) Database
d) Directory
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Directory is the file owned by the operating system. File directory
contains various important information.
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6. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?
a) Attributes
b) Protocol
c) Location
d) Ownership
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: File directory contains important information like: Attributes,
Location and Ownership.
7. Allocated size of a file comes under?
a) basic information
b) address information
c) access control information
d) usage information
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Allocated size comes under the address information of a file.
Address information consists of volume, starting address, size used and size
allocated.
8. Which of the following is not a part of the usage information?
a) data created
b) identity of creator
c) owner
d) last date modified
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Owner is a part of the access control information. Other options
are a part of usage information of a file.
9. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the
OS or file management system must enforce discipline. This is _________
a) Simultaneous access
b) Compaction
c) External Fragmentation
d) Division
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one
user, the OS or file management system must enforce discipline. It is referred as
simultaneous access.
10. The user can load and execute a program but cannot copy it. This process
is?
a) Execution
b) Appending
c) Reading
d) Updating
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Execution is a process that user can load and execute a program
but cannot copy it. Other processes are updation, changing protection, etc.
1. A collection of related data.
a) Information
b) Valuable information
c) Database
d) Metadata
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Database is the collection of related data and its metadata
organized in a structured format. It is designed for optimized information
management.
2. DBMS is software.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. DBMS stands for Database Management
System. It enables easy creation and access of the database.
3. DBMS manages the interaction between __________ and database.
a) Users
b) Clients
c) End Users
d) Stake Holders
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DBMS manages the interaction between the end users and the
database. End users are the final users that interact with the database.
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4. Which of the following is not involved in DBMS?
a) End Users
b) Data
c) Application Request
d) HTML
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: HTML isn’t involved in Database Management System. Other
things like the data and application request are a part of the DBMS.
5. Database is generally __________
a) System-centered
b) User-centered
c) Company-centered
d) Data-centered
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Database is user-centered. The perspective is that the user is
always right. If there is a problem with the use of the system, the system is the
problem, not the user.
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6. A characteristic of an entity.
a) Relation
b) Attribute
c) Parameter
d) Constraint
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An attribute is a characteristic of an entity. The association among
the entities is described by the relationship.
7. The restrictions placed on the data.
a) Relation
b) Attribute
c) Parameter
d) Constraint
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Constraint is a restriction that is placed on the data. Attribute is the
characteristic and the relation describes the association.
8. IMS stands for?
a) Information Mastering System
b) Instruction Management System
c) Instruction Manipulating System
d) Information Management System
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: IMS stands for Information Management System. It is developed
to manage large amounts of data for complex projects.
9. A model developed by Hammer and Mc Leod in 1981.
a) SDM
b) OODBM
c) DDM
d) RDM
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SDM stands for Semantic Data Model. It models both data and
their relationships in a single structure.
10. Object=_________+relationships.
a) data
b) attributes
c) entity
d) constraints
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is entity. It is a part of OODBM (Object-Oriented
Database Model). It maintains the advantages of ER-model but adds more
features.
1. DBMS is a set of __________ to access the data.
a) Codes
b) Programs
c) Information
d) Metadata
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Database is a set of programs designed to access the data. It
contains information about a particular enterprise.
2. DBMS provides a convenient and efficient environment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. DBMS stands for Database Management
System. It provides an efficient and easy to use environment.
3. Which of the following isn’t a level of abstraction?
a) physical
b) logical
c) user
d) view
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three levels of abstraction: physical, logical and the view
level. These three levels are involved in DBMS.
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4. A level that describes how a record is stored.
a) physical
b) logical
c) user
d) view
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is physical. The physical level describes how the
record gets stored.
e.g. Customer.
5. The ______level helps application programs hide the details of data types.
a) physical
b) logical
c) user
d) view
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The application programs hide details of datatypes. Views can also
hide information for security purposes.
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6. A logical structure of the database.
a) Schema
b) Attribute
c) Parameter
d) Instance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A schema is the logical structure of the database. e.g A set of
customers and accounts and their relationship.
7. The actual content in the database at a particular point.
a) Schema
b) Attribute
c) Parameter
d) Instance
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The answer is Instance. Instance is the actual content of the
database at a particular point of time.
8. Which of the following is not an object-based logical model?
a) ER
b) Network
c) Semantic
d) Functional
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Network model is a part of record-based logical model and not
object-based. Others are object based models. ER stands for Entity-relationship.
9. SQL is _______
a) Relational
b) Network
c) IMS
d) Hierarchical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SQL or structured query language is a relational model. It comes
under record-based logical models.
