11-04-2025

2701CMD303271240001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Magnetic field due to 0.2 A current flowing through a circular coil of radius 0.1m and 2000 turns
at the centre of the coil:

(1) 0.26 × 10–4 T

(2) 1.25 × 10–3 T
(3) 12.5 × 10–3 T
(4) 2.5 × 10–3 T

2) The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle having kinetic energy E is . How much extra energy
must be given to this particle so that the de-Broglie wavelength reduces to 75% of the initial value :

(1) 16/9 E
(2) E
(3) 7/9 E
(4) 1/9 E

3) A lens of power +2.0 D is placed in contact with another of power –1.0 D. The combination will
behave like:

(1) A converging lens of focal length 100 cm.

(2) A diverging lens of focal length 100 cm.
(3) A converging lens of Focal length 50 cm.
(4) A diverging lens of focal length 50 cm

4) If the nucleus has a neuclear radius of about 3.6 fm. The would have its radius
approximately as:

(1) 4.8 fm
(2) 6 fm
(3) 9.6 fm
(4) 12 fm

5) A single slit of width 'a' gives a diffraction pattern with a central maximum. The intensity falls to
zero at angles of:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None of the above

6) In the experiment to determine speed of sound by resonance tube the difference between first two
resonance position is:

(1) Equal to wavelength of sound

(2) Three fourth of the wavelength of sound
(3) Half the wavelength of sound
(4) One-fourth of the wavelength of sound

7) A plano convex lens is made of refractive index of 1.6. The radius of curvature of the curved
surface is 60 cm. The focal length of the lens is:

(1) 50 cm
(2) 100 cm
(3) 200 cm
(4) 400 cm

8) The threshold wavelength for lithium is 5250 Å . For photo emission to take place, the wavelength
of the incident light must be:

(1) More than 5250 Å

(2) Exactly equal to 5250 Å
(3) Equal to or more than 5250 Å
(4) Equal to or less than 5250 Å

9) The equation of progressive wave is where x, y are in metres and t in

seconds, then.
(a) Velocity of wave is 100 m/s
(b) Maximum velocity of particle in the wave is 10 m/s
(c) Wavelength of wave is

(1) Only a and c are true

(2) Only b and c are true
(3) Only a and b are true
(4) a, b, c are true

10) Magnetic field lines produced by a bar magnet, cuts each other :–

(1) At neutral points

(2) Near the poles of the magnets
(3) At equatorial axis
(4) Never intersects to each other

11) Light with an average flux of 10 w/cm2 falls on a nonreflecting surface at normal incidence
having surface area 40 cm2. The energy recieved by the surface during time span of 2 minute

(1) 24 kJ
(2) 240 J
(3) 12 kJ
(4) 48 kJ

12)

(1) MLT–3
(2) MLT–2
(3) MLT
(4) ML–1T–2

13) Assertion: Three balls of mass m1, m2 and m3 are thrown vertically upward with the same speed.
They will pass through their point of projection in the downward direction with the different speed.
Reason: Downward velocity attained at the point of projection are dependent on the mass of the ball.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion and reason both are false

14) The ratio of weight of a man in a lift accelerating upward and in a lift accelerating downward
with a uniform accleration is 9 : 6 The acceleration of the lift in:

(1) 3g/5
(2) 4g/5
(3) g/5
(4) g/2

15) A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is
at 2 cm from the mean position. The magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its accelertion. Its
period in seconds is:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A billiard balls strike a rigid will with speed 20 m/s as shown in figure. Find the ratio of magitude
of impulse imparted to ball by the first wall to the second wall collision is elastic.

(1) 4/3
(2) 3/4
(3) 5/3
(4) 3/5

17) Two point charges of magnitude +q and –q are placed at (–d/2, 0,0) and (d/2, 0,0), respectively.
The equation of the equipotential surface where the potential is zero is:

(1) x = 0
(2) x = d/2
(3) y = 0
(4) z = 0

18) A particle of mass 4kg describes a circle of radius 3 metre. The momentum of particle is 36 kg
ms–1.Find the centripetal acceleration of the particle.

