Elements of Civil Engineering (ECE)

Daily 25 to 30 MCQs Series

For Principal, Class 2 (GPSC 13/202425)

No. Subject No of MCQs

2 Building Materials 330
[ Requirement, types, uses, properties and importance of Civil Engineering
materials like Stone, Bricks, Lime, Cement, Ferrous and Non-Ferrous Metals,
Ceramic Materials, Timber, Sand, Aggregate, Mortar and Concrete, Paints and
Varnishes, Glass , Plastic. ]
3 Surveying
[ Introduction, Linear measurements, Compass surveying, Elevation
measurements, Areas and volumes, Modern Tools of Surveying and Mapping. ]
4 Building Planning
[ Elements of a Building, Basic Requirements of a Building, layout of residential
& industrial buildings ]
5 Building Construction
[ Classification of buildings ]
[ Common building components: Masonry, Partition and cavity wall, Doors,
windows and ventilators, Arches and lintel, Stairs, Floors and floorings, DPC
and pointing, Scaffolding, shoring & form work, Roofs and roof covering
materials ]
[ Introduction to building byelaws ]
1 Scope of Civil Engineering
[ Introduction, Impact of Infrastructural Development on the Economy of a
Country, Role of Civil Engineers, Importance of Planning, Scheduling and
Construction Management. ]
Total MCQs 1300+

MECHTEST PLUS 2024

Answer key
Page No
1
Answer key
Page No
2
 Subject 2: Building Materials

2.1. The rocks formed due to solidification of molten 2.10. Which of the following is an example of argillaceous
mass laying below or above the earth surface, are rock ?
called (A) Kaolin (B) Slate
(A) aqueous rocks (B) sedimentary rocks (C) Laterite (D) all of these
(C) metamorphic rocks (D) igneous rocks 2.11. Which of the following is an example of silicious
2.2. The sedimentary rocks are formed due to rock?
(A) solidification of molten mass lying below or above (A) Granite (B) Gneiss
the earth surface (C) Quartzite (D) all of these
(B) gradual deposition of materials like sand, clay, etc., 2.12. Marble is an example of
generally by setting water (A) aqueous rock (B) metamorphic rock
(C) alteration of original structure under heat and (C) sedimentary rock (D) igneous rock
excessive pressure 2.13. Lime stone is generally classified as a/an
(D) none of the above (A) igneous rock (B) sedimentary rock
2.3. Stratification can be seen widely in which of the (C) metamorphic rock (D) silty rock
following rocks? 2.14. Which of the following stone possesses minimum
(A) Igneous rocks (B) Metamorphic rocks crushing strength? OR
(C) Sedimentary rocks (D) Fossil rocks Which of the following aggregates give the least
2.4. Granite is an example of coefficient of thermal expansion of concrete?
(A) aqueous rocks (B) sedimentary rocks (A) Slate (B) Sandstone
(C) metamorphic rocks (D) igneous rocks (C) Basalt (D) Limestone
2.5. Which of the following are the examples of Igneous 2.15. Which of the following is a stratified rock?
Rocks? (A) Sedimentary rock (B) Metamorphic rock
i. Pumice ii. Shale iii. Slate (C) Igneous rock (D) all of these
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii) 2.16. Chemically, marble is known as
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) (A) metamorphic rock (B) argillaceous rock
2.6. Igneous rock has (C) calcareous rock (D) siliceous rock
(A) crystalline, glossy or fused texture 2.17. Slate in the form of tiles is used
(B) foliated structure which is hard and durable (A) for paving
(C) layers of different composition, colour and (B) as road metal
structure (C) as an excellent roof covering material
(D) none of the above (D) for the manufacture of cement
2.7. Laterite is chemically classified as 2.18. The rock which is not calcareous, is
(A) calcareous rock (B) argillaceous rock (A) limestone (B) mael
(C) silicious rock (D) metamorphic rock (C) chalk (D) laterite
2.8. Gneiss is chemically classified as 2.19. Granite is mainly composed of
(A) calcareous rock (B) argillaceous rock (A) quartz and mica
(C) silicious rock (D) none of these (B) felspar and mica
2.9. Which of the following is a sedimentary rock? (C) quartz and felspar
(A) Lime stone (B) Gneiss (D) quartz, felspar and mica
(C) Granite (D) Dolerite

Answer key
Page No
1
2.20. Sand stone is 2.31. Most of the stones possess the specific gravity in the
(A) sedimentary rock (B) metaphonic rock range of
(C) igneous rock (D) volcanic rock (A) 2.3 and 2.5 (B) 2 and 2.3
2.21. Sandstone consists of (C) 1.75 and 2 (D) 2.75 and 3.25
(A) quartz and lime (B) quartz and silica 2.32. The Specific gravity of Gravel or sandstone is
(C) quartz, lime and silica (D) silica, lime and alumina (A) 1.5 – 1.8 (B) 2.65 – 2.68
2.22. _______ shows great variation in water yielding (C) 3.1 – 3.5 (D) 4.2 – 4.6
capacity 2.33. In order to dry the quarry sap of a freshly quarried
(A) Sandstone (B) Granite stone, it should be exposed to open air for a period
(C) Basalt (D) Marble of
2.23. Rocks behave as _______ masses towards operating (A) one month (B) four months
stresses. (C) six to twelve months (D) two years
(A) Inelastic (B) Elastic 2.34. Which of the following stones is best suited for an
(C) Isotropic (D) Anisotropic ornamental work?
2.24. The rocks having alumina and clay as their main (A) Marble (B) Chalk
constituent are called (C) Granite (D) Laterite
(A) silicious rock (B) argillaceous rock 2.35. Hardness of the stones can be tested by
(C) sedimentary rock (D) none of these (A) Impact Strength (B) Abrasion strength
2.25. Akshardham temple in Gandhinagar is built (C) Mohs Scale (D) Crushing strength
primarily using 2.36. Quick Lime is a
(A) Granite and marble (A) Carbonate of lime
(B) Sandstone and iron (B) Oxide of calcium
(C) Pink sandstone and marble (C) Product left immediately after the calcination of
(D) Limestone and granite pure limestone
2.26. Which of the following stone is damp-proofing (D) Lime quickly treated with water
(A) Slate (B) Marble 2.37. Percentage of water absorption in a good quality of
(C) Laterite (D) Granite building stone should be
2.27. Which of the following stones is the most suitable (A) 0 – 5% (B) 10 – 15%
for roof covering, floorings, damp proofing and (C) 15 – 20% (D) 20 – 25%
partitions? 2.38. Which of the following is a good fire-resistant stone?
(A) Marble (B) Granite (C) Basalt (D) Slate (A) Marble (B) Limestone
2.28. The compressive strength of granite is (C) Compact sandstone (D) Granite
(A) 50 to 70 MN/m 2
(B) 70 to 130 MN/m 2
2.39. Which of the following stones can be used for ‘Rough
(C) 130 to 170 MN/m 2
(D) 170 to 200 MN/m 2
Stone Work’?
2.29. The crushing strength of a good building stone (A) Granite (B) Marble
should be more than (C) Chalk (D) Laterite
(A) 50 MPa (B) 100 MPa 2.40. Which of the following statements is wrong ?
(C) 150 MPa (D) 200 MPa (A) A stone with large percentage of quartz is very soft.
2.30. The specific gravity of stone should not, in any case, (B) Quartz has a greasy lustre.
be less than (C) Felspar is a silicate of aluminium with varying
(A) 1 (B) 1.5 amounts of potash, soda or lime.
(C) 2 (D) 2.5 (D) all of the above

