END UNIT 1 ASSESSMENT

a. Multiple choice questions: Write the Roman number

corresponding to the correct answer.
1. Which of the following elements is not a transition metal?
i. Copper
ii. Nickel
iii. Iron
iv. Magnesium
A
2. Which of the following complexes is linear?
i. [Ag(NH3)2]+
ii. [CoCl4]2-
iii. [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
iv. [CuCl4]2-
3. Which of the following ions does not form coloured solutions?
i. Cu+
ii. Mn2+
iii. Cr3+
iv. Co2+
4. Which of the following reactions of Cu2+ is an example of
a chelation reaction?
i. [Cu(H2O)6]2+ + 2OH- → [Cu(H2O)4(OH)2] + 2H2O
ii. [Cu(H2O)6]2+ + CO32- CuCO3 + 6H2O
iii. [Cu(H2O)6]2+ + EDTA4- [CuEDTA]2- + 6H2O
iv. [Cu(H2O)6]2+ + 2NH3 [Cu(H2O)4(OH)2] + 2NH4+
5. Which of the following complexes forms both geometric
and optical isomers?
 i. [Ni(NH2CH2CH2NH2)3]2+
ii. [Ni(H2O)4(OH)2]
iii. [Ni(NH2CH2CH2NH2)2Cl2]
iv. [NiCl4]2-
6. Which of the following properties is not a characteristic of
transition metal ions
i. Variable oxidation states
ii. Form coloured solutions
iii. Act as catalysts
iv. Are diamagnetic
7. Which complex ion shows optical isomerism and geometrical
isomerism?

8. All the following complex ions contain metal ions. Overall

charges are not shown.
Which complex ion has no overall charge?
The charge of the central metal ion is given in brackets next to the formula
of the complex
i. [CuCl4] (+2)
ii.[Cu(OH)2(H2O)4] (+2)
iii. [Al(H2O)6] (+3)
9. Which atom(s) among the following transition elements
have only 1 electron in 4s orbital? Chromium
 i. Cobalt
ii. Scandium
iii. Zinc
b. Open Questions
1. Complete the following table:
Coordinati Compl Ligand Counter Coordinati Oxidatio
on ex s Ion on n
Compoun Ion Numbe State
d r
[Co(H2O)6]Cl3 Cl -

[Fe(CN)6]3- K
+

[Cu(NH3)4]SO
4

2. What is the characteristic of electron configurations of

transition metals?
3. Which electrons, 3d or 4s, have the lowest ionization
energies in a transition metal?
4. a. Name any three transition metals that are essential to
the biological system.
b. Why do you think transition metals form coordination compounds
that have covalent bonds?
5. Name the following coordination compounds using
systematic nomenclature.
a. [Co(H2O)6]Cl2
b. [Cr(NH3)6](NO3)3
c. K4[Fe(CN)6]
d. Na[Au(CN)4]
e. [Co(H2O)2(en)2]Cl3
6. a. (i) What is meant by the term co-ordinate bond?
(ii) Explain why co-ordinate bonds can be formed between
transition metal ions and water molecules.
b. What name is given to any ligand that can form two co-ordinate
bonds to one metal ion? Give an example of such a ligand.
7.

In order to determine the concentration of a solution of

cobalt(II) chloride, a 25.0 cm3 sample was titrated with a
0.0168 M solution of EDTA4–; 36.2 cm3 were required to reach
the end-point. The reaction occurring in the titration is:
[Co(H2O)6]2+ + EDTA4– [Co(EDTA)]2– + 6 H2O
a. What type of ligand is EDTA4–?
b. Calculate the molar concentration of the cobalt (II) chloride
solution.
8. The ethanedioate (oxalate) ion, C O 2 , acts as a bidentate
ligand. This ligand
2 4
forms an octahedral complex with iron (III) ions.
a. Deduce the formula of this complex and draw its
structure showing all the coordinate bonds present.
b. Give the name of a naturally-occurring in human
body complex compound which contains iron.
c. What is theimportant function of this complex compound?
9. The compound [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl contains both chloride ions
and ammonia molecules as ligands.
a. State why chloride ions and ammonia molecules can behave
as ligands.
b. What is the oxidation state and the co-ordination number
of cobalt in this complex compound?
10. a. Suggest why the compound [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 has a different
colour from that of [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl.
b. Name and give the formula of an ammonia complex used to
distinguish between aldehydes and ketones.
11. Chloride ions form the tetrahedral complex ion [AlCl4]– but
fluoride ions form the octahedral complex ion [AlF6]3-.
Suggest a reason for this difference.
ANSWERS TO END UNIT 1 ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS

(A) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(1) (iv) Magnesium

(2) (i) Ag(NH ) ]+
(3) (i) Cu+
(4) (iii) [Cu(H O) ]2+ + EDTA4- →
[CuEDTA]2- + 6H O
(5) (iii) [Ni(NH2CH2CH2NH2)2Cl2]
(6) (iv) Are diamagnetic
(7) C
(8) (ii) [Cu(OH)2(H2O)4] (+2)
(9) (ii) Chromium

B. OPEN QUESTIONS

(1)Complete the following table:

Coordinatio Complex Ligands Counter Coordinati Oxidatio

n Ion Ion on n State
Number of the
Compound
metal
[Co(H2O)6] 3+
O) ]Cl H2O Cl- 6 +3
[Co(H 6 3
2
[Fe(CN)6] 3-
K3[Fe(CN)6] CN- K+ 6 +3
[Cu(NH3)4] 2+
)4]SO4 SO4-2 4 +2
[Cu(NH3 NH3
(2) They have incomplete d-orbitals
(3) 4s
(4) a. Cu, Zn, Fe
b. Because a covalent bond is formed by a sharing of electrons
between a transition metal atom/ion and a ligand(s).

31
(5) Names of the coordination compounds
a.Tetraaquacobalt(II) chloride
b.Hexaamminechromium(III) nitrate
c.Potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
d.Sodium tetracyanoaurate(III)
e.Diaquabis(ethylenediamine)cobalt(III) chloride
(6)
(a) (i) coordinate bond is a shared pair of electrons in the bonded
pair has been provided by one of the bonding atoms only, also
called a dative covalent bond.
(ii) A water molecule has a lone pair to share with a metal cation
(b) Bidentate ligands
Example: Ethylenediammine (NH2CH2CH2NH2)
(7)
(a) EDTA4– is a polydentate/hexadentate ligand
(b) Number of moles of EDTA4– = 0.0168x36.2x10-3
0.60816x10-3moles Because the mole ratio between [Co(H
O) ]2+ and EDTA4–is 1:1 Therefore the molar concentration
of CoCl2 =
(8) a.

b. Haemoglobin
c. Transport of oxygen in
blood (9)
a. Because each of them has a pair of electrons to donate to a transition
metal ion
b. +3 and 5 respectively
(10) (a) Because they have different ligands

(b) Tollen’s reagent: [Ag(NH ) ]+

(11) Cl-has higher size than F-
END UNIT 2 ASSESSMENT
1. Which metal is extracted from Bauxite?
a. Tin
 b. Tantalum
c. Copper
d. Aluminum
2. Brass is
a. An Element
b. A Compound
c. A Mixture
d. An Alloy
3. Bronze is an alloy of
a. Copper and Zinc
b. Lead and Copper
c. Copper and Tin
d. Barium, Zinc and Iron
4. Which of the following metals is often found in pure state?
a. Copper
b. Iron
c. Gold
d. Aluminum
5. Which metal is extracted from Haematite?
a. Tin
b. Iron
c. Manganese
d. Cadmium
6. Rocks rich in metals with economic value are known as
a. Metalloids
b. Ores
c. Allotropes
d. Slag
7. An alloy is a
a. Compound of three elements
b. Homogeneus mixture of two or more metals
c. Heterogeneous mixture
d. Element in impure form
8. If a metal ore is called "pyrites" then it most probably has
a. Chlorine
 b. Oxygen
c. Sulphur
d. Nitrogen
9. Often to prevent corrosion, metals are galvanized by
covering them with a layer of
a. Copper
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Tin
10.What is not true about Tantalum?
a. It is classified as a "refractory" metal
b. Tantalum oxide is reduced with molten sodium to
produce tantalum metal in powder form.

c. Its ore minerals include scheelite

d. It is found in hard rock deposits such as granites,

carbonites and pegmatites
11.Complete with the terms applied in the Extraction of iron
from haematite in industry (Blast Furnace).

a. Raw materials:
A mixture of , and is added
at the top of the furnace. air is blown into the furnace
from the bottom. A chain of chemical reactions occur:
b. Carbon reacts with oxygen in air to form .
Equation:
c. The hot carbon dioxide rises in the furnace and is reduced
by to
form . Equation:
d. Carbon monoxide is a agent. It iron(III)
oxide in haematite to form hot molten .

Equation:
The hot molten iron is then rum out from the bottom of the
furnace.

e. The formula of limestone:

Limestone breaks up into and
when heated.
Equation:
 f. Calcium oxide helps to remove (the impurities) to
form a liquid ‘ ’. Equation:
12. a. By giving reagents and conditions, state three
different methods of extracting metals starting from
their oxides. In each case, write equation(s) to
illustrate the extraction of an appropriate metal.

b. i. Why are metals more usually extracted from their oxides

rather than from any other compound?

ii. State two environmental problems associated with the

extraction of metals from their oxides or sulphides and give the
chemical responsible for each problem.
13. a. Give the ores of iron.
b. Explain the extraction of iron from its ores.
14. a. Give 2 or 3 uses of aluminium, copper, zinc, and iron.
b. Give two reasons why the extraction of aluminium is expensive.
15.Tungsten is prepared in a pure form by high temperature
reduction of tungsten (VI) oxide with hydrogen.

a. Construct an equation for this reaction.

b. Suggest why carbon is not used as the reducing agent.

c. Suggest one advantage (other than purity of the product)

and one disadvantage of using hydrogen as the reducing
agent on an industrial scale.
16.Zinc and copper are extracted in the same way as iron (in
blast furnace) but exist as their sulphide ores.

a. How is the sulphide ore converted into an oxide and what

is the problem with this process? (give an equation)
b. Why can aluminium not be extracted in this way?
c. Why can tungsten not be extracted in this way?
17.Copper is a widely used metal. The main ore of copper
contains copper sulphide. Copper can be extracted from
copper sulfide in a three stage process.

a. In the first stage of extraction the copper sulfide is heated in

air.
i.

Balance the symbol equation for the reaction.

Cu2S + O2 → CuO + SO2
ii. Explain why there would be an environmental problem if
the gas from this reaction were allowed to escape into
the atmosphere.
 b. In the second stage copper oxide, CuO, is reduced
using carbon. Describe and explain what happens during
this reaction.
c. During the third stage the copper can be purified as
shown in the diagram.

i. What is the name of the type of process used for this

purification?
ii. Give one use of purified copper.

d. Copper-rich ores are running out. New ways of extracting

copper from low grade ores are being researched.
Recycling of copper may be better than extracting copper
from its ores. Explain why.
ANSWERS TO END UNIT II QUESTIONS