10. A level that describes data stored in a database and the relationships among
the data.
a) physical
b) logical
c) user
d) view
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is logical. The logical level describes the relationships
between the data. Physical level describes how the data is stored.
1. A term that defines the direction of flow of information between devices.
a) interconnectivity
b) intra connectivity
c) transmission mode
d) transmission
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The term transmission mode defines the direction of flow of
information between two communication devices. It tells the direction of signal
flow.
2. Transmission mode controls the direction of signal flow.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The term transmission mode defines the
direction of flow of information between two communication devices. It tells
the direction of signal flow between two devices.
3. Which of the following isn’t a type of transmission mode?
a) physical
b) simplex
c) full duplex
d) half duplex
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are three modes of transmission: simplex, half duplex and
full duplex. Transmission modes tell the direction of signal flow between two
devices.
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4. A transmission that generally involves dedicated circuits.
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is simplex. Simplex generally involves dedicated
circuits. TV broadcasting is an example.
5. A transmission mode that can transmit data in both the directions but
transmits in only one direction at a time.
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The half duplex mode supports two way traffic but only in one
direction at a time. The interactive transmission of data within a time sharing
system may be best suited to half-duplex lines.
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6. A communication between a computer and a keyboard involves
____________ duplex transmission.
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It involves simplex duplex transmission. Another example of a
simplex duplex transmission is loudspeaker system.
7. Telephone networks operate in this mode.
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Telephone networks operate in full duplex mode. It can transmit
data in both the directions.
8. Fire alarms are based on this type of transmission:
a) direct
b) network
c) analog
d) multiple
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Analog transmission is a technique of transmitting voice, data,
image, signal or video information. Fire alarm systems work in the same way.
9. A technique of transmitting data or images or videos (information) using a
continuous signal.
a) direct
b) network
c) analog
d) multiple
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Analog is a technique of transmitting data or images or videos
(information) using a continuous signal, which varies in amplitude, phase or
some other property.
10. A walkie-talkie operates in ____________
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A walkie-talkie operates in half duplex mode. It can only send or
receive a transmission at any given time.
1. A coaxial cable has a bandwidth of _________ of megahertz.
a) 100
b) 150
c) 1000
d) 10000
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A coaxial cable has a bandwidth of 100’s of Mhz. Baseband speed
is in a few KHz. Multiplexing improves channel bandwidth utilization.
2. In TDM, the samples occupy adjacent time slots.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The TDM technique is based on sampling
and they occupy adjacent slots and are transmitted in a sequence.
3. The carrier wave is a _________
a) tan wave
b) cosec wave
c) sine wave
d) cot wave
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The carrier wave is generally a sine wave. Carrier wave is used to
transfer the signal from source to destination.
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4. Controlling the phase is referred as __________
a) modulation
b) half modulation
c) amplitude modulation
d) phase modulation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is referred to as phase modulation. When there is a change in
amplitude, it is referred to as amplitude modulation.
5. A transmission mode that can transmit data in both the directions but
transmits in only one direction at a time.
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The half duplex mode supports two way traffic but only in one
direction at a time.
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6. A multiplexing technique based on sampling.
a) FDM
b) TDM
c) SDM
d) FM
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TDM which stands for Time division multiplexing is based on
sampling which is a modulation technique.
7. An example of FDM:
a) broadcast radio
b) telephone
c) machines
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Broadcast radio is an example of FDM. This allows several
messages to be translated from baseband.
8. FDM stands for?
a) Frequency Division Multiplexing
b) Frequency Dependent Multiplexing
c) Frequency Diverged Multiplexing
d) Frequency Derived Multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FDM stands for Frequency Division Multiplexing. This allows
several messages to be translated from baseband, where they are all in the same
frequency.
9. A modulation technique that improves channel bandwidth utilization.
a) direct
b) modulation
c) demodulation
d) multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Multiplexing is a modulation technique that improves channel
bandwidth utilization.
10. The purpose of communication system is to transfer information from
_______ to the destination.
a) user
b) source
c) system
d) station
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is source. A communication system transfers
information from source to the destination.
1. WDM stands for?
a) Wave division multiplexing
b) Wavelength division multiplexing
c) Wavelength dependent multiplexing
d) Wave dependent multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It stands for Wavelength division multiplexing. It has same
general architecture as FDM. FDM is frequency division multiplexing.
2. In TDM, the samples occupy adjacent time slots.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The TDM technique is based on sampling
and they occupy adjacent slots and are transmitted in a sequence.
