Cambridge Lower Secondary Science - Unit 1 Test: Respiration
Section A: Vocabulary (1 mark each)
1. Define the term 'aerobic respiration'.
2. What is the function of haemoglobin?
3. Explain what 'gas exchange' means.
4. What is the role of alveoli in the respiratory system?
5. Give the meaning of 'diffusion'.
Section B: General Knowledge (2 marks each)
6. Draw and label the parts of the human respiratory system including trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and
alveoli.
7. Explain the difference between inspired and expired air, including their oxygen and carbon dioxide content.
8. Describe how the diaphragm and intercostal muscles help in breathing.
9. State the word equation for aerobic respiration.
10. Explain how red blood cells are adapted for transporting oxygen.
Section C: Challenge Questions (3-4 marks each)
11. Explain why having many small alveoli is more efficient for gas exchange than having a few large ones.
12. Design a simple experiment to compare the carbon dioxide content in inspired and expired air. Include
apparatus and safety precautions.
13. Explain how white blood cells help defend the body against disease using both phagocytosis and
antibody production.
14. Compare and contrast breathing and respiration.
15. Predict what would happen if the diaphragm stopped working. Explain your reasoning.
Cambridge Lower Secondary Science - Unit 1 Test: Respiration
Answer Key
1. Aerobic respiration is a chemical reaction that uses oxygen to release energy from glucose.
2. Haemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that binds with oxygen to transport it around the body.
3. Gas exchange is the process where oxygen enters the blood and carbon dioxide exits the blood in the
lungs.
4. Alveoli are small air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange takes place.
5. Diffusion is the movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower
concentration.
6. A labelled diagram should show: mouth/nose, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli.
7. Inspired air has more oxygen and less carbon dioxide than expired air.
8. During inhalation, intercostal muscles contract lifting ribs up and out; diaphragm contracts and flattens
increasing thoracic volume and decreasing pressure to draw in air.
9. Glucose + Oxygen -> Carbon Dioxide + Water
10. Red blood cells have no nucleus to hold more haemoglobin and are small to fit through capillaries.
Cambridge Lower Secondary Science - Unit 1 Test: Respiration
11. Many small alveoli give a larger surface area for diffusion, making gas exchange more efficient.
12. Use limewater in test tubes; blow into one to observe cloudiness for carbon dioxide; safety: avoid
ingesting limewater.
13. Phagocytosis: white cells engulf and digest pathogens; Antibodies: white cells produce proteins that bind
and disable pathogens.
14. Breathing is a physical process of moving air in and out of the lungs; respiration is a chemical process in
cells releasing energy.
15. Breathing would stop, oxygen would not enter lungs, and carbon dioxide would not exit, leading to
suffocation.
Cambridge Lower Secondary Science - Unit 2 Test: Properties of Materials
Section A: Vocabulary (1 mark each)
1. Define the term 'solute'.
2. What is a solvent? Give an example.
3. Explain the meaning of 'solution'.
4. What does 'conserved' mean in a dissolving context?
5. What is the difference between transparent and opaque substances?
Section B: Multiple Choice (1 mark each)
6. Which of the following best describes a solution?
A. A pure substance
B. A compound
C. A mixture where a solute dissolves in a solvent
D. A gas
7. What is the solvent in a sugar-water solution?
A. Sugar
B. Water
C. Salt
D. Air
8. Which material is likely to be opaque?
A. Clear plastic
B. Glass
C. Wood
D. Water
9. What happens to the mass of a solution when a solute is dissolved?
Cambridge Lower Secondary Science - Unit 2 Test: Properties of Materials
A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It stays the same
D. It evaporates
10. Paper chromatography is used to:
A. Freeze a substance
B. Separate dissolved substances
C. Boil a mixture
D. Mix solutes
Section C: General Knowledge (2 marks each)
11. Explain how a solute dissolves in a solvent at the particle level.
12. Describe how temperature affects solubility.
13. How can you test if a substance has fully dissolved?
14. What is a saturated solution? How can you make one?
15. Explain the importance of mass conservation when a substance dissolves.
Section D: Application Questions (3 marks each)
16. Describe how to separate sand, salt, and iron filings from a mixture.
17. Plan an investigation to find how much sugar can dissolve in water at different temperatures.
18. Explain why ink separates into colors in paper chromatography.
Section E: Challenge Questions (4 marks each)
19. Design a classroom experiment to show mass is conserved during dissolving.
20. Why does crushing a solute help it dissolve faster? Explain using particles.
21. Imagine you're given a mystery clear liquid. Describe how you'd find out what it contains using dissolving
Cambridge Lower Secondary Science - Unit 2 Test: Properties of Materials
Answer Key
1. A solute is a substance that dissolves in a solvent.
2. A solvent is a liquid that dissolves a solute, e.g., water.
3. A solution is a homogeneous mixture of solute and solvent.
4. 'Conserved' means the total mass stays the same after dissolving.