(1) 27 m/s2
(2) 78 m/s2
(3) 81 m/s2
(4) 36 m/s2

19) According to Gauss law of electrostatics, electric flux through a closed surface depends on:

(1) The area of the surface

(2) The quantity of charges enclosed by the surface
(3) The shape of the surface
(4) The volume enclosed by the surface

20)

(1) 4
(2) 0
(3) 6
(4) 12

21) Assertion: Young's modulus of elasticity of a material decreases with the increase of
temperature.
Reason: Interatomic potential energy decreases with the increase in temperature.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
Assertion and reason both are false
(4)

22) Melting of solid at atmospheric pressure is the process of:

(1) Isochoric change

(2) Isobaric change
(3) Isobaric & isochoric change
(4) Adiabatic change

23) If mass energy equivalence is taken into account, when water is cooled to form ice, the mass of
water should:

(1) Increases
(2) Remain unchanged
(3) Decrease
(4) First increase then decrease

24) The following configuation of gate is equivalent to:

(1) NAND
(2) NOR
(3) OR
(4) None of these.
25) In the circuit, shown in fig. 'K' is open. The charge on capacitor C in steady state is q1. Now key
is closed and at steady state, the charge on C is q2. The ratio of charge q1/q2

(1) 3/2
(2) 2/3
(3) 1
(4) 1/2

26)

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 0

27) Two racing cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively. Their
speeds are such that each makes a complete circle in the same duration of time t. The ratio of the
angular speed of the first to the second car is

(1) m1 : m2
(2) r1 : r2
(3) 1 : 1
(4) m1r1 : m2r2

28) A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a string A. Another string C is connected to its lower end (see

figure). If a sudden jerk is given to C, then

(1) The portion AB of the string will break

(2) The portion BC of the string will break
(3) None of the strings will break
(4) The mass will start rotating

29) A man getting down a running bus falls forward because

(1) Due to inertia of rest, road is left behind and man reaches forward
Due to inertia of motion upper part of body continues to be in motion in forward direction while
(2)
feet come to rest as soon as they touch the road
(3) He leans forward as a matter of habit
(4) Of the combined effect of all the three factors stated in (1), (2) and (3)

30) A force of 98 N is required to just start moving a body of mass 100 kg over ice. The coefficient of
static friction is

(1) 0.6
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.2
(4) 0.1

31) The rotational kinetic enrgy of a body is Krot and its moment of inertia is I. The angular
momentum of body is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A satellite of the earth is revolving in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. If the gravitational
force suddenly disappears, the satellite will:

(1) Continue to move with velocity v along the original orbit

(2) Move with a velocity v, tangentially to the original orbit
(3) Fall down with increasing velocity
(4) Ultimately come to rest somewhere on the original orbit

33) For a constant hydraulic stress on an object, the fractional changes in the object’s volume

and its bulk modulus (B) are related as :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A piece of ice is floating on water in a container. What will happen to the surface of water when
whole ice piece melts

(1) Will go up
(2) Will not change
(3) Will go down
(4) None of these

35) When there is no external force, the shape of a liquid drop is determined by

(1) Surface tension of the liquid

(2) Density of liquid
(3) Viscosity of liquid
(4) Temperature of air only

36) On the Celsius scale the absolute zero of temperature is at

(1) 0 °C
(2) -32°C
(3) 100°C
(4) -273.15°C

37) Volume, pressure and temperature of an ideal gas are V, P and T respectively. If mass of its
molecule is m, then its density is [k = boltzmann's constant)

(1) mkT
(2) P/kT
(3) P/kTV
(4) Pm/kT

38) A thermo-dynamical system is changed from state (P1, V1) to (P2, V2) by two different process.
The quantity which will remain same will be

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

39) The heat is flowing through two cylindrical rods of same material. The diameters of the rods are
in the ratio 1 : 2 and their lengths are in the ratio 2 : 1. If the temperature difference between their
ends is the same, the ratio of rate of flow of heat through them will be

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 8

40) The speed of sound in air is 332 m/s. The speed of sound in air in units of km per hour will be

(1) 1.1952 km/h

(2) 11.952 km/h
(3) 119.52 km/h
(4) 1195.2 km/h

41) When the current i is flowing through a conductor, the drift velocity is v. If 2i current is flowed
through the same metal but having double the area of crosssection, then the drift velocity will be

(1) v/4
(2) v/2
(3) v
(4) 4v

42) If a long hollow copper pipe carries a direct current, the magnetic field associated with the
current will be

(1) Only inside the pipe

(2) Only outside the pipe
(3) Neither inside nor outside the pipe
(4) Both inside and outside the pipe

43) An infinitely long straight conductor is bent into the shape as shown in the figure. It carries a
current of i ampere and the radius of the circular loop is R metre. Then the magnetic induction at its

centre will be
(1)

(2)

(3) Zero
(4) Infinite

44) The electron of a hydrogen atom revolves round the proton in a circular nth orbit of radius

with a speed The current due to the circulating charge is

proportional to

(1) e2
(2) e3
(3) e5
(4) e6

45) Which of the following is false for interference of light

(1) Coherence of the sources is an essential condition for interference

(2) The minima of the interference pattern need not be of zero intensity
(3) Interference simply redistributes light energy, without destroying it
(4) The minima of the interference pattern must always be of zero intensity

CHEMISTRY

1) Match the reactions given in column I with the catalyst required given in column II.

