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City Test - 01 Answer Key

The document contains the answer key for the NEET City Test-01 conducted on February 18, 2024, listing answers for 200 questions. Each question is associated with a specific answer, ranging from options 1 to 4. Additionally, hints and solutions for some questions are provided, detailing the reasoning and calculations involved.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
93 views9 pages

City Test - 01 Answer Key

The document contains the answer key for the NEET City Test-01 conducted on February 18, 2024, listing answers for 200 questions. Each question is associated with a specific answer, ranging from options 1 to 4. Additionally, hints and solutions for some questions are provided, detailing the reasoning and calculations involved.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

(EARLY 12th NEET)

[NEET PATTERN] CITY TEST– 01


Phase-01 & 02
DATE : 18/02/2024

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 3 1 1 3 1 2 1 2 2 1 1 3 1 1 3 3 2 4 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 1 1 1 1 1 3 4 3 2 1 1 1 4 4 4 3 3 4 3
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 4 1 2 1 3 1 1 1 4 4 1 4 3 3 4 3 1 1 3
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 2 3 2 4 4 2 4 2 2 2 3 3 1 4 2 4 1 3 4 3
Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 3 2 1 1 2 1 4 2 2 4 3 4 3 2 2 4 3 2 4 1
Que. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 4 2 2 3 4 2 2 1 4 4 4 3 2 4 2 2 2 2 4 4
Que. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. 1 2 4 4 2 3 4 1 4 1 4 2 4 2 3 2 2 4 3 2
Que. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans. 4 2 3 1 2 1 1 4 3 4 4 2 3 2 2 4 3 2 2 1
Que. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans. 2 3 3 3 3 3 1 1 3 2 4 3 4 2 1 4 4 4 1 4
Que. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans. 3 2 3 4 4 2 1 4 2 2 3 3 4 3 1 1 4 3 4 4

[1]
Hints & Solutions
1. (1) 10. (2)
Total Charge is +1 +2 –3 + 4 – 5 = –1 in the same C
=
unit L
AT
2. (3) =
L
Remember electricity mean charge. Use the = [L–1 AT]
formula Q = ne
Q 1 coulomb
n = = = 6.25  1018 electrons. 11. (1)
e 1.6  10−19 coulomb q1q 2
F= …(i)
40 r 2
3. (1)
q1q 2 F
Using Coulomb’s law F' = =
40 kr 2
( )( )
−19 k
Q1Q2 9  10  1.6  10
9
−1.6  10−19
F= = = −9  10−25 N
40 r 2 (
1.6  10 −2 2
) 12. (1)
Negative sign indicated that the force is attractive
in nature. 13. (3)
+4q –q +4q
A B
4. (1) C
x=0 x=a x = 2a
4q r1 q r2 q
1 (+4q)(−q) 1 (+4q)(+4q)
3m FA = +
3
40 a 2
40 (2a)2
42  2  6
r1 = (3) =   = = 2m 1 4q 2 1 4q 2
4q + q  2 +1 3 =− + =0
40 a 2 40 a 2
r2 = 1m
Similarly, FB and FC will be zero. As net force on
each charge is zero, therefore all the charges are in
5. (3)
equilibrium. If we were to displace –q to the right,
(in figure), net force of attraction will be to the
6. (1)
right which will displace it further. Therefore,
kq1q 2
9= − (i) equilibrium is unstable.
d2
kq q 9
F = 1 2 2 = = 1N 14. (1)
9d 9 Upwards force on the deutron due to electric field
qE is equal to weight mg of deutron qE = mg
7. (2) mg 3.2 10−27 kg  9.8 m / s2
q1q 2 E = = −19
= 19.6 10−8 N/C
F= q 1.6 10 coulomb
40  2
q1q 2 c2 15. (1)
0 = =
F4r 2 Nm2 Ein = 0
kq
E out =
8. (1) r2

9. (2) 16. (3)


kee 2 µc x 12-x 8 µc
F=− rˆ
r2 12 cm
2
ke r K2 K(8)
F=− =
r2 r x 2
(12 − x)2
ke2 (12 – x) = 2x
F=− r x = 4 cm
r3

[2]
17. (3) 26. (1)
4Q
S1 = …(i)
18. (2) 0
Dipole moment p = 2aq where, total separation 2a
12Q
= 5 × 10–3 m and q = 4 × 10–6 C S 3 = …(ii)
0
 Dipole moment
p = 5  10−3 m  4  10−6 C = 20  10−9 Cm S1 1
=
S3 3
19. (4)
electric field on the axial line 27. (3)
2p q
Ea = = = 0−1
40 r 3 0
9 109  2  20  10−6  5  10−3
=
( 20 10 )
−2 3 28. (4)
 = PE sin 
= 2.25 × 10 N/C 5
−1  sin   1

20. (3) 29. (3)


m  = 4m m d = 2m  = E  A = 50
q  = 2e qd = e
F2 = 2eE F1 = eE 30. (2)
4ma1 = 2eE 2ma 2 = eE
31. (1)
eE eE
a1 = a2 =  2k
2m 2m E= =
20 r r
21. (4) 18  1010
= = 10
E=
k2p k2(rq)
= 2  9 109
d3 d3
rq 32. (1)
E= 3 P
d