5. Transparent lets light through; opaque blocks light.
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. B
11. Solute particles break apart and spread among solvent particles.
12. Higher temperatures usually increase solubility by giving particles more energy.
Cambridge Lower Secondary Science - Unit 2 Test: Properties of Materials
13. Filter it - if no residue is left, it's fully dissolved.
14. A saturated solution cannot dissolve more solute at a given temperature. Add solute until no more
dissolves.
15. The total mass of solute and solvent equals the mass of the solution.
16. Use magnet to remove iron, filter to remove sand, evaporate water to recover salt.
17. Heat water to various temperatures, add sugar until no more dissolves, measure amount dissolved.
18. Different dyes travel different distances up the paper depending on solubility.
19. Weigh solute and solvent before and after dissolving in sealed container - mass stays the same.
20. Smaller pieces mean more surface area in contact with solvent, allowing faster dissolving.
21. Try to dissolve substances in known solvents, then run chromatography to compare with known samples.
Cambridge Lower Secondary Science – Unit 3 Test:
Forces and Energy
Section A: Vocabulary (1 mark each)
1. Define the term force.
2. What is meant by friction?
3. Explain the term pressure.
4. What is speed, and how is it measured?
5. What is meant by balanced forces?
Section B: Multiple Choice (1 mark each)
6. Which unit is used to measure force?
A. Kilogram
B. Newton
C. Pascal
D. Joule
7. Friction is a force that:
A. Speeds up motion
B. Acts in the direction of movement
C. Opposes motion
D. Creates energy
8. Which formula represents speed?
A. Speed = Time ÷ Distance
B. Speed = Force ÷ Time
C. Speed = Distance ÷ Time
D. Speed = Mass × Acceleration
9. Which of these increases pressure?
A. Increasing area
B. Decreasing force
C. Decreasing area
D. Removing mass
10. The turning effect of a force is called:
A. Pressure
B. Torque
C. Friction
D. Energy
Section C: General Knowledge (2 marks each)
11. Explain how a parachute uses air resistance to slow a falling object.
12. Describe what happens when two equal and opposite forces act on an object.
13. What are the factors affecting pressure in solids?
14. Give two ways to reduce friction.
15. Explain why pressure in liquids increases with depth.
Section D: Application Questions (3 marks each)
16. A car travels 120 km in 2 hours. Calculate its average speed.
17. Describe an experiment to investigate the effect of surface type on friction.
18. Explain how snowshoes help people walk on snow without sinking.
Section E: Challenge Questions (4 marks each)
19. Design an investigation to measure how different weights affect pressure on soft
ground.
20. Explain how hydraulic systems use liquid pressure to lift heavy objects.
21. Compare and contrast pressure in gases and liquids using particle theory.
Answer Key
1. A force is a push or pull on an object.
2. Friction is a force that resists motion between two surfaces in contact.
3. Pressure is the force applied per unit area.
4. Speed is how fast something moves, measured in m/s or km/h.
5. Balanced forces are equal and opposite; they cancel out and cause no change in
motion.
6. B
7. C
8. C
9. C
10. B
11. A parachute increases air resistance which slows the fall by opposing gravity.
12. The object remains still or moves at constant speed – no acceleration.
13. Pressure in solids is affected by force and surface area (P = F ÷ A).
14. Lubricants and smooth surfaces reduce friction.
15. More liquid is above, adding weight and force, increasing pressure.
16. 120 km ÷ 2 hours = 60 km/h
17. Use spring scale to pull an object across different surfaces; measure and compare
force.
18. Snowshoes increase the area, reducing pressure and preventing sinking.
19. Place weights on flat shoes of varying area on soft surface; measure sinking depth.
20. Hydraulic systems use confined liquid to transmit pressure evenly and lift heavy
loads.