(1) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii

(2) a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–ii
(3) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv
(4) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i

2) Statement-I:– Benzylamine is more basic than aniline

Statement-II:– In Benzylamine, the lone pair of nitrogen is in resonance with benzene nucleus.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

3) Kjeldahl’s method of estimation of nitrogen cannot be used to estimate nitrogen in which of the
following compounds?

(1) Aniline
(2) Pyridine
(3) Acetamide
(4) Acetonitrile

4) Statement-I:– The resonance structures are hypothetical and individually do not represent any
real molecule.
Statement-II:– The energy of actual structure of the molecule is more than that of any of the
canonical structures.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

5) Consider the given balanced redox reaction :

Coefficients x, y and z respectively are

(1) 2, 1 and 2
(2) 1, 1 and 2
(3) 1, 2 and 2
(4) 2, 2 and 1

6)

(1) Lone pair of phosphorous is optically inert

(2) Lone pair of phosphorous resides in almost pure p-orbital
(3) Lone pair of phosphorous resides at sp3 orbital
(4) Lone pair of phosphorous resides in almost pure s-orbital

7) Consider the following statements

I. In haloarenes, the electron pairs on halogen atom are in conjugation with π-electrons of the
benzene ring.
II. The presence of an electron withdrawing group at ortho and para positions decreases the
reactivity of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution reaction
III. In haloarenes, the chlorobenzene does not react via SN1 mechanism
Choose the correct statments.

(1) I and III only

(2) II and III only
(3) I, II and III
(4) I and II only

8) Consider the following statements

(a) Benzaldehyde when heated with concentrated NaOH gives benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate
as major products
(b) Reaction of t-butyl bromide with sodium methoxide produces isobutene
(c) Trimethylacetaldehyde does not undergo aldol reaction
The correct statements are

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a) and (c) only

9) An organic compound A with molecular formula C8H14O gives positive 2, 4-DNP and iodoform
tests. It does not reduce Tollen’s reagent or Fehling’s reagent. On reacting with sodium hypohalite
solution followed by hydrolysis it gives carboxylic acid with molecular formula C7H12O2. What is the
structure of organic compound A

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

10) Assertion (A):– Graphite conducts electricity along the sheet

Reason (R):– In graphite, the electrons are delocalised over the whole sheet.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

11) Consider the following reaction sequence

Major product B is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12)

(1) a–iv, b–iii, c–i, d–ii

(2) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i
(3) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv
(4) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i

13)

(1) 0, 1, 2
(2) 1, 2, 1
(3) 2, 1, 1
(4) 1, 1, 1
14)
Product B is given reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Consider the following species

Hyperconjugation occurs in

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only
(3) II, III and IV only
(4) II and IV only

16) Consider the following redox reaction

If 2 mol of Cl2 react with an alkali (OH–) then the total number of moles of 3 ClO-3 ions produced is

(1) 1 mol
(2) 1.5 mol
(3) 0.667 mol
(4) 0.33 mol

17) The possible set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of Gallium atom (Z = 31) is

(1) 4, 2, 0, +1/2
(2) 5, 1, 0, +1/2
(3) 4, 1, 1, -1/2
(4) 3, 1, 1, +1/2

18) Statement-I:– Solubility of a gas increases with increase in pressure of gas above liquid
Statement-II:– Solubility of a gas increases with increase in temperature

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

19) The weight of urea required to be dissolved in 360 g water to reduce the vapour pressure to 9/10
of pure water is

(1) 133.33 g
(2) 266.7 g
(3) 180 g
(4) 150 g

20) Boron has two stable isotopes 10B(19%) and 11B(81%). The average atomic mass of Boron is

(1) 10.8 u
(2) 10.2 u
(3) 10.5 u
(4) 10. 4 u

21) Consider the reaction

If Kp of the reaction is 256 then the total pressure at equilibrium will be

(1) 30 atm
(2) 32 atm
(3) 16 atm
(4) 15 atm

22) Which of the following pair constitutes a buffer solution ?