3. In this type of multiplexing time slots are preassigned to sources and fixed.
a) TDM
b) Synchronous TDM
c) Asynchronous TDM
d) FDM
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TDM is time division multiplexing. Data rate of medium exceeds
data rate of digital signal to be transmitted.
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4. Controlling the frequency is referred as _________
a) frequency modulation
b) hertz modulation
c) amplitude modulation
d) phase modulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is referred to as frequency modulation. When there is a change
in frequency, it is referred to as frequency modulation.
5. A technique that can be a solution to the problem of synchronizing data
sources.
a) framing
b) data link control
c) full link control
d) pulse stuffing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pulse stuffing is a technique that can be a solution to the problem
of synchronizing data sources. In pulse stuffing, the outgoing data rate is higher
than sum of incoming rates.
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6. For voice, each channel contains a ___ word of digitized data.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 0
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In digital carrier systems, for voice each channel contains one
word of digitized data. The data rate is 1.544 Mbps. Five out of six frames have
8 bit PCM samples.
7. Many time slots are wasted in __________
a) TDM
b) Synchronous TDM
c) Asynchronous TDM
d) FDM
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Synchronous TDM, many time slots are wasted. Other
techniques can help overcome this problem.
8. A technique that allocates time slots dynamically.
a) TDM
b) WDM
c) Dynamic TDM
d) Statistical TDM
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Statistical TDM assigns time slots dynamically. They are allocated
based on demand. Multiplexer scans input lines and collects data until the frame
is full.
9. A system in which two channels are dedicated to transfer data.
a) TV
b) Cable
c) Modem
d) Cable modem
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A cable modem has two dedicated channels from cable TV
provider dedicated to data transfer. One in each direction.
10. In this technique, there is a link between subscriber and network and a local
loop.
a) SSDL
b) DSDL
c) ASDL
d) TSDL
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In ASDL, there is a link between the subscriber and the network. It
uses currently installed twisted pair cable.
1. A topology that is responsible for describing the geometric arrangement of
components that make up the LAN.
a) Complex
b) Physical
c) Logical
d) Incremental
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is referred to as a physical LAN topology. LAN stands for Local
Area Network.
2. Bus is a type of topology.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Bus topology is an arrangement where all
nodes are interconnected using a single-cable.
3. _____ LAN topology describes the possible connections between pairs of
networked end-points that can communicate.
a) Complex
b) Physical
c) Logical
d) Incremental
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A logical LAN topology describes the possible connections. LAN
stands for Local Area Network.
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4. A term that refers to the way in which the nodes of a network are linked
together.
a) network
b) topology
c) connection
d) interconnectivity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Topology is a term that refers to the way in which the nodes are
connected. There are 4 major topology networks.
5. A network comprising o multiple topologies.
a) Complex
b) Hybrid
c) Bus
d) Star
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A hybrid network consists of multiple topologies. It can comprise
a ring, a star and other topologies. We call this arrangement as a hybrid
network.
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6. The participating computers in a network are referred to as:
a) Clients
b) Servers
c) Nodes
d) CPUs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: They are referred to as the nodes. There are several topologies
designed for arrangements of these nodes like bus, star, etc.
7. A topology that involves Tokens.
a) Star
b) Ring
c) Bus
d) Daisy Chaining
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ring topology involves sending and receiving of data with the
help of tokens. Ring started out as a simple peer-to-peer LAN topology.
8. A ____________WAN can be developed using leased private lines or any
other transmission facility
a) Hybrids
b) peer-to-peer
c) Two-tiered
d) Three-tiered
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A peer-to-peer WAN topology is a relatively simple way of
interconnecting a small number of sites. It has the least-cost solution for WANs
that contain a small number of internetworked locations.
9. A serially connected system of all the hubs of networks.
a) Bus
b) Ring
c) Daisy chains
d) Star
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct option is Daisy chain. This simple approach uses ports
on existing hubs for interconnecting the hubs.
10. A piece of information which is sent along with the data to the source
computer.
a) data
b) module
c) token
d) element
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Token is the information that is sent to the source computer along
with the data. This token is then passed to the next node.
1. Configuration where many independent computer systems are connected.
a) Complex
b) Distributed
c) Cloud
d) Incremental
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Distributed configuration has many systems connected, and
messages, programs, etc are transmitted between cooperating computer systems.
2. Partial mesh is a highly flexible topology that can take a variety of very
different configurations.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Partial mesh is a highly flexible topology
that can take a variety of very different configurations. The routers are tightly
coupled than the basic topologies. But they are not fully interconnected, as
would be the case in a fully meshed network.