21. Gas particles are far apart and compressible; liquid particles are close and
incompressible. Liquids transmit pressure evenly, gases expand under pressure.
Cambridge Lower Secondary Science – Unit 4 Test:
Ecosystems
Section A: Vocabulary (1 mark each)
1. Define the term ecosystem.
2. What is a producer in a food chain?
3. What is meant by decomposer?
4. Define habitat.
5. What is biodiversity?
Section B: Multiple Choice (1 mark each)
6. Which organism is a producer?
A. Fox
B. Oak tree
C. Mushroom
D. Earthworm
7. Which of these is a decomposer?
A. Rabbit
B. Bacteria
C. Grasshopper
D. Sunflower
8. A food chain shows:
A. How animals move
B. How plants grow
C. The flow of energy between organisms
D. The size of populations
9. Which of these best describes a predator-prey relationship?
A. Two animals competing for food
B. An animal eating a plant
C. One animal hunting and eating another
D. An animal living inside another
10. What can happen if a species goes extinct in an ecosystem?
A. Nothing will change
B. It may affect the whole food web
C. Plants will stop growing
D. The sun will stop providing energy
Section C: General Knowledge (2 marks each)
11. Explain the role of the Sun in an ecosystem.
12. How does energy move through a food chain?
13. Why are decomposers important in ecosystems?
14. What is the difference between a food chain and a food web?
15. How can humans damage ecosystems?
Section D: Application Questions (3 marks each)
16. Describe what might happen in a pond ecosystem if all the frogs disappeared.
17. A farmer sprays pesticide to kill insects. Explain one possible effect on the local food
web.
18. How can introducing a new species into an ecosystem affect the native species?
Section E: Challenge Questions (4 marks each)
19. Design an investigation to study the number of insects living under logs in different
habitats.
20. Explain how climate change could affect the biodiversity of a rainforest.
21. Suggest ways humans can protect endangered species and support ecosystems.
Answer Key
1. An ecosystem is a community of organisms interacting with each other and their
environment.
2. A producer is a plant that makes its own food using sunlight.
3. Decomposers break down dead plants and animals into nutrients.
4. A habitat is the natural home of an organism.
5. Biodiversity is the variety of living organisms in an area.
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. B
11. The Sun provides energy for producers to make food.
12. Energy flows from producers to consumers, then to decomposers.
13. Decomposers recycle nutrients, keeping the ecosystem healthy.
14. A food chain is a single path of energy flow; a food web is interconnected chains.
15. Pollution, deforestation, and habitat destruction are ways humans damage
ecosystems.
16. Insects eaten by frogs may increase, affecting balance; animals that eat frogs may
starve.
17. Predators of insects may have less food, affecting the entire food web.
18. New species may outcompete, prey on, or bring diseases to native species.
19. Place logs in different areas, count insects weekly, compare results using tally charts.
20. Changing temperatures and rainfall can harm species not adapted to new conditions.
21. Protect habitats, create laws, reduce pollution, educate people, and support breeding
programs.
Cambridge Lower Secondary Science – Unit 5 Test:
Materials and Cycles on Earth
Section A: Vocabulary (1 mark each)
1. Define the rock cycle.
2. What is a sedimentary rock?
3. Explain the term fossil fuel.
4. What is erosion?
5. What does renewable resource mean?
Section B: Multiple Choice (1 mark each)
6. Which of these is formed from magma cooling underground?
A. Sedimentary rock
B. Igneous rock
C. Metamorphic rock
D. Fossil
7. Which process forms sedimentary rocks?
A. Melting
B. Cooling
C. Erosion and compression
D. Evaporation
8. Which of these is a non-renewable resource?
A. Sunlight
B. Wind
C. Coal
D. Water
9. Which gas is released when fossil fuels burn?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Hydrogen
10. Which process returns water to the ground in the water cycle?
A. Condensation
B. Precipitation
C. Evaporation
D. Melting
Section C: General Knowledge (2 marks each)
11. Describe how metamorphic rocks form.
12. Explain how weathering breaks down rocks.
13. How do human activities affect the carbon cycle?
14. State two differences between renewable and non-renewable resources.
15. Describe the stages of the water cycle.
Section D: Application Questions (3 marks each)
16. Explain how the carbon in coal may end up in the atmosphere.
17. A town uses lots of fossil fuels for electricity. Suggest two environmental impacts.
18. Describe how recycling materials helps reduce harm to Earth’s systems.
Section E: Challenge Questions (4 marks each)
19. Design an investigation to compare the hardness of different rock samples.
20. Explain the full journey of a water molecule from the ocean to a mountain stream
using the water cycle.