(1) CH3COOH + CH3COONa

(2) HCl + NaCl
(3) H2SO4 + Na2SO4
(4) Ba(OH)2 + BaCl2

23) Statement (I):– Aniline reacts with bromine water at room temperature to give a white
precipitate of 2,4, 6-tribromoaniline.
Statement (II):– Activating effect of –NHCOCH3 group is less than –NH2 group when attached with
benzene.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is c

24)

(1) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i

(2) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
(3) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
(4) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii

25) If 0.4 molal aqeous solution of weak monobasic acid HA undergoes 60% dissociation. The boiling
point of the solution will be (Kb of water = 0.52 K kg mol–1)

(1) 100.33°C
(2) 100.21°C
(3) 100.48°C
(4) 100.22°C
26) The solubility of AgCl in 0.04 M AgNO3 solution at 250C is [KSP(AgCl) = 1.6 × 10–10]

(1) 2 × 10–7 M
(2) 4 × 10–8 M
(3) 4 × 10–9 M
(4) 1.6 × 10–9 M

27) If radius of third Bohr orbit of Li2+ ion is 158.7 pm then the radius of first Bohr orbit of He+ ion
will be

(1) 26.4 pm
(2) 105.8 pm
(3) 52.9 pm
(4) 82.5 pm

28)

(1) a–i, b–iv, c–iii, d–ii

(2) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii
(3) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i
(4) a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–ii

29) Statement–I:– In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the
basis of their reactivity with conc. HCl + ZnCl2, known as Lucas reagent.
Statement–II:– Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room
temperature on reaction with Lucas reagent.

(1) Both statement–I and statement–II are incorrect

(2) Statement–I is correct but statement–II is incorrect
(3) Statement–I is incorrect but statement–II is correct
(4) Both statement–I and statement–II are correct

30) The values of H and S for the reaction,

are 100 kJ and 200 JK–1. This reaction is spontaneous at

(1) 110 K
(2) 560 K
(3) 345 K
(4) 450 K

31) Consider the following reaction sequence

Major product B and C are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Which among the following is a bicyclic compound?

(1) Guanine
(2) Thymine
(3) Cytosine
(4) Uracil

33)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
34) If 0.02 M aqeous solution of sodium sulphate undergoes 90% dissociation at 27°C then the
osmotic pressure of the solution will be

(1) 4.25 atm

(2) 2.75 atm
(3) 1.38 atm
(4) 3.12 atm

35)
B and C in the above sequence are

(1) Benzoic acid + aniline

(2) Phthalic acid + ethylamine
(3) Phthalic acid + aniline
(4) Benzoic acid + ethylamine

36) Which of the following methods is most suitable for separation of a mixture of o-nitrophenol and
p-nitrophenol ?

(1) Differential extraction

(2) Simple distillation
(3) Steam distillation
(4) Adsorption chromatography

37) The wave number for the longest wavelength transition in the Paschen series of atomic hydrogen
is (RH = Rydberg constant of H atom)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) When Cl2 gas reacts with cold and dilute sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation number of
chlorine changes from

(1) Zero to –1 and zero to +1

(2) Zero to +1 and zero to +5
(3) Zero to –1 and zero to –5
(4) Zero to +1 and zero to +3
39) Consider the following reactions

The number of moles of MgO formed when oxygen produced by 0.5 mole of KClO3 is completely
reacted with Mg is

(1) 0.5 mole

(2) 1 mole
(3) 1.5 mole
(4) 2 mole

40) Which of the following is an outer orbital complex and exhibits paramagnetic behaviour?

3+
(1) [Co(NH3)6]
3–
(2) [IrF6]
3–
(3) [FeF6]
3+
(4) [Co(H2O)6]

41) Which of the following alkanes cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction ?

(1) n-Pentate
(2) 3,4-Dimethyl hexane
(3) n-Hexane
(4) 2, 3-Dimethylbutane

42) Correct order of acidic strength of the given compound is

(1) (iii) > (i) > (ii)

(2) (ii) > (iii) > (i)
(3) (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(4) (ii) > (i) > (iii)

43) Phenol on reaction with bromine water majorly gives

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) If equal volume of HCl with pH = 3 and pH =4 are mixed together, then pH of the resultant
solution will be [log (5.5) = 0.74]

(1) 6.52
(2) 2.26
(3) 3.26
(4) 1.63

45) The reduction potential of hydrogen electrode in contact with a solution with pH = 7 is
(1) – 0.4137 V
(2) 0.4137 V
(3) – 0.0591 V
(4) 0.0591 V

BIOLOGY

1)

(1) a–ii, b–iii, c–i, d–iv

(2) a–i, b–iv, c–iii, d–ii
(3) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
(4) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i

2) Read the following statements and select the correct ones w.r.t. DNA structure.
A. Two nucleotides are linked through 3’-5’ phosphodiester linkage.
B. Pyrimidine nucleosides have N-glycosidic linkage.
C. Base pairing confers stability of DNA helix.
D. Purines are heterocyclic, 6 membered single ring structures.