3. Components used for interconnecting dissimilar networks that use different
communication protocols.
a) Switches
b) Gateways
c) Routers
d) Bridges
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gateways are used for this purpose. Gateways interconnect
dissimilar networks, protocol conversion is performed by them.
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4. A topology is a modified version of the basic star topology.
a) network
b) two-tiered
c) bus
d) ring
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A two-tiered topology is a modified version of the basic star
topology. Rather than single concentrator routers, two or more routers are used.
5. WANs that need to interconnect a very large number of sites.
a) bus
b) two-tiered
c) three-tiered
d) ring
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wide Area Networks that need to interconnect a very large
number of sites, or are built using smaller routers that can support only a few
serial connections, may find the two-tiered architecture insufficiently scalable.
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6. Components that operate at the network layer of the OSI model.
a) Switches
b) Servers
c) Routers
d) Gateways
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: They are referred to as the routers. They are used for
interconnecting those networks that use the same high-level protocols above
network layer.
7. A topology that involves Tokens.
a) Star
b) Ring
c) Bus
d) Daisy Chaining
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ring topology involves sending and receiving of data with the
help of tokens. Ring started out as a simple peer-to-peer LAN topology.
8. ____________ operate at bottom two layers of the OSI model.
a) Bridges
b) Switches
c) Models
d) Modules
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bridges operate at the bottom two layers of the OSI model. It
connects networks that use the same communication protocols above data-link
layer.
9. Connecting two or more networks to form a single network is called :
a) Internetworking
b) Intranetworking
c) Interconnecting
d) Intraconnectivity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Connecting two or more networks to form a single network is
called internetworking and the resultant network is called internetwork.
10. OSI stands for?
a) Open Site Interconnection
b) Open System Interdependence
c) Open System Interconnection
d) Open Site Interdependence
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: OSI is open system interconnection. It is a framework for defining
standards for linking heterogeneous computers in a packet switched network.
1. ARPANET stands for?
a) Advanced Research Project Agency Network
b) Advanced Research Programmed Auto Network
c) Advanced Research Project Automatic Network
d) Advanced Research Project Authorized Network
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ARPANET stands for Advanced Research Project Agency
Network. It was developed in late 1960s under ARPA (Advanced Research
Projects Agency).
2. Internet can help you find the shortest route.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Obviously, Internet is so widespread; it can
help us in all the possible ways. It can predict the weather, play music, etc.
3. In this technique, there is no direct contact between users and their programs
during execution.
a) Time Sharing
b) Batch Processing
c) System Processing
d) Message Passing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the Batch Environment, there is no direct interaction between
users and their programs during execution.
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4. A technique that marked the beginning of computer communications.
a) Batch Environment
b) Message passing
c) User Environment
d) Time Sharing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The answer is time sharing. In time sharing, Users were able to
interact with the computer and could share its information processing resources.
5. A type of technique in which dumb terminals are connected to a central
computer system.
a) Time Sharing
b) Message passing
c) Batch environment
d) User environment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This happens in time sharing. In this, users were able to interact
with the computer and could share its information processing resources.
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6. TCP stands for?
a) Transmission control program
b) Transmission control protocol
c) Transfer control program
d) Transfer control protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TCP stands for transmission control protocol. It basically allows
different networks to interconnect.
7. The “Victorian internet” is actually?
a) Telegraph
b) Batch Environment
c) Unit Environment
d) System Environment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It was a telegraph. Invented in the 1840s. Used extensively by the
U.S. Government.
8. Packet switching was invented in?
a) 1960s
b) 1980s
c) 2000s
d) 1990s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Packet switching was developed in 1964. In packet switching, the
message is broken into parts and then sent over independently.
9. The probability of failure-free operation of a software application in a
specified environment for a specified time.
a) Software Reliability
b) Software Quality
c) Software availability
d) Software Safety
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is software reliability. It is estimated using historical
and development data.
10. DARPA stands for?
a) Data Advanced Research Projects Agency
b) Defense Advanced Research Product Agency
c) Data based Advanced Research Product Agency
d) Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: DARPA (Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency)
contracted with BBN (Bolt, Beranek & Newman) to create ARPAnet.
1. A network that links many different types of computers all over the world.
a) Intranet
b) Internet
c) Arpanet
d) LAN
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Internet is a network of computers that links many different types
of computers. It is a network of network sharing a common mechanism for
addressing computers.
2. Internet was evolved from the basic ideas of ARPANET.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. ARPANET is the first WAN i.e., Wide Area
network that had only four sites in 1969 for interconnecting computers.