21. Suggest how reducing fossil fuel use helps protect Earth’s materials and cycles.
Answer Key
1. The rock cycle shows how rocks change from one type to another over time.
2. Sedimentary rock forms from layers of sediment compressed over time.
3. Fossil fuels are energy sources from ancient plants and animals, e.g., coal, oil.
4. Erosion is the movement of rock particles by wind, water, or ice.
5. A renewable resource can be replaced naturally in a short time.
6. B
7. C
8. C
9. B
10. B
11. Metamorphic rocks form when other rocks are changed by heat and pressure.
12. Weathering breaks rocks down into smaller pieces by wind, water, or temperature
changes.
13. Humans add extra CO₂ by burning fossil fuels and cutting forests.
14. Renewable resources are replaced quickly; non-renewables take millions of years.
15. Water evaporates, condenses into clouds, falls as precipitation, and collects in bodies
of water.
16. Coal is burned, releasing carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
17. Air pollution and global warming from carbon emissions.
18. Recycling reduces mining and energy use, protecting land and reducing emissions.
19. Scratch different rocks with same tool, record which scratches which—use Mohs
scale.
20. Water evaporates, condenses, falls as precipitation, runs off into mountain streams.
21. Less fossil fuel use means fewer emissions, protecting climate, air, and natural
cycles.
Cambridge Lower Secondary Science – Unit 6 Test:
Light
Section A: Vocabulary (1 mark each)
1. Define the term reflection.
2. What is a ray diagram?
3. Explain the term refraction.
4. What is a lens?
5. What does it mean if a material is transparent?
Section B: Multiple Choice (1 mark each)
6. Which surface reflects light best?
A. Black rough surface
B. White rough surface
C. Smooth shiny surface
D. Transparent surface
7. When light passes from air into water, it:
A. Speeds up and bends away from the normal
B. Slows down and bends towards the normal
C. Disappears
D. Doesn’t change direction
8. A periscope works using:
A. Refraction only
B. Reflection using two mirrors
C. A lens and mirror
D. Shadow bending
9. Which material is opaque?
A. Clear plastic
B. Glass
C. Cardboard
D. Water
10. The bending of light is called:
A. Reflection
B. Absorption
C. Scattering
D. Refraction
Section C: General Knowledge (2 marks each)
11. Explain how we see objects that do not produce their own light.
12. What happens to light when it hits a mirror?
13. Why do shadows form?
14. Describe how a magnifying glass works.
15. State the differences between transparent, translucent, and opaque materials.
Section D: Application Questions (3 marks each)
16. A pencil looks bent in a glass of water. Explain why.
17. Describe how to set up an experiment to show how light reflects off different
surfaces.
18. Explain why we see ourselves in a mirror but not in a wall.
Section E: Challenge Questions (4 marks each)
19. Draw and explain a ray diagram showing how light travels through a convex lens.
20. Design an experiment to investigate how the thickness of materials affects light
transmission.
21. Predict how the direction of light changes if it travels from glass to air and explain
why.
Answer Key
1. Reflection is when light bounces off a surface.
2. A ray diagram shows the path that light travels.
3. Refraction is the bending of light when it passes between materials.
4. A lens is a curved piece of glass or plastic that bends light.
5. A transparent material lets all light through clearly.
6. C
7. B
8. B
9. C
10. D
11. We see non-luminous objects because they reflect light into our eyes.
12. It reflects at the same angle as it hits (angle of incidence = angle of reflection).
13. Shadows form when light is blocked by an object.
14. A magnifying glass uses a convex lens to focus light and make images larger.
15. Transparent lets light through clearly; translucent lets some through; opaque blocks
light.
16. Light bends (refracts) as it passes from water to air, making the pencil look bent.
17. Shine a torch at surfaces (mirror, foil, paper), observe angles and brightness of
reflected light.
18. A mirror has a smooth surface that reflects light clearly; a wall reflects light in many
directions.
19. A convex lens bends parallel light rays inward to a focal point—draw the rays
converging.
20. Shine light through different thicknesses of material, measure light passing through
using a light sensor.