(1) C and D
(2) Only B
(3) All except D
(4) Only C

3) Which of the following have ds DNA?

(1) Bacteriophage
(2) Eukaryotes
(3) Tobacco Mosaic virus (TMV)
(4) Both (1) and (2)

4) Assertion (A):– The mechanism of DNA replication is semiconservative in nature

Reason (R):– Each DNA molecule would have one parental and one newly synthesis strand.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) If Assertion is true and Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
5) Chemical composition of chromatin is/are
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Non-histone proteins
d. Histone proteins
e. Lipid

(1) a and c only

(2) b and d only
(3) d, c and e only
(4) a, b, c and d only

6) Ribosomes present in prokaryotic cells has a larger subunit of

(1) 60 S
(2) 50 S
(3) 40 S
(4) 30 S

7) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. given diagram

(1) It is shown by all cells, tissues and organs of a plant

(2) Both division and differentiation occur simultaneously
(3) It occurs at constant rate
(4) Gives linear curve when growth plotted against time

8) What are the key elements that lead to so much variations in the physical and chemical conditions
of different habitats?

(1) Temperature and water

(2) Light and soil
(3) Only temperature
(4) Temperature, water, light and soil
9) Which of the following groups of plants play an important role in plant succession on bare
rocks/soil ?

(1) Algae
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) Gymnosperms

10) Select the incorrect match

(1) Apomixis - Mimic sexual reproduction

(2) Apomictic embryo - Nucellar embryo
(3) False fruits - Unfertilized ovary
(4) Perispermic seed - Blackpepper

11) What is incorrect for Morgan’s dihybrid cross considering body colour and eye colour in fruit fly?

(1) Parental line had yellow body and white eyed female
(2) All F1 male progeny were wild type
(3) Parental type F2 progeny were 98.7%
(4) Male progeny with recombinant traits were 0.65% in F2 generation

12) The given pedigree chart represents the inheritance of all of the given genetic disorders, except

(1) PKU
(2) Sickle cell anemia
(3) Myotonic dystrophy
(4) Cystic fibrosis

13) Tissue culture technique applied for the recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants is

(1) Somatic hybridisation

(2) Embryo culture
(3) Androgenic culture
(4) Meristem culture

14) A bioactive molecule used as an immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant patients is _______
obtained from _______.

(1) Clot buster, Streptococcus

(2) TPA, Streptobacillus
(3) Cyclosporin A, Trichoderma polysporum
(4) Statins, Monascus purpureus

15) The best material for study of structure of cell membrane is

(1) RBC of human

(2) RBC of frog
(3) Cheek cell of human
(4) Liver cell of rat

16) Which of the given taxonomic categories is assemblage of families which exhibit a few similar
characters inspite of many differences?

(1) Kingdom
(2) Species
(3) Order
(4) Class

17) Which of the given fungi causes rust disease in wheat?

(1) Agaricus
(2) Puccinia
(3) Ustilago
(4) Alternaria

18) Cellulose is present in the cell wall of

a. Euglena
b. Volvox
c. Plasmodium
d. Cycas
e. Neurospora

(1) b and d
(2) a, c and e
(3) b, c and e
(4) All except a

19) Select the odd one w.r.t. green algae

(1) Volvox
(2) Chlamydomonas
(3) Chara
(4) Porphyra

20) Conjoint open vascular bundle generally found in

(1) Dicot root

(2) Dicot stem
(3) Monocot root
(4) Monocot stem

21) Which of the given plastids store fats and oils?

(1) Elaioplast
(2) Amyloplast
(3) Aleuroplast
(4) Chromoplast

22) First action spectrum of photosynthesis was described by

(1) Joseph Priestley

(2) P. Mitchell
(3) T. W. Engelmann
(4) C. V. Niel

23) Which of the given is a start codon w.r.t. genetic code?