3. A service that allows a user to log in into another computer somewhere on the
Internet.
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) e-mail
d) UseNet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Telnet is the answer. It is a service that enables the user to log into
another computer somewhere on the Internet.
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4. An internet service that allows the user to move a file.
a) FTP
b) Telnet
c) UseNet
d) Time Sharing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is FTP. FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. It
allows the user to move a file from one computer to another on the internet.
5. Anonymous FTP files are called ___________ accessible files.
a) Privately
b) Publicly
c) Batch
d) User
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Anonymous FTP files are called publicly accessible files because
they can be accessed by any user on the Internet.
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6. TCP stands for?
a) Transmission control program
b) Transmission control protocol
c) Transfer control program
d) Transfer control protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TCP stands for transmission control protocol. It basically allows
different networks to interconnect.
7. Any system that uses the HTTP protocol is called _________
a) Web Browser
b) Web Server
c) WWW
d) TCP/IP
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The system is the web server. HTTP stands for Hypertext
transmission protocol.
8. Any computer that can access the server is called?
a) Web Server
b) Web Browser
c) User
d) Web Client
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Any computer that has access to the web server is called the web
client. Web server is any computer that uses the HTTP protocol.
9. Allows the user to create and maintain a personal list of favorite URL
addresses.
a) Software
b) Web Servers
c) Web Browsers
d) WWW
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Web Browsers help the user to maintain a personal favorite list of
URLs. Also, allows the user to download information on various formats.
10. URL stands for?
a) Uniform Resource Locator
b) Uniform Research Locator
c) Uniform Resource Link
d) Uniform Research Link
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: WWW specifies the URL of a website and allows the user to
access information. URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator.
1. The web works on this model.
a) Intranet
b) Internet
c) Client-Server
d) Server
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Web works on the client server model. Client and server operate
on machines which are able to communicate through a network.
2. In the Client-server model, the client receives a request from the server.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The server receives a request from the
client. It then performs the requested work.
3. Which of the following is not a type of server?
a) File
b) Web
c) Name
d) Browsers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Browser is the answer. Browser is a type of client and it is not a
server. File, web and name are the types of servers.
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4. This determines the type of protocol to be used.
a) <scheme>
b) <pathname>
c) <server name>
d) <server domain name>
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is <scheme>. In general, http is used. Others like file
and ftp can also be used.
5. The location of file is determined by ________
a) <scheme>
b) <pathname>
c) <server name>
d) <server domain name>
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: <pathname> tells the server where to find the file name. It is an
important part of the URL format.
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6. Apache is a type of ________
a) Transmission control program
b) Web Server
c) Web Browser
d) DBMS
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Apache is a type of web server. It is an application which waits for
client requests, fetches requested documents from disk and transmits them to the
client.
7. A small data file in the browser.
a) Cookie
b) Web Server
c) FTP
d) Database
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cookie is a small data file in the browser. Most browsers
nowadays allow the user to decide if they want the cookies or not.
8. Any computer that can access the server is called?
a) Web Server
b) Web Browser
c) User
d) Web Client
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Any computer that has access to the web server is called the web
client. Web server is any computer that uses the HTTP protocol.
9. Allows the user to create and maintain a personal list of favorite URL
addresses.
a) Software
b) Web Servers
c) Web Browsers
d) WWW
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Web Browsers help the user to maintain a personal favorite list of
URLs. Also, allows the user to download information on various formats.
10. SGML stands for?
a) Standard Granted Markup Language
b) System Generalized Markup Language
c) Standard Generalized Markup Language
d) System Granted Markup Language
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: HTML(Hypertext Markup language) is based on SGML. SGML
stands for Standard Generalized Markup Language.
1. A program that can retrieve files from the world wide web and render text,
images or sounds encoded in the files.
a) Browser
b) Internet
c) Server
d) Web Server
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A browser or a web browser is a program that can retrieve files
from the world wide web. Certain examples are IE, Mozilla, etc.
2. An HTML file is a text file containing small markup tags.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. HTML stands for Hyper Text Markup
Language. It is a text file containing small markup tags.
3. Which of the following is not a type of browser?
a) Netscape
b) Web
c) IE
d) Mozilla
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Others except web are web browsers. Web is a type of server.
Application that works on client requests.
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4. Both client and server release _________ connection after a page has been
transferred.
a) IP
b) TCP
c) Hyperlink
d) Network
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is TCP. TCP stands for Transmission Control
Protocol. Servers receive requests from clients.