1. (d) Aluminium
2. (d) An Alloy
3. (c) Copper and Tin
4. (c) Gold
5. (b) Iron
6.(b) Ores
7.(b)homogeneous solid of two or more metals
8.(c) Sulphur
9. (c) Zinc
10. (c) Its ore minerals include scheelite
11. Complete with the terms applied in the Extraction of iron from
haematite in industry (Blast Furnace).
a. Raw materials: Ore of iron, limestone and coke
A mixture of iron ore, limestone and coke is added at the top of the
furnace. Hot air is blown into the furnace from the bottom. A chain
of chemical reactions occur:
b. Carbon reacts with excess oxygen to form
carbon dioxide. Equation: C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
c. The hot carbon dioxide rises in the furnace and is reduced by
carbon (coke) to form carbon monoxide. Equation: CO2(g) + C(s)
→ 2 CO(g)
d. Carbon monoxide is a reducing agent. It reduces iron (III) oxide in
haematite to form hot molten iron.
Equation: Fe2O3(s) + 3 CO (g) → 2 Fe(l) + 3 CO2(g)
e.The hot molten iron is then rum out from the bottom of the furnace.
formula of limestone: CaCO3
f. The
Limestone breaks up into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide when
heated.
Equation: CaCO3(s) → CaO (s)+ CO2(g)
g.Calcium oxide helps to remove silica/sand (the impurities) to form
a liquid ‘slag’. Equation: CaO(s) + SiO2(s) → CaSiO3(l)
12.a. See reduction by carbon (example: extraction of iron),
electrolysis (example:
extraction of sodium) and reduction by hydrogen (extraction of
tungsten). Reactions and conditions; see the Student’s Book.
b. (i) Oxides are abundant in nature, they are naturally occurring.
(ii) Greenhouse effect/Global warming/toxic environment.
13. a. Haematite, Fe2O3, and magnetite, Fe3O4
b. See Student’s Book.
14.a. Uses of aluminium, copper, zinc, and iron. (See Student’s Book)
b. The extraction of aluminium is expensive because it requires to
melt aluminium oxide which has a high melting point, the purification
process is difficult, it releases carbon dioxide in atmosphere which
lead to many taxes.
15.Equation for the
reaction: WO3 + 3 H2
W + 3 H2
Carbon is not used as the reducing agent because it would produce a
carbide not tungsten.
a. Suggest one advantage (other than purity of the product) and one
disadvantage of using hydrogen as the reducing agent on an
industrial scale.
b. Advantages:
• Hydrogen is easily obtained.
• Hydrogen is a cheap reagent
c. Disadvantages:
• The energy cost is high
• Using a flammable gas such as hydrogen at high
temperatures is very dangerous
 . a. Roasting 2 ZnS + 3 O2 → 2 ZnO + 2 SO2
16
b. It is more reactive
c. It would form a tungsten carbide rather than reducing.
a. (i) Balanced equation. Cu2S + 2 O2 → 2 CuO + SO2
17.
(ii) Sulphur dioxide causes acid rain.
b.CuO + C → Cu + CO Oxygen is removed by carbon because
carbon is 2
more reactive than copper.
c.From the diagram in the Student’s Book.
(i)Electrolysis/electroplating
(ii)Electrical wiring / appliances / coins / pipes / cladding
for buildings / jewellery / making alloys
d.Recycling of copper may be better than extracting
copper from its ores.
• Less acid rain (pollution)
• Copper reserves last longer / conserved or do not run out
• Energy for extraction (saved) or less energy required
• Less mining / quarrying
• Less waste (copper) / electrical appliances dumped or less
landfill against recycling
• Collection problems
• Transport problems
• Difficult to separate copper from appliances
• Energy used to melt the collected copper
•

4.2. End unit assessment

Learning and assessment standards:
 A
pply knowledge of organic chemistry and resonance in inorganic
substances to investigate the properties of benzene related to its structure.

END UNIT 3 ASSESSMENT

1. If nitrogen is the main element of Fertilizers then Fertilizers are
classified as
a. Structural Fertilizers
b. Non-structural Fertilizers
c. Nitrogen Fertilizers
d. Respiratory Fertilizers
2. Increased ratio of chemical nutrients in ecosystem is classified
as
a. Triplication
b. Eutrophication
c. Crystallization
d. Distillation
3. Greenhouse gas which can be emitted from storage of
nitrogen based Fertilizers is
a. Nitrous oxide
b. Nitric oxide
c. Oxygen
d. Hydroxide
4.

Organic Fertilizers can be derived from

a. Animal materials
b. Carbon materials
c. Plant materials
e. Both (a) and (c)
5. Find by calculation, which is the best source of nitrogen:
Sodium nitrate, ammonium nitrate, ammonium sulphate or
urea (CH4N2O).
6. The chemical plant for manufacturing ammonia is often on
the same site as plants manufacturing nitric acid and
Fertilizers.
a. What advantages will this have for the manufacturing
company?

b. Describe two important ways in which it is possible to

reduce the environmental impact of such plants on the
surrounding area.
7. Sulphuric acid reacts with ammonia to give ammonium
sulphate
a. Write the balanced equation for that reaction
b. What property of ammonia is shown in this reaction?
c. Calculate the maximum mass of ammonium sulphate that
can be obtained from 100 g of ammonia. [Ar: H, 1.0;N,
14.0; O, 16.0;S, 32.1)
d. State the large scale use of ammonium sulphate.
8. A laboratory method of finding the percentage of ammonia in
a fertilizer involves boiling the fertilizer with an excess of
aqueous sodium hydroxide until no more ammonia is given
off. The excess of sodium hydroxide is found by titration with
standard hydrochloric acid.
a. Write an equation for the reaction between ammonium
ions and hydroxide ions to give ammonia
b. Say how you could test for ammonia gas.
9. The flow diagram below shows the main steps in the
industrial preparation of two important solid Fertilizers.
 a. How can Fertilizers play a role in increasing the soil’s
ability to produce crops?
b. Are the processes illustrated by the flow diagram above
that of organic or inorganic Fertilizers? Give a reason for
your answer.
c. Write down the balanced chemical equation for the
formation of the brown gas.
d. Write down the name of process Y.
e. Write down the chemical formula of liquid E.
f. Write down the chemical formulae of Fertilizers C and D
respectively
10.Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the use of
organic and inorganic Fertilizers

11.Identify the effects of misusing Fertilizers and the dangers of

substandard fertilizers
Answers to End unit 3 Assessment

A.MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1.(c) Nitrogen fertilisers

2.(b) Eutrophication
3.(a) Nitrous oxide
4.(d)Both (a) and (c)

B. OPEN QUESTIONS

5. The best source of nitrogen in the compounds

Compound Mm Mass of N/g %Element
NaNO3 85 14 g 14
𝑥 100%=
16.5%
𝑥
85
NH4NO3 80 28 g 28

100%=35%
𝑥 100%=
80
(NH4)2SO4 132 28 g 28

21.2
𝑥 100%=
132
CO(NH2)2 60 28 g 28

46.7
60
Therefore urea (CH4N2O) is the best source of nitrogen.
6. (a) -Reduction of cost of transport of raw materials (example: ammonia)
-Nitric acid can be produced on the same site (by Ostwald process),
and that can reduce also the cost for transport
(b)- Recycling the raw materials which have been not used in the process
-Use of catalytic converters which can convert harmful gases to
safe gases (nitrogen monoxide produced in Ostwald process can be converted
into nitrogen
7. (a) 2 NH3 + H2SO4 → (NH4)2SO4
(b) Ammonia is basic
(c) Mm (NH4)2SO4=
132g/mol Mm NH3=

34g of ammonia → 132g 𝑜𝑓 (NH4)2S04 𝑥 100 = 388.24 𝑔 𝑜(NH ) S𝑂

17 g/mol

34
8. (a) NH4+(aq) + OH-(aq) → NH3(g) + H2O(l)
4 2 4
(b) A test tube containing concentrated ammonia is approached
to a test tube containing concentrated hydrochloric acid
Observation: Dense white fumes of NH4Cl are produced
i.e NH3(g) + HCl (g) →NH4Cl(s)]

9. (a) fertilizer provides nutrients to plants because the soil may have
insufficient nutrients for plant growth or the soil may be in lack of the
nutrients that the fertilizer provides.
(b) The processes illustrated by the flow diagram above are that
of inorganic fertilizer. Because ammonium nitrates and ammonium
sulphates are inorganic compounds and they cannot found anywhere in
nature.

(c) 4 NH3 (g) + 5 O2 (g) → 4 NO (g) + 6 H2O (g)

The mixture is passed over platinum-rhodium wire gauge catalysts kept at
about 7000C and 9 atmospheres pressure (high temperatures and
pressures).
(d) Catalytic oxidation of

ammonia (e)D.HNO3

(f) C: (NH4)2SO4 D: NH4NO3

10. (a) Reduction of cost of transport of raw materials (example:

ammonia) Nitric acid can be produced on the same site (by Ostwald
process), and that can reduce also the cost for transport
(b) -Recycling the raw materials which have been not used in the process
-Use of catalytic converters which can convert harmful gases to
safe gases (ni- trogen monoxide produced in Ostwald process can
be converted into nitrogen

[11] and [12] Refer to student’s book about the

advantages/disadvantages of the us
of organic and inorganic fertilisers and about the dangers of the use of
substandard fertilisers,3.9. Additional activities
END UNIT 4 ASSESSMENT
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
Write the letter corresponding
to the right answer.

1. Which of the following features is not characteristic of aromatic

compounds?
a. They are planar.
b. They are cyclic
c. They contain an odd number of pairs of pi electrons.
d. The ring atoms must be carbon atoms.
e. They have an uninterrupted cloud of delocalized pi electrons.
2. What is the hybridization of the ring atoms in an aromatic
compound?
a. s
b. sp3
c. sp
d. p
e. sp2
3. What kind of catalyst is essential for halogenation of
aromatic compounds with Cl2 or Br2?
a. A Lewis acid
b. Light
c. A Lewis base
d. A Brönsted acid
e. A Brönsted base
f. Arrhenius acid
4. Why do aromatic compounds undergo electrophilic
substitution rather than electrophilic addition?
a. Formation of the substituted benzene is highly exergonic.
b. Aromatic compounds are not very stable.
 c. The addition product is much less stable than the
substitution product, since it is non-aromatic.
d. Aromatic compounds are not nucleophiles.
5. Resonance forms are in equilibrium with each other. State true
or false
a. True
b. False
6. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aromaticity
a. It is the extra stability possessed by a molecule
b. p-orbitals must be planar and overlap
c. Cyclic delocalization takes place
 d. It does not follow Huckel’s rule
7. Aromatic rings do not have resonance structures. State true or
false
a. False
b. True
8. Select the incorrect statement:
a. A resonance may sometimes cause sp3 atoms to become sp2
hybridized
b. Delocalizing one lone pair causes aromaticity
c.One lone pair will be counted as two pi electrons according
to Huckel’s equation
d. Two sigma bonds make up a double bond

II. OPEN QUESTIONS

1. Give the proper IUPAC name for each of the compounds shown
below.

2. Draw the structure corresponding to each of the following

IUPAC names.
a. Ortho-bromopropylbenzene
b. 2, 3, 5-trinitrophenol
c. 1-fluoro-2, 4- dinitrobenzene
d. (1-bromoethyl) benzene
e. 2-methyl-6-phenylheptane
f. 1-Bromo-2,4-diethylbenzene
g.Sulfanilic acid
 h. Benzaldehyde
i. Benzyl bromide
j. Vinyl benzene
3. Give four reasons for unusual stability of benzene.
4. Compare the stability of cyclohexene, 1, 3-cyclohexadiene,
and benzene based on heat of hydrogenation.

5. What type of reactions benzene and benzene derivatives

typically undergo? Provide at least two examples.
6. a. Bromine reacts with benzene in the presence of a suitable
catalyst.

i. Give the name or formula of a suitable catalyst for this

reaction.
ii. State the general name of this type of catalyst.
iii. Write a balanced equation for this reaction.
iv. State the name of the product obtained.
v. The reaction between bromine and benzene is an
electrophilic substitution reaction. Outline the likely
mechanism for this reaction. Show clearly all the curly
arrows as well as the structures of the intermediate
and the products.
b. Bromine reacts much more readily with cyclohexene than it
does with benzene.
The reaction with cyclohexene does not need a catalyst.

i. Describe with the aid of diagrams, the bonding in

cyclohexene and benzene.
ii. Use your answer to explain why bromine reacts much
more readily with cyclohexene than it does with
benzene.
7. The nitration of benzene is an important industrial reaction.
a. State the conditions required for the nitration of benzene
using nitric acid.
b. Write a balanced equation for the nitration of benzene.
c. i. Outline the mechanism for the nitration of benzene.
ii.Explain what curly arrow means in this type of mechanism.
iii. Give the name of the NO2+ ion and state its
function in the mechanism of nitration of benzene.
 END UNIT 5 ASSESSMENT
1. Which of the following compounds are not aromatic?
NH2

CH3

a) d)
b) c)

e) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3
f)

C6H5Cl
2.
Which of the following structures are phenols and which are
alcohols?
 3. a. What would you expect to see when bromine is
added to aqueous phenol?
b. Why does bromine react more readily with phenol than with
benzene?
c. Give three uses of phenol.

4. Write the IUPAC names of the following structures:

a) b) c) d) e)

5. Write equations indicating the reagent and condition to

show how the following conversions can be done:
a. Benzene to 2-hydroxybenzoic acid (salicylic acid)
b. Aniline to 3-bromophenol
c. Benzene to paranitrobenzoic acid
7.