Answer key
Page No
2
2.41. Smith's test is performed on stones for determining 2.51. For railway ballast, the stone should be
(A) Specific Gravity (A) soft with a uniform texture
(B) Hardness (B) hard, heavy, strong and durable
(C) Water Absorption (C) hard, tough, resistant to abrasion and durable
(D) soluble and clayey matter (D) hard, dense, durable, tough and easily workable
2.42. Which one of the following stone is produced by 2.52. The quarrying of stone by the method of wedging is
moulding a mixture of iron slag and Portland successfully carried out in
cement? (A) sandstones (B) limestones
(A) Imperial stone (B) Garlic stone (C) marbles (D) all of these
(C) Ransom stone (D) Victoria stone 2.53. When quarrying is to be done in hard stone and
2.43. Argillaceous rocks have their main constituent as compact rocks, the usual method of quarrying is
(A) carbonates of lime (B) clay or alumina (A) by wedging
(C) silica or sand (D) all of these (B) by channelling machine
2.44. The colour of granite is (C) by blasting
(A) grey (B) green (C) brown (D) all of these (D) all of the above
2.45. A fine-grained granite 2.54. The preparation of surface of stone to obtain plain
(A) offers higher resistance to weathering edges or to obtain stones of required size and shape
(B) can be easily polished and worked is known as :
(C) is used for exterior facing of buildings (A) Dressing of stones (B) Quarrying of stones
(D) all of the above (C) Blasting of stones (D) Seasoning of stones
2.46. A limestone found in seams of great thickness in 2.55. The attrition test on stones is performed
noncrystalline texture with earthy appearance, is (A) to determine the crushing strength of the stone
called (B) for assessing the resistance of stone to the sun,
(A) granular limestone (B) compact limestone rain, wind etc.
(C) magnesium limestone (D) kankar (C) to ascertain the stability of the stone when exposed
2.47. A limestone containing about 30% of alumina and to acid fumes
silica is called (D) for determining the rate of wear of stone due to
(A) granular limestone (B) compact limestone grinding action under traffic
(C) magnesium limestone (D) kankar 2.56. Match List - I (Name of stone) with List - II (Use of
2.48. The amount of calcium carbonate in lime stone is stone) and select the correct answer using the codes
determined by given below the lists
(A) acid test List - I List - II
(B) ball test A. Granite 1. Ornamental work
(C) heat test B. Marble 2. Ballast
(D) compressive strength test C. Chalk 3. Rough stone work
2.49. The compressive strength of sandstone is D. Laterite 4. Manufacture of cement
(A) 40 MN/m 2
(B) 55 MN/m 2
E. Slate 5. Flooring
(C) 65 MN/m2 (D) 80 MN/m F. Limestone 6. Manufacturing of cement
2.50. The silicious sandstone which has been subjected to (A) A- 3, B- 1, C- 2, D-4, E-5, F-6
metamorphic action, is called (B) A- 2, B- 3, C- 1, D-4, E-6, F-5
(A) moorum (B) laterite (C) A- 2, B- 1, C- 4, D-3, E-5, F-6
(C) quartzite (D) dolomite (D) A- 1, B- 4, C- 2, D-3, E-6, F-5

Answer key
Page No
3
2.57. Syenite is 2.66. As per BIS 1077-1957, the minimum crushing
(A) Plutonic rock (B) Hypabyssal rock strength of bricks should be
(C) Volcanic igneous rock (D) None of these (A) >2.5 mpa (B) > 3.5 mpa
2.58. Bauxite is (C) > 4.5 mpa (D) > 5.5 mpa
(A) Hydrated aluminium oxide having dull luster 2.67. What is the loading rate used to determine the
(B) Hydrated aluminium oxide having shining luster brick’s compressive strength?
(C) Hydrated aluminium oxide having vitreous luster (A) 14 N/mm2 per hour (B) 14 N/mm2 per minute
(D) Barium sulphate having vitreous luster (C) 20 N/mm2 per hour (D) 20 N/mm2 per minute
2.59. Rocks formed due to alteration of original structure 2.68. The compressive strength of second class bricks
due to heat and excessive pressure are called _____. should not be less than
(A) Sedimentary rocks (B) Igneous rocks (A) 7.5 MN/m2 (B) 9 MN/m2
(C) Metamorphic rocks (D) None of these (C) 10.5 MN/m2 (D) 12 MN/m2
2.60. Which one of the following metamorphic rocks has 2.69. The percentage of alumina in a good brick clay
more weathering resistance characteristics? should vary from
(A) Lime stone (B) Phyllite (A) 20 to 30% (B) 30 to 40%
(C) Quartzite (D) Slate (C) 40 to 50% (D) 50 to 60%
2.61. The compressive strength of building stones: 2.70. The percentage of silica in a good brick clay should
(A) ranges between 60 to 200 N/mm2. vary from
(B) ranges between 6 to 20 N/mm2 (A) 20 to 30% (B) 30 to 40%
(C) ranges between 600 to 2000 N/mm . 2
(C) 40 to 50% (D) 50 to 60%
(D) ranges between 50 to 1200 N/mm . 2
2.71. Excess of alumina in the clay
2.62. Arrange the following building materials in the (A) makes the brick brittle and weak
increasing order of density of materials (B) makes the brick crack and warp on drying
Granite, Steel, River sand, Water (C) changes colour of the brick from red to yellow
(A) Water, River sand, Steel, Granite (D) improves impermeability and durability of the brick
(B) River sand, Granite, Water, Steel 2.72. Excess of silica in the clay
(C) Water, River sand, Granite, Steel (A) makes the brick brittle and weak
(D) River sand, Water, Granite, Steel (B) makes the brick crack and wrap on drying
2.63. With respect to dry weight, first class bricks should (C) changes the colour of the brick from red to yellow
not have water absorption more than OR (D) improves impermeability and durability of the brick
The percentage of water absorption allowed as per 2.73. Which of the following constituent, when present in
IS 3495 part 2 1992 after 24 hours of immersion in excess quantity in clay causes the bricks to melt and
cold water for 1st Class bricks is distort during burning ?
(A) 10% (B) 15% (C) 20% (D) 25% (A) Alumina (B) Silica
2.64. A first class brick should have a minimum crushing (C) Lime (D) Alkalies
strength of 2.74. The alkaline salt present in the bricks, absorbs
(A) 7 MN/m 2
(B) 10.5 MN/m 2
moisture from the air which on drying
(C) 12.5 MN/m2 (D) 14 MN/m2 (A) leaves pores and makes the bricks porous
2.65. Crushing strength of the first class brick should not (B) leaves high powder deposit on the brick
be less than ____ (C) makes the bricks brittle and weak
(A) 150 kg/cm2 (B) 105 kg/cm2 (D) all of the above
(C) 70 kg/cm2 (D) 50 kg/cm2