5. In HTML, the tags that tell the browser how to display the page.
a) markup
b) style
c) body
d) head
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Markup is a general term used to refer the types of tags in HTML.
The markup tags tell the browser how to display the page.
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6. FTP stands for?
a) File Text Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) Firm Transfer Protocol
d) File Transplant Protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. It is a type of internet
service use for the transmission of files.
7. A section in HTML that contains generic information about the document.
a) body
b) title
c) head
d) style
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The head segment contains a generic info about the document. The
head section must come before the body section in an HTML document.
8. A tag similar to that of the italic tag.
a) <strong>
b) <cite>
c) <code>
d) <i>
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: <cite> is a container tag in html that is citation generally in italics.
Other tags like <em>or emphasize is also used for this purpose.
9. A _________ partitions a web browser window so that multiple web
documents can be displayed simultaneously.
a) Frame
b) set
c) Frameset
d) div
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A frameset partitions a web browser window so that multiple web
documents can be displayed simultaneously. Frameset can have attributes like
cols.
10. The _________ attribute specifies the web page to be placed in the frame
initially.
a) name
b) src
c) cols
d) rows
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The src attribute or the source specifies the web page to be placed
in the frame initially. It may be subsequently overwritten.
1. XML stands for?
a) Extensions Made Language
b) Extensible Markup Language
c) Extensible Major Language
d) Extensible Minor Language
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: XML stands for Extensible Markup Language. It allows
information to be shared among different computer systems on the Internet.
2. AAA stands for Anonymous Administrative Authority.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. AAA stands for Autonomous
Administrative Authority.
3. API is?
a) Advanced Processing Information
b) Application Processing Information
c) Application Programming interface
d) Application Processing Interface
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: API is the application programming interface. It is a set of
instructions that allow the creation of applications.
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4. GSM stands for?
a) Global System for Monitoring
b) Graphical System for Mobile Telecommunications
c) Graphical System for Monitoring
d) Global System for Mobile Telecommunications
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The answer is Global System for Mobile Telecommunications. It
uses a variation of multiple access on the basis of time and is widely used in
Europe.
5. IN stands for?
a) Input
b) InterNet
c) Intelligent Network
d) IntraNet
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: IN stands for Intelligent Network. It is a telephone network that
provides technical services.
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6. FTP stands for?
a) File Text Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) Firm Transfer Protocol
d) File Transplant Protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. It is a type of internet
service use for the transmission of files.
7. PDU stands for?
a) Protocol Data Unit
b) Professional Data Unit
c) Protocol Distributed Unit
d) Professional Distributed Unit
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PDU stands for Protocol Data Unit. It is transmitted as a single
unit to other units in a computer network.
8. A tag similar to that of the bold tag.
a) <strong>
b) <cite>
c) <code>
d) <i>
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: <strong> is a container tag in html that is similar to bold. It makes
the text more valuable as well as bold.
9. ISP is?
a) Intranet System Processing
b) Internet Service Provider
c) Intelligent System Processing
d) Intranet Service Provider
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ISP stands for Internet Service provider. It is a service that
provides access to the internet.
10. NE stands for __________ element.
a) name
b) network
c) new
d) normal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is network. NE is the network element. It is any
logical entity.
1. The field that covers a variety of computer networks, both public and private,
that are used in everyday jobs.
a) Artificial Intelligence
b) ML
c) Network Security
d) IT
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Network security covers a variety of computer networks, both
private and public. Everyday jobs like conducting transactions and
communications among business and government agencies etc.
2. Network Security provides authentication and access control for resources.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. AFS is an example. It helps us protect vital
information.
3. Which is not an objective of network security?
a) Identification
b) Authentication
c) Access control
d) Lock
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Identification, Authentication and Access control are the
objectives of network security. There is no such thing called lock.
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4. Which of these is a part of network identification?
a) UserID
b) Password
c) OTP
d) fingerprint
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is UserID. UserID is a part of identification. UserID
can be a combination of username, user student number etc.
5. The process of verifying the identity of a user.
a) Authentication
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Verification
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is called an authentication. It is typically based on passwords,
smart card, fingerprint, etc.
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6. A concern of authentication that deals with user rights.
a) General access
b) Functional authentication
c) Functional authorization
d) Auto verification
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Functional authorization is concerned with individual user rights.
Authorization is the function of specifying access rights to resources related to
information security.
7. CHAP stands for?
a) Challenge Handshake authentication protocol
b) Challenge Hardware authentication protocol
c) Circuit Hardware authentication protocol
d) Circuit Handshake authentication protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CHAP stands for Challenge Handshake authentication protocol.