22. (1)
Flux = EScos
60
= (25 N / C)(0.15  0.10)m2 ( cos60)
P
= 0.1875 N m 2 / C  60 
Pnet = 2 cos  
 2
23. (1)
3
 2 = 2P
Use, E = = 2
20 r 40 r
= 3(lq)
9  109  2
Or, 9  10 (N / C) =
4
0.02 33. (1)
  = 10 coulomb per metre
–7

24. (1)

25. (1) qen


=
 = E  A = ER 2 0

[3]
0 W.D. by conservative force in closed loop = 0
= =0
0
43. (1)
 Net change of dipole = 0
F = qE
 =
EA  EB  EC

34. (4) FA  FB  FC
charge is always associated with mass
44. (2)
35. (4)  depends only on Qin & 0

36. (4) 45. (1)


E E

E E
2
E
 Enet =
2
kq
E net = 2
2r
q
E net =
80 r 2
37. (3)
1 emu = 10 C
46. (3)
1
1C = emu = 10−1 emu
10 47. (1)

38. (3) 48. (1)


C = PE
39. (4)
qen q E = 2ıˆ
= = p = q(ıˆ + ˆj + k)
ˆ
0 0
ˆi ĵ kˆ
40. (3) = q q q
2k    2 0 0
Earc = sin  
R 2
= −ˆj(−2q) + k(
ˆ −2q)

= = 2qjˆ − 2qkˆ
20 a
 = 2 ( 2q )
41. (1)
E 49. (1)
m1g • • v
u=o
y
qE
a= For the three charges to be in equilibrium, net
m
2qEy force on each charge must be zero.
v2 = 2as = Now, total force on Q at B is
m
1 Qq 1 QQ
1 1 2qEy
K.E. = mv2 = m = qEy  2 +  =0
2 2 m 40 x 40 (2x) 2
42. (4)

[4]
1 Oq 1 Q2 = –240 kJ mol–1
Or  2 =−  2
40 x 40 4x
0
Or q = − 65. (4)
4
• Given reaction is exothermic therefore low
50. (4) temperature favours the reaction
q • High pressure shifts the reaction towards the
=  =  [Link] 
0   side having lesser gaseous moles.
This is the net flux coming out from cube.
Since, a cube has 6 sides so electric flux 66. (2)
 q Common ion effect is observed in case of
through any face is  ' = =
6 60 CH3COOH and HCl as CH3COOH is a weak
electrolyte.
51. (4)
67. (4)
52. (1) A 2 X3 → 2A3+ + 3X 2−
(i) s 0 0
53. (4) eq 2s 3s
Ksp = [A3+]2 [X2–]3 = (2s)2(3s)3 = 108 s5
54. (3)
68. (2)
55. (3) For salt of weak acid and weak base
pKa pK b
pH = 7 + −
56. (4) 2 2

57. (3) 69. (2)


moles of solute nB
Molality = =
58. (1) wt of solvent (kg) w A (kg)
wB = 3 g, wA = 30 g
59. (1) 3
Molality (m) = 180  1000
60. (3) 30
1
= 1000 = 0.56 m.
61. (2) 1800

62. (3) 70. (2)


h
=
63. (2) mV
For isothermal process 6.6  10−34
=
q = P(Vf – Vi) = 1 (11 – 1) = 10 L-atm 20  10−6  500
 = 6.6 × 10–32 m
64. (4)
1
C(s) + 2H2 ( g) + O2 ( g) → CH3OH( ) 71. (3)
2 No. of protons = No. of electrons = 64
(
H of ( CH3OH ) =  H oc ) −  ( H )
R
o
c
P
No. of neutrons = 156 – 64 = 92
= (–400) + 2(–280) – (–720)
72. (3)
[5]
+6 2– + – 3+
Cr2O7 + 14H + 6e 2Cr + 7 H2O
91. (3)
M A(s) 2 B( g) + C(g)
So, equivalent weight =
6
2
as electrons exchanged is 6. At equilibrium; pB = P
3
1
73. (1) pC = P

3
(a) KNO3 → 1 + x + 3(−2) → x = +5 Kp = (pB)2 (pC)
 2
(b) HNO 2 → 1 + x + 2(−2) → x = +3 2 1 4
=   P 2   P = P3
+
3  3 27
(c) NH4Cl → NH4 → x + 4 = +1 → x = −3
1 92. (4)
(d) NaN3 → N3− → 3x = −1 → x = −
3 The concentration term which contains volume
term is temperature dependent because volume
74. (4) varies as temperature varies.