The following reaction scheme shows the formation of two

amines, K and L, from methylbenzene.
a. i. Give the reagents needed to carry out Step 1.
ii. Name and outline a mechanism for step 1.
b. Give the suitable reagent or combination of reagents for Step
2.

c. i. Give the reagent for Step 4 and state the condition to

ensure that the primary amine is the major product.

ii. Name and outline a mechanism for Step 4.

d. Explain why amine K is a weaker base than ammonia.

e. Draw the structure of the organic compound formed when a

large excess of bromomethane reacts with amine L.

f. Draw the structure of the organic compound formed when

ethanoyl chloride reacts with amine L in an addition–
elimination reaction
5.7. End unit assessment Answers

1.Answer: b, c, e and f
2.Phenols: A and D
Not phenols but alcohols: B and C
3.a. Formation a white precipitate
b. Because –OH group is an activator, -OH group increases the
reactivity of benzene ring.
c. (See the answer in student’s book: uses of phenol)

Teachers’ Guide
125
4.Answers:
a. 2-bromo-4-nitrobenzoic acid
b. 3-chlorophenylamine
c. 3-chloromethylbenzene
d. Pentachlorophenol
e. 4-aminobenzoic acid
5.a.

NO2

+ HNO3

con.H2SO4 500C

+ H2O

NO2
Sn/HCl NaOH, Heat

NH2

NH2
Nitrobenzene Aniline
Or aminobenzene

NCl-

+ HNO2 + HCl

0-5oC
+ 2H2O

Benzenediazonium chloride

OH OH OH

FeCl3
+ CH Cl
CH3

CH3
 OH OH

CH3
MnO4-/H+
Heat

COOH

CH3

FeCl3
+ CH Cl

+ HCl

CH3

+ HNO3

conc.H2SO4

CH3
 +
CH3

NO2

CH3

NO2

COOH

Cr2O72-/H+
Heat

Answer:
NO2

NO2

Step Reagents Conditions

I U.V light
Cl2
II or KOH(aq) Warm /heat
NaOH(aq)
III HNO3 Conc.H2SO4 as catalyst and heat or
Conc.
reflux

a. Answer:
Reduction b.
Teachers’ Guide
127
 CH3

A) or
CH3

Cl

COOH

Cl

para-chloromethylbenzene or 4-chloromethylbenzene
ortho-chlorotoluene
or 2-chloromethylbenzene B)

Benzoic acid
 a. Answer: Step I: Free radical
substitution Step II: Nucleophilic
substitution(SN)
7.
a. i. Concentrated nitric acid in the presence of H2SO4 and Heat.
ii. Electrophilic substitution (nitration). For the mechanism, use
student book on nitration of benzene
b. Zn, Sn or Fe can be used together with a mineral acid (HCl or
H2SO4) in the presence of an alkali.
c. Use of ammonia in the presence of an alcohol (ethanol) under pressure.
d. Answer: K is a weaker base than ammonia because the lone pair
of electron on K is not available (it is delocalized) but in ammonia
the lone pair of electrons is available (not delocalised) hence,
ammonia can fix the proton easily.

UNIT 6: POLYMERS AND POLYMERIZATION

END UNIT ASSESSMENT
1. Explain the terms crosslinking and thermosetting with
reference to condensation polymers.
For what purposes are thermosetting polymers suitable?

2. a. How the chemical inertness of poly(ethene) arise?

b. How does it increase the usefulness of the material?
c. How does it affect the disposal of waste polyethene?
3. a. What type of functional group joins the repeating units in
nylon?
b. In what way does the structure of nylon resemble that of a
polypeptide?
c. What type of interaction takes place between polymer
molecules which contain the functional group present in
polypeptide?
4. Identify 3 examples of synthetic polymers
5. What is the benefit of cross-linking polymer chains?
6. a) Give one example for each of the following type of
polymer. Write the structural formula of the polymer and
monomer unit. Give at least one use of the polymer named
i. Natural addition polymer
ii. Synthetic addition polymer
iii. Natural condensation polymer
iv. Synthetic condensation polymer
b. State the role of each of the following in the manufacture of
plastics
i. Fillers
ii. Plasticizers
6.8: End unit assessment
ANSWERS TO END UNIT ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS
1.Crosslinking: is a process of where one polymer chain bonds to
another while thermosetting is a process of becoming permanently
hard and rigid, for some polymers when they are subjected to heat.
Thermosetting polymers are suitable for high temperature; they retain
their strength and shape even when heated.
2.a) Its inertness com es from the way that they are saturated
compounds with single bonds only in their structures.
b) Their structures make them less reactive which increases their uses
because they are chemically stable. They have excellent electrical
insulation and very good chemical resistance.
c) When they are disposed or put in landfill, they do not degrade which
is a challenge to environment.
3.a) Carboxylic group and amine
b)They have the same joining group, amide linkages.
5. a) There is hydrogen bond.
6 Examples of synthetic polymers; nylons, terylene, and polystyrene
7 strengthen the polymer
a) -Natural addition polymer:
Polyisoprene (natural rubber): used in manufacturing tyres, tubes, etc

Monomer: Isoprene

-Synthetic addition polymer:

Polyvinylchloride (PVC) - uses: pipes, plastic bottles, doors (rigid PVC),
rain coats (flex-
ible PVC)

Teachers’ Guide
153
Monomer: Chloroethene (vinyl
chloride) CH2 = CHCl
-Natural condensation polymer:
Starch, (C6H10O5)n - uses: textile and paper industry, source
Polymer:
of ethanol Monomer: Glucose; C6H12O6
-Synthetic condensation polymer
Polymer: Terylene (polyester) - uses: textile industry (clothing, fishing
lines, ropes, bottles…)

Monomers:

b)(i) Fillers are solid inert materials added to synthetic polymers or

rubber to change their physical properties or simply dilute it for
economy (to increase the bulk of a polymer)
ii)Plasticizers are substances added to synthetic polymers to make
them flexible,
e.g. benzene-1,2-dicarboxylic acid added to thermosetting plastics
to make them soft and readily remolded.
c) i) Vulcanization is a process hardening rubber by heating natural
rubber with sul- phur or sulphur compounds
ii)By heating natural rubber with sulphur, atoms of sulphur react at
both the dou- ble bond and at the ethylenic hydrogen such that the
sulphur atoms form cross links with the rubber molecules giving
the rubber greater elasticity and tensile strength. Formation of
cross links also reduces sliding between the rubber mole- cules
iii) Name the monomer units in natural rubber
iv) SBR, Styrene – butadiene – rubber (the most widely used
synthetic rubber). It is produced by copolymerization of butadiene
and styrene in a ratio of 3:1 using free radical initiators. Use: tyres
production

UNIT 7: SOLVENT EXTRACTION AND COLLIGATIVE

PROPERTIES
END UNIT ASSESSMENT
1. Colligative properties are observed when:
 a. a non-volatile solid is dissolved in a volatile liquid
b. a non-volatile liquid is dissolved in an another volatile liquid
c. a gas is dissolved in a non-volatile liquid
d. a volatile liquid is dissolved in an another
volatile liquid Mark the correct option(s).

2. Which of the following binary mixtures will have same

composition in liquid and vapour phase?
a. Benzene-Toluene
b. Water-Nitric acid
c. Water-Ethanol
d. n-Hexane-n-Heptane
3. Considering the following couples of solvents, predict which
mixture will show a positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
a. Methanol and acetone
b. Chloroform and acetone
c. Nitric acid and water
d. Phenol and aniline
4. Relative lowering of vapour pressure is a colligative property
because
a. It depends on the concentration of a non-electrolyte solute
in solution and does not depend on the nature of the
solute molecules.
b. It depends on number of particles of electrolyte solute in
solution and does no t depend on the nature of the solute
molecules.
c. It depends on the concentration of anon-electrolyte solute
in solution as well as on the nature of the solute
molecules.
d. It depends on the concentration of an electrolyte or a non-
electrolyte solute in solution as well as on the nature of
solute molecules.
Mark the correct option(s).
5. If two liquids A and B form minimum boiling azeotrope at
some specific composition:
 a. A-B interactions are stronger than those between A-A or B-B
b. Vapour pressure of solution increases because more
number of molecules of liquids A and B can escape from
the solution
c. Vapour pressure of solution decreases because less
number of molecules of only one of the escape from the
solution
d. A-B interactions are weaker than those between A-
A or B-B. Mark the correct option(s).

6. Colligative properties depend on

a. The nature of the solute particles dissolved in solution
b. The number of solute particles in solution
c. The physical properties of the solute particles dissolved in
solution
d. The nature of the solvent
particles. Mark the correct
option(s).
7. If 0.500 grams of caffeine is dissolved in 100 mL of water,
what percentage of caffeine can be separated from the water
using a single 40 mL sample of methylene chloride? The
distribution coefficient = 4.6
8. Benzoic acid can be separated from water using octanol as
the organic solvent. The distribution coefficient for this
water/octanol system is P =
1.87. Assuming that 1 gram of benzoic acid has been dissolved in
100 mL of water, how many 20 mL extractions must be done to
extract 60+ percent of the benzoic acid from the water?
9. A 0.100 gram sample of phthalic acid was dissolved in 100
mL of water. When 25 mL of diethyl ether was used to
extract the phthalic acid, 0.042 grams of phthalic acid were
recovered. What is the distribution coefficient for this
extraction?
10.What mass of ethylene glycol (C 2H6O2, molar mass=62.1
g/mol), the main component of antifreeze, must be added to
10.0 L of water to produce a solution for use in a car’s
radiator that freezes at -23.3°C? Assume the density of water
is exactly 1g/ml. Kf=1.86°C.kg/mol
7.2 Answers to end unit Assessment
Answers to end unit assessment questions
1. (a,b) Colligative properties are observed when a non-volatile solid or
liquid is dissolved in a volatile liquid.
2. (b,c) Non-ideal solution mixtures with same composition in liquid
and vapour phase are azeotropes. Water-nitric acid has maximum
boiling azeotrope and water-ethanol has a minimum boiling azeotrope.
3. (a) Mixture of methanol and acetone shows positive deviation
because methanol- methanol and acetone-acetone interactions are
more than methanol-acetone. The more number of hydrogen bonds are
broken, the less number of new H-bonds are formed.
4. (a,b) Relative lowering of vapour pressure depends on concentration
of non- electrolyte solute in solution and number of particles of
electrolyte solute. It does not depend on nature of solute in both
conditions.
5. d If A-B interactions<A-A or B-B the vapour pressure will be more
and the result will be positive deviation. The solutions which show
positive deviation form minimum boiling azeotropes.
6. b Colligative properties depend upon the number of solute particles
in the solution and independent of its nature.

176 Teachers’ Guide

 7.
4.6 Cl
x / 40mLCH 2 2

0.5 - x/100mL H 2O
x

4.6 
40 x 100
 4.6  

0.5  x
100
40 0.5  x
4.6  40 x


 1.84 
  
1.840.5  x  x  0.92 1.84x  x
0.92  x 1.84x  0.92  2.84x
0.92
x x
0.3239 2.84
The mass of caffeine extracted is 0.3239 g
% of caffeine extracted
0.3239g
100  64.78%Caffeine
extracted 0.500g
1st extraction

1.87 

x / 20 mL Octanol

 1.87 
x
20  1.87 

x 100

1 - x/100 mL H2O
1x
100
20 1  x
 20
1.87 
100
x
1x
 0.374 
x
1x
 0.3741  x  x
0.374
0.374  0.374x  x  0.374  1.374x  x   x  0.2722
1.374
 The mass of benzoic acid extracted is 0.2722 g, so 0.7278 g remains.
0.2722g
100  27.22%Benzoic acid
extracted 1g
2nd extraction

1.87 

x / 20 mL Octanol
0.7278- x/100 mL H 2O

 1.87 
x
20
0.7278 x
100

 1.87 

x 100

20 0.7278 x
1.87 20

100
x
0.7278 x
 0.374 
x
0.7278 x
 0.3740.7278 x  x
0.2722
0.2722 0.374x  x  0.2722  1.374x  x   x  0.1981
1.374
The mass of benzoic acid extracted is 0.1981 g, so 0.5297
g remains. Total mass
extracted=0.2722g+0.1981g=0.4703g
0.4703
100  47.03%Benzoic acid
extracted 1

Teachers’ Guide
177
 3rd extraction

1.87 


x / 20 mL Octanol
0.5297- x/100 mL H 2O

 1.87 

x
20
0.5297 x
100

 1.87 


x 100

20 0.5297 x
1.87 20

100
x
0.5297 x
 0.374 
x
0.5297 x
 0.3740.5297 x  x
0.1981
0.1981 0.374x  x  0.1981 1.374x  x   x  0.1442g Benzoic acid
1.374