Features of CHAP: plaintext, memorized token. Protocol uses Telnet, HTTP.
8. Security features that control that can access resources in the OS.
a) Authentication
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Access control
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Access control refers to the security features. Applications call
access control to provide resources.
9. An algorithm in encryption is called _____________
a) Algorithm
b) Procedure
c) Cipher
d) Module
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An algorithm used in encryption is referred to as a cipher. cipher is
an algorithm for performing encryption or decryption
10. The information that gets transformed in encryption is ____________
a) Plain text
b) Parallel text
c) Encrypted text
d) Decrypted text
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The text that gets transformed is called plain text. The algorithm
used is called cipher.
1. WTLS stands for?
a) Wireless Transport Security Layer
b) Wireless Transfer System Layer
c) Wireless Transfer Security Layer
d) Wireless Transport System Layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: WTLS is Wireless Transport Security Layer. It provides security
between the mobile device and the WAP gateway to internet.
2. The protocol designed to make the security of wireless LAN as good as that
of wired LAN.
a) WTLS
b) WEP
c) RSN
d) WP
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: WEP stands for Wired Equivalent Privacy. WEP has been broken
already in 2001. WEP protocol designed to make the security of wireless LAN
as good as that of wired LAN.
3. A person who enjoys learning details about computers and how to enhance
their capabilities.
a) Cracker
b) Hacker
c) App controller
d) Site controller
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The person is called hacker. A person who enjoys learning the
details of computer systems and how to stretch their capabilities is called
hacker.
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4. A program created by Farmer and Venema for auditing capability.
a) SAAS
b) SATAN
c) SAN
d) SAT
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SATAN is the Security analysis tool for auditing networks. It is
created by farmer and venema.
5. A small program that changes the way a computer operates.
a) Worm
b) Trojan
c) Bomb
d) Virus
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The program is called virus. It alters the way that the computer
operates. It often does damages like deleting and corrupting files and data.
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6. A program that copies itself.
a) Worm
b) Virus
c) Trojan
d) Bomb
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A worm copies itself from one system to another over a network
without the assistance of human.
7. An attack in which the site is not capable of answering valid request.
a) Smurfing
b) Denial of service
c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is Denial of service. In case of denial of service
attacks, a computer site is bombarded with a lot of messages.
8. Creating a computer or paper audit that can help detect wrong doings.
a) Auditing
b) Validation
c) RSN
d) Verification
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is auditing. It is done to keep an eye on wrong doings.
Auditing can be used as a deterrent.
9. An indirect form of surveillance.
a) Honey pot
b) Logical
c) Security
d) Intrusion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Honey pot is an indirect form of surveillance. Network personnel
create a trap, watching for unscrupulous acts.
10. A malicious code hidden inside a seemingly harmless piece of code.
a) Worm
b) Bomb
c) Trojan Horse
d) Virus
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is Trojan horse. Trojan horse is a code that is present
in a program that appears harmless.
11. Attack in which a user creates a packet that appears to be something else.
a) Smurfing
b) Trojan
c) E-mail bombing
d) Spoofing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The attack is a spoofing attack. It is when a user creates a packet
that appears to be something else or from someone else.
13. A technique in which a program attacks a network by exploiting IP
broadcast addressing operations.
a) Smurfing
b) Denial of service
c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Smurfing is a technique in which a program attacks a network by
exploiting IP broadcast addressing operations.
14. An attack in which the user receives unwanted amount of e-mails.
a) Smurfing
b) Denial of service
c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the case of denial of e-mail bombing, a user sends an excessive
amount of unwanted e-mail to someone.
1. A cipher in which the order is not preserved.
a) Polyalphabetic substitution based
b) Transposition-based
c) Substitution based
d) Public key based
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In transposition-based cipher, the order of the plain text is not
preserved. They can be very simple to identify.
2. Plain text is the data after encryption is performed.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Cipher is the algorithm used in encryption.
Ciphertext is the data after encryption is performed.
3. A unique piece of information that is used in encryption.
a) Cipher
b) Plain Text
c) Key
d) Cipher
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The key is the unique piece of information. It is used to create the
cipher text and decrypt it back.
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4. Study of creating a d using encryption and decryption techniques.
a) Cipher
b) Cryptography
c) Encryption
d) Decryption
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is called as cryptography. It is the study of creating and using
the encryption techniques.
5. The process of transforming plain text into unreadable text.
a) Decryption
b) Encryption
c) Network Security
d) Information Hiding
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Encryption is the process of transforming readable text i.e. plain
text to make it unreadable to anyone except those possessing special knowledge,
usually referred to as a key.