21. Light speeds up when moving from glass to air, bending away from the normal due to
lower density.
Section A: Vocabulary (1 mark each)
1. Define the term nutrient.
2. What is a balanced diet?
3. Explain what malnutrition means.
4. What is the function of protein in the body?
5. Define growth in a biological context.
Section B: Multiple Choice (1 mark each)
6. Which nutrient provides the most energy?
A. Protein
B. Fat
C. Vitamins
D. Fibre
7. A deficiency of vitamin C can cause:
A. Anaemia
B. Scurvy
C. Rickets
D. Blindness
8. Which food type is important for making new cells?
A. Fat
B. Carbohydrates
C. Proteins
D. Water
9. A balanced diet contains:
A. Only fruits and vegetables
B. All nutrients in correct amounts
C. Mostly fat and sugar
D. No protein
10. Which organ system is directly responsible for digesting food?
A. Respiratory system
B. Nervous system
C. Digestive system
D. Circulatory system
Section C: General Knowledge (2 marks each)
11. Name the seven main nutrients your body needs.
12. Explain how poor diet can affect a child’s growth.
13. Why is water an essential part of our diet?
14. What is the role of fibre in digestion?
15. How can malnutrition still happen if a person eats enough food?
Section D: Application Questions (3 marks each)
16. A student eats only chips and soft drinks for lunch. Identify two nutrients they may be
missing and the effects of those deficiencies.
17. A baby grows quickly in the first year. Explain what the baby’s body needs during this
time and why.
18. Plan a healthy one-day meal with all nutrient groups included.
Section E: Challenge Questions (4 marks each)
19. Design an experiment to test the presence of protein and starch in food samples.
20. Explain how the energy needs of a teenager differ from those of an elderly person.
21. Compare the diets of a vegetarian and someone who eats meat—include
advantages and disadvantages.
Answer Key
1. A nutrient is a substance needed by the body for energy, growth, or health.
2. A balanced diet provides all the nutrients the body needs in the right amounts.
3. Malnutrition is a condition caused by eating too little, too much, or an unbalanced
diet.
4. Protein helps build and repair body tissues.
5. Growth is the increase in size and number of cells in an organism.
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. B
10. C
11. Carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, fibre, and water.
12. Poor diet can lead to stunted growth, weaker bones, and delayed development.
13. Water is needed for all body processes including digestion, circulation, and
temperature control.
14. Fibre helps move food through the digestive system and prevents constipation.
15. If the food lacks essential nutrients like vitamins and minerals.
16. Missing: protein (poor growth), vitamins (weakened immune system).
17. The baby needs protein, calcium, and energy for growing bones, muscles, and
organs.
18. Example: Breakfast – whole grain toast + egg + orange juice; Lunch – chicken salad
+ fruit; Dinner – rice, fish, vegetables; Snacks – yogurt, nuts.
19. Use Biuret solution for protein (turns purple), iodine for starch (turns blue-black).
20. Teenagers need more energy for growth and activity; elderly need less energy and
more calcium/fibre.
21. Vegetarians may have less fat and cholesterol; must ensure protein, iron, and B12
sources. Meat-eaters may get more iron but also more saturated fat.
Cambridge Lower Secondary Science – Unit 8 Test:
Chemical Reactions
Section A: Vocabulary (1 mark each)
1. Define a chemical reaction.
2. What is a reactant?
3. Explain the term product in a reaction.
4. What is a physical change?
5. Define combustion.
Section B: Multiple Choice (1 mark each)
6. Which of these is a sign of a chemical reaction?
A. Freezing
B. Boiling
C. Colour change
D. Melting
7. Which of the following is a chemical change?
A. Dissolving sugar in water
B. Burning wood
C. Crushing a can
D. Breaking glass
8. In a reaction, the substances that start the reaction are called:
A. Products
B. Atoms
C. Reactants
D. Compounds
9. Combustion is a reaction between a fuel and:
A. Carbon
B. Water
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen
10. What is formed when magnesium burns in air?
A. Water
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Magnesium oxide
D. Oxygen
Section C: General Knowledge (2 marks each)
11. Describe two signs that a chemical reaction has taken place.
12. Explain the difference between a chemical and a physical change.
13. Why is combustion considered a chemical reaction?
14. State the law of conservation of mass.
15. How does temperature affect the rate of a chemical reaction?
Section D: Application Questions (3 marks each)
16. A student mixes vinegar and baking soda. Describe what they observe and what type
of reaction this is.