8. The mass of benzoic acid extracted is 0.1442 g, so

0.3855 g. The total mass
extracted=0.2722g+0.1981g+0.1442g=0.6145g
0.6145
100  61.45% Benzoic acid ;
1

percentage of benzoic extracted is

61.45% 9.
8
P 0.042g / 25 mL ether  2.897
 0.100- 0.042g /100 mL H2O

7 Use the equation: T  K f msolute

T

23.3C
T  K f msolute  msolute 
f
  
 12.5mol / kg
1.86 C.kg / mol

This means that 12.5 mol ethylene glycol must be

added per kg of water. We have 10.0l, or
10.0 kg of water. Therefore, the total number of moles of ethylene glycol
needed is
12.5mol
10.0kg  1.2510 mol
2

1kg
12.5mol 62.1g
The mass of ethylene glycol needed is   7.76103 g
kg mol
8 The molality of the hormone is
T 0.240C 2
mhormone 
f

  4.6910
5.12C..Kg / mol
mol / kg
The moles of hormone can be obtained from the definition of molality:

4.69102 mol / Kg  m

solute

mol hormone

0.0150Kg benzene

mol hormone  4.69102 mol / K 0.0150Kg benzene  7.0410 4
mol

178 Teachers’ Guide

 Since 0.546 g hormone was dissolved, 7.04x10-4 mol hormone has a mass of
0.546 g and
0.546g
7.04104 mol
xg

1.00mol
 x  776g / mol
Thus the molar mass of the hormone is 776g/mol.
9 We use the equation:   MRT . In this case we have:
  1.12torr 
1atm 760torr

 1.47103 atm

where

R  0.08206L.atm/ K.mol T  25.0  273  298K

Note that the osmotic pressure must be converted to atmospheres

because of the units of R.
Solving for M gives
1.47103 atm
M
0.08206L.atm/ K.mol 298K 
 6.01

105 mol / L
The molar mass of the protein is 1.66 x10 4. This mass may seem very
large, but it is relatively small for a protein.
1. Molecular masses of polymers are best determined by osmotic pressure
method. Firstly because other colligative properties give so low values
that they cannot be measured accurately and secondly, osmotic
pressure measurements can be made at room temperature and do not
require heating which may change the nature of the polymer.
2. A solution which obeys Raoult’s law at all concentrations and at all
temperatures is called an ideal solution. For non-ideal solutions, vapour
pressure is either higher or lower than that predicted by Raoult’s law. If
it is higher, the solution exhibits positive deviation and if it is lower, it
exhibits negative deviation from Raoult’s law Vmix  0; H mix  0; .
Positive deviation is shown when the forces of attraction between A-B
molecules are less than forces of attraction between A-A and B-B
molecules in the two liquids forming the solution.
Example, ethanol+ acetone and carbon disulphide+acetone show positive
deviation.
Negative deviation is shown when A-B interactions are stronger than the
A-A and B-B

Teachers’ Guide
179
molecular interactions present in the two liquids forming the solution.

Example, phenol + aniline and chloroform+ acetone show negative deviation.

UNIT 8: QUANTITATIVE CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

END UNIT ASSESSMENT
1. Nitrogen monoxide gas (NO) was allowed to react with
hydrogen gas (H2) in a litre container according to the

2NO(g) +2H2(g) ⇄ N2(g) + 2H2O(g)

equation:

Initially before the reaction started; the concentration of each gas

was: NO(g) = 0.10 mol/litre, H2(g) = 0.050 mol/litre, H2O(g) = 0.10
mol/litre, N2(g)
= 0.00 mole/litre. When the reaction reached equilibrium, the
concentration of each gas was equal to 0.062 mol/litre. When the
reaction reached equilibrium, the concentration of each gas was
equal to 0.062 mole/litre.
a. Write the mathematical expression of equilibrium constant,
Kc.
b. Calculate the equilibrium constant, Kc.
c. Determine the mathematical expression of equilibrium
constant, Kp in relation to the equilibrium constant Kc
d. Calculate Kp, by using the value of Kc (in
1.b) above. (R =0.082 L.Atm. K-1 mol-1,
temperature K = 298 Kelvin)
2. This question refers to the Haber process for the synthesis of
ammonia. The equation which presents the reaction is given
below.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇄ 2NH3(g) ∆Ho = -92kJ mol-1

a. Explain what is meant by the term ‘’ dynamic equilibrium’’.

b. i. Write the expression for the equilibrium constant K p, for
the above process

ii. If the pressure is measured in atmospheres, what will be the

units of Kp?
c. State and explain the effect on the above equilibrium:
i.Increasing the pressure
ii.Increasing the temperature

d. Name the catalyst used in the Haber process.

e. i. Describe the function of a catalyst in terms of energy of

activation and use a diagram to illustrate its effect.

ii. Describe the effect of catalysts on the position of equilibrium

and its effects on the concentrations of reacting substances at
equilibrium.
3. Nitrogen tetroxide, N2O4(g), decomposes according to the
 N2O4(g) ⇄ 2NO2(g)
equation

a. Write an expression for the equilibrium constant, Kc, for

the above reaction

b. Explain the effect on the composition of the equilibrium

mixture when the pressure is doubled.
4. Consider the following equilibrium

⇄ Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
reactions: Reaction I: 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g)

Reaction II: CO(g) + Cl2(g) ⇄ COCl2(g)

a. Write expressions for the equilibrium constant, Kp.

i. for reaction I
ii. for reaction II
b. State, giving reasons, how an increase in pressure affects
the position of equilibrium in each reaction above.

the reaction: N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇄ 2NH3(g)

5. The production of ammonia in the Haber process involves

a. Write an expression for the equilibrium constant, Kc, for

the above reaction.

b. 0.20 mol of N2(g) and 0.20 mol of H2(g) were reacted in

a 1 dm3 closed container. (Until equilibrium) was reacted.
At equilibrium, the concentration of NH3(g) was 0.060
moldm-3.
i. Calculate concentrations of N2(g) and H2(g) at equilibrium.
ii. Calculate the value of Kc and state its units.
c. How does an increase in pressure affect the yield of
ammonia? Explain your answer.

d. The actual conditions used in the Haber process are a

temperature of 500oC and a pressure of 200 atmospheres.
Why are these conditions used instead of the conditions
that would give the highest yield?

e. Give one large scale use of ammonia.

Answer to end unit 8 questions

1.a)Kc =
b)

[NO](M) [H2](M) [N2](M) [H2O](M)

Initial 0.10 0.050 0.00 0.10

Change -0.038 -0.038 +0.019 +0.038

Equilibrium 0.062 0.012 0.019 0.138

[H2] = 0.012 , [N2] = 0.019M, [H2O] = 0.138 M

Kc = mol-1L
c) Relationship between Kc and Kp

Kp =

d) Kp = (653.681 mol-1L) (0.0821 atm K-1 mol-1x298K)(3-4) = 26.728L atm-1

202 Teachers’ Guide

 2 a)A dynamic equilibrium is a chemical equilibrium between a forward
reaction and the reverse reaction where the rates of reactions are equal in
closed system.

i) Kp =
b. (

ii) the units of Kp → atm-2

c.i) Increasing the pressure favours the forward reaction which
produces fewer molecules of gas.
ii) Increasing the temperature favours reverse reaction which is
endothermic reaction.
d)The catalyst used in the Haber process is iron.
e. The catalysts increase equally the rates of both forward and
backward reactions in equilibrium. So they enable equilibrium to be
achieved much more rapidly but they do not alter the concentrations
of reacting substances at equilibrium.

Kc =
3.a)
b. Increase in pressure favours side with less number of moles
therefore if the pressure is doubled, the backwards reaction will
favoured. NO2 will decompose into N2O4.

a)i) Kp =
.

Kp =
ii)
b)Reaction I: Increase in pressure will shift to the right
where is few number of moles.

Reaction II: Increase in pressure has no effect on the

equilibrium position since the number of moles of
gases on the left hand side is equal to the number of
moles on the left hand side.

Kc =
5.a)
b.i) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

Teachers’ Guide
203
 Initial conc. 0.20 0.20 0
At eqm 0.20-x
0.20-3x
2x 2x = 0.060
x = 0.030 mol
At equilibrium [N2]: 0.20-0.03
= 0.17mol At equilibrium [H2]:
0.20-3x0.03 = 0.11mol

ii) Kc= = 15.9

Kc = = mol-2dm-6

c) An increase in pressure favours the forward reaction, thus the yield

of ammonia (NH3) increases. Because high pressure favours the
direction where the number of moles decreases (Le Chatelier’s
principle)
d) A low temperature would give a higher yield but the rate would be
too slow, hence not economical. A higher temperature of 5000C
increases the rate. A high pressure increases the yield but if it is
higher than 200 atm, it becomes very expensive because of the
higher cost of repairing broken parts.
e)Manufacture of fertilizers
Manufacture of nitric acid.
6.a) There is increase in moles of gas (volume) in the forward
reaction. Increase in pressure favours the backward reaction or shifts
equilibrium position to the left where there are a few moles of gas.

b) Kc = ;units of Kc are mol2dm-6

UNIT 9: pH OF ACIDIC AND ALKALINE SOLUTIONS

END UNIT ASSESSMENT

SECTION A: Multiple choice questions

1. In Bronsted-Lowry definition of acids and bases, an acid

 A.Is a proton donor B. Is a proton acceptor
C. Forms stable hydrogen bonds D. Breaks stable hydrogen bonds
2. In the following reaction in aqueous solution, the acid reactant is
ad its conjugate base product is . CH3COOH + NH3
CH3COO- + NH +

A.CH3COOH, CH3COO- B. NH3, NH4+

C. CH3COOH, NH4+ D. NH3, CH3COO-

3. Which one of the following is a conjugate acid of the hydrogen
phosphate ion, HPO 2-?

A.H3PO4 B. PO43-

C. H2PO4- D. HPO43-

4. Which one of the following is a strong acid?

A.HNO2 B. H2SO3

C. H2CO3 D. HClO4

5. Which one of the following ions form an alkaline solution?

A.Cl- B. SO42-

C. NO3- D. CO32-

6. What is the hydroxonium ion concentration of a 0.20M solution of

ammonia? The Kb value of ammonia is 1.8 x 10-5 mol dm-3.

A.2.8 x 10-10 B. 5.2 x 10-12

C. 1.8 x 10-5 D. 1.9 x 10-3

7. A cup of coffee has a hydroxide ion concentration of 1.0 x 10-10

M. what is the pH of this coffee?
 A. 10 B. 4

C. 7 D. 1

8. How would you calculate Kb for the formate ion, given that the Ka
for formic acid is 1.8 x 10-4? (Kw = 1.0 x 10-14)

A.Kb = Ka x Kw B. Kb = Kw + Ka

B. Kb = Kw/Ka D. Kb = Ka/Kw

9. In anionic hydrolysis, the pH of the resultant

solution is

A.Greater than 7 B. Less than 7

C. Equal to 7 D. Less than zero

10. When a salt of strong acid and weak base is dissolved in water,
occurs to give
solution.

A.Ionization, basic B. Ionization, acidic

C. Hydrolysis, acidic D. Hydrolysis, basic

SECTION B:

11. Benzoic acid is a weak acid.

a. What is meant by a weak acid?

b. The acid dissociation constant of benzoic acid (Ka) is 6.4x10-5

moldm-3. Calculate the pH of 0.1moldm-3 benzoic acid
(C6H5COOH) solution.

12. Calculate the pH of 0.1moldm-3 ethanoic acid (CH3COOH)

solution at 25 0C. Ka of CH3COOH is 1.8x10-5

13. a. Write an equation of the reaction for the dissociation of

propanoic acid in aqueous solution

a. Write an expression for the acid dissociation constant, Ka of

propanoic acid
14. Some foodstuffs contain “acidity regulators” which have a
buffering action on the pH. Mixtures of citric acid and its sodium
 salt are often used for this purpose.

C5H7O4COOH (aq) C5H7O4COO- (aq) + H+ (aq)

Citric acid Ka = 7.4x10-4 moldm-3

a. The concentration of citric acid in lemon juice is 0.23 moldm-3.

Assuming that no other acid is present. Calculate the pH of lemon
juice.

b. Write equations to show how citric acid and sodium citrate buffer
system regulates the acidity on addition of:
i.H+ ions
ii.OH- ions

c. Calculate the pH of the solution containing 0.20 moldm-3 citric

acid and 0.3 moldm-3 sodium citrate.