(1) AUG
(2) UAA
(3) UAG
(4) UGA

24) In photosynthetic pathway of Sorghum plant, C4-acids are decarboxylated in ________ to start
_______ enzyme activity.

(1) Mesophyll; PEPcase

(2) Bundle sheath cell; RuBisCO
(3) Mesophyll; RuBisCO
(4) Bundle sheath cell, PEPcase

25) In sewage treatment plants, the soil and small pebbles are removed by

(1) Sequential filtration in primary settling tank

(2) Sedimentation during primary treatment
(3) Sedimentation in aeration tank
(4) The action of aerobic microbes in aeration tank

26) Read the following statements w.r.t. decomposition.

a. It is controlled by chemical composition of detritus only.
b. It is an oxygen requiring process.
c. It is regulated by temperature and soil moisture.
d. It is faster if detritus is rich in nitrogen and water soluble substances.
e. Anaerobic conditions promote decomposition.
Select the option for correct ones.

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, c, d and e
(3) b, c and d only
(4) a, d and e only

27) Assertion (A):– In mutualism both the interacting species are benefitted and neither can survive
under natural conditions without other.
Reason (R):– Both populations are benefitted by the association but their relationship are not
obligatory.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) If Assertion is true and Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

28) Which of the following stages lasts for months or years in the oocytes of some vertebrates?

(1) Pachytene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Telophase I

29) Which of the following chromosome complements is correct for Klinefelter’s Syndrome?

(1) 47, XXXX

(2) 45, XO
(3) 47, XXY
(4) 46, XYY

30) All of the following are true w.r.t. numerical taxonomy, except

(1) Based on few observable characters

(2) Uses computation of data
(3) Each character is given equal importance
(4) Numbers and codes are assigned to all the character

31) Microbes are useful to human being in diverse ways. Which of the following products are formed
by fermentive activity of yeast?

(1) Bread, curd, cheese

(2) Toddy, cheese, curd
(3) Biogas, biofertilizer, cheese
(4) Bread, ethanol, wine

32) Read the following statements and find the option for correct ones w.r.t. plasma membrane.
a. Lipid component of the membrane mainly consist of phosphoglycerides
b. Lipids constitute 52% in membrane of human RBC
c. Peripheral proteins lie on the surface of membrane
d. Quasi-fluid nature of membrane allows lateral movement of proteins within overall bilayer

(1) a, b, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, c, d

33) Zygotes do not undergo reduction division immediately and they produce a multicellular body in

(1) Marchantia and Funaria

(2) Chlamydomonas and Sargassum
(3) Gracilaria and Volvox
(4) Ulothrix and Spirogyra

34) Which one is mismatched?

(1) Edible ascocarp Morels

(2) Used for experimental genetics Neurospora
(3) Formation of basidiocarp Puffballs
(4) Formation of non-motile gametes Alternaria

35) Choose correct option w.r.t. adapter molecule.

(1) It is insoluble RNA

(2) It is specific for each amino acid
(3) Amino acid attachment site is at 5’ end
(4) The 3-D structure looks like a clover-leaf

36) Find odd one out w.r.t. ethylene functions.

(1) Rapid internode elongation in deep water rice plants

(2) Initiates flowering and synchronising fruit set in pineapples
(3) Thinning of fruits like cherry, walnut and cotton
(4) Stimulation of root formation on stem cuttings

37) Hilum represents the junction between

(1) Funicle and ovary wall

(2) Ovule and funicle
(3) Chalaza and integument
(4) Funicle and micropyle

38) In mitochondrial ETS, transfer of electrons between enzyme complex I and III occurs by
(1) Ubiquinol
(2) Small intrinsic protein
(3) Peripheral mobile carrier protein
(4) Succinate dehydrogenase

39) About turner’s syndrome all of the following are correct, except

(1) A chromosomal disorder

(2) Results due to fusion of egg (22 + 0) with sperm (22 + X)
(3) Rudimentary ovaries
(4) Normal secondary sexual characters

40) Growth in plants is

(1) Indeterminate and closed type

(2) Determinate and closed type
(3) Limited but both open and closed type
(4) Generally indeterminate and open type

41) During reduction step of Calvin cycle

(1) ATP and NADPH are formed

(2) Carboxylation of RuBP occurs
(3) ATP and NADPH are utilised
(4) CO2 acceptor molecule is produced

42) Select correct statement w.r.t. female gametophyte development in flowering plants.