17. Explain why rusting is a chemical change.
18. Plan an experiment to investigate how temperature affects the speed of a reaction.
Section E: Challenge Questions (4 marks each)
19. Compare and contrast combustion and rusting.
20. Describe how to safely carry out and test for hydrogen gas in a lab.
21. Explain how chemical reactions are used in everyday life (give examples).
Answer Key
1. A chemical reaction is a process where new substances are formed.
2. A reactant is a starting substance in a chemical reaction.
3. A product is the substance formed after a chemical reaction.
4. A physical change changes the appearance but not the substance.
5. Combustion is burning; a reaction between a substance and oxygen producing heat
and light.
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. C
11. Colour change, gas produced, temperature change, or solid formed (precipitate).
12. Chemical change creates new substances; physical change does not.
13. Combustion forms new substances and releases energy.
14. Mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
15. Higher temperatures usually speed up chemical reactions.
16. Bubbles (gas), fizzing, temperature change – it’s an acid-base reaction producing
carbon dioxide.
17. Rusting changes iron into a new substance (iron oxide), not easily reversed.
18. React acid with metal at different temperatures, time how long gas is produced.
19. Both involve oxygen. Combustion is fast and releases heat/light. Rusting is slow and
produces iron oxide.
20. Add acid to metal, collect gas, test with a lit splint – a “pop” sound confirms hydrogen.
21. Cooking (baking), fireworks, respiration, and cleaning all use chemical reactions.
Section A: Vocabulary (1 mark each)
1. Define a magnet.
2. What is a magnetic field?
3. Explain the term attraction in magnetism.
4. What are magnetic poles?
5. Define induced magnet.
Section B: Multiple Choice (1 mark each)
6. Which material is magnetic?
A. Plastic
B. Copper
C. Iron
D. Wood
7. A magnetic field is:
A. A visible force
B. The space around a magnet where magnetic forces act
C. A field filled with air
D. An electrical force
8. Opposite magnetic poles:
A. Attract
B. Repel
C. Explode
D. Disappear
9. Which of these is not a magnetic material?
A. Nickel
B. Steel
C. Aluminium
D. Cobalt
10. Which of the following is used to show magnetic fields?
A. Ruler
B. Iron filings
C. Mirror
D. Thermometer
Section C: General Knowledge (2 marks each)
11. Describe how to make a temporary magnet.
12. Explain what happens when you cut a magnet in half.
13. How can you test if a material is magnetic?
14. What is the difference between a permanent and an induced magnet?
15. State two ways to make a magnetic field stronger.
Section D: Application Questions (3 marks each)
16. A student places a magnet near different materials. Explain how they can record
which are magnetic.
17. Describe how a compass works and what it tells us about Earth’s magnetism.
18. Plan an investigation to compare the strength of different magnets.
Section E: Challenge Questions (4 marks each)
19. Compare magnetic fields of a bar magnet and an electromagnet.
20. Describe how to build a simple electromagnet using a nail, wire, and battery.
21. Predict what happens if an electromagnet is placed near a compass and explain why.
Answer Key
1. A magnet is an object that produces a magnetic field and attracts certain materials.
2. A magnetic field is the region around a magnet where magnetic forces can be felt.
3. Attraction is when magnetic poles pull toward each other.
4. Magnetic poles are the ends of a magnet where the force is strongest (north and
south).
5. An induced magnet is a material that becomes magnetic when near a magnet.
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. C
10. B
11. Stroke an iron object with a magnet repeatedly in one direction.
12. Each piece becomes a smaller magnet with its own north and south poles.
13. Use a magnet to test if it attracts the material.
14. Permanent magnets stay magnetic; induced magnets become magnetic temporarily.
15. Use more coils or a stronger current (for electromagnets).
16. Bring magnet close to each object and observe whether it’s attracted. Record results.
17. A compass needle aligns with Earth’s magnetic field, showing direction.
18. Use paperclips or iron filings, count how many each magnet can hold or attract.
19. Bar magnet has fixed poles; electromagnet’s poles depend on current direction and
can be turned off.
20. Wrap wire around nail, connect to battery ends, and the nail becomes magnetic.
21. Compass needle will move, because electromagnet’s field interferes with Earth’s
magnetic field.