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6. An algorithm used in encryption is referred to as cipher.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Cipher is the algorithm used in encryption.
Encryption is making readable text as unreadable to keep it secured.
7. A process of making the encrypted text readable again.
a) Decryption
b) Encryption
c) Network Security
d) Information Hiding
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The reverse process is called decryption. It is the process of
making the information readable again.
1. These ciphers replace a character or characters with a different character or
characters, based on some key.
a) Polyalphabetic substitution based
b) Transposition-based
c) Substitution based
d) Mono alphabetic substitution based
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In mono alphabetic substitution-based cipher, a character is
replaced with some other character or multiple characters, based on some key.
2. Encryption is the study of creating and using decryption techniques.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Cryptography is the study of creating and
using encryption and decryption techniques.
3. A type of cipher that uses multiple alphabetic strings.
a) Substitution based
b) Transposition-based
c) Polyalphabetic substitution based
d) Mono alphabetic substitution based
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: These ciphers are similar to that of mono alphabetic ciphers.
Multiple strings are used to encode the plain text.
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4. An encryption technique with 2 keys is ______________
a) Monoalphabetic Cipher
b) Cryptography
c) Private key cryptography
d) Public key cryptography
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is called as public key cryptography. It has 2 keys: a private key
and a public key.
5. In public key cryptography, a key that decrypts the message.
a) public key
b) unique key
c) private key
d) security key
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Public key cryptography has 2 keys. They are private key and a
public key. The public key encrypts the message. The private key decrypts the
message.
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6. DES stands for?
a) Data Encryption Standard
b) Data Encryption Statistics
c) Data Encryption System
d) Data Encryption Sequence
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DES stands for Data Encryption Standard. It was created in 1977
and went into operation from 1990s.
7. Under DES, the data encryption standard took a 64-bit block of data and
subjected it to ______ levels of encryption.
a) 64
b) 8
c) 16
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is 16. It was subjected to 16 levels of encryption. DES
is the data encryption standard.
8. Triple-DES has ______ keys.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 2 keys in triple DES as well. The private and the public
key. It can also have 3 unique keys.
9. Encryption standard that is selected by the US government to replace DES.
a) AES
b) BES
c) CES
d) DES
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: AES is Advanced Encryption Standard. It was selected by the US
government. It is used to replace DES.
10. An electronic document that establishes your credentials when you are
performing transactions.
a) Digital code
b) OTP
c) E-mail
d) Digital certificate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Digital certificate is an electronic document that is responsible for
secure internet transactions.
1. A ______________ represents the need of information in the program
without the presenting the details.
a) abstraction
b) polymorphism
c) implementation
d) class
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Abstraction is a concept that involves hiding the details and giving
only the necessary information to the user. It increases the power of a
programming language.
2. Abstraction combines the data and functions into a single unit called a class.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Data abstraction involves hiding the details
and giving only the necessary information to the user.
3. The process of forming a new class from an existing class.
a) Abstraction
b) Polymorphism
c) Inheritance
d) Implementation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is inheritance. The base class is the parent class and
the new class is called the child class.
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4. This concept allows routines to use data again at different times.
a) Abstraction
b) Polymorphism
c) Inheritance
d) Implementation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Polymorphism is a concept in OOP wherein different functions
can be used again at different times.
5. The ability for programmers to use the same written and debugged existing
class.
a) Reusability
b) Design
c) Debugging
d) Implementation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The programmer can add features to the existing class. The
programmer on further developing the application, and allowing users to
achieve increased performance.
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6. A concept that combines data and functions into a single unit called class.
a) inheritance
b) encapsulation
c) polymorphism
d) abstraction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Encapsulation enables the important concept of data hiding
possible. It combines data and functions into a single unit.
7. __________ represents a particular instance of a class.
a) module
b) block
c) object
d) token
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An object is an instance of the class. The data members are
accessed with the help of objects.
8. A basic unit of object-oriented programming.
a) module
b) block
c) object
d) token
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In OOP, the basic unit is an object. Objects are identified by its
unique name.
9. A procedural programming follows ___________ approach.
a) top-down
b) bottom-up
c) left-right
d) right-left
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A procedural programming follows top-down approach. The main
focus is on the functions. It has a lot of global variable.
10. A programming technique in which the focus is on doing things.
a) object oriented
b) procedural
c) logical
d) structural
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In procedural programming, the focus is on doing
things(functions). It follows top-down approach.