(1) Megaspore mother cell develops at chalazal end

(2) Six nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and organised into cells
(3) The large central cell has two nuclei situated above egg apparatus
(4) Each Karyokinesis followed by cytokinesis

43) Which of the following taxonomic categories will have similar taxon in the classification of
mango and wheat?

(1) Class
(2) Division
(3) Order
(4) Family

44) Plant hormone that can be used to improve the shape of apples and to increase length of grape
stalks is

(1) Cytokinin
(2) Auxin
(3) Gibberellin
(4) Ethylene

45) Few layers of _______ cells are present next to endodermis in dicot root.
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

(1) Collenchymatous
(2) Thick walled parenchymatous
(3) Sclerenchymatous
(4) Thin walled chlorenchymatous

46) Final digestion in frog takes place in

(1) Stomach
(2) Cloaca
(3) Rectum
(4) Intestine

47) Which of following is the excretory organ of Balanoglossus ?

(1) Proboscis gland

(2) Nephridia
(3) Adamsia
(4) Sea anemone

48) Digestion in Hydra is

(1) Extracellular
(2) Outside the body
(3) Intracellular
(4) Both (1) and (2)

49) A mature female frog can lay upto _____ eggs at a time.

(1) 20-80
(2) 2500-3000
(3) 3000-6000
(4) 150-300

50) Major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling in human brain is

(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Limbic system
(3) Thalamus
(4) Cerebellum
51) Statement A: All the mammals have seven cervical vertebrae.
Statement B: H-zone of striated muscle fibre represents both thick and thin filaments.

(1) Both statements A and B are correct

(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

52) Select the mismatch w.r.t. structure and their type of movement in humans.

(1) Macrophages - Amoeboid movement

(2) Sperms - Flagellar movement
(3) Amoeba - Ciliary movement
(4) Tongue - Muscular movement

53) How many hormones given in the box below are peptide in nature?
CCK, GIP, Gastrin, Secretin, ANF, PTH, T4 Select the correct option.

(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 5

54) Find out the incorrect statement with respect to cardiac muscle tissue

(1) Found in myocardium of heart

(2) Intercalated disc absent
(3) Communication junctions allow the cells to contract as a unit
(4) When one cell receives a signal to contract, its neighbours are also stimulated to contract

55) The process in which rDNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell is called

(1) Microinjection
(2) Biolistics
(3) Gene gun
(4) PCR

56) Opening of semilunar valve is due to

(1) Increase in ventricular pressure

(2) Decrease in ventricular pressure
(3) Increase in atrial pressure
(4) Decrease in atrial pressure
57)

(1) a - iii, b - ii, c -i

(2) a - i, b - ii, c -iii
(3) a - iii, b - i, c - ii
(4) a - ii, b - i, c - iii

58) In muscular movement joint acts as

(1) Lever
(2) Pully
(3) Fulcrum
(4) None of these

59) "Organised network of point to point connections" is the explanation can be given for
(a) Neural system only
(b) Hormonal system
(c) Musculoskeletal system only

(1) a
(2) a and b
(3) b
(4) a, b, c

60) The pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity called .... A .... and is attached to .... B.... by a
stalk.
Identify A & B to complete the given statement.

(1) A-sella tursica ; B-midbrain

(2) A-sella tursica ; B- forebrain
(3) A-sella tursica ; B- hypothalamus
(4) A-sella tursica'; B- pineal
61)

(1) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i)

(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(3) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)

62) Significant role of calcium balance in the body is maintained by

(1) PTH & FSH

(2) TCT & FSH
(3) PTH & TCT
(4) TCT & GH

63) The penis is the male external genitalia. It is made up of special tissue that helps in erection of
penis to facilitate

(1) Semination
(2) Ovulation
(3) Spermiation
(4) Insemination

64) In male sterilisation method, which of the following structure is cut and ligated.

(1) Vas deferens

(2) Spermatic cord
(3) Urethra
(4) More than 1 correct

65) How many years ago did the formation of earth supposedly take place?

(1) 4.5 million

(2) 20 million
(3) 4.5 billion
(4) 20 billion

66) Read the statements (a to d) w.r.t vaccination and immunisation and choose the option with only
incorrect statements,
(a) Vaccines generate memory-B cells and T cells that recognise the pathogen quickly on subsequent
exposure.
(b) In vaccination, small dose of live active pathogen is introduced into the body.
(c) When antibodies are formed by body's own B cells it is called passive immunity.
(d) The immune system plays an important role in allergic reactions.