Answer key
Page No
4
2.75. The standard size of a masonary brick without 2.84. The good clay for making bricks is
mortar is OR (A) unweathered clay (B) weathered clay
As per IS : 1077-1992, the standard modular size (L x (C) silted soil (D) black cotton soil
W x H) of common building bricks shall be: 2.85. The process of mixing clay, water and other
(A) 20 × 10 × 10 cm (B) 19 × 9 × 9 cm ingredients to make bricks, is known as
(C) 22 × 10 × 9 cm (D) 21 × 9 × 4 cm (A) tempering (B) pugging (C) kneading (D) moulding
2.76. The size of mould for bricks should be ................. the 2.86. The bricks after moulding should be dried in
specified size of the bricks. (A) open air
(A) equal to (B) smaller than (B) sun for 3 to 8 days
(C) larger than (D) None of above (C) air for 3 to 8 days but not in sun
2.77. The defect in which white patches appear on a brick (D) hot air for 3 days
surface is known as 2.87. The average out-turn of first class bricks in clamp
(A) efflorescence (B) spots burning is about
(C) bloating (D) blisters (A) 50% (B) 60%
2.78. The number of bricks required for a 5 cubic metre (C) 70% (D) 80%
brick wall are 2.88. The average out-turn of first class bricks in kiln
(A) 250 (B) 600 (C) 1500 (D) 2500 burning is
2.79. The term frog means (A) 50 to 60% (B) 60 to 70%
(A) an apparatus to lift the stone (C) 70 to 80% (D) 80 to 90%
(B) a depression on the face of a brick 2.89. The indentation marks left on bricks during the
(C) vertical joint in a brick work process of moulding, are known as OR
(D) soaking brick in water Indentations on the bricks provided to form a key for
2.80. The most important purpose of frog in a brick is to : holding the mortar is called as
(A) Reduction in mass of brick (A) fillets (B) frogs (C) projections (D) marks
(B) Make key joint between mortar & brick 2.90. The frog of a brick is normally made on its
(C) Provide insulation by making brick porous (A) longer face (B) shorter face
(D) None of the above (C) bottom face (D) top face
2.81. Which of the following defect appears due to the 2.91. The burning of bricks in kilns is complete within
presence of alkalies in the bricks? ............ hours.
(A) Bloating (B) Black core (A) 12 (B) 24 (C) 48 (D) 96
(C) Cracks (D) Efflorescence 2.92. The bricks after burning in kilns require about
2.82. Efflorescence is caused if ............. days to cool down for unloading.
(A) the alkaline salt is present in the bricks (A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12
(B) the clay used for making bricks contain pyrite 2.93. Perpend
(C) the water used for pugging the clay contains (A) is the vertical joint separating the bricks in either
gypsum length or cross direction
(D) all of the above (B) is the horizontal distance between the vertical
2.83. Efflorescence of bricks is due to joints in successive courses
(A) Soluble salts present in clay for making bricks (C) is the horizontal layer of mortar upon which the
(B) High porosity of bricks bricks are laid
(C) High silt content in bricks (D) is the edge formed by the intersection of plane
(D) Excessive burning of bricks surface of bricks

Answer key
Page No
5
2.94. The bricks should be burnt at temperature from 2.103. Minimum thickness of wall where Single Flemish
(A) 300ºC to 500ºC (B) 500ºC to 700ºC bond can be used is
(C) 700ºC to 1000ºC (D) 900ºC to 1200ºC (A) half brick thick (B) one brick thick
2.95. The type of brick suitable for panel walls for (C) one and a half brick thick (D) two bricks thick
multistoreyed buildings is 2.104. To construct brick masonry of one cubic meter,
(A) hollow bricks (B) perforated bricks number of bricks required are OR
(C) either (A) or (B) (D) none of these For one cubic metre of brick masonry, the number of
2.96. A type of bond in a brick masonry consisting of bricks required are
alternate course of headers and stretchers, is called (A) 300 (B) 500 (C) 800 (D) 1000
OR 2.105. Match the following lists of Ingredients of bricks and
_______ bond is considered as the strongest Bond in the properties they impart in the bricks:
brick work. Ingredients Properties
(A) English bond (B) Raking bond a. Alumina 1. renders the clay plastic
(C) Garden-wall bond (D) Dutch bond b. Lime 2. lowers the fusing point in
2.97. Which of the following is not a type of bond in brick carbonated form
masonry? c. Silica 3. prevents the shrinking and
(A) Dutch Bond (B) Flemish Bond warping

(C) English Bond (D) Roman Bond d. Ferric Oxide 4. improves the impermeability

2.98. Jhama bricks are (A) a - 1, b - 2, c - 3, d - 4 (B) a - 2, b - 1, c - 3, d - 4

(A) well burnt having smooth and even surface (C) a - 1, b - 2, c - 4, d - 3 (D) a - 2, b - 1, c - 4, d - 3
(B) over burnt with regular shape 2.106. _______ enables the brick to retain its shape. OR
(C) under burnt and can be easily broken The main ingredient of a good quality brick earth, is
(D) slightly over burnt having rough surface (A) Silica (B) Alumina
2.99. The dolomite bricks are (C) Iron (D) Magnesia
(A) ordinary bricks (B) acid refractory bricks 2.107. Excess of silica makes brick
(C) basic refractory bricks (D) neutral refractory bricks (A) brittle on burning (B) to crack on drying
2.100. Reinforced brick work is used for which of the (C) to melt on burning (D) to warp
following purpose? 2.108. The edges formed by the intersection of plane
(A) For carrying light loads surfaces of brick are called
(B) For carrying shear stresses (A) arrises (B) bed joint
(C) For resisting wind loads (C) perpends (D) lap
(D) None of the above 2.109. In brick masonry;
2.101. What is the purpose of providing mortar in masonry (A) mortar strength should match brick strength
construction? (B) mortar strength should exceed brick strength
(A) To increase the structural strength (C) brick strength should exceed mortar strength
(B) To provide water resistance (D) the strengths of masonry and brick are independent
(C) To improve aesthetic appearance 2.110. Consider the following stages in the manufacturing
(D) To bond masonry units together of bricks:
2.102. A brick portion obtained by cutting a brick 1. Weathering 2. Moulding 3. Tempering
lengthwise into two pieces is called The correct sequence of these stages in the
(A) King closer (B) Queen closer manufacrturing of the bricks, is:
(C) Bat closer (D) Corner closer (A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 2, 3, 1 (C) 1, 3, 2 (D) 3, 2, 1