15. A 0.01M solution of ammonia is 4.0% ionized.

a.Calculate the pH of the solution
b.Determine the base dissociation constant, Kb for the ammonia
solution
16. a. A 0.1M ethanoic acid solution was titrated with 0.1M sodium
hydroxide solution until the acid was exactly half-way
neutralized. Calculate the pH of the resultant solution. (Ka
=1.8 x 10-5 mol dm-3)

b. Two drops of aqueous sodium hydroxide were added to the

resultant solution in
c. State what happened to the pH of the solution and explain your
answer.

17. A buffer solution of pH 4.5 was prepared from ethanoic acid (Ka
= 1.8 x 10-5) and sodium ethanoate. The concentration of
sodium ethanoate was 0.2 mol litre-1.

a.Write equation for the reaction that took place o addition of small
amount of:
i.dilute hydrochloric acid
ii.dilute sodium hydroxide
b.Calculate the concentration of ethanoic acid in the buffer solution

18. At 27 0C, ammonia has a base dissociation constant, Kb of 1.8 x 10-5

mol dm-3
a.Write an expression for Kb of ammonia
b.Calculate the concentration of OH- ions in 0.1M ammonia
solution at 25 0C. State any assumptions made
c. Calculate the change in OH- concentration which occurs
when 0.01 moles of ammonium chloride are added to 1.0 dm 3 of
the solution in (b) above.
a. Bromothymol blue pKin =7
 9.3. End unit assessment
Answers to end unit assessment questions

SECTION A:
1. A 6. B
2. A 7. B
3. C 8. C
4. D 9. B
5. D 10. C
SECTION B:
1. (a) A weak acid is an electrolyte which is partially ionized in
aqueous solu- tions.

=
(b) Ka

x 10-5 =
6.4
[H+] =
[H+]
= 2.53 x 10-3 mol dm-3
pH = - log10 [H+]

242 Teachers’ Guide

 = - log (2.53 x 10-3)
10
pH = 2.6
2. CH COOH (aq) CH COO- (aq) + H+
(aq)

= =
Ka
[H+] =
[H+] = 1.34 x 10-3 mol
dm-3
+
pH = - log10 [H ]
pH = - log (1.34 x 10-3)
10
pH = 3 – log 1.34
pH = 2.87
3. (a) CH CH COOH (aq) CH CH COO- (aq) + H+ (aq)
3 2 3 2
Or CH CH COOH (aq) + H O (l) CH CH COO- (aq) + H O+
(aq)
3 2 2 3 2 3

(b) Ka = or Ka =
4. (a) pH = - log [H+]
10

Ka =
[H+] =
[H+] = 1.305 x+ 10-2 mol dm-3
pH = - log [H ]
10
= - log (1.305 x 10-2)
10
pH = 1.88
(b) (i) C H O COO- (aq) + H+ (aq) C H O COOH (aq)
5 7 4 5 7 4
(ii) C H O COOH (aq) + OH- (aq) C H O COO- (aq) + H O
(l)
5 7 4 5 7 4 2

pH = pKa + log
(c)
= - log (7.4 x 10-4) + log
pH
pH = 3.3
(c) Kw is the ionic product of water or the dissociation constant
for water
K = [H+] [OH-] or K = [H O+] [OH-]
Water has a pH of 7 because it is neutral since the
concentration of H+ ions in water is 1.0 x 10-7 mol dm-3
5. (aq) NH OH (aq) NH + (aq) + OH- (aq)
4 4
[OH-] = Ca
[OH-] = 0.01 x 0.04 = 4.0 x 10-4 moldm-3
pOH = - log10 pOH = - log10 pOH = 3.39
[OH-]
(4.0 x 10-4)
pH = 14 – pOH

Teachers’ Guide
243
 pH = 14 – 3.39
pH = 10.61
6. (a) CH3COOH (aq) + NaOH (aq) CH3COONa (aq) + H2O (l)
At half-way neutralization, [CH3COOH] = [CH3COONa] = 0.05M

= pKa + log
pH
= - log (1.8 x 10-5) + log
pH
pH = 4.7
(b) The pH of the resultant solution does not change i.e. remains at 4.7
Explanation
Ethanoic acid is a weak acid which is only partially
ionized while sodium ethanoate is a strong electrolyte and
is completely ionized in aqueous solution.
CH
COOH (aq) CH COO (aq) + H+
-

(aq) CH COONa (aq) CH COO-

(aq)
3
+ Na+ (aq) 3
The OH- ions from the base added combine with hydrogen ions in
the
solution to form water. However, this increases the
ionization of eth- anoic acid to re-establish the
concentration of hydrogen ions back to normal.
Therefore, the pH of the solution remains constant.
7.
(a)(i) CH COO-
(aq) + HCl (aq) CH COOH (aq) + Cl- (aq) Or
CH COO- (aq) + H+ (aq) CH COOH (aq)
(ii)
CH3COOH (aq) + NaOH (aq) CH3COONa (aq) +
H2O (l) Or CH COOH (aq) + OH (aq)
-
CH COO-
(aq) + H O (l)

pH = pKa + log
(b)

= - log (1.8 x 10-5) + log

4.5
4.5 = 5 – log1.8 + log0.2 – log [Acid]
log [Acid] = - 0.4543
[Acid] = 0.35 moldm-3

=
(b) Kb

Kb =
 K = 1.6 x 10-5 mol dm-3

8. (a) Kb =

(b) Kb =
[OH-] = ) x 0.1

244 Teachers’ Guide

 [OH-] = 1.34 x 10-3 mol dm-3
Assumptions
[NH +] = [OH-]; since there is negligible OH- ions from
water and the mole reaction ratio NH +: OH- is 1:1
[NH +] = 0.1M since little of NH OH has ionized in solution
4 4

(c) Kb =
[NH +] = 0.01 mol dm-3, Since NH Cl fully ionizes to NH +
ions in
solution
4 4 4
[NH OH] = 0.1 mol dm-3, poorly ionizes in solution

Kb =

[OH-] =
[OH-] = 1.8 x 10-4
mol dm-3
Change in [OH-] = (1.34 x 10-3) – (1.8 x 10-4)
= 1.16 x 10-3 mol dm-3
9. (a) CH COO- (aq) + H O (aq)
CH COOH (aq) + OH- (aq)

(b) Kh =
(c)(i) Kh =

=
= 5.56 x 10-10 mol dm-3

=
(ii) Kh
[OH-] =
[OH-]
= 7.46 x 10-6 mol dm-3
pOH = - log10
pOH = - log10
[OH-]
(7.46 x 10-6)
pOH = 5.13
pH = 14 –
pOH pH =
14 – 5.13
pH = 8.87
10. (a) Al(OH)3
(s) + (aq) Al3+ (aq) + 3OH- (aq)
(b) From the equation, [Al(OH) ] = [Al3+] = 3[OH-]
[OH-] = 3 x (2.3 x 10-3) [OH-] = 6.9 x 10-6 mol dm-3 K
= [H+] [OH-]
[H+] = =
[H ] = 1.45 x 10-9 mol dm-3
+

pH = - log [H+]
 pH = - log (1.45 x 10-9)
10
pH = 8.84
For answers to (c) and (d), refer to students’ book

UNIT 10: INDICATORS AND TITRATION CURVES

END UNIT ASSESSMENT

2. A Laboratory assistant was given an assignment of
standardizing a solution of sodium hydroxide NaOH which
was to be used in the laboratory to do this he carefully
weighed 2.878g solid Potassium hydrogen phthalate
(KHC8H4O4) often abbreviated as KHP in laboratory manuals
this was dissolved in some distilled water and titrated with
the solution of sodium hydroxide which was to be
standardized. It required 23.65 cm3 of the base to just
neutralize the sample of KHP (to reach the end point.)
Given the equation for the reaction as: HC8H4O4- + OH H2O +C8H4O42-
Calculate the concentration of sodium hydroxide NaOH
Solution in mol/dm3
3. Consider the titration curve for titrating a strong acid like HCl
and a strong base like sodium hydroxide NaOH Select all the
true statements from among the following.

a. At the beginning of the titration the pH of the solution was 7.

b. At the beginning of the titration the pH of the solution was will
be below 7.
c. At first the pH of the solution rises rapidly as the base is
added.
d. The PH of the solution rises at a constant rate as the base is
added.
e. At the equivalence point of the titration the pH is 7.
f. The PH of the solution changes very rapidly around the
equivalent point of the titration
g. When you move past the equivalence point the pH of the
solution rises rapidly.
h. After passing over the equivalence point the pH of the
solution will be greater than 7.

i. Any indicator that changes color from perhaps a pH of 4

to 10 would be a good choice of indicator. For this
titration.
4. Which of the following would be the correct type of
 indicator for the titration between a strong acid and weak
base.
a. Methyl Yellow pKin=3.5.
b. Congo RedpKin =4.0

10.2. End unit assessment

Expected answers to summative assessment

1.The first thing to realize is that the equation given only shows the
essential reacting species. K+ and Na+ ions really have nothing to do
with the actual reaction that takes place KHP and NaOH.
The next thing to real is that KHP and NaOH react with each other in
1:1 mole ratio.
Then you have to realize that even though potassium ions have
nothing to do with the reaction, it must be included when you
determine the molar mass of KHP when you weigh out 4.878g
sample.
Molar mass, KHC8H4O4 =
204.1 g/mol Moles of
KHC8H4O4= = 0.0141 moles
Moles of NaOH = 0.0141 mol
Therefore, concentration of NaOH = =
0.596M 2.B, E, F, H and I
3.(a) Methyl Yellow pKin = 3.5.
(b) Cong Red pKin = 4.0

UNIT 11: SOLUBILITY AND SOLUBILITY PRODUCT

OF SPARINGLY SOLUBLE SALTS
11.2. End unit assessment

Expected answers to end unit assessment

1. The answer is NO. This is because they do not have the same
solubility product expressions.
2+ - 2
2. (i) Ksp = [Hg2 ] [CI ]
(ii) Ksp = [Sr2+] 3
[AsO 3-] 2
4

Teachers’ Guide
285
 4+ 3-
3. M3X4 (s) 3 M (aq) + 4 X (aq)
s 3s 4s
3
Where, s is solubility of M3X4 (s) mol/dm
+ 3 3- 4 -24
Ksp = [M4 ] [X ] = 8.2 x 10
3 4 -24
(3s) (4s) = 8.2 x 10
(27s3) (256s4) =8.2x10-24
6912 s7 = 8.2 x 10-24
S = 1.42 x 10-4
4.The common ion effect refers to the shifting of equilibrium system
caused by a common ion in the system from a source other than the
system itself.
Lechatelier ’s principle predicts this effect.
Example; if you were to add some Cl- ions or Ag+ ion to a
saturated solution of
AgCl.
AgCl (s) Ag+ (aq) + Cl- (aq)
Adding a common ion to the system increases the concentration of the
Cl- and silver ions the system will shift to the left to undo this stress.
2+ -
5.Ba(IO3)2 (s) Ba (aq) + 2 IO3 (aq)
s s 2s
Where; s = mol of Ba(IO3)2 that
dissolved.
3
[Ba2+] [IO -] 2
= 1.5 x 10-9
2
(S) (2S) = 1.5 x 10-9
(S) (4S2) = 1.5 x 10-9
4S3 = 1.5 x 10-9 S = 7.2 x 10-4 M
Molar solubility = 7.2 x 10-4 mol/dm3

UNIT 12. ELECTROCHEMICAL CELL AND APPLICATIONS

END UNIT ASSESSMENT
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS
1. What is the function of a voltaic electrochemical cell?
a. To convert electrical energy to light energy
b. To convert electrical energy to chemical energy
c. To convert electrical energy to heat energy
d. To convert chemical energy to electrical energy
2. What is a cathode?
a. The electrode where reduction takes place and electrons are
lost.
b. The electrode where oxidation takes place and electrons are
gained.
c. The electrode where oxidation takes place and electrons are
lost.
d. The electrode where reduction takes place and electrons are
gained.
3. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Oxidation and reduction half-reactions occur at
electrodes in electrochemical cells.
b. All electrochemical reactions involve the transfer of
electrons.
c. Reduction occurs at the cathode.
d. Oxidation occurs at the anode.
e. All voltaic (galvanic) cells involve the use of electricity to
initiate non- spontaneous chemical reactions.
4. For a voltaic (or galvanic) cell using Ag, Ag+ (1.0 M) and
Zn,Zn2+ (1.0 M) half-cells, which of the following
statements is incorrect?
a. The zinc electrode is the anode.
b. Electrons will flow through the external circuit from the
zinc electrode to the silver electrode.
c. Reduction occurs at the zinc electrode as the cell operates.
d. The mass of the zinc electrode will decrease as the cell
operates.
e. The concentration of Ag+ will decrease as the cell operates.
5. Consider the standard voltaic (or galvanic) cell: Fe, Fe2+ versus
Au, Au3+. Which answer identifies the cathode and gives the E o
for the cell?
a. Fe, -0.44 V
b. Au, 1.94 V
c. Fe, 1.06 V
d. Au, 1.06 V
e. Fe, 1.94 V
6. What is the value of E for the half-cell:

MnO4- (0.010 M) + 8H+ (0.20 M) + 5e- → Mn2+ (0.020 M) + 4 H2O?

a. 1.50 V
b. 1.86 V
c. 1.44 V
d. 1.58 V
e. 1.52 V
7. A concentration cell is constructed by placing identical Cu
electrodes in two Cu2+ solutions. If the concentrations of the two
Cu2+ solutions are 1.0 M and 0.0020 M, calculate the potential of
the cell.

a. 0.020 V
b. 1.2 V
c. 0.030 V
d. 1.0 V
e. 0.080 V
8. What is ∆Go per mole of dichromate ions for the reduction of
dichromate ions, Cr2O72-, to Cr3+ by bromide ions, Br-, in acidic
solution? (Hint: Use the standard cell potential.)

a. +26.3 kJ
b. -145 kJ
c. +145 kJ
d. -26.3 kJ
e. -53.6 kJ
OPEN QUESTIONS
 1. Consider figure below and answer the questions which follow.

a. Redraw the diagram to show the direction of electron flow.

b. Is silver plate the anode or cathode?
c. What will happen if salt bridge is removed?
d. When will the cell stop functioning?
e. How will concentration of Zn2+ ions and Ag+ ions be
affected when the cell functions?
f. How will the concentration of Zn2+ ions and Ag+ ions be
affected after the cell becomes ‘dead’?