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

67) Select the mismatched pair w.r.t diseases and one of their diagnostic tests,

(1) Typhoid -Widal test

(2) Cancer - MRI
(3) AIDS- ELISA
(4) None of these

68) Assertion:– The chemical stored in the synaptic vesicles are termed as neurotransmitters.
Reaon:– Synaptic vesicles release these chemicals in the synaptic cleft.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false

69) Which cell of blood resist infection and associated with allergic reactions?

(1) Eosinophils
(2) Neutrophils
(3) Basophil
(4) Lymphocyte

70) Statement A: The cortical part of kidney secretes renin that coverts angiotensinogen in blood to
angiotensin–I.
Statement B: Angiotensin-II is a vasodilator.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

71) Mark the odd one out

(1) Adenosine
(2) Cytosine
(3) Thymine
(4) Guanine
72) Which element is not found in nitrogenous base?

(1) Nitrogen
(2) Hydrogen
(3) Carbon
(4) Phosphorus

73) Single heart circulation occurs in:

(1) Pisces
(2) Amphibia
(3) Reptiles
(4) Mammal

74) The fibers that conduct the impulse to the ventricles are known as the:

(1) SA node
(2) AV bundle
(3) Right bundle branch
(4) Purkinje fibers

75)

(1) i-c, ii-a, iii-e, iv-b, v-d

(2) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c, v-e
(3) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d, v-e
(4) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-e, v-a

76) Louis Pasteur by his yeast based experiment demonstrated that

(1) Life originated from non-living organic molecules

(2) Life comes only from pre-existing life
(3) Life came from inorganic molecule
(4) Spontaneous generation of life takes place

77) According to Hugo de Vries, single step large mutation that caused speciation was called
(1) Genetic drift
(2) Saltation
(3) Gene flow
(4) Branching descent

78) Which part of brain receives and integrate visual and tactile inputs?

(1) Pons
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Forebrain
(4) Midbrain

79) All of the following are present in testicular lobule except

(1) Seminiferous tubules

(2) Sertoli cells
(3) Interstitial cells of Leydig
(4) Cells of the corona radiata

80) The root of tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita which is a

(1) Bacteria
(2) Nematode
(3) Virus
(4) Fungus

81) ssDNA or ssRNA tagged with a radioactive molecule is called

(1) Cloning vector

(2) Selectable marker
(3) Molecular scissors
(4) Probe

82) The layer absent in the embryos of diploblastic animals is

(1) Ectoderm
(2) Endoderm
(3) Mesoderm
(4) Mesogle

83) Total disulphide bond present in proinsulin and mature insulin?

(1) 3, 3
(2) 3, 2
(3) 2, 3
(4) 3, 1
84) In agrobacterium tumefaciens, Tiplasmid carry T–DNA which transform normal plant cell into a

(1) Cancer cell

(2) Tumor cell
(3) Differentiated cell
(4) Blastomere cell

85) Choose correct statement

(1) Muscular pharynx is found in Ascaris

(2) Body divides into head, foot and visceral hump in Pila
(3) Radula is rasping organ present in molluscs
(4) All of these

86) Which of the following is unsegmented structure in cockroaches?

(1) Anal cerci

(2) Leg
(3) Anal style
(4) Antenna

87) The enzyme that hydrolyses phosphodiester bonds within a polynucleotide chain is

(1) Endonuclease
(2) Exonuclease
(3) Carboxypeptidase
(4) Aminopeptidase

88) Assertion:– Steroid hormones easily pass through the plasma - membrane.
Reason:– Steroids are lipid soluble.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false

89) Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing

(1) Transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in human beings
(2) Transgenic models for studying new treatements for certain cardiac disease
(3) Transgenic cow, Rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee
(4) Animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power

90) Muscles of alimentary canal are mainly

(1) striated and voluntary

(2) striated and involuntary
(3) unstriated and involuntary
(4) unstriated and voluntary
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 1 2 3 3 2 4 2 4 4 4 4 3 2 1 1 1 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 3 2 1 4 3 2 2 4 3 2 2 2 1 4 4 4 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 2 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 2 3 4 4 1 3 2 1 3 4 4 4 4 3 3 3 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 3 3 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 1 3 3 2 3 3 3 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 4 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 4 1 4 2 1 4 2 3 2 3 4 3 1 3 2 1 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 1 2 2 3 3 2 3 1 4 4 1 4 2 4 2 1 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 2 3 2 4 1 4 2 3 2 3 4 2 1 1 3 2 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 4 1 3 2 4 2 1 1 1 4 1 4 1 2 2 4 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 1 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

BIOLOGY