Answer key
Page No
6
2.111. Lime is used 2.120. The commonly used lime for works under water or in
(A) as a matrix for concrete damp situations is
(B) for plastering walls, ceilings etc. (A) fat lime
(C) for improving soil for agricultural purposes (B) lean lime
(D) all of the above (C) feebly hydraulic lime
2.112. The chemical formula for lime is (D) eminently hydraulic lime
(A) CaCO3 (B) CaO (C) CaO2 (D) Ca2O3 2.121. Which of the following statement is correct ?
2.113. The lime which consists almost entirely of calcium (A) The fat lime swells two to three times of its original
oxide, is called volume during slaking.
(A) poor lime (B) rich lime (B) The poor lime is of pure white colour.
(C) hydraulic lime (D) limestone (C) The feebly hydraulic lime slakes sluggishly.
2.114. The lime which contains mainly calcium oxide and (D) all of the above
slacks with water is 2.122. The fuel generally used for burning limestone is
(A) fat lime (B) quick lime (A) coal
(C) hydraulic lime (D) poor lime (B) charcoal
2.115. The lime which contains more than 30% of clayey (C) firewood
impurities in the form of silica, alumina and iron (D) any one of these
oxide, is known as 2.123. During the process of burning limestone, clay forms
(A) poor lime (B) rich lime certain compound which
(C) hydraulic line (D) limestone (A) gives hydraulic lime
2.116. Eminently hydraulic lime is one in which the (B) gives power of quick setting
percentage of silica, alumina and iron oxide is (C) does not allow to be dissolved in the outside water
(A) 5 to 10% when used in damp situations
(B) 10 to 25% (D) all of the above
(C) 25 to 30% 2.124. The process of adding the required quantity of
(D) 30 to 40% water to quick lime in order to convert it into
2.117. The hydraulic lime which resembles very much with hydrated lime, is known as
Portland cement in its chemical composition is called (A) calcination (B) hydration
(A) feebly hydraulic lime (C) slaking (D) quenching
(B) moderately hydraulic lime 2.125. The process in which freshly fired bricks are dippe in
(C) eminently hydraulic lime water to prevent lime blowing is known as
(D) none of the above (A) Docking (B) Flashing
2.118. Poor or lean lime (C) Soaking (D) Pugging
(A) slakes rapidly with considerable evolution of heat 2.126. The advantage of adding pozzolana (or surkhi) to
(B) takes very long time to develop adequate strength lime is to
(C) has high plasticity (A) reduce shrinkage
(D) none of the above (B) increase resistance to cracking
2.119. Rich or fat lime (C) increase resistance to chemical attack
(A) slakes rapidly with considerable evolution of heat (D) all of the above
(B) takes very long time to develop adequate strength 2.127. The commonly used lime in white washing is
(C) has high plasticity (A) quick lime (B) fat lime
(D) all of the above (C) lean lime (D) hydraulic lime

Answer key
Page No
7
2.128. The lime mortar is made from 2.134. Which one of the following lime will be used for
(A) quick lime (B) fat lime finishing coat in plastering and white washing?
(C) lean lime (D) hydraulic lime (A) Semi Hydraulic lime
2.129. For the construction of structures under water, the (B) Kankar lime
lime used is (C) Magnesium/Dolomitic lime
(A) Fat lime (B) Quick lime (D) Eminently Hydraulic lime
(C) Hydraulic lime (D) Pure lime 2.135. Lime putty
2.130. Quick lime on reaction with water gives (A) is made from hydraulic lime
(A) hydraulic lime (B) is made by adding lime to water
(B) slaked lime (C) can be used only upto three days
(C) hydrated lime (D) all of the above
(D) poor lime 2.136. Which of the following is the correct percentage of
2.131. Match the correct answer from Group B for the maximum moisture content based in sand where
statements given in Group A. change in volume is maximum?
Group A Group B (A) 5 % (B) 12 %
(a) Lime putty is obtained (A) quick lime (C) 9 % (D) 15 %
from 2.137. Why is lime added to cement slurry for the topcoat
(b) Slaked lime is obtained (B) fat lime of plastering? OR The main reason to use lime in the
from cement slurry during the plastering in the top coat,
(c) White lime is also called (C) hydrated lime is
(d) Lime produced by slaking (D) slaked lime
(A) To improve the strength of plaster
burnt limestone is
(B) To stiffen the plaster
(A) a-D, b-A, c-B, d-C (C) To smoothen the plaster for ease of spread
(B) a-A, b-B, c-C, d-D (D) To make the plaster non-shrinkable
(C) a-D, b-A, c-C, d-B 2.138. The hydraulicity of the hydraulic lime is mainly due
(D) a-A, b-B, c-D, d-C to
2.132. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer (A) calcium oxide (B) clay
using the code given below the lists: (C) sulphur (D) water
List I List II 2.139. The constituent in lime which retard the slaking
a. Fat lime 1. Calcinated dolomite stone action and increase the rapidity of setting, is
b. Hydraulic lime 2. Calcined limestone (A) silica (B) sulphate
c. Quicklime 3. Kankar
(C) alkalies (D) alumina
d. Non-hydraulic 4. Sea shells lime
2.140. Which of the following statements is / are correct
(A) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1 for limes used in construction?
(B) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3 i. Hydraulic lime is used for structural purpose
(C) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3 ii. Fat lime is used for white washing and plastering
(D) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3 and composite mortars (with pozzolanic
2.133. Hydraulic lime generates ______ heat as compared to material)
fat lime. iii. Siliceous dolomitic lime is used for under coat
(A) same (B) less and finishing coats of plasters
(C) more (D) None (A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer key
Page No
8
2.141. Which of the following type of lime is manufactured 2.148. The modulus of rupture of hydraulic lime: mortar (28
by burning marble, white chalk, calcareous tufa, days curing) should NOT be less: than:
pure lime stone, sea shell and coral? (A) 1 N/mm2 (B) 2 N/mm2
(A) Hydraulic lime (C) 2.5 N/mm2 (D) 3.0 N/mm2
(B) Fat lime 2.149. One of the main demerits in using the lime mortar is
(C) Hydrated lime that it:
(D) Lump lime (A) is not durable (B) does not set quickly
2.142. The process of heating the lime stone to redness in (C) swells (D) is plastic
contact with air is termed- 2.150. Consider the following statements about lime
(A) carbonation (B) oxidation 1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
(C) hydration (D) calcination 2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is
2.143. Hydraulic lime is obtained by : hydraulic lime
(A) Burning of lime stone 3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime
(B) Burning of Kankar with water.
(C) Adding water to quick lime Which of the above statements are correct?
(D) Calcination of pure clay (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only
2.144. Plaster of paris is obtained by calcining (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only
(A) Bauxite (B) Limestone 2.151. The main constituent of a Portland cement is
(C) Gypsum (D) Kanker (A) lime (B) alumina
2.145. Which one of the following classes of lime shall not (C) iron oxide (D) alkalies
be supplied as a quick lime? 2.152. The silica (SiO2) in Portland cement should be
(A) Class A (B) Class B (A) 10 to 20% (B) 20 to 25%
(C) Class C (D) Class D (C) 25 to 40% (D) 40 to 60%
2.146. In which classification the fat lime falls? 2.153. The main raw material for making cement is
(A) Class A (B) Class B (A) CaSO4 (B) MgO
(C) Class C (D) Class D (C) CaO (D) Fe2O3
HINT: AS per IS : 712 Bureau of Indian standard has 2.154. The dry process of mixing is usually employed in the
classified lime in to class A, B, C, D, E and F based on manufacture of Portland cement when the raw
the purpose of its use in construction. material is
• Class A — Eminently hydraulic lime (A) blast furnace slag (B) chalk
• Class B — Semi hydraulic lime (C) clay (D) all of these
• Class C — Fat lime 2.155. The clinker is formed at a temperature of
• Class D — Magnesium/Dolomite lime (A) 500ºC (B) 1000ºC
• Class E — Kankar lime (C) 1200ºC (D) 1500ºC
• Class F — Siliceous dolomite lime 2.156. The amount of gypsum, usually, added in the

2.147. Which of the following is a function of lime in brick manufacture of cement is

manufacturing? (A) 0.1 to 0.5% (B) 0.5 to 1%

(A) it helps silica in clay to melt in the furnace (C) 1 to 3% (D) 3 to 5%

(B) it absorbs water and renders the clay plastic 2.157. What is the permissible proportion of fly-ash, as

(C) it gives colour to the brick replacement to cement in concrete?