2. Large blocks of magnesium are bolted onto the hulls of iron

ships in an attempt to prevent the iron being converted into iron
(II), one of the steps in the rusting process.

Use the data below, where appropriate, to answer the questions which
follow.

E0 / V

Mg2+(aq) + 2e– Mg(s) –2.37

Fe2+(aq) + 2e– Fe(s) –0.44
O2(g) + 2H2O(l) + 4e– +0.40
4OH–(aq)

a. Calculate the e.m.f. of the cell represented by Mg(s)|Mg2+

(aq)||Fe2+(aq)|Fe(s) under standard conditions.
b.Write a half-equation for the reaction occurring at the
negative electrode of this cell when a current is drawn.
 c. Deduce how the e.m.f. of the cell Mg(s)|Mg 2+(aq)||Fe2+(aq)|
Fe(s) changes when the concentration of Mg 2+ is decreased.
Explain your answer.
Calculate a value for the e.m.f. of the cell represented by

Pt(s)|OH-(aq)|O2(g)||Fe2+(aq)|Fe(s) and use it to explain why iron

corrodes when in contact with water which contains dissolved oxygen.

3. The table below shows some values for standard electrode

potentials.

Electrode Electrode reaction E 0/ V

A Mn2+(aq) + 2e– Mn(s) – 1.18
B Fe2+(aq) + 2e– Fe(s) – 0.44
C Ni2+(aq) + 2e– Ni(s) – 0.25
D Sn2+(aq) + 2e– Sn(s) – 0.14
E 2H+(g)+ 2e– H2(g) ?

a. i. Give the name of electrode E and indicate its role in the

determination of standard electrode potentials.

ii. What is the value of the standard electrode potential for electrode E?

b. The electrochemical cell set up between electrodes

C and D can be represented by the cell diagram:
Ni(s) Ni2+(aq) Sn2+ (aq) Sn(s)

i.Calculate the e.m.f. of this cell.

ii.State which would be the positive electrode.
iii. Write an equation to show the overall reaction in the cell.

c. Use the standard electrode potential data given in the table above:
i. To explain whether or not you would expect a reaction to
occur if a piece of tin were to be added to a test tube
containing aqueous iron(II) sulphate;
ii. To predict and explain two observations you would
expect to make if a small piece of manganese were to
be added to a test tube containing hydrochloric acid of
concentration 1 mol/dm-3.
4. Calculate the voltage produced by the cell Sn(s)|
 Sn2+||Ag+|Ag(s) at 25oC given: [Sn2+] = 0.15 M
[Ag+] = 1.7 M

5. Hydrogen–oxygen fuel cells are used to provide electrical

energy for electric motors in vehicles.
In a hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell, a current is generated that can be used to
drive an electric motor.

(a) Deduce half-equations for the electrode reactions in a

hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell.
(b) Use these half-equations to explain how an electric
current can be generated.
(c) Explain why a fuel cell does not need to be recharged.
(d) To provide energy for a vehicle, hydrogen can be used
either in a fuel cell or in an internal combustion engine.
(i) Suggest the main advantage of using hydrogen in a fuel
cell rather than in an internal combustion engine.

(ii) Identify one major hazard associated with the use of a

hydrogen– oxygen fuel cell in a vehicle.

6. The galvanic cell represented below consists of a hydrogen

half-cell and a magnesium half-cell at standard conditions. The
reading on the voltmeter is
2.36 V.
a. Apart from concentration, write down two other conditions
 needed for the hydrogen half-cell to function at standard
conditions.
b. Write down the name of the item of apparatus labelled X.
c.Is magnesium the anode or cathode in the cell above? Refer to
the relative strengths of reducing agents to explain the
answer.
d. Write down the cell notation for this cell.
e. Calculate the standard reduction potential of the magnesium
half-cell. Show all your working.
f. Write down the balanced net (overall) cell reaction that takes
place in this cell. No spectator ions are required.

7.Electroplating is one of the uses of electrolysis. The diagram

below shows an electrolytic cell that can be used to plate a
copper spoon with silver.

a. Define the term oxidation in terms of electron transfer.

b. What type of half-reaction takes place at the copper
spoon? Write down only oxidation or reduction.
c.Write down a half-reaction that explains the change that
occurs on the surface of the copper spoon during
electrolysis.
d.Name the metal that is labelled ‘electrode’.
e.Give a reason why the concentration of the AgNO3(aq)
remains constant during electrolysis.
8.

Use the data given below, where appropriate, to answer the

questions which follow.
 Standard electrode potentials in acid solution E 0 /V
Mg2+(aq) + 2e– Mg(s) –2.37
2+
Zn (aq) + 2e– Zn(s) –0.76
4+
Sn (aq) + 2e– Sn2+(aq) +0.15
VO2+ (aq) + 2H+(aq) V2+ (aq) + H2O(l) +0.34
+ e–
(aq) + 2H+(aq) + e– VO2+ (aq) + +1.02
H2O(l)
4+
Ce (aq) + e– Ce3+ (aq) +1.70
+1.70

a. Give the components of the standard reference electrode

used in determining the standard electrode potentials above.
State the conditions under which this standard reference
electrode has a potential of 0.00 V.

b.A diagram of a cell is shown below.

i. Calculate the overall standard potential of this cell.

ii. State the polarity of the zinc electrode.

c.

Another diagram of a cell is shown below.

i.Calculate the overall standard potential of the cell.

ii. Deduce the direction of electron flow in the external circuit

when the inert electrodes are connected together.

d. Using data from the table 12.1, derive an equation for the
overall redox process which occurs when a solution containing
Ce4+(aq) is added to a solution containing V3+(aq).
e. Which, if any, of the four vanadium-containing species, V2+
(aq), V3+(aq), VO2+(aq) and VO2+(aq), will convert Sn2+(aq) into
Sn4+(aq) in acid solution
12.2. End unit assessment (Answers)

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. (d) To convert chemical energy to electrical energy
2. (d) The electrode where reduction takes place and electrons are
gained.
3. (e) All voltaic (galvanic) cells involve the use of electricity to
initiate non-spontaneous chemical reactions.
4. (c) Reduction occurs at the zinc electrode as the cell operates.
5. (b) Au, 1.94 V
6. (c) 1.44 V
7. (e) 0.080 V
8. (b) -145 kJ
9. (e) ~10-72
10. (c) only I
OPEN QUESTIONS
Question 1

a.Hint: Electrons move from Zn to Ag.

b. Ag is the cathode.
c. Cell will stop functioning.
d. When ECell = 0.
e. Concentration of Zn2+ ions will increase and concentration
+
of Ag ions will
decrease
2+ +
(f) When Ecell = 0 equilibrium is reached and concentration of Zn
ions and Ag
ions will not change.

322 Teachers’ Guide

Question 2
a. (a) Cell e.m.f.: 1.93 V
–
(b) Half equation: Mg Mg2+ + 2 e or use
(c) Change in e.m.f.: increases
b. Explanation: Equilibrium displaced to Mg2+ or to the left
c. (d) Cell e.m.f. : –0.84 (V)
Explanation: Fe is giving electrons or forming Fe2+or reaction goes in
the reverse direction
Question 3

(a) (i) Name: (standard) hydrogen (electrode) / hydrogen half cell

Role: reference electrode / electrode to which others are
compared
(ii) 0.00(V) / 0 / zero
(b) (i) emf = –0. 14 –(–0.25) = + 0.11 V
(ii) Electrode D / Sn2+ /Sn /tin / right hand electrode
(iii) Ni + Sn2+ // Ni2+ + Sn
(c) (i) e.m.f = –0.44 – (–0.14) = –0.30 (V) / emf for cell is
– ve+ve e.m.f for feasible reaction / tin is a weaker reducing
agent thus the reaction would not occur
(ii) ◊ Manganese will decrease in size / disappear / eaten
away / dissolves / solution turns (pale) pink
◊ Effervescence / bubbles (of colourless gas) /
fizzing not gas given off
Reaction likely to occur is Mn + 2H+ Mn2+ + H +ve e.m.f. /
2
+1.18 V / Mn is strong ( )
reducing agent / has large – ve E
Question 4

Write the Nernst Equation for 25oC:

E = Eo -0.0592/n x logQ
Calculate Eo for the
cell:
Write the expression for Q:
Q = [Sn2+]/[Ag+]2
(concentrations of solids = 1)
Write the Nernst Equation for this example:
E = Eo -0.0592/n x
log([Sn2+]/[Ag+]2) Substitute the
values:
Eo = +0.66V
n = 2 (2 moles of electrons transferred during the
redox reaction) [Sn2+] = 0.15 M
[Ag+] = 1.7 M
E = +0.66 -0.0592/2 x log([0.15]/[1.7]2)
Teachers’ Guide
323
Question 5
H2 + 2OH- → 22H O + 2e- 2
/ H → 2H+ + 2e-
O2 + 4e- +22H O → 4OH 2
-
/ O + 4H+ +24e- → 2H O
(a) Hydrogen (electrode) produces electrons
Oxygen (electrode) accepts electrons
(b) Hydrogen / the fuel / reactants supplied continuously / fed in
(c) (i) In the fuel cell, a greater proportion of the energy available
from the hydro- gen–oxygen reaction is converted into useful
energy
(ii) Hydrogen is flammable / H+ corrosive / OH– corrosive / hydrogen
explosive
Question 6

a. Pressure: 101.3 kPa (1.013 x 105 Pa) and Temperature: 25 °C (298

K)
b. Salt Bridge
c. Anode, Mg is a stronger reducing agent than H2 and therefore
(Mg) will be oxidised.
d. Mg(s) | Mg2+(1 mol∙dm-3) || H+(1 mol∙dm-3) | H (g) | Pt(s)
2
e. Eθcell = Eθ - Eθ
cathode anode
2.36 = 0.00 – anode(Eθ )
Eθanode= -2,36 V
f. Mg(s) + 2H+(aq) → Mg2+(aq)2
+ H (g)

324 Teachers’ Guide

Question 7

a. The process in which electrons are lost by a substance.