75. (2) 93. (3)


Total number of nodes in an orbital = n – 1
76. (4) Number of angular nodes = l
Number of radial nodes = n – l – 1
77. (1) In 4d orbital, l = 2
Number of angular nodes = 2
78. (3) Number of radial nodes = 4 – 2 – 1 = 1

79. (4) 94 (2)


Mole of solute
Molality =  1000
80. (3) Mass of solvent
Mole of solute
Mass of solvent =  1000
81. (3) Molality
0.5  1000
= = 1000 g
82. (2) 0.5

83. (1) 95. (2)


Cr2+ = [Ar]3d4, Unpaired e (n) = 4
84. (1) Spin magnetic moment = 4(4 + 2)
= 24 BM
85. (2)
V = [Ar]3d2, Unpaired e (n) = 2
3+

86. (1) Spin magnetic moment = 2(2 + 2)


= 8 BM
87. (4) Fe3+ = [Ar]3d5, Unpaired e (n) = 5
Spin magnetic moment = 5(5 + 2)
88. (2)
= 35 BM
89. (2) Cu2+ = [Ar]3d9, Unpaired e (n) = 1
Spin magnetic moment = 1(1 + 2)
90. (4)
[6]
= 3 BM 113. (2)
[NCERT Page No. 59 to 65]
96. (4)
114. (4)
97. (3) NCERT Page No. 122, 123, 124

98. (2) 115. (2)


[Page No. 66 and 67]
99. (4)

100. (1) 116. (2)


[Page 94, 95]
101. (4)
NCERT Page No. 77 117. (2)
NCERT Page No.
102. (2)
NCERT Page No. 71, 72 118. (2)

103. (2) 119. (4)


NCERT Page No. 76 NCERT Page No. 150

104. (3) 120. (4)


NCERT Page No. 72 NCERT Page No. 147

105. (4) 121. (1)


NCERT Page No. 76 NCERT Page No. 149

106. (2) 122. (2)


NCERT Page No. 126 NCERT Page No. 147

107. (2) 123. (4)


NCERT Page No. 142
108. (1)
NCERT Page 62 and Pg 64 124. (4)
NCERT Page No. 159
109. (4)
NCERT (Pg 65, 63, 62) 125. (2)
NCERT Page No. 107
110. (4)
[Page No. 61, 64, 65] 126. (3)
NCERT Page No. 162
111. (4)
[NCERT Page No. 4] 127. (4)
NCERT Page No. 160
112. (3)
[NCERT Page No. 26, 27, 28, 29, 30] 128. (1)
NCERT Page No.

[7]
146. (1)
129. (4) Page No. 142
NCERT Page No.
147. (1)
130. (1)
NCERT Page No. 148. (4)
[Page No. 156, 154]
131. (4)
NCERT Page No. 6 149. (3)
NCERT Page No. 11
132. (2) 150. (4)
NCERT Page No. 8 NCERT Page No. 13

133. (4) 151. (4)


[NCERT Page no. 45]
134. (2) 152. (2)
NCERT Page No. 126 [NCERT Page no. 41, 43, 44, 51]

135. (3) 153. (3)


[NCERT Page no. 40, 43, 45,]
[NCERT Pg. No. 13, 15, 16]
154. (2)
136. (2) [NCERT Page no. 81]
NCERT Page No.
155. (2)
[NCERT Page no. 83]
137. (2)
NCERT Page No. 173 156. (4)
[NCERT Page no. 83]

138. (4) 157. (3)


[NCERT Page no. 82]
139. (3)
158. (2)
NCERT Page No. 175, 176, 177 [NCERT Page no. 82]

140. (2) 159. (2)


[NCERT Page no. 111]
Page No. 5
160. (1)
141. (4) [NCERT Page no. 112]
Page No. 155 and 157
161. (2)
[NCERT Page no. 183]
142. (2)
Page No. 144 162. (3)
[NCERT Page no. 187]

143. (3) 163. (3)


[NCERT Page no. 190]
144. (1)
164. (3)
[NCERT Page no. 190]
145. (2)
165. (3)
[8]
[NCERT Page no. 195] [NCERT Page no. 48]
166. (3) 188. (4)
NCERT Page no. 195] [NCERT Page no. 41]
167. (1)
[NCERT Page no. 199] 189. (2)
[NCERT Page no. 109]
168. (1)
[NCERT Page no. 201] 190. (2)
[NCERT Page no. 112]
169. (3)
[NCERT Page no. 203] 191. (3)
170. (2) [NCERT Page no. 118]

171. (4) 192. (3)


[NCERT Page no. 209] [NCERT Page no. 187]

172. (3) 193. (4)


[NCERT Page no. 47]
173. (4)
[NCERT Page no. 303] 194. (3)
[NCERT Page no. 207]
174. (2)
[NCERT Page no. 308] 195. (1)
[NCERT Page no. 209]
175. (1)
[NCERT Page no. 303] 196. (1)
[NCERT Page no. 303]
176. (4)
197. (4)
177. (4) [NCERT Page no. 304]
[NCERT Page no. 317]
198. (3)
178. (4) [NCERT Page no. 316]
[NCERT Page no. 321]
199. (4)
179. (1) [NCERT Page no. 331]
[NCERT Page no. 321]
200. (4)
180. (4) [NCERT Page no. 338]
[NCERT Page no. 335]

181. (3)
[NCERT Page no. 335 & 336]

182. (2)
[NCERT Page no. 336]

183. (3)
[NCERT Page no. 43]

184. (4)
[NCERT Page no. 43]

185. (4)

186. (2)
[NCERT Page no. 50]

187. (1)

[9]

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