(D) it improves the brick’s impermeability (A) 85% (B) 65%

(C) 45% (D) 25%

Answer key
Page No
9
2.158. Which of the following is more sustainable cement? (B) during burning in the rotary kiln
(A) Ordinary Portland cement (C) at the beginning of grinding the clinker
(B) Rapid hardening cement (D) at the end of grinding the clinker into powder
(C) Cement in combination with fly ash 2.166. Gypsum is added in the manufacture of Portland
(D) Cement in combination with fly ash and blast cement in order to
furnace slag (A) shorten the setting time of cement
2.159. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true? (B) lengthen the setting time of cement
(i) the size of the mould for testing the compressive (C) decrease the burning temperature
strength of concrete is 150 mm (D) decrease the grinding time
(ii) the size of the mould for testing the compressive 2.167. To retard the initial setting time of cement, the
strength of cement is 70.6 mm compound responsible is OR
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) The most commonly used retarder in cement is
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) (A) Tricalcium silicate (B) Gypsum
2.160. Which of the following compounds of portland (C) Dicalcium silicate (D) Tricalcium aluminate
cement reacts immediately with water and sets 2.168. The cementing property in cement is mainly due to
early? (A) lime (B) silica
(A) dicalcium silicate (C) iron oxide (D) alumina
(B) tetra calcium alumino ferrite 2.169. The setting and hardening of cement paste is mainly
(C) triclacium aluminate due to the hydration and hydrolysis of
(D) tricalcium silicate (A) tri-calcium silicate (B) di-calcium silicate
2.161. In the foundation of abutments or dams, most (C) tri-calcium aluminate (D) all of the above
suitable cement is 2.170. The compound responsible for the initial setting of
(A) Ordinary Portland cement cement, is
(B) Rapid hardening cement (A) tri-calcium aluminate
(C) High alumina cement (B) tetra-calcium alumino ferrite
(D) Low heat Portland cement (C) both (A) and (B)
2.162. The percentage of sulphur trioxide in ordinary (D) none of the above
portland cement is 2.171. The ultimate strength of cement is provided by
(A) 3.5 % to 9 % (B) 17 % to 25 % (A) silica (B) di-calcium silicate
(C) 1 % to 2 % (D) 60 % to 65 % (C) tri-calcium silicate (D) b and c both
2.163. A very small of amount of ........... is useful in making 2.172. Which compound of cement is responsible for the
sound cement. If it is in excess, it causes the cement strength of cement?
to become unsound (A) Silica (B) Magnesium Oxide
(A) iron oxide (B) silica (C) Calcium sulphate (D) Alumina
(C) sulphur (D) alkali 2.173. What will be the bulk volume of one bag of Portland
2.164. The minimum quantity of cement per meter cube of Cement of 50 kgs?
reinforced concrete for mild exposure is (A) 35 lit (B) 45 lit (C) 55 lit (D) 65 lit
(A) 150 kg (B) 250 kg 2.174. For underwater construction ,.......... cement is used.
(C) 350 kg (D) 300 kg (A) ordinary portland
2.165. Gypsum is added in the manufacture of Portland (B) expensive
cement (C) quick setting
(A) while mixing the raw materials (D) None

Answer key
Page No
10
2.175. A good quality cement should have higher (C) adding gypsum after grinding
percentage of (D) burning the mixture at a lower temperature
(A) silica 2.184. The fineness of cement is tested by
(B) free lime (A) air-permeability method
(C) di-calcium silicate (B) Le-chatelier method
(D) tri-calcium silicate (C) Vicat’s apparatus
2.176. The strength of white cement is ................. that of (D) all of the above
ordinary cement. 2.185. The soundness of cement is tested by OR
(A) equal to The apparatus used for finding the soundness of
(B) less than cement
(C) greater than (A) air permeability method (B) Le-chatelier method
(D) None (C) Vicat’s apparatus (D) all of the above
2.177. The percentage of the slag component of Portland 2.186. Soundness of cement means _______.
slag cement varies from (A) Passing of sound waves through concrete
(A) 10 to 40% (B) 40 to 70% (B) Minimum volume change after setting
(C) 70 to 80% (D) 80 to 90% (C) Heat insulation
2.178. The approximate calcium oxide composition limits (D) Early strength gain
of ordinary portland cement is 2.187. Which of the following is not a test for measuring the
(A) 60 – 67% (B) 17 – 25% workability of concrete?
(C) 3 – 8% (D) 0.1 – 4% (A) Slump test (B) Flow test
2.179. Main ingredients of Portland cement are (C) Le Chatelier’s Test (D) Compaction factor test
(A) Lime and Alumina (B) Lime and Silica 2.188. The diameter of the Vicat plunger is 10 mm and its
(C) Silica and MgO (D) Silica and Alumina length varies from
2.180. The rapid hardening Portland cement has a (A) 20 mm to 30 mm (B) 30 mm to 40 mm
(A) lower heat of hydration (C) 40 mm to 50 mm (D) 50 mm to 60 mm
(B) higher heat of hydration 2.189. The initial and final setting time of the Ordinary
(C) lower shrinkage coefficient Portland Cement is
(D) higher shrinkage coefficient (A) Less than 30 minutes and Less than 600 minutes
2.181. The fast-setting Portland cement is obtained by (B) More than 30 minutes and More than 600 minutes
_____ (C) More than 30 minutes and Less than 600 minutes
(A) grinding the clinker to a fine powder (D) Less than 30 minutes and More than 600 minutes
(B) mixing in calcium sulfate 2.190. Vicat’s apparatus is used to determine the
(C) adding gypsum after grinding (A) initial setting time of cement
(D) burning the mix at a lower temperature (B) final setting time of cement
2.182. The initial setting of cement is caused due to (C) normal consistency of cement
(A) di-calcium silicate (D) all of the above
(B) tri-calcium silicate 2.191. Vicat’s apparatus is used to measure
(C) tri-calcium aluminate (A) Soundness of cement
(D) tri-calcium alumino ferrite (B) Consistency of cement
2.183. The rapid hardening Portland cement is obtained by (C) Fineness of cement
(A) grinding the clinker to a high degree of fineness (D) Shrinkage of cement
(B) adding calcium sulphate to the mixture