b. Reduction
c. Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s)
d. Silver (Ag)
e. The rate of oxidation (of Ag from the electrode) equals the rate of
reduction of Ag+ from the electrolyte.
Question 8

a. Platinum
electrode
Hydrogen gas
H+(aq) or HCl or H SO
2 4

298 K, 100 kPa or 1 atm or 1 bar

1 M [H+]
b. (i) 1.61 V
(ii) Positive
c. (i)1.36 V
Left to right
(ii) Ce4+ + e– Ce3+
V +2H O
3+
VO2+ + 2H+ + e–
or reversed or V3+ + 2H2 O VO2++ 4H+ + 2e–
d. Ce4+ + V3+ + H O VO2+ + 2H+ + Ce3+
2
or 2Ce4+ + V3+ + 2H O VO2+ + 4H+ +
2Ce
2
3+

e. (e) VO + VO2+
2
 UNIT 13: FACTORS THAT AFFECT THE RATE OF REACTIONS

END UNIT ASSESSMENT

1. For the following multiple choice questions on the rate of

reactions, choose the correct answer.
Study of rate of chemical reactions is called ………………………
a. reaction rate
b. reaction kinetics
c. reaction speed
d. reaction power
2. As the temperature of a reaction is increased, the rate of
the reaction increases because the…………………………..
a. Reactant molecules collide less frequently
b. Reactant molecules collide more frequently and with
greater energy per collision
c. Activation energy is lowered
d. Reactant molecules collide less frequently and with
greater energy per collision
3. Rate of reaction is change in amount of reactants or products in
specific
a. volume
b. density
c. time
d. area
4. Effect of pressure (in case of gases) is similar to effect of
a. concentration
b. molarities
c. temperature
d. humidity
5. Factors which affect rate of chemical reaction are
a. surface area
b. temperature, catalysts
c. concentration
d. All of above
6 The minimum amount of energy needed to start a reaction is called
the
a. activation energy.
b. energy of reaction.
 c. entropy of reaction
d. reaction mechanism energy

1. Of the following, will lower the

activation energy for a reaction.
a. Increasing the concentrations of reactants
b. Raising the temperature of the reaction
c. Adding a catalyst for the reaction
d. Removing products as the reaction proceeds
2.If a piece of beef liver (which acts as manganese (IV) oxide)
is dipped in hydrogen peroxide, gas given off is:
a. Hydrogen
b. Ice
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Oxygen
3. Which of the following would NOT increase the rate of
reaction.
a. Raising the temperature
b. Adding catalyst
c. Increasing the concentration of the reactants
d. Increasing the volume of the container

4. If the temperature of a reaction is increased by 10 oC,

the new rate of reaction will be approximately
a. ten times greater
b. doubled
c. unchanged
d. four times greater

5. Aluminium reacts with warm dilute hydrochloric acid to give

aluminium chloride solution and hydrogen. Explain why the
reaction of dilute hydrochloric acid with aluminium foil is
fairly slow whereas the reaction
6. with the same mass of aluminium powder can be
extremely vigorous.
7.

For the reaction A B, the concentration of a reactant

changes from 0.03 M to 0.02 M in 25 minutes. Calculate the
average rate of reaction using units of time both in minutes
and seconds.

8. The decomposition of dinitrogen pentoxide (N2O5) in

tetrachloromethane (CCl4) at 318K has been studied by
monitoring the concentration of dinitrogen pentoxide in the
solution. Initially, the concentration of dinitrogen pentoxide
is 2.33mol/L and after 184 minutes. It is reduced to
2.08mol/L. The reaction takes place according to the
equation:

Calculate the average rate of this reaction in terms of hours,

minutes and seconds. What is the rate of production of nitrogen
dioxide during this period?

9. Calculate the activation energy for a reaction whose rate

constants are 2.15x10-1dm3mol-1s-1 and 7.25x10-3dm3mol-1s-1
at 991K and 500K respectively. (R = 8.3145 JK-1mol-1).

10. How much faster will the reaction be at 781K than 550K
 if the activation energy of the reaction is 190 kJ/mol? (R =
8.3145 JK-1mol-1)

13.2. End unit 13 assessment

answers
1. B) reaction kinetics
2. B) reactant molecules collide more frequently and with greater
energy per colli- sion
3. C) time
4.A) concentration
5.D) All above
6.A) activation energy
7. D) adding a catalyst for the reaction
8.D) Oxygen
9.D) increasing the volume of the container
10. B) doubled

11. Aluminium powder reacts vigorously because of the particle size

(surface area). If aluminium is converted into powder the surface
area increases, therefore, increas-
ing the surface area of the metal by converting it powder, its reaction
rate increases.

12. Refer to the student’s book.

13 Rate = - 21 Δ[N2O=
Δt 5 - 2 [
] 1 (2.08-2.33) molL
184min -1
]
−4 −1 −1
Rate = 6.79x10 molL min
−4 −1 −1
Rate = (6.79x10 molL min )/(60min/1h)=4.07x10-2molL-1/h

342 Teachers’ Guide

 −4 −1 −1
Rate = (6.79x10 molL min )/(1min/60s)=1.13x10-5molL-1s-1
3145JK-1mol-1).
1 Δ[N2] −4 −1 −1
Rate = =6.79x10 molL min x4=2.72x10-3molL-3min-1 or
1.63x10-1molL-1s-1
41
Δt
The rate of production of nitrogen dioxide is:
or
14. Calculate the activation energy for a reaction whose rate
constants are 2.15x10- 1dm3mol-1s-1 and 7.25x10-3dm3mol-1s-1 at
991K and 500K respectively. (R=8.
Answer:

15. Log k2
= +
Ea
[ 1
-
1
]
k1 2.303R T1 T2

k1
k 190x103 1 1
[
2.303x8.3145 550 781 ]
Log
2
= + -

k2
= 2x105
k1
It means that, if the temperature increases, the rate constant also
increases.
UNIT 14: RATE LAWS AND MEASUREMENTS

END UNIT ASSESSMENT

1. Collision theory states that particles must collide with each
other in correct orientation and sufficient energy to
a. attract
b.repel
c. react
d.respond
2. According to Collision theory, particles must
a. Collide every where
b. Collide with correct orientation
c. Must be kept under immense pressures
d.Shall not be below their melting points
3. Some particles collide but bounce back afterwards it is called
a. successful collision
b.unsuccessful collision
c. successful reaction
d.unsuccessful reaction
4. The rate law for a reaction is k [A][B]2
Which one of the following statements is false?
a. The reaction is first order in A.
b. The reaction is second order in B.
c. The reaction is second order overall.
d.k is the reaction rate constant
5. A reaction was found to be zero order in A. Increasing the
concentration of A by a factor of 3 will cause the reaction rate to
a. remain constant
b. increase by a factor of 27
c. increase by a factor of 9
d.triple
6. The rate law of the overall reaction is k[A][B]0. Which of the
following will not increase the rate of the reaction?
a. increasing the concentration of reactant A
b.increasing the concentration of reactant B
c. increasing the temperature of the reaction
d.adding a catalyst for the reaction
7. When a lit match is touched to the wick of a candle, the candle
begins to burn.
When the match is removed, the candle continues to burn. The match
a. behaves as a catalyst
b.Supplies the activation energy
c. Is part of the rate determining step
 d.Lowers the activation energy barrier
8. Which step of a reaction is the rate-determining step?
a. the fastest step
b.the last step of the reaction mechanism
c. the first step
d.the slowest step
9. Consider the following
mechanism: Step 1: Cl. + O3
→ ClO. + O2
Step 2: O. + ClO→ Cl + O2
The reaction intermediate is
a. Cl
b.O2
c. O3
d.ClO.
10. The table below shows the rates of reaction between
substance A and B at different concentrations

Experiment [A] /mol dm-3 [B] /mol dm-3 Rate (mol dm-3s-
1
number )
1 0.50 0.50 2.0x10-2
2 1.00 0.50 8.0x10-2
3 1.00 1.00 1.6x10-1

a. Determine the order with respect to A and B.

b. Write the rate expression or rate law.
c. Calculate the rate constant indicating clearly its units
11. a. A reaction between two reactants, P and Q, gave the
rate-concentration graphs shown below:

a. The rate equation for a reaction between R and S is Rate =

K[R]2[S]
i.Determine the order with respect to R and S.
ii.Sketch the rate-concentration graphs for reactants R and S.
12. Consider the following reaction: A
+ B P + R
 Experiment [A] /mol dm-3 [B] /mol dm-3 Rate (mol dm-3s-1)
number
1 2.0 x 10-3 3.0 x 10-3 3.0x10-3
2 2.0 x10-3 6.0 x10-3 1.2x10-2
3 4.0 x10-3 6.0 x10-3 2.4x10-2
4 5.0 x10-3 5 x10-3 Z
i.Determine the rate equation and the rate constant.
ii.Find the value of Z.
13. In the reaction: P + Q + R → Product (s), deduce the
order of reaction with respect to P, Q and R if:
a. The rate does not change when [R] is doubled.
b. The rate increases by 9 when [Q] is tripled
c. The rate doubles when [P] is doubled
14. In the reaction: A + B → C, Rate = [A][B]2.
State how the rate will change if:
a. The concentration of A is halved.also halved
b. The concentration of A is tripled and that of B is doubled.
15. In the reaction: 2NO + Br2 →2NOBr, when the concentration of
NO is reduced from 4x10-2M to 2x10-2M the rate falls by a factor
of 4. What is the order of reaction with respect to NO? Give a
reason to your answer.
16. In the reaction: 2NO2→ 2N2 + O2 , when the
concentration of NO2 decreases from 5x10-3M to 2x10-3M, the
rate of decomposition falls by a factor of 2.5. What is the order
of reaction? Give a reason to your answer.
17. The reaction between 2-bromo–2-methylpropane (CH 3)3C–Br
and aqueous hydroxide ions OH– takes place by the following
outline mechanism:
Step 1 (CH3)3C–Br (CH3)3C+ + Br–
(slow) Step 2 (CH3)3C+ + OH–
(CH3)3C–OH (fast)
a. What is the order of reaction with respect to (CH3)3C–Br?
b. What is the total order of reaction?
c. Write the rate equation for this reaction.
18. a. Paracetamol has a biological half-life of 380 seconds. How
long will it take for the level of paracetamol in the body to fall
to one-sixteenth of its original value?
b. 50% of a first order reaction is complete in in 23 minutes. Calculate
the time required to complete 90% of the reaction
 14.2. Solutions of end unit assessment

1. Competently use Arrhenius equation to calculate the ratio of rate

constant and activation energy with change in temperature , selecting
the appropriate mathematical operations.
2. Correctly measure the rate of reaction and formulate simple rate
equations using experimental results , independently evaluating data
and evidence to reach valid conclusions.
3. Collision theory states that particles must collide with each other in
correct orientation and sufficient energy to
B.React
1. According to Collision theory, particles must
B. collide with correct orientation
2.Some particles collide but bounce back afterwards it is called
B. unsuccessful collision
3.4. The rate law for a reaction is k[A][B]2
C. The reaction is second order overall.
4.A reaction was found to be zero order in A. Increasing the
concentration of A by a factor of 3 will cause the reaction rate to

366 Teachers’ Guide

A.Remain constant
5.The rate law of the overall reaction is k[A][B]0. Which of the
following will not increase the rate of the reaction?
B.Increasing the concentration of reactant B
6.When a lit match is touched to the wick of a candle, the candle
begins to burn. when the match is removed, the candle continues to
burn, the match,
B. Supplies the activation energy
7.Which step of a reaction is the rate-determining step?
D. The slowest step
8. Consider the following mechanism:
Step 1: Cl. +
O → ClO. + O Step 2:
O. + ClO. → Cl + O The
reaction intermediate
is
D. ClO.
9.Let us consider the equation as
follows aA + bB → Products
The rate law of the reaction =
k[A]n [B]m Rate a = k
Rate b = k
In order to find the order of reaction with respect to A, let us compare
run 1 and run 2 where [B] is constant

Simplifying

= (0.50)n
 =2

Teachers’ Guide
367
The order of reaction with respect to A is 2

In order to find the order of reaction with respect to B, let us compare run
2 and run 3 where [B] is constant
The equation becomes

Where 1
The order of reaction with respect to B is 1
(b) Rate law = k[A]2 [B]1
(c) Rate constant and its units.
i.The rate constant can be found by considering any one run
(experiment), say run 1. 2.0x10-2 = k (0.50)2 ( 0.50)1
2.0x10-2 = k (0.50)3

k= = =0.16

ii.Units of k = =

11. Graphs shown :

i. The order with respect to P is zeroThe order with respect Q is 2

ii. The rate equation for the reaction = k[ P]0[ [Q]2
368 Teachers’ Guide
 b) The rate equation for a reaction between R and S is Rate = K[R]2[S]
(i)The order with respect to R is 2 and the order of reaction with
respect to S is 1. ii)

12. In order to determine the rate equation and the rate constant we
have to find the order of reaction with respect to each reactant (in the
exercise it is A and B)
The order of reaction with
respect to B The order of
reaction with respect to B A+ y
B → Products
Let us consider the rate law of the reaction =
k[A]n [B]m Rate a = k
Rate b = k
In order to find the order of reaction with respect to A, let us
compare experiment 2 and experiment 3 where [A] is constant