Answer key
Page No
11
2.192. The Vicat apparatus is used for finding the _______ 2.199. Which of the following test is not used for testing
cement. fineness of cement?
(A) Initial setting time (B) Soundness (A) Air permeability test
(C) Fineness (D) Slump value (B) Wagner Turbidimeter method
2.193. The apparatus used for finding the setting time of (C) Density bottle method
cement is (D) Sieve method
(A) Vicat Apparatus (B) Le-Chatelier Apparatus 2.200. The specific gravity of cement is generally about
(C) Blaine's Apparatus (D) Viscometer Apparatus (A) 2.7 (B) 3.15
2.194. Le-chatelier method is used to determine (C) 4.56 (D) 7.85
(A) initial setting of cement 2.201. The expansion of cement should not exceed
(B) fineness of cement ................. for any type of Portland cement. OR
(C) soundness of cement Low heat Portland cement shall not have an
(D) normal consistency of cement expansion of more than
2.195. Which of the following pairs of cement test and (A) 5 mm (B) 10 mm
equipment used in that test is not correctly (C) 15 mm (D) 20 mm
matched? 2.202. The normal consistency of Portland cement is about
(A) Soundness test – Le Chatelier's apparatus (A) 10% (B) 15%
(B) Fineness test – Le Chatelier's apparatus (C) 20% (D) 25%
(C) Consistency test – Vicat’s Apparatus 2.203. If P is the standard consistency of cement, the
(D) Setting time test – Vicat’s Apparatus amount of water used in conducting the initial
2.196. The diameter of a cylinder in the Le-chatetier setting time test on cement is
apparatus for conducting soundness test is (A) 0.6 P (B) 0.8 P
(A) 22 mm (B) 30 mm (C) 0.65 P (D) 0.85 P
(C) 35 mm (D) 40 mm 2.204. The initial setting time of rapid hardening cement
2.197. Which one of the following statements regarding should not be less than
the cement fineness is NOT correct? (A) 30 min (B) 1 hour
(A) Fine cement is more liable to suffer from shrinkage (C) 4 hours (D) 8 hours
cracking than coarse cement. 2.205. The final setting time of ordinary cement should not
(B) Fine cement will show a faster rate of hardening be more than
than coarse cement. (A) 2 hours (B) 4 hours
(C) Fine cement shows a faster rate of heat evolution (C) 8 hours (D) 10 hours
and the total quantity of heat evolved is much larger 2.206. The addition of pozzolana to Portland cement
than coarse cement. causes
(D) Fine cement shows the same setting time as coarse (A) less heat of hydration
cement. (B) increase in shrinkage
2.198. If in an application, higher ultimate strength is (C) decrease in permeability
desired, then which of the cements is most suitable? (D) all of the above
(A) Cement that has a higher C 3S content 2.207. The maximum quantity of water per 50 kg of cement
(B) Cement that has a higher C 2S content for M20 nominal mix concrete is
(C) Cement that has a higher C3A content (A) 30 liters (B) 34 liters
(D) Cement that has very little gypsum (C) 42 liters (D) 50 liters

Answer key
Page No
12
2.208. The rate of hydration and hydrolysis of cement 2.218. Which of the following statement is correct ?
depends upon its (A) The sand used for making mortar should be fine.
(A) soundness (B) fineness (B) The rounded grains of sand produce a strong
(C) setting time (D) tensile strength mortar.
2.209. Four bags of cement (50 kg each) will require ........... (C) The mortar made with coarse sand is stronger than
litres of water the one made with fine stand.
(A) 20 (B) 40 (C) 90 (D) 150 (D) all of the above
2.210. The percentage of the residue left after sieving good 2.219. Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?
Portland cement in 90 micron sieve should not (A) Grade 43 cement – Used in plastering and flooring
exceed (B) Grade 33 cement – Used in RCC work of multi-storey
(A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 20% (D) 30% building
2.211. The expansion in Portland cement can be tested by (C) Grade 53 cement – compressive strength is 53
(A) fineness test N/mm3 (28 days)
(B) soundness test (D) Portland puzzolana cement (PPC) – used in mass
(C) setting time test concrete and marine structure
(D) normal consistency test 2.220. For R.C.C. construction, the maximum size of coarse
2.212. Soundness test of cement is carried out to aggregate is limited to
determine (A) 10 mm (B) 15 mm
(A) free lime content (C) 20 mm (D) 25 mm
(B) durability under sea water 2.221. The density of a good concrete should be about
(C) alumina content (A) 6 kN/m3 (B) 12 kN/m3
(D) iron oxide content (C) 18 kN/m3 (D) 24 kN/m3
2.213. The specific surface (in cm 2/g) of a good Portland 2.222. Consolidation of concrete should proceed
cement should not be less than (A) before mixing
(A) 500 (B) 1100 (C) 2250 (D) 3200 (B) before placing
2.214. The expansion of Portland cement is caused by (C) immediately after mixing
(A) free lime (B) magnesia (D) immediately after placing
(C) silica (D) both (B) and (C) 2.223. The workability of cement concrete can be improved
2.215. The compressive strength of a good Portland by
cement and standard sand mortar after 3 days of (A) increasing the quantity of cement
curing should not be less than (B) increasing the proportion of coarse aggregate
(A) 7 MN/m2 (B) 11.5 MN/m2 (C) increasing the quantity of sand
(C) 17.5 MN/m 2
(D) 21 MN/m 2
(D) all of the above
2.216. The approximate Calcium oxide composition limits 2.224. The durability of concrete is proportional to
of Ordinary Portland cement is (A) sand content
(A) 60 – 67% (B) 17 – 25% (B) water-cement ratio
(C) 3 – 8% (D) 0.1 – 4% (C) cement-aggregate ratio
2.217. The sand is mixed with lime mortar to (D) aggregate-water ratio
(A) reduce cost 2.225. The maximum water-cement ratio for durable
(B) reduce setting time concrete is
(C) improve strength (A) 0.2 (B) 0.4
(D) prevent shrinkage and cracking (C) 0.6 (D) 0.8

Answer key
Page No
13
2.226. A Reinforced concrete structure has to be 2.235. Which of the following property of the concrete is
constructed along sea coast. The minimum grade of determined using a compaction factor test?
concrete to be used as per IS 456-2000 (A) Workability of concrete
(A) M15 (B) M20 (B) Strength of concrete
(C) M25 (D) M30 (C) Density of concrete
2.227. Dynamic formulae cannot be used to obtain load (D) Porosity of concrete
carrying capacity in 2.236. The strength of cement concrete increases with
(A) Uniform fine sand (B) Free draining sand (A) increase in the size of aggregate
(C) Hard clays (D) None of the above (B) increase in the temperature of water of curing
2.228. What causes bulking of sand? (C) increase in the size of aggregate
(A) Clay Content (B) Air Voids (D) all of the above
(C) Viscosity (D) Surface Moisture 2.237. The density of concrete ................. with increase in
2.229. The durability of cement concrete is usually the size of aggregate.
improved by (A) does not change (B) increases
(A) increasing the quantity of coarse sand (C) decreases (D) none
(B) increasing the quantity of cement 2.238. The shrinkage of concrete
(C) decreasing the water-cement ratio (A) is proportional to contents of cement
(D) decreasing the proportion of fine aggregate (B) is directly proportional to water contents at the
2.230. Which of the following statement is true? time of mixing
(A) workability reduces with time (C) increases with increase in the percentage of
(B) workability does not reduce with time concrete
(C) workability remains constant with time (D) all of the above
(D) none of the above 2.239. The shrinkage of concrete ................. its bond
2.231. The unit of payment of cement concrete in lintel strength.
work is (A) does not change (B) increases
(A) per m (B) per m 2
(C) decreases
(C) per m 3
(D) None of the above 2.240. The shrinkage of ordinary concrete is about
2.232. The compaction of concrete improves (A) 0.1 to 0.3 mm/m (B) 0.3 to 0.6 mm/m
(A) density (B) strength (C) 0.6 to 1.2 mm/m (D) 1.2 to 2.1 mm/m
(C) durability (D) all of these 2.241. According to Indian standard specifications, the full
2.233. The workability of concrete for a given water strength of concrete is achieved after
content is good if the aggregates are (A) 7 days (B) 14 days
(A) rounded aggregate (C) 21 days (D) 28 days
(B) irregular aggregate 2.242. According to Indian standard specifications, the
(C) angular aggregate concrete should be cured under a humidity of
(D) flaky aggregate (A) 30% (B) 50%
2.234. Which of the following decreases the workability of (C) 70% (D) 90%
concrete? 2.243. According to Indian standard specifications, the
(A) Well graded aggregate temperature for curing is
(B) Air entraining admixture (A) 5ºC (B) 10ºC
(C) Angular aggregates (C) 27ºC (D) 42ºC
(D) Rounded aggregates

Answer key
Page No
14
2.244. The slump test of concrete is used to measure its 2.253. The cement and water slurry coming on top and
(A) consistency setting on the surface is called
(B) tensile and compressive strength (A) Efflorescence (B) Laitance
(C) impact value (C) Honey-combing (D) Crazing
(D) homogeneity 2.254. Which defect is likely to develop in case concrete is
2.245. The tensile strength of concrete is nearly ......... of its not placed properly?
compressive strength (A) Hair cracks
(A) 2 % (B) 5-10 % (B) Separation of ingredients
(C) 15 % (D) 30 % (C) Segregation
2.246. When using mechanical compactor, the slump of (D) all of the above
concrete should not exceed 2.255. The central part of a tree is called
(A) 20 mm (B) 30 mm (A) heart wood (B) pith
(C) 40 mm (D) 50 mm (C) sap wood (D) cambium layer
2.247. The coefficient of thermal expansion of cement 2.256. The inner annular rings surrounding the central
concrete portion or core of a tree is
(A) 3 × 10–4 per°C (B) 3 × 10–5 per°C (A) medullary rays
(C) 3 × 10 per°C
–6
(D) 3 × 10 per°C
–8
(B) sapwood
2.248. The compound which is responsible for early (C) pith
strength of concrete is (D) heart wood
(A) C3S (B) C2S (C) C3A (D) C4AF 2.257. The defect in timber caused due to over-maturity
2.249. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a and unventilated storage of the wood during its
(A) thermosetting material transit, is called
(B) thermoplastic material (A) knot (B) rind gall
(C) elasto-plastic material (C) foxiness (D) heart shake
(D) rigid plastic material 2.258. The defect in timber caused by imperfect seasoning,
2.250. During the process of hydration of cement, due to is called
increase in Dicalcium Silicate (C2S) content in cement (A) wet rot (B) dry rot
clinker, the heat of hydration (C) honeycombing (D) cup shake
(A) increases 2.259. Seasoning of timber
(B) initially decreases and then increases (A) increases the weight of timber
(C) decreases (B) improves strength properties of timber
(D) does not change (C) does not give dimensional stability
2.251. If the slump of a concrete mix is 60 mm, its (D) all of the above
workability is considered to be 2.260. Seasoning of timber is done for removing __________
(A) low (B) medium from timber
(C) high (D) very high (A) knots (B) sap
2.252. The development of hair like cracks usually in an (C) roughness (D) None
irregular pattern caused by the shrinkage of 2.261. The age of a tree can be known by examining
concrete surface is called as (A) cambium layer
(A) Blistering (B) Cracking (B) annular rings
(C) Crazing (D) Laitance (C) medullary rays
(D) heart wood

Answer key
Page No
15
2.262. The purpose of seasoning of timber is to 2.271. Which of the following timber defects is not
(A) change the direction of grains evaluated quantitatively for units of defects?
(B) remove voids (A) Rot (B) Spiral Grain
(C) reduce moisture content (C) Pitch Pocket (D) Curvature
(D) all of the above 2.272. Which of the following is not an objective of
2.263. The moisture content in timber for framework seasoning the timber?
should not exceed (A) Reduction of the weight of the timber
(A) 5% (B) 10% (B) Rectifying the natural defects in the timber
(C) 15% (D) 20% (C) Increase in the strength and durability of the timber
2.264. Which of the following seasoning method is adopted (D) Reduction in the shrinkage and warping of the
for the rapid seasoning of timber on large scale to timber
obtain any desired moisture context? 2.273. Seasoning of timber is done for
(A) Air seasoning (B) Boiling process (A) Increasing moisture content
(C) Kiln seasoning (D) Water seasoning (B) Decreasing moisture content
2.265. The time required for air seasoning of soft wood is (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) 15 to 30 days (B) 30 to 60 days (D) None of the above
(C) 60 to 90 days (D) 90 to 120 days 2.274. Seasoning of timber is required to
2.266. The time required for seasoning of timber in kiln (A) soften the timber
seasoning is (B) harden the timber
(A) 2 to 5 days (B) 5 to 10 days (C) straighten the timber
(C) 10 to 20 days (D) 20 to 40 days (D) remove sap from the timber
2.267. The timber whose thickness is less than 5 cm and the 2.275. Timber can be made fire-resistant by
width exceeds 12 cm, is called a (A) dipping and steeping process
(A) board (B) plank (B) Sir Abel’s process
(C) batten (D) log (C) charring
2.268. As per Indian Standard Code for Timber Panelled and (D) hot and cold open tank treatment
Glazed Shutters, Tolerances on the sizes of door 2.276. Tensile strength of timber parallel to the fibres is in
shutters shall be the range of
(A) ± 0.5 mm (B) ± 1 mm (A) 10 – 80 N/mm2 (B) 80 – 190 N/mm2
(C) ± 2 mm (D) ± 3 mm (C) 190 – 250 N/mm2 (D) 250 – 310 N/mm2
2.269. Which of the following is not an objective of 2.277. An assembled product made up of veneers and
seasoning timber? adhesives is called
(A) Reduction in shrinkage and warping (A) board (B) plank
(B) Reduction of weight (C) plywood (D) batten
(C) Increase in strength and durability 2.278. The thickness of five-ply sheet varies from
(D) Reduction of natural defects in timber (A) 3 to 6 mm (B) 6 to 9 mm
2.270. The strength of timber is maximum when load (C) 9 to 16 mm (D) 16 to 20 mm
applied is 2.279. The thickness of lamin boards vary from
(A) parallel to grain (A) 5 to 12 mm
(B) perpendicular to grain (B) 12 to 15 mm
(C) inclined at 45° to grain (C) 12 to 25 mm
(D) inclined at 60° to grain (D) 25 to 30 mm

Answer key
Page No
16
2.280. The wood generally used for railway sleepers is 2.292. Linseed oil is rapidly soluble in
(A) mango (B) kail (A) alcohol (B) turpentine
(C) babul (D) deodar (C) naptha (D) all of these
2.281. The chief ingredient of a paint is 2.293. The commonly used extender in a paint is
(A) alcohol (B) drier (A) barium sulphate
(C) oil (D) pigment (B) gypsum
2.282. The liquid medium used in oil paints is (C) alcohol
(A) thinner (B) alcohol (D) any one of these
(C) linseed oil (D) turpentine 2.294. The drier in an oil paint should not be more than
2.283. The pigment in paints is mixed to give desired ................. (by volume).
(A) smoothness (B) colour (A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 15% (D) 20%
(C) appearance (D) durability 2.295. The commonly used solvent in oil paints is
2.284. The liquid part of the paint is called (A) turpentine (B) naptha
(A) pigment (B) vehicle (C) either (A) or (B) (D) none of these
(C) solvent (D) drier 2.296. The best primer used for structural steel work is
2.285. The liquid medium used in enamel paints is (A) white lead (B) red lead
(A) thinner (B) alcohol (C) zinc oxide (D) iron oxide
(C) turpentine (D) varnish 2.297. The vehicle used in bronze paints is usually
2.286. The metallic oxide used in the form of powder in a (A) linseed oil (B) naptha
paint is called (C) water (D) nitro-cellulose lacquer
(A) extender (B) base 2.298. Bituminous paint consists of bitumen dissolved in
(C) vehicle (D) drier (A) spirit (B) naptha
2.287. The base in a paint is added to (C) linseed oil (D) either (A) or (B)
(A) improve the quality of paint 2.299. The bitumen paints are used for providing .................
(B) make smooth surface surface.
(C) hide the surface to be painted (A) rough (B) smooth
(D) all of the above (C) protective (D) None
2.288. The commonly base used in a paint is 2.300. The commonly used cement in cement paints is
(A) iron oxide (A) white cement
(B) zinc oxide (B) Portland cement
(C) titanium white (C) alumina cement
(D) any one of these (D) rapid hardening cement
2.289. The thinner used for oil paints is 2.301. Which of the following statements is incorrect for
(A) water (B) turpentine compressive strength of cement mortars?
(C) carbon tetrachloride (D) any one of these (A) Ordinary Portland Cement: Required Strength at 72
2.290. Linseed oil in paint is used as a hours is not less than 16 MPa
(A) base (B) thinner (B) Portland Slag Cement: Required Strength at 72
(C) carrier (D) pigment hours is not less than 16 MPa
2.291. Which of the following is used as a vehicle in the (C) Portland Pozzolana cement (Fly ash based):
enamel paints? Required Strength at 72 hours is not less than 16 MPa
(A) Linseed oil (B) Mustard oil (D) Rapid hardening Portland cement: Required
(C) Varnish (D) Water Strength at 72 hours is not less than 16 MPa

Answer key
Page No
17
2.302. Which of the following is not an ingredient of the 2.312. The most durable varnish is
Epoxy Mortar? (A) water varnish
(A) Resin (B) Hardener (B) spirit varnish
(C) Silica sand (D) Cement (C) turpentine varnish
2.303. A mortar for which both cement and lime are mixed (D) oil varnish
is called 2.313. Distemper is used on
(A) lime mortar (B) gauged mortar (A) brick walls
(C) cement mortar (D) light weight mortar (B) concrete surfaces
2.304. The solvent used in cement paints is (C) plastered surfaces exposed to weather
(A) thinner (B) turpentine (D) plastered surfaces not exposed to weather
(C) water (D) spirit 2.314. The base material for distemper is
2.305. With reference to paints, Barium Sulphate is the (A) chalk (B) lime
best (C) clay (D) lime putty
(A) vehicle (B) pigment 2.315. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(C) drier (D) adultrant (A) Stains used as paints have synthetic pigments.
2.306. Detachment of paint film from the surface is known (B) Stucco paints contain polyvinyl acetate.
as (C) The solvent used in distempers is turpentine.
(A) flaking (B) chalking (D) all of the above
(C) blooming (D) grinning 2.316. Quick sand is
2.307. The property described by the word ‘Intumescent’ in (A) a type of sand
Intumescent Painting is (B) a condition in which a cohesion less soil loses its
(A) Swelling (B) Efflorescence strength because of upward flow of water
(C) Ductility (D) Workability (C) a condition in which a cohesive soil loses its strength
2.308. Enamel paint is made by adding (D) none of the above
(A) white lead in varnish 2.317. Caliche is a type of soil which contains
(B) bitumen in varnish (i) Gravel (ii) Sand (iii) Silt
(C) white lead in lacquer (A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(D) zinc white in spirit (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
2.309. The paint which has high reflective property is 2.318. Skempton’s bearing capacity theory is valid for
(A) cellulose paint (B) casein paint (A) Clayey soils (B) Sandy soils
(C) bronze paint (D) enamel paint (C) Silty soils (D) Gravel soils
2.310. Which of the following paint is highly resistant to 2.319. The notation “SC” as per Indian Standard Soil
fire ? Classification System refers to
(A) Cement paint (A) Clayey silt (B) Sandy clay
(B) Asbestos paint (C) Clayey sand (D) Silty clay
(C) Aluminium paint 2.320. Negative skin friction in a soil is considered when the
(D) Enamel paint pile is constructed through a
2.311. Spirit varnish consists of (A) filled material
(A) spirit and wax (B) dense coarse sand
(B) spirit and shellac (C) over consolidated stiff clay
(C) turpentine, spirit and wax (D) dense fine sand
(D) turpentine, spirit and shellac

Answer key
Page No
18
2.321. The maximum bulking of sand is likely to occur at a 2.327. M20 grade of concrete has the following proportion
moisture content of of the ingredients of cement, sand and coarse
(A) 5% (B) 8% aggregates.
(C) 11% (D) 15% (A) 1: 2 :4 (B) 1: 1.5: 3
2.322. The effective size of sand particles for rapid sand (C) 1: 4: 8 (D) 1:1.25:2.5
filters varies from 2.328. Mortar used for construction work in waterlogged
(A) 0.20 to 0.30 mm areas & exposed positions is of proportion
(B) 0.35 to 0.55 mm (A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 4
(C) 0.60 to 0.65 mm 2.329. What is the primary purpose of conducting a
(D) 0.65 to 0.75 mm stripping test on aggregates?
2.323. Akshardham temple in Gandhinagar is built (A) To determine the compressive strength of the
primarily using aggregates.
(A) Granite and marble (B) To evaluate the resistance of aggregates to
(B) Sandstone and iron weathering.
(C) Pink sandstone and marble (C) To assess the potential of aggregates to lose their
(D) Limestone and granite coating of bitumen when exposed to water.
2.324. The process in which cement slurry is injected in the (D) To measure the specific gravity of the aggregates
fractured rock is called _______ 2.330. Which of the following can be done for increasing the
(A) Grouting (B) Shotcreting workability of concrete?
(C) Rock bolting (D) Vitrification i. alter the proportion of fine sand and coarse sand
2.325. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for ii. decrease the quantity of water
Guniting? iii. use angular aggregates
i. It is a damp-proofing technique that uses (A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii)
pressure to apply a thick cement mortar layer to (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
exposed walls and pipe surfaces.
ii. Typically, 1:3 cement-to-sand mortar is utilised
for this purpose
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
2.326. Match the correct ones for various types of mortars:
1. Lime-pozzolana mixture mortar
2. Lime Mortar
3. Cement Mortar
4. Cement -lime Mortar
a. Should be used within 0.5 hours of mixing
b. Should be used within 2 hours of mixing
c. Should be used within 4 hrs to 12 hrs of mixing
d. Should be used within 4 hrs to 24 hrs of mixing
(A) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d (B) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - a, 4 - b
(C) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - a (D) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c

Answer key
Page No
19