Simplifying

=
 Teachers’ Guide
369
 =
log
=
= log(

=
m=2
The order of reaction with respect to B is 2

In order to find the order of reaction with respect to A,

let us compare run 2 and run 3 where [B] is constant: =

The equation becomes =

Where 1

The order of reaction

with respect to B is 1 Rate law = k
[A] [B]2
Rate constant and its units.
The rate constant can be found by considering any one run (experiment), say
run 1.
3.0 x 10-3 = k (2.0 x 10-3)1 (3.0 x 10-3)2
3.0x10-3 = k x 18 x 10-9

k= = =0.167 x or k =1.67

x Units of k = =
To find the value of Z, let us consider the experiment 4. Using the rate law,
Rate = k [A]
[B]2

370 Teachers’ Guide

 Z = 1.67 x 105(5.0 x 10-3)1(5.0 x 10-3)2
Z =1.67 x 5.0 x 25 x 10-9 x 10-5
Z= 208.75 x 10-4
Z= 2.09 x 10- 2

13. In the reaction: P + Q + R Product (s), deduce the order of

reaction with respect to P, Q and R if:
a.The rate does not change when [R] is doubled. The order of reaction
with respect to R Zero
b.The rate increases by 9 when [Q] is tripled. The order of reaction with
respect to Q is 2.
c.The rate doubles when [P] is doubled. The order of reaction with respect
to P is one
14.In the reaction: A + B C, Rate = k [A][B]2.
a.when the concentration of A is halved. The rate of reaction is also halved
b.when the concentration of A is tripled and that of B is doubled. The
order of reaction becomes 12 times
15. In the reaction: 2NO + Br2 2NOBr, when the concentration of
NO is reduced from 4x10 M to 2x10-2M the rate falls by a factor of 4.
-2

What is the order of reaction with respect to NO? Give a reason to your
answer.
Answer:
NO is of second order 2, because when the its concentration is halved its
rate becomes one fourth of the first one.
Proof:
V = k [NO]x (1)
V = k [NO]x,

= k [ ]x (2)

Dividing equation (1) by equation

(2), we have, =
=
2 = 2x
2

x =2
16. In the reaction: 2NO2 2N2 + O2 , when the concentration of NO2
decreases from 5x10 M to 2x10-3M, the rate of decomposition falls by a
-3

factor of 2.5. What is the order of reaction? Give a reason to your

answer.

Teachers’ Guide
371
 V =
k [NO ]x (1) V = k (5x10-3)x
V = k [NO ]x,
= k [NO ]x (2) = k (2 x 10-3)x
Dividing equation (1) by equation (2), we have,

=
2.51 = 2.5x
x =1
The order of reaction is 1
17. The order of reaction with respect to (CH
) C–Br is 1 The total order of reaction 1

Write the rate

equation for this reaction, Rate = k [(CH3)3C–Br]
Rate-concentration graph for the hydrolysis of
(CH3)3C–Br.

18. a) Paracetamol has a biological half-life of 380 seconds. How long

will it take for the level of paracetamol in the body to fall to one-
sixteenth of its original value?
b)50% of a first order reaction is complete in 23 minutes. Calculate the
time required to complete 90% of the reaction.

372 Teachers’ Guide

 -2.303258 =- 0.03013 t
t=
t= 74.421675 = 74.4 min =74.4 x 60 =4585.30 s

UNIT 15: RADIOACTIVITY

 END UNIT ASSESSMENT
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS. Choose the letter
corresponding to the appropriate answer

1. Elements which emit natural radioactivity are known as:

a. radio elements
b. active elements
c. radioactive elements
d. nuclear elements
2. Spontaneous emission of radiation by unstable nuclei is called
a. positive radioactivity
 b. artificial radioactivity
c. natural radioactivity
d. nuclear elements
3. The half-life of technetium-99 is 6 hours. How much of a
100 milligram sample of technetium-99 will remain after 30
hours?
a. ? 12.5 mg
b. ? 3.125 mg
c. ? 6.25 mg
d. ? 1.56 mg
4. What change occurs in the nucleus of an atom when it
undergoes beta emission?
a. The outer shell of electrons is filled.
b. The number of neutrons decreases by one.
c. A high speed electron is produced.
d. A proton is produced.
e. There is a release of energy.
5. Which one of the following does not occur in nuclear reaction?
a.Nuclear radiation is released.
b.There is a change in mass.
 c. It involves a rearrangement of electrons.
d.New elements are made
6 When beta decay occurs in a radioactive isotope, the atomic
number (Z) always
a. Increases by one
b. Stays the same
c.Increases by two
d. Decreases by one
7. Which of the following statements is not correct concerning
alpha-particles?
a. They are composed of helium nuclei
b. They are emitted from unstable nuclei
c. They have a positive charge
d. They can penetrate thick sheets of lead
8.Which one of the following is true when a nucleus undergoes
radioactive decay?
a. A new element is always formed
b. Alpha-particles are always emitted
c. Beta-particles are always emitted
d. The unstable nucleus loses energy
9. Why would the occupants of a house fitted with smoke
detectors containing americium–241 not be at risk from alpha
radiation emitted by these devices?
a. ? It has very low penetrating power through the air.
b. Alpha radiation has very low ionizing power.
c. The occupants wear protective clothing at all times
d. Alpha radiation is not harmful
10. Which of these metals is used as a shield against radioactive
emissions?
 a. Uranium
b. Lead
c. Radium
d. Gold

11. Which one of the following reactions is not correct?

12.Polonium-210 decays by emitting an alpha particle. What are

the values of x, y and Z in the equation? Refer to .
a. x = 206, y = 82, Z = Pb
b. x = 82, y = 206, Z = Pb
c. x = 83, y = 206, Z = Bi
d. x = 82, y = 204, Z = Pb
13.Radium-226 may decay by the emission of an alpha-particle.
Which one of the following sets of products would result in
such decay? (Radium has an atomic number of 88).

14. Which of the following would not be the use of

radioisotopes?
a. Dating of silverware found in an archaeological site
b. Putting a date on the remains of a dinosaur
c. Irradiation of tropical fruits before consuming them
d. Tracing leaks from underground pipes
15. How much of a radioisotope will have decayed after two
half-lives?
 a. 12.5%
b. 50%
c. 75%
II. Matching: Choose the letter of the correct word for each
of the questions below. Each letter will be used only once
a. Decay series
b. Half-life
c. Helium
d. Longer
e. Nuclear fission
f. Nuclear fusion
g. Radioactive
h. Radioactive decay
i. Radioactivity
j. Transmutation
1. An element that gives off nuclear radiation is known to be ….
2. When an element changes to another, more stable element,
there is …
3. The amount of time for half the atoms in a radioactive
sample to decay is referred to as …
4. The more stable a nucleus is, the its half-life.
5. The process in which the nucleus of an unstable atom
releases radiation in order to become stable is known as …
6. The changing of an atom into another, more stable atom during
decay is …
7. The splitting of an atom into 2 smaller nuclei (nuclear power
plant) is known as …
8. An alpha particle is actually a nucleus of .
9. The name given to the several steps required to get a
radioactive element to a stable element is the …
10.The joining of 2 atoms to form a single, larger nucleus is known
as …
III.Short and long answer open questions
1. Define radioactivity.
2. Describe an alpha particle. What nucleus is it equivalent to?
3. Plutonium has an atomic number of 94. Write the nuclear
equation for the alpha particle emission of plutonium-244.
What is the daughter isotope?
4. Francium has an atomic number of 87. Write the nuclear
equation for the alpha particle emission of francium-212.
What is the daughter isotope?
5. Write balanced equations for the following nuclear reactions:
a. Nuclide carbon-14 undergoes beta decay
b. Uranium-238 decays by alpha particle emission
c. Carbon-11 decays by position emission
d. Cobalt-60 decays by gamma radiation
e. Gold-195 decays by electron capture
6. a) Give values for a, b, c and d in the following nuclear
equations:
i) ii)

b) undergoes radioactive decay as shown below:

Calculate the mass number and atomic number of element Y.

7. If radium-226 undergoes a series of decays that produce five

α and four β particles, what is the final product?
8. Strontium-90 is a beta particle emitter and has a half-life of
28.1 yrs.
a. Write the decay equation for strontium-90.
b.Calculate the decay constant
9. A sample of a particular radioactive isotope is separated and
monitored over a period of 15 hours. If it is found that 12.0
grams of the isotope remain after 4.2 hours and that 10.8
grams remain after 11.3 hours, what is the half- life of the
isotope?
10.What is the age BP of a bone fragment that shows an
average of 2.9 dpm/ gC in 2005? The carbon in living
organisms undergoes an average of 15.3 dpm/gC, and the
half-life of 14C is 5730 years. (BP = Before Present, with the
year 1950 used as the reference; dpm/gC = disintegrations
per min. per gram Carbon)
11.

How much energy is released (in kJ) in the following fusion

reactions to yield 1 mol of 4He or 3He?
a. 2H + 3H → 4He + 1n
b.2H + 2H → 3He + 1n
(The atomic masses are: 1H = 1.00782 u; 2H = 2.01410 u; 3H =
3.01605 u; 3He = 3.01603 u; 4He = 4.00260 u and 1n =
1.008665 u)
12.It has been estimated that 3.9 x 1023 kJ/s is radiated into
space by the sun. What is the rate of the sun’s mass loss in
kg/s?
13.How much energy (in kJ) is produced in the fission reaction of
1.0 mol of uranium-235 according to the following equation?
235U + 1n → 142Ba + 91Kr + 31n
 (The atomic masses are: 235U = 235.0439 u; 142Ba = 141.9164
u, 91Kr = 90.9234 u; 1n = 1.00867 u
14.a. State four uses of radioactive isotopes
a. The half-life of cobalt-60 is 5.2 years. What fraction of
cobalt-60 would remain after 26 years?
b. The half-life of carbon-14 is 5600 years. Analysis of a
fossil from a historical site showed that 6.25% of carbon-14
was present compared to living material. Calculate the age
in years of the fossil.
15.The half-life of uranium-238 is 4.5 billion years. What will be
the 238U/206Pb atomic ratio in a rock that is 5.0 billion years
old? (Assume that isotope lead- 206 was n-ot present
initially)
Answers to End unit 15 assessment questions
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS. Choose the letter
corresponding to the appropriate answer
1. C
2. C
3. C
4. B
5. C
6. A
7. D

8. D
9. A
10. B

Teachers’ Guide
415
 12. B
13. C
14. B
15. D
II. Matching: Choose the letter of the correct word for
each of the questions below. Each letter will be used only
once.
1) G
2) J
3) B
4) D
5) I (or H)
6) H (and J)
7) E
8) C
9) A
10) F
III. Short and long answer open questions
1. Radioactivity is the spontaneous emission of particles and
electromagnetic radiation from nuclei of unstable atoms.

2. An alpha particle is a
collection of two protons and two neutrons and is equivalent to a
helium nucleus.
. Daughter isotope:
240
U

3.

. Daughter isotope:
208
At
4.
 5.
a) 14
C  14
N+ 0
e
6 7 1

b) 238
U92  4
He + 234
Th
2 90

c) 11
C  11
B+
6 5

d) 60
Co*  60
Co + 0
ϒ
27 27 0

e) 195
Au + 0
e  195
Pt
79 1 78

6. a) Give values for a, b, c and d in the following nuclear equations:

i) a = 35, b = 16 ii) c = 4, d=2
b) Mass number = 230, Atomic
number = 90 7.Lead-206.
8.

a) 90
Sr  90
Y +
38 39

b) 0.0247 year-1 or 7.82 x 10–10/s

9. N0 (m0) = 12.0 g , N (m) = 10.8 g and t = 11.3 – 4.2 = 7.1

hours

0.10536 = 7.1λ

= = = 46.71hours
10. 14,000 yrs BP

11. a) 1.70 x 109 kJ/mole b) 3.15 x 108 kJ/mol

12. E = 3.9 x 1023 kJ/s = 3.9 x 1026 J/s

E = m C2
m= = = 4.33 X 109 kg/s
13. Energy from nuclear fission = 1.68 x 1010 kJ/mol
14. a) Refer to student’s book S6

Teachers’ Guide
417
b)1/32 (0.03125)
c)22400 years
t = 5.0b years
1.

= = 0.154 year-1

= = 0.463
This is the fraction of U-238 remaining.
The fraction of Pb-206 formed = 1-0.463 = 0.537

238
U/ 206Pb =
The ratio
238 206
Therefore, the rock contains 862 U atoms for every 1000 Pb atoms